Public Act 0417 104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB2394 Enrolled LRB104 09208 AMC 19265 b

Public Act 104-0417

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2025 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 103-584 through 103-1059 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by changing Section 1.33 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/1.33) (from Ch. 1, par. 1034)

Sec. 1.33. Whenever there is a reference in any Act to the School Construction Bond Act, or the Illinois Coal and Energy Development Bond Act, such reference shall be interpreted to include the General Obligation Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 10. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.39 and 4.40 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.39)

Sec. 4.39. Acts and Section repealed on January 1, 2029 and December 31, 2029.

(a) The following Acts and Section are repealed on January 1, 2029:

The Electrologist Licensing Act.

The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act.

The Illinois Occupational Occupation Therapy Practice Act.

The Crematory Regulation Act.

The Illinois Public Accounting Act.

The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.

The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004.

The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.

(b) The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2029:

The Structural Pest Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-251, eff. 6-30-23; 103-253, eff. 6-30-23; 103-309, eff. 7-28-23; 103-387, eff. 7-28-23; 103-505, eff. 8-4-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-24-24.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.40)

Sec. 4.40. Acts repealed on January 1, 2030. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2030:

The Auction License Act.

The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act.

The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989.

The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984.

The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989.

The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act.

The Perfusionist Practice Act.

The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

The Real Estate License Act of 2000.

The Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-763, eff. 1-1-25; 103-816, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.35 rep.)

Section 12. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.35.

Section 15. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 5-45.52 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 5-45.55 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.52)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 4, 2025)

Sec. 5-45.52. Emergency rulemaking; Public Act 103-568. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 103-568, emergency rules implementing Public Act 103-568 may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on August 4, 2025 on December 8, 2024 (Public Act 103-568).

(Source: P.A. 103-568, eff. 12-8-23; 103-601, eff. 7-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 7-23-24.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 5-45.55. Emergency rulemaking; the Department of Natural Resources. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Section 13 of the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act, emergency rules implementing Section 13 of the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Natural Resources. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed January 1, 2026 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-905) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-905, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.58)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 5, 2025)

Sec. 5-45.58 5-45.55. Emergency rulemaking; Substance Use Disorder Act. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Section 55-30 of the Substance Use Disorder Act by Public Act 103-588 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to that Section by Public Act 103-588 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Human Services or other department essential to the implementation of the changes. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed June 5, 2025 (one year after the effective date of this Section).

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 10-3-24.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.59)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 7, 2025)

Sec. 5-45.59 5-45.55. Emergency rulemaking; Medicaid hospital rate updates. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Section 14-12.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 103-593 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made by Public Act 103-593 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to Section 14-12.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed June 7, 2025 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 103-593) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-593, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-7-24.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.60)

Sec. 5-45.60 5-45.55. Emergency rulemaking; Network Adequacy and Transparency Act. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act, emergency rules implementing federal standards for provider ratios, travel time and distance, and appointment wait times if such standards apply to health insurance coverage regulated by the Department of Insurance and are more stringent than the State standards extant at the time the final federal standards are published may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Insurance. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

Section 20. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmitted infection or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmitted Infection Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 2-3.196 of the School Code.

(mmm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(nnn) Materials received by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity that are confidential under the Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act.

(ooo) (nnn) Data or information provided pursuant to Section 20 of the Statewide Recycling Needs and Assessment Act.

(ppp) (nnn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 28-11 of the Lawful Health Care Activity Act.

(qqq) (nnn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 7-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(rrr) (mmm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4-2 of the Uniform Money Transmission Modernization Act.

(sss) (nnn) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 40 of the Student-Athlete Endorsement Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-636, eff. 7-1-24; 103-724, eff. 1-1-25; 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; 103-859, eff. 8-9-24; 103-991, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1049, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 25. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 1605)

Sec. 5. Illinois Labor Relations Board; State Panel; Local Panel.

(a) There is created the Illinois Labor Relations Board. The Board shall be comprised of 2 panels, to be known as the State Panel and the Local Panel.

(a-5) The State Panel shall have jurisdiction over collective bargaining matters between employee organizations and the State of Illinois, excluding the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, between employee organizations and units of local government and school districts with a population not in excess of 2 million persons, and between employee organizations and the Regional Transportation Authority.

The State Panel shall consist of 5 members appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Governor shall appoint to the State Panel only persons who have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations in representing public employers, private employers, or labor organizations; or teaching labor or employment relations; or administering executive orders or regulations applicable to labor or employment relations. At the time of his or her appointment, each member of the State Panel shall be an Illinois resident. The Governor shall designate one member to serve as the Chairman of the State Panel and the Board.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the term of each member of the State Panel who was appointed by the Governor and is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the successor members to be appointed pursuant to Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later. As soon as possible, the Governor shall appoint persons to fill the vacancies created by this amendatory Act.

The initial appointments under Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be for terms as follows: The Chairman shall initially be appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2007; 2 members shall be initially appointed for terms ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2006; one member shall be initially appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2005; and one member shall be initially appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2004. Each subsequent member shall be appointed for a term of 4 years, commencing on the 4th Monday in January. Upon expiration of the term of office of any appointive member, that member shall continue to serve until a successor shall be appointed and qualified. In case of a vacancy, a successor shall be appointed to serve for the unexpired portion of the term. If the Senate is not in session at the time the initial appointments are made, the Governor shall make temporary appointments in the same manner successors are appointed to fill vacancies. A temporary appointment shall remain in effect no longer than 20 calendar days after the commencement of the next Senate session.

(b) The Local Panel shall have jurisdiction over collective bargaining agreement matters between employee organizations and units of local government with a population in excess of 2 million persons, but excluding the Regional Transportation Authority.

The Local Panel shall consist of one person appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate (or, if no such person is appointed, the Chairman of the State Panel) and two additional members, one appointed by the Mayor of the City of Chicago and one appointed by the President of the Cook County Board of Commissioners. Appointees to the Local Panel must have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations in representing public employers, private employers, or labor organizations; or teaching labor or employment relations; or administering executive orders or regulations applicable to labor or employment relations. Each member of the Local Panel shall be an Illinois resident at the time of his or her appointment. The member appointed by the Governor (or, if no such person is appointed, the Chairman of the State Panel) shall serve as the Chairman of the Local Panel.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the term of the member of the Local Panel who was appointed by the Governor and is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when his or her successor has been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later. As soon as possible, the Governor shall appoint a person to fill the vacancy created by this amendatory Act. The initial appointment under Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2007.

The initial appointments under Public Act 91-798 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly shall be for terms as follows: The member appointed by the Governor shall initially be appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2001; the member appointed by the President of the Cook County Board shall be initially appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2003; and the member appointed by the Mayor of the City of Chicago shall be initially appointed for a term ending on the 4th Monday in January, 2004. Each subsequent member shall be appointed for a term of 4 years, commencing on the 4th Monday in January. Upon expiration of the term of office of any appointive member, the member shall continue to serve until a successor shall be appointed and qualified. In the case of a vacancy, a successor shall be appointed by the applicable appointive authority to serve for the unexpired portion of the term.

(c) Three members of the State Panel shall at all times constitute a quorum. Two members of the Local Panel shall at all times constitute a quorum. A vacancy on a panel does not impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all of the powers of that panel. Each panel shall adopt an official seal which shall be judicially noticed. The salary of the Chairman of the State Panel shall be $82,429 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and that of the other members of the State and Local Panels shall be $74,188 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater.

(d) Each member shall devote his or her entire time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. No member shall hold any other public office or be employed as a labor or management representative by the State or any political subdivision of the State or of any department or agency thereof, or actively represent or act on behalf of an employer or an employee organization or an employer in labor relations matters. Any member of the State Panel may be removed from office by the Governor for inefficiency, neglect of duty, misconduct or malfeasance in office, and for no other cause, and only upon notice and hearing. Any member of the Local Panel may be removed from office by the applicable appointive authority for inefficiency, neglect of duty, misconduct or malfeasance in office, and for no other cause, and only upon notice and hearing.

(e) Each panel at the end of every State fiscal year shall make a report in writing to the Governor and the General Assembly, stating in detail the work it has done to carry out the policy of the Act in hearing and deciding cases and otherwise. Each panel's report shall include:

(1) the number of unfair labor practice charges filed during the fiscal year;

(2) the number of unfair labor practice charges resolved during the fiscal year;

(3) the total number of unfair labor charges pending before the Board at the end of the fiscal year;

(4) the number of unfair labor charge cases at the end of the fiscal year that have been pending before the Board between 1 and 100 days, 101 and 150 days, 151 and 200 days, 201 and 250 days, 251 and 300 days, 301 and 350 days, 351 and 400 days, 401 and 450 days, 451 and 500 days, 501 and 550 days, 551 and 600 days, 601 and 650 days, 651 and 700 days, and over 701 days;

(5) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases filed during the fiscal year;

(6) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases resolved during the fiscal year;

(7) the total number of representation cases and unit clarification cases pending before the Board at the end of the fiscal year;

(8) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases at the end of the fiscal year that have been pending before the Board between 1 and 120 days, 121 and 180 days, and over 180 days; and

(9) the Board's progress in meeting the timeliness goals established pursuant to the criteria in subsection (j) of Section 11 of this Act; the report shall include, but is not limited to:

(A) the average number of days taken to complete investigations and issue complaints, dismissals, or deferrals;

(B) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue decisions on appeals of dismissals or deferrals;

(C) the average number of days taken to schedule a hearing on complaints once issued;

(D) the average number of days taken to issue a recommended decision and order once the record is closed;

(E) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue final decisions on recommended decisions when where exceptions have been filed;

(F) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue final decisions decision on recommended decisions when no exceptions have been filed; and

(G) in cases where the Board was unable to meet the timeliness goals established in subsection (j) of Section 11, an explanation as to why the goal was not met.

(f) In order to accomplish the objectives and carry out the duties prescribed by this Act, a panel or its authorized designees may hold elections to determine whether a labor organization has majority status; investigate and attempt to resolve or settle charges of unfair labor practices; hold hearings in order to carry out its functions; develop and effectuate appropriate impasse resolution procedures for purposes of resolving labor disputes; require the appearance of witnesses and the production of evidence on any matter under inquiry; and administer oaths and affirmations. The panels shall sign and report in full an opinion in every case which they decide.

(g) Each panel may appoint or employ an executive director, attorneys, hearing officers, mediators, fact-finders, arbitrators, and such other employees as it may deem necessary to perform its functions. The governing boards shall prescribe the duties and qualifications of such persons appointed and, subject to the annual appropriation, fix their compensation and provide for reimbursement of actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The Board shall employ a minimum of 16 attorneys and 6 investigators.

(h) Each panel shall exercise general supervision over all attorneys which it employs and over the other persons employed to provide necessary support services for such attorneys. The panels shall have final authority in respect to complaints brought pursuant to this Act.

(i) The following rules and regulations shall be adopted by the panels meeting in joint session: (1) procedural rules and regulations which shall govern all Board proceedings; (2) procedures for election of exclusive bargaining representatives pursuant to Section 9, except for the determination of appropriate bargaining units; and (3) appointment of counsel pursuant to subsection (k) of this Section.

(j) Rules and regulations may be adopted, amended or rescinded only upon a vote of 5 of the members of the State and Local Panels meeting in joint session. The adoption, amendment, or rescission of rules and regulations shall be in conformity with the requirements of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(k) The panels in joint session shall promulgate rules and regulations providing for the appointment of attorneys or other Board representatives to represent persons in unfair labor practice proceedings before a panel. The regulations governing appointment shall require the applicant to demonstrate an inability to pay for or inability to otherwise provide for adequate representation before a panel. Such rules must also provide: (1) that an attorney may not be appointed in cases which, in the opinion of a panel, are clearly without merit; (2) the stage of the unfair labor proceeding at which counsel will be appointed; and (3) the circumstances under which a client will be allowed to select counsel.

(1) The panels in joint session may promulgate rules and regulations which allow parties in proceedings before a panel to be represented by counsel or any other representative of the party's choice.

(m) The Chairman of the State Panel shall serve as Chairman of a joint session of the panels. Attendance of at least 2 members of the State Panel and at least one member of the Local Panel, in addition to the Chairman, shall constitute a quorum at a joint session. The panels shall meet in joint session at least annually.

(Source: P.A. 103-856, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-21-24.)

(5 ILCS 315/15) (from Ch. 48, par. 1615)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 98-599, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 15. Act takes precedence Takes Precedence.

(a) In case of any conflict between the provisions of this Act and any other law (other than Section 5 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 and other than the changes made to the Illinois Pension Code by Public Act 96-889 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly), executive order or administrative regulation relating to wages, hours and conditions of employment and employment relations, the provisions of this Act or any collective bargaining agreement negotiated thereunder shall prevail and control. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to replace or diminish the rights of employees established by Sections 28 and 28a of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, Sections 2.15 through 2.19 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act. The provisions of this Act are subject to Section 5 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to replace the necessity of complaints against a sworn peace officer, as defined in Section 2(a) of the Uniform Peace Officers' Officer Disciplinary Act, from having a complaint supported by a sworn affidavit.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (a) above, any collective bargaining contract between a public employer and a labor organization executed pursuant to this Act shall supersede any contrary statutes, charters, ordinances, rules or regulations relating to wages, hours and conditions of employment and employment relations adopted by the public employer or its agents. Any collective bargaining agreement entered into prior to the effective date of this Act shall remain in full force during its duration.

(c) It is the public policy of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that the provisions of this Act are the exclusive exercise by the State of powers and functions which might otherwise be exercised by home rule units. Such powers and functions may not be exercised concurrently, either directly or indirectly, by any unit of local government, including any home rule unit, except as otherwise authorized by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-889, eff. 1-1-11; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 30. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Sections 3, 6.11, and 10 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 6.11D as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 523)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases as used in this Act shall have the following meanings. The Department may define these and other words and phrases separately for the purpose of implementing specific programs providing benefits under this Act.

(a) "Administrative service organization" means any person, firm, or corporation experienced in the handling of claims which is fully qualified, financially sound, and capable of meeting the service requirements of a contract of administration executed with the Department.

(b) "Annuitant" means (1) an employee who retires, or has retired, on or after January 1, 1966 on an immediate annuity under the provisions of Articles 2, 14 (including an employee who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity or who meets the criteria for retirement, but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 14-147.5 of that Article), 15 (including an employee who has retired under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2 or who meets the criteria for retirement but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 15-185.5 of the Article), paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 (including an employee who meets the criteria for retirement, but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code), or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) any person who was receiving group insurance coverage under this Act as of March 31, 1978 by reason of his status as an annuitant, even though the annuity in relation to which such coverage was provided is a proportional annuity based on less than the minimum period of service required for a retirement annuity in the system involved; (3) any person not otherwise covered by this Act who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code; (4) the spouse of any person who is receiving a retirement annuity under Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code and who is covered under a group health insurance program sponsored by a governmental employer other than the State of Illinois and who has irrevocably elected to waive his or her coverage under this Act and to have his or her spouse considered as the "annuitant" under this Act and not as a "dependent"; or (5) an employee who retires, or has retired, from a qualified position, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director, under a qualified local government, a qualified rehabilitation facility, a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or a qualified child advocacy center. (For definition of "retired employee", see subsection (p) post).

(b-5) (Blank).

(b-6) (Blank).

(b-7) (Blank).

(c) "Carrier" means (1) an insurance company, a corporation organized under the Limited Health Service Organization Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, a partnership, or other nongovernmental organization, which is authorized to do group life or group health insurance business in Illinois, or (2) the State of Illinois as a self-insurer.

(d) "Compensation" means salary or wages payable on a regular payroll by the State Treasurer on a warrant of the State Comptroller out of any State, trust or federal fund, or by the Governor of the State through a disbursing officer of the State out of a trust or out of federal funds, or by any Department out of State, trust, federal, or other funds held by the State Treasurer or the Department, to any person for personal services currently performed, and ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, or benefits payable under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act or benefits payable under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Compensation" also means salary or wages paid to an employee of any qualified local government, qualified rehabilitation facility, qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or qualified child advocacy center.

(e) "Commission" means the State Employees Group Insurance Advisory Commission authorized by this Act. Commencing July 1, 1984, "Commission" as used in this Act means the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability as established by the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(f) "Contributory", when referred to as contributory coverage, shall mean optional coverages or benefits elected by the member toward the cost of which such member makes contribution, or which are funded in whole or in part through the acceptance of a reduction in earnings or the foregoing of an increase in earnings by an employee, as distinguished from noncontributory coverage or benefits which are paid entirely by the State of Illinois without reduction of the member's salary.

(g) "Department" means any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court, or any agency of the State government receiving appropriations and having power to certify payrolls to the Comptroller authorizing payments of salary and wages against such appropriations as are made by the General Assembly from any State fund, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer and includes boards of trustees of the retirement systems created by Articles 2, 14, 15, 16, and 18 of the Illinois Pension Code. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, the Board of Examiners established under the Illinois Public Accounting Act, and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(h) "Dependent", when the term is used in the context of the health and life plan, means a member's spouse and any child (1) from birth to age 26, including an adopted child, a child who lives with the member from the time of the placement for adoption until entry of an order of adoption, a stepchild or adjudicated child, or a child who lives with the member if such member is a court appointed guardian of the child or (2) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child dependent). For the health plan only, the term "dependent" also includes (1) any person enrolled prior to the effective date of this Section who is dependent upon the member to the extent that the member may claim such person as a dependent for income tax deduction purposes and (2) any person who has received after June 30, 2000 an organ transplant and who is financially dependent upon the member and eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes. A member requesting to cover any dependent must provide documentation as requested by the Department of Central Management Services and file with the Department any and all forms required by the Department.

(i) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Central Management Services.

(j) "Eligibility period" means the period of time a member has to elect enrollment in programs or to select benefits without regard to age, sex, or health.

(k) "Employee" means and includes each officer or employee in the service of a department who (1) receives his compensation for service rendered to the department on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a department or on a warrant or check issued and drawn by a department upon a trust, federal or other fund or on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by an elected or duly appointed officer of the State or who receives payment of the performance of personal services on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a Department and drawn by the Comptroller upon the State Treasurer against appropriations made by the General Assembly from any fund or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, and (2) is employed full-time or part-time in a position normally requiring actual performance of duty during not less than 1/2 of a normal work period, as established by the Director in cooperation with each department, except that persons elected by popular vote will be considered employees during the entire term for which they are elected regardless of hours devoted to the service of the State, and (3) except that "employee" does not include any person who is not eligible by reason of such person's employment to participate in one of the State retirement systems under Articles 2, 14, 15 (either the regular Article 15 system or the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), or 18, or under paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, of the Illinois Pension Code, but such term does include persons who are employed during the 6-month qualifying period under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Such term also includes any person who (1) after January 1, 1966, is receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, (2) receives total permanent or total temporary disability under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Disease Act as a result of injuries sustained or illness contracted in the course of employment with the State of Illinois, or (3) is not otherwise covered under this Act and has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code. However, a person who satisfies the criteria of the foregoing definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code is also an "employee" for the purposes of this Act. "Employee" also includes any person receiving or eligible for benefits under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Employee" also includes (i) each officer or employee in the service of a qualified local government, including persons appointed as trustees of sanitary districts regardless of hours devoted to the service of the sanitary district, (ii) each employee in the service of a qualified rehabilitation facility, (iii) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, and (iv) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified child advocacy center, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director.

(l) "Member" means an employee, annuitant, retired employee, or survivor. In the case of an annuitant or retired employee who first becomes an annuitant or retired employee on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668), the individual must meet the minimum vesting requirements of the applicable retirement system in order to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system. In the case of a survivor who is not entitled to occupational death benefits pursuant to an applicable retirement system or death benefits pursuant to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Act, and who first becomes a survivor on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668), the deceased employee, annuitant, or retired employee upon whom the annuity is based must have been eligible to participate in the group insurance system under the applicable retirement system in order for the survivor to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system.

In the case of a survivor who is entitled to occupational death benefits pursuant to the deceased employee's applicable retirement system or death benefits pursuant to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Act, and first becomes a survivor on or after January 1, 2022, the survivor is eligible for group health insurance benefits regardless of the deceased employee's minimum vesting requirements under the applicable retirement system, with a State contribution rate of 100%, until an unmarried child dependent reaches the age of 18, or the age of 22 if the dependent child is a full-time student, or until the adult survivor becomes eligible for benefits under the federal Medicare health insurance program (Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, as added by Public Law 89-97). In the case of a survivor currently receiving occupational death benefits pursuant to the deceased employee's applicable retirement system or has received death benefits pursuant to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Act, who first became a survivor prior to January 1, 2022, the survivor is eligible for group health insurance benefits regardless of the deceased employee's minimum vesting requirements under the applicable retirement system, with a State contribution rate of 100%, until an unmarried child dependent reaches the age of 18, or the age of 22 if the dependent child is a full-time student, or until the adult survivor becomes eligible for benefits under the federal Medicare health insurance program (Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, as added by Public Law 89-97). The changes made by Public Act 102-714 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly with respect to survivors who first became survivors prior to January 1, 2022 shall apply upon request of the survivor on or after April 29, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-714) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(m) "Optional coverages or benefits" means those coverages or benefits available to the member on his or her voluntary election, and at his or her own expense.

(n) "Program" means the group life insurance, health benefits, and other employee benefits designed and contracted for by the Director under this Act.

(o) "Health plan" means a health benefits program offered by the State of Illinois for persons eligible for the plan.

(p) "Retired employee" means any person who would be an annuitant as that term is defined herein but for the fact that such person retired prior to January 1, 1966. Such term also includes any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant but for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q) "Survivor" means a person receiving an annuity as a survivor of an employee or of an annuitant. "Survivor" also includes: (1) the surviving dependent of a person who satisfies the definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) the surviving dependent of any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant except for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (3) the surviving dependent of a person who was an annuitant under this Act by virtue of receiving an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (4) a person who would be receiving an annuity as a survivor of an annuitant except that the annuitant elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 14-147.5, 15-185.5, or 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity.

(q-2) "SERS" means the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, created under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-3) "SURS" means the State Universities Retirement System, created under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-4) "TRS" means the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, created under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-5) (Blank).

(q-6) (Blank).

(q-7) (Blank).

(r) "Medical services" means the services provided within the scope of their licenses by practitioners in all categories licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(s) "Unit of local government" means any county, municipality, township, school district (including a combination of school districts under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act), special district or other unit, designated as a unit of local government by law, which exercises limited governmental powers or powers in respect to limited governmental subjects, any not-for-profit association with a membership that primarily includes townships and township officials, that has duties that include provision of research service, dissemination of information, and other acts for the purpose of improving township government, and that is funded wholly or partly in accordance with Section 85-15 of the Township Code; any not-for-profit corporation or association, with a membership consisting primarily of municipalities, that operates its own utility system, and provides research, training, dissemination of information, or other acts to promote cooperation between and among municipalities that provide utility services and for the advancement of the goals and purposes of its membership; the Southern Illinois Collegiate Common Market, which is a consortium of higher education institutions in Southern Illinois; the Illinois Association of Park Districts; and any hospital provider that is owned by a county that has 100 or fewer hospital beds and has not already joined the program. "Qualified local government" means a unit of local government approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (i) of Section 10 of this Act.

(t) "Qualified rehabilitation facility" means any not-for-profit organization that is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services to persons with disabilities and which receives funds from the State of Illinois for providing those services, approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (j) of Section 10 of this Act.

(u) "Qualified domestic violence shelter or service" means any Illinois domestic violence shelter or service and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (k) of Section 10.

(v) "TRS benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly benefit or retirement annuity under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or would be receiving such monthly benefit or retirement annuity except that the benefit recipient elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity; and

(3) either (i) has at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (ii) was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on January 1, 1996, or (iii) is the survivor of a benefit recipient who had at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on June 21, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-25), or (iv) is a recipient or survivor of a recipient of a disability benefit under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(w) "TRS dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a TRS benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the TRS benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, (ii) was, on January 1, 1996, participating as a dependent beneficiary in the health insurance program offered under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (iii) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"TRS dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (w), a dependent of the survivor of a TRS benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a TRS benefit recipient on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668) unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased TRS benefit recipient upon whom the survivor benefit is based.

(x) "Military leave" refers to individuals in basic training for reserves, special/advanced training, annual training, emergency call up, activation by the President of the United States, or any other training or duty in service to the United States Armed Forces.

(y) (Blank).

(z) "Community college benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code or would be receiving such monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity except that the benefit recipient elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 15-185.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity; and

(3) either (i) was a full-time employee of a community college district or an association of community college boards created under the Public Community College Act (other than an employee whose last employer under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code was a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) and was eligible to participate in a group health benefit plan as an employee during the time of employment with a community college district (other than a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) or an association of community college boards, or (ii) is the survivor of a person described in item (i).

(aa) "Community college dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a community college benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the community college benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, or (ii) age 19 or over and has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"Community college dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (aa), a dependent of the survivor of a community college benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a community college benefit recipient on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668) unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased community college benefit recipient upon whom the survivor annuity is based.

(bb) "Qualified child advocacy center" means any Illinois child advocacy center and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Children and Family Services, as defined by the Children's Advocacy Center Act (55 ILCS 80/), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (n) of Section 10.

(cc) "Placement for adoption" means the assumption and retention by a member of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child in anticipation of adoption of the child. The child's placement with the member terminates upon the termination of such legal obligation.

(Source: P.A. 101-242, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-714, eff. 4-29-22; 102-813, eff 5-13-22; revised 7-23-24.)

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356u.10, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70, and 356z.71, 356z.74, 356z.76, and 356z.77 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 and Article XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Section 356m of the Illinois Insurance Code and, for the employees of the State Employee Group Insurance Program only, the coverage as also provided in Section 6.11B of this Act. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section with respect to Sections 370c and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; all other requirements of this Section shall be enforced by the Department of Central Management Services.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-768, eff. 1-1-24; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-8, eff. 1-1-24; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-870, eff. 1-1-25; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-951, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(5 ILCS 375/6.11D)

Sec. 6.11D. Joint mental health therapy services.

(a) The State Employees Group Insurance Program shall provide coverage for joint mental health therapy services for any Illinois State Police officer or police officer of an institution of higher education and any spouse or partner of the officer who resides with the officer.

(b) The joint mental health therapy services provided under subsection (a) shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

(Source: P.A. 103-818, eff. 1-1-25.)

(5 ILCS 375/6.11E)

Sec. 6.11E 6.11D. Coverage for treatments to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease and related dementias. Beginning on July 1, 2025, the State Employees Group Insurance Program shall provide coverage for all medically necessary FDA-approved treatments or medications prescribed to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease or another related dementia, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Coverage for all FDA-approved treatments or medications prescribed to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease or another related dementia shall not be subject to step therapy. Any diagnostic testing necessary for a physician to determine appropriate use of these treatments or medications shall be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Program.

(Source: P.A. 103-975, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(5 ILCS 375/10) (from Ch. 127, par. 530)

Sec. 10. Contributions by the State and members.

(a) The State shall pay the cost of basic non-contributory group life insurance and, subject to member paid contributions set by the Department or required by this Section and except as provided in this Section, the basic program of group health benefits on each eligible member, except a member, not otherwise covered by this Act, who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code, and part of each eligible member's and retired member's premiums for health insurance coverage for enrolled dependents as provided by Section 9. The State shall pay the cost of the basic program of group health benefits only after benefits are reduced by the amount of benefits covered by Medicare for all members and dependents who are eligible for benefits under Social Security or the Railroad Retirement system or who had sufficient Medicare-covered government employment, except that such reduction in benefits shall apply only to those members and dependents who (1) first become eligible for such Medicare coverage on or after July 1, 1992; or (2) are Medicare-eligible members or dependents of a local government unit which began participation in the program on or after July 1, 1992; or (3) remain eligible for, but no longer receive Medicare coverage which they had been receiving on or after July 1, 1992. The Department may determine the aggregate level of the State's contribution on the basis of actual cost of medical services adjusted for age, sex or geographic or other demographic characteristics which affect the costs of such programs.

The cost of participation in the basic program of group health benefits for the dependent or survivor of a living or deceased retired employee who was formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service and would be an annuitant but for the fact that he or she was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code shall not be greater than the cost of participation that would otherwise apply to that dependent or survivor if he or she were the dependent or survivor of an annuitant under the State Universities Retirement System.

(a-1) (Blank).

(a-2) (Blank).

(a-3) (Blank).

(a-4) (Blank).

(a-5) (Blank).

(a-6) (Blank).

(a-7) (Blank).

(a-8) Any annuitant, survivor, or retired employee may waive or terminate coverage in the program of group health benefits. Any such annuitant, survivor, or retired employee who has waived or terminated coverage may enroll or re-enroll in the program of group health benefits only during the annual benefit choice period, as determined by the Director; except that in the event of termination of coverage due to nonpayment of premiums, the annuitant, survivor, or retired employee may not re-enroll in the program.

(a-8.5) Beginning on July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-695) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Director of Central Management Services shall, on an annual basis, determine the amount that the State shall contribute toward the basic program of group health benefits on behalf of annuitants (including individuals who (i) participated in the General Assembly Retirement System, the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, or the Judges Retirement System of Illinois and (ii) qualify as annuitants under subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act), survivors (including individuals who (i) receive an annuity as a survivor of an individual who participated in the General Assembly Retirement System, the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, or the Judges Retirement System of Illinois and (ii) qualify as survivors under subsection (q) of Section 3 of this Act), and retired employees (as defined in subsection (p) of Section 3 of this Act). The remainder of the cost of coverage for each annuitant, survivor, or retired employee, as determined by the Director of Central Management Services, shall be the responsibility of that annuitant, survivor, or retired employee.

Contributions required of annuitants, survivors, and retired employees shall be the same for all retirement systems and shall also be based on whether an individual has made an election under Section 15-135.1 of the Illinois Pension Code. Contributions may be based on annuitants', survivors', or retired employees' Medicare eligibility, but may not be based on Social Security eligibility.

(a-9) No later than May 1 of each calendar year, the Director of Central Management Services shall certify in writing to the Executive Secretary of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois the amounts of the Medicare supplement health care premiums and the amounts of the health care premiums for all other retirees who are not Medicare eligible.

A separate calculation of the premiums based upon the actual cost of each health care plan shall be so certified.

The Director of Central Management Services shall provide to the Executive Secretary of the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois such information, statistics, and other data as he or she may require to review the premium amounts certified by the Director of Central Management Services.

The Department of Central Management Services, or any successor agency designated to procure health care healthcare contracts pursuant to this Act, is authorized to establish funds, separate accounts provided by any bank or banks as defined by the Illinois Banking Act, or separate accounts provided by any savings and loan association or associations as defined by the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 to be held by the Director, outside the State treasury, for the purpose of receiving the transfer of moneys from the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund. The Department may promulgate rules further defining the methodology for the transfers. Any interest earned by moneys in the funds or accounts shall inure to the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall be used exclusively for transfers to administrative service organizations or their financial institutions for payments of claims to claimants and providers under the self-insurance health plan. The transferred moneys, and interest accrued thereon, shall not be used for any other purpose including, but not limited to, reimbursement of administration fees due the administrative service organization pursuant to its contract or contracts with the Department.

(a-10) To the extent that participation, benefits, or premiums under this Act are based on a person's service credit under an Article of the Illinois Pension Code, service credit terminated in exchange for an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 14-147.5, 15-185.5, or 16-190.5 of that Code shall be included in determining a person's service credit for the purposes of this Act.

(b) State employees who become eligible for this program on or after January 1, 1980 in positions normally requiring actual performance of duty not less than 1/2 of a normal work period but not equal to that of a normal work period, shall be given the option of participating in the available program. If the employee elects coverage, the State shall contribute on behalf of such employee to the cost of the employee's benefit and any applicable dependent supplement, that sum which bears the same percentage as that percentage of time the employee regularly works when compared to normal work period.

(c) The basic non-contributory coverage from the basic program of group health benefits shall be continued for each employee not in pay status or on active service by reason of (1) leave of absence due to illness or injury, (2) authorized educational leave of absence or sabbatical leave, or (3) military leave. This coverage shall continue until expiration of authorized leave and return to active service, but not to exceed 24 months for leaves under item (1) or (2). This 24-month limitation and the requirement of returning to active service shall not apply to persons receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits or retirement benefits through the appropriate State retirement system or benefits under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Occupational Disease Act.

(d) The basic group life insurance coverage shall continue, with full State contribution, where such person is (1) absent from active service by reason of disability arising from any cause other than self-inflicted, (2) on authorized educational leave of absence or sabbatical leave, or (3) on military leave.

(e) Where the person is in non-pay status for a period in excess of 30 days or on leave of absence, other than by reason of disability, educational or sabbatical leave, or military leave, such person may continue coverage only by making personal payment equal to the amount normally contributed by the State on such person's behalf. Such payments and coverage may be continued: (1) until such time as the person returns to a status eligible for coverage at State expense, but not to exceed 24 months or (2) until such person's employment or annuitant status with the State is terminated (exclusive of any additional service imposed pursuant to law).

(f) The Department shall establish by rule the extent to which other employee benefits will continue for persons in non-pay status or who are not in active service.

(g) The State shall not pay the cost of the basic non-contributory group life insurance, program of health benefits and other employee benefits for members who are survivors as defined by paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (q) of Section 3 of this Act. The costs of benefits for these survivors shall be paid by the survivors or by the University of Illinois Cooperative Extension Service, or any combination thereof. However, the State shall pay the amount of the reduction in the cost of participation, if any, resulting from the amendment to subsection (a) made by Public Act 91-617 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(h) Those persons occupying positions with any department as a result of emergency appointments pursuant to Section 8b.8 of the Personnel Code who are not considered employees under this Act shall be given the option of participating in the programs of group life insurance, health benefits and other employee benefits. Such persons electing coverage may participate only by making payment equal to the amount normally contributed by the State for similarly situated employees. Such amounts shall be determined by the Director. Such payments and coverage may be continued until such time as the person becomes an employee pursuant to this Act or such person's appointment is terminated.

(i) Any unit of local government within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a unit of local government must agree to enroll all of its employees, who may select coverage under any group health benefits plan made available by the Department under the health benefits program established under this Section or a health maintenance organization that has contracted with the State to be available as a health care provider for employees as defined in this Act. A unit of local government must remit the entire cost of providing coverage under the health benefits program established under this Section or, for coverage under a health maintenance organization, an amount determined by the Director based on an analysis of the sex, age, geographic location, or other relevant demographic variables for its employees, except that the unit of local government shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under the State group health benefits plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the unit of local government attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan, and (2) at least 50% of the employees are enrolled and the unit of local government remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees, except that a participating school district must have enrolled at least 50% of its full-time employees who have not waived coverage under the district's group health plan by participating in a component of the district's cafeteria plan. A participating school district is not required to enroll a full-time employee who has waived coverage under the district's health plan, provided that an appropriate official from the participating school district attests that the full-time employee has waived coverage by participating in a component of the district's cafeteria plan. For the purposes of this subsection, "participating school district" includes a unit of local government whose primary purpose is education as defined by the Department's rules.

Employees of a participating unit of local government who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual benefit choice period Benefit Choice Period. A participating unit of local government may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the unit of local government, its employees, or some combination of the two as determined by the unit of local government. The unit of local government shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine monthly rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages, or contributed by the State for basic insurance coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the local government in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the unit of local government and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the unit of local government.

In the case of coverage of local government employees under a health maintenance organization, the Director shall annually determine for each participating unit of local government the maximum monthly amount the unit may contribute toward that coverage, based on an analysis of (i) the age, sex, geographic location, and other relevant demographic variables of the unit's employees and (ii) the cost to cover those employees under the State group health benefits plan. The Director may similarly determine the maximum monthly amount each unit of local government may contribute toward coverage of its employees' dependents under a health maintenance organization.

Monthly payments by the unit of local government or its employees for group health benefits plan or health maintenance organization coverage shall be deposited into in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

The Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund is hereby created as a nonappropriated trust fund to be held outside the State treasury Treasury, with the State Treasurer as custodian. The Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund shall be a continuing fund not subject to fiscal year limitations. The Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund is not subject to administrative charges or charge-backs, including, but not limited to, those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act. All revenues arising from the administration of the health benefits program established under this Section shall be deposited into the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund shall be deposited into the Fund. All expenditures from this Fund shall be used for payments for health care benefits for local government and rehabilitation facility employees, annuitants, and dependents, and to reimburse the Department or its administrative service organization for all expenses incurred in the administration of benefits. No other State funds may be used for these purposes.

A local government employer's participation or desire to participate in a program created under this subsection shall not limit that employer's duty to bargain with the representative of any collective bargaining unit of its employees.

(j) Any rehabilitation facility within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their eligible dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a rehabilitation facility must agree to enroll all of its employees and remit the entire cost of providing such coverage for its employees, except that the rehabilitation facility shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under this plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the rehabilitation facility attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan, and (2) at least 50% of the employees are enrolled and the rehabilitation facility remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees. Employees of a participating rehabilitation facility who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual benefit choice period Benefit Choice Period. A participating rehabilitation facility may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the rehabilitation facility, its employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the rehabilitation facility. The rehabilitation facility shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine quarterly rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the rehabilitation facility in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the rehabilitation facility and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the rehabilitation facility.

Monthly payments by the rehabilitation facility or its employees for group health benefits shall be deposited into in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(k) Any domestic violence shelter or service within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a domestic violence shelter or service must agree to enroll all of its employees and pay the entire cost of providing such coverage for its employees. The domestic violence shelter shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under this plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the domestic violence shelter attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan and (2) at least 50% of the employees are enrolled and the domestic violence shelter remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees. Employees of a participating domestic violence shelter who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, or special circumstance as defined by the Director or during the annual benefit choice period Benefit Choice Period. A participating domestic violence shelter may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the domestic violence shelter or service. The domestic violence shelter or service shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the domestic violence shelter or service in age, sex, geographic location or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the domestic violence shelter or service and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the domestic violence shelter or service.

Monthly payments by the domestic violence shelter or service or its employees for group health insurance shall be deposited into in the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(l) A public community college or entity organized pursuant to the Public Community College Act may apply to the Director initially to have only annuitants not covered prior to July 1, 1992 by the district's health plan provided health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. The community college must execute a 2-year contract to participate in the Local Government Health Plan. Any annuitant may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, special circumstance as defined by the Director, or during the annual benefit choice period Benefit Choice Period.

The Director shall annually determine monthly rates of payment subject to the following constraints: for those community colleges with annuitants only enrolled, first year rates shall be equal to the average cost to cover claims for a State member adjusted for demographics, Medicare participation, and other factors; and in the second year, a further adjustment of rates shall be made to reflect the actual first year's claims experience of the covered annuitants.

(l-5) The provisions of subsection (l) become inoperative on July 1, 1999.

(m) The Director shall adopt any rules deemed necessary for implementation of this amendatory Act of 1989 (Public Act 86-978).

(n) Any child advocacy center within the State of Illinois may apply to the Director to have its employees, annuitants, and their dependents provided group health coverage under this Act on a non-insured basis. To participate, a child advocacy center must agree to enroll all of its employees and pay the entire cost of providing coverage for its employees. The child advocacy center shall not be required to enroll those of its employees who are covered spouses or dependents under this plan or another group policy or plan providing health benefits as long as (1) an appropriate official from the child advocacy center attests that each employee not enrolled is a covered spouse or dependent under this plan or another group policy or plan and (2) at least 50% of the employees are enrolled and the child advocacy center remits the entire cost of providing coverage to those employees. Employees of a participating child advocacy center who are not enrolled due to coverage under another group health policy or plan may enroll in the event of a qualifying change in status, special enrollment, or special circumstance as defined by the Director or during the annual benefit choice period Benefit Choice Period. A participating child advocacy center may also elect to cover its annuitants. Dependent coverage shall be offered on an optional basis, with the costs paid by the child advocacy center, its employees, or some combination of the 2 as determined by the child advocacy center. The child advocacy center shall be responsible for timely collection and transmission of dependent premiums.

The Director shall annually determine rates of payment, subject to the following constraints:

(1) In the first year of coverage, the rates shall be equal to the amount normally charged to State employees for elected optional coverages or for enrolled dependents coverages or other contributory coverages on behalf of its employees, adjusted for differences between State employees and employees of the child advocacy center in age, sex, geographic location, or other relevant demographic variables, plus an amount sufficient to pay for the additional administrative costs of providing coverage to employees of the child advocacy center and their dependents.

(2) In subsequent years, a further adjustment shall be made to reflect the actual prior years' claims experience of the employees of the child advocacy center.

Monthly payments by the child advocacy center or its employees for group health insurance shall be deposited into the Local Government Health Insurance Reserve Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-19, eff. 7-1-21; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 35. The State Employee Health Savings Account Law is amended by changing Section 10-10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 377/10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Application; authorized contributions.

(a) Beginning in calendar year 2012, each employer shall make available to each eligible individual a health savings account program, if that individual chooses to enroll in the program except that, for an employer who provides coverage pursuant to any one or more of subsections (i) through (n) of Section 10 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 State Employee Group Insurance Act, that employer may make available a health savings account program. An employer who makes a health savings account program available shall annually deposit an amount equal to one-third of the annual deductible into an eligible individual's health savings account. Unused funds in a health savings account shall become the property of the account holder at the end of a taxable year.

(b) Beginning in calendar year 2012, an eligible individual may deposit contributions into a health savings account in accordance with the restrictions set forth in subsection (e) of Section 10-5.

(Source: P.A. 97-142, eff. 7-14-11; 97-644, eff. 12-30-11; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 40. The First Responders Suicide Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(5 ILCS 840/40)

Sec. 40. Task Force recommendations.

(a) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations guarantee access to mental health and wellness services, including, but not limited to, peer support programs and providing ongoing education related to the ever-evolving concept of mental health wellness. These recommendations could be accomplished by:

(1) Revising agencies' and organizations' employee assistance programs (EAPs).

(2) Urging health care providers to replace outdated healthcare plans and include more progressive options catering to the needs and disproportionate risks shouldered by our first responders.

(3) Allocating funding or resources for public service announcements (PSA) and messaging campaigns aimed at raising awareness of available assistance options.

(4) Encouraging agencies and organizations to attach lists of all available resources to training manuals and continuing education requirements.

(b) Task Force members shall recommend agencies and organizations sponsor or facilitate first responders with specialized training in the areas of psychological fitness, depressive disorders, early detection, and mitigation best practices. Such trainings could be accomplished by:

(1) Assigning, appointing, or designating one member of an agency or organization to attend specialized training(s) sponsored by an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in their fields of study.

(2) Seeking sponsorships or conducting fund-raisers, to host annual or semiannual on-site visits from qualified clinicians or physicians to provide early detection training techniques, or to provide regular access to mental health professionals.

(3) Requiring a minimum number of hours of disorders and wellness training be incorporated into reoccurring, annual or biannual training standards, examinations, and curriculums, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, frequency, and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(4) Not underestimating the crucial importance of a balanced diet, sleep, mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques, moderate and vigorous intensity activities, and recreational hobbies, which have been scientifically proven to play a major role in brain health and mental wellness.

(c) Task Force members shall recommend that administrators and leadership personnel solicit training services from evidence-based, data driven organizations. Organizations with personnel trained on the analytical review and interpretation of specific fields related to the nature of first responders' exploits, such as PTSD, substance abuse, and chronic state of duress. Task Force members shall further recommend funding for expansion and messaging campaigns of preliminary self-diagnosing technologies like the one described above. These objectives could be met by:

(1) Contacting an accredited agency, association, or organization recognized in the field or fields of specific study. Unbeknownst to the majority, many of the agencies and organizations listed above receive grants and allocations to assist communities with the very issues being discussed in this Section.

(2) Normalizing help-seeking behaviors for both first responders and their families through regular messaging and peer support outreach, beginning with academy curricula and continuing education throughout individuals' careers.

(3) Funding and implementing PSA campaigns that provide clear and concise calls to action about mental health and wellness, resiliency, help-seeking, treatment, and recovery.

(4) Promoting and raising awareness of not-for-profit organizations currently available to assist individuals in search of care and treatment. Organizations have intuitive user-friendly sites, most of which have mobile applications, so first responders can access at a moment's notice. However, because of limited funds, these organizations have a challenging time of getting the word out there about their existence.

(5) Expanding Family and Medical Leave Act protections for individuals voluntarily seeking preventative treatment.

(6) Promoting and ensuring complete patient confidentiality protections.

(d) Task Force members shall recommend that agencies and organizations incorporate the following training components into already existing modules and educational curriculums. Doing so could be done by:

(1) Bolstering academy and school curricula by requiring depressive disorder training catered to PTSD, substance abuse, and early detection techniques training, taking into close consideration respective agency or organization size, and the frequency and number of all current federal and state mandatory examinations and trainings expected respectively.

(2) Continuing to allocate or match federal and state funds to maintain Mobile Training Units (MTUs).

(3) Incorporating a state certificate for peer support training into already existing statewide curriculums and mandatory examinations, annual State Fire Marshal examinations, and physical fitness examinations. The subject matter of the certificate should have an emphasis on mental health and wellness, as well as familiarization with topics ranging from clinical social work, clinical psychology, clinical behaviorist, and clinical psychiatry.

(4) Incorporating and performing statewide mental health check-ins during the same times as already mandated trainings. These checks are not to be compared or used as measures of fitness for duty evaluations or structured psychological examinations.

(5) Recommending comprehensive and evidence-based training on the importance of preventative measures on the topics of sleep, nutrition, mindfulness, and physical movement.

(6) Law enforcement agencies should provide training on the Firearm Owners Owner's Identification Card Act, including seeking relief from the Illinois State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and a FOID card being a continued condition of employment under Section 7.2 of the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-352, eff. 6-1-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 45. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 16-3, 17-5, 17-12, and 28-3 and the heading of Article 29 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/16-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 16-3)

Sec. 16-3. (a) The names of all candidates to be voted for in each election district or precinct shall be printed on one ballot, except as is provided in Sections 16-6, 16-6.1, and 21-1.01 of this Code and except as otherwise provided in this Code with respect to the odd year regular elections and the emergency referenda. The lettering of candidate names on a ballot shall be in both capital and lowercase letters in conformance with standard English language guidelines, unless compliance is not feasible due to the election system utilized by the election authority. All nominations of any political party shall be placed under the party appellation or title of such party as designated in the certificates of nomination or petitions. The names of all independent candidates shall be printed upon the ballot in a column or columns under the heading "independent" arranged under the names or titles of the respective offices for which such independent candidates shall have been nominated and so far as practicable, the name or names of any independent candidate or candidates for any office shall be printed upon the ballot opposite the name or names of any candidate or candidates for the same office contained in any party column or columns upon said ballot. The ballot shall contain no other names, except that in cases of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, the names of the candidates for President and Vice-President may be added to the party designation and words calculated to aid the voter in his choice of candidates may be added, such as "Vote for one," or "Vote for not more than three"." If no candidate or candidates file for an office and if no person or persons file a declaration as a write-in candidate for that office, then below the title of that office the election authority instead shall print "No Candidate". When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot label booklet, the candidates and questions shall appear on the pages of such booklet in the order provided by this Code; and, in any case where candidates for an office appear on a page which does not contain the name of any candidate for another office, and where less than 50% of the page is utilized, the name of no candidate shall be printed on the lowest 25% of such page. On the back or outside of the ballot, so as to appear when folded, shall be printed the words "Official Ballot", followed by the designation of the polling place for which the ballot is prepared, the date of the election and a facsimile of the signature of the election authority who has caused the ballots to be printed. The ballots shall be of plain white paper, through which the printing or writing cannot be read. However, ballots for use at the nonpartisan and consolidated elections may be printed on different color paper, except blue paper, whenever necessary or desirable to facilitate distinguishing between ballots for different political subdivisions. In the case of nonpartisan elections for officers of a political subdivision, unless the statute or an ordinance adopted pursuant to Article VII of the Constitution providing the form of government therefor requires otherwise, the column listing such nonpartisan candidates shall be printed with no appellation or circle at its head. The party appellation or title, or the word "independent" at the head of any column provided for independent candidates, shall be printed in letters not less than one-fourth of an inch in height and a circle one-half inch in diameter shall be printed at the beginning of the line in which such appellation or title is printed, provided, however, that no such circle shall be printed at the head of any column or columns provided for such independent candidates. The names of candidates shall be printed in letters not less than one-eighth nor more than one-fourth of an inch in height, and at the beginning of each line in which a name of a candidate is printed a square shall be printed, the sides of which shall be not less than one-fourth of an inch in length. However, the names of the candidates for Governor and Lieutenant Governor on the same ticket shall be printed within a bracket and a single square shall be printed in front of the bracket. The list of candidates of the several parties and any such list of independent candidates shall be placed in separate columns on the ballot in such order as the election authorities charged with the printing of the ballots shall decide; provided, that the names of the candidates of the several political parties, certified by the State Board of Elections to the several county clerks shall be printed by the county clerk of the proper county on the official ballot in the order certified by the State Board of Elections. Any county clerk refusing, neglecting or failing to print on the official ballot the names of candidates of the several political parties in the order certified by the State Board of Elections, and any county clerk who prints or causes to be printed upon the official ballot the name of a candidate, for an office to be filled by the Electors of the entire State, whose name has not been duly certified to him upon a certificate signed by the State Board of Elections shall be guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot card, on the inside flap of each ballot card envelope there shall be printed a form for write-in voting which shall be substantially as follows:

WRITE-IN VOTES

(See card of instructions for specific information. Duplicate form below by hand for additional write-in votes.)

.............................

Title of Office ( ) .............................

Name of Candidate

Write-in lines equal to the number of candidates for which a voter may vote shall be printed for an office only if one or more persons filed declarations of intent to be write-in candidates or qualify to file declarations to be write-in candidates under Sections 17-16.1 and 18-9.1 when the certification of ballot contains the words "OBJECTION PENDING".

(c) When an electronic voting system is used which uses a ballot sheet, the instructions to voters on the ballot sheet shall refer the voter to the card of instructions for specific information on write-in voting. Below each office appearing on such ballot sheet there shall be a provision for the casting of a write-in vote. Write-in lines equal to the number of candidates for which a voter may vote shall be printed for an office only if one or more persons filed declarations of intent to be write-in candidates or qualify to file declarations to be write-in candidates under Sections 17-16.1 and 18-9.1 when the certification of ballot contains the words "OBJECTION PENDING".

(d) When such electronic system is used, there shall be printed on the back of each ballot card, each ballot card envelope, and the first page of the ballot label when a ballot label is used, the words "Official Ballot," followed by the number of the precinct or other precinct identification, which may be stamped, in lieu thereof and, as applicable, the number and name of the township, ward or other election district for which the ballot card, ballot card envelope, and ballot label are prepared, the date of the election and a facsimile of the signature of the election authority who has caused the ballots to be printed. The back of the ballot card shall also include a method of identifying the ballot configuration such as a listing of the political subdivisions and districts for which votes may be cast on that ballot, or a number code identifying the ballot configuration or color coded ballots, except that where there is only one ballot configuration in a precinct, the precinct identification, and any applicable ward identification, shall be sufficient. Ballot card envelopes used in punch card systems shall be of paper through which no writing or punches may be discerned and shall be of sufficient length to enclose all voting positions. However, the election authority may provide ballot card envelopes on which no precinct number or township, ward or other election district designation, or election date are preprinted, if space and a preprinted form are provided below the space provided for the names of write-in candidates where such information may be entered by the judges of election. Whenever an election authority utilizes ballot card envelopes on which the election date and precinct is not preprinted, a judge of election shall mark such information for the particular precinct and election on the envelope in ink before tallying and counting any write-in vote written thereon. If some method of insuring ballot secrecy other than an envelope is used, such information must be provided on the ballot itself.

(e) In the designation of the name of a candidate on the ballot, the candidate's given name or names, initial or initials, a nickname by which the candidate is commonly known, or a combination thereof, may be used in addition to the candidate's surname. If a candidate has changed his or her name, whether by a statutory or common law procedure in Illinois or any other jurisdiction, within 3 years before the last day for filing the petition for nomination, nomination papers, or certificate of nomination for that office, whichever is applicable, then (i) the candidate's name on the ballot must be followed by "formerly known as (list all prior names during the 3-year period) until name changed on (list date of each such name change)" and (ii) the petition, papers, or certificate must be accompanied by the candidate's affidavit stating the candidate's previous names during the period specified in (i) and the date or dates each of those names was changed; failure to meet these requirements shall be grounds for denying certification of the candidate's name for the ballot or removing the candidate's name from the ballot, as appropriate, but these requirements do not apply to name changes resulting from adoption to assume an adoptive parent's or parents' surname, marriage or civil union to assume a spouse's surname, or dissolution of marriage or civil union or declaration of invalidity of marriage or civil union to assume a former surname or a name change that conforms the candidate's name to his or her gender identity. No other designation such as a political slogan, title, or degree or nickname suggesting or implying possession of a title, degree or professional status, or similar information may be used in connection with the candidate's surname. For purposes of this Section, a "political slogan" is defined as any word or words expressing or connoting a position, opinion, or belief that the candidate may espouse, including, but not limited to, any word or words conveying any meaning other than that of the personal identity of the candidate. A candidate may not use a political slogan as part of his or her name on the ballot, notwithstanding that the political slogan may be part of the candidate's name.

(f) The State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority shall remove any candidate's name designation from a ballot that is inconsistent with subsection (e) of this Section. In addition, the State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority shall not certify to any election authority any candidate name designation that is inconsistent with subsection (e) of this Section.

(g) If the State Board of Elections, a local election official, or an election authority removes a candidate's name designation from a ballot under subsection (f) of this Section, then the aggrieved candidate may seek appropriate relief in circuit court.

Where voting machines or electronic voting systems are used, the provisions of this Section may be modified as required or authorized by Article 24 or Article 24A, whichever is applicable.

Nothing in this Section shall prohibit election authorities from using or reusing ballot card envelopes which were printed before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-820).

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-467, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-23-24.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-5)

Sec. 17-5. The manner of voting shall be by ballot. The ballot shall be printed or written, or partly printed and partly written, and shall be, except as otherwise provided in Article 8A, in the form as prescribed in Article 16 of this Act.

(Source: Laws 1964, 1st S.S., p. 711; revised 7-23-24.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-12) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-12)

Sec. 17-12. The ballot shall be folded by the voter and delivered to one of the judges of election; and if the judge is be satisfied, that the person offering the vote is a legal voter, the judges of election shall enter the name of the voter, and his number, under the proper heading in the poll books, (except as otherwise provided in Article Articles 4, 5, or 6) and shall immediately put the ballot into the ballot box.

The voter shall in like manner fold and deliver the separate blue ballot or ballots pertaining to a proposal or proposals for constitutional amendments or the calling of a constitutional convention, if such proposal or proposals have been submitted to a vote of the people at such election and shall also in like manner fold and deliver the separate representative ballot provided for in Article 8A in cases where that Article is applicable. The judge of election to whom the voter delivers his ballots shall not accept the same unless all of the ballots given to the voter are returned by him. If a voter delivers less than all of the ballots given to him, the judge to whom the same are offered shall advise him in a voice clearly audible to the other judges of election that the voter must return the remainder of the ballots. The statement of the judge to the voter shall clearly express the fact that the voter is not required to vote such remaining ballots but that whether or not he votes them he must fold and deliver them to the judge. In making such statement, the judge of election shall not indicate by word, gesture, or intonation of voice that the unreturned ballots shall be voted in any particular manner. No new voter shall be permitted to enter the voting booth of a voter who has failed to deliver the total number of ballots received by him until such voter has returned to the voting booth pursuant to the judge's request and again quit the booth with all of the ballots required to be returned by him. Upon receipt of all such ballots, the judges of election shall enter the name of the voter, and his number, as above provided in this Section section, and the judge to whom the ballots are delivered shall immediately put the ballots into the ballot box but, in the case of an election for Representatives in the General Assembly pursuant to Article 8A, the official representative ballot shall be placed in the separate ballot box provided for such purpose. If any voter who has failed to deliver all the ballots received by him refuses to return to the voting booth after being advised by the judge of election as herein provided, the judge shall inform the other judges of such refusal, and thereupon the ballot or ballots returned to the judge shall be deposited into in the ballot box, the voter shall be permitted to depart from the polling place, and a new voter shall be permitted to enter the voting booth.

No judge of election shall accept from any voter less than the full number of ballots received by such voter without first advising the voter in the manner above provided of the necessity of returning all of the ballots, nor shall any judge advise such voter in a manner contrary to that which is herein permitted, or in any other manner violate the provisions of this Section section; provided that the acceptance by a judge of election of less than the full number of ballots delivered to a voter who refuses to return to the voting booth after being properly advised by the judge shall not be a violation of this Section section.

(Source: Laws 1964, 1st S.S., p. 711; revised 7-23-24.)

(10 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 28-3)

Sec. 28-3. Form of petition for public question. Petitions for the submission of public questions shall consist of sheets of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the space for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the information as to the question of public policy to be submitted, and specifying the state at large or the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts or other territory in which it is to be submitted and, where by law the public question must be submitted at a particular election, the election at which it is to be submitted. In the case of a petition for the submission of a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6, the heading shall also specify the regular election at which the question is to be submitted and include the precincts included in the territory concerning which the public question is to be submitted, as well as a common description of such territory in plain and nonlegal language, such description to describe the territory by reference to streets, natural or artificial landmarks, addresses or any other method which would enable a voter signing the petition to be informed of the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted. The heading of each sheet shall be the same. Such petition shall be signed by the registered voters of the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts in which the question of public policy is to be submitted in their own proper persons only, and opposite the signature of each signer his residence address shall be written or printed, which residence address shall include the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village or town, and state; provided that the county or city, village or town, and state of residence of such electors may be printed on the petition forms where all of the electors signing the petition reside in the same county or city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the residence address, including street number, if any. No signature shall be valid or be counted in considering the validity or sufficiency of such petition unless the requirements of this Section are complied with.

At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator's statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a citizen of the United States, stating the street address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county, city, village or town, and state; certifying that the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or her presence and are genuine, and that to the best of his or her knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petition registered voters of the political subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts in which the question of public policy is to be submitted and that their respective residences are correctly stated therein. Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to administer oaths in this State.

Such sheets, before being filed with the proper officer or board, shall be bound securely and numbered consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local election officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed, shall not be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature shall be revoked except by revocation in writing presented or filed with the board or officer with whom the petition is required to be presented or filed, and before the presentment or filing of such petition, except as may otherwise be provided in another statute which authorize the public question. Whoever forges any name of a signer upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a forgery, and on conviction thereof, shall be punished accordingly.

In addition to the foregoing requirements, a petition proposing an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution or a petition proposing a question of public policy to be submitted to the voters of the entire State shall be in conformity with the requirements of Section 28-9 of this Article.

If multiple sets of petitions for submission of the same public questions are filed, the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official where the petitions are filed shall within 2 business days notify the proponent of his or her multiple petition filings and that proponent has 3 business days after receipt of the notice to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official that he or she may cancel prior sets of petitions. If the proponent notifies the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official, the last set of petitions filed shall be the only petitions to be considered valid by the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official. If the proponent fails to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election official then only the first set of petitions filed shall be valid and all subsequent petitions shall be void.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 7-23-24.)

(10 ILCS 5/Art. 29 heading)

ARTICLE 29. PROHIBITIONS AND PENALTIES .

Section 50. The Uniform Faithful Presidential Electors Act is amended by changing Section 5-1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 22/5-1)

Sec. 5-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Uniform Faithful Presidential Electors Act. As used in this Article, "this Act" refers to this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-600, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 55. The Language Equity and Access Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 56/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Interpretation" means listening to a communication in one language and orally converting it to another language in a manner that preserves the intent and meaning of the original message.

"Language assistance services" means oral and written language services needed to assist LEP persons individuals to communicate effectively with staff, and to provide LEP persons individuals with meaningful access to, and equal opportunity to participate fully in, the services, activities, or other programs administered by the State.

"Limited English proficient (LEP) person" means an individual who does not speak English as his or her primary language and who has a limited ability to read, speak, write, or understand English.

"Meaningful access" means language assistance that results in accurate, timely, and effective communication at no cost to limited English proficient persons. For LEP persons, meaningful access denotes access that is not unreasonably restricted, delayed, or inferior as compared to access to programs or activities provided to English proficient persons individuals.

"State agency" means an executive agency, department, board, commission, or authority directly responsible to the Governor.

"Translation" means the conversion of text from one language to another in a written form to convey the intent and essential meaning of the original text.

"Vital documents" means paper or electronic written material that contains information that affects a person's access to, retention of, termination of, or exclusion from program services or benefits or is required by law.

(Source: P.A. 103-723, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 60. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 4, 5, and 12 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4)

Sec. 4. Identification card.

(a) In accordance with the requirements of this Section, the Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card, as well as a mobile Illinois Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such a card, or renewal thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, a Federal Bureau of Prisons facility located in Illinois, or a county jail or county department of corrections as follows: if the person has a social security number,

(1) A committed person who has previously held an Illinois Identification Card or an Illinois driver's license shall submit an Identification Card verification form to the Secretary of State, including a photograph taken by the correctional facility, proof of residency upon discharge, and a social security number, if the committed person has a social security number. If the committed person does not have a social security number and is eligible for a social security number, the Secretary of State shall not issue a standard Illinois Identification Card until the committed person obtains a social security number. If the committed person's photograph and demographic information matches an existing Illinois Identification Card or Illinois driver's license and the Secretary of State verifies the applicant's social security number with the Social Security Administration, the Secretary of State shall issue the committed person a standard Illinois Identification Card. If the photograph or demographic information matches an existing Illinois Identification Card or Illinois driver's license in another person's name or identity, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall not be issued until the committed person submits a certified birth certificate and social security card to the Secretary of State and the Secretary of State verifies the identity of the committed person. If the Secretary of State cannot find a match to an existing Illinois Identification Card or Illinois driver's license, the committed person may apply for a standard Illinois Identification card as described in paragraph (2).

(2) A committed person who has not previously held an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois driver's license or for whom a match cannot be found as described in paragraph (1) shall submit an Illinois Identification Card verification form, including a photograph taken by the correctional facility, a certified birth certificate, proof of residency upon discharge, and a social security number, if the committed has a social security number. If the committed person does not have a social security number and is eligible for a social security number, the Secretary of State shall not issue a standard Illinois Identification Card until the committed person obtains a social security number. If the Secretary of State verifies the applicant's social security number with the Social Security Administration, the Secretary of State shall issue the committed person a standard Illinois Identification Card.

The Illinois Identification Card verification form described in this subsection shall be prescribed by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State and correctional facilities in this State shall establish a secure method to transfer the form.

(a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, a Federal Bureau of Prisons facility located in Illinois, or a county jail or county department of corrections, if the released person does not obtain a standard Illinois Identification Card as described in subsection (a-20) prior to release but does present a Secretary of State prescribed Identification Card verification form completed by the correctional facility, verifying the released person's date of birth, social security number, if the person has a social security number, and his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card.

Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and his or her social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed.

This subsection shall not apply to a released person who was unable to obtain a standard Illinois Identification Card because his or her photograph or demographic information matched an existing Illinois Identification Card or Illinois driver's license in another person's name or identity or to a released person who does not have a social security number and is eligible for a social security number.

(a-30) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a person prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address may include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(a-35) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a person upon conditional release or absolute discharge from the custody of the Department of Human Services, if the person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card, if the person has a social security number, or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Human Services, verifying the person's date of birth and social security number, if the person has a social security number, and a document proving his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card to a person no sooner than 14 days prior to his or her conditional release or absolute discharge if personnel from the Department of Human Services bring the person to a Secretary of State location with the required documents. Documents proving residence address shall include any official document of the Department of Human Services showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed verification form, which may be executed by personnel of the Department of Human Services.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of 2 two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(f)(1) The Secretary of State may issue a mobile identification card to an individual who is otherwise eligible to hold a physical credential in addition to, and not instead of, an identification card if the Secretary of State has issued an identification card to the person. The data elements that are used to build an electronic credential must match the individual's current Department record.

(2) The Secretary may enter into agreements or contract with an agency of the State, another state, the United States, or a third party to facilitate the issuance, use, and verification of a mobile identification card issued by the Secretary or another state.

(3) Any mobile identification card issued by the Secretary shall be in accordance with the most recent AAMVA standards.

(4) The Secretary shall design the mobile identification card in a manner that allows the credential holder to maintain physical possession of the device on which the mobile identification card is accessed during verification.

(g) The verification process shall be implemented to require:

(1) the relying parties to authenticate electronic credentials in accordance with applicable AAMVA standards prior to acceptance of the electronic credential;

(2) the Secretary to ensure that electronic credential data is subject to all jurisdictional data security and privacy protection laws and regulations; and

(3) the relying parties to request only electronic credential data elements that are necessary to complete the transaction for which data is being requested.

(h) Privacy and tracking of data shall be restricted by implementing the following requirements:

(1) the relying parties shall retain only electronic credential data elements for which the relying party explicitly obtained consent from the electronic credential holder and shall inform the electronic credential holder of the use and retention period of the electronic data elements;

(2) the Secretary shall use an electronic credential system that is designed to maximize the privacy of the credential holder in accordance with State and federal law and shall not track or compile information without the credential holder's consent; and

(3) the Department shall only compile and disclose information regarding the use of the credential as required by State or federal law.

(i)(1) The electronic credential holder shall be required to have the holder's their physical credential on the holder's their person for all purposes for which an identification card is required. No person, public entity, private entity, or agency shall establish a policy that requires an electronic credential instead of a physical credential.

(2) Electronic credential systems shall be designed so that there is no requirement for the electronic credential holder to display or relinquish possession of the credential holder's mobile device to relying parties for the acceptance of an electronic credential.

(3) When required by law and upon request by law enforcement, a credential holder must provide the credential holder's physical credential.

(4) Any law or regulation that requires an individual to surrender the individual's their physical credential to law enforcement does not apply to the device on which an electronic credential has been provisioned.

(j) A person may be required to produce when so requested a physical identification card to a law enforcement officer, a representative of a State or federal department or agency, or a private entity and is subject to all applicable laws and consequences for failure to produce such an identification card.

(k) The Secretary of State shall adopt such rules as are necessary to implement a mobile identification card.

(l) The display of a mobile identification card shall not serve as consent or authorization for a law enforcement officer, or any other person, to search, view, or access any other data or application on the mobile device. If a person presents the person's mobile device to a law enforcement officer for purposes of displaying a mobile identification card, the law enforcement officer shall promptly return the mobile device to the person once the officer has had an opportunity to verify the identity of the person. Except for willful and wanton misconduct, any law enforcement officer, court, or officer of the court presented with the device shall be immune from any liability resulting from damage to the mobile device.

(m) The fee to install the application to display a mobile identification card as defined in this subsection shall not exceed $6.

(n) As used in this Section:

"AAMVA" means the American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators.

"Credential" means a driver's license, learner's permit, or identification card.

"Credential holder" means the individual to whom a mobile driver's license or a mobile identification card is issued.

"Data element" means a distinct component of a customer's information that is found on the Department's customer record.

"Department" means the Secretary of State Department of Driver Services.

"Electronic credential" means an electronic extension of the departmental issued physical credential that conveys identity and complies with AAMVA's mobile driver license Implementation guidelines and the ISO/IEC 18013-5 standard.

"Electronic credential system" means a digital process that includes a method for provisioning electronic credentials, requesting and transmitting electronic credential data elements, and performing tasks to maintain the system.

"Full profile" means all the information provided on an identification card.

"ISO" means the International Organization for Standardization, which creates uniform processes and procedures.

"Limited profile" means a portion of the information provided on an Identification Card.

"Mobile identification card" means a data file that is available on any mobile device that has connectivity to the Internet through an application that allows the mobile device to download the data file from the Secretary of State, that contains all the data elements visible on the face and back of an identification card, and that displays the current status of the identification card. "Mobile identification card" does not include a copy, photograph, or image of an Illinois Identification Card that is not downloaded through the application on a mobile device.

"Physical credential" means a Department-issued Department issued document that conveys identity in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act.

"Provision" means the initial loading of an electronic credential onto a device.

"Relying party" means the entity to which the credential holder presents the electronic credential.

"Verification process" means a method of authenticating the electronic credential through the use of secured encryption communication.

(o) (f) Upon providing the required documentation, at the request of the applicant, the identification card may reflect Gold Star Family designation. The Secretary shall designate a space on each original or renewal of an identification card for such designation. This designation shall be available to a person eligible for Gold Star license plates under subsection (f) of Section 6-106 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; 103-345, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-782, eff. 8-6-24; 103-824, eff. 1-1-25; 103-933, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(15 ILCS 335/5)

Sec. 5. Applications.

(a) Any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois may file an application for an identification card, or for the renewal thereof, in a manner prescribed by the Secretary. Each original application shall be completed by the applicant in full and shall set forth the legal name, residence address and zip code, social security number, if the person has a social security number, birth date, sex and a brief description of the applicant. The applicant shall be photographed, unless the Secretary of State has provided by rule for the issuance of identification cards without photographs and the applicant is deemed eligible for an identification card without a photograph under the terms and conditions imposed by the Secretary of State, and he or she shall also submit any other information as the Secretary may deem necessary or such documentation as the Secretary may require to determine the identity of the applicant. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. If the applicant is an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services with a job title of "Child Protection Specialist Trainee", "Child Protection Specialist", "Child Protection Advanced Specialist", "Child Welfare Specialist Trainee", "Child Welfare Specialist", or "Child Welfare Advanced Specialist" or a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address in lieu of the applicant's residence or mailing address. An applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card must also submit with each original or renewal application, on forms prescribed by the Secretary, such documentation as the Secretary may require, establishing that the applicant is a "person with a disability" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and setting forth the applicant's type and class of disability as set forth in Section 4A of this Act. For the purposes of this subsection (a), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-5) Upon the first issuance of a request for proposals for a digital driver's license and identification card issuance and facial recognition system issued after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-513), and upon implementation of a new or revised system procured pursuant to that request for proposals, the Secretary shall permit applicants to choose between "male", "female", or "non-binary" when designating the applicant's sex on the identification card application form. The sex designated by the applicant shall be displayed on the identification card issued to the applicant.

(b) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal identification card application under this Act, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing an identification card with a veteran designation under subsection (c-5) of Section 4 of this Act. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214, Department of Defense form DD-256 for applicants who did not receive a form DD-214 upon the completion of initial basic training, Department of Defense form DD-2 (Retired), an identification card issued under the federal Veterans Identification Card Act of 2015, or a United States Department of Veterans Affairs summary of benefits letter. If the document cannot be stamped, the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall provide a certificate to the veteran to provide to the Secretary of State. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall advise the Secretary as to what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

For each applicant who is issued an identification card with a veteran designation, the Secretary shall provide the Department of Veterans' Affairs with the applicant's name, address, date of birth, gender, and such other demographic information as agreed to by the Secretary and the Department. The Department may take steps necessary to confirm the applicant is a veteran. If after due diligence, including writing to the applicant at the address provided by the Secretary, the Department is unable to verify the applicant's veteran status, the Department shall inform the Secretary, who shall notify the applicant that he or she must confirm status as a veteran, or the identification card will be canceled cancelled.

For purposes of this subsection (b):

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit.

"Veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(b-1) An applicant who is eligible for Gold Star license plates under Section 3-664 of the Illinois Vehicle Code may apply for an identification card with space for a designation as a Gold Star Family. The Secretary may waive any fee for this application. If the Secretary does not waive the fee, any fee charged to the applicant must be deposited into the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund. The Secretary is authorized to issue rules to implement this subsection.

(c) All applicants for REAL ID compliant standard Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards shall provide proof of lawful status in the United States as defined in 6 CFR 37.3, as amended. Applicants who are unable to provide the Secretary with proof of lawful status are ineligible for REAL ID compliant identification cards under this Act.

(d) The Secretary of State may accept, as proof of date of birth and written signature for any applicant for a standard identification card who does not have a social security number or documentation issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security authorizing the applicant's presence in this country, any passport validly issued to the applicant from the applicant's country of citizenship or a consular identification document validly issued to the applicant by a consulate of that country as defined in Section 5 of the Consular Identification Document Act. Any such documents must be either unexpired or presented by an applicant within 2 years of its expiration date.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-210, eff. 7-1-24; 103-888, eff. 8-9-24; 103-933, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(15 ILCS 335/12) (from Ch. 124, par. 32)

Sec. 12. Fees concerning standard Illinois Identification Cards. The fees required under this Act for standard Illinois Identification Cards must accompany any application provided for in this Act, and the Secretary shall collect such fees as follows:

All fees collected under this Act shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State treasury, except that the following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund: (i) 80% of the fee for an original, renewal, or duplicate Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005; and (ii) 80% of the fee for a corrected Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005.

An individual, who resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government, who makes an application for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee, must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by the applicant on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that such person resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government.

The application of a homeless individual for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee must be accompanied by an affirmation by a qualified person, as defined in Section 4C of this Act, on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the applicant is currently homeless as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

For the application for the first Illinois Identification Card of a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child to be issued at no fee, the youth must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by his or her court appointed attorney or an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the person is a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's Office with a police report showing that his or her identification card was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose identification card has been lost or stolen.

As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 103-782, eff. 8-6-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 65. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 16.8 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/16.8)

Sec. 16.8. Illinois Higher Education Savings Program.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Beneficiary" means an eligible child named as a recipient of seed funds.

"Eligible child" means a child born or adopted after December 31, 2022, to a parent who is a resident of Illinois at the time of the birth or adoption, as evidenced by documentation received by the State Treasurer from the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, another State or local government agency, or a parent or legal guardian of the child.

"Eligible educational institution" means institutions that are described in Section 1001 of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 that are eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs.

"Fund" means the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund.

"Omnibus account" means the pooled collection of seed funds owned and managed by the State Treasurer in the College Savings Pool under this Act.

"Program" means the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program.

"Qualified higher education expense" means the following: (i) tuition, fees, and the costs of books, supplies, and equipment required for enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution; (ii) expenses for special needs services, in the case of a special needs beneficiary, which are incurred in connection with such enrollment or attendance; (iii) certain expenses for the purchase of computer or peripheral equipment, computer software, or Internet access and related services as defined under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code; (iv) room and board expenses incurred while attending an eligible educational institution at least half-time; (v) expenses for fees, books, supplies, and equipment required for the participation of a designated beneficiary in an apprenticeship program registered and certified with the Secretary of Labor under the National Apprenticeship Act (29 U.S.C. 50); and (vi) amounts paid as principal or interest on any qualified education loan of the designated beneficiary or a sibling of the designated beneficiary, as allowed under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code.

"Seed funds" means the deposit made by the State Treasurer into the Omnibus Accounts for Program beneficiaries.

(b) Program established. The State Treasurer shall establish the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program as a part of the College Savings Pool under Section 16.5 of this Act, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly. The State Treasurer shall administer the Program for the purposes of expanding access to higher education through savings.

(c) Program enrollment. The State Treasurer shall enroll all eligible children in the Program beginning in 2023, after receiving records of recent births, adoptions, or dependents from the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, another State or local government agency designated by the State Treasurer, or documentation as may be required by the State Treasurer from a parent or legal guardian of the eligible child. Notwithstanding any court order which would otherwise prevent the release of information, the Department of Public Health is authorized to release the information specified under this subsection (c) to the State Treasurer for the purposes of the Program established under this Section.

(1) Beginning in 2021, the Department of Public Health shall provide the State Treasurer with information on recent Illinois births and adoptions including, but not limited to: the full name, residential address, birth date, and birth record number of the child and the full name and residential address of the child's parent or legal guardian for the purpose of enrolling eligible children in the Program. This data shall be provided to the State Treasurer by the Department of Public Health on a quarterly basis, no later than 30 days after the end of each quarter, or some other date and frequency as mutually agreed to by the State Treasurer and the Department of Public Health.

(1.5) Beginning in 2021, the Department of Revenue shall provide the State Treasurer with information on tax filers claiming dependents or the adoption tax credit, including, but not limited to: the full name, residential address, email address, phone number, birth date, and social security number or taxpayer identification number of the dependent child and of the child's parent or legal guardian for the purpose of enrolling eligible children in the Program. Beginning July 1, 2024, the Department of Revenue shall provide the State Treasurer with the adjusted gross income of tax filers claiming dependents or the adoption tax credit. This data shall be provided to the State Treasurer by the Department of Revenue on at least an annual basis, by July 1 of each year or another date jointly determined by the State Treasurer and the Department of Revenue. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained within this paragraph (2), the Department of Revenue shall not be required to share any information that would be contrary to federal law, regulation, or Internal Revenue Service Publication 1075.

(2) The State Treasurer shall ensure the security and confidentiality of the information provided by the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, or another State or local government agency, and it shall not be subject to release under the Freedom of Information Act.

(3) Information provided under this Section shall only be used by the State Treasurer for the Program and shall not be used for any other purpose.

(4) The State Treasurer and any vendors working on the Program shall maintain strict confidentiality of any information provided under this Section, and shall promptly provide written or electronic notice to the providing agency of any security breach. The providing State or local government agency shall remain the sole and exclusive owner of information provided under this Section.

(d) Seed funds. After receiving information on recent births, adoptions, or dependents from the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, another State or local government agency, or documentation as may be required by the State Treasurer from a parent or legal guardian of the eligible child, the State Treasurer shall make deposits into an omnibus account on behalf of eligible children. The State Treasurer shall be the owner of the omnibus accounts.

(1) Deposit amount. The seed fund deposit for each eligible child shall be in the amount of $50. This amount may be increased by the State Treasurer by rule. The State Treasurer may use or deposit funds appropriated by the General Assembly together with moneys received as gifts, grants, or contributions into the Fund. If insufficient funds are available in the Fund, the State Treasurer may reduce the deposit amount or forgo forego deposits.

(2) Use of seed funds. Seed funds, including any interest, dividends, and other earnings accrued, will be eligible for use by a beneficiary for qualified higher education expenses if:

(A) the parent or guardian of the eligible child claimed the seed funds for the beneficiary by the beneficiary's 10th birthday;

(B) the beneficiary has completed secondary education or has reached the age of 18; and

(C) the beneficiary is currently a resident of the State of Illinois. Non-residents are not eligible to claim or use seed funds.

(3) Notice of seed fund availability. The State Treasurer shall make a good faith effort to notify beneficiaries and their parents or legal guardians of the seed funds' availability and the deadline to claim such funds.

(4) Unclaimed seed funds. Seed funds and any interest earnings that are unclaimed by the beneficiary's 10th birthday or unused by the beneficiary's 26th birthday will be considered forfeited. Unclaimed and unused seed funds and any interest earnings will remain in the omnibus account for future beneficiaries.

(e) Financial education. The State Treasurer may develop educational materials that support the financial literacy of beneficiaries and their legal guardians, and may do so in collaboration with State and federal agencies, including, but not limited to, the Illinois State Board of Education and existing nonprofit agencies with expertise in financial literacy and education.

(f) Supplementary deposits and partnerships. The State Treasurer may make supplementary deposits if sufficient funds are available and if funds are deposited into the omnibus accounts as described in subsection (d). Subject to appropriation, the State Treasurer may make supplementary deposits of $50, or greater if designated by the State Treasurer by rule, into the account of each beneficiary whose parent or legal guardian has an adjusted gross income below the Illinois median household income as determined by the most recent U.S. Census Bureau American Community Survey 5-Year Data for the previous calendar year. The supplementary deposits shall be limited to one deposit per beneficiary. Furthermore, the State Treasurer may develop partnerships with private, nonprofit, or governmental organizations to provide additional savings incentives, including conditional cash transfers or matching contributions that provide a savings incentive based on specific actions taken or other criteria.

(g) Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund. The Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund is hereby established as a special fund in the State treasury. The Fund shall be the official repository of all contributions, appropriated funds, interest, and dividend payments, gifts, or other financial assets received by the State Treasurer in connection with the operation of the Program or related partnerships. All such moneys shall be deposited into the Fund and held by the State Treasurer as custodian thereof. The State Treasurer may accept gifts, grants, awards, matching contributions, interest income, and appropriated funds from individuals, businesses, governments, and other third-party sources to implement the Program on terms that the State Treasurer deems advisable. All interest or other earnings accruing or received on amounts in the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund shall be credited to and retained by the Fund and used for the benefit of the Program. Assets of the Fund must at all times be preserved, invested, and expended only for the purposes of the Program and must be held for the benefit of the beneficiaries. Assets may not be transferred or used by the State or the State Treasurer for any purposes other than the purposes of the Program. In addition, no moneys, interest, or other earnings paid into the Fund shall be used, temporarily or otherwise, for inter-fund borrowing or be otherwise used or appropriated except as expressly authorized by this Act. Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (g), amounts in the Fund may be used by the State Treasurer to pay the administrative costs of the Program.

(g-5) Fund deposits and payments. On July 15 of each year, beginning July 15, 2023, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,500,000, or the amount that is appropriated annually by the General Assembly, whichever is greater, from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund to be used for the administration and operation of the Program.

(h) Audits and reports. The State Treasurer shall include the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program as part of the audit of the College Savings Pool described in Section 16.5. The State Treasurer shall annually prepare a report that includes a summary of the Program operations for the preceding fiscal year, including the number of children enrolled in the Program, the total amount of seed fund deposits, the rate of seed deposits claimed, and, to the extent data is reported and available, the racial, ethnic, socioeconomic, and geographic data of beneficiaries and of children who may receive automatic bonus deposits. Such other information that is relevant to make a full disclosure of the operations of the Program and Fund may also be reported. The report shall be made available on the State Treasurer's website by January 31 each year, starting in January of 2024. The State Treasurer may include the Program in other reports as warranted.

(i) Rules. The State Treasurer may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-129, eff. 7-23-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1047, eff. 1-1-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-604, eff. 7-1-24; 103-778, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-7-24.)

Section 70. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 5-10 and 5-717 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. "Director". As used in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the word "director" means the directors of the departments of State government as designated in Section 5-20 of this Law and includes the Secretary of Early Childhood, the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Secretary of Innovation and Technology, the Secretary of Human Services, and the Secretary of Transportation.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-708, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-717)

Sec. 5-717. Military portability licensure for service members and service members' spouses.

(a) In this Section:

"Division" means the Division of Professional Regulation of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Division of Real Estate of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces, the Coast Guard, or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

"Spouse" means a party to a marriage, civil union, or registered domestic partnership.

(b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation is authorized to issue a professional portability license to (1) a service member who is an out-of-state licensee and is under official United States military orders to relocate to the State of Illinois or (2) an out-of-state licensee whose spouse is a service member under official United States military orders to relocate to the State of Illinois. The service member or the service member's spouse need not reside in this State at the time of application. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the portability license shall be issued by the Division only if the applicant fulfills all the requirements of this Section and Section 2105-135 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The portability license shall be issued after a complete application is submitted to the Division that includes proof of the following:

(1) The applicant is a service member or the spouse of a service member.

(2) The applicant or applicant's spouse is assigned to a duty station in this State, has established legal residence or will reside in this State pursuant to military relocation orders after the date of application, and can provide an official copy of those orders.

(3) The applicant's license is in good standing and is not subject to a disciplinary order encumbering the license in any other state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States or any foreign jurisdiction where the applicant holds a license and practices in the same profession with the same or similar scope of practice for which the applicant is applying, and the applicant can submit official verification of good standing and disciplinary history from each of those licensing authorities. For health care professional applicants, the Division's review of good standing is governed by this subsection, subsection (h), and all other applicable State laws and rules.

(4) The applicant was actively licensed in the same profession with the same or similar scope of practice for which the applicant is applying for at least 2 years immediately preceding the relocation.

(5) A complete set of the applicant's fingerprints has been submitted to the Illinois State Police for statewide and national criminal history checks, if applicable to the requirements of the professional regulatory Act. The applicant shall pay the fee to the Illinois State Police or to the vendor for electronic fingerprint processing. No license shall be issued to an applicant if any review of criminal history or disclosure would cause the denial of an application for licensure under the applicable licensing Act.

(6) The applicant has submitted the application for portability licensure and paid the required, nonrefundable initial application fee for that profession under its respective Act and rules.

(d) Service members or the spouses of service members granted portability licenses under this Section shall submit to the jurisdiction of the Division for purposes of the laws and rules administered, related standards of practice, and disciplinary authority. A license granted under this Section is subject to all statutes, rules, and regulations governing the license. This includes compliance with renewal and continuing education requirements of the licensing act and rules adopted during the period of licensure.

(e) Notwithstanding any other law, if the Division finds that the applicant failed to meet the requirements of subsection (c) or provided inaccurate or misleading information on the application, the Division may suspend the license pending further investigation or notice to discipline the portability license.

(f)(1) The duration of the portability license is from issuance through the next renewal period for that regulated profession. At the time of the license's renewal, the service member or the service member's spouse may apply for another portability license if the military orders continue or are extended past the renewal date or if new orders are given for duty in this State. While the portability license is held, the service member or the service member's spouse may apply for full licensure by examination, endorsement, or reciprocity pursuant to the service member's or the service member's spouse's respective professional licensing Act or rules.

(2) Once a portability license has expired or is not renewed, the service member or the service member's spouse cannot continue practicing in this State until the service member or the service member's spouse obtains licensure by examination, endorsement, or reciprocity, which includes completion and passage of all pre-license education and examination requirements under the applicable professional licensing Act and rules.

(g) An individual is ineligible to apply under this Section if:

(1) the individual is disqualified under Section 2105-165;

(2) the license the individual is seeking is subject to an interstate compact; or

(3) the individual seeks a real estate appraiser license.

(h) All service members and the spouses of service members who apply under this Section and Section 5-715 who are licensed in another jurisdiction as health care professionals, and who are seeking a health care professional license regulated by the Division and subject to the applicable licensing Acts shall not be denied an initial or renewal license:

(1) if the applicant has a prior, current, or pending disciplinary action in another jurisdiction solely based on providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in health care services that are not unlawful in this State and consistent with the standards of conduct in Illinois;

(2) if the applicant has a prior, current, or pending disciplinary action in another jurisdiction solely based on violating another jurisdiction or state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that service as provided is not unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct in Illinois; or

(3) based solely upon the applicant providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in health care services that are not unlawful in this State and consistent with the standards of conduct in Illinois.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed as prohibiting the Division from evaluating the applicant's conduct and disciplinary history and making a determination regarding the licensure or authorization to practice.

(i) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may adopt rules necessary for the implementation and administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-708, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 75. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Sections 4.01, 4.02, and 4.04 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.01)

Sec. 4.01. Additional powers and duties of the Department. In addition to powers and duties otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) To evaluate all programs, services, and facilities for the aged and for minority senior citizens within the State and determine the extent to which present public or private programs, services, and facilities meet the needs of the aged.

(2) To coordinate and evaluate all programs, services, and facilities for the aging Aging and for minority senior citizens presently furnished by State agencies and make appropriate recommendations regarding such services, programs, and facilities to the Governor and/or the General Assembly.

(2-a) To request, receive, and share information electronically through the use of data-sharing agreements for the purpose of (i) establishing and verifying the initial and continuing eligibility of older adults to participate in programs administered by the Department; (ii) maximizing federal financial participation in State assistance expenditures; and (iii) investigating allegations of fraud or other abuse of publicly funded benefits. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, but only for the limited purposes identified in the preceding sentence, this paragraph (2-a) expressly authorizes the exchanges of income, identification, and other pertinent eligibility information by and among the Department and the Social Security Administration, the Department of Employment Security, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Revenue, the Secretary of State, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, and any other governmental entity. The confidentiality of information otherwise shall be maintained as required by law. In addition, the Department on Aging shall verify employment information at the request of a community care provider for the purpose of ensuring program integrity under the Community Care Program.

(3) To function as the sole State agency to develop a comprehensive plan to meet the needs of the State's senior citizens and the State's minority senior citizens.

(4) To receive and disburse State and federal funds made available directly to the Department including those funds made available under the Older Americans Act and the Senior Community Service Employment Program for providing services for senior citizens and minority senior citizens or for purposes related thereto, and shall develop and administer any State Plan for the Aging required by federal law.

(5) To solicit, accept, hold, and administer in behalf of the State any grants or legacies of money, securities, or property to the State of Illinois for services to senior citizens and minority senior citizens or purposes related thereto.

(6) To provide consultation and assistance to communities, area agencies on aging, and groups developing local services for senior citizens and minority senior citizens.

(7) To promote community education regarding the problems of senior citizens and minority senior citizens through institutes, publications, radio, television, and the local press.

(8) To cooperate with agencies of the federal government in studies and conferences designed to examine the needs of senior citizens and minority senior citizens and to prepare programs and facilities to meet those needs.

(9) To establish and maintain information and referral sources throughout the State when not provided by other agencies.

(10) To provide the staff support that may reasonably be required by the Council.

(11) To make and enforce rules and regulations necessary and proper to the performance of its duties.

(12) To establish and fund programs or projects or experimental facilities that are specially designed as alternatives to institutional care.

(13) To develop a training program to train the counselors presently employed by the Department's aging network to provide Medicare beneficiaries with counseling and advocacy in Medicare, private health insurance, and related health care coverage plans.

(14) To make a grant to an institution of higher learning to study the feasibility of establishing and implementing an affirmative action employment plan for the recruitment, hiring, training and retraining of persons 60 or more years old for jobs for which their employment would not be precluded by law.

(15) To present one award annually in each of the categories of community service, education, the performance and graphic arts, and the labor force to outstanding Illinois senior citizens and minority senior citizens in recognition of their individual contributions to either community service, education, the performance and graphic arts, or the labor force. Nominations shall be solicited from senior citizens' service providers, area agencies on aging, senior citizens' centers, and senior citizens' organizations. If there are no nominations in a category, the Department may award a second person in one of the remaining categories. The Department shall establish a central location within the State to be designated as the Senior Illinoisans Hall of Fame for the public display of all the annual awards, or replicas thereof.

(16) To establish multipurpose senior centers through area agencies on aging and to fund those new and existing multipurpose senior centers through area agencies on aging, the establishment and funding to begin in such areas of the State as the Department shall designate by rule and as specifically appropriated funds become available.

(17) (Blank).

(18) To develop a pamphlet in English and Spanish which may be used by physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches pursuant to the Medical Practice Act of 1987, pharmacists licensed pursuant to the Pharmacy Practice Act, and Illinois residents 65 years of age or older for the purpose of assisting physicians, pharmacists, and patients in monitoring prescriptions provided by various physicians and to aid persons 65 years of age or older in complying with directions for proper use of pharmaceutical prescriptions. The pamphlet may provide space for recording information, including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) name and telephone number of the patient;

(b) name and telephone number of the prescribing physician;

(c) date of prescription;

(d) name of drug prescribed;

(e) directions for patient compliance; and

(f) name and telephone number of dispensing pharmacy.

In developing the pamphlet, the Department shall consult with the Illinois State Medical Society, the Center for Minority Health Services, the Illinois Pharmacists Association, and senior citizens organizations. The Department shall distribute the pamphlets to physicians, pharmacists and persons 65 years of age or older or various senior citizen organizations throughout the State.

(19) To conduct a study of the feasibility of implementing the Senior Companion Program throughout the State.

(20) The reimbursement rates paid through the community care program for chore housekeeping services and home care aides shall be the same.

(21) (Blank).

(22) To distribute, through its area agencies on aging, information alerting seniors on safety issues regarding emergency weather conditions, including extreme heat and cold, flooding, tornadoes, electrical storms, and other severe storm weather. The information shall include all necessary instructions for safety and all emergency telephone numbers of organizations that will provide additional information and assistance.

(23) To develop guidelines for the organization and implementation of Volunteer Services Credit Programs to be administered by Area Agencies on Aging or community-based community based senior service organizations. The Department shall hold public hearings on the proposed guidelines for public comment, suggestion, and determination of public interest. The guidelines shall be based on the findings of other states and of community organizations in Illinois that are currently operating volunteer services credit programs or demonstration volunteer services credit programs. The Department shall offer guidelines for all aspects of the programs, including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) types of services to be offered by volunteers;

(b) types of services to be received upon the redemption of service credits;

(c) issues of liability for the volunteers and the administering organizations;

(d) methods of tracking service credits earned and service credits redeemed;

(e) issues of time limits for redemption of service credits;

(f) methods of recruitment of volunteers;

(g) utilization of community volunteers, community service groups, and other resources for delivering services to be received by service credit program clients;

(h) accountability and assurance that services will be available to individuals who have earned service credits; and

(i) volunteer screening and qualifications.

(24) To function as the sole State agency to receive and disburse State and federal funds for providing adult protective services in a domestic living situation in accordance with the Adult Protective Services Act.

(25) To hold conferences, trainings, and other programs for which the Department shall determine by rule a reasonable fee to cover related administrative costs. Rules to implement the fee authority granted by this paragraph (25) must be adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; 103-670, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.02)

Sec. 4.02. Community Care Program. The Department shall establish a program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization of persons age 60 and older in need of long term care or who are established as persons who suffer from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes or in other living arrangements. Such preventive services, which may be coordinated with other programs for the aged, may include, but are not limited to, any or all of the following:

(a) (blank);

(b) (blank);

(c) home care aide services;

(d) personal assistant services;

(e) adult day services;

(f) home-delivered meals;

(g) education in self-care;

(h) personal care services;

(i) adult day health services;

(j) habilitation services;

(k) respite care;

(k-5) community reintegration services;

(k-6) flexible senior services;

(k-7) medication management;

(k-8) emergency home response;

(l) other nonmedical social services that may enable the person to become self-supporting; or

(m) (blank).

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services. In determining the amount and nature of services for which a person may qualify, consideration shall not be given to the value of cash, property, or other assets held in the name of the person's spouse pursuant to a written agreement dividing marital property into equal but separate shares or pursuant to a transfer of the person's interest in a home to his spouse, provided that the spouse's share of the marital property is not made available to the person seeking such services.

The Department shall require as a condition of eligibility that all new financially eligible applicants apply for and enroll in medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department.

The Department shall, in conjunction with the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services), seek appropriate amendments under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act. The purpose of the amendments shall be to extend eligibility for home and community based services under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act to persons who transfer to or for the benefit of a spouse those amounts of income and resources allowed under Section 1924 of the Social Security Act. Subject to the approval of such amendments, the Department shall extend the provisions of Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code to persons who, but for the provision of home or community-based services, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law. Those persons no longer found to be eligible for receiving noninstitutional services due to changes in the eligibility criteria shall be given 45 days notice prior to actual termination. Those persons receiving notice of termination may contact the Department and request the determination be appealed at any time during the 45 day notice period. The target population identified for the purposes of this Section are persons age 60 and older with an identified service need. Priority shall be given to those who are at imminent risk of institutionalization. The services shall be provided to eligible persons age 60 and older to the extent that the cost of the services together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to the person's condition. These noninstitutional non-institutional services, pilot projects, or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Department of Human Services. The Departments of Human Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Veterans' Affairs, and Commerce and Economic Opportunity and other appropriate agencies of State, federal, and local governments shall cooperate with the Department on Aging in the establishment and development of the noninstitutional non-institutional services. The Department shall require an annual audit from all personal assistant and home care aide vendors contracting with the Department under this Section. The annual audit shall assure that each audited vendor's procedures are in compliance with Department's financial reporting guidelines requiring an administrative and employee wage and benefits cost split as defined in administrative rules. The audit is a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the following: (1) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving noninstitutional non-institutional services; and (2) the establishment and development of noninstitutional non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 60 years of age or older shall be conducted by the Department.

As part of the Department on Aging's routine training of case managers and case manager supervisors, the Department may include information on family futures planning for persons who are age 60 or older and who are caregivers of their adult children with developmental disabilities. The content of the training shall be at the Department's discretion.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient copayment for services provided under this Section, such copayment to be based upon the recipient's ability to pay but in no case to exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Additionally, any portion of a person's income which is equal to or less than the federal poverty standard shall not be considered by the Department in determining the copayment. The level of such copayment shall be adjusted whenever necessary to reflect any change in the officially designated federal poverty standard.

The Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or blind or who has a permanent and total disability. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall increase the effectiveness of the existing Community Care Program by:

(1) ensuring that in-home services included in the care plan are available on evenings and weekends;

(2) ensuring that care plans contain the services that eligible participants need based on the number of days in a month, not limited to specific blocks of time, as identified by the comprehensive assessment tool selected by the Department for use statewide, not to exceed the total monthly service cost maximum allowed for each service; the Department shall develop administrative rules to implement this item (2);

(3) ensuring that the participants have the right to choose the services contained in their care plan and to direct how those services are provided, based on administrative rules established by the Department;

(4)(blank);

(5) ensuring that homemakers can provide personal care services that may or may not involve contact with clients, including, but not limited to:

(A) bathing;

(B) grooming;

(C) toileting;

(D) nail care;

(E) transferring;

(F) respiratory services;

(G) exercise; or

(H) positioning;

(6) ensuring that homemaker program vendors are not restricted from hiring homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients; the Department may not, by rule or policy, require homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients to accept assignments in homes other than the client;

(7) ensuring that the State may access maximum federal matching funds by seeking approval for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for modifications to the State's home and community based services waiver and additional waiver opportunities, including applying for enrollment in the Balance Incentive Payment Program by May 1, 2013, in order to maximize federal matching funds; this shall include, but not be limited to, modification that reflects all changes in the Community Care Program services and all increases in the services cost maximum;

(8) ensuring that the determination of need tool accurately reflects the service needs of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementia disorders;

(9) ensuring that services are authorized accurately and consistently for the Community Care Program (CCP); the Department shall implement a Service Authorization policy directive; the purpose shall be to ensure that eligibility and services are authorized accurately and consistently in the CCP program; the policy directive shall clarify service authorization guidelines to Care Coordination Units and Community Care Program providers no later than May 1, 2013;

(10) working in conjunction with Care Coordination Units, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, Community Care Program providers, and other stakeholders to make improvements to the Medicaid claiming processes and the Medicaid enrollment procedures or requirements as needed, including, but not limited to, specific policy changes or rules to improve the up-front enrollment of participants in the Medicaid program and specific policy changes or rules to insure more prompt submission of bills to the federal government to secure maximum federal matching dollars as promptly as possible; the Department on Aging shall have at least 3 meetings with stakeholders by January 1, 2014 in order to address these improvements;

(11) requiring home care service providers to comply with the rounding of hours worked provisions under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) and as set forth in 29 CFR 785.48(b) by May 1, 2013;

(12) implementing any necessary policy changes or promulgating any rules, no later than January 1, 2014, to assist the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in moving as many participants as possible, consistent with federal regulations, into coordinated care plans if a care coordination plan that covers long term care is available in the recipient's area; and

(13) (blank).

By January 1, 2009 or as soon after the end of the Cash and Counseling Demonstration Project as is practicable, the Department may, based on its evaluation of the demonstration project, promulgate rules concerning personal assistant services, to include, but need not be limited to, qualifications, employment screening, rights under fair labor standards, training, fiduciary agent, and supervision requirements. All applicants shall be subject to the provisions of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

The Department shall develop procedures to enhance availability of services on evenings, weekends, and on an emergency basis to meet the respite needs of caregivers. Procedures shall be developed to permit the utilization of services in successive blocks of 24 hours up to the monthly maximum established by the Department. Workers providing these services shall be appropriately trained.

No September 23, 1991 (Public Act 87-729) person may perform chore/housekeeping and home care aide services under a program authorized by this Section unless that person has been issued a certificate of pre-service to do so by his or her employing agency. Information gathered to effect such certification shall include (i) the person's name, (ii) the date the person was hired by his or her current employer, and (iii) the training, including dates and levels. Persons engaged in the program authorized by this Section before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991 shall be issued a certificate of all pre-service and in-service training from his or her employer upon submitting the necessary information. The employing agency shall be required to retain records of all staff pre-service and in-service training, and shall provide such records to the Department upon request and upon termination of the employer's contract with the Department. In addition, the employing agency is responsible for the issuance of certifications of in-service training completed to their employees.

The Department is required to develop a system to ensure that persons working as home care aides and personal assistants receive increases in their wages when the federal minimum wage is increased by requiring vendors to certify that they are meeting the federal minimum wage statute for home care aides and personal assistants. An employer that cannot ensure that the minimum wage increase is being given to home care aides and personal assistants shall be denied any increase in reimbursement costs.

The Community Care Program Advisory Committee is created in the Department on Aging. The Director shall appoint individuals to serve in the Committee, who shall serve at their own expense. Members of the Committee must abide by all applicable ethics laws. The Committee shall advise the Department on issues related to the Department's program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization. The Committee shall meet on a bi-monthly basis and shall serve to identify and advise the Department on present and potential issues affecting the service delivery network, the program's clients, and the Department and to recommend solution strategies. Persons appointed to the Committee shall be appointed on, but not limited to, their own and their agency's experience with the program, geographic representation, and willingness to serve. The Director shall appoint members to the Committee to represent provider, advocacy, policy research, and other constituencies committed to the delivery of high quality home and community-based services to older adults. Representatives shall be appointed to ensure representation from community care providers, including, but not limited to, adult day service providers, homemaker providers, case coordination and case management units, emergency home response providers, statewide trade or labor unions that represent home care aides and direct care staff, area agencies on aging, adults over age 60, membership organizations representing older adults, and other organizational entities, providers of care, or individuals with demonstrated interest and expertise in the field of home and community care as determined by the Director.

Nominations may be presented from any agency or State association with interest in the program. The Director, or his or her designee, shall serve as the permanent co-chair of the advisory committee. One other co-chair shall be nominated and approved by the members of the committee on an annual basis. Committee members' terms of appointment shall be for 4 years with one-quarter of the appointees' terms expiring each year. A member shall continue to serve until his or her replacement is named. The Department shall fill vacancies that have a remaining term of over one year, and this replacement shall occur through the annual replacement of expiring terms. The Director shall designate Department staff to provide technical assistance and staff support to the committee. Department representation shall not constitute membership of the committee. All Committee papers, issues, recommendations, reports, and meeting memoranda are advisory only. The Director, or his or her designee, shall make a written report, as requested by the Committee, regarding issues before the Committee.

The Department on Aging and the Department of Human Services shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. Such joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before March 31 of the following fiscal year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Those persons previously found eligible for receiving noninstitutional non-institutional services whose services were discontinued under the Emergency Budget Act of Fiscal Year 1992, and who do not meet the eligibility standards in effect on or after July 1, 1992, shall remain ineligible on and after July 1, 1992. Those persons previously not required to cost-share and who were required to cost-share effective March 1, 1992, shall continue to meet cost-share requirements on and after July 1, 1992. Beginning July 1, 1992, all clients will be required to meet eligibility, cost-share, and other requirements and will have services discontinued or altered when they fail to meet these requirements.

For the purposes of this Section, "flexible senior services" refers to services that require one-time or periodic expenditures, including, but not limited to, respite care, home modification, assistive technology, housing assistance, and transportation.

The Department shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology for the Community Care Program no later than January 1, 2014.

The Department shall require, as a condition of eligibility, application for the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

The Department may authorize Community Care Program services until an applicant is determined eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

The Department shall continue to provide Community Care Program reports as required by statute, which shall include an annual report on Care Coordination Unit performance and adherence to service guidelines and a 6-month supplemental report.

In regard to community care providers, failure to comply with Department on Aging policies shall be cause for disciplinary action, including, but not limited to, disqualification from serving Community Care Program clients. Each provider, upon submission of any bill or invoice to the Department for payment for services rendered, shall include a notarized statement, under penalty of perjury pursuant to Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure, that the provider has complied with all Department policies.

The Director of the Department on Aging shall make information available to the State Board of Elections as may be required by an agreement the State Board of Elections has entered into with a multi-state voter registration list maintenance system.

The Department shall pay an enhanced rate of at least $1.77 per unit under the Community Care Program to those in-home service provider agencies that offer health insurance coverage as a benefit to their direct service worker employees pursuant to rules adopted by the Department. The Department shall review the enhanced rate as part of its process to rebase in-home service provider reimbursement rates pursuant to federal waiver requirements. Subject to federal approval, beginning on January 1, 2024, rates for adult day services shall be increased to $16.84 per hour and rates for each way transportation services for adult day services shall be increased to $12.44 per unit transportation.

Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2024, rates for homemaker services shall be increased to $28.07 to sustain a minimum wage of $17 per hour for direct service workers. Rates in subsequent State fiscal years shall be no lower than the rates put into effect upon federal approval. Providers of in-home services shall be required to certify to the Department that they remain in compliance with the mandated wage increase for direct service workers. Fringe benefits, including, but not limited to, paid time off and payment for training, health insurance, travel, or transportation, shall not be reduced in relation to the rate increases described in this paragraph.

Subject to and upon federal approval, on and after January 1, 2025, rates for homemaker services shall be increased to $29.63 to sustain a minimum wage of $18 per hour for direct service workers. Rates in subsequent State fiscal years shall be no lower than the rates put into effect upon federal approval. Providers of in-home services shall be required to certify to the Department that they remain in compliance with the mandated wage increase for direct service workers. Fringe benefits, including, but not limited to, paid time off and payment for training, health insurance, travel, or transportation, shall not be reduced in relation to the rate increases described in this paragraph.

The General Assembly finds it necessary to authorize an aggressive Medicaid enrollment initiative designed to maximize federal Medicaid funding for the Community Care Program which produces significant savings for the State of Illinois. The Department on Aging shall establish and implement a Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative. Under the Initiative, the Department on Aging shall, at a minimum: (i) provide an enhanced rate to adequately compensate care coordination units to enroll eligible Community Care Program clients into Medicaid; (ii) use recommendations from a stakeholder committee on how best to implement the Initiative; and (iii) establish requirements for State agencies to make enrollment in the State's Medical Assistance program easier for seniors.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Enrollment Oversight Subcommittee is created as a subcommittee of the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee established in Section 35 of the Older Adult Services Act to make recommendations on how best to increase the number of medical assistance recipients who are enrolled in the Community Care Program. The Subcommittee shall consist of all of the following persons who must be appointed within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587):

(1) The Director of Aging, or his or her designee, who shall serve as the chairperson of the Subcommittee.

(2) One representative of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, appointed by the Director of Healthcare and Family Services.

(3) One representative of the Department of Human Services, appointed by the Secretary of Human Services.

(4) One individual representing a care coordination unit, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(5) One individual from a non-governmental statewide organization that advocates for seniors, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(6) One individual representing Area Agencies on Aging, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(7) One individual from a statewide association dedicated to Alzheimer's care, support, and research, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(8) One individual from an organization that employs persons who provide services under the Community Care Program, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(9) One member of a trade or labor union representing persons who provide services under the Community Care Program, appointed by the Director of Aging.

(10) One member of the Senate, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(11) One member of the Senate, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(12) One member of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(13) One member of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(14) One individual appointed by a labor organization representing frontline employees at the Department of Human Services.

The Subcommittee shall provide oversight to the Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative and shall meet quarterly. At each Subcommittee meeting the Department on Aging shall provide the following data sets to the Subcommittee: (A) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program and are enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program; (B) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program, but are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program; and (C) the number of Illinois residents, categorized by planning and service area, who are receiving services under the Community Care Program and are eligible for benefits under the State's Medical Assistance Program, but are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program. In addition to this data, the Department on Aging shall provide the Subcommittee with plans on how the Department on Aging will reduce the number of Illinois residents who are not enrolled in the State's Medical Assistance Program but who are eligible for medical assistance benefits. The Department on Aging shall enroll in the State's Medical Assistance Program those Illinois residents who receive services under the Community Care Program and are eligible for medical assistance benefits but are not enrolled in the State's Medicaid Assistance Program. The data provided to the Subcommittee shall be made available to the public via the Department on Aging's website.

The Department on Aging, with the involvement of the Subcommittee, shall collaborate with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services on how best to achieve the responsibilities of the Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative.

The Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall coordinate and implement a streamlined process for seniors to access benefits under the State's Medical Assistance Program.

The Subcommittee shall collaborate with the Department of Human Services on the adoption of a uniform application submission process. The Department of Human Services and any other State agency involved with processing the medical assistance application of any person enrolled in the Community Care Program shall include the appropriate care coordination unit in all communications related to the determination or status of the application.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative shall provide targeted funding to care coordination units to help seniors complete their applications for medical assistance benefits. On and after July 1, 2019, care coordination units shall receive no less than $200 per completed application, which rate may be included in a bundled rate for initial intake services when Medicaid application assistance is provided in conjunction with the initial intake process for new program participants.

The Community Care Program Medicaid Initiative shall cease operation 5 years after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587), after which the Subcommittee shall dissolve.

Effective July 1, 2023, subject to federal approval, the Department on Aging shall reimburse Care Coordination Units at the following rates for case management services: $252.40 for each initial assessment; $366.40 for each initial assessment with translation; $229.68 for each redetermination assessment; $313.68 for each redetermination assessment with translation; $200.00 for each completed application for medical assistance benefits; $132.26 for each face-to-face, choices-for-care screening; $168.26 for each face-to-face, choices-for-care screening with translation; $124.56 for each 6-month, face-to-face visit; $132.00 for each MCO participant eligibility determination; and $157.00 for each MCO participant eligibility determination with translation.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-102, Article 45, Section 45-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 85, Section 85-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 90, Section 90-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-670, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.04)

Sec. 4.04. Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The purpose of the Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is to ensure that older persons and persons with disabilities receive quality services. This is accomplished by providing advocacy services for residents of long term care facilities and participants receiving home care and community-based care. Managed care is increasingly becoming the vehicle for delivering health and long-term services and supports to seniors and persons with disabilities, including dual eligible participants. The additional ombudsman authority will allow advocacy services to be provided to Illinois participants for the first time and will produce a cost savings for the State of Illinois by supporting the rebalancing efforts of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.

(a) Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The Department shall establish a Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, through the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman ("the Office"), in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended. The Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is authorized, subject to sufficient appropriations, to advocate on behalf of older persons and persons with disabilities residing in their own homes or community-based settings, relating to matters which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such individuals.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Access" means the right to:

(i) Enter any long term care facility or assisted living or shared housing establishment or supportive living facility;

(ii) Communicate privately and without restriction with any resident, regardless of age, who consents to the communication;

(iii) Seek consent to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant or resident, regardless of age;

(iv) Inspect and copy the clinical and other records of a participant or resident, regardless of age, with the express written consent of the participant or resident, or if consent is given orally, visually, or through the use of auxiliary aids and services, such consent is documented contemporaneously by a representative of the Office in accordance with such procedures;

(v) Observe all areas of the long term care facility or supportive living facilities, assisted living or shared housing establishment except the living area of any resident who protests the observation; and

(vi) Subject to permission of the participant or resident requesting services or his or her representative, enter a home or community-based setting.

(2) "Long Term Care Facility" means (i) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; (ii) any skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility which meets the requirements of Section 1819(a), (b), (c), and (d) or Section 1919(a), (b), (c), and (d) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a), (b), (c), and (d) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r(a), (b), (c), and (d)); (iii) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; (iv) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended; and (v) any facility licensed under Section 4-105 or 4-201 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, as now or hereafter amended.

(2.5) "Assisted living establishment" and "shared housing establishment" have the meanings given those terms in Section 10 of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(2.7) "Supportive living facility" means a facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(2.8) "Community-based setting" means any place of abode other than an individual's private home.

(3) "State Long Term Care Ombudsman" means any person employed by the Department to fulfill the requirements of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman as required under the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, and Departmental policy.

(3.1) "Ombudsman" means any designated representative of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program; provided that the representative, whether he is paid for or volunteers his ombudsman services, shall be qualified and designated by the Office to perform the duties of an ombudsman as specified by the Department in rules and in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended.

(4) "Participant" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who is eligible for services under any of the following:

(i) A medical assistance waiver administered by the State.

(ii) A managed care organization providing care coordination and other services to seniors and persons with disabilities.

(5) "Resident" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who resides in a long-term care facility.

(c) Ombudsman; rules. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall be composed of at least one full-time ombudsman and shall include a system of designated regional long term care ombudsman programs. Each regional program shall be designated by the State Long Term Care Ombudsman as a subdivision of the Office and any representative of a regional program shall be treated as a representative of the Office.

The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall promulgate administrative rules in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, to establish the responsibilities of the Department and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the designated regional Ombudsman programs. The administrative rules shall include the responsibility of the Office and designated regional programs to investigate and resolve complaints made by or on behalf of residents of long term care facilities, supportive living facilities, and assisted living and shared housing establishments, and participants residing in their own homes or community-based settings, including the option to serve residents and participants under the age of 60, relating to actions, inaction, or decisions of providers, or their representatives, of such facilities and establishments, of public agencies, or of social services agencies, which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such residents and participants. The Office and designated regional programs may represent all residents and participants, but are not required by this Act to represent persons under 60 years of age, except to the extent required by federal law. When necessary and appropriate, representatives of the Office shall refer complaints to the appropriate regulatory State agency. The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services and other State agencies in providing information and training to designated regional long term care ombudsman programs about the appropriate assessment and treatment (including information about appropriate supportive services, treatment options, and assessment of rehabilitation potential) of the participants they serve.

The State Long Term Care Ombudsman and all other ombudsmen, as defined in paragraph (3.1) of subsection (b) must submit to background checks under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and receive training, as prescribed by the Illinois Department on Aging, before visiting facilities, private homes, or community-based settings. The training must include information specific to assisted living establishments, supportive living facilities, shared housing establishments, private homes, and community-based settings and to the rights of residents and participants guaranteed under the corresponding Acts and administrative rules.

(c-5) Consumer Choice Information Reports. The Office shall:

(1) In collaboration with the Attorney General, create a Consumer Choice Information Report form to be completed by all licensed long term care facilities to aid Illinoisans and their families in making informed choices about long term care. The Office shall create a Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility. The Office shall collaborate with the Attorney General and the Department of Human Services to create a Consumer Choice Information Report form for facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act.

(2) Develop a database of Consumer Choice Information Reports completed by licensed long term care facilities that includes information in the following consumer categories:

(A) Medical Care, Services, and Treatment.

(B) Special Services and Amenities.

(C) Staffing.

(D) Facility Statistics and Resident Demographics.

(E) Ownership and Administration.

(F) Safety and Security.

(G) Meals and Nutrition.

(H) Rooms, Furnishings, and Equipment.

(I) Family, Volunteer, and Visitation Provisions.

(3) Make this information accessible to the public, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink on the Office's World Wide Web home page. Information about facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act shall be made accessible to the public by the Department of Human Services, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink on the Department of Human Services' "For Customers" website.

(4) Have the authority, with the Attorney General, to verify that information provided by a facility is accurate.

(5) Request a new report from any licensed facility whenever it deems necessary.

(6) Include in the Office's Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility additional information on each licensed long term care facility in the State of Illinois, including information regarding each facility's compliance with the relevant State and federal statutes, rules, and standards; customer satisfaction surveys; and information generated from quality measures developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(d) Access and visitation rights.

(1) In accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1819 and subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1919 of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 (c)(3)(A) and (E) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r (c)(3)(A) and (E)), and Section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 3058f), a long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment must:

(i) permit immediate access to any resident, regardless of age, by a designated ombudsman;

(ii) permit representatives of the Office, with the permission of the resident, the resident's legal representative, or the resident's legal guardian, to examine and copy a resident's clinical and other records, including facility reports of incidents or occurrences made to State agencies, regardless of the age of the resident, and if a resident is unable to consent to such review, and has no legal guardian, permit representatives of the Office appropriate access, as defined by the Department, in consultation with the Office, in administrative rules, to the resident's records; and

(iii) permit a representative of the Program to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant who consents to the communication regardless of the consent of, or withholding of consent by, a legal guardian or an agent named in a power of attorney executed by the participant.

(2) Each long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment shall display, in multiple, conspicuous public places within the facility accessible to both visitors and residents and in an easily readable format, the address and phone number of the Office of the Long Term Care Ombudsman, in a manner prescribed by the Office.

(e) Immunity. An ombudsman or any representative of the Office participating in the good faith performance of his or her official duties shall have immunity from any liability (civil, criminal or otherwise) in any proceedings (civil, criminal or otherwise) brought as a consequence of the performance of his official duties.

(f) Business offenses.

(1) No person shall:

(i) Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any representative of the Office in the performance of his official duties under this Act and the Older Americans Act of 1965; or

(ii) Intentionally retaliate, discriminate against, or effect reprisals against any long term care facility resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any representative of the Office.

(2) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $501.

(3) The State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the long term care facility, supportive living facility, or assisted living or shared housing establishment is located, or the Attorney General, of any violations of this Section.

(g) Confidentiality of records and identities. All records containing resident, participant, and complainant information collected by the Long Term Care Ombudsman Program are confidential and shall not be disclosed outside of the program without a lawful subpoena or the permission of the State Ombudsman. The State Ombudsman, at his or her discretion, may disclose resident or participant information if it is in the best interest of the resident or participant. The Department shall establish procedures for the disclosure of program records by the State Ombudsman. The procedures shall prohibit the disclosure of the identity of any complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider in case records unless:

(1) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider or his or her legal representative consents to the disclosure and the consent is in writing;

(2) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider or the resident or participant's legal representative gives consent orally; and the consent is documented contemporaneously in writing in accordance with such requirements as the Department shall establish; or

(3) the disclosure is required by court order.

(h) Legal representation. The Attorney General shall provide legal representation to any representative of the Office against whom suit or other legal action is brought in connection with the performance of the representative's official duties, in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(i) Treatment by prayer and spiritual means. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize or require the medical supervision, regulation or control of remedial care or treatment of any resident in a long term care facility operated exclusively by and for members or adherents of any church or religious denomination the tenets and practices of which include reliance solely upon spiritual means through prayer for healing.

(j) The Long Term Care Ombudsman Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to receive moneys for the express purposes of this Section. All interest earned on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys contained in the fund shall be used to support the purposes of this Section.

(k) Each Regional Ombudsman may, in accordance with rules promulgated by the Office, establish a multi-disciplinary team to act in an advisory role for the purpose of providing professional knowledge and expertise in handling complex abuse, neglect, and advocacy issues involving participants. Each multi-disciplinary team may consist of one or more volunteer representatives from any combination of at least 7 members from the following professions: banking or finance; disability care; health care; pharmacology; law; law enforcement; emergency responder; mental health care; clergy; coroner or medical examiner; substance abuse; domestic violence; sexual assault; or other related fields. To support multi-disciplinary teams in this role, law enforcement agencies and coroners or medical examiners shall supply records as may be requested in particular cases. The Regional Ombudsman, or his or her designee, of the area in which the multi-disciplinary team is created shall be the facilitator of the multi-disciplinary team.

(Source: P.A. 102-1033, eff. 1-1-23; 103-329, eff. 1-1-24; 103-762, eff. 1-1-25; 103-767, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 80. The Substance Use Disorder Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports.

(1) The Department may publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and on the current substance use disorder treatment capacity within the State. The report shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(G) An inventory of the State's substance use disorder treatment capacity, including, but not limited to:

(i) The number and type of licensed treatment programs in each geographic area of the State.

(ii) The availability of medication-assisted treatment at each licensed program and which types of medication-assisted treatment are available.

(iii) The number of recovery homes that accept individuals using medication-assisted treatment in their recovery.

(iv) The number of medical professionals currently authorized to prescribe buprenorphine and the number of individuals who fill prescriptions for that medication at retail pharmacies as prescribed.

(v) Any partnerships between programs licensed by the Department and other providers of medication-assisted treatment.

(vi) Any challenges in providing medication-assisted treatment reported by programs licensed by the Department and any potential solutions.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Department may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Department may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance use disorder treatment.

The Department may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose and for dispensing and distributing fentanyl test strips to further promote harm reduction efforts and prevent an overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Department may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(3) The Department may support drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects by facilitating the acquisition of opioid antagonist medication approved for opioid overdose reversal, facilitating the acquisition of opioid antagonist medication approved for opioid overdose reversal, providing trainings in overdose prevention best practices, facilitating the acquisition of fentanyl test strips to test for the presence of fentanyl, a fentanyl analog, or a drug adulterant within a controlled substance, connecting programs to medical resources, establishing a statewide standing order for the acquisition of needed medication, establishing learning collaboratives between localities and programs, and assisting programs in navigating any regulatory requirements for establishing or expanding such programs.

(4) In supporting best practices in drug overdose prevention programming, the Department may promote the following programmatic elements:

(A) Training individuals who currently use drugs in the administration of opioid antagonists approved for the reversal of an opioid overdose and in the use of fentanyl test strips to test for the presence of fentanyl, a fentanyl analog, or a drug adulterant within a controlled substance.

(B) Directly distributing opioid antagonists approved for the reversal of an opioid overdose rather than providing prescriptions to be filled at a pharmacy.

(B-1) Directly distributing fentanyl test strips to test for the presence of fentanyl, a fentanyl analog, or a drug adulterant within a controlled substance.

(C) Conducting street and community outreach to work directly with individuals who are using drugs.

(D) Employing community health workers or peer recovery specialists who are familiar with the communities served and can provide culturally competent services.

(E) Collaborating with other community-based organizations, substance use disorder treatment centers, or other health care providers engaged in treating individuals who are using drugs.

(F) Providing linkages for individuals to obtain evidence-based substance use disorder treatment.

(G) Engaging individuals exiting jails or prisons who are at a high risk of overdose.

(H) Providing education and training to community-based organizations who work directly with individuals who are using drugs and those individuals' families and communities.

(I) Providing education and training on drug overdose prevention and response to emergency personnel and law enforcement.

(J) Informing communities of the important role emergency personnel play in responding to accidental overdose.

(K) Producing and distributing targeted mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of leaving unused prescription drugs in the home, and the proper methods for disposing of unused prescription drugs.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Department may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Department prescribes. Eligible grant activities include, but are not limited to, purchasing and distributing opioid antagonists and fentanyl test strips, hiring peer recovery specialists or other community members to conduct community outreach, and hosting public health fairs or events to distribute opioid antagonists and fentanyl test strips, promote harm reduction activities, and provide linkages to community partners.

(2) In awarding grants, the Department shall consider the overall rate of opioid overdose, the rate of increase in opioid overdose, and racial disparities in opioid overdose experienced by the communities to be served by grantees. The Department shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) (Blank).

(3.5) Any hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act shall be deemed to have met the standards and requirements set forth in this Section to enroll in the drug overdose prevention program upon completion of the enrollment process except that proof of a standing order and attestation of programmatic requirements shall be waived for enrollment purposes. Reporting mandated by enrollment shall be necessary to carry out or attain eligibility for associated resources under this Section for drug overdose prevention projects operated on the licensed premises of the hospital and operated by the hospital or its designated agent. The Department shall streamline hospital enrollment for drug overdose prevention programs by accepting such deemed status under this Section in order to reduce barriers to hospital participation in drug overdose prevention, recognition, or response projects. Subject to appropriation, any hospital under this paragraph and any other organization deemed eligible by the Department shall be enrolled to receive fentanyl test strips from the Department and distribute fentanyl test strips upon enrollment in the Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Department may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(1.5) Notwithstanding any provision of or requirement otherwise imposed by the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, or any other law or rule, including, but not limited to, any requirement related to labeling, storage, or recordkeeping, a health care professional or other person acting under the direction of a health care professional may, directly or by standing order, obtain, store, and dispense an opioid antagonist to a patient in a facility that includes, but is not limited to, a hospital, a hospital affiliate, or a federally qualified health center if the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection is provided to the patient. A person acting in accordance with this paragraph shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute; or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance use disorder program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Department, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, substance use disorder programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance use disorder programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority, an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a probation officer, as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act, or a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, that responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; 103-602, eff. 7-1-24; 103-980, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 85. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-545 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-545)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 405-545. Opioid antagonists.

(a) As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" has the meaning given to that term in Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act

(b) A State agency may make opioid antagonists available at a location where its employees work if the State agency trains employees in the use and administration of the opioid antagonists.

(c) An employee of a State agency that uses and administers administrates opioid antagonists as described in this Section is exempt from civil liability under Section 69 of the Good Samaritan Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-845, eff. 7-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 90. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5.15, 5.46, and 7.3b as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5.15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 5.15. Day care; Department of Human Services.

(a) For the purpose of ensuring effective statewide planning, development, and utilization of resources for the day care of children, operated under various auspices, the Department of Human Services, or any State agency that assumes these responsibilities, is designated to coordinate all day care activities for children of the State and shall develop or continue, and shall update every year, a State comprehensive day-care plan for submission to the Governor that identifies high-priority areas and groups, relating them to available resources and identifying the most effective approaches to the use of existing day care services. The State comprehensive day-care plan shall be made available to the General Assembly following the Governor's approval of the plan.

The plan shall include methods and procedures for the development of additional day care resources for children to meet the goal of reducing short-run and long-run dependency and to provide necessary enrichment and stimulation to the education of young children. Recommendations shall be made for State policy on optimum use of private and public, local, State and federal resources, including an estimate of the resources needed for the licensing and regulation of day care facilities.

A written report shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly annually on April 15. The report shall include an evaluation of developments over the preceding fiscal year, including cost-benefit analyses of various arrangements. Beginning with the report in 1990 submitted by the Department's predecessor agency and every 2 years thereafter, the report shall also include the following:

(1) An assessment of the child care services, needs and available resources throughout the State and an assessment of the adequacy of existing child care services, including, but not limited to, services assisted under this Act and under any other program administered by other State agencies.

(2) A survey of day care facilities to determine the number of qualified caregivers, as defined by rule, attracted to vacant positions, or retained at the current positions, and any problems encountered by facilities in attracting and retaining capable caregivers. The report shall include an assessment, based on the survey, of improvements in employee benefits that may attract capable caregivers. The survey process shall incorporate feedback from groups and individuals with relevant expertise or lived experience, including, but not limited to, educators and child care providers, regarding the collection of data in order to inform strategies and costs related to the Child Care Development Fund and the General Revenue Fund, for the purpose of promoting workforce recruitment and retention. The survey shall, at a minimum, be updated every 4 years based on feedback received. Initial survey updates shall be made prior to the 2025 survey data collection.

(3) The average wages and salaries and fringe benefit packages paid to caregivers throughout the State, computed on a regional basis, compared to similarly qualified employees in other but related fields.

(4) The qualifications of new caregivers hired at licensed day care facilities during the previous 2-year period.

(5) Recommendations for increasing caregiver wages and salaries to ensure quality care for children.

(6) Evaluation of the fee structure and income eligibility for child care subsidized by the State.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(b) The Department of Human Services shall establish policies and procedures for developing and implementing interagency agreements with other agencies of the State providing child care services or reimbursement for such services. The plans shall be annually reviewed and modified for the purpose of addressing issues of applicability and service system barriers.

(c) In cooperation with other State agencies, the Department of Human Services shall develop and implement, or shall continue, a resource and referral system for the State of Illinois either within the Department or by contract with local or regional agencies. Funding for implementation of this system may be provided through Department appropriations or other inter-agency funding arrangements. The resource and referral system shall provide at least the following services:

(1) Assembling and maintaining a data base on the supply of child care services.

(2) Providing information and referrals for parents.

(3) Coordinating the development of new child care resources.

(4) Providing technical assistance and training to child care service providers.

(5) Recording and analyzing the demand for child care services.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall conduct day care planning activities with the following priorities:

(1) Development of voluntary day care resources wherever possible, with the provision for grants-in-aid only where demonstrated to be useful and necessary as incentives or supports. By January 1, 2002, the Department shall design a plan to create more child care slots as well as goals and timetables to improve quality and accessibility of child care.

(2) Emphasis on service to children of recipients of public assistance when such service will allow training or employment of the parent toward achieving the goal of independence.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Care of children from families in stress and crises whose members potentially may become, or are in danger of becoming, non-productive and dependent.

(5) Expansion of family day care facilities wherever possible.

(6) Location of centers in economically depressed neighborhoods, preferably in multi-service centers with cooperation of other agencies. The Department shall coordinate the provision of grants, but only to the extent funds are specifically appropriated for this purpose, to encourage the creation and expansion of child care centers in high need communities to be issued by the State, business, and local governments.

(7) Use of existing facilities free of charge or for reasonable rental whenever possible in lieu of construction.

(8) Development of strategies for assuring a more complete range of day care options, including provision of day care services in homes, in schools, or in centers, which will enable a parent or parents to complete a course of education or obtain or maintain employment and the creation of more child care options for swing shift, evening, and weekend workers and for working women with sick children. The Department shall encourage companies to provide child care in their own offices or in the building in which the corporation is located so that employees of all the building's tenants can benefit from the facility.

(9) Development of strategies for subsidizing students pursuing degrees in the child care field.

(10) Continuation and expansion of service programs that assist teen parents to continue and complete their education.

Emphasis shall be given to support services that will help to ensure such parents' graduation from high school and to services for participants in any programs of job training conducted by the Department.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall actively stimulate the development of public and private resources at the local level. It shall also seek the fullest utilization of federal funds directly or indirectly available to the Department.

Where appropriate, existing non-governmental agencies or associations shall be involved in planning by the Department.

(f) To better accommodate the child care needs of low income working families, especially those who receive Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) or who are transitioning from TANF to work, or who are at risk of depending on TANF in the absence of child care, the Department shall complete a study using outcome-based assessment measurements to analyze the various types of child care needs, including but not limited to: child care homes; child care facilities; before and after school care; and evening and weekend care. Based upon the findings of the study, the Department shall develop a plan by April 15, 1998, that identifies the various types of child care needs within various geographic locations. The plan shall include, but not be limited to, the special needs of parents and guardians in need of non-traditional child care services such as early mornings, evenings, and weekends; the needs of very low income families and children and how they might be better served; and strategies to assist child care providers to meet the needs and schedules of low income families.

(g) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-1054, eff. 12-20-24; revised 1-13-25.)

(20 ILCS 505/5.46)

Sec. 5.46. Application for Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, and Railroad Retirement benefits.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Achieving a Better Life Experience Account" or "ABLE account" means an account established for the purpose of financing certain qualified expenses of eligible individuals as specifically provided for in Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code and Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act.

"Benefits" means Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, and Railroad Retirement benefits.

"DCFS Guardianship Administrator" means a Department representative appointed as guardian of the person or legal custodian of the minor youth in care.

"Youth's attorney and guardian ad litem" means the person appointed as the youth's attorney or guardian ad litem in accordance with the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in the proceeding in which the Department is appointed as the youth's guardian or custodian.

(b) Application for benefits.

(1) Upon receiving temporary custody or guardianship of a youth in care, the Department shall assess the youth to determine whether the youth may be eligible for benefits. If, after the assessment, the Department determines that the youth may be eligible for benefits, the Department shall ensure that an application is filed on behalf of the youth. The Department shall prescribe by rule how it will review cases of youth in care at regular intervals to determine whether the youth may have become eligible for benefits after the initial assessment. The Department shall make reasonable efforts to encourage youth in care over the age of 18 who are likely eligible for benefits to cooperate with the application process and to assist youth with the application process.

(2) When applying for benefits under this Section for a youth in care the Department shall identify a representative payee in accordance with the requirements of 20 CFR 404.2021 and 416.621. If the Department is seeking to be appointed as the youth's representative payee, the Department must consider input, if provided, from the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem regarding whether another representative payee, consistent with the requirements of 20 CFR 404.2021 and 416.621, is available. If the Department serves as the representative payee for a youth over the age of 18, the Department shall request a court order, as described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) and in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d).

(c) Notifications. The Department shall immediately notify a youth over the age of 16, the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, and the youth's parent or legal guardian or another responsible adult of:

(1) any application for or any application to become representative payee for benefits on behalf of a youth in care;

(2) beginning January 1, 2025, any communications from the Social Security Administration, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, or the Railroad Retirement Board pertaining to the acceptance or denial of benefits or the selection of a representative payee; and

(3) beginning January 1, 2025, any appeal or other action requested by the Department regarding an application for benefits.

(d) Use of benefits. Consistent with federal law, when the Department serves as the representative payee for a youth receiving benefits and receives benefits on the youth's behalf, the Department shall:

(1) Beginning January 1, 2024, ensure that when the youth attains the age of 14 years and until the Department no longer serves as the representative payee, a minimum percentage of the youth's Supplemental Security Income benefits are conserved in accordance with paragraph (4) as follows:

(A) From the age of 14 through age 15, at least 40%.

(B) From the age of 16 through age 17, at least 80%.

(C) From the age of 18 and older, 100%, when a court order has been entered expressly authorizing the DCFS Guardianship Administrator to serve as the designated representative to establish an ABLE account on behalf of a youth in accordance with paragraph (4).

(2) Beginning January 1, 2024, ensure that when the youth attains the age of 14 years and until the Department no longer serves as the representative payee a minimum percentage of the youth's Social Security benefits, Veterans benefits, or Railroad Retirement benefits are conserved in accordance with paragraph (3) or (4), as applicable, as follows:

(A) From the age of 14 through age 15, at least 40%.

(B) From the age of 16 through age 17, at least 80%.

(C) From the age of 18, 100%. If establishment of an ABLE account is necessary to conserve benefits for youth age 18 and older, then benefits shall be conserved in accordance with paragraph (4) when a court order has been entered expressly authorizing the DCFS Guardianship Administrator to serve as the designated representative to establish an ABLE account on behalf of a youth.

(3) Exercise discretion in accordance with federal law and in the best interests of the youth when making decisions to use or conserve the youth's benefits that are less than or not subject to asset or resource limits under federal law, including using the benefits to address the youth's special needs and conserving the benefits for the youth's reasonably foreseeable future needs.

(4) Appropriately monitor any federal asset or resource limits for the Supplemental Security Income benefits and ensure that the youth's best interest is served by using or conserving the benefits in a way that avoids violating any federal asset or resource limits that would affect the youth's eligibility to receive the benefits, including, but not limited to: ;

(A) establishing an ABLE account authorized by Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, for the youth and conserving the youth's benefits in that account in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits;

(B) if the Department determines that using the benefits for services for current special needs not already provided by the Department is in the best interest of the youth, using the benefits for those services;

(C) if federal law requires certain back payments of benefits to be placed in a dedicated account, complying with the requirements for dedicated accounts under 20 CFR 416.640(e); and

(D) applying any other exclusions from federal asset or resource limits available under federal law and using or conserving the youth's benefits in a manner that appropriately avoids any federal asset or resource limits.

(e) By July 1, 2024, the Department shall provide a report to the General Assembly regarding youth in care who receive benefits who are not subject to this Act. The report shall discuss a goal of expanding conservation of children's benefits to all benefits of all children of any age for whom the Department serves as representative payee. The report shall include a description of any identified obstacles, steps to be taken to address the obstacles, and a description of any need for statutory, rule, or procedural changes.

(f) (1) Accounting.

(A) Beginning on November 17, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-564) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly through December 31, 2024, upon request of the youth's attorney or guardian ad litem, the Department shall provide an annual accounting to the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem of how the youth's benefits have been used and conserved.

(B) Beginning January 1, 2025 and every year thereafter, an annual accounting of how the youth's benefits have been used and conserved shall be provided automatically to the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem.

(C) In addition, within 10 business days of a request from a youth or the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, the Department shall provide an accounting to the youth of how the youth's benefits have been used and conserved.

(2) The accounting shall include:

(A) The amount of benefits received on the youth's behalf since the most recent accounting and the date the benefits were received.

(B) Information regarding the youth's benefits and resources, including the youth's benefits, insurance, cash assets, trust accounts, earnings, and other resources.

(C) An accounting of the disbursement of benefit funds, including the date, amount, identification of payee, and purpose.

(D) Information regarding each request by the youth, the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, or the youth's caregiver for disbursement of funds and a statement regarding the reason for not granting the request if the request was denied.

When the Department's guardianship of the youth is being terminated, prior to or upon the termination of guardianship, the Department shall provide (i) a final accounting to the youth's attorney and guardian ad litem, and to either the person or persons who will assume guardianship of the youth or who is in the process of adopting the youth, if the youth is under 18, or to the youth, if the youth is over 18 and (ii) information to the parent, guardian, or youth regarding how to apply to become the designated representative for the youth's ABLE account.

(g) Education. The Department shall provide the youth who have funds conserved under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (d) with education and support, including specific information regarding the existence, availability, and use of funds conserved for the youth in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (d), beginning by age 14 in a developmentally appropriate manner. The education and support services shall be developed in consultation with input from the Department's Statewide Youth Advisory Board. Education and informational materials related to ABLE accounts shall be developed in consultation with and approved by the State Treasurer.

(h) Adoption of rules. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section by January 1, 2024.

(i) Reporting. No later than February 28, 2023, the Department shall file a report with the General Assembly providing the following information for State Fiscal Years 2019, 2020, 2021, and 2022 and annually beginning February 28, 2023, for the preceding fiscal year:

(1) The number of youth entering care.

(2) The number of youth entering care receiving each of the following types of benefits: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(3) The number of youth entering care for whom the Department filed an application for each of the following types of benefits: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(4) The number of youth entering care who were awarded each of the following types of benefits based on an application filed by the Department: Social Security benefits, Supplemental Security Income, Veterans benefits, Railroad Retirement benefits.

(j) Annually beginning December 31, 2023, the Department shall file a report with the General Assembly with the following information regarding the preceding fiscal year:

(1) the number of conserved accounts established and maintained for youth in care;

(2) the average amount conserved by age group; and

(3) the total amount conserved by age group.

(Source: P.A. 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-564, eff. 11-17-23; revised 7-18-24.)

(20 ILCS 505/7.3b)

Sec. 7.3b. Case plan requirements for hair-related needs of youth in care.

(a) Purposes. Hair plays an important role in fostering youths' connection to their race, culture, and identity. Hair care Haircare promotes positive messages of self-worth, comfort, and affection. Because these messages typically are developed through interactions with family and community members, it is necessary to establish a framework to ensure that youth in care are not deprived of these messages and that caregivers and appropriate child care facility staff are adequately prepared to provide culturally competent hair care haircare for youth.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

(1) "Hair care" "Haircare" means all care related to the maintenance of hair, including, but not limited to, the daily maintenance routine, cutting, styling, or dying of hair.

(2) "Culture" means the norms, traditions, and experiences of a person's community that inform that person's daily life and long-term goals.

(3) "Identity" means the memories, experiences, relationships, and values that create one's sense of self. This amalgamation creates a steady sense of who one is over time, even as new facets are developed and incorporated into one's identity.

(c) Hair care Haircare plan. Every case plan shall include a hair care plan Haircare Plan for each youth in care that is developed in consultation with the youth based upon the youth's developmental abilities, as well as with the youth's parents or caregivers or appropriate child care facility staff if not contrary to the youth's wishes, and that outlines any training or resources required by the caregiver or appropriate child care facility staff to meet the hair care haircare needs of the youth. At a minimum, the hair care plan Haircare Plan must address:

(1) necessary hair care haircare steps to be taken to preserve the youth's desired connection to the youth's race, culture, gender, religion, and identity;

(2) necessary steps to be taken specific to the youth's hair care haircare needs during emergency and health situations; and

(3) the desires of the youth as they pertain to the youth's hair care haircare.

A youth's hair care plan Haircare Plan must be reviewed at the same time as the case plan review required under Section 6a as well as during monthly visits to ensure compliance with the hair care plan Haircare Plan and identify any needed changes.

(d) By June 1, 2025, the Department shall develop training and resources to make available for caregivers and appropriate child care facility staff to provide culturally competent hair care haircare to youth in care.

(e) By June 1, 2025, the Department must adopt rules to facilitate the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-850, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 95. The Foster Parent Law is amended by changing Sections 1-15 and 1-20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 520/1-15)

Sec. 1-15. Foster parent rights. A foster parent's rights include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) The right to be treated with dignity, respect, and consideration as a professional member of the child welfare team.

(2) The right to be given standardized pre-service training and appropriate ongoing training to meet mutually assessed needs and improve the foster parent's skills.

(3) The right to be informed as to how to contact the appropriate child placement agency in order to receive information and assistance to access supportive services for children in the foster parent's care.

(4) The right to receive timely financial reimbursement commensurate with the care needs of the child as specified in the service plan.

(5) The right to be provided a clear, written understanding of a placement agency's plan concerning the placement of a child in the foster parent's home. Inherent in this right is the foster parent's responsibility to support activities that will promote the child's right to relationships with the child's own family and cultural heritage.

(6) The right to be provided a fair, timely, and impartial investigation of complaints concerning the foster parent's licensure, to be provided the opportunity to have a person of the foster parent's choosing present during the investigation, and to be provided due process during the investigation; the right to be provided the opportunity to request and receive mediation or an administrative review of decisions that affect licensing parameters, or both mediation and an administrative review; and the right to have decisions concerning a licensing corrective action plan specifically explained and tied to the licensing standards violated.

(7) The right, at any time during which a child is placed with the foster parent, to receive additional or necessary information that is relevant to the care of the child.

(7.5) The right to be given information concerning a child (i) from the Department as required under subsection (u) of Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act and (ii) from a child welfare agency as required under subsection (c-5) of Section 7.4 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(8) The right to be notified of scheduled meetings and staffings concerning the foster child in order to actively participate in the case planning and decision-making process regarding the child, including individual service planning meetings, administrative case reviews, interdisciplinary staffings, and individual educational planning meetings; the right to be informed of decisions made by the courts or the child welfare agency concerning the child; the right to provide input concerning the plan of services for the child and to have that input given full consideration in the same manner as information presented by any other professional on the team; and the right to communicate with other professionals who work with the foster child within the context of the team, including therapists, physicians, attending health care professionals, and teachers.

(9) The right to be given, in a timely and consistent manner, any information a caseworker has regarding the child and the child's family which is pertinent to the care and needs of the child and to the making of a permanency plan for the child. Disclosure of information concerning the child's family shall be limited to that information that is essential for understanding the needs of and providing care to the child in order to protect the rights of the child's family. When a positive relationship exists between the foster parent and the child's family, the child's family may consent to disclosure of additional information.

(10) The right to be given reasonable written notice of (i) any change in a child's case plan, (ii) plans to terminate the placement of the child with the foster parent, and (iii) the reasons for the change or termination in placement. The notice shall be waived only in cases of a court order or when the child is determined to be at imminent risk of harm.

(11) The right to be notified in a timely and complete manner of all court hearings, including notice of the date and time of the court hearing, the name of the judge or hearing officer hearing the case, the location of the hearing, and the court docket number of the case; and the right to intervene in court proceedings or to seek mandamus under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(12) The right to be considered as a placement option when a foster child who was formerly placed with the foster parent is to be re-entered into foster care, if that placement is consistent with the best interest of the child and other children in the foster parent's home.

(13) The right to have timely access to the child placement agency's existing appeals process and the right to be free from acts of harassment and retaliation by any other party when exercising the right to appeal.

(14) The right to be informed of the Foster Parent Hotline established under Section 35.6 of the Children and Family Services Act and all of the rights accorded to foster parents concerning reports of misconduct by Department employees, service providers, or contractors, confidential handling of those reports, and investigation by the Inspector General appointed under Section 35.5 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(15) The right to timely training necessary to meet the hair care haircare needs of the children placed in the foster parent's care.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-850, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-21-24.)

(20 ILCS 520/1-20)

Sec. 1-20. Foster parent responsibilities. A foster parent's responsibilities include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) The responsibility to openly communicate and share information about the child with other members of the child welfare team.

(2) The responsibility to respect the confidentiality of information concerning foster children and their families and act appropriately within applicable confidentiality laws and regulations.

(3) The responsibility to advocate for children in the foster parent's care.

(4) The responsibility to treat children in the foster parent's care and the children's families with dignity, respect, and consideration.

(5) The responsibility to recognize the foster parent's own individual and familial strengths and limitations when deciding whether to accept a child into care; and the responsibility to recognize the foster parent's own support needs and utilize appropriate supports in providing care for foster children.

(6) The responsibility to be aware of the benefits of relying on and affiliating with other foster parents and foster parent associations in improving the quality of care and service to children and families.

(7) The responsibility to assess the foster parent's ongoing individual training needs and take action to meet those needs.

(8) The responsibility to develop and assist in implementing strategies to prevent placement disruptions, recognizing the traumatic impact of placement disruptions on a foster child and all members of the foster family; and the responsibility to provide emotional support for the foster children and members of the foster family if preventive strategies fail and placement disruptions occur.

(9) The responsibility to know the impact foster parenting has on individuals and family relationships; and the responsibility to endeavor to minimize, as much as possible, any stress that results from foster parenting.

(10) The responsibility to know the rewards and benefits to children, parents, families, and society that come from foster parenting and to promote the foster parenting experience in a positive way.

(11) The responsibility to know the roles, rights, and responsibilities of foster parents, other professionals in the child welfare system, the foster child, and the foster child's own family.

(12) The responsibility to know and, as necessary, fulfill the foster parent's responsibility to serve as a mandated reporter of suspected child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act; and the responsibility to know the child welfare agency's policy regarding allegations that foster parents have committed child abuse or neglect and applicable administrative rules and procedures governing investigations of those allegations.

(13) The responsibility to know and receive training regarding the purpose of administrative case reviews, client service plans, and court processes, as well as any filing or time requirements associated with those proceedings; and the responsibility to actively participate in the foster parent's designated role in these proceedings.

(14) The responsibility to know the child welfare agency's appeal procedure for foster parents and the rights of foster parents under the procedure.

(15) The responsibility to know and understand the importance of maintaining accurate and relevant records regarding the child's history and progress; and the responsibility to be aware of and follow the procedures and regulations of the child welfare agency with which the foster parent is licensed or affiliated.

(16) The responsibility to share information, through the child welfare team, with the subsequent caregiver (whether the child's parent or another substitute caregiver) regarding the child's adjustment in the foster parent's home.

(17) The responsibility to provide care and services that are respectful of and responsive to the child's cultural needs and are supportive of the relationship between the child and the child's own family; the responsibility to recognize the increased importance of maintaining a child's cultural identity when the race or culture of the foster family differs from that of the foster child; the responsibility to provide hair care haircare that preserves the child's desired connection to the child's race, culture, gender, religion, and identity; and the responsibility to take action to address these issues.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-850, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-21-24.)

Section 100. The Foster Children's Bill of Rights Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 521/5)

Sec. 5. Foster Children's Bill of Rights. It is the policy of this State that every child and adult in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services who is placed in foster care shall have the following rights:

(1) To live in a safe, healthy, and comfortable home where they are treated with respect.

(2) To be free from physical, sexual, emotional, or other abuse, or corporal punishment.

(3) To receive adequate and healthy food, adequate clothing, and, for youth in group homes, residential treatment facilities, and foster homes, an allowance.

(4) To receive medical, dental, vision, and mental health services.

(5) To be free of the administration of medication or chemical substances, unless authorized by a physician.

(6) To contact family members, unless prohibited by court order, and social workers, attorneys, foster youth advocates and supporters, Court Appointed Special Advocates (CASAs), and probation officers.

(7) To visit and contact siblings, unless prohibited by court order.

(8) To contact the Advocacy Office for Children and Families established under the Children and Family Services Act or the Department of Children and Family Services' Office of the Inspector General regarding violations of rights, to speak to representatives of these offices confidentially, and to be free from threats or punishment for making complaints.

(9) To make and receive confidential telephone calls and send and receive unopened mail, unless prohibited by court order.

(10) To attend religious services and activities of their choice.

(11) To maintain an emancipation bank account and manage personal income, consistent with the child's age and developmental level, unless prohibited by the case plan.

(12) To not be locked in a room, building, or facility premises, unless placed in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Child Care Act of 1969 and placed pursuant to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(13) To attend school and participate in extracurricular, cultural, and personal enrichment activities, consistent with the child's age and developmental level, with minimal disruptions to school attendance and educational stability.

(14) To work and develop job skills at an age-appropriate level, consistent with State law.

(15) To have social contacts with people outside of the foster care system, including teachers, church members, mentors, and friends.

(16) If they meet age requirements, to attend services and programs operated by the Department of Children and Family Services or any other appropriate State agency that aim to help current and former foster youth achieve self-sufficiency prior to and after leaving foster care.

(17) To attend court hearings and speak to the judge.

(18) To have storage space for private use.

(19) To be involved in the development of their own case plan and plan for permanent placement.

(20) To review their own case plan and plan for permanent placement, if they are 12 years of age or older and in a permanent placement, and to receive information about their out-of-home placement and case plan, including being told of changes to the case plan.

(21) To be free from unreasonable searches of personal belongings.

(22) To the confidentiality of all juvenile court records consistent with existing law.

(23) To have fair and equal access to all available services, placement, care, treatment, and benefits, and to not be subjected to discrimination or harassment on the basis of actual or perceived race, ethnic group identification, ancestry, national origin, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, mental or physical disability, or HIV status.

(24) To have caregivers and child welfare personnel who have received sensitivity training and instruction on matters concerning race, ethnicity, national origin, color, ancestry, religion, mental and physical disability, and HIV status.

(25) To have caregivers and child welfare personnel who have received instruction on cultural competency and sensitivity relating to, and best practices for, providing adequate care to lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender youth in out-of-home care.

(26) At 16 years of age or older, to have access to existing information regarding the educational options available, including, but not limited to, the coursework necessary for vocational and postsecondary educational programs, and information regarding financial aid for postsecondary education.

(27) To have access to age-appropriate, medically accurate information about reproductive health care, the prevention of unplanned pregnancy, and the prevention and treatment of sexually transmitted infections at 12 years of age or older.

(28) To receive a copy of this Act from and have it fully explained by the Department of Children and Family Services when the child or adult is placed in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services.

(29) To be placed in the least restrictive and most family-like setting available and in close proximity to their parent's home consistent with their health, safety, best interests, and special needs.

(30) To participate in an age and developmentally appropriate intake process immediately after placement in the custody or guardianship of the Department. During the intake process, the Department shall provide the youth with a document describing inappropriate acts of affection, discipline, and punishment by guardians, foster parents, foster siblings, or any other adult responsible for the youth's welfare. The Department shall review and discuss the document with the child. The Department must document completion of the intake process in the child's records as well as giving a copy of the document to the child.

(31) To participate in appropriate intervention and counseling services after removal from the home of origin in order to assess whether the youth is exhibiting signs of traumatic stress, special needs, or mental illness.

(32) To receive a home visit by an assigned child welfare specialist, per existing Department policies and procedures, on a monthly basis or more frequently as needed. In addition to what existing policies and procedures outline, home visits shall be used to assess the youth's well-being and emotional health following placement, to determine the youth's relationship with the youth's guardian or foster parent or with any other adult responsible for the youth's welfare or living in or frequenting the home environment, and to determine what forms of discipline, if any, the youth's guardian or foster parent or any other person in the home environment uses to correct the youth.

(33) To be enrolled in an independent living services program prior to transitioning out of foster care where the youth will receive classes and instruction, appropriate to the youth's age and developmental capacity, on independent living and self-sufficiency in the areas of employment, finances, meals, and housing as well as help in developing life skills and long-term goals.

(34) To be assessed by a third-party entity or agency prior to enrollment in any independent living services program in order to determine the youth's readiness for a transition out of foster care based on the youth's individual needs, emotional development, and ability, regardless of age, to make a successful transition to adulthood.

(35) To hair care haircare that preserves the child's desired connection to the child's race, culture, gender, religion, and identity and to have a corresponding hair care haircare plan established in accordance with Section 7.3b of the Children and Family Services Act. The Department must provide, in a timely and consistent manner, training for all caregivers and child welfare personnel on how to meet the hair care haircare needs of children.

(Source: P.A. 102-810, eff. 1-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-850, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-21-24.)

Section 105. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 605-1115 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1115)

Sec. 605-1115. Quantum computing campuses.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Data center" means a facility: (1) whose primary services are the storage, management, and processing of digital data; and (2) that is used to house (A) computer and network systems, including associated components such as servers, network equipment and appliances, telecommunications, and data storage systems, (B) systems for monitoring and managing infrastructure performance, (C) Internet-related equipment and services, (D) data communications connections, (E) environmental controls, (F) fire protection systems, and (G) security systems and services.

"Full-time equivalent job" means a job in which an employee works for a tenant of the quantum campus at a rate of at least 35 hours per week. Vacations, paid holidays, and sick time are included in this computation. Overtime is not considered a part of regular hours.

"Quantum computing campus" or "campus" is a contiguous area located in the State of Illinois that is designated by the Department as a quantum computing campus in order to support the demand for quantum computing research, development, and implementation for practical use. A quantum computing campus may include educational institutions intuitions, nonprofit research and development organizations, and for-profit organizations serving as anchor tenants and joining tenants that, with approval from the Department, may change. Tenants located at the campus shall have direct and supporting roles in quantum computing activities. Eligible tenants include quantum computer operators and research facilities, data centers, manufacturers and assemblers of quantum computers and component parts, cryogenic or refrigeration facilities, and other facilities determined, by industry and academic leaders, to be fundamental to the research and development of quantum computing for practical solutions. Quantum computing shall include the research, development, and use of computing methods that generate and manipulate quantum bits in a controlled quantum state. This includes the use of photons, semiconductors, superconductors, trapped ions, and other industry and academically regarded methods for simulating quantum bits. Additionally, a quantum campus shall meet the following criteria:

(1) the campus must comprise a minimum of one-half square mile and not more than 4 square miles;

(2) the campus must contain tenants that demonstrate a substantial plan for using the designation to encourage participation by organizations owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities, as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, and the hiring of minorities, women, and persons with disabilities;

(3) upon being placed in service, within 60 months after designation or incorporation into a campus, the owners of property located in a campus shall certify to the Department that the property is carbon neutral or has attained certification under one or more of the following green building standards:

(A) BREEAM for New Construction or BREEAM, In-Use;

(B) ENERGY STAR;

(C) Envision;

(D) ISO 50001-energy management;

(E) LEED for Building Design and Construction, or LEED for Operations and Maintenance;

(F) Green Globes for New Construction, or Green Globes for Existing Buildings;

(G) UL 3223; or

(H) an equivalent program approved by the Department.

(b) Tenants located in a designated quantum computing campus shall qualify for the following exemptions and credits:

(1) the Department may certify a taxpayer for an exemption from any State or local use tax or retailers' occupation tax on building materials that will be incorporated into real estate at a quantum computing campus;

(2) an exemption from the charges imposed under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, Section 5-10 of the Gas Use Tax Law, Section 2-4 of the Electricity Excise Tax Law, Section 2 of the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act, Section 10 of the Telecommunications Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act, and Section 5-7 of the Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act; and

(3) a credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act as provided in Section 241 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(c) Certificates of exemption and credit certificates under this Section shall be issued by the Department. Upon certification by the Department under this Section, the Department shall notify the Department of Revenue of the certification. The exemption status shall take effect within 3 months after certification of the taxpayer and notice to the Department of Revenue by the Department.

(d) Entities seeking to form a quantum computing campus must apply to the Department in the manner specified by the Department. Entities seeking to join an established campus must apply for an amendment to the existing campus. This application for amendment must be submitted to the Department with support from other campus members.

The Department shall determine the duration of certificates of exemption awarded under this Act. The duration of the certificates of exemption may not exceed 20 calendar years and one renewal for an additional 20 years.

The Department and any tenant located in a quantum computing campus seeking the benefits under this Section must enter into a memorandum of understanding that, at a minimum, provides:

(1) the details for determining the amount of capital investment to be made;

(2) the number of new jobs created;

(3) the timeline for achieving the capital investment and new job goals;

(4) the repayment obligation should those goals not be achieved and any conditions under which repayment by the tenant or tenants claiming the exemption shall be required;

(5) the duration of the exemptions; and

(6) other provisions as deemed necessary by the Department.

The Department shall, within 10 days after the designation, send a letter of notification to each member of the General Assembly whose legislative district or representative district contains all or part of the designated area.

(e) Beginning on July 1, 2025, and each year thereafter, the Department shall annually report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the outcomes and effectiveness of Public Act 103-595 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly. The report shall include the following:

(1) the names of each tenant located within the quantum computing campus;

(2) the location of each quantum computing campus;

(3) the estimated value of the credits to be issued to quantum computing campus tenants;

(4) the number of new jobs and, if applicable, retained jobs pledged at each quantum computing campus; and

(5) whether or not the quantum computing campus is located in an underserved area, an energy transition zone, or an opportunity zone.

(f) Tenants at the quantum computing campus seeking a certificate of exemption related to the construction of required facilities shall require the contractor and all subcontractors to:

(1) comply with the requirements of Section 30-22 of the Illinois Procurement Code as those requirements apply to responsible bidders and to present satisfactory evidence of that compliance to the Department; and

(2) enter into a project labor agreement submitted to the Department.

(g) The Department shall not issue any new certificates of exemption under the provisions of this Section after July 1, 2030. This sunset shall not affect any existing certificates of exemption in effect on July 1, 2030.

(h) The Department shall adopt rules to implement and administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 9-27-24.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1116)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 605-1116 605-1115. Creative Economy Task Force.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Creative Economy Task Force is created within the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to create a strategic plan to develop the creative economy in this State.

(b) The Task Force shall consist of the following members:

(1) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or the Director's designee, who shall serve as chair of the Task Force;

(2) the Executive Director of the Illinois Arts Council or the Executive Director's designee, who shall serve as the vice-chair of the Task Force;

(3) one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(4) one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(5) one member appointed by the President of the Senate;

(6) one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(7) one member from the banking industry with experience in matters involving the federal Small Business Administration, appointed by the Governor;

(8) one member from a certified public accounting firm or other company with experience in financial modeling and the creative arts, appointed by the Governor;

(9) one member recommended by a statewide organization representing counties, appointed by the Governor;

(10) one member from an Illinois public institution of higher education or nonprofit research institution with experience in matters involving cultural arts, appointed by the Governor;

(11) the Director of Labor or the Director's designee; and

(12) five members from this State's arts community, appointed by the Governor, including, but not limited to, the following sectors:

(A) film, television, and video production;

(B) recorded audio and music production;

(C) animation production;

(D) video game development;

(E) live theater, orchestra, ballet, and opera;

(F) live music performance;

(G) visual arts, including sculpture, painting, graphic design, and photography;

(H) production facilities, such as film and television studios;

(I) live music or performing arts venues; and

(J) arts service organizations.

(c) No later than July 1, 2026, the Task Force shall collect and analyze data on the current state of the creative economy in this State and develop a strategic plan to improve this State's creative economy that can be rolled out in incremental phases to reach identified economic, social justice, and business development goals. The goal of the strategic plan shall be to ensure that this State is competitive with respect to attracting creative economy business, retaining talent within this State, and developing marketable content that can be exported for national and international consumption and monetization. The strategic plan shall address support for the creative community within historically marginalized communities, as well as the creative economy at large, and take into account the diverse interests, strengths, and needs of the people of this State. In developing the strategic plan for the creative economy in this State, the Task Force shall:

(1) identify existing studies of aspects affecting the creative economy, including studies relating to tax issues, legislation, finance, population and demographics, and employment;

(2) conduct a comparative analysis with other jurisdictions that have successfully developed creative economy plans and programs;

(3) conduct in-depth interviews to identify best practices for structuring a strategic plan for this State;

(4) evaluate existing banking models for financing creative economy projects in the private sector and develop a financial model to promote investment in this State's creative economy;

(5) evaluate existing federal, State, and local tax incentives and make recommendations for improvements to support the creative economy;

(6) identify the role that counties and cities play with respect to the strategic plan and the specific counties and cities that may need or want a stronger creative economy;

(7) identify opportunities for aligning with new business models and the integration of new technologies;

(8) identify the role that State education programs in the creative arts play in the creative economy and with respect to advancing the strategic plan;

(9) identify geographic areas with the least amount of access or opportunity for a creative economy;

(10) identify opportunities for earn-and-learn job training employment for students who have enrolled or completed a program in the arts, low-income or unemployed creative workers, and others with demonstrated interest in creative work in their communities; and

(11) identify existing initiatives and projects that can be used as models for earn-and-learn opportunities or as examples of best practices for earn-and-learn opportunities that can be replicated Statewide or in different regions.

(d) The Task Force shall submit its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly no later than July 1, 2026.

(e) Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall provide administrative support to the Task Force.

(f) Appropriations for the Task Force may be used to support operational expenses of the Department, including entering into a contract with a third-party provider for administrative support.

(g) The Director or the Director's designee may, after issuing a request for proposals, designate a third-party provider to help facilitate Task Force meetings, compile information, and prepare the strategic plan described in subsection (c). A third-party provider contracted by the Director shall have experience conducting business in professional arts or experience in business development and drafting business plans and multidisciplinary planning documents.

(h) This Section is repealed January 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 103-811, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1117)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2026)

Sec. 605-1117 605-1115. Task Force on Interjurisdictional Industrial Zoning Impacts.

(a) The General Assembly finds that industrial developments typically have regional impacts, both positive and negative. Those impacts extend beyond the zoning authority of the unit of local government where the development is located. Units of local government may experience impacts on public health, public safety, the environment, traffic, property values, population, and other considerations as a result of industrial development occurring outside of the their zoning jurisdiction, including areas adjacent to their borders.

(b) The Task Force on Interjurisdictional Industrial Zoning Impacts is created within the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. The Task Force shall examine the following:

(1) current State and local zoning laws and policies related to large industrial developments;

(2) current State and local laws and policies related to annexation;

(3) State and local zoning and annexation laws and policies outside of Illinois;

(4) the potential impacts of large industrial developments on neighboring units of local government, including how those developments may affect residential communities;

(5) trends in industrial zoning across urban, suburban, and rural regions of Illinois;

(6) available methodologies to determine the impact of large industrial developments; and

(7) outcomes in recent zoning proceedings for large industrial developments or attempts to develop properties for large industrial purposes, including the recent attempt to convert a 101 acre campus in Lake County near Deerfield.

(c) The Task Force on Interjurisdictional Industrial Zoning Impacts shall consist of the following members:

(1) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee;

(2) one member, appointed by the President of the Senate, representing a statewide organization of municipalities described in Section 1-8-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code;

(3) one member, appointed by the President of the Senate, representing a regional association of municipalities and mayors;

(4) one member, appointed by the President of the Senate, representing a regional association that represents the commercial real estate industry;

(5) one member, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, representing a statewide association representing counties;

(6) one member, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, representing a regional association of municipalities and mayors;

(7) one member, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, representing a statewide professional economic development association;

(8) one member, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, representing a statewide association of park districts;

(9) one member representing a statewide labor organization, appointed by the Governor;

(10) one member representing the Office of the Governor, appointed by the Governor;

(11) one member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(12) one member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(13) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(14) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; and

(15) one member representing a statewide manufacturing association, appointed by the Governor.

(d) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall provide administrative support to the Task Force.

(e) The Task Force shall meet at least once every 2 months. Upon the first meeting of the Task Force, the members of the Task Force shall elect a chairperson of the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force shall prepare a report on its findings concerning zoning for large industrial development and associated interjurisdictional impacts, including any recommendations. The report shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than December 31, 2025.

(g) This Section is repealed June 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 103-882, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-23-24.)

Section 110. The Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 620/8) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1008)

Sec. 8. Issuance of obligations for economic development project costs. Obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund provided for in Section 7 of this Act for an economic development project area may be issued to provide for economic development project costs. Those obligations, when so issued, shall be retired in the manner provided in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the obligations by the receipts of taxes levied as specified in Section 6 of this Act against the taxable property included in the economic development project area and by other revenue designated or pledged by the municipality. A municipality may in the ordinance pledge all or any part of the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund created pursuant to Section 7 of this Act to the payment of the economic development project costs and obligations. Whenever a municipality pledges all of the funds to the credit of a special tax allocation fund to secure obligations issued or to be issued to pay economic development project costs, the municipality may specifically provide that funds remaining to the credit of such special tax allocation fund after the payment of such obligations shall be accounted for annually and shall be deemed to be "surplus" funds, and such "surplus" funds shall be distributed as hereinafter provided. Whenever a municipality pledges less than all of the monies to the credit of a special tax allocation fund to secure obligations issued or to be issued to pay economic development project costs, the municipality shall provide that monies to the credit of the special tax allocation fund and not subject to such pledge or otherwise encumbered or required for payment of contractual obligations for specific economic development project costs shall be calculated annually and shall be deemed to be "surplus" funds, and such "surplus" funds shall be distributed as hereinafter provided. All funds to the credit of a special tax allocation fund which are deemed to be "surplus" funds shall be distributed annually within 180 days of the close of the municipality's fiscal year by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the county collector. The county collector shall thereafter make distribution to the respective taxing districts in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to those taxing districts of real property taxes from real property in the economic development project area.

Without limiting the foregoing in this Section, the municipality may, in addition to obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund, pledge for a period not greater than the term of the obligations towards payment of those obligations any part or any combination of the following: (i) net revenues of all or part of any economic development project; (ii) taxes levied and collected on any or all property in the municipality, including, specifically, taxes levied or imposed by the municipality in a special service area pursuant to "An Act to provide the manner of levying or imposing taxes for the provision of special services to areas within the boundaries of home rule units and non-home rule municipalities and counties", approved September 21, 1973, as now or hereafter amended; (iii) the full faith and credit of the municipality; (iv) a mortgage on part or all of the economic development project; or (v) any other taxes or anticipated receipts that the municipality may lawfully pledge.

Such obligations may be issued in one or more series bearing interest at such rate or rates as the corporate authorities of the municipality shall determine by ordinance, which rate or rates may be variable or fixed, without regard to any limitations contained in any law now in effect or hereafter adopted. Such obligations shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times not exceeding 38 years from their respective dates, but in no event exceeding 38 years from the date of establishment of the economic development project area, be in such denomination, be in such form, whether coupon, registered, or book-entry, carry such registration, conversion, and exchange privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places within or without the State of Illinois, contain such covenants, terms, and conditions, be subject to redemption with or without premium, be subject to defeasance upon such terms, and have such rank or priority, as such ordinance shall provide. Obligations issued pursuant to this Act may be sold at public or private sale at such price as shall be determined by the corporate authorities of the municipalities. Such obligations may, but need not, be issued utilizing the provisions of any one or more of the omnibus bond Acts specified in Section 1.33 of the Statute on Statutes "An Act to revise the law in relation to the construction of the statutes", approved March 5, 1874, as now or hereafter amended. No referendum approval of the electors shall be required as a condition to the issuance of obligations pursuant to this Act except as provided in this Section.

Whenever a municipality issues bonds for the purpose of financing economic development project costs, the municipality may provide by ordinance for the appointment of a trustee, which may be any trust company within the State, and for the establishment of the funds or accounts to be maintained by such trustee as the municipality shall deem necessary to provide for the security and payment of the bonds. If the municipality provides for the appointment of a trustee, the trustee shall be considered the assignee of any payments assigned by the municipality pursuant to the ordinance and this Section. Any amounts paid to the trustee as assignee shall be deposited in the funds or accounts established pursuant to the trust agreement, and shall be held by the trustee in trust for the benefit of the holders of the bonds, and the holders shall have a lien on and a security interest in those bonds or accounts so long as the bonds remain outstanding and unpaid. Upon retirement of the bonds, the trustee shall pay over any excess amounts held to the municipality for deposit in the special tax allocation fund.

In the event the municipality authorizes the issuance of obligations pursuant to the authority of this Act secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, or pledges ad valorem taxes pursuant to clause (ii) of the second paragraph of this Section, which obligations are other than obligations which may be issued under home rule powers provided by Article VII, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution or which ad valorem taxes are other than ad valorem taxes which may be pledged under home rule powers provided by Article VII, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution or which are levied in a special service area pursuant to "An Act to provide the manner of levying or imposing taxes for the provision of special services to areas within the boundaries of home rule units and non-home rule municipalities and counties", approved September 21, 1973, as now or hereafter amended, the ordinance authorizing the issuance of those obligations or pledging those taxes shall be published within 10 days after the ordinance has been adopted, in one or more newspapers having a general circulation within the municipality. The publication of the ordinance shall be accompanied by a notice of: (1) the specific number of voters required to sign a petition requesting the question of the issuance of the obligations or pledging such ad valorem taxes to be submitted to the electors; (2) the time within which the petition must be filed; and (3) the date of the prospective referendum. The municipal clerk shall provide a petition form to any individual requesting one.

If no petition is filed with the municipal clerk, as hereinafter provided in this Section, within 21 days after the publication of the ordinance, the ordinance shall be in effect. However, if, within that 21-day 21 day period, a petition is filed with the municipal clerk, signed by electors numbering not less than 15% of the number of electors voting for the mayor or president at the last general municipal election, asking that the question of issuing obligations using full faith and credit of the municipality as security for the cost of paying for economic development project costs, or of pledging such ad valorem taxes for the payment of those obligations, or both, be submitted to the electors of the municipality, the municipality shall not be authorized to issue obligations of the municipality using the full faith and credit of the municipality as security or pledging such ad valorem taxes for the payment of those obligations, or both, until the proposition has been submitted to and approved by a majority of the voters voting on the proposition at a regularly scheduled election. The municipality shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

The ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide that the obligations shall contain a recital that they are issued pursuant to this Act, which recital shall be conclusive evidence of their validity and of the regularity of their issuance.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to this Act secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, the ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within the municipality sufficient to pay the principal thereof and interest thereon as it matures, which levy may be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by the municipality, which levy, however, shall be abated to the extent that monies from other sources are available for payment of the obligations and the municipality certifies the amount of those monies available to the county clerk.

A certified copy of the ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any portion of the municipality is situated, and shall constitute the authority for the extension and collection of the taxes to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund.

A municipality may also issue its obligations to refund, in whole or in part, obligations theretofore issued by the municipality under the authority of this Act, whether at or prior to maturity. However, the last maturity of the refunding obligations shall not be expressed to mature later than 38 years from the date of the ordinance establishing the economic development project area.

In the event a municipality issues obligations under home rule powers or other legislative authority, the proceeds of which are pledged to pay for economic development project costs, the municipality may, if it has followed the procedures in conformance with this Act, retire those obligations from funds in the special tax allocation fund in amounts and in such manner as if those obligations had been issued pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

No obligations issued pursuant to this Act shall be regarded as indebtedness of the municipality issuing those obligations or any other taxing district for the purpose of any limitation imposed by law.

Obligations issued pursuant to this Act shall not be subject to the provisions of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 115. The Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 20, 65, and 95 as follows:

(20 ILCS 686/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Advanced battery" means a battery that consists of a battery cell that can be integrated into a module, pack, or system to be used in energy storage applications, including a battery used in an electric vehicle or the electric grid.

"Advanced battery component" means a component of an advanced battery, including materials, enhancements, enclosures, anodes, cathodes, electrolytes, cells, and other associated technologies that comprise an advanced battery.

"Agreement" means the agreement between a taxpayer and the Department under the provisions of Section 45 of this Act.

"Applicant" means a taxpayer that (i) operates a business in Illinois or is planning to locate a business within the State of Illinois and (ii) is engaged in interstate or intrastate commerce as an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle component parts manufacturer, or an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturer. For applications for credits under this Act that are submitted on or after February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, "applicant" also includes a taxpayer that (i) operates a business in Illinois or is planning to locate a business within the State of Illinois and (ii) is engaged in interstate or intrastate commerce as a renewable energy manufacturer. "Applicant" does not include a taxpayer who closes or substantially reduces by more than 50% operations at one location in the State and relocates substantially the same operation to another location in the State. This does not prohibit a Taxpayer from expanding its operations at another location in the State. This also does not prohibit a Taxpayer from moving its operations from one location in the State to another location in the State for the purpose of expanding the operation, provided that the Department determines that expansion cannot reasonably be accommodated within the municipality or county in which the business is located, or, in the case of a business located in an incorporated area of the county, within the county in which the business is located, after conferring with the chief elected official of the municipality or county and taking into consideration any evidence offered by the municipality or county regarding the ability to accommodate expansion within the municipality or county.

"Battery raw materials" means the raw and processed form of a mineral, metal, chemical, or other material used in an advanced battery component.

"Battery raw materials refining service provider" means a business that operates a facility that filters, sifts, and treats battery raw materials for use in an advanced battery.

"Battery recycling and reuse manufacturer" means a manufacturer that is primarily engaged in the recovery, retrieval, processing, recycling, or recirculating of battery raw materials for new use in electric vehicle batteries.

"Capital improvements" means the purchase, renovation, rehabilitation, or construction of permanent tangible land, buildings, structures, equipment, and furnishings in an approved project sited in Illinois and expenditures for goods or services that are normally capitalized, including organizational costs and research and development costs incurred in Illinois. For land, buildings, structures, and equipment that are leased, the lease must equal or exceed the term of the agreement, and the cost of the property shall be determined from the present value, using the corporate interest rate prevailing at the time of the application, of the lease payments.

"Credit" means either a "REV Illinois Credit" or a "REV Construction Jobs Credit" agreed to between the Department and applicant under this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Director" means the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Electric vehicle" means a vehicle that is exclusively powered by and refueled by electricity, including electricity generated through hydrogen fuel cells or solar technology. "Electric vehicle", except when referencing aircraft with hybrid electric propulsion systems, does not include hybrid-electric hybrid electric vehicles, electric bicycles, or extended-range electric vehicles that are also equipped with conventional fueled propulsion or auxiliary engines.

"Electric vehicle manufacturer" means a new or existing manufacturer that is primarily focused on reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in Illinois that produces electric vehicles as defined in this Section.

"Electric vehicle component parts manufacturer" means a new or existing manufacturer that is focused on reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in Illinois that produces parts or accessories used in electric vehicles, as defined by this Section, including advanced battery component parts. The changes to this definition of "electric vehicle component parts manufacturer" apply to agreements under this Act that are entered into on or after December 21, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1112) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

"Electric vehicle power supply equipment" means the equipment used specifically for the purpose of delivering electricity to an electric vehicle, including hydrogen fuel cells or solar refueling infrastructure.

"Electric vehicle power supply manufacturer" means a new or existing manufacturer that is focused on reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in Illinois that produces electric vehicle power supply equipment used for the purpose of delivering electricity to an electric vehicle, including hydrogen fuel cell or solar refueling infrastructure.

"Electric vehicle powertrain technology" means equipment used to convert electricity for use in aerospace propulsion.

"Electric vehicle powertrain technology manufacturer" means a new or existing manufacturer that is focused on reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in Illinois that develops and validates electric vehicle powertrain technology for use in aerospace propulsion.

"Electric vertical takeoff and landing aircraft" or "eVTOL aircraft" means a fully electric aircraft that lands and takes off vertically.

"Energy Transition Area" means a county with less than 100,000 people or a municipality that contains one or more of the following:

(1) a fossil fuel plant that was retired from service or has significant reduced service within 6 years before the time of the application or will be retired or have service significantly reduced within 6 years following the time of the application; or

(2) a coal mine that was closed or had operations significantly reduced within 6 years before the time of the application or is anticipated to be closed or have operations significantly reduced within 6 years following the time of the application.

"Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed for consideration for at least 35 hours each week or who renders any other standard of service generally accepted by industry custom or practice as full-time employment. An individual for whom a W-2 is issued by a Professional Employer Organization (PEO) is a full-time employee if employed in the service of the applicant for consideration for at least 35 hours each week.

"Green steel manufacturer" means an entity that manufactures steel without the use of fossil fuels and with zero net carbon emissions.

"Incremental income tax" means the total amount withheld during the taxable year from the compensation of new employees and, if applicable, retained employees under Article 7 of the Illinois Income Tax Act arising from employment at a project that is the subject of an agreement.

"Institution of higher education" or "institution" means any accredited public or private university, college, community college, business, technical, or vocational school, or other accredited educational institution offering degrees and instruction beyond the secondary school level.

"Minority person" means a minority person as defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"New employee" means a newly-hired, full-time employee employed to work at the project site and whose work is directly related to the project.

"Noncompliance date" means, in the case of a taxpayer that is not complying with the requirements of the agreement or the provisions of this Act, the day following the last date upon which the taxpayer was in compliance with the requirements of the agreement and the provisions of this Act, as determined by the Director, pursuant to Section 70.

"Pass-through entity" means an entity that is exempt from the tax under subsection (b) or (c) of Section 205 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

"Placed in service" means the state or condition of readiness, availability for a specifically assigned function, and the facility is constructed and ready to conduct its facility operations to manufacture goods.

"Professional employer organization" (PEO) means an employee leasing company, as defined in Section 206.1 of the Illinois Unemployment Insurance Act.

"Program" means the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Program (the REV Illinois Program) established in this Act.

"Project" or "REV Illinois Project" means a for-profit economic development activity for the manufacture of electric vehicles, electric vehicle component parts, electric vehicle power supply equipment, or renewable energy products, which is designated by the Department as a REV Illinois Project and is the subject of an agreement.

"Recycling facility" means a location at which the taxpayer disposes of batteries and other component parts in manufacturing of electric vehicles, electric vehicle component parts, or electric vehicle power supply equipment.

"Related member" means a person that, with respect to the taxpayer during any portion of the taxable year, is any one of the following:

(1) An individual stockholder, if the stockholder and the members of the stockholder's family (as defined in Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code) own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the value of the taxpayer's outstanding stock.

(2) A partnership, estate, trust and any partner or beneficiary, if the partnership, estate, or trust, and its partners or beneficiaries own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or value of the taxpayer.

(3) A corporation, and any party related to the corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the Taxpayer owns directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively at least 50% of the value of the corporation's outstanding stock.

(4) A corporation and any party related to that corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation to the party or from the party to the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the corporation and all such related parties own in the aggregate at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or value of the taxpayer.

(5) A person to or from whom there is an attribution of stock ownership in accordance with Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, except, for purposes of determining whether a person is a related member under this paragraph, 20% shall be substituted for 5% wherever 5% appears in Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code.

"Renewable energy" means energy produced using the materials and sources of energy through which renewable energy resources are generated.

"Renewable energy manufacturer" means a manufacturer whose primary function is to manufacture or assemble: (i) equipment, systems, or products used to produce renewable or nuclear energy; (ii) products used for energy storage, or grid efficiency purposes; or (iii) component parts for that equipment or those systems or products.

"Renewable energy resources" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

"Research and development" means work directed toward the innovation, introduction, and improvement of products and processes. "Research and development" includes all levels of research and development that directly result in the potential manufacturing and marketability of renewable energy, electric vehicles, electric vehicle component parts, and electric or hybrid aircraft.

"Retained employee" means a full-time employee employed by the taxpayer prior to the term of the Agreement who continues to be employed during the term of the agreement whose job duties are directly related to the project. The term "retained employee" does not include any individual who has a direct or an indirect ownership interest of at least 5% in the profits, equity, capital, or value of the taxpayer or a child, grandchild, parent, or spouse, other than a spouse who is legally separated from the individual, of any individual who has a direct or indirect ownership of at least 5% in the profits, equity, capital, or value of the taxpayer. The changes to this definition of "retained employee" apply to agreements for credits under this Act that are entered into on or after December 21, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1112) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

"REV Illinois credit" means a credit agreed to between the Department and the applicant under this Act that is based on the incremental income tax attributable to new employees and, if applicable, retained employees, and on training costs for such employees at the applicant's project.

"REV construction jobs credit" means a credit agreed to between the Department and the applicant under this Act that is based on the incremental income tax attributable to construction wages paid in connection with construction of the project facilities.

"Statewide baseline" means the total number of full-time employees of the applicant and any related member employed by such entities at the time of application for incentives under this Act.

"Taxpayer" means an individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity that has a legal obligation to pay Illinois income taxes and file an Illinois income tax return.

"Training costs" means costs incurred to upgrade the technological skills of full-time employees in Illinois and includes: curriculum development; training materials (including scrap product costs); trainee domestic travel expenses; instructor costs (including wages, fringe benefits, tuition, and domestic travel expenses); rent, purchase, or lease of training equipment; and other usual and customary training costs. "Training costs" do not include costs associated with travel outside the United States (unless the Taxpayer receives prior written approval for the travel by the Director based on a showing of substantial need or other proof the training is not reasonably available within the United States), wages and fringe benefits of employees during periods of training, or administrative cost related to full-time employees of the taxpayer.

"Underserved area" means any geographic area as defined in Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1112, eff. 12-21-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-24-24.)

(20 ILCS 686/20)

Sec. 20. REV Illinois Program; project applications.

(a) The Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois (REV Illinois) Program is hereby established and shall be administered by the Department. The Program will provide financial incentives to any one or more of the following: (1) eligible manufacturers of electric vehicles, electric vehicle component parts, and electric vehicle power supply equipment; (2) battery recycling and reuse manufacturers; (3) battery raw materials refining service providers; or (4) renewable energy manufacturers.

(b) Any taxpayer planning a project to be located in Illinois may request consideration for designation of its project as a REV Illinois Project, by formal written letter of request or by formal application to the Department, in which the applicant states its intent to make at least a specified level of investment and intends to hire a specified number of full-time employees at a designated location in Illinois. As circumstances require, the Department shall require a formal application from an applicant and a formal letter of request for assistance.

(c) In order to qualify for credits under the REV Illinois Program, an applicant must:

(1) if the applicant is an electric vehicle manufacturer:

(A) make an investment of at least $1,500,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create at least 500 new full-time employee jobs; or

(2) if the applicant is an electric vehicle component parts manufacturer, a renewable energy manufacturer, a green steel manufacturer, or an entity engaged in research, development, or manufacturing of eVTOL aircraft or hybrid-electric or fully electric propulsion systems for airliners:

(A) make an investment of at least $300,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) manufacture one or more parts that are primarily used for electric vehicle, renewable energy, or green steel manufacturing;

(C) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(D) create at least 150 new full-time employee jobs; or

(3) if the agreement is entered into before February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and the applicant is an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturer, an electric vehicle component part manufacturer, renewable energy manufacturer, or green steel manufacturer that does not qualify under paragraph (2) above, a battery recycling and reuse manufacturer, or a battery raw materials refining service provider:

(A) make an investment of at least $20,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) for electric vehicle component part manufacturers, manufacture one or more parts that are primarily used for electric vehicle manufacturing;

(C) to be placed in service within the State within a 48-month period after approval of the application; and

(D) create at least 50 new full-time employee jobs; or

(3.1) if the agreement is entered into on or after February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and the applicant is an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturer, an electric vehicle component part manufacturer, a renewable energy manufacturer, a green steel manufacturer, or an entity engaged in research, development, or manufacturing of eVTOL aircraft or hybrid-electric or fully electric propulsion systems for airliners that does not qualify under paragraph (2) above, a battery recycling and reuse manufacturer, or a battery raw materials refining service provider:

(A) make an investment of at least $2,500,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) in the case of electric vehicle component part manufacturers, manufacture one or more parts that are used for electric vehicle manufacturing;

(C) to be placed in service within the State within a 48-month period after approval of the application; and

(D) create the lesser of 50 new full-time employee jobs or new full-time employee jobs equivalent to 10% of the Statewide baseline applicable to the taxpayer and any related member at the time of application; or

(4) if the agreement is entered into before February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and the applicant is an electric vehicle manufacturer or electric vehicle component parts manufacturer with existing operations within Illinois that intends to convert or expand, in whole or in part, the existing facility from traditional manufacturing to primarily electric vehicle manufacturing, electric vehicle component parts manufacturing, an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturing, or a green steel manufacturer:

(A) make an investment of at least $100,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create the lesser of 75 new full-time employee jobs or new full-time employee jobs equivalent to 10% of the Statewide baseline applicable to the taxpayer and any related member at the time of application;

(4.1) if the agreement is entered into on or after February 3, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1125) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and the applicant (i) is an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle component parts manufacturer, a renewable energy manufacturer, a green steel manufacturer, or an entity engaged in research, development, or manufacturing of eVTOL aircraft or hybrid electric or fully electric propulsion systems for airliners and (ii) has existing operations within Illinois that the applicant intends to convert or expand, in whole or in part, from traditional manufacturing to electric vehicle manufacturing, electric vehicle component parts manufacturing, renewable energy manufacturing, or electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturing:

(A) make an investment of at least $100,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create the lesser of 50 new full-time employee jobs or new full-time employee jobs equivalent to 10% of the Statewide baseline applicable to the taxpayer and any related member at the time of application; or

(5) if the agreement is entered into on or after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-9) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and before June 1, 2024 and the applicant (i) is an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle component parts manufacturer, or a renewable energy manufacturer or (ii) has existing operations within Illinois that the applicant intends to convert or expand, in whole or in part, from traditional manufacturing to electric vehicle manufacturing, electric vehicle component parts manufacturing, renewable energy manufacturing, or electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturing:

(A) make an investment of at least $500,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) retain at least 800 full-time employee jobs at the project.

(d) For agreements entered into prior to April 19, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-700), for any applicant creating the full-time employee jobs noted in subsection (c), those jobs must have a total compensation equal to or greater than 120% of the average wage paid to full-time employees in the county where the project is located, as determined by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics. For agreements entered into on or after April 19, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-700), for any applicant creating the full-time employee jobs noted in subsection (c), those jobs must have a compensation equal to or greater than 120% of the average wage paid to full-time employees in a similar position within an occupational group in the county where the project is located, as determined by the Department.

(e) For any applicant, within 24 months after being placed in service, it must certify to the Department that it is carbon neutral or has attained certification under one of more of the following green building standards:

(1) BREEAM for New Construction or BREEAM In-Use;

(2) ENERGY STAR;

(3) Envision;

(4) ISO 50001 - energy management;

(5) LEED for Building Design and Construction or LEED for Building Operations and Maintenance;

(6) Green Globes for New Construction or Green Globes for Existing Buildings; or

(7) UL 3223.

(f) Each applicant must outline its hiring plan and commitment to recruit and hire full-time employee positions at the project site. The hiring plan may include a partnership with an institution of higher education to provide internships, including, but not limited to, internships supported by the Clean Jobs Workforce Network Program, or full-time permanent employment for students at the project site. Additionally, the applicant may create or utilize participants from apprenticeship programs that are approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training. The applicant may apply for apprenticeship education expense credits in accordance with the provisions set forth in 14 Ill. Adm. Code 522. Each applicant is required to report annually, on or before April 15, on the diversity of its workforce in accordance with Section 50 of this Act. For existing facilities of applicants under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) above, if the taxpayer expects a reduction in force due to its transition to manufacturing electric vehicle, electric vehicle component parts, or electric vehicle power supply equipment, the plan submitted under this Section must outline the taxpayer's plan to assist with retraining its workforce aligned with the taxpayer's adoption of new technologies and anticipated efforts to retrain employees through employment opportunities within the taxpayer's workforce.

(g) Each applicant must demonstrate a contractual or other relationship with a recycling facility, or demonstrate its own recycling capabilities, at the time of application and report annually a continuing contractual or other relationship with a recycling facility and the percentage of batteries used in electric vehicles recycled throughout the term of the agreement.

(h) A taxpayer may not enter into more than one agreement under this Act with respect to a single address or location for the same period of time. Also, a taxpayer may not enter into an agreement under this Act with respect to a single address or location for the same period of time for which the taxpayer currently holds an active agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act. This provision does not preclude the applicant from entering into an additional agreement after the expiration or voluntary termination of an earlier agreement under this Act or under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act to the extent that the taxpayer's application otherwise satisfies the terms and conditions of this Act and is approved by the Department. An applicant with an existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act may submit an application for an agreement under this Act after it terminates any existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act with respect to the same address or location. If a project that is subject to an existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act meets the requirements to be designated as a REV Illinois project under this Act, including for actions undertaken prior to the effective date of this Act, the taxpayer that is subject to that existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act may apply to the Department to amend the agreement to allow the project to become a designated REV Illinois project. Following the amendment, time accrued during which the project was eligible for credits under the existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act shall count toward the duration of the credit subject to limitations described in Section 40 of this Act.

(i) If, at any time following the designation of a project as a REV Illinois Project by the Department and prior to the termination or expiration of an agreement under this Act, the project ceases to qualify as a REV Illinois project because the taxpayer is no longer an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle component manufacturer, an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturer, a battery recycling and reuse manufacturer, a battery raw materials refining service provider, or an entity engaged in eVTOL or hybrid electric or fully electric propulsion systems for airliners research, development, or manufacturing, that project may receive tax credit awards as described in Section 5-15 and Section 5-51 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act, as long as the project continues to meet requirements to obtain those credits as described in the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act and remains compliant with terms contained in the Agreement under this Act not related to their status as an electric vehicle manufacturer, an electric vehicle component manufacturer, an electric vehicle power supply equipment manufacturer, a battery recycling and reuse manufacturer, a battery raw materials refining service provider, or an entity engaged in eVTOL or hybrid-electric or fully electric propulsion systems for airliners research, development, or manufacturing. Time accrued during which the project was eligible for credits under an agreement under this Act shall count toward the duration of the credit subject to limitations described in Section 5-45 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1112, eff. 12-21-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-24-24.)

(20 ILCS 686/65)

Sec. 65. REV Construction Jobs Credits.

(a) Each REV program participant that is engaged in construction work who seeks to apply for a REV Construction Jobs credit shall annually, until construction is completed, submit a report that, at a minimum, describes the projected project scope, timeline, and anticipated budget. Once the project has commenced, the annual report shall include actual data for the prior year as well as projections for each additional year through completion of the project. The Department shall issue detailed reporting guidelines prescribing the requirements of construction-related construction related reports.

In order to receive credit for construction expenses, the company must provide the Department with evidence that a certified third-party executed an Agreed-Upon Procedure (AUP) verifying the construction expenses or accept the standard construction wage expense estimated by the Department.

Upon review of the final project scope, timeline, budget, and AUP, the Department shall issue a tax credit certificate reflecting a percentage of the total construction job wages paid throughout the completion of the project.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) Upon 7 business days' notice, the taxpayer shall make available to any State agency and to federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies and prosecutors for inspection and copying at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the report described in subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(20 ILCS 686/95)

Sec. 95. Utility tax exemptions for REV Illinois Project sites. The Department may certify a taxpayer with a REV Illinois credit for a Project that meets the qualifications under paragraph Section paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (4.1), or (5) of subsection (c) of Section 20, subject to an agreement under this Act for an exemption from the tax imposed at the project site by Section 2-4 of the Electricity Excise Tax Law. To receive such certification, the taxpayer must be registered to self-assess that tax. The taxpayer is also exempt from any additional charges added to the taxpayer's utility bills at the project site as a pass-on of State utility taxes under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act. The taxpayer must meet any other criteria for certification set by the Department.

The Department shall determine the period during which the exemption from the Electricity Excise Tax Law and the charges imposed under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act are in effect, which shall not exceed 30 years from the date of the taxpayer's initial receipt of certification from the Department under this Section.

The Department is authorized to adopt rules to carry out the provisions of this Section, including procedures to apply for the exemptions; to define the amounts and types of eligible investments that an applicant must make in order to receive electricity excise tax exemptions or exemptions from the additional charges imposed under Section 9-222 and the Public Utilities Act; to approve such electricity excise tax exemptions for applicants whose investments are not yet placed in service; and to require that an applicant granted an electricity excise tax exemption or an exemption from additional charges under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act repay the exempted amount if the applicant Applicant fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the agreement.

Upon certification by the Department under this Section, the Department shall notify the Department of Revenue of the certification. The Department of Revenue shall notify the public utilities of the exempt status of any taxpayer certified for exemption under this Act from the electricity excise tax or pass-on charges. The exemption status shall take effect within 3 months after certification of the taxpayer and notice to the Department of Revenue by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 120. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 1-75. Off-Hours Child Care Program.

(a) Legislative intent. The General Assembly finds that:

(1) Finding child care can be a challenge for firefighters, paramedics, police officers, nurses, and other third shift workers across the State who often work non-typical work hours. This can impact home life, school, bedtime routines, job safety, and the mental health of some of our most critical frontline front line workers and their families.

(2) There is a need for increased options for off-hours child care in the State. A majority of the State's child care facilities do not provide care outside of normal work hours, with just 3,251 day care homes and 435 group day care homes that provide night care.

(3) Illinois has a vested interest in ensuring that our first responders and working families can provide their children with appropriate care during off hours to improve the morale of existing first responders and to improve recruitment into the future.

(b) As used in this Section, "first responders" means emergency medical services personnel as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, firefighters, law enforcement officers, and, as determined by the Department, any other workers who, on account of their work schedule, need child care outside of the hours when licensed child care facilities typically operate.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall establish and administer an Off-Hours Child Care Program to help first responders and other workers identify and access off-hours, night, or sleep time child care. Services funded under the program must address the child care needs of first responders. Funding provided under the program may also be used to cover any capital and operating expenses related to the provision of off-hours, night, or sleep time child care for first responders. Funding awarded under this Section shall be funded through appropriations from the Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund created under subsection (d). The Department shall implement the program by July 1, 2023. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement the program.

(d) The Off-Hours Child Care Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Fund shall consist of any moneys appropriated to the Department of Human Services for the Off-Hours Child Care Program. Moneys in the Fund shall be expended for the Off-Hours Child Care Program and for no other purpose. All interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

(e) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 102-912, eff. 5-27-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 125. The Department of Insurance Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1405-40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1405/1405-40)

Sec. 1405-40. Transfer of functions.

(a) On July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37), all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Insurance Compliance Division within the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The personnel of the Insurance Compliance Division are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The status and rights of such personnel under the Personnel Code are not affected by the transfer. The rights of the employees and the State of Illinois and its agencies under the Personnel Code and applicable collective bargaining agreements or under any pension, retirement, or annuity plan are not affected by Public Act 102-37. All books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-37 from the Insurance Compliance Division to the Department of Insurance, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities relating to the Insurance Compliance Division transferred by Public Act 102-37 are vested in the Department of Insurance.

(b) Whenever reports or notices are required to be made or given or papers or documents furnished or served by any person to or upon the Insurance Compliance Division in connection with any of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-37, the Department of Insurance shall make, give, furnish, or serve them.

(c) Public Act 102-37 does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled, any right occurring or established, or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the Insurance Compliance Division before July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37). Such actions or proceedings may be prosecuted and continued by the Department of Insurance.

(d) Any rules that relate to its powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Insurance Compliance Division and are in force on July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) become the rules of the Department of Insurance. Public Act 102-37 does not affect the legality of any such rules.

(e) Any proposed rules filed with the Secretary of State by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission that are pending in the rulemaking process on July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) and pertain to the transferred powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities are deemed to have been filed by the Department of Insurance. As soon as practicable, the Department of Insurance shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under Public Act 102-37 t to reflect the reorganization of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities affected by Public Act 102-37, using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. The Department of Insurance may propose and adopt under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act other rules of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission pertaining to Public Act 102-37 that are administered by the Department of Insurance.

(Source: P.A. 102-37, eff. 7-1-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 130. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2105-370 and 2105-375 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-370)

Sec. 2105-370. Continuing education; cultural competency.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Cultural competency" means a set of integrated attitudes, knowledge, and skills that enables a health care professional or organization to care effectively for patients from diverse cultures, groups, and communities.

"Health care professional" means a person licensed or registered by the Department under the following Acts: the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or the Behavior Analyst Licensing Act.

(b) For health care professional license or registration renewals occurring on or after January 1, 2025, a health care professional who has continuing education requirements must complete at least a one-hour course in training on cultural competency. A health care professional may count this one hour for completion of this course toward meeting the minimum credit hours required for continuing education.

(c) The Department may adopt rules for the implementation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-531, eff. 1-1-25; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 12-1-24.)

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-375)

Sec. 2105-375. Limitation on specific statutorily mandated training requirements.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Health care professional" means a person licensed or registered by the Department under the following Acts: the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or the Behavior Analyst Licensing Act.

"Statutorily mandated topics" means continuing education training as specified by statute, including, but not limited to, training required under Sections 2105-365 and 2105-370.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for health care professional license or registration renewals occurring on or after January 1, 2025, a health care professional whose license or registration renewal occurs every 2 years must complete all statutorily mandated topics within 3 renewal periods. If any additional statutorily mandated topics are added by law after January 1, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-531) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, then a health care professional whose license or registration renewal occurs every 2 years must complete all statutorily mandated topics within 4 renewal periods.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for health care professional license or registration renewals occurring on or after January 1, 2025, a health care professional whose license or registration renewal occurs every 3 years must complete all statutorily mandated topics within 2 renewal periods. If any additional statutorily mandated topics are added by law after January 1, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-531) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, then a health care professional whose license or registration renewal occurs every 3 years must complete all statutorily mandated topics within 3 renewal periods.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, the implicit bias awareness training required under Section 2105-15.7 and the sexual harassment prevention training required under Section 2105-15.5 must be completed as provided by law.

(d-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, the Alzheimer's disease and other dementias training required under Section 2105-365 must be completed prior to the end of the health care professional's first license renewal period, and thereafter in accordance with this Section.

(e) The Department shall maintain on its website information regarding the current requirements for the specific statutorily mandated topics.

(f) Each license or permit application or renewal form the Department provides to a health care professional must include a notification regarding the current specific statutorily mandated topics.

(Source: P.A. 103-531, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 135. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2310-347 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2310-730 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-347)

Sec. 2310-347. The Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board.

(a) The Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Board is created as an advisory board within the Department. Until 30 days after July 11, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-92) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Board may consist of 10 members as follows: 2 members appointed by the President of the Senate; 2 members appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; 2 members appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; 2 members appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; and 2 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, one of whom shall be designated as chair of the Board at the time of appointment.

(a-5) Notwithstanding any provision of this Article to the contrary, the term of office of each current Board member ends 30 days after July 11, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-92) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly or when his or her successor is appointed and qualified, whichever occurs sooner. No later than 30 days after July 11, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-92) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Board shall consist of 10 newly appointed members. Four of the Board members shall be members of the General Assembly and appointed as follows: one member appointed by the President of the Senate; one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; and one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

Six of the Board members shall be appointed by the Director of the Department of Public Health, who shall designate one of these appointed members as chair of the Board at the time of his or her appointment. These 6 members appointed by the Director shall reflect the population with regard to ethnic, racial, and geographical composition and shall include the following individuals: one breast cancer survivor; one physician specializing in breast cancer or related medical issues; one breast cancer researcher; one representative from a breast cancer organization; one individual who operates a patient navigation program at a major hospital or health system; and one breast cancer professional that may include, but not be limited to, a genetics counselor, a social worker, a dietitian detain, an occupational therapist, or a nurse.

A Board member whose term has expired may continue to serve until a successor is appointed.

(b) Board members shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for their reasonable travel expenses incurred in performing their duties from funds available for that purpose. The Department shall provide staff and administrative support services to the Board.

(c) The Board may advise:

(i) the Department of Revenue in designing and promoting the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure special instant scratch-off lottery game;

(ii) the Department in reviewing grant applications; and

(iii) the Director on the final award of grants from amounts appropriated from the Carolyn Adams Ticket For The Cure Grant Fund, to public or private entities in Illinois that reflect the population with regard to ethnic, racial, and geographic composition for the purpose of funding breast cancer research and supportive services for breast cancer survivors and those impacted by breast cancer and breast cancer education. In awarding grants, the Department shall consider criteria that includes, but is not limited to, projects and initiatives that address disparities in incidence and mortality rates of breast cancer, based on data from the Illinois Cancer Registry, and populations facing barriers to care in accordance with Section 21.5 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(c-5) The Department shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly by December 31 of each year. The report shall provide a summary of the Carolyn Adams Ticket for the Cure lottery ticket sales, grants awarded, and the accomplishments of the grantees.

(d) The Board is discontinued on June 30, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23; revised 10-24-24.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-730)

Sec. 2310-730. Health care telementoring.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall designate one or more health care telementoring entities based on an application to be developed by the Department. Applicants shall demonstrate a record of expertise and demonstrated success in providing health care telementoring services. The Department may adopt rules necessary for the implementation of this Section. Funding may be provided based on the number of health care providers or professionals who are assisted by each approved health care telementoring entity and the hours of assistance provided to each health care provider or professional in addition to other factors as determined by the Director.

(b) In this Section:

"Health care providers or professionals" means individuals trained to provide health care or related services. "Health care providers or professionals" includes, but is not limited to, physicians, nurses, physician assistants, speech language pathologists, social workers, and school personnel involved in screening for targeted conditions and providing support to students impacted by those conditions.

"Health care telementoring" means a program:

(1) that is based on interactive video or phone technology that connects groups of local health care providers or professionals in urban and rural underserved areas with specialists in regular real-time collaborative sessions;

(2) that is designed around case-based learning and mentorship; and

(3) that helps local health care providers or professionals gain the expertise required to more effectively provide needed services.

"Health care telementoring" includes, but is not limited to, a program provided to improve services in one or more of a variety of areas, including, but not limited to, chronic disease, communicable disease, atypical vision or hearing, adolescent health, Hepatitis C, complex diabetes, geriatrics, mental illness, opioid use disorders, substance use disorders, maternity care, childhood adversity and trauma, pediatric ADHD, congregate settings, including justice-involved justice involved systems, and other priorities identified by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 9-27-24.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-731)

Sec. 2310-731 2310-730. Diversity in clinical trials.

(a) As used in this Section, "underrepresented community" or "underrepresented demographic group" means a community or demographic group that is more likely to be historically marginalized and less likely to be included in research and clinical trials represented by race, ethnicity, sex, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, age, and geographic location.

(b) Any State entity or hospital that receives funding from the National Institutes of Health for the purpose of conducting clinical trials of drugs or medical devices is required to:

(1) adopt a policy that will result in the identification and recruitment of persons who are members of underrepresented demographic groups to participate in the clinical trials and that:

(A) includes specific strategies for trial enrollment and retention of diverse participants, including, but not limited to, site location and access, sustained community engagement, and reducing burdens due to trial design or conduct, as appropriate; and

(B) uses strategies recommended by the United States Food and Drug Administration to identify and recruit those persons to participate in the clinical trials;

(2) provide information to trial participants in languages other than English in accordance with current federal requirements;

(3) provide translation services or bilingual staff for trial recruitment and consent processes;

(4) provide culturally specific recruitment materials alongside general enrollment materials; and

(5) provide remote consent options when not prohibited by the granting entity or federal regulations.

(c) The Department, through voluntary reporting from research institutions and in consultation with community-based organizations and other stakeholders as appropriate and available, shall analyze and provide recommendations on the following:

(1) the demographic groups and populations that are currently represented and underrepresented in clinical trials in Illinois, including representation of groups based on their geographic location;

(2) the barriers that prevent persons who are members of underrepresented demographic groups from participating in clinical trials in Illinois, including barriers related to transportation; and

(3) approaches for how clinical trials can successfully partner with community-based organizations and others to provide outreach to underrepresented communities.

By July 1, 2026, the Department shall issue a report and post on its website the results of the analysis required under this subsection and any recommendations to increase diversity and reduce barriers for participants in clinical trials.

(d) The Department shall review the most recent guidance on race and ethnicity data collection in clinical trials published by the United States Food and Drug Administration and establish, using existing infrastructure and tools an Internet website that:

(1) provides information concerning methods recognized by the United States Food and Drug Administration for identifying and recruiting persons who are members of underrepresented demographic groups to participate in clinical trials; and

(2) contains links to Internet websites maintained by medical facilities, health authorities and other local governmental entities, nonprofit organizations, and scientific investigators and institutions that are performing research relating to drugs or medical devices in this State.

The Department may apply for grants from any source, including, without limitation, the Federal Government, to fund the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-860, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-732)

Sec. 2310-732 2310-730. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Awareness Program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Public Health, in conjunction with experts in the field of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, shall develop mandatory protocols and best practices for providing the necessary medical guidance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy in Illinois.

(b) To raise awareness about Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the protocols and best practices developed by the Department under subsection (a):

(1) shall be published on a designated and publicly accessible webpage;

(2) shall include up-to-date information about Duchenne muscular dystrophy;

(3) shall reference peer-reviewed scientific research articles;

(4) shall incorporate guidance and recommendations from the National Institutes of Health, and any other persons or entities determined by the Department to have particular expertise in Duchenne muscular dystrophy; and

(5) shall be distributed to physicians, other health care professionals and providers, and persons subject to Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

(c) The Department shall prepare a report of all efforts undertaken by the Department under this Section. The report shall be posted on the Department's website and distributed to local health departments and to any other facilities as determined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-964, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 140. The Bureau for the Blind Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2410/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 3417)

Sec. 7. Council. There shall be created within the Department a Blind Services Planning Council which shall review the actions of the Bureau for the Blind and provide advice and consultation to the Secretary on services to blind people. The Council shall be composed of 11 members appointed by the Governor. All members shall be selected because of their ability to provide worthwhile consultation or services to the blind. No fewer than 6 members shall be blind. A relative balance between the number of males and females shall be maintained. Broad representation shall be sought by appointment, with 2 members from each of the major statewide consumer organizations of the blind and one member from a specific service area including, but not limited to, the Hadley School for the Blind, Chicago Lighthouse, Department-approved Low Vision Aids Aides Clinics, Vending Facilities Operators, the Association for the Education and Rehabilitation of the Blind and Visually Impaired (AER), blind homemakers, outstanding competitive employers of blind people, providers and recipients of income maintenance programs, in-home care programs, subsidized housing, nursing homes, and homes for the blind.

Initially, 4 members shall be appointed for terms of one year, 4 for terms of 2 years, and 3 for terms of 3 years with a partial term of 18 months or more counting as a full term. Subsequent terms shall be 3 years each. No member shall serve more than 2 terms. No Department employee shall be a member of the Council.

Members shall be removed for cause, including, but not limited to, demonstrated incompetence, unethical behavior, and unwillingness or inability to serve.

Members shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

Members shall be governed by appropriate and applicable State and federal statutes and regulations on matters such as ethics, confidentiality, freedom of information, travel, and civil rights.

Department staff may attend meetings but shall not be a voting member of the Council. The Council shall elect a chairperson and a recording secretary from among its number. Sub-committees and ad hoc committees may be created to concentrate on specific program components or initiative areas.

The Council shall perform the following functions:

(a) Facilitate facilitate communication and cooperative efforts between the Department and all agencies which have any responsibility to deliver services to blind and visually impaired persons.

(b) Identify identify needs and problems related to blind and visually impaired persons, including children, adults, and seniors, and make recommendations to the Secretary, Bureau Director, and Governor.

(c) Recommend recommend programmatic and fiscal priorities governing the provision of services and awarding of grants or contracts by the Department to any person or agency, public or private.

(d) Conduct conduct, encourage, and advise independent research by qualified evaluators to improve services to blind and visually impaired persons, including those with multiple disabilities.

(e) Participate participate in the development and review of proposed and amended rules and regulations of the Department relating to services for the blind and visually impaired.

(f) Review review and comment on all budgets (drafted and submitted) relating to services for blind and visually impaired persons.

(g) Promote promote policies and programs to educate the public and elicit public support for services to blind and visually impaired persons.

(h) Encourage encourage creative and innovative programs to strengthen, expand, and improve services for blind and visually impaired persons, including outreach services.

(i) Perform perform such other duties as may be required by the Governor, Secretary, and Bureau Director.

The Council shall supersede and replace all advisory committees now functioning within the Bureau of Rehabilitation Services for the Blind, with the exception of federally mandated advisory groups.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 145. The Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2505-815 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-815)

Sec. 2505-815. County Official Compensation Task Force.

(a) The County Official Compensation Task Force is created to review the compensation of county-level officials as provided for in various State statutes and to make recommendations to the General Assembly on any appropriate changes to those statutes, including implementation dates.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall be as follows:

(1) the Director of Revenue or the Director's designee, who shall serve as the chair of the Task Force;

(2) two representatives from a statewide organization that represents chief county assessment officers, with one representative from a county with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and one representative from a county with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Director of Revenue;

(3) two representatives from a statewide organization that represents county auditors, with one representative from a county with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and one representative from a county with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Director of Revenue;

(4) two representatives from a statewide organization that represents county clerks and recorders, with one representative from a county with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and one representative from a county with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Director of Revenue;

(5) two representatives from a statewide organization that represents circuit clerks, with one representative from a county with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and one representative from a county with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court;

(6) two representatives from a statewide organization that represents county treasurers, with one representative from a county with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and one representative from a county with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Director of Revenue;

(7) four representatives from a statewide organization that represents county board members, with 2 representatives from counties with a 2020 population of fewer than 25,000 persons and 2 representatives from counties with a 2020 population of 25,000 or more, to be appointed by the Governor; and

(8) four members from the General Assembly, with one member appointed by the President of the Senate, one member appointed by the Senate Minority Leader, one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and one member appointed by the House Minority Leader.

(c) The Department of Revenue shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(d) The Task Force's review shall include, but is not limited to, the following subjects:

(1) a review and comparison of current statutory provisions and requirements for compensation of county-level officials;

(2) the proportion of salary and related costs borne by State government compared to local government;

(3) job duties, education requirements, and other requirements of those serving as county-level officials; and

(4) current compensation levels for county-level officials as compared to comparable positions in non-governmental positions and comparable positions in other levels of government.

(e) On or before September 1, 2024, the Task Force members shall be appointed. On or before February 1, 2025, the Task Force shall prepare a status report that summarizes its work. The Task Force shall also prepare a comprehensive report either (i) on or before May 1, 2025 or (ii) on or before December 31, 2025, if all appointments to the Task Force are not made by September 1, 2024. The comprehensive report shall summarize the Task Force's findings and make recommendations on the implementation of changes to the compensation of chief county assessment officers, county auditors, county clerks and recorders, county coroners, county treasurers, and circuit clerks that will ensure compensation is competitive for recruitment and retention and will ensure parity exists among compensation levels within each profession, each county, and across the State.

(f) The Task Force is dissolved on January 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24.)

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-816)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 2505-816 2505-815. Property tax system study. The Department, in consultation with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, shall conduct a study to evaluate the property tax system in the State and shall analyze any information collected in connection with that study. The Department may also examine whether the existing property tax levy, assessment, appeal, and collection process is reasonable and fair and may issue recommendations to improve that process. For purposes of conducting the study and analyzing the data required under this Section, the Department may determine the scope of the historical data necessary to complete the study, but in no event shall the scope or time period be less than the 10 most recent tax years for which the Department has complete data. The study shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) a comprehensive review of the classification system used by Cook County in assessing real property in Cook County compared with the rest of the State, including, but not limited to, a projection of the impact, if any, that the assessment of real property in Cook County would exhibit if the classification system were to be phased-out and transitioned to a uniform level of assessment, and the impact, if any, that the Cook County classification system has or has had on economic development or job creation in the county;

(2) a comprehensive review of State laws concerning the appeal of assessments at the local and State level and State laws concerning the collection of property taxes, including any issues that have resulted in delays in issuing property tax bills;

(3) a comprehensive review of statewide assessment processes, including a comparison of assessment process in Cook County and other counties and practices in other states that allow for standardized assessment processes;

(4) a comprehensive review of current property tax homestead exemptions, the impact of those exemptions, and the administration or application of those exemptions;

(5) an analysis of preferential assessments or incentives, including, but not limited to, the resultant economic impact from preferential assessments; and

(6) a review of the State's reliance on property taxes and the historical growth in property tax levies.

The Department may consult with Illinois institutions of higher education in conducting the study required under this Section. The Department may also consult with units of local government. To the extent practicable and where applicable, the Department may request relevant, publicly available property tax information from units of local government, including counties and municipalities, that is deemed necessary to complete the study required pursuant to this Section. Units of local government that are required to submit property tax information to the Department must do so in a reasonably expedient manner, to the extent possible, but in no event later than 60 days after the date upon which the Department requests that relevant information.

The Department may complete a preliminary report that may be made available for public inspection via electronic means prior to the publication of the final report under this Section. The Department shall complete and submit the final report under this Section to the Governor and the General Assembly by July 1, 2026. A copy of both the preliminary report, if made available by the Department, and the final report shall be made available to the public via electronic means. The Department may allow for the submission of public comments from individuals, organizations, or associations representing residential property owners, commercial property owners, units of local government, or labor unions in Illinois prior to finalizing the final report under this Section and after publication of the final report under this Section. If the Department allows for the submission of public comments, the Department shall publish via electronic means any and all materials submitted to the Department.

This Section is repealed on December 31, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 103-1002, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 150. The Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-51 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-51)

Sec. 2605-51. Division of the Academy and Training.

(a) The Division of the Academy and Training shall exercise, but not be limited to, the following functions:

(1) Oversee and operate the Illinois State Police Training Academy.

(2) Train and prepare new officers for a career in law enforcement, with innovative, quality training and educational practices.

(3) Offer continuing training and educational programs for Illinois State Police employees.

(4) Oversee the Illinois State Police's recruitment initiatives.

(5) Oversee and operate the Illinois State Police's quartermaster.

(6) Duties assigned to the Illinois State Police in Article 5, Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code concerning testing and training officers on the detection of impaired driving.

(7) Duties assigned to the Illinois State Police in Article 108B of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

(a-5) Successful completion of the Illinois State Police Academy satisfies the minimum standards pursuant to subsections (a), (b), and (d) of Section 7 of the Illinois Police Training Act and exempts State police officers from the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board's State Comprehensive Examination and Equivalency Examination. Satisfactory completion shall be evidenced by a commission or certificate issued to the officer.

(b) The Division of the Academy and Training shall exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the former Division of State Troopers by Section 17 of the Illinois State Police Act.

(c) Specialized training.

(1) Training; cultural diversity. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training and continuing education to State police officers concerning cultural diversity, including sensitivity toward racial and ethnic differences. This training and continuing education shall include, but not be limited to, an emphasis on the fact that the primary purpose of enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code is safety and equal and uniform enforcement under the law.

(2) Training; death and homicide investigations. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training in death and homicide investigation for State police officers. Only State police officers who successfully complete the training may be assigned as lead investigators in death and homicide investigations. Satisfactory completion of the training shall be evidenced by a certificate issued to the officer by the Division of the Academy and Training. The Director shall develop a process for waiver applications for officers whose prior training and experience as homicide investigators may qualify them for a waiver. The Director may issue a waiver, at his or her discretion, based solely on the prior training and experience of an officer as a homicide investigator.

(A) The Division shall require all homicide investigator training to include instruction on victim-centered, trauma-informed investigation. This training must be implemented by July 1, 2023.

(B) The Division shall cooperate with the Division of Criminal Investigation to develop a model curriculum on victim-centered, trauma-informed investigation. This curriculum must be implemented by July 1, 2023.

(3) Training; police dog training standards. All police dogs used by the Illinois State Police for drug enforcement purposes pursuant to the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall be trained by programs that meet the certification requirements set by the Director or the Director's designee. Satisfactory completion of the training shall be evidenced by a certificate issued by the Division of the Academy and Training.

(4) Training; post-traumatic stress disorder. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program in post-traumatic stress disorder for State police officers. The purpose of that training shall be to equip State police officers to identify the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder and to respond appropriately to individuals exhibiting those symptoms.

(5) Training; opioid antagonists. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program for State police officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section, "State police officers" includes full-time or part-time State police officers, investigators, and any other employee of the Illinois State Police exercising the powers of a peace officer.

(6) Training; sexual assault and sexual abuse.

(A) Every 3 years, the Division of the Academy and Training shall present in-service training on sexual assault and sexual abuse response and report writing training requirements, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) recognizing the symptoms of trauma;

(ii) understanding the role trauma has played in a victim's life;

(iii) responding to the needs and concerns of a victim;

(iv) delivering services in a compassionate, sensitive, and nonjudgmental manner;

(v) interviewing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in this paragraph (6);

(vi) understanding cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse; and

(vii) report writing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in this paragraph (6).

(B) This training must also be presented in all full and part-time basic law enforcement academies.

(C) Instructors providing this training shall have successfully completed training on evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered responses to cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse and have experience responding to sexual assault and sexual abuse cases.

(D) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules, in consultation with the Office of the Attorney General and the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, to determine the specific training requirements for these courses, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) evidence-based curriculum standards for report writing and immediate response to sexual assault and sexual abuse, including trauma-informed, victim-centered interview techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for all State police officers; and

(ii) evidence-based curriculum standards for trauma-informed, victim-centered investigation and interviewing techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse for all State police officers who conduct sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations.

(7) Training; human trafficking. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking, including, but not limited to, involuntary servitude under subsection (b) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor under subsection (c) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and trafficking in persons under subsection (d) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. This program shall be made available to all cadets and State police officers.

(8) Training; hate crimes. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training for State police officers in identifying, responding to, and reporting all hate crimes.

(9) Training; cell phone medical information. The Division of the Academy and Training shall develop and require each State police officer to complete training on accessing and utilizing medical information stored in cell phones. The Division may use the program approved under Section 2310-711 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to develop the Division's program.

(10) (9) Training; autism spectrum disorders. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training for State police officers on the nature of autism spectrum disorders and in identifying and appropriately responding to individuals with autism spectrum disorders. The Illinois State Police shall review the training curriculum and may consult with the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services to update the training curriculum as needed. This training shall be made available to all cadets and State police officers.

(d) The Division of the Academy and Training shall administer and conduct a program consistent with 18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C for qualified active and retired Illinois State Police officers.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-756, eff. 5-10-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; 103-939, eff. 1-1-25; 103-949, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 155. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the following Sections of the Unified Code of Corrections:

Business Offense, Section 5-1-2.

Charge, Section 5-1-3.

Court, Section 5-1-6.

Defendant, Section 5-1-7.

Felony, Section 5-1-9.

Imprisonment, Section 5-1-10.

Judgment, Section 5-1-12.

Misdemeanor, Section 5-1-14.

Offense, Section 5-1-15.

Parole, Section 5-1-16.

Petty Offense, Section 5-1-17.

Probation, Section 5-1-18.

Sentence, Section 5-1-19.

Supervision, Section 5-1-21.

Victim, Section 5-1-22.

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by Section 5-1-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(G-5) "Minor Cannabis Offense" means a violation of Section 4 or 5 of the Cannabis Control Act concerning not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis, provided the violation did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act and is not associated with an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes, but is not limited to, the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Section 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(A-5) In anticipation of the successful completion of a problem-solving court, pre-plea diversion, or post-plea diversion program, a petition for expungement may be filed 61 days before the anticipated dismissal of the case or any time thereafter. Upon successful completion of the program and dismissal of the case, the court shall review the petition of the person graduating from the program and shall grant expungement if the petitioner meets all requirements as specified in any applicable statute.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Illinois State Police for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Illinois State Police, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Illinois State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Illinois State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Illinois State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registry Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. From August 9, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-306) through December 31, 2020, in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2022.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition a test showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition to expunge or seal under this Section because the petitioner has submitted a drug test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition to expunge or seal that indicates a positive test for the presence of cannabis within the petitioner's body. In this subparagraph (D), "cannabis" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Illinois State Police as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Illinois State Police, in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Illinois State Police, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Illinois State Police, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Illinois State Police to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Illinois State Police may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and remit the Illinois State Police portion of the fee to the State Treasurer and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Illinois State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing or vacation and expungement of trafficking victims' crimes.

(1) A trafficking victim, as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, may petition for vacation and expungement or immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(1.5) A petition under paragraph (1) shall be prepared, signed, and filed in accordance with Supreme Court Rule 9. The court may allow the petitioner to attend any required hearing remotely in accordance with local rules. The court may allow a petition to be filed under seal if the public filing of the petition would constitute a risk of harm to the petitioner.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to vacation and expungement or immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to vacation and expungement or immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for vacation and expungement or immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(i) Minor Cannabis Offenses under the Cannabis Control Act.

(1) Expungement of Arrest Records of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) The Illinois State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge all criminal history records of an arrest, charge not initiated by arrest, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation for a Minor Cannabis Offense committed prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) if:

(i) One year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(ii) No criminal charges were filed relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction or criminal charges were filed and subsequently dismissed or vacated or the arrestee was acquitted.

(B) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of condition (ii) in paragraph (A), records that satisfy condition (i) in paragraph (A) shall be automatically expunged.

(C) Records shall be expunged by the law enforcement agency under the following timelines:

(i) Records created prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), but on or after January 1, 2013, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2021;

(ii) Records created prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023;

(iii) Records created prior to January 1, 2000 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2025.

In response to an inquiry for expunged records, the law enforcement agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed; however, it shall provide a certificate of disposition or confirmation that the record was expunged to the individual whose record was expunged if such a record exists.

(D) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have that individual's records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act, or diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(2) Pardons Authorizing Expungement of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) Upon June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall review all criminal history record information and identify all records that meet all of the following criteria:

(i) one or more convictions for a Minor Cannabis Offense;

(ii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act; and

(iii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) is not associated with a conviction for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(B) Within 180 days after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of all such records that meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A).

(i) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the county of conviction of each record identified by State Police in paragraph (2)(A) that is classified as a Class 4 felony. The State's Attorney may provide a written objection to the Prisoner Review Board on the sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A). Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by such later date set by the Prisoner Review Board in the notice after the State's Attorney received notice from the Prisoner Review Board.

(ii) In response to a written objection from a State's Attorney, the Prisoner Review Board is authorized to conduct a non-public hearing to evaluate the information provided in the objection.

(iii) The Prisoner Review Board shall make a confidential and privileged recommendation to the Governor as to whether to grant a pardon authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the Department of State Police as described in paragraph (2)(A).

(C) If an individual has been granted a pardon authorizing expungement as described in this Section, the Prisoner Review Board, through the Attorney General, shall file a petition for expungement with the Chief Judge of the circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge where the individual had been convicted. Such petition may include more than one individual. Whenever an individual who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed. Petitions to expunge under this subsection (i) may include more than one individual. Within 90 days of the filing of such a petition, the court shall enter an order expunging the records of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be expunged and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which the individual had received a pardon but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make it available to the individual upon request.

(D) Nothing in this Section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(3) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the motion to vacate and expunge, and any supporting documentation, on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file such a petition after the completion of any non-financial sentence or non-financial condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined by Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual. Motions filed by an agency providing civil legal aid concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically.

(4) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. Motions filed by a State's Attorney concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the individual's age, the individual's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. Upon entry of an order granting a motion to vacate and expunge records pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual whose records will be expunged to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make available to the individual upon request. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(5) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(6) If a person is arrested for a Minor Cannabis Offense as defined in this Section before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and the person's case is still pending but a sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges against him or her, and expunge all official records of his or her arrest, plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision, or expungement. If the court determines, upon review, that: (A) the person was arrested before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) for an offense that has been made eligible for expungement; (B) the case is pending at the time; and (C) the person has not been sentenced of the minor cannabis violation eligible for expungement under this subsection, the court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. If a motion to dismiss and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(7) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions for Minor Cannabis Offenses under this subsection (i) shall be released from incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.

(8) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to Minor Cannabis Offenses of the Cannabis Control Act eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(9) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(10) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(11) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (i).

(j) Felony Prostitution Convictions.

(1) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a prior Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense; and

(D) the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file the petition after the completion of any sentence or condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of the motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to the petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined in Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual.

(2) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit court designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following reasons:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense;

(D) the time since the conviction; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences if denied.

If the State's Attorney files a motion to vacate and expunge records for felony prostitution convictions pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days of the filing. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(3) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(4) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to a use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to felony prostitution eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(5) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(6) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(7) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (j).

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-558, 8-20-21; 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-933, eff. 1-1-23; 103-35, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-609, eff. 7-1-24; 103-755, eff. 8-2-24; revised 8-9-24.)

Section 160. The Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2705-440 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-440) (was 20 ILCS 2705/49.25h)

Sec. 2705-440. Intercity Rail Service.

(a) For the purposes of providing intercity railroad passenger service within this State and throughout the United States, the Department is authorized to enter into agreements with any state, state agency, unit units of local government or political subdivision subdivisions, the Commuter Rail Division of the Regional Transportation Authority (or a public corporation on behalf of that Division), architecture or engineering firm firms, the National Railroad Passenger Corporation, any carrier, or any individual, corporation, partnership, or public or private entity. The cost related to such services shall be borne in such proportion as, by agreement or contract the parties may desire.

(b) In providing any intercity railroad passenger service as provided in this Section, the Department shall have the following additional powers:

(1) to enter into trackage use agreements with rail carriers;

(1.5) to freely lease or otherwise contract for any purpose any of the locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment or accessions to any state or state agency, public or private entity, or quasi-public entities;

(2) to enter into haulage agreements with rail carriers;

(3) to lease or otherwise contract for use, maintenance, servicing, and repair of any needed locomotives, rolling stock, stations, or other facilities, the lease or contract having a term not to exceed 50 years (but any multi-year contract shall recite that the contract is subject to termination and cancellation, without any penalty, acceleration payment, or other recoupment mechanism, in any fiscal year for which the General Assembly fails to make an adequate appropriation to cover the contract obligation);

(4) to enter into management agreements;

(5) to include in any contract indemnification of carriers or other parties for any liability with regard to intercity railroad passenger service;

(6) to obtain insurance for any losses or claims with respect to the service;

(7) to promote the use of the service;

(8) to make grants to any body politic and corporate, any unit of local government, or the Commuter Rail Division of the Regional Transportation Authority to cover all or any part of any capital or operating costs of the service and to enter into agreements with respect to those grants;

(9) to set any fares or make other regulations with respect to the service, consistent with any contracts for the service; and

(10) to otherwise enter into any contracts necessary or convenient to provide rail services, operate or maintain locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment or accessions, including the lease or use of such locomotives, railcars, equipment, or accessions.

(c) All service provided under this Section shall be exempt from all regulations by the Illinois Commerce Commission (other than for safety matters). To the extent the service is provided by the Commuter Rail Division of the Regional Transportation Authority (or a public corporation on behalf of that Division), it shall be exempt from safety regulations of the Illinois Commerce Commission to the extent the Commuter Rail Division adopts its own safety regulations.

(d) In connection with any powers exercised under this Section, the Department

(1) shall not have the power of eminent domain; and

(2) shall not directly operate any railroad service with its own employees.

(e) Any contract with the Commuter Rail Division of the Regional Transportation Authority (or a public corporation on behalf of the Division) under this Section shall provide that all costs in excess of revenue received by the Division generated from intercity rail service provided by the Division shall be fully borne by the Department, and no funds for operation of commuter rail service shall be used, directly or indirectly, or for any period of time, to subsidize the intercity rail operation. If at any time the Division does not have sufficient funds available to satisfy the requirements of this Section, the Division shall forthwith terminate the operation of intercity rail service. The payments made by the Department to the Division for the intercity rail passenger service shall not be made in excess of those costs or as a subsidy for costs of commuter rail operations. This shall not prevent the contract from providing for efficient coordination of service and facilities to promote cost effective operations of both intercity rail passenger service and commuter rail services with cost allocations as provided in this paragraph.

(f) Whenever the Department enters into an agreement with any carrier for the Department's payment of such railroad required maintenance expenses necessary for intercity passenger service, the Department may deposit such required maintenance funds into an escrow account. Whenever the Department enters into an agreement with any State or State agency, any public or private entity or quasi-public entity for the lease, rental or use of locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment or accessions, the Department may deposit such receipts into a separate escrow account. For purposes of this subsection, "escrow account" an escrow account means any fiduciary account established with (i) any banking corporation which is both organized under the Illinois Banking Act and authorized to accept and administer trusts in this State, or (ii) any national banking association which has its principal place of business in this State and which also is authorized to accept and administer trusts in this State. The funds in any required maintenance escrow account may be withdrawn by the carrier or entity in control of the railroad being maintained, only with the consent of the Department, pursuant to a written maintenance agreement and pursuant to a maintenance plan that shall be updated each year. The funds in an escrow account holding lease payments, use fees, or rental payments may be withdrawn by the Department, only with the consent of the Midwest Fleet Pool Board and deposited into the High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund. The moneys deposited in the escrow accounts shall be invested and reinvested, pursuant to the direction of the Department, in bonds and other interest bearing obligations of this State, or in such accounts, certificates, bills, obligations, shares, pools, or other securities as are authorized for the investment of public funds under the Public Funds Investment Act. Escrow accounts created under this subsection shall not have terms that exceed 20 years. At the end of the term of an escrow account holding lease payments, use fees, or rental payments, the remaining balance shall be deposited in the High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund, a special fund that is created in the State treasury Treasury. Moneys in the High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund may be used for any purpose related to locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment. The Department shall prepare a report for presentation to the Comptroller and the Treasurer each year that shows the amounts deposited and withdrawn, the purposes for withdrawal, the balance, and the amounts derived from investment.

(g) Whenever the Department enters into an agreement with any carrier, State or State agency, any public or private entity, or quasi-public entity for costs related to procurement and maintenance of locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment or accessions, the Department shall deposit such receipts into the High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund. Additionally, the Department may make payments into the High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund for the State's share of the costs related to locomotives, passenger railcars, and other rolling stock equipment.

(Source: P.A. 103-707, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

Section 165. The Department of Veterans' Affairs Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/40)

Sec. 40. Notice of veterans and service members' benefits, services, and protections. The Department shall create, and the Department of Labor shall make available, at no cost, a veterans and service members' benefits, services, and protections poster. Such a poster shall include, but not be limited to, information regarding the following:

(1) Free veterans' benefits and services provided by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs and other veterans service organizations;

(2) Tax benefits;

(3) Illinois veteran driver's license and non-driver veteran identification card;

(4) Illinois protections for survivors of sexual violence in the military; and

(5) Contact information for the following:

(i) The United States Department of Veterans Affairs;

(ii) The Illinois Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs; and

(iii) The Veterans Crisis Line.

(Source: P.A. 103-828, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 170. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act is amended by changing Section 2.14 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3005/2.14)

Sec. 2.14. Annual Comprehensive Financial Report Internal Control Unit. As used in this Section, : "ACFR" means the State Annual Comprehensive Financial Report.

There is created within the Governor's Office of Management and Budget an ACFR Internal Control Unit, which shall advise and assist the Director in coordinating the audit of the State Annual Comprehensive Financial Report on behalf of the Governor. The ACFR Internal Control Unit may develop policies, plans, and programs to be used by the Office for the coordination of the financial audit and may advise and assist State agencies, as defined in the Illinois State Auditing Act and under the jurisdiction of the Governor, in improving internal controls related to the State's financial statements and reporting. The ACFR Internal Control Unit is authorized to direct State agencies under the jurisdiction of the Governor in the adoption of internal control procedures and documentation necessary to address internal control deficiencies or resolve ACFR audit findings, and to direct implementation of such corrective actions. Each State agency under the jurisdiction of the Governor shall furnish to the Office such information as the Office may from time to time require, and the Director or any duly authorized employee of the Office shall for the purpose of securing such information, have access to, and the right to examine and receive a copy of all documents, papers, reports, or records of any State agency under the jurisdiction of the Governor to assist in carrying out the Office's responsibilities under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-866, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 175. The Capital Development Board Act is amended by changing Section 10.09-1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3105/10.09-1)

Sec. 10.09-1. Certification of inspection.

(a) No person may occupy a newly constructed commercial building or a substantially improved commercial building in a non-building code jurisdiction until:

(1) The property owner or property owner's agent has first contracted for the inspection of the building by an inspector who meets the qualifications established by the Board; and

(2) The qualified inspector files a certification of inspection with the municipality or county having such jurisdiction over the property indicating that the building complies with all of the following:

(A) to the extent they do not conflict with the codes and rules listed in subparagraphs (C) through (F), the current edition or most recent preceding edition of the following codes published by the International Code Council:

(i) the International Building Code, including Appendix G and excluding Chapters 11, 13, and 29;

(ii) the International Existing Building Code;

(B) to the extent it does not conflict with the codes and rules listed in subparagraphs (C) through (F), the current edition or most recent preceding edition of the National Electrical Code published by the National Fire Protection Association;

(C) either:

(i) The Energy Efficient Building Code adopted under Section 15 of the Energy Efficient Building Act; or

(ii) The Illinois Stretch Energy Code adopted under Section 55 of the Energy Efficient Building Act;

(D) the Illinois Accessibility Code adopted under Section 4 of the Environmental Barriers Act;

(E) the Illinois Plumbing Code adopted under Section 35 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law; and

(F) the rules adopted in accordance with Section 9 of the Fire Investigation Act.

(3) Once a building permit is issued, the applicable requirements that are in effect on January 1 of the calendar year when the building permit was applied for, or, where a building permit is not required, on January 1 of the calendar year when construction begins, shall be the only requirements that apply for the duration of the building permit or construction.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The qualification requirements of this Section do not apply to building enforcement personnel employed by a municipality or county who are acting in their official capacity.

(d) For purposes of this Section:

"Commercial building" means any building other than: (i) a single-family home or a dwelling containing 2 or fewer apartments, condominiums, or townhouses; or (ii) a farm building as exempted from Section 3 of the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989.

"Newly constructed commercial building" means any commercial building for which original construction has commenced on or after July 1, 2011.

"Non-building code jurisdiction" means any area of the State in a municipality or county having jurisdiction that: (i) has not adopted a building code; or (ii) is required to but has not identified its adopted building code to the Board under Section 10.18 of the Capital Development Board Act.

"Qualified inspector" means an individual certified as a commercial building inspector by the International Code Council or an equivalent nationally recognized building inspector certification organization, qualified as a construction and building inspector by successful completion of an apprentice program certified by the United States Department of Labor, or who has filed verification of inspection experience according to rules adopted by the Board for the purposes of conducting inspections in non-building code jurisdictions.

"Substantial damage" means damage of any origin sustained by a structure whereby the cost of restoring the structure to its before-damaged condition would equal or exceed 50% of the market value of the structure before damage occurred.

"Substantially improved commercial building" means, for work commenced on or after January 1, 2025, any commercial building that has undergone any repair, reconstruction, rehabilitation, alteration, addition, or other improvement, the cost of which equals or exceeds 50% of the market value of the structure before the improvement or repair is started. If a commercial building has sustained substantial damage, any repairs are considered substantial improvement regardless of the actual repair work performed. "Substantially improved commercial building" does not include: (i) any project for improvement of a structure to correct existing violations of State or local health, sanitary, or safety code specifications which have been identified by the local code enforcement official and which are the minimum necessary to assure safe living conditions or (ii) any alteration of a historic structure, provided that the alteration will not preclude the structure's continued designation as a historic structure.

(e) Except as provided in Section 15 of the Illinois Residential Building Code Act, new residential construction is exempt from this Section and is defined as any original construction of a single-family home or a dwelling containing 2 or fewer apartments, condominiums, or townhouses.

(f) Local governments may establish agreements with other governmental entities within the State to issue permits and enforce building codes and may hire third-party providers that are qualified in accordance with this Section to provide inspection services.

(g) This Section does not limit the applicability of any other statutorily authorized code or regulation administered by State agencies. These include, without limitation, the codes and regulations listed in subparagraphs (C) through (F) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a).

(h) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 103-510 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall apply beginning on January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-510, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 180. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1055)

Sec. 5. Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(a) There is created within the executive branch of the State Government an Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, herein called the "Director" who shall be the head thereof. The Director shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall serve for a term of 2 years beginning on the third Monday in January of the odd-numbered year, and until a successor is appointed and has qualified; except that the term of the first Director appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 1989. The Director shall not hold any other remunerative public office. For terms beginning after January 18, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1179) and before January 16, 2023, the annual salary of the Director shall be as provided in Section 5-300 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for terms beginning on or after January 16, 2023, the Director shall receive an annual salary of $180,000 or as set by the Governor, whichever is higher. On July 1, 2023, and on each July 1 thereafter, the Director shall receive an increase in salary based on a cost of living adjustment as authorized by Senate Joint Resolution 192 of the 86th General Assembly.

For terms beginning on or after January 16, 2023, the Assistant Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall receive an annual salary of $156,600 or as set by the Governor, whichever is higher. On July 1, 2023, and on each July 1 thereafter, the Assistant Director shall receive an increase in salary based on a cost of living adjustment as authorized by Senate Joint Resolution 192 of the 86th General Assembly.

(b) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall obtain, under the provisions of the Personnel Code, technical, clerical, stenographic and other administrative personnel, and may make expenditures within the appropriation therefor as may be necessary to carry out the purpose of this Act. The agency created by this Act is intended to be a successor to the agency created under the Illinois Emergency Services and Disaster Agency Act of 1975 and the personnel, equipment, records, and appropriations of that agency are transferred to the successor agency as of June 30, 1988 (the effective date of this Act).

(c) The Director, subject to the direction and control of the Governor, shall be the executive head of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the State Emergency Response Commission and shall be responsible under the direction of the Governor, for carrying out the program for emergency management of this State. The Director shall also maintain liaison and cooperate with the emergency management organizations of this State and other states and of the federal government.

(d) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall take an integral part in the development and revision of political subdivision emergency operations plans prepared under paragraph (f) of Section 10. To this end it shall employ or otherwise secure the services of professional and technical personnel capable of providing expert assistance to the emergency services and disaster agencies. These personnel shall consult with emergency services and disaster agencies on a regular basis and shall make field examinations of the areas, circumstances, and conditions that particular political subdivision emergency operations plans are intended to apply.

(e) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and political subdivisions shall be encouraged to form an emergency management advisory committee composed of private and public personnel representing the emergency management phases of mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. The Local Emergency Planning Committee, as created under the Illinois Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act, shall serve as an advisory committee to the emergency services and disaster agency or agencies serving within the boundaries of that Local Emergency Planning Committee planning district for:

(1) the development of emergency operations plan provisions for hazardous chemical emergencies; and

(2) the assessment of emergency response capabilities related to hazardous chemical emergencies.

(f) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall:

(1) Coordinate the overall emergency management program of the State.

(2) Cooperate with local governments, the federal government, and any public or private agency or entity in achieving any purpose of this Act and in implementing emergency management programs for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(2.5) Develop a comprehensive emergency preparedness and response plan for any nuclear accident in accordance with Section 65 of the Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 and in development of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness program in accordance with Section 8 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(2.6) Coordinate with the Department of Public Health with respect to planning for and responding to public health emergencies.

(3) Prepare, for issuance by the Governor, executive orders, proclamations, and regulations as necessary or appropriate in coping with disasters.

(4) Promulgate rules and requirements for political subdivision emergency operations plans that are not inconsistent with and are at least as stringent as applicable federal laws and regulations.

(5) Review and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, emergency operations plans for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(5.5) Promulgate rules and requirements for the political subdivision emergency management exercises, including, but not limited to, exercises of the emergency operations plans.

(5.10) Review, evaluate, and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, political subdivision emergency management exercises for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(6) Determine requirements of the State and its political subdivisions for food, clothing, and other necessities in event of a disaster.

(7) Establish a register of persons with types of emergency management training and skills in mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(8) Establish a register of government and private response resources available for use in a disaster.

(9) Expand the Earthquake Awareness Program and its efforts to distribute earthquake preparedness materials to schools, political subdivisions, community groups, civic organizations, and the media. Emphasis will be placed on those areas of the State most at risk from an earthquake. Maintain the list of all school districts, hospitals, airports, power plants, including nuclear power plants, lakes, dams, emergency response facilities of all types, and all other major public or private structures which are at the greatest risk of damage from earthquakes under circumstances where the damage would cause subsequent harm to the surrounding communities and residents.

(10) Disseminate all information, completely and without delay, on water levels for rivers and streams and any other data pertaining to potential flooding supplied by the Division of Water Resources within the Department of Natural Resources to all political subdivisions to the maximum extent possible.

(11) Develop agreements, if feasible, with medical supply and equipment firms to supply resources as are necessary to respond to an earthquake or any other disaster as defined in this Act. These resources will be made available upon notifying the vendor of the disaster. Payment for the resources will be in accordance with Section 7 of this Act. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall determine which resources will be required and requested.

(11.5) In coordination with the Illinois State Police, develop and implement a community outreach program to promote awareness among the State's parents and children of child abduction prevention and response.

(12) Out of funds appropriated for these purposes, award capital and non-capital grants to Illinois hospitals or health care facilities located outside of a city with a population in excess of 1,000,000 to be used for purposes that include, but are not limited to, preparing to respond to mass casualties and disasters, maintaining and improving patient safety and quality of care, and protecting the confidentiality of patient information. No single grant for a capital expenditure shall exceed $300,000. No single grant for a non-capital expenditure shall exceed $100,000. In awarding such grants, preference shall be given to hospitals that serve a significant number of Medicaid recipients, but do not qualify for disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code. To receive such a grant, a hospital or health care facility must provide funding of at least 50% of the cost of the project for which the grant is being requested. In awarding such grants the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall consider the recommendations of the Illinois Hospital Association.

(13) Do all other things necessary, incidental or appropriate for the implementation of this Act.

(g) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to various higher education institutions, public K-12 school districts, area vocational centers as designated by the State Board of Education, inter-district special education cooperatives, regional safe schools, and nonpublic K-12 schools for safety and security improvements. For the purpose of this subsection (g), "higher education institution" means a public university, a public community college, or an independent, not-for-profit or for-profit higher education institution located in this State. Grants made under this subsection (g) shall be paid out of moneys appropriated for that purpose from the Build Illinois Bond Fund. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (g). These rules may specify: (i) the manner of applying for grants; (ii) project eligibility requirements; (iii) restrictions on the use of grant moneys; (iv) the manner in which the various higher education institutions must account for the use of grant moneys; and (v) any other provision that the Illinois Emergency Management Agency determines to be necessary or useful for the administration of this subsection (g).

(g-5) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to not-for-profit organizations which are exempt from federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Federal Internal Revenue Code for eligible security improvements that assist the organization in preventing, preparing for, or responding to threats, attacks, or acts of terrorism. To be eligible for a grant under the program, the Agency must determine that the organization is at a high risk of being subject to threats, attacks, or acts of terrorism based on the organization's profile, ideology, mission, or beliefs. Eligible security improvements shall include all eligible preparedness activities under the federal Nonprofit Security Grant Program, including, but not limited to, physical security upgrades, security training exercises, preparedness training exercises, contracting with security personnel, and any other security upgrades deemed eligible by the Director. Eligible security improvements shall not duplicate, in part or in whole, a project included under any awarded federal grant or in a pending federal application. The Director shall establish procedures and forms by which applicants may apply for a grant and procedures for distributing grants to recipients. Any security improvements awarded shall remain at the physical property listed in the grant application, unless authorized by Agency rule or approved by the Agency in writing. The procedures shall require each applicant to do the following:

(1) identify and substantiate prior or current threats, attacks, or acts of terrorism against the not-for-profit organization;

(2) indicate the symbolic or strategic value of one or more sites that renders the site a possible target of a threat, attack, or act of terrorism;

(3) discuss potential consequences to the organization if the site is damaged, destroyed, or disrupted by a threat, attack, or act of terrorism;

(4) describe how the grant will be used to integrate organizational preparedness with broader State and local preparedness efforts, as described by the Agency in each Notice of Opportunity for Funding;

(5) submit (i) a vulnerability assessment conducted by experienced security, law enforcement, or military personnel, or conducted using an Agency-approved or federal Nonprofit Security Grant Program self-assessment tool, and (ii) a description of how the grant award will be used to address the vulnerabilities identified in the assessment; and

(6) submit any other relevant information as may be required by the Director.

The Agency is authorized to use funds appropriated for the grant program described in this subsection (g-5) to administer the program. Any Agency Notice of Opportunity for Funding, proposed or final rulemaking, guidance, training opportunity, or other resource related to the grant program must be published on the Agency's publicly available website, and any announcements related to funding shall be shared with all State legislative offices, the Governor's office, emergency services and disaster agencies mandated or required pursuant to subsections (b) through (d) of Section 10, and any other State agencies as determined by the Agency. Subject to appropriation, the grant application period shall be open for no less than 45 calendar days during the first application cycle each fiscal year, unless the Agency determines that a shorter period is necessary to avoid conflicts with the annual federal Nonprofit Security Grant Program funding cycle. Additional application cycles may be conducted during the same fiscal year, subject to availability of funds. Upon request, Agency staff shall provide reasonable assistance to any applicant in completing a grant application or meeting a post-award requirement.

In addition to any advance payment rules or procedures adopted by the Agency, the Agency shall adopt rules or procedures by which grantees under this subsection (g-5) may receive a working capital advance of initial start-up costs and up to 2 months of program expenses, not to exceed 25% of the total award amount, if, during the application process, the grantee demonstrates a need for funds to commence a project. The remaining funds must be paid through reimbursement after the grantee presents sufficient supporting documentation of expenditures for eligible activities.

(h) Except as provided in Section 17.5 of this Act, any moneys received by the Agency from donations or sponsorships unrelated to a disaster shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, to effectuate planning and training activities. Any moneys received by the Agency from donations during a disaster and intended for disaster response or recovery shall be deposited into the Disaster Response and Recovery Fund and used for disaster response and recovery pursuant to the Disaster Relief Act.

(i) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency may by rule assess and collect reasonable fees for attendance at Agency-sponsored conferences to enable the Agency to carry out the requirements of this Act. Any moneys received under this subsection shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, for planning and training activities.

(j) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to other State agencies, public universities, units of local government, and statewide mutual aid organizations to enhance statewide emergency preparedness and response.

(k) Subject to appropriation from the Emergency Planning and Training Fund, the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security shall obtain training services and support for local emergency services and support for local emergency services and disaster agencies for training, exercises, and equipment related to carbon dioxide pipelines and sequestration, and, subject to the availability of funding, shall provide $5,000 per year to the Illinois Fire Service Institute for first responder training required under Section 4-615 of the Public Utilities Act. Amounts in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund will be used by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security for administrative costs incurred in carrying out the requirements of this subsection. To carry out the purposes of this subsection, the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security may accept moneys from all authorized sources into the Emergency Planning and Training Fund, including, but not limited to, transfers from the Carbon Dioxide Sequestration Administrative Fund and the Public Utility Fund.

(l) (k) The Agency shall do all other things necessary, incidental, or appropriate for the implementation of this Act, including the adoption of rules in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 103-418, eff. 1-1-24; 103-588, eff. 1-1-25; 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; 103-999, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 185. The Historic Preservation Act is amended by changing Sections 4.7, 16, and 21 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3405/4.7)

Sec. 4.7. State Historic Preservation Board.

(a) The State Historic Preservation Board is hereby created within the Department.

(b) The Board shall consist of 9 voting members appointed by the Governor and the Director of the Department, or the Director's designee, who shall serve as an ex officio ex-officio nonvoting member of the Board. Of the members appointed by the Governor:

(1) 2 members shall have a relevant background in public history or a background in teaching or researching either the history of Illinois or the history of historically marginalized communities;

(2) one member shall have experience in library studies or archival work in Illinois;

(3) 3 members shall be representatives of a community-based organization working on historic preservation in Illinois;

(4) one member shall have experience with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990;

(5) one member shall have experience working on federal historic designations; and

(6) one member shall be a museum professional.

The chairperson of the Board shall be named by the Governor from among the voting members of the Board. Each member of the Board shall serve a 3-year term and until a successor is appointed by the Governor. The Governor may remove a Board member for incompetence, dereliction of duty, or malfeasance. Of those members appointed by the Governor, at least 5 of the members shall represent historically excluded and marginalized people. The Governor's Office, with the assistance of the Department, shall be responsible for ensuring that 5 of the appointed members of the Board consist of people who represent historically excluded and marginalized people. Knowledge in the following areas shall be prioritized in making appointments to the Board: the culture, traditions, and history of American Indians and Native Americans, Black Americans, Latinos, Latinas, and Hispanic Americans, Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders, the LGBTQIA+ community, immigrants and refugees, people with disabilities, and veterans' organizations; women's history; the history of Illinois' agriculture, architecture, armed forces, arts, civics, cultural geography, ecology, education, faith-based communities, folklore, government, industry, labor, law, medicine, and transportation; anthropology; archaeology; cultural exhibits and museums; heritage tourism; historic preservation; and social justice.

(c) Board meetings shall be called at regular intervals set by the Board, on the request of the Department, or upon written notice signed by at least 5 members of the Board, but in no event less than once quarterly.

(d) A majority of the members of the Board constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at a meeting of the Board. If a quorum is met, a majority of the members present and serving is required for official action of the Board.

(e) All business that the Board is authorized to perform shall be conducted at a public meeting of the Board, held in compliance with the Open Meetings Act.

(f) Public records of the Board are subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(g) The members of the Board shall serve without compensation but shall be entitled to reimbursement for all necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties as members of the Board from funds appropriated for that purpose. Reimbursement for travel, meals, and lodging shall be in accordance with the rules of the Governor's Travel Control Board.

(h) The Board has the following powers and duties:

(1) The Board shall adopt rules in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, for the administration and execution of the powers granted under this Act. All rules that are authorized to be adopted under this Act shall be adopted after consultation with and written approval by the Department.

(2) The Board shall list, delist, create specific list designations, create designation definitions, create property assessment criteria, or change the listing designation of State Historic Sites. Such actions shall be undertaken by administrative rule. The listing, delisting, creation of specific list designations or designation definitions, or change of listing designation by the Board shall only be done with the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources. When listing, delisting, or making a change of listing designation, the Board shall consider, but is not limited to, the following:

(A) the budgetary impact on the full historic sites portfolio when taking such action;

(B) if the action includes the stories of historically excluded and marginalized people;

(C) the geographic balance of the portfolio;

(D) disability access;

(E) opportunities to coordinate with federal historic designations or federal funding opportunities; and

(F) any other criteria that have been set out in administrative rule.

(3) The Board shall advise the Department on methods of assistance, protection, conservation, and management of State Historic Sites, which are all subject to Department approval and available appropriations to implement those recommendations.

(i) The Department shall provide administrative support to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 103-768, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-24-24.)

(20 ILCS 3405/16) (from Ch. 127, par. 2716)

Sec. 16. The Department shall have the following additional powers:

(a) To hire agents and employees necessary to carry out the duties and purposes of this Act.

(b) To take all measures necessary to erect, maintain, preserve, restore, and conserve all State Historic Sites, except when supervision and maintenance is otherwise provided by law. This authorization includes the power to enter into contracts, acquire and dispose of real and personal property, and enter into leases of real and personal property. The Department has the power to acquire, for purposes authorized by law, any real property in fee simple subject to a life estate in the seller in not more than 3 acres of the real property acquired, subject to the restrictions that the life estate shall be used for residential purposes only and that it shall be non-transferable.

(c) To provide recreational facilities, including campsites, lodges and cabins, trails, picnic areas, and related recreational facilities, at all sites under the jurisdiction of the Department.

(d) To lay out, construct, and maintain all needful roads, parking areas, paths or trails, bridges, camp or lodge sites, picnic areas, lodges and cabins, and any other structures and improvements necessary and appropriate in any State historic site or easement thereto; and to provide water supplies, heat and light, and sanitary facilities for the public and living quarters for the custodians and keepers of State historic sites.

(e) To grant licenses and rights-of-way within the areas controlled by the Department for the construction, operation, and maintenance upon, under or across the property, of facilities for water, sewage, telephone, telegraph, electric, gas, or other public service, subject to the terms and conditions as may be determined by the Department.

(f) To authorize the officers, employees, and agents of the Department, for the purposes of investigation and to exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested and that may be vested in it, to enter and cross all lands and waters in this State, doing no damage to private property.

(g) To transfer jurisdiction of or exchange any realty under the control of the Department to any other Department of the State Government, or to any agency of the Federal Government, or to acquire or accept Federal lands, when any transfer, exchange, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(h) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments and memorials erected by the State, except when the supervision and maintenance of public monuments and memorials is otherwise provided by law.

(i) To accept, hold, maintain, and administer, as trustee, property given in trust for educational or historic purposes for the benefit of the People of the State of Illinois and to dispose of any property under the terms of the instrument creating the trust.

(j) To lease concessions on any property under the jurisdiction of the Department for a period not exceeding 25 years and to lease a concession complex at Lincoln's New Salem State Historic Site for which a cash incentive has been authorized under Section 5.1 of this Act for a period not to exceed 40 years. All leases, for whatever period, shall be made subject to the written approval of the Governor. All concession leases extending for a period in excess of 10 years, will contain provisions for the Department to participate, on a percentage basis, in the revenues generated by any concession operation.

The Department is authorized to allow for provisions for a reserve account and a leasehold account within Department concession lease agreements for the purpose of setting aside revenues for the maintenance, rehabilitation, repair, improvement, and replacement of the concession facility, structure, and equipment of the Department that are part of the leased premises.

The lessee shall be required to pay into the reserve account a percentage of gross receipts, as set forth in the lease, to be set aside and expended in a manner acceptable to the Department by the concession lessee for the purpose of ensuring that an appropriate amount of the lessee's moneys are provided by the lessee to satisfy the lessee's incurred responsibilities for the operation of the concession facility under the terms and conditions of the concession lease.

The lessee account shall allow for the amortization of certain authorized expenses that are incurred by the concession lessee but that are not an obligation of the lessee under the terms and conditions of the lease agreement. The Department may allow a reduction of up to 50% of the monthly rent due for the purpose of enabling the recoupment of the lessee's authorized expenditures during the term of the lease.

(k) To sell surplus agricultural products grown on land owned by or under the jurisdiction of the Department, when the products cannot be used by the Department.

(l) To enforce the laws of the State and the rules and regulations of the Department in or on any lands owned, leased, or managed by the Department.

(m) To cooperate with private organizations and agencies of the State of Illinois by providing areas and the use of staff personnel where feasible for the sale of publications on the historic and cultural heritage of the State and craft items made by Illinois craftsmen. These sales shall not conflict with existing concession agreements. The Department is authorized to negotiate with the organizations and agencies for a portion of the monies received from sales to be returned to the Illinois Historic Sites Fund for the furtherance of interpretive and restoration programs.

(n) To establish local bank or savings and loan association accounts, upon the written authorization of the Director, to temporarily hold income received at any of its properties. The local accounts established under this Section shall be in the name of the Department and shall be subject to regular audits. The balance in a local bank or savings and loan association account shall be forwarded to the Department for deposit with the State Treasurer on Monday of each week if the amount to be deposited in a fund exceeds $500.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds as permitted by this Section, unless it has complied with the requirements established under Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(o) To accept offers of gifts, gratuities, or grants from the federal government, its agencies, or offices, or from any person, firm, or corporation.

(p) To make reasonable rules and regulations as may be necessary to discharge the duties of the Department.

(q) With appropriate cultural organizations, to further and advance the goals of the Department.

(r) To make grants for the purposes of planning, survey, rehabilitation, restoration, reconstruction, landscaping, and acquisition of Illinois properties (i) designated individually in the National Register of Historic Places, (ii) designated as a landmark under a county or municipal landmark ordinance, or (iii) located within a National Register of Historic Places historic district or a locally designated historic district when the Director determines that the property is of historic significance whenever an appropriation is made therefor by the General Assembly or whenever gifts or grants are received for that purpose and to promulgate regulations as may be necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of the grants.

Grantees may, as prescribed by rule, be required to provide matching funds for each grant. Grants made under this subsection shall be known as Illinois Heritage Grants.

Every owner of a historic property, or the owner's agent, is eligible to apply for a grant under this subsection.

(s) To establish and implement a pilot program for charging admission to State historic sites. Fees may be charged for special events, admissions, and parking or any combination; fees may be charged at all sites or selected sites. All fees shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund. The Department shall have the discretion to set and adjust reasonable fees at the various sites, taking into consideration various factors, including, but not limited to: cost of services furnished to each visitor, impact of fees on attendance and tourism, and the costs expended collecting the fees. The Department shall keep careful records of the income and expenses resulting from the imposition of fees, shall keep records as to the attendance at each historic site, and shall report to the Governor and General Assembly by January 31 after the close of each year. The report shall include information on costs, expenses, attendance, comments by visitors, and any other information the Department may believe pertinent, including:

(1) Recommendations as to whether fees should be continued at each State historic site.

(2) How the fees should be structured and imposed.

(3) Estimates of revenues and expenses associated with each site.

(t) To provide for overnight tent and trailer campsites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Department shall charge rates similar to those charged by the Department for the same or similar facilities and services.

(u) To engage in marketing activities designed to promote the sites and programs administered by the Department. In undertaking these activities, the Department may take all necessary steps with respect to products and services, including, but not limited to, retail sales, wholesale sales, direct marketing, mail order sales, telephone sales, advertising and promotion, purchase of product and materials inventory, design, printing and manufacturing of new products, reproductions, and adaptations, copyright and trademark licensing and royalty agreements, and payment of applicable taxes. In addition, the Department shall have the authority to sell advertising in its publications and printed materials. All income from marketing activities shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund.

(v) To review and approve in writing rules adopted by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 102-1005, eff. 5-27-22; 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; 103-768, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-7-24.)

(20 ILCS 3405/21)

Sec. 21. Annual report. Beginning in 2025, the Department shall submit an annual report, on or before June 30, to the General Assembly containing a full list of the State Historic Sites and the sites' sites designations, as recommended by the Board and approved by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-768, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 190. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3805/16) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 316)

Sec. 16. The notes and bonds issued under this Act shall be authorized by resolution of the members of the Authority, shall bear such date or dates, and shall mature at such time or times, in the case of any note, or any renewal thereof, not exceeding 15 years (or such longer time not exceeding 25 years if the Authority shall determine, with respect to notes issued in anticipation of bonds, that a longer maturity date is required in order to assure the ability to issue the bonds), from the date of issue of such original note, and in the case of any bond not exceeding 50 years from the date of issue, as the resolution may provide. The bonds may be issued as serial bonds or as term bonds or as a combination thereof. The notes and bonds shall bear interest at such rate or rates as shall be determined by the members of the Authority by the resolution authorizing issuance of the bonds and notes provided, however, that notes and bonds issued after July 1, 1983, shall bear interest at such rate or rates not exceeding the greater of (i) the maximum rate established in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as from time to time in effect; (ii) 11% per annum; or (iii) 70% of the prime commercial rate in effect at the time the contract is made. In the event the Authority issues notes or bonds not exempt from income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, such notes or bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates as shall be determined by the members of the Authority by the resolution authorizing issuance of the bonds and notes. Prime commercial rate means such prime rate as from time to time is publicly announced by the largest commercial banking institution located in this State, measured in terms of total assets. A contract is made with respect to notes or bonds when the Authority is contractually obligated to issue and sell such notes or bonds to a purchaser who is contractually obligated to purchase them. The notes and bonds shall be in such denominations, be in such form, either coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places and be subject to such terms of redemption as such resolution or resolutions may provide. The notes and bonds of the Authority may be sold by the Authority, at public or private sale, at such price or prices as the Authority shall determine.

In lieu of establishing the rate at which notes or bonds of the Authority shall bear interest and the price at which the notes or bonds shall be sold, the resolution authorizing their issuance may set maximum and minimum prices, interest rates, and annual interest cost to the Authority for that issue of notes or bonds (computed as the resolution shall provide), such that the difference between the maximum and minimum annual interest cost shall not exceed 1% of the principal amount of the notes or bonds. Such a resolution shall authorize any 2 two of the Chairman, Treasurer, or Director (or in the Director's absence, the Deputy Director) to establish the actual price and interest rate within the range established by the resolution. In lieu of establishing the dates, maturities, or other terms of the notes or bonds, the resolution authorizing their issuance may authorize any 2 two of the Chairman, Treasurer, or Director (or in the Director's absence, the Deputy Director) to establish such dates, maturities, and other terms within ranges or criteria established by the resolution.

In connection with the issuance of its notes and bonds, the Authority may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for the notes and bonds. These may include, without limitation, letters of credit, lines of credit by which the Authority may borrow funds to pay or redeem its notes or bonds, and purchase or remarketing arrangements for assuring the ability of owners of the Authority's notes and bonds to sell or to have redeemed their notes and bonds. The Authority may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, but only under circumstances in which the total interest paid or to be paid on the notes or bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the notes or bonds to bear interest, calculated to their absolute maturity, at a rate in excess of the maximum rate allowed by this Act.

The resolution of the Authority authorizing the issuance of its notes or bonds may provide that interest rates may vary from time to time depending upon criteria established by the Authority, which may include, without limitation, a variation in interest rates as may be necessary to cause notes or bonds to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount (or compound accredited value in case of original issue discount bonds), and may provide for appointment of a national banking association, bank, trust company, investment bank, or other financial institution to serve as a remarketing agent in that connection. The resolution of the Authority authorizing the issuance of its notes or bonds may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions will apply during such times as the notes or bonds are held by a person providing a letter of credit or other credit enhancement arrangement for those notes or bonds. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, there shall be no statutory limitation on the interest rates which such variable rate notes and bonds may bear from time to time.

In addition to the other authorizations contained in this Section, the Authority may adopt a resolution or resolutions granting to any 2 two of the Chairman, Treasurer, or Director (or in the Director's absence, the Deputy Director) the power to authorize issuance of notes or bonds, or both, on behalf of the Authority from time to time without further resolution of the Authority. Any such resolution shall contain a statement of the maximum aggregate amount of notes or bonds that may be outstanding at any one time pursuant to the authorization granted in such resolution. Such resolution shall also contain a statement of the period of time during which such notes or bonds of the Authority may be so issued. Such resolution shall also delegate specifically or generally to the persons empowered to authorize issuance of the notes or bonds the authority to establish or approve any or all matters relating to the issuance and sale of the notes or bonds, which may include the interest rates, if any, which the notes or bonds shall bear and the prices (including premiums or discounts, if any) at which they shall be issued and sold, or the criteria upon which such interest rates and prices may vary, the appointment of remarketing agents, the approval of alternative interest rates, whether there shall be any statutory or other limitation on the interest rates which such notes or bonds may bear (treating as if interest the fees for any arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for the notes and bonds), and the dates, maturities, and other terms and conditions on which the notes or bonds shall be issued and sold. Any or all of such matters may vary from issue to issue and within an issue. Any such resolution may set forth the criteria by which any or all of the matters entrusted to the persons designated in such resolution are to be established or approved, and may grant the power to authorize issuance of notes or bonds which are exempt from income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, or which are not exempt.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and in addition to any other authority provided by law, with respect to mortgage or other loans made by it, the Authority may require payments of principal, make interest charges, and impose prepayment premiums or penalties (in addition to any fees or charges made by the Authority) so that such principal, interest and premiums or penalties are sufficient to enable the Authority to pay when due all principal, interest, and redemption premiums or penalties on any notes or bonds issued by the Authority to finance or continue the financing of such loans (including a proportionate share of such bonds or notes issued to fund reserves or to cover any discount) and to make any required deposits in any reserve funds; and any contract relating to any mortgage or other loan made by the Authority may provide for changes during its term in the rate at which interest shall be paid, to the extent the changes are provided for in order to enable the Authority to make payments with respect to bonds or notes as provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 85-1450; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 195. The Increasing Representation of Women in Technology Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4131/5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2030)

Sec. 5. Increasing Representation of Women in Technology Task Force; membership.

(a) The Increasing Representation of Women in Technology Task Force is hereby established within the Illinois Workforce Innovation Board.

(b) The Task Force shall consist of the following members:

(1) one member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(2) one member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(3) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(4) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(5) the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, or the Director's designee;

(6) one member representing a statewide labor organization, appointed by the Governor;

(7) one member representing a national laboratory that is a multi-disciplinary science and engineering research center, appointed by the Governor;

(8) the Chief Equity Officer of the State of Illinois Office of Equity or the Chief Equity Officer's designee;

(9) one member representing local or State economic development interests, appointed by the Governor;

(10) one member representing women in technology, appointed by the Governor;

(11) one member representing a technology manufacturing corporation, appointed by the Governor;

(12) 4 members representing companies that have been recognized for the recruitment, advancement, and retention of women in technology positions and the corresponding management chain in the last 3 years, appointed by the Governor;

(13) one member from a community-based organization that supports women in technology, appointed by the Governor;

(14) the Vice Chancellor of Diversity, Equity & Inclusion of the University of Illinois Office of the Vice Chancellor of Diversity, Equity & Inclusion, or the Vice Chancellor's designee;

(15) the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board, or the Executive Director's designee;

(16) one member with knowledge of diversity, equity, and inclusion best practices from an advocacy group representing women in technology, appointed by the Governor; and

(17) a chairperson of the Illinois Workforce Innovation Board, appointed by the Illinois Workforce Innovation Board, or that chairperson's designee.

(c) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(d) The Task Force shall meet at least quarterly to fulfill its duties under this Act. At the first meeting of the Task Force, the Task Force shall elect 2 co-chairs cochairs; one chair shall be a standing member of the Illinois Workforce Innovation Board, and one chair shall be selected from among members of the Task Force.

(e) The Illinois Workforce Innovation Board shall, in consultation with an Illinois public college or university, provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(Source: P.A. 103-912, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 200. The Water Plan Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4132/10)

Sec. 10. State Water Plan Task Force.

(a) There shall be established within State government and universities an interagency task force which shall be known as the State Water Plan Task Force. The Task Force shall be chaired by the Director of the Office of Water Resources of the Department of Natural Resources and composed of the directors, or their designee, from the following State entities:

(1) The Office of Resource Conservation of the Department of Natural Resources.

(2) The Department of Public Health.

(3) The Environmental Protection Agency.

(4) The Department of Transportation.

(5) The Department of Agriculture.

(6) The Department of Transportation.

(7) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security.

(8) The Pollution Control Board

(9) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(10) The State Water Survey of the University of Illinois.

(11) The Water Resource Center of the University of Illinois.

(b) The Task Force shall coordinate with State agencies and universities to develop a concise plan for addressing water issues facing the State.

(c) The Task Force shall:

(1) identify critical water issues;

(2) develop recommendations to address critical water topic issues;

(3) implement recommendations; and

(4) reevaluate critical water issues and needs.

(d) The Task Force shall publish a State Water Plan not less than every 10 years. The Plan shall include:

(1) Identification of critical water topics needing specific attention in this State based on stakeholder input sought and provided during the plan development.

(2) A Topic Lead as an individual from the Task Force membership responsible for ensuring the development of the Topic Lead's assigned critical topic section of the Plan.

(3) (Blank). Plan development shall include public outreach phases to obtain feedback on the most critical water issues faced by the State and how to address those issues.

(4) Recommendations related to the identified issues for each critical topic, including, but not limited to:

(A) New State programs or modification to existing programs.

(B) New or modified existing policy within a program or agency.

(C) New or modified legislation.

(D) Requests for a study or research to be completed.

(E) Proposals or designs of a construction project.

(F) Funding requests for the above listed recommendations.

Plan development shall include public outreach phases to obtain feedback on the most critical water issues faced by the State and how to address those issues.

(5) No more than 2 years shall be used to develop a new Plan.

(6) The Task Force shall develop and maintain a publicly available website or portal that summarizes projects of the Task Force.

(e) The Task Force shall be responsible for developing membership voting and operational rules.

(f) The Task Force shall meet not less than once per quarter each calendar year to:

(1) Update the status of the Plan recommendations by providing an a implementation summary that will be published to the official Task Force website or portal.

(2) Review, evaluate, and publish an annual report showing the implementation status for each of the Plan's recommendations.

(g) The Task Force shall have the authority to:

(1) Create and use subtask forces or committees to identify identifying critical issues and implement implementing recommendations related to the Plan.

(2) Publish special reports specific to critical topics to add clarification and provide additional details of action needed.

(3) Review and evaluate State laws, rules, regulations, and procedures that relate to water needs in the state.

(4) Recommend procedures for better coordination among State water-related programs, with local programs and stakeholder groups.

(5) Recommend and prioritize the State's water-related water related research needs.

(6) Review, coordinate, and evaluate water data collection, analysis, and public sharing.

(7) Allow member entities to request annual appropriations to resource necessary staff participation on the Task Force and resource Plan development.

(Source: P.A. 103-917, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 205. The Family Recovery Plans Implementation Task Force Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4133/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 15. Composition. The Family Recovery Plan Implementation Task Force is created within the Department of Human Services and shall consist of members appointed as follows:

(1) The President of the Senate, or his or her designee, shall appoint: one member of the Senate; one member representing a statewide organization that advocates on behalf of community-based services for children and families; and one member from a statewide organization representing a majority of hospitals.

(2) The Senate Minority Leader, or his or her designee, shall appoint: one member of the Senate; one member from an organization conducting quality improvement initiatives to improve perinatal health; and one member with relevant lived experience, as recommended by a reproductive justice advocacy organization with expertise in perinatal and infant health and birth equity.

(3) The Speaker of the House of Representatives, or his or her designee, shall appoint: one member of the House of Representatives; one member who is a licensed obstetrician-gynecologist, as recommended by a statewide organization representing obstetricians and gynecologists; and one member with relevant lived experience, as recommended by a reproductive justice advocacy organization with expertise in perinatal and infant health and birth equity.

(4) The House Minority Leader, or his or her designee, shall appoint: one member of the House of Representatives; one member who is a licensed physician specializing in child abuse and neglect, as recommended by a statewide organization representing pediatricians; and one member who is a licensed physician specializing in perinatal substance use disorder treatment, as recommended by a statewide organization representing physicians.

(5) The Director of Children and Family Services, or the Director's designee.

(6) The exclusive collective bargaining representative of the majority of front-line employees at the Department of Children and Family Services, or the representative's designee.

(7) The Secretary of Human Services, or the Secretary's designee.

(8) The Director of Public Health, or the Director's designee.

(9) The Cook County Public Guardian, or the Cook County Public Guardian's designee.

(Source: P.A. 103-941, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(20 ILCS 4133/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 35. Repeal. The Task Force is dissolved, and this Act is repealed, on, January 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 103-941, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 210. The Opportunities for At-Risk Women Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5075/10)

Sec. 10. Duties of the Task Force.

(a) The Task Force shall strategize and design a plan for the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to partner and outsource with State and local governmental agencies, companies, and organizations that aid in helping at-risk women and their families become successful productive citizens.

(b) This partnership will include material distribution of available resources offered in their communities as well as referrals to organizations and companies that provide necessary services to aid aide in their success. The following are targeted areas of assistance and outsourcing: housing assistance; educational information on enhancement and advancement; parenting and family bonding classes; financial education and literacy, including budgeting; quality afterschool programming, including tutoring; self-esteem and empowerment classes; healthy relationships classes for the entire family, including warning signs and appropriate handling of bullying; integrity classes; social etiquette classes; job preparedness workshops; temperament behavior classes, including anger management; addiction and recovery clinics, including referrals; health education classes; job training opportunities; and the expansion of Redeploy Illinois into Cook County.

(c) For the purposes of this Act, "at-risk women" means women who are at increased risk of incarceration because of poverty, abuse, addiction, financial challenges, illiteracy, or other causes. The term "at-risk women" may include, but shall not be limited to, women who have previously been incarcerated.

(Source: P.A. 99-416, eff. 1-1-16; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 215. The Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 4-2.1 as follows:

(25 ILCS 130/4-2.1)

Sec. 4-2.1. Federal program functions. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability is established as the information center for the General Assembly in the field of federal-state relations and as State Central Information Reception Agency for the purpose of receiving information from federal agencies under the United States Office of Management and Budget circular A-98 and the United States Department of the Treasury Circular TC-1082 or any successor circulars promulgated under authority of the United States Intergovernmental Inter-governmental Cooperation Act of 1968. Its powers and duties in this capacity include, but are not limited to:

(a) Compiling and maintaining current information on available and pending federal aid programs for the use of the General Assembly and legislative agencies;

(b) Analyzing the relationship of federal aid programs with state and locally financed programs, and assessing the impact of federal aid programs on the State generally;

(c) Reporting annually to the General Assembly on the adequacy of programs financed by federal aid in the State, the types and nature of federal aid programs in which State agencies or local governments did not participate, and to make recommendations on such matters;

(d) Cooperating with the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and with any State of Illinois offices located in Washington, D.C., in obtaining information concerning federal grant-in-aid legislation and proposals having an impact on the State of Illinois;

(e) (Blank);

(f) Receiving from every State agency, other than State colleges and universities, agencies of legislative and judicial branches of State government, and elected State executive officers not including the Governor, all applications for federal grants, contracts and agreements and notification of any awards of federal funds and any and all changes in the programs, in awards, in program duration, in schedule of fund receipts, and in estimated costs to the State of maintaining the program if and when federal assistance is terminated, or in direct and indirect costs, of any grant under which they are or expect to be receiving federal funds;

(g) (Blank); and

(h) Reporting such information as is received under subparagraph (f) to the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives and their respective appropriation staffs and to any member of the General Assembly on a monthly basis at the request of the member.

The State colleges and universities, the agencies of the legislative and judicial branches of State government, and the elected State executive officers, not including the Governor, shall submit to the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, in a manner prescribed by the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, summaries of applications for federal funds filed and grants of federal funds awarded.

(Source: P.A. 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 220. The Legislative Reference Bureau Act is amended by changing Section 5.04 as follows:

(25 ILCS 135/5.04) (from Ch. 63, par. 29.4)

Sec. 5.04. Codification and revision of statutes.

(a) As soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1992, the Legislative Reference Bureau shall file with the Index Division of the Office of the Secretary of State, the General Assembly, the Governor, and the Supreme Court a compilation of the general Acts of Illinois. At that time and at any other time the Legislative Reference Bureau may file with the Index Division of the Office of the Secretary of State cross-reference tables comparing the compilation and the Illinois Revised Statutes. The Legislative Reference Bureau shall provide copies of the documents that are filed to each individual or entity that delivers a written request for copies to the Legislative Reference Bureau; the Legislative Reference Bureau, by resolution, may establish and charge a reasonable fee for providing copies. The compilation shall take effect on January 1, 1993. The compilation shall be cited as the "Illinois Compiled Statutes" or as "ILCS". The Illinois Compiled Statutes, including the statutes themselves and the organizational and numbering scheme, shall be an official compilation of the general Acts of Illinois and shall be entirely in the public domain for purposes of federal copyright law.

(b) The compilation document that is filed under subsection (a) shall divide the general Acts into major topic areas and into chapters within those areas; the document shall list the general Acts by title or short title, but need not contain the text of the statutes or specify individual Sections of Acts. Chapters shall be numbered. Each Act shall be assigned to a chapter and shall be ordered within that chapter. An Act prefix number shall be designated for each Act within each chapter. Chapters may be divided into subheadings. Citation to a section of ILCS shall be in the form "X ILCS Y/Z(A)", where X is the chapter number, Y is the Act prefix number, Z is the Section number of the Act, Y/Z is the section number in the chapter of ILCS, and A is the year of publication, if applicable.

(c) The Legislative Reference Bureau shall make additions, deletions, and changes to the organizational or numbering scheme of the Illinois Compiled Statutes by filing appropriate documents with the Index Department Division of the Office of the Secretary of State. The Legislative Reference Bureau shall also provide copies of the documents that are filed to each individual or entity that delivers a written request for copies to the Legislative Reference Bureau; the Legislative Reference Bureau, by resolution, may establish and charge a reasonable fee for providing copies. The additions, deletions, and changes to the organizational or numbering scheme of the Illinois Compiled Statutes shall take effect 30 days after filing with the Index Department Division.

(d) Omission of an effective Act or Section of an Act from ILCS does not alter the effectiveness of that Act or Section. Inclusion of a repealed Act or Section of an Act in ILCS does not affect the repeal of that Act or Section.

(e) In order to allow for an efficient transition to the organizational and numbering scheme of the Illinois Compiled Statutes, the State, units of local government, school districts, and other governmental entities may, for a reasonable period of time, continue to use forms, computer software, systems, and data, published rules, and any other electronically stored information and printed documents that contain references to the Illinois Revised Statutes. However, reports of criminal, traffic, and other offenses and violations that are part of a state-wide reporting system shall continue to be made by reference to the Illinois Revised Statutes until July 1, 1994, and on and after that date shall be made by reference to the Illinois Compiled Statutes, except that an earlier conversion date may be established by agreement among all of the following: the Supreme Court, the Secretary of State, the Director of State Police, the Circuit Clerk of Cook County, and the Circuit Clerk of DuPage County, or the designee of each. References to the Illinois Revised Statutes are deemed to be references to the corresponding provisions of the Illinois Compiled Statutes.

(f) The Legislative Reference Bureau, with the assistance of the Legislative Information System, shall make its electronically stored database of the statutes and the compilation available in an electronically stored medium to those who request it; the Legislative Reference Bureau, by resolution, shall establish and charge a reasonable fee for providing the information.

(g) Amounts received under this Section shall be deposited into the General Assembly Computer Equipment Revolving Fund.

(h) The Legislative Reference Bureau shall select subjects and chapters of the statutory law that it considers most in need of a revision and present to the next regular session of the General Assembly bills covering those revisions. In connection with those revisions, the Legislative Reference Bureau has full authority and responsibility to recommend the revision, simplification, and rearrangement of existing statutory law and the elimination from that law of obsolete, superseded, duplicated, and unconstitutional statutes or parts of statutes, but shall make no other changes in the substance of existing statutes, except to the extent those changes in substance are necessary for coherent revision, simplification, rearrangement, or elimination. Revisions reported to the General Assembly may be accompanied by explanatory statements of changes in existing statutes or parts of statutes that those revisions, if enacted, would effect.

(Source: P.A. 86-523; 87-1005; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 225. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.1015, 5.1016, 5.1017, and 6z-140 and by changing Sections 6z-82, 8.3, and 8g-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.1015)

Sec. 5.1015. The Professions Licensure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1016)

Sec. 5.1016. The Restore Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1017)

Sec. 5.1017. The Health Equity and Access Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1018)

Sec. 5.1018 5.1015. The Medical Debt Relief Pilot Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-647, eff. 7-1-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1019)

Sec. 5.1019 5.1015. The Carbon Dioxide Sequestration Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1020)

Sec. 5.1020 5.1015. The International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-665, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1021)

Sec. 5.1021 5.1015. The Local Food Infrastructure Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-772, eff. 8-2-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1022)

Sec. 5.1022 5.1015. The Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-911, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1023)

Sec. 5.1023 5.1015. The Healthy Forests, Wetlands, and Prairies Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-923, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1024)

Sec. 5.1024 5.1015. The Sons of the American Legion Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-933, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1025)

Sec. 5.1025 5.1015. The Real Estate Recovery Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-1039, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1026)

Sec. 5.1026 5.1016. The Environmental Justice Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.1027)

Sec. 5.1027 5.1017. The Water Resources Fund.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 9-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-82)

Sec. 6z-82. State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(a-5) This Fund may charge, collect, and receive fees or moneys as described in Section 15-312 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and receive all fees received by the Illinois State Police under that Section. The moneys shall be used by the Illinois State Police for its expenses in providing police escorts and commercial vehicle enforcement activities.

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The State Police Operations Assistance Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank). June 9, 2023 (Public Act 103-34)

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; revised 7-23-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-140)

Sec. 6z-140. Professions Licensure Fund. The Professions Licensure Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Fund may receive revenue from any authorized source, including, but not limited to, gifts, grants, awards, transfers, and appropriations. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may use moneys in the Fund for costs directly associated with the procurement of electronic data processing software, licenses, or any other information technology system products and for the ongoing costs of electronic data processing software, licenses, or other information technology system products related to the granting, renewal, or administration of all licenses under the Department's jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-143)

Sec. 6z-143 6z-140. Medical Debt Relief Pilot Program Fund. The Medical Debt Relief Pilot Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Fund shall be appropriated to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and expended exclusively for the Medical Debt Relief Pilot Program to provide grant funding to a nonprofit medical debt relief coordinator to be used to discharge the medical debt of eligible residents as defined in the Medical Debt Relief Act. Based on a budget approved by the Department, the grant funding may also be used for any administrative services provided by the nonprofit medical debt relief coordinator to discharge the medical debt of eligible residents.

(Source: P.A. 103-647, eff. 7-1-24; revised 9-24-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.3)

Sec. 8.3. Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging annually the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then due and payable, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except the cost of administration of Articles I and II of Chapter 3 of that Code, and to pay the costs of the Executive Ethics Commission for oversight and administration of the Chief Procurement Officer appointed under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement Code for transportation; and

secondly -- for expenses of the Department of Transportation for construction, reconstruction, improvement, repair, maintenance, operation, and administration of highways in accordance with the provisions of laws relating thereto, or for any purpose related or incident to and connected therewith, including the separation of grades of those highways with railroads and with highways and including the payment of awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation; or for the acquisition of land and the erection of buildings for highway purposes, including the acquisition of highway right-of-way or for investigations to determine the reasonably anticipated future highway needs; or for making of surveys, plans, specifications and estimates for and in the construction and maintenance of flight strips and of highways necessary to provide access to military and naval reservations, to defense industries and defense-industry sites, and to the sources of raw materials and for replacing existing highways and highway connections shut off from general public use at military and naval reservations and defense-industry sites, or for the purchase of right-of-way, except that the State shall be reimbursed in full for any expense incurred in building the flight strips; or for the operating and maintaining of highway garages; or for patrolling and policing the public highways and conserving the peace; or for the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs; or, during fiscal year 2024, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $9,108,400 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2025, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $10,020,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or for any of those purposes or any other purpose that may be provided by law.

Appropriations for any of those purposes are payable from the Road Fund. Appropriations may also be made from the Road Fund for the administrative expenses of any State agency that are related to motor vehicles or arise from the use of motor vehicles.

Beginning with fiscal year 1980 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Department of Public Health;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to subsidies for one-half fare Student Transportation and Reduced Fare for Elderly, except fiscal year 2024 when no more than $19,063,500 may be expended and except fiscal year 2025 when no more than $20,969,900 may be expended;

3. Department of Central Management Services, except for expenditures incurred for group insurance premiums of appropriate personnel;

4. Judicial Systems and Agencies.

Beginning with fiscal year 1981 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except for expenditures with respect to the Division of Patrol and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to Intercity Rail Subsidies, except fiscal year 2024 when no more than $60,000,000 may be expended and except fiscal year 2025 when no more than $67,000,000 may be expended, and Rail Freight Services.

Beginning with fiscal year 1982 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement: Department of Central Management Services, except for awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except not more than 40% of the funds appropriated for the Division of Patrol and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. State Officers.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to any Department or agency of State government for administration, grants, or operations except as provided hereafter; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement. It shall not be lawful to circumvent the above appropriation limitations by governmental reorganization or other methods. Appropriations shall be made from the Road Fund only in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging during each fiscal year the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness as it becomes due and payable as provided in the General Obligation Bond Act, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and

secondly -- no Road Fund monies derived from fees, excises, or license taxes relating to registration, operation and use of vehicles on public highways or to fuels used for the propulsion of those vehicles, shall be appropriated or expended other than for costs of administering the laws imposing those fees, excises, and license taxes, statutory refunds and adjustments allowed thereunder, administrative costs of the Department of Transportation, including, but not limited to, the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs, payment of debts and liabilities incurred in construction and reconstruction of public highways and bridges, acquisition of rights-of-way for and the cost of construction, reconstruction, maintenance, repair, and operation of public highways and bridges under the direction and supervision of the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting those monies, or during fiscal year 2024 for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $9,108,400 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2025 for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $10,020,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, and the costs for patrolling and policing the public highways (by the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting that money) for enforcement of traffic laws. The separation of grades of such highways with railroads and costs associated with protection of at-grade highway and railroad crossing shall also be permissible.

Appropriations for any of such purposes are payable from the Road Fund or the Grade Crossing Protection Fund as provided in Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

Except as provided in this paragraph, beginning with fiscal year 1991 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of its total fiscal year 1990 Road Fund appropriations for those purposes unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act. For fiscal years 2003, 2004, 2005, 2006, and 2007 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $97,310,000. For fiscal year 2008 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $106,100,000. For fiscal year 2009 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $114,700,000. Beginning in fiscal year 2010, no Road Fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act.

In fiscal year 1994, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1991 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes, plus $9,800,000. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other method.

Beginning with fiscal year 1995 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1994 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

Beginning with fiscal year 2000, total Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section shall not exceed the amounts specified for the following fiscal years:

For fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State.

Beginning in fiscal year 2011, moneys in the Road Fund shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the exclusive purpose of paying refunds due to overpayment of fees related to Chapter 3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless otherwise provided for by law.

Beginning in fiscal year 2025, moneys in the Road Fund may be appropriated to the Environmental Protection Agency for the exclusive purpose of making deposits into the Electric Vehicle Rebate Fund, subject to appropriation, to be used for purposes consistent with Section 11 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution.

It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

No new program may be initiated in fiscal year 1991 and thereafter that is not consistent with the limitations imposed by this Section for fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, insofar as appropriation of Road Fund monies is concerned.

Nothing in this Section prohibits transfers from the Road Fund to the State Construction Account Fund under Section 5e of this Act; nor to the General Revenue Fund, as authorized by Public Act 93-25.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure in this Section by Public Acts 92-0600, 93-0025, 93-0839, and 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure by the Secretary of State and the Department of State Police in this Section by Public Act 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-5-24.)

(30 ILCS 105/8g-1)

Sec. 8g-1. Fund transfers.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(o) (Blank).

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) (Blank).

(s) (Blank).

(t) (Blank).

(u) (Blank).

(v) (Blank).

(w) (Blank).

(x) (Blank).

(y) (Blank).

(z) (Blank).

(aa) (Blank).

(bb) (Blank).

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) (Blank).

(ee) (Blank).

(ff) (Blank).

(gg) (Blank).

(hh) (Blank).

(ii) (Blank).

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) (Blank).

(ll) (Blank).

(mm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and until June 30, 2024, as directed by the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer up to a total of $1,500,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the State Coronavirus Urgent Remediation Emergency Fund.

(nn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and until June 30, 2024, as directed by the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer up to a total of $424,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Build Illinois Bond Fund.

(oo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2023, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Governor's Administrative Fund.

(pp) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2023, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Grant Accountability and Transparency Fund.

(qq) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, beginning on July 1, 2024 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-588) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and until June 30, 2024, as directed by the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer up to a total of $350,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future.

(rr) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2024, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Governor's Administrative Fund.

(ss) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2024, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Grant Accountability and Transparency Fund.

(tt) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2024, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $25,000,000 from the Violent Crime Witness Protection Program Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 40, Section 40-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 80, Section 80-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 230. The Local Government Debt Reform Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(30 ILCS 350/17) (from Ch. 17, par. 6917)

Sec. 17. Leases and installment contracts.

(a) Interest not debt; debt on leases and installment contracts. Interest on bonds shall not be included in any computation of indebtedness of a governmental unit for the purpose of any statutory provision or limitation. For bonds consisting of leases and installment or financing contracts: ,

(1) that portion of payments made by a governmental unit under the terms of a bond designated as interest in the bond or the ordinance authorizing such bond shall be treated as interest for purposes of this Section;

(2) where portions of payments due under the terms of a bond have not been designated as interest in the bond or the ordinance authorizing such bond, and all or a portion of such payments is to be used for the payment of principal of and interest on other bonds of the governmental unit or bonds issued by another unit of local government, such as a public building commission, the payments equal to interest due on such corresponding bonds shall be treated as interest for purposes of this Section; and

(3) where portions of payments due under the terms of a bond have not been designated as interest in the bond or ordinance authorizing such bond and no portion of any such payment is to be used for the payment of principal of and interest on other bonds of the governmental unit or another unit of local government, a portion of each payment due under the terms of such bond shall be treated as interest for purposes of this Section; such portion shall be equal in amount to the interest that would have been paid on a notional obligation of the governmental unit (bearing interest at the highest rate permitted by law for bonds of the governmental unit at the time the bond was issued or, if no such limit existed, 12%) on which the payments of principal and interest were due at the same times and in the same amounts as payments are due under the terms of the bonds.

The rule set forth in this Section shall be applicable to all interest no matter when earned or accrued or at what interval paid, and whether or not a bond bears interest which compounds at certain intervals. For purposes of bonds sold at amounts less than 95% of their stated value at maturity, interest for purposes of this Section includes the difference between the amount set forth on the face of the bond as the original principal amount and the bond's stated value at maturity.

This subsection may be made applicable to bonds issued prior to the effective date of this Act by passage of an ordinance to such effect by the governing body of a governmental unit.

(b) Purchase or lease of property. The governing body of each governmental unit may purchase or lease either real or personal property, including investments, investment agreements, or investment services, through agreements that provide that the consideration for the purchase or lease may be paid through installments made at stated intervals for a period of no more than 20 years or another period of time authorized by law, whichever is greater; provided, however, that investments, investment agreements, or investment services purchased in connection with a bond issue may be paid through installments made at stated intervals for a period of time not in excess of the maximum term of such bond issue. Each governmental unit may issue certificates evidencing the indebtedness incurred under the lease or agreement. The governing body may provide for the treasurer, comptroller, finance officer, or other officer of the governing body charged with financial administration to act as counter-party to any such lease or agreement, as nominee lessor or seller. When the lease or agreement is executed by the officer of the governmental unit authorized by the governing body to bind the governmental unit thereon by the execution thereof and is filed with and executed by the nominee lessor or seller, the lease or agreement shall be sufficiently executed so as to permit the governmental unit to issue certificates evidencing the indebtedness incurred under the lease or agreement. The certificates shall be valid whether or not an appropriation with respect thereto is included in any annual or supplemental budget adopted by the governmental unit. From time to time, as the governing body executes contracts for the purpose of acquiring and constructing the services or real or personal property that is a part of the subject of the lease or agreement, including financial, legal, architectural, and engineering services related to the lease or agreement, the contracts shall be filed with the nominee officer, and that officer shall identify the contracts to the lease or agreement; that identification shall permit the payment of the contract from the proceeds of the certificates; and the nominee officer shall duly apply or cause to be applied proceeds of the certificates to the payment of the contracts. The governing body of each governmental unit may sell, lease, convey, and reacquire either real or personal property, or any interest in real or personal property, upon any terms and conditions and in any manner, as the governing body shall determine, if the governmental unit will lease, acquire by purchase agreement, or otherwise reacquire the property, as authorized by this subsection or any other applicable law.

All indebtedness incurred under this subsection, when aggregated with the existing indebtedness of the governmental unit, may not exceed the debt limits provided by applicable law.

(Source: P.A. 103-591, eff. 7-1-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 235. The Build Illinois Bond Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(30 ILCS 425/6) (from Ch. 127, par. 2806)

Sec. 6. Conditions for issuance and sale of Bonds; requirements Bonds - requirements for Bonds; master Bonds - master and supplemental indentures; credit indentures - credit and liquidity enhancement.

(a) Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Bonds shall be payable only from the specific sources and secured in the manner provided in this Act. Bonds shall be in such form, in such denominations, mature on such dates within 25 years from their date of issuance, be subject to optional or mandatory redemption, bear interest payable at such times and at such rate or rates, fixed or variable, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in an order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided, however, that interest payable at fixed rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, and interest payable at variable rates shall not exceed the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Sale Order. Said Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal only or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds (i) except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 15 of this Act must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring within the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year, except that Bonds issued during fiscal year 2025 may be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in unequal amounts, and (ii) must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years, except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 15 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, or 2011 which must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 16 years.

All Bonds authorized under this Act shall be issued pursuant to a master trust indenture ("Master Indenture") executed and delivered on behalf of the State by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, such Master Indenture to be in substantially the form approved in the Bond Sale Order authorizing the issuance and sale of the initial series of Bonds issued under this Act. Such initial series of Bonds may, and each subsequent series of Bonds shall, also be issued pursuant to a supplemental trust indenture ("Supplemental Indenture") executed and delivered on behalf of the State by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, each such Supplemental Indenture to be in substantially the form approved in the Bond Sale Order relating to such series. The Master Indenture and any Supplemental Indenture shall be entered into with a bank or trust company in the State of Illinois having trust powers and possessing capital and surplus of not less than $100,000,000. Such indentures shall set forth the terms and conditions of the Bonds and provide for payment of and security for the Bonds, including the establishment and maintenance of debt service and reserve funds, and for other protections for holders of the Bonds. The term "reserve funds" as used in this Act shall include funds and accounts established under indentures to provide for the payment of principal of and premium and interest on Bonds, to provide for the purchase, retirement, or defeasance of Bonds, to provide for fees of trustees, registrars, paying agents, and other fiduciaries and to provide for payment of costs of and debt service payable in respect of credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements, interest rate swaps or guarantees, or financial futures contracts and indexing and remarketing agents' services.

In the case of any series of Bonds bearing interest at a variable interest rate ("Variable Rate Bonds"), in lieu of determining the rate or rates at which such series of Variable Rate Bonds shall bear interest and the price or prices at which such Variable Rate Bonds shall be initially sold or remarketed (in the event of purchase and subsequent resale), the Bond Sale Order may provide that such interest rates and prices may vary from time to time depending on criteria established in such Bond Sale Order, which criteria may include, without limitation, references to indices or variations in interest rates as may, in the judgment of a remarketing agent, be necessary to cause Bonds of such series to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount (or compound accreted value in the case of original issue discount Bonds), and may provide for appointment of indexing agents and a bank, trust company, investment bank, or other financial institution to serve as remarketing agent in that connection. The Bond Sale Order may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions for establishing alternative interest rates, different security or claim priorities, or different call or amortization provisions will apply during such times as Bonds of any series are held by a person providing credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements for such Bonds as authorized in subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act.

(b) In connection with the issuance of any series of Bonds, the State may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for such Bonds, including, without limitation, bond or interest rate insurance or letters of credit, lines of credit, bond purchase contracts, or other arrangements whereby funds are made available to retire or purchase Bonds, thereby assuring the ability of owners of the Bonds to sell or redeem their Bonds. The State may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, but only under circumstances where the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget) certifies that he reasonably expects the total interest paid or to be paid on the Bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the Bonds to bear interest, calculated to their stated maturity, at a rate in excess of the rate which the Bonds would bear in the absence of such arrangements. Any bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness issued pursuant to any such arrangements for the purpose of retiring and discharging outstanding Bonds shall constitute refunding Bonds under Section 15 of this Act. The State may participate in and enter into arrangements with respect to interest rate swaps or guarantees or financial futures contracts for the purpose of limiting or restricting interest rate risk; provided that such arrangements shall be made with or executed through banks having capital and surplus of not less than $100,000,000 or insurance companies holding the highest policyholder rating accorded insurers by A.M. Best & Co. or any comparable rating service or government bond dealers reporting to, trading with, and recognized as primary dealers by a Federal Reserve Bank and having capital and surplus of not less than $100,000,000, or other persons whose debt securities are rated in the highest long-term categories by both Moody's Investors' Services, Inc. and Standard & Poor's Corporation. Agreements incorporating any of the foregoing arrangements may be executed and delivered by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget on behalf of the State in substantially the form approved in the Bond Sale Order relating to such Bonds.

(c) "Build America Bonds" in this Section means Bonds authorized by Section 54AA of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended ("Internal Revenue Code"), and bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund "Build America Bonds".

(Source: P.A. 103-591, eff. 7-1-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 240. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 1-10, 20-60, 45-57, and 45-105 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including, but not limited to, any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section 5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.

(4) Hiring of an individual as an employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10 calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) (Blank).

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) (A) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

(B) Contracts for legal and financial services entered into by the Illinois Housing Development Authority in connection with the issuance of bonds in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority of the terms of the contract.

(13) Contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic science services in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13), except for this sentence, is inoperative.

(14) Contracts for participation expenditures required by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.

(15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities for the relocation of utilities for construction or other public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those associated with: relocations, crossings, installations, and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15), "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2) telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4) telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or operating utility systems consisting of public utilities as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of timely newborn screening services in accordance with the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.

(17) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(18) This Code does not apply to any procurements necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act if the applicable agency has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption and if the process is conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160, 25-60, 30-22, 50-5, 50-10, 50-10.5, 50-12, 50-13, 50-15, 50-20, 50-21, 50-35, 50-36, 50-37, 50-38, and 50-50 of this Code; however, for Section 50-35, compliance applies only to contracts or subcontracts over $100,000. Notice of each contract entered into under this paragraph (18) that is related to the procurement of goods and services identified in paragraph (1) through (9) of this subsection shall be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 calendar days after contract execution. The Chief Procurement Officer shall prescribe the form and content of the notice. Each agency shall provide the Chief Procurement Officer, on a monthly basis, in the form and content prescribed by the Chief Procurement Officer, a report of contracts that are related to the procurement of goods and services identified in this subsection. At a minimum, this report shall include the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to this Code utilized. A copy of any or all of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. The Chief Procurement Officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that includes, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the Chief Procurement Officer. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27).

(19) Acquisition of modifications or adjustments, limited to assistive technology devices and assistive technology services, adaptive equipment, repairs, and replacement parts to provide reasonable accommodations (i) that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to complete the job application process and be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires, (ii) that modify or adjust the work environment to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of the position held by that employee, (iii) to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by other similarly situated employees without disabilities, and (iv) that allow a customer, client, claimant, or member of the public seeking State services full use and enjoyment of and access to its programs, services, or benefits.

For purposes of this paragraph (19):

"Assistive technology devices" means any item, piece of equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially off the shelf, modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional capabilities of individuals with disabilities.

"Assistive technology services" means any service that directly assists an individual with a disability in selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device.

"Qualified" has the same meaning and use as provided under the federal Americans with Disabilities Act when describing an individual with a disability.

(20) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Illinois Commerce Commission to hire third-party facilitators pursuant to Sections 16-105.17 and 16-108.18 of the Public Utilities Act or an ombudsman pursuant to Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act, a facilitator pursuant to Section 16-105.17 of the Public Utilities Act, or a grid auditor pursuant to Section 16-105.10 of the Public Utilities Act.

(21) Procurement expenditures for the purchase, renewal, and expansion of software, software licenses, or software maintenance agreements that support the efforts of the Illinois State Police to enforce, regulate, and administer the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearms Restraining Order Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS), the Uniform Crime Reporting Act, the Criminal Identification Act, the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act, and the Gun Trafficking Information Act, or establish or maintain record management systems necessary to conduct human trafficking investigations or gun trafficking or other stolen firearm investigations. This paragraph (21) applies to contracts entered into on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) and the renewal of contracts that are in effect on January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116).

(22) Contracts for project management services and system integration services required for the completion of the State's enterprise resource planning project. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8). This paragraph (22) applies to contracts entered into on or after June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8) and the renewal of contracts that are in effect on June 7, 2023 (the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-8).

(23) Procurements necessary for the Department of Insurance to implement the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange Law if the Department of Insurance has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption. The procurement process shall be conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160 and 25-60 and Article 50 of this Code. A copy of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. This paragraph is inoperative 5 years after June 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-103).

(24) Contracts for public education programming, noncommercial sustaining announcements, public service announcements, and public awareness and education messaging with the nonprofit trade associations of the providers of those services that inform the public on immediate and ongoing health and safety risks and hazards.

(25) Procurements necessary for the Department of Early Childhood to implement the Department of Early Childhood Act if the Department has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption. This exemption shall only be used for products and services procured solely for use by the Department of Early Childhood. The procurements may include those necessary to design and build integrated, operational systems of programs and services. The procurements may include, but are not limited to, those necessary to align and update program standards, integrate funding systems, design and establish data and reporting systems, align and update models for technical assistance and professional development, design systems to manage grants and ensure compliance, design and implement management and operational structures, and establish new means of engaging with families, educators, providers, and stakeholders. The procurement processes shall be conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Article 50 (ethics) and Sections 5-5 (Procurement Policy Board), 5-7 (Commission on Equity and Inclusion), 20-80 (contract files), 20-120 (subcontractors), 20-155 (paperwork), 20-160 (ethics/campaign contribution prohibitions), 25-60 (prevailing wage), and 25-90 (prohibited and authorized cybersecurity) of this Code. Beginning January 1, 2025, the Department of Early Childhood shall provide a quarterly report to the General Assembly detailing a list of expenditures and contracts for which the Department uses this exemption. This paragraph is inoperative on and after July 1, 2027.

(26) (25) Procurements that are necessary for increasing the recruitment and retention of State employees, particularly minority candidates for employment, including:

(A) procurements related to registration fees for job fairs and other outreach and recruitment events;

(B) production of recruitment materials; and

(C) other services related to recruitment and retention of State employees.

The exemption under this paragraph (26) (25) applies only if the State agency has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this paragraph (26) (25). The procurement process under this paragraph (26) (25) shall be conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160 and 25-60 and Article 50 of this Code. A copy of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. Nothing in this paragraph (26) (25) authorizes the replacement or diminishment of State responsibilities in hiring or the positions that effectuate that hiring. This paragraph (26) (25) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2029.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts with an annual value of more than $100,000 entered into on or after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2), or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. This Code does not apply to the procurement of technical and policy experts pursuant to Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers appointed pursuant to the Election Code.

(l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.

(m) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of funds with which contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. Except as specifically provided in this Code, this Code shall not apply to procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to conduct the Healthy Illinois Survey in accordance with Section 2310-431 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-175, eff. 7-29-21; 102-483, eff 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-600, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-721, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-103, eff. 6-27-23; 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-865, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(30 ILCS 500/20-60)

Sec. 20-60. Duration of contracts.

(a) Maximum duration. A contract may be entered into for any period of time deemed to be in the best interests of the State but not exceeding 10 years inclusive, beginning January 1, 2010, of proposed contract renewals; provided, however, in connection with the issuance of certificates of participation or bonds, the governing board of a public institution of higher education may enter into contracts in excess of 10 years but not to exceed 30 years for the purpose of financing or refinancing real or personal property. Third parties may lease State-owned communications infrastructure, including dark fiber networks, conduit, and excess communication tower capacity, for any period of time deemed to be in the best interest of the State, but not exceeding 20 years. The length of a lease for real property or capital improvements shall be in accordance with the provisions of Section 40-25. The length of energy conservation program contracts or energy savings contracts or leases shall be in accordance with the provisions of Section 25-45. A contract for bond or mortgage insurance awarded by the Illinois Housing Development Authority, however, may be entered into for any period of time less than or equal to the maximum period of time that the subject bond or mortgage may remain outstanding. Contracts may be entered into that extend beyond the active term of the award, so long as the contract was entered into prior to the award expiration date and does not exceed 10 years.

(b) Subject to appropriation. All contracts made or entered into shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to make payments under the terms of the contract.

(c) The chief procurement officer shall file a proposed extension or renewal of a contract with the Procurement Policy Board and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion prior to entering into any extension or renewal if the cost associated with the extension or renewal exceeds $249,999. The Procurement Policy Board or the Commission on Equity and Inclusion may object to the proposed extension or renewal within 14 calendar days and require a hearing before the Board or the Commission on Equity and Inclusion prior to entering into the extension or renewal. If the Procurement Policy Board or the Commission on Equity and Inclusion does not object within 14 calendar days or takes affirmative action to recommend the extension or renewal, the chief procurement officer may enter into the extension or renewal of a contract. This subsection does not apply to any emergency procurement, any procurement under Article 40, or any procurement exempted by Section 1-10(b) of this Code. If any State agency contract is paid for in whole or in part with federal-aid funds, grants, or loans and the provisions of this subsection would result in the loss of those federal-aid funds, grants, or loans, then the contract is exempt from the provisions of this subsection in order to remain eligible for those federal-aid funds, grants, or loans, and the State agency shall file notice of this exemption with the Procurement Policy Board or the Commission on Equity and Inclusion prior to entering into the proposed extension or renewal. Nothing in this subsection permits a chief procurement officer to enter into an extension or renewal in violation of subsection (a). By August 1 each year, the Procurement Policy Board and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall each file a report with the General Assembly identifying for the previous fiscal year (i) the proposed extensions or renewals that were filed and whether such extensions and renewals were objected to and (ii) the contracts exempt from this subsection.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, the Department of Innovation and Technology may enter into leases for dark fiber networks for any period of time deemed to be in the best interests of the State but not exceeding 20 years inclusive. The Department of Innovation and Technology may lease dark fiber networks from third parties only for the primary purpose of providing services (i) to the offices of Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer and State agencies, as defined under Section 5-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois or (ii) for anchor institutions, as defined in Section 7 of the Illinois Century Network Act. Dark fiber network lease contracts shall be subject to all other provisions of this Code and any applicable rules or requirements, including, but not limited to, publication of lease solicitations, use of standard State contracting terms and conditions, and approval of vendor certifications and financial disclosures.

(e) As used in this Section, "dark fiber network" means a network of fiber optic cables laid but currently unused by a third party that the third party is leasing for use as network infrastructure.

(f) No vendor shall be eligible for renewal of a contract when that vendor has failed to meet the goals agreed to in the vendor's utilization plan, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, unless the State agency or public institution of higher education has determined that the vendor made good faith efforts toward meeting the contract goals. If the State agency or public institution of higher education determines that the vendor made good faith efforts, the agency or public institution of higher education may issue a waiver after concurrence by the chief procurement officer, which shall not be unreasonably withheld or impair a State agency determination to execute the renewal. The form and content of the waiver shall be prescribed by each chief procurement officer, but shall not impair a State agency or public institution of higher education determination to execute the renewal. The chief procurement officer shall post the completed form on his or her official website within 5 business days after receipt from the State agency or public institution of higher education. The chief procurement officer shall maintain on his or her official website a database of waivers granted under this Section with respect to contracts under his or her jurisdiction. The database shall be updated periodically and shall be searchable by contractor name and by contracting State agency or public institution of higher education.

(Source: P.A. 102-29, eff. 6-25-21; 102-721, eff. 1-1-23; 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-865, Article 2, Section 2-5, eff. 1-1-25; 103-865, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-57)

Sec. 45-57. Veterans.

(a) Set-aside goal. It is the goal of the State to promote and encourage the continued economic development of small businesses owned and controlled by qualified veterans and that qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as SDVOSB) and veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as VOSB) participate in the State's procurement process as both prime contractors and subcontractors. Not less than 3% of the total dollar amount of State contracts, as defined by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion, shall be established as a goal to be awarded to SDVOSB and VOSB. That portion of a contract under which the contractor subcontracts with a SDVOSB or VOSB may be counted toward the goal of this subsection. The Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall adopt rules to implement compliance with this subsection by all State agencies.

(b) Fiscal year reports. By each November 1, each chief procurement officer shall report to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion on all of the following for the immediately preceding fiscal year, and by each March 1 the Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall compile and report that information to the General Assembly:

(1) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who submitted bids for contracts under this Code.

(2) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who entered into contracts with the State under this Code and the total value of those contracts.

(b-5) The Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall submit an annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall include the following:

(1) a year-by-year comparison of the number of certifications the State has issued to veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses;

(2) the obstacles, if any, the Commission on Equity and Inclusion faces when certifying veteran-owned businesses and possible rules or changes to rules to address those issues;

(3) a year-by-year comparison of awarded contracts to certified veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses; and

(4) any other information that the Commission on Equity and Inclusion deems necessary to assist veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses to become certified with the State.

The Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall conduct a minimum of 2 outreach events per year to ensure that veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses know about the procurement opportunities and certification requirements with the State. The Commission on Equity and Inclusion may receive appropriations for outreach.

(c) Yearly review and recommendations. Each year, each chief procurement officer shall review the progress of all State agencies under its jurisdiction in meeting the goal described in subsection (a), with input from statewide veterans' service organizations and from the business community, including businesses owned by qualified veterans, and shall make recommendations to be included in the Commission on Equity and Inclusion's report to the General Assembly regarding continuation, increases, or decreases of the percentage goal. The recommendations shall be based upon the number of businesses that are owned by qualified veterans and on the continued need to encourage and promote businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(d) Governor's recommendations. To assist the State in reaching the goal described in subsection (a), the Governor shall recommend to the General Assembly changes in programs to assist businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(e) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, or service in active duty as defined under 38 U.S.C. Section 101. Service in the Merchant Marine that constitutes active duty under Section 401 of federal Public Law Act 95-202 shall also be considered service in the armed forces for purposes of this Section.

"Certification" means a determination made by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion that a business entity is a qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a qualified veteran-owned small business for whatever purpose. A SDVOSB or VOSB owned and controlled by women, minorities, or persons with disabilities, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, may also select and designate whether that business is to be certified as a "women-owned business", "minority-owned business", or "business owned by a person with a disability", as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Control" means the exclusive, ultimate, majority, or sole control of the business, including but not limited to capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operation responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions, and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial, and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management, and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business, and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran" means a veteran who has been found to have 10% or more service-connected disability by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or the United States Department of Defense.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business" or "SDVOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

"Qualified veteran-owned small business" or "VOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

"Service-connected disability" means a disability incurred in the line of duty in the active military, naval, or air service as described in 38 U.S.C. 101(16).

"Small business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $150,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on SDVOSB or VOSB as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of veterans or service-disabled veterans.

"State agency" has the meaning provided in Section 1-15.100 of this Code.

"Time of hostilities with a foreign country" means any period of time in the past, present, or future during which a declaration of war by the United States Congress has been or is in effect or during which an emergency condition has been or is in effect that is recognized by the issuance of a Presidential proclamation or a Presidential executive order and in which the armed forces expeditionary medal or other campaign service medals are awarded according to Presidential executive order.

"Veteran" means a person who (i) has been a member of the armed forces of the United States or, while a citizen of the United States, was a member of the armed forces of allies of the United States in time of hostilities with a foreign country and (ii) has served under one or more of the following conditions: (a) the veteran served a total of at least 6 months; (b) the veteran served for the duration of hostilities regardless of the length of the engagement; (c) the veteran was discharged on the basis of hardship; or (d) the veteran was released from active duty because of a service connected disability and was discharged under honorable conditions.

(f) Certification program. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall work together to devise a certification procedure to assure that businesses taking advantage of this Section are legitimately classified as qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses or qualified veteran-owned small businesses.

The Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall:

(1) compile and maintain a comprehensive list of certified veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses;

(2) assist veteran-owned small businesses and service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses in complying with the procedures for bidding on State contracts;

(3) provide training for State agencies regarding the goal setting process and compliance with veteran-owned small business and service-disabled veteran-owned small business goals; and

(4) implement and maintain an electronic portal on the Commission on Equity and Inclusion's website for the purpose of completing and submitting veteran-owned small business and service-disabled veteran-owned small business certificates.

The Commission on Equity and Inclusion, in consultation with the Department of Veterans' Affairs, may develop programs and agreements to encourage cities, counties, towns, townships, and other certifying entities to adopt uniform certification procedures and certification recognition programs.

(f-5) A business shall be certified by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business for purposes of this Section if the Commission on Equity and Inclusion determines that the business has been certified as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business by the Vets First Verification Program of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and the business has provided to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion the following:

(1) documentation showing certification as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business by the Vets First Verification Program of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs;

(2) proof that the business has its home office in Illinois; and

(3) proof that the qualified veterans or qualified service-disabled veterans live in the State of Illinois.

The policies of the Commission on Equity and Inclusion regarding recognition of the Vets First Verification Program of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs shall be reviewed annually by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion, and recognition of service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses and veteran-owned small businesses certified by the Vets First Verification Program of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs may be discontinued by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion by rule upon a finding that the certification standards of the Vets First Verification Program of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs do not meet the certification requirements established by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Administrative penalties. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall suspend any person who commits a violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section from bidding on, or participating as a contractor, subcontractor, or supplier in, any State contract or project for a period of not less than 3 years, and, if the person is certified as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business, then the Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall revoke the business's certification for a period of not less than 3 years. An additional or subsequent violation shall extend the periods of suspension and revocation for a period of not less than 5 years. The suspension and revocation shall apply to the principals of the business and any subsequent business formed or financed by, or affiliated with, those principals.

(2) Reports of violations. Each State agency shall report any alleged violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section to the chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall subsequently report all such alleged violations to the Attorney General, who shall determine whether to bring a civil action against any person for the violation.

(3) List of suspended persons. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall monitor the status of all reported violations of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section and shall maintain and make available to all State agencies a central listing of all persons that committed violations resulting in suspension.

(4) Use of suspended persons. During the period of a person's suspension under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a State agency shall not enter into any contract with that person or with any contractor using the services of that person as a subcontractor.

(5) Duty to check list. Each State agency shall check the central listing provided by the chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 under paragraph (3) of this subsection to verify that a person being awarded a contract by that State agency, or to be used as a subcontractor or supplier on a contract being awarded by that State agency, is not under suspension pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(h) On and after November 30, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-671) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Department of Central Management Services with respect to the requirements of this Section are transferred to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

All books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-671 this amendatory Act from the Department of Central Management Services to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, shall be transferred to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

The powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred from the Department of Central Management Services by this amendatory Act shall be vested in and shall be exercised by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

Whenever reports or notices are now required to be made or given or papers or documents furnished or served by any person to or upon the Department of Central Management Services in connection with any of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-671 this amendatory Act, the same shall be made, given, furnished, or served in the same manner to or upon the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

Public Act 102-671 This amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled or any right occurring or established or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the Department of Central Management Services before this amendatory Act takes effect; such actions or proceedings may be prosecuted and continued by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

Any rules of the Department of Central Management Services that relate to its powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities under this Section and are in full force on the effective date of Public Act 102-671 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall become the rules of the Commission on Equity and Inclusion. Public Act 102-671 This amendatory Act does not affect the legality of any such rules in the Illinois Administrative Code. Any proposed rules filed with the Secretary of State by the Department of Central Management Services that are pending in the rulemaking process on November 30, 2021 the effective date of this amendatory Act and pertain to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred, shall be deemed to have been filed by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion. As soon as practicable hereafter, the Commission on Equity and Inclusion shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under Public Act 102-671 this amendatory Act to reflect the reorganization of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities affected by Public Act 102-671 this amendatory Act, using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. The Commission on Equity and Inclusion may propose and adopt under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act such other rules of the Department of Central Management Services that will now be administered by the Commission on Equity and Inclusion.

(Source: P.A. 102-166, eff. 7-26-21; 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-746, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-105)

Sec. 45-105. Bid preference for Illinois businesses.

(a) (Blank).

(b) It is hereby declared to be the public policy of the State of Illinois to promote the economy of Illinois through the use of Illinois businesses for all State construction contracts.

(c) A construction agency, as defined in Section 1-15.25, procuring construction services shall make reasonable efforts to contract with Illinois businesses.

(d) Each construction agency shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly by December 1 of each year that identifies the Illinois businesses procured by the construction agency, the primary location of the construction project, the percentage of the construction agency's utilization of Illinois businesses on the project as a whole, and the actions that the construction agency has undertaken to increase the use of Illinois businesses.

(e) In procuring construction services for projects with a total value that exceeds the small purchase maximum established by Section 20-20 of this Code, construction agencies shall provide a bid preference to a responsive and responsible bidder that is an Illinois business as defined in this Section. The construction agency shall allocate to the lowest bid by an Illinois business that is responsible and responsive a bid preference of 4% of the contract base bid. This subsection applies only to projects where a business that is not an Illinois business submits a bid.

(e-5) The chief procurement officer shall require at the time of submission of a bid, and may require at the chief procurement officer's option at any time during the term of the contract, that the bidder or contractor submit an affidavit and other supporting documents demonstrating that the bidder or contractor is an Illinois business and, if applicable, submit an affidavit and other supporting documents demonstrating that the bidder or contractor is eligible for a 4% bid preference under this Section.

(e-10) If a contractor who is awarded a contract through the use of a preference for Illinois businesses provided false information in order to obtain that preference, then the contractor is subject to disciplinary procedures as identified in Section 50-65 of this Act.

(f) This Section does not apply to any contract for any project for which federal funds are available for expenditure when its provisions may be in conflict with federal law or federal regulation.

(g) As used in this Section, "Illinois business" means a contractor that is, for at least one year prior, operating and headquartered in Illinois, subject to applicable State taxes, and providing, at the time that an invitation for a bid or notice of contract opportunity is first advertised, construction services. "Illinois business" includes a foreign corporation duly authorized to transact business in this State that has a bona fide establishment for transacting business within this State where it is operating, headquartered, and performing construction or construction-related professional services at least one year before an invitation for a bid or notice of contract opportunity is first advertised.

"Illinois business" does not include any subcontractors or businesses headquartered outside of the State that have an affiliated entity operating in the State.

(Source: P.A. 102-721, eff. 1-1-23; 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-865, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 1-1-25; 103-865, Article 65, Section 65-5, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 245. The Commission on Equity and Inclusion Act is amended by changing Section 40-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 574/40-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-961)

Sec. 40-10. Powers and duties. In addition to the other powers and duties which may be prescribed in this Act or elsewhere, the Commission shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) The Commission shall have a role in all State and university procurement by facilitating and streamlining communications between the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities, the purchasing entities, the Chief Procurement Officers, and others.

(2) The Commission may create a scoring evaluation for State agency directors, public university presidents and chancellors, and public community college presidents. The scoring shall be based on the following 3 principles: (i) increasing capacity; (ii) growing revenue; and (iii) enhancing credentials. These principles should be the foundation of the agency compliance plan required under Section 6 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(3) The Commission shall exercise the authority and duties provided to it under Section 5-7 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(4) The Commission, working with State agencies, shall provide support for diversity in State hiring.

(5) The Commission shall supervise the implementation and effectiveness of supplier diversity training of the State procurement workforce.

(6) Each January, and as otherwise frequently as may be deemed necessary and appropriate by the Commission, the Commission shall propose and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly legislative changes to increase inclusion and diversity in State government.

(7) The Commission shall have oversight over the following entities:

(A) the Illinois African-American Family Commission;

(B) the Illinois Latino Family Commission;

(C) the Asian American Family Commission;

(D) the Illinois Muslim American Advisory Council;

(E) the Illinois African-American Fair Contracting Commission created under Executive Order 2018-07; and

(F) the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities.

(8) The Commission shall adopt any rules necessary for the implementation and administration of the requirements of this Act.

(9) The Commission shall exercise the authority and duties provided to it under Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(10) The Commission is responsible for completing studies as required by Section 35-15 of the Illinois Community Reinvestment Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-29, eff. 6-25-21; 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-865, eff. 1-1-25; 103-959, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-961)

Sec. 40-10. Powers and duties. In addition to the other powers and duties which may be prescribed in this Act or elsewhere, the Commission shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) The Commission shall have a role in all State and university procurement by facilitating and streamlining communications between the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities, the purchasing entities, the Chief Procurement Officers, and others.

(2) The Commission may create a scoring evaluation for State agency directors, public university presidents and chancellors, and public community college presidents. The scoring shall be based on the following 3 principles: (i) increasing capacity; (ii) growing revenue; and (iii) enhancing credentials. These principles should be the foundation of the agency compliance plan required under Section 6 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(3) The Commission shall exercise the authority and duties provided to it under Section 5-7 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(4) The Commission, working with State agencies, shall provide support for diversity in State hiring.

(5) The Commission shall supervise the implementation and effectiveness of supplier diversity training of the State procurement workforce.

(6) Each January, and as otherwise frequently as may be deemed necessary and appropriate by the Commission, the Commission shall propose and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly legislative changes to increase inclusion and diversity in State government.

(7) The Commission shall have oversight over the following entities:

(A) the Illinois African-American Family Commission;

(B) the Illinois Latino Family Commission;

(C) the Asian American Family Commission;

(D) the Illinois Muslim American Advisory Council;

(E) the Illinois African-American Fair Contracting Commission created under Executive Order 2018-07; and

(F) the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities.

(7.5) The Commission shall have oversight over the collection of supplier diversity reports by State agencies to the extent that those agencies are required to collect supplier diversity reports. This oversight shall include publishing, on the Commission's website, a copy of each such supplier diversity report submitted to a State agency and may include conducting an annual hearing with each State agency to discuss ongoing compliance with supplier diversity reporting requirements. The Commission is not responsible for ensuring compliance by the filers of supplier diversity reports to their respective agencies. The agencies subject to oversight by the Commission and the relevant voluntary supplier diversity reports include the following:

(A) the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for hospitals;

(B) the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for tax credit recipients under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act;

(C) the Illinois Commerce Commission for utilities and railroads;

(D) the Illinois Gaming Board for casinos; and

(E) the Illinois Racing Board for race tracks.

(7.6) The Commission may hold public workshops focused on specific industries and reports to collaboratively connect diverse enterprises with entities that manage supplier diversity programs. These workshops may be modeled after Illinois Commerce Commission hearings for utilities and railroads that include a collaborative discussion of filed supplier diversity reports.

(8) The Commission shall adopt any rules necessary for the implementation and administration of the requirements of this Act.

(9) The Commission shall exercise the authority and duties provided to it under Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(10) The Commission is responsible for completing studies as required by Section 35-15 of the Illinois Community Reinvestment Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-29, eff. 6-25-21; 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-865, eff. 1-1-25; 103-959, eff. 1-1-25; 103-961, eff. 7-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 250. The Grant Accountability and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(30 ILCS 708/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Allowable cost" means a cost allowable to a project if:

(1) the costs are reasonable and necessary for the performance of the award;

(2) the costs are allocable to the specific project;

(3) the costs are treated consistently in like circumstances to both federally-financed and other activities of the non-federal entity;

(4) the costs conform to any limitations of the cost principles or the sponsored agreement;

(5) the costs are accorded consistent treatment; a cost may not be assigned to a State or federal award as a direct cost if any other cost incurred for the same purpose in like circumstances has been allocated to the award as an indirect cost;

(6) the costs are determined to be in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles;

(7) the costs are not included as a cost or used to meet federal cost-sharing or matching requirements of any other program in either the current or prior period;

(8) the costs of one State or federal grant are not used to meet the match requirements of another State or federal grant; and

(9) the costs are adequately documented.

"Auditee" means any non-federal entity that expends State or federal awards that must be audited.

"Auditor" means an auditor who is a public accountant or a federal, State, or local government audit organization that meets the general standards specified in generally-accepted government auditing standards. "Auditor" does not include internal auditors of nonprofit organizations.

"Auditor General" means the Auditor General of the State of Illinois.

"Award" means financial assistance that provides support or stimulation to accomplish a public purpose. "Awards" include grants and other agreements in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the State or federal government to an eligible recipient. "Award" does not include: technical assistance that provides services instead of money; other assistance in the form of loans, loan guarantees, interest subsidies, or insurance; direct payments of any kind to individuals; or contracts that must be entered into and administered under State or federal procurement laws and regulations.

"Budget" means the financial plan for the project or program that the awarding agency or pass-through entity approves during the award process or in subsequent amendments to the award. It may include the State or federal and non-federal share or only the State or federal share, as determined by the awarding agency or pass-through entity.

"Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance" or "CFDA" means a database that helps the federal government track all programs it has domestically funded.

"Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number" or "CFDA number" means the number assigned to a federal program in the CFDA.

"Catalog of State Financial Assistance" means the single, authoritative, statewide, comprehensive source document of State financial assistance program information maintained by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget.

"Catalog of State Financial Assistance Number" means the number assigned to a State program in the Catalog of State Financial Assistance. The first 3 digits represent the State agency number and the last 4 digits represent the program.

"Cluster of programs" means a grouping of closely related programs that share common compliance requirements. The types of clusters of programs are research and development, student financial aid, and other clusters. A "cluster of programs" shall be considered as one program for determining major programs and, with the exception of research and development, whether a program-specific audit may be elected.

"Cognizant agency for audit" means the federal agency designated to carry out the responsibilities described in 2 CFR 200.513(a).

"Contract" means a legal instrument by which a non-federal entity purchases property or services needed to carry out the project or program under an award. "Contract" does not include a legal instrument, even if the non-federal entity considers it a contract, when the substance of the transaction meets the definition of an award or subaward.

"Contractor" means an entity that receives a contract.

"Cooperative agreement" means a legal instrument of financial assistance between an awarding agency or pass-through entity and a non-federal entity that:

(1) is used to enter into a relationship with the principal purpose of transferring anything of value from the awarding agency or pass-through entity to the non-federal entity to carry out a public purpose authorized by law, but is not used to acquire property or services for the awarding agency's or pass-through entity's direct benefit or use; and

(2) is distinguished from a grant in that it provides for substantial involvement between the awarding agency or pass-through entity and the non-federal entity in carrying out the activity contemplated by the award.

"Cooperative agreement" does not include a cooperative research and development agreement, nor an agreement that provides only direct cash assistance to an individual, a subsidy, a loan, a loan guarantee, or insurance.

"Corrective action" means action taken by the auditee that (i) corrects identified deficiencies, (ii) produces recommended improvements, or (iii) demonstrates that audit findings are either invalid or do not warrant auditee action.

"Cost objective" means a program, function, activity, award, organizational subdivision, contract, or work unit for which cost data is desired and for which provision is made to accumulate and measure the cost of processes, products, jobs, and capital projects. A "cost objective" may be a major function of the non-federal entity, a particular service or project, an award, or an indirect cost activity.

"Cost sharing" means the portion of project costs not paid by State or federal funds, unless otherwise authorized by statute.

"Development" is the systematic use of knowledge and understanding gained from research directed toward the production of useful materials, devices, systems, or methods, including design and development of prototypes and processes.

"Data Universal Numbering System number" means the 9-digit number established and assigned by Dun and Bradstreet, Inc. to uniquely identify entities and, under federal law, is required for non-federal entities to apply for, receive, and report on a federal award.

"Direct costs" means costs that can be identified specifically with a particular final cost objective, such as a State or federal or federal pass-through award or a particular sponsored project, an instructional activity, or any other institutional activity, or that can be directly assigned to such activities relatively easily with a high degree of accuracy.

"Equipment" means tangible personal property (including information technology systems) having a useful life of more than one year and a per-unit acquisition cost that equals or exceeds the lesser of the capitalization level established by the non-federal entity for financial statement purposes, or $5,000.

"Executive branch" means that branch of State government that is under the jurisdiction of the Governor.

"Federal agency" has the meaning provided for "agency" under 5 U.S.C. 551(1) together with the meaning provided for "agency" by 5 U.S.C. 552(f).

"Federal award" means:

(1) the federal financial assistance that a non-federal entity receives directly from a federal awarding agency or indirectly from a pass-through entity;

(2) the cost-reimbursement contract under the Federal Acquisition Regulations that a non-federal entity receives directly from a federal awarding agency or indirectly from a pass-through entity; or

(3) the instrument setting forth the terms and conditions when the instrument is the grant agreement, cooperative agreement, other agreement for assistance covered in 2 CFR 200, Subpart A, Acronyms and Definitions, or the cost-reimbursement contract awarded under the Federal Acquisition Regulations.

"Federal award" does not include other contracts that a federal agency uses to buy goods or services from a contractor or a contract to operate federal government owned, contractor-operated facilities.

"Federal awarding agency" means the federal agency that provides a federal award directly to a non-federal entity.

"Federal interest" means, for purposes of 2 CFR 200, Subpart D, Post Federal Award Requirements (Performance and Financial Monitoring and Reporting) or when used in connection with the acquisition or improvement of real property, equipment, or supplies under a federal award, the dollar amount that is the product of the federal share of total project costs and current fair market value of the property, improvements, or both, to the extent the costs of acquiring or improving the property were included as project costs.

"Federal program" means any of the following:

(1) All federal awards which are assigned a single number in the CFDA.

(2) When no CFDA number is assigned, all federal awards to non-federal entities from the same agency made for the same purpose should be combined and considered one program.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, a cluster of programs. The types of clusters of programs are:

(A) research and development;

(B) student financial aid; and

(C) "other clusters", as described in the definition of "cluster of programs".

"Federal share" means the portion of the total project costs that are paid by federal funds.

"Final cost objective" means a cost objective which has allocated to it both direct and indirect costs and, in the non-federal entity's accumulation system, is one of the final accumulation points, such as a particular award, internal project, or other direct activity of a non-federal entity.

"Financial assistance" means the following:

(1) For grants and cooperative agreements, "financial assistance" means assistance that non-federal entities receive or administer in the form of:

(A) grants;

(B) cooperative agreements;

(C) non-cash contributions or donations of property, including donated surplus property;

(D) direct appropriations;

(E) food commodities; and

(F) other financial assistance, except assistance listed in paragraph (2) of this definition.

(2) "Financial assistance" includes assistance that non-federal entities receive or administer in the form of loans, loan guarantees, interest subsidies, and insurance.

(3) "Financial assistance" does not include amounts received as reimbursement for services rendered to individuals.

"Fixed amount awards" means a type of grant agreement under which the awarding agency or pass-through entity provides a specific level of support without regard to actual costs incurred under the award. "Fixed amount awards" reduce some of the administrative burden and record-keeping requirements for both the non-federal entity and awarding agency or pass-through entity. Accountability is based primarily on performance and results.

"Foreign public entity" means:

(1) a foreign government or foreign governmental entity;

(2) a public international organization that is entitled to enjoy privileges, exemptions, and immunities as an international organization under the International Organizations Immunities Act (22 U.S.C. 288-288f);

(3) an entity owned, in whole or in part, or controlled by a foreign government; or

(4) any other entity consisting wholly or partially of one or more foreign governments or foreign governmental entities.

"Foreign organization" means an entity that is:

(1) a public or private organization located in a country other than the United States and its territories that are subject to the laws of the country in which it is located, irrespective of the citizenship of project staff or place of performance;

(2) a private nongovernmental organization located in a country other than the United States that solicits and receives cash contributions from the general public;

(3) a charitable organization located in a country other than the United States that is nonprofit and tax exempt under the laws of its country of domicile and operation, but is not a university, college, accredited degree-granting institution of education, private foundation, hospital, organization engaged exclusively in research or scientific activities, church, synagogue, mosque, or other similar entity organized primarily for religious purposes; or

(4) an organization located in a country other than the United States not recognized as a Foreign Public Entity.

"Generally Accepted Accounting Principles" has the meaning provided in accounting standards issued by the Government Accounting Standards Board and the Financial Accounting Standards Board.

"Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards" means generally accepted government auditing standards issued by the Comptroller General of the United States that are applicable to financial audits.

"Grant agreement" means a legal instrument of financial assistance between an awarding agency or pass-through entity and a non-federal entity that:

(1) is used to enter into a relationship, the principal purpose of which is to transfer anything of value from the awarding agency or pass-through entity to the non-federal entity to carry out a public purpose authorized by law and not to acquire property or services for the awarding agency or pass-through entity's direct benefit or use; and

(2) is distinguished from a cooperative agreement in that it does not provide for substantial involvement between the awarding agency or pass-through entity and the non-federal entity in carrying out the activity contemplated by the award.

"Grant agreement" does not include an agreement that provides only direct cash assistance to an individual, a subsidy, a loan, a loan guarantee, or insurance.

"Grant application" means a specified form that is completed by a non-federal entity in connection with a request for a specific funding opportunity or a request for financial support of a project or activity.

"Hospital" means a facility licensed as a hospital under the law of any state or a facility operated as a hospital by the United States, a state, or a subdivision of a state.

"Illinois Debarred and Suspended List" means the list maintained by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget that contains the names of those individuals and entities that are ineligible, either temporarily or permanently, from receiving an award of grant funds from the State.

"Indirect cost" means those costs incurred for a common or joint purpose benefiting benefitting more than one cost objective and not readily assignable to the cost objectives specifically benefited benefitted without effort disproportionate to the results achieved.

"Inspector General" means the Office of the Executive Inspector General for Executive branch agencies.

"Loan" means a State or federal loan or loan guarantee received or administered by a non-federal entity. "Loan" does not include a "program income" as defined in 2 CFR 200, Subpart A, Acronyms and Definitions.

"Loan guarantee" means any State or federal government guarantee, insurance, or other pledge with respect to the payment of all or a part of the principal or interest on any debt obligation of a non-federal borrower to a non-federal lender, but does not include the insurance of deposits, shares, or other withdrawable accounts in financial institutions.

"Local government" has the meaning provided for the term "units of local government" under Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution and includes school districts.

"Major program" means a federal program determined by the auditor to be a major program in accordance with 2 CFR 200.518 or a program identified as a major program by a federal awarding agency or pass-through entity in accordance with 2 CFR 200.503(e).

"Non-federal entity" means a state, local government, Indian tribe, institution of higher education, or organization, whether nonprofit or for-profit, that carries out a State or federal award as a recipient or subrecipient.

"Nonprofit organization" means any corporation, trust, association, cooperative, or other organization, not including institutions of higher education, that:

(1) is operated primarily for scientific, educational, service, charitable, or similar purposes in the public interest;

(2) is not organized primarily for profit; and

(3) uses net proceeds to maintain, improve, or expand the operations of the organization.

"Obligations", when used in connection with a non-federal entity's utilization of funds under an award, means orders placed for property and services, contracts and subawards made, and similar transactions during a given period that require payment by the non-federal entity during the same or a future period.

"Office of Management and Budget" means the Office of Management and Budget of the Executive Office of the President.

"Other clusters" has the meaning provided by the federal Office of Management and Budget in the compliance supplement or has the meaning as it is designated by a state for federal awards the state provides to its subrecipients that meet the definition of a cluster of programs. When designating an "other cluster", a state must identify the federal awards included in the cluster and advise the subrecipients of compliance requirements applicable to the cluster.

"Oversight agency for audit" means the federal awarding agency that provides the predominant amount of funding directly to a non-federal entity not assigned a cognizant agency for audit. When there is no direct funding, the awarding agency that is the predominant source of pass-through funding must assume the oversight responsibilities. The duties of the oversight agency for audit and the process for any reassignments are described in 2 CFR 200.513(b).

"Pass-through entity" means a non-federal entity that provides a subaward to a subrecipient to carry out part of a program.

"Private award" means an award from a person or entity other than a State or federal entity. Private awards are not subject to the provisions of this Act.

"Property" means real property or personal property.

"Project cost" means total allowable costs incurred under an award and all required cost sharing and voluntary committed cost sharing, including third-party contributions.

"Public institutions of higher education" has the meaning provided in Section 1 of the Board of Higher Education Act.

"Recipient" means a non-federal entity that receives an award directly from an awarding agency to carry out an activity under a program. "Recipient" does not include subrecipients.

"Research and Development" means all research activities, both basic and applied, and all development activities that are performed by non-federal entities.

"Single Audit Act" means the federal Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996 (31 U.S.C. 7501-7507).

"State agency" means an Executive branch agency. For purposes of this Act, "State agency" does not include public institutions of higher education.

"State award" means the financial assistance that a non-federal entity receives from the State and that is funded with either State funds or federal funds; in the latter case, the State is acting as a pass-through entity.

"State awarding agency" means a State agency that provides an award to a non-federal entity.

"State grant-making agency" has the same meaning as "State awarding agency".

"State interest" means the acquisition or improvement of real property, equipment, or supplies under a State award, the dollar amount that is the product of the State share of the total project costs and current fair market value of the property, improvements, or both, to the extent the costs of acquiring or improving the property were included as project costs.

"State program" means any of the following:

(1) All State awards which are assigned a single number in the Catalog of State Financial Assistance.

(2) When no Catalog of State Financial Assistance number is assigned, all State awards to non-federal entities from the same agency made for the same purpose are considered one program.

(3) A cluster of programs as defined in this Section.

"State share" means the portion of the total project costs that are paid by State funds.

"Stop payment order" means a communication from a State grant-making agency to the Office of the Comptroller, following procedures set out by the Office of the Comptroller, causing the cessation of payments to a recipient or subrecipient as a result of the recipient's or subrecipient's failure to comply with one or more terms of the grant or subaward.

"Stop payment procedure" means the procedure created by the Office of the Comptroller which effects a stop payment order and the lifting of a stop payment order upon the request of the State grant-making agency.

"Student Financial Aid" means federal awards under those programs of general student assistance, such as those authorized by Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1070-1099d), that are administered by the United States Department of Education and similar programs provided by other federal agencies. "Student Financial Aid" does not include federal awards under programs that provide fellowships or similar federal awards to students on a competitive basis or for specified studies or research.

"Subaward" means a State or federal award provided by a pass-through entity to a subrecipient for the subrecipient to carry out part of a federal award received by the pass-through entity. "Subaward" does not include payments to a contractor or payments to an individual that is a beneficiary of a federal program. A "subaward" may be provided through any form of legal agreement, including an agreement that the pass-through entity considers a contract.

"Subrecipient" means a non-federal entity that receives a State or federal subaward from a pass-through entity to carry out part of a federal program. "Subrecipient" does not include an individual that is a beneficiary of such program. A "subrecipient" may also be a recipient of other State or federal awards directly from a State or federal awarding agency.

"Suspension" means a post-award action by the State or federal agency or pass-through entity that temporarily withdraws the State or federal agency's or pass-through entity's financial assistance sponsorship under an award, pending corrective action by the recipient or subrecipient or pending a decision to terminate the award.

"Uniform Administrative Requirements, Costs Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards" means those rules applicable to grants contained in 2 CFR 200.

"Voluntary committed cost sharing" means cost sharing specifically pledged on a voluntary basis in the proposal's budget or the award on the part of the non-federal entity and that becomes a binding requirement of the award.

(Source: P.A. 103-616, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 255. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.33 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.33)

Sec. 8.33. Exempt mandate.

(a) (Blank). Notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of Section 5-42 of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 96-139, 96-251, 96-260, 96-285, 96-297, 96-299, 96-343, 96-357, 96-410, 96-429, 96-494, 96-505, 96-621, 96-650, 96-727, 96-745, 96-749, 96-775, 96-841, or 96-843.

(c) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Identity Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-139, eff. 1-1-10; 96-251, eff. 8-11-09; 96-260, eff. 8-11-09; 96-285, eff. 8-11-09; 96-297, eff. 8-11-09; 96-299, eff. 8-11-09; 96-343, eff. 8-11-09; 96-357, eff. 8-13-09; 96-410, eff. 7-1-10; 96-429, eff. 8-13-09; 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-505, eff. 8-14-09; 96-621, eff. 1-1-10; 96-650, eff. 1-1-10; 96-727, eff. 8-25-09; 96-745, eff. 8-25-09; 96-749, eff. 1-1-10; 96-775, eff. 8-28-09; 96-841, eff. 12-23-09; 96-843, eff. 6-1-10; 96-874, eff. 6-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 260. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 203, 244, 304, and 704A and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 241 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act;

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-20.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of a distribution from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code, other than a distribution from a qualified ABLE program created under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529A(c)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section;

(D-21.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of the transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 or a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by this State to an ABLE account established under an out-of-state ABLE account program, an amount equal to the contribution component of the transferred amount that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) or subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-22) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 1, 2018, in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified expenses at an eligible education institution, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(y) of this Section, provided that the withdrawal or refund did not result from the beneficiary's death or disability. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018: (1) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund, as defined under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section, and (2) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified disability expenses, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-23) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-24) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(D-25) In the case of a resident, an amount equal to the amount of tax for which a credit is allowed pursuant to Section 201(p)(7) of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this subparagraph (E) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code or of any itemized deduction taken from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For purposes of this subparagraph, contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee. This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(FF) An amount equal to any amount awarded to the taxpayer during the taxable year by the Court of Claims under subsection (c) of Section 8 of the Court of Claims Act for time unjustly served in a State prison. This subparagraph (FF) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(GG) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (GG), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (GG). This subparagraph (GG) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(HH) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 and prior to January 1, 2028, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to a qualified ABLE account under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) or Section 529A(c)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (HH). For purposes of this subparagraph (HH), contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee;

(II) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2021 and begin before January 1, 2026, the amount that is included in the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to Section 61 of the Internal Revenue Code as discharge of indebtedness attributable to student loan forgiveness and that is not excluded from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (f) of Section 108 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(JJ) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (JJ) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(KK) To the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, any amount awarded or paid to the taxpayer as a result of a judgment or settlement for fertility fraud as provided in Section 15 of the Illinois Fertility Fraud Act, donor fertility fraud as provided in Section 20 of the Illinois Fertility Fraud Act, or similar action in another state; and

(LL) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, if the taxpayer is a qualified worker, as defined in the Workforce Development through Charitable Loan Repayment Act, an amount equal to the amount included in the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income that is attributable to student loan repayment assistance received by the taxpayer during the taxable year from a qualified community foundation under the provisions of the Workforce Development through Through Charitable Loan Repayment Act.

This subparagraph (LL) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and .

(MM) (LL) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, if the taxpayer is an eligible resident as defined in the Medical Debt Relief Act, an amount equal to the amount included in the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income that is attributable to medical debt relief received by the taxpayer during the taxable year from a nonprofit medical debt relief coordinator under the provisions of the Medical Debt Relief Act. This subparagraph (MM) (LL) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

(E-16) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(E-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-18) for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-19) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-20) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Sections 243(e) and 245A(a) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-21) the amount that is claimed as a federal deduction when computing the taxpayer's federal taxable income for the taxable year and that is attributable to an endowment gift for which the taxpayer receives a credit under the Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b)(5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, amounts disallowed as deductions by Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code and the policyholders' share of tax-exempt interest of a life insurance company under Section 807(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company with gross income from a decrease in reserves for the tax year) or Section 807(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company allowed a deduction for an increase in reserves for the tax year); the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to the taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 965 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. For taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, (i) for purposes of this subparagraph, the term "dividend" does not include any amount treated as a dividend under Section 1248 of the Internal Revenue Code, and (ii) this subparagraph shall not apply to dividends for which a deduction is allowed under Section 245(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) The difference between the nondeductible controlled foreign corporation dividends under Section 965(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code over the taxable income of the taxpayer, computed without regard to Section 965(e)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, and without regard to any net operating loss deduction. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2)(A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, and prior to December 31, 2011, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year and, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall mean all amounts included in life insurance gross income under Section 803(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act;

(G-15) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(G-16) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(G-17) the amount that is claimed as a federal deduction when computing the taxpayer's federal taxable income for the taxable year and that is attributable to an endowment gift for which the taxpayer receives a credit under the Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) in the case of an estate, an amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted by the decedent from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from Section 250;

(X) an amount equal to the refund included in such total of any tax deducted for federal income tax purposes, to the extent that deduction was added back under subparagraph (F). This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2026, the amount of excess business loss of the taxpayer disallowed as a deduction by Section 461(l)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(AA) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (AA) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act;

(D-10) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-11) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(D-12) the amount that is claimed as a federal deduction when computing the taxpayer's federal taxable income for the taxable year and that is attributable to an endowment gift for which the taxpayer receives a credit under the Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater; this subparagraph (H) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code; this subparagraph (I) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1-bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250;

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250;

(T) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (T), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (T). This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(U) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for any cannabis establishment operating in this State and licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or any cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis dispensing organization operating in this State and licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, an amount equal to the deductions that were disallowed under Section 280E of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year and that would not be added back under this subsection. The provisions of this subparagraph (U) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b)(3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code, but without regard to the prohibition against offsetting losses from patronage activities against income from nonpatronage activities; except that a cooperative corporation or association may make an election to follow its federal income tax treatment of patronage losses and nonpatronage losses. In the event such election is made, such losses shall be computed and carried over in a manner consistent with subsection (a) of Section 207 of this Act and apportioned by the apportionment factor reported by the cooperative on its Illinois income tax return filed for the taxable year in which the losses are incurred. The election shall be effective for all taxable years with original returns due on or after the date of the election. In addition, the cooperative may file an amended return or returns, as allowed under this Act, to provide that the election shall be effective for losses incurred or carried forward for taxable years occurring prior to the date of the election. Once made, the election may only be revoked upon approval of the Director. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth requirements for documenting the elections and any resulting Illinois net loss and the standards to be used by the Director in evaluating requests to revoke elections. Public Act 96-932 is declaratory of existing law;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a)(2)(G), (c)(2)(I) and (d)(2)(E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a)(2)(F) or (c)(2)(H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1112, eff. 12-21-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-478, eff. 1-1-24; 103-592, Article 10, Section 10-900, eff. 6-7-24; 103-592, Article 170, Section 170-90, eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-647, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-20-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/241)

Sec. 241. Credit for quantum computing campuses.

(a) A taxpayer who has been awarded a credit by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 605-1115 605-115 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act. The amount of the credit shall be 20% of the wages paid by the taxpayer during the taxable year to a full-time or part-time employee of a construction contractor employed in the construction of an eligible facility located on a quantum computing campus designated under Section 605-1115 605-115 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b) In no event shall a credit under this Section reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The tax credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits for more than one year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(c) A person claiming the credit allowed under this Section shall attach to its Illinois income tax return for the taxable year for which the credit is allowed a copy of the tax credit certificate issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(d) Partners and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations are entitled to a credit under this Section as provided in Section 251.

(e) As used in this Section, "eligible facility" means a building used primarily to house one or more of the following: a quantum computer operator; a research facility; a data center; a manufacturer and assembler of quantum computers and component parts; a cryogenic or refrigeration facility; or any other facility determined, by industry and academic leaders, to be fundamental to the research and development of quantum computing for practical solutions.

(f) This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(Source: P.A. 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/242)

Sec. 242 241. Music and Musicians Tax Credits and Jobs Act. Taxpayers who have been awarded a credit under the Music and Musicians Tax Credits and Jobs Act are entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an amount determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under that Act. The credit shall be claimed in the taxable year in which the tax credit award certificate is issued, and the certificate shall be attached to the return. If the taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation, the credit shall be allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the provisions of Section 251.

The credit may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one tax year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, Article 52, Section 52-5, eff. 6-7-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/243)

Sec. 243 241. The Illinois Gives tax credit.

(a) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2025 and ending before January 1, 2030, each taxpayer for whom a tax credit has been authorized by the Department of Revenue under the Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act is entitled to a credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 in an amount equal to the amount authorized under that Act.

(b) For partners of partnerships and shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, there is allowed a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with Section 251 of this Act.

(c) The credit may not be carried back and may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The tax credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits for more than one year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, Article 170, Section 170-90, eff. 6-7-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/244)

Sec. 244. Child tax credit.

(a) For the taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2024, each individual taxpayer who has at least one qualifying child who is younger than 12 years of age as of the last day of the taxable year is entitled to a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201. For tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2024 and before January 1, 2025, the credit shall be equal to 20% of the credit allowed to the taxpayer under Section 212 of this Act for that taxable year. For tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, the amount of the credit shall be equal to 40% of the credit allowed to the taxpayer under Section 212 of this Act for that taxable year.

(b) If the amount of the credit exceeds the income tax liability for the applicable tax year, then the excess credit shall be refunded to the taxpayer. The amount of the refund under this Section shall not be included in the taxpayer's income or resources for the purposes of determining eligibility or benefit level in any means-tested benefit program administered by a governmental entity unless required by federal law.

(c) The Department may adopt rules to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(d) As used in this Section, "qualifying child" has the meaning given to that term in Section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(e) This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)

Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.

(a) In general. The business income of a person other than a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's business income is derived solely from this State. If a person other than a resident derives business income from this State and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, such person's business income shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4 reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, persons other than residents who derive business income from this State and one or more other states shall compute their apportionment factor by weighting their property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(1) Property factor.

(A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the average value of the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business in this State during the taxable year and the denominator of which is the average value of all the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable year.

(B) Property owned by the person is valued at its original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.

(C) The average value of property shall be determined by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the taxable year, but the Director may require the averaging of monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably required to reflect properly the average value of the person's property.

(2) Payroll factor.

(A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount paid in this State during the taxable year by the person for compensation, and the denominator of which is the total compensation paid everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Compensation is paid in this State if:

(i) The individual's service is performed entirely within this State;

(ii) The individual's service is performed both within and without this State, but the service performed without this State is incidental to the individual's service performed within this State; or

(iii) For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2020, some of the service is performed within this State and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations, the place from which the service is directed or controlled is within this State, or the base of operations or the place from which the service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed, but the individual's residence is in this State. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2020, compensation is paid in this State if some of the individual's service is performed within this State, the individual's service performed within this State is nonincidental to the individual's service performed without this State, and the individual's service is performed within this State for more than 30 working days during the tax year. The amount of compensation paid in this State shall include the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed on behalf of his or her employer during the tax year which the number of working days spent within this State during the tax year bears to the total number of working days spent both within and without this State during the tax year. For purposes of this paragraph:

(a) The term "working day" means all days during the tax year in which the individual performs duties on behalf of his or her employer. All days in which the individual performs no duties on behalf of his or her employer (e.g., weekends, vacation days, sick days, and holidays) are not working days.

(b) A working day is spent within this State if:

(1) the individual performs service on behalf of the employer and a greater amount of time on that day is spent by the individual performing duties on behalf of the employer within this State, without regard to time spent traveling, than is spent performing duties on behalf of the employer without this State; or

(2) the only service the individual performs on behalf of the employer on that day is traveling to a destination within this State, and the individual arrives on that day.

(c) Working days spent within this State do not include any day in which the employee is performing services in this State during a disaster period solely in response to a request made to his or her employer by the government of this State, by any political subdivision of this State, or by a person conducting business in this State to perform disaster or emergency-related services in this State. For purposes of this item (c):

"Declared State disaster or emergency" means a disaster or emergency event (i) for which a Governor's proclamation of a state of emergency has been issued or (ii) for which a Presidential declaration of a federal major disaster or emergency has been issued.

"Disaster period" means a period that begins 10 days prior to the date of the Governor's proclamation or the President's declaration (whichever is earlier) and extends for a period of 60 calendar days after the end of the declared disaster or emergency period.

"Disaster or emergency-related services" means repairing, renovating, installing, building, or rendering services or conducting other business activities that relate to infrastructure that has been damaged, impaired, or destroyed by the declared State disaster or emergency.

"Infrastructure" means property and equipment owned or used by a public utility, communications network, broadband and Internet internet service provider, cable and video service provider, electric or gas distribution system, or water pipeline that provides service to more than one customer or person, including related support facilities. "Infrastructure" includes, but is not limited to, real and personal property such as buildings, offices, power lines, cable lines, poles, communications lines, pipes, structures, and equipment.

(iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional athletes.

(a) General. The Illinois source income of a nonresident individual who is a member of a professional athletic team includes the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team during the taxable year which the number of duty days spent within this State performing services for the team in any manner during the taxable year bears to the total number of duty days spent both within and without this State during the taxable year.

(b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar team event are not considered duty days spent in this State. However, such travel days are considered in the total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart (iv):

(1) The term "professional athletic team" includes, but is not limited to, any professional baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey team.

(2) The term "member of a professional athletic team" includes those employees who are active players, players on the disabled list, and any other persons required to travel and who travel with and perform services on behalf of a professional athletic team on a regular basis. This includes, but is not limited to, coaches, managers, and trainers.

(3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all days during the taxable year from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in which they occur, including where a team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one tax year.

(A) Duty days shall also include days on which a member of a professional athletic team performs service for a team on a date that does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans"). Performing a service for a professional athletic team includes conducting training and rehabilitation activities, when such activities are conducted at team facilities.

(B) Also included in duty days are game days, practice days, days spent at team meetings, promotional caravans, preseason training camps, and days served with the team through all post-season games in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete.

(C) Duty days for any person who joins a team during the period from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes, or is scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day that person joins the team. Conversely, duty days for any person who leaves a team during this period shall end on the day that person leaves the team. Where a person switches teams during a taxable year, a separate duty-day calculation shall be made for the period the person was with each team.

(D) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is not compensated and is not performing services for the team in any manner, including days when such member of a professional athletic team has been suspended without pay and prohibited from performing any services for the team, shall not be treated as duty days.

(E) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is on the disabled list and does not conduct rehabilitation activities at facilities of the team, and is not otherwise performing services for the team in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days spent in this State. All days on the disabled list, however, are considered to be included in total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(4) The term "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" means the total compensation received during the taxable year for services performed:

(A) from the beginning of the official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete during that taxable year; and

(B) during the taxable year on a date which does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).

This compensation shall include, but is not limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described in this subpart, and any other type of compensation paid during the taxable year to a member of a professional athletic team for services performed in that year. This compensation does not include strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay, contract or option year buy-out payments, expansion or relocation payments, or any other payments not related to services performed for the team.

For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses" included in "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" subject to the allocation described in Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the season, including bonuses paid for championship, playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for selection to all-star league or other honorary positions; and bonuses paid for signing a contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus is not conditional upon the signee playing any games for the team or performing any subsequent services for the team or even making the team, the signing bonus is payable separately from the salary and any other compensation, and the signing bonus is nonrefundable.

(3) Sales factor.

(A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total sales of the person in this State during the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this State if:

(i) The property is delivered or shipped to a purchaser, other than the United States government, within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or other conditions of the sale; or

(ii) The property is shipped from an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this State and either the purchaser is the United States government or the person is not taxable in the state of the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned or leased by a person who has independently contracted with the seller for the printing of newspapers, periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible personal property are not in this State if the seller and purchaser would be members of the same unitary business group but for the fact that either the seller or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total business activity outside of the United States and the property is purchased for resale.

(B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property.

(i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark, or similar item of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is utilized in this State during the year the gross receipts are included in gross income.

(ii) Place of utilization.

(I) A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser from sales or leases of items produced, fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that state using the patent and of patented items produced within that state, divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the patent is utilized.

(II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of materials printed or published in that state divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the copyright is utilized.

(III) Trademarks and other items of intangible personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1) are utilized in the state in which the commercial domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.

(iii) If the state of utilization of an item of property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be determined from the taxpayer's books and records or from the books and records of any person related to the taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor.

(B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales, or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50% of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross income during the tax year and during each of the 2 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such determination shall be made on the basis of the gross receipts of the entire unitary business group.

(B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii), receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the customer's service address is in this State.

(i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Ancillary services" means services that are associated with or incidental to the provision of "telecommunications services", including, but not limited to, "detailed telecommunications billing", "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice mail services".

"Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99, in which common carriers are authorized to offer and provide radio telecommunications service for hire to subscribers in aircraft.

"Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging for telecommunications services where the price is measured by individual calls.

"Communications Channel" means a physical or virtual path of communications over which signals are transmitted between or among customer channel termination points.

"Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary service" that links two or more participants of an audio or video conference call and may include the provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging service" does not include the "telecommunications services" used to reach the conference bridge.

"Customer Channel Termination Point" means the location where the customer either inputs or receives the communications.

"Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an "ancillary service" of separately stating information pertaining to individual calls on a customer's billing statement.

"Directory assistance" means an "ancillary service" of providing telephone number information, and/or address information.

"Home service provider" means the facilities based carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts for the provision of mobile telecommunications services.

"Mobile telecommunications service" means commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as in effect on June 1, 1999.

"Place of primary use" means the street address representative of where the customer's use of the telecommunications service primarily occurs, which must be the residential street address or the primary business street address of the customer. In the case of mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary use" must be within the licensed service area of the home service provider.

"Post-paid telecommunication service" means the telecommunications service obtained by making a payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by charge made to a telephone number which is not associated with the origination or termination of the telecommunications service. A post-paid calling service includes telecommunications service, except a prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a telecommunication service.

"Prepaid telecommunication service" means the right to access exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize mobile wireless service as well as other non-telecommunication services, including, but not limited to, ancillary services, which must be paid for in advance that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Private communication service" means a telecommunication service that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels between or among termination points, regardless of the manner in which such channel or channels are connected, and includes switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any other associated services that are provided in connection with the use of such channel or channels.

"Service address" means:

(a) The location of the telecommunications equipment to which a customer's call is charged and from which the call originates or terminates, regardless of where the call is billed or paid;

(b) If the location in line (a) is not known, service address means the origination point of the signal of the telecommunications services first identified by either the seller's telecommunications system or in information received by the seller from its service provider where the system used to transport such signals is not that of the seller; and

(c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b) are not known, the service address means the location of the customer's place of primary use.

"Telecommunications service" means the electronic transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, or any other information or signals to a point, or between or among points. The term "telecommunications service" includes such transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, code or protocol of the content for purposes of transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to whether such service is referred to as voice over Internet protocol services or is classified by the Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:

(a) Data processing and information services that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and delivered by an electronic transmission to a purchaser when such purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the processed data or information;

(b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a customer's premises;

(c) Tangible personal property;

(d) Advertising, including, but not limited to, directory advertising;

(e) Billing and collection services provided to third parties;

(f) Internet access service;

(g) Radio and television audio and video programming services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of transmission, conveyance and routing of such services by the programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video programming services shall include, but not be limited to, cable service as defined in 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;

(h) "Ancillary services"; or

(i) Digital products "delivered electronically", including, but not limited to, software, music, video, reading materials or ringtones ring tones.

"Vertical service" means an "ancillary service" that is offered in connection with one or more "telecommunications services", which offers advanced calling features that allow customers to identify callers and to manage multiple calls and call connections, including "conference bridging services".

"Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service" that enables the customer to store, send or receive recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not include any "vertical services" that the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail service".

(ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in this State if either of the following applies:

(a) The call both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) The call either originates or terminates in this State and the service address is located in this State.

(iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the origination point of the telecommunication signal, as first identified by the service provider's telecommunication system or as identified by information received by the seller from its service provider if the system used to transport telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is located in this State.

(iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid telecommunications service or prepaid mobile telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar means of conveyance at a location in this State. Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service is in this State if the purchaser's billing information indicates a location in this State.

(v) Receipts from the sale of private communication services are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at each channel termination point in this State.

(b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total channel mileage between each channel termination point in this State.

(c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for service segments when those segments are between 2 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is located in this State and the other is located outside of this State, which segments are separately charged.

(d) The receipts from charges for service segments with a channel termination point located in this State and in two or more other states, and which segments are not separately billed, are in this State based on a percentage determined by dividing the number of customer channel termination points in this State by the total number of customer channel termination points.

(vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services for telecommunications service sold to customers at retail are in this State if the customer's primary place of use of telecommunications services associated with those ancillary services is in this State. If the seller of those ancillary services cannot determine where the associated telecommunications are located, then the ancillary services shall be based on the location of the purchaser.

(vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or from the sale of telecommunication services or ancillary services for resale are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of the receipts from access fees attributable to intrastate telecommunications service that both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) 50% of the receipts from access fees attributable to interstate telecommunications service if the interstate call either originates or terminates in this State.

(c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end user access line charges, if the customer's service address is in this State. As used in this subdivision, "interstate end user access line charges" includes, but is not limited to, the surcharge approved by the federal communications commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.

(d) Gross receipts from sales of telecommunication services or from ancillary services for telecommunications services sold to other telecommunication service providers for resale shall be sourced to this State using the apportionment concepts used for non-resale receipts of telecommunications services if the information is readily available to make that determination. If the information is not readily available, then the taxpayer may use any other reasonable and consistent method.

(B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are in this State if the broadcasting services are received in this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Advertising revenue" means consideration received by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or announcements in connection with the broadcasting of film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the programming, or from product placements in the programming.

"Audience factor" means the ratio that the audience or subscribers located in this State of a station, a network, or a cable system bears to the total audience or total subscribers for that station, network, or cable system. The audience factor for film or radio programming shall be determined by reference to the books and records of the taxpayer or by reference to published rating statistics provided the method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the taxpayer's activity in this State.

"Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting services" means the transmission or provision of film or radio programming, whether through the public airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite transmission, or by any other means of communication, either through a station, a network, or a cable system.

"Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast on television of any and all performances, events, or productions, including, but not limited to, news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any other type of format or medium. Each episode of a series of films produced for television shall constitute a separate "film" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

"Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast on radio of any and all performances, events, or productions, including, but not limited to, news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any other format or medium. Each episode in a series of radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall constitute a separate "radio programming" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

(i) In the case of advertising revenue from broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and the service is received in this State if the commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this State.

(ii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration received from the recipient of the broadcast, the portion of the service that is received in this State is measured by the portion of the recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for such service that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total of those fees or other remuneration received from recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location of the recipients of its broadcast using the address of the recipient shown in its contracts with the recipient or using the billing address of the recipient in the taxpayer's records.

(iii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration from the person providing the programming, the portion of the broadcast service that is received by such station, network, or cable system in this State is measured by the portion of recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the amount of revenue related to such an arrangement that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or other total remuneration from the person providing the programming related to that broadcast multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for that broadcast.

(iv) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a network or station to a customer for broadcast in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that customer the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(v) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or station to another person for broadcasting in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that person, the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section 13.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013.

(B-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2019, gross receipts from winnings from pari-mutuel wagering conducted at a wagering facility licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or from winnings from gambling games conducted on a riverboat or in a casino or organization gaming facility licensed under the Illinois Gambling Act are in this State.

(B-10) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2021, gross receipts from winnings from sports wagering conducted in accordance with the Sports Wagering Act are in this State.

(C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:

(i) The income-producing activity is performed in this State; or

(ii) The income-producing activity is performed both within and without this State and a greater proportion of the income-producing activity is performed within this State than without this State, based on performance costs.

(C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of the following criteria are met:

(i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property are in this State if the property is located in this State.

(ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not less than zero) and other items of income from intangible personal property, the sale is in this State if:

(a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer in the item of intangible personal property within the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue Code, the income or gain is received from a customer in this State. For purposes of this subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a resident of this State and, for all other customers, if the customer's commercial domicile is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile of a customer during a taxable year, the customer shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if the billing address of the customer, as shown in the records of the dealer, is in this State; or

(b) in all other cases, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed in this State or, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed both within and without this State, if a greater proportion of the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed within this State than in any other state, based on performance costs.

(iv) Sales of services are in this State if the services are received in this State. For the purposes of this section, gross receipts from the performance of services provided to a corporation, partnership, or trust may only be attributed to a state where that corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of business. If the state where the services are received is not readily determinable or is a state where the corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the service does not have a fixed place of business, the services shall be deemed to be received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be determined, the services shall be deemed to be received at the office of the customer to which the services are billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in which the services are received, the sale must be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules prescribing where specific types of service are received, including, but not limited to, publishing, and utility service.

(D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995, the following items of income shall not be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor: dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in construing this Section for taxable years ending before December 31, 1995.

(E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1, 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business group, such election shall apply to all members of such group for every tax year such group is in existence, but shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which that taxpayer is not a member of such group.

(b) Insurance companies.

(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as may be prescribed in lieu thereof.

(2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums written by an insurance company consists of premiums for reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable, may, at the election of the company, be determined on the basis of the proportion which premiums written for reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State by each ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a company under this paragraph for its first taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years, and may be altered only with the written permission of the Department, which shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(c) Financial organizations.

(1) In general. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the business income of a financial organization from sources within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the adjusted income of an international banking facility as determined in paragraph (2):

(A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for financial services rendered within this State;

(B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or other securities managed within this State;

(C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois customers, which are received within this State;

(D) Interest charged to customers at places of business maintained within this State for carrying debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and

(E) Any other gross income resulting from the operation as a financial organization within this State.

In computing the amounts referred to in paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any amount received by a member of an affiliated group (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such corporation is an "includible corporation" under Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from another member of such group shall be included only to the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the recipient directly related thereto.

(2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008:

(A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an international banking facility is its income reduced by the amount of the floor amount.

(B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of the international banking facility by a fraction, not greater than one, which is determined as follows:

(i) The numerator shall be:

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the financial organization's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, as reported for its branches, agencies and offices within the state on its "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A, Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980, minus

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of an international banking facility), as reported by the financial institution for its branches, agencies and offices within the state, on the corresponding Schedule and lines of the Consolidated Report of Condition for the current taxable year, provided, however, that in no case shall the amount determined in this clause (the subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the preceding clause (the minuend); and

(ii) the denominator shall be the average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the international banking facility's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, which were recorded in its financial accounts for the current taxable year.

(C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities is altered so that the information required for determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution shall notify the Department and the Department may, by regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the use of an alternative source for such information. The financial institution shall also notify the Department should its international banking facility fail to qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such amendment or change alters the information used in determining the floor amount.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year. "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3) means gross income, including net taxable gain on disposition of assets, including securities and money market instruments, when derived from transactions and activities in the regular course of the financial organization's trade or business. The following examples are illustrative:

(i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are from sources in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from assets in the nature of loans that are secured primarily by real estate or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the security is located in this State.

(iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the debtor is a resident of this State.

(iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans and installment obligations that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts are from sources in this State if the office of the borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the regular course of business is located in this State. If the location of this office cannot be determined, the income and receipts shall be excluded from the numerator and denominator of the sales factor.

(v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition, service charges, merchant discount income, and other receipts from credit card receivables are from sources in this State if the card charges are regularly billed to a customer in this State.

(vi) Receipts from the performance of services, including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory, and brokerage services, are in this State if the services are received in this State within the meaning of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.

(vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers checks and money orders are from sources in this State if the checks and money orders are issued from a location within this State.

(viii) For tax years ending before December 31, 2024, receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero) and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include, but are not limited to: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in such subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including, but not limited to, assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all such income from such assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such funds and such securities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such funds and such securities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including, but not limited to, assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such trading assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(D) Properly assigned, for purposes of this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means the investment or trading asset or activity is assigned to the fixed place of business with which it has a preponderance of substantive contacts. An investment or trading asset or activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed place of business without the State shall be presumed to have been properly assigned if:

(i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the regular course of its business, such asset or activity on its records to a fixed place of business consistent with federal or state regulatory requirements;

(ii) such assignment on its records is based upon substantive contacts of the asset or activity to such fixed place of business; and

(iii) the taxpayer uses such records reflecting assignment of such assets or activities for the filing of all state and local tax returns for which an assignment of such assets or activities to a fixed place of business is required.

(E) The presumption of proper assignment of an investment or trading asset or activity provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection may be rebutted upon a showing by the Department, supported by a preponderance of the evidence, that the preponderance of substantive contacts regarding such asset or activity did not occur at the fixed place of business to which it was assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the fixed place of business that has a preponderance of substantive contacts cannot be determined for an investment or trading asset or activity to which the presumption in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection does not apply or with respect to which that presumption has been rebutted, that asset or activity is properly assigned to the state in which the taxpayer's commercial domicile is located. For purposes of this subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed, subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's commercial domicile is in the state of the United States or the District of Columbia to which the greatest number of employees are regularly connected with the management of the investment or trading income or out of which they are working, irrespective of where the services of such employees are performed, as of the last day of the taxable year.

(ix) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2024, receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include, but are not limited to the following: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts, such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in those subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including, but not limited to, assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all of the income from those assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the total receipts included in the numerator pursuant to items (i) through (vii) of this subparagraph (3) and the denominator of which is all total receipts included in the denominator, other than interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the total receipts included in the numerator pursuant to items (i) through (vii) of this subparagraph (3) and the denominator of which is all total receipts included in the denominator, other than interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including, but not limited to, assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the total receipts included in the numerator pursuant to items (i) through (vii) of this subparagraph (3) and the denominator of which is all total receipts included in the denominator, other than interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For purposes of this subsection, the business income within this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the following:

(1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is located in this State.

(2) Receipts attributable to all other matching, execution, or clearing transactions, including without limitation receipts from the provision of matching, execution, or clearing services to another entity, multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013, 27.54%.

(3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State" under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.

"Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B), or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange, determined without regard to the prohibition in Section 1501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of this Section; provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or more of the business receipts of the unitary business group determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.

In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1) for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied to the taxpayer.

(d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):

(1) Such business income (other than that derived from transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of transportation by railroad, and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(2) Such business income derived from transportation by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil, 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a consideration.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from providing transportation services other than airline services shall be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that both originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that originates in one state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the miles traveled in this State bears to total miles everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall first be determined separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Surface Transportation Board, in the case of transportation by railroad; and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline transportation services shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts from passenger and freight airline transportation.

(e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection (a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this State by one or more members of the group, the business income attributable to this State by any such member or members shall be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.

(f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the person's goods, services, or other sources of business income, the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of the person's business activity, if reasonable:

(1) Separate accounting;

(2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;

(3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which will fairly represent the person's business activities or market in this State; or

(4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's business income.

(g) Cross-reference Cross reference. For allocation of business income by residents, see Section 301(a).

(h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:

(1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of the sales factor;

(2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales factor;

(3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000, the sales factor. If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll, property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is equal to zero.

(Source: P.A. 102-40, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-16-24.)

(35 ILCS 5/704A)

Sec. 704A. Employer's return and payment of tax withheld.

(a) In general, every employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act on or after January 1, 2008 shall make those payments and returns as provided in this Section.

(b) Returns. Every employer shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, make returns with respect to taxes withheld or required to be withheld under this Article 7 for each quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2008, on or before the last day of the first month following the close of that quarter.

(c) Payments. With respect to amounts withheld or required to be withheld on or after January 1, 2008:

(1) Semi-weekly payments. For each calendar year, each employer who withheld or was required to withhold more than $12,000 during the one-year period ending on June 30 of the immediately preceding calendar year, payment must be made:

(A) on or before each Friday of the calendar year, for taxes withheld or required to be withheld on the immediately preceding Saturday, Sunday, Monday, or Tuesday;

(B) on or before each Wednesday of the calendar year, for taxes withheld or required to be withheld on the immediately preceding Wednesday, Thursday, or Friday.

Beginning with calendar year 2011, payments made under this paragraph (1) of subsection (c) must be made by electronic funds transfer.

(2) Semi-weekly payments. Any employer who withholds or is required to withhold more than $12,000 in any quarter of a calendar year is required to make payments on the dates set forth under item (1) of this subsection (c) for each remaining quarter of that calendar year and for the subsequent calendar year.

(3) Monthly payments. Each employer, other than an employer described in items (1) or (2) of this subsection, shall pay to the Department, on or before the 15th day of each month the taxes withheld or required to be withheld during the immediately preceding month.

(4) Payments with returns. Each employer shall pay to the Department, on or before the due date for each return required to be filed under this Section, any tax withheld or required to be withheld during the period for which the return is due and not previously paid to the Department.

(d) Regulatory authority. The Department may, by rule:

(1) Permit employers, in lieu of the requirements of subsections (b) and (c), to file annual returns due on or before January 31 of the year for taxes withheld or required to be withheld during the previous calendar year and, if the aggregate amounts required to be withheld by the employer under this Article 7 (other than amounts required to be withheld under Section 709.5) do not exceed $1,000 for the previous calendar year, to pay the taxes required to be shown on each such return no later than the due date for such return.

(2) Provide that any payment required to be made under subsection (c)(1) or (c)(2) is deemed to be timely to the extent paid by electronic funds transfer on or before the due date for deposit of federal income taxes withheld from, or federal employment taxes due with respect to, the wages from which the Illinois taxes were withheld.

(3) Designate one or more depositories to which payment of taxes required to be withheld under this Article 7 must be paid by some or all employers.

(4) Increase the threshold dollar amounts at which employers are required to make semi-weekly payments under subsection (c)(1) or (c)(2).

(e) Annual return and payment. Every employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax from a person engaged in domestic service employment, as that term is defined in Section 3510 of the Internal Revenue Code, may comply with the requirements of this Section with respect to such employees by filing an annual return and paying the taxes required to be deducted and withheld on or before the 15th day of the fourth month following the close of the employer's taxable year. The Department may allow the employer's return to be submitted with the employer's individual income tax return or to be submitted with a return due from the employer under Section 1400.2 of the Unemployment Insurance Act.

(f) Magnetic media and electronic filing. With respect to taxes withheld in calendar years prior to 2017, any W-2 Form that, under the Internal Revenue Code and regulations promulgated thereunder, is required to be submitted to the Internal Revenue Service on magnetic media or electronically must also be submitted to the Department on magnetic media or electronically for Illinois purposes, if required by the Department.

With respect to taxes withheld in 2017 and subsequent calendar years, the Department may, by rule, require that any return (including any amended return) under this Section and any W-2 Form that is required to be submitted to the Department must be submitted on magnetic media or electronically.

The due date for submitting W-2 Forms shall be as prescribed by the Department by rule.

(g) For amounts deducted or withheld after December 31, 2009, a taxpayer who makes an election under subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for a taxable year shall be allowed a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first calendar year beginning after the end of that taxable year equal to the amount of the credit for the incremental income tax attributable to full-time employees of the taxpayer awarded to the taxpayer by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for the taxable year and credits not previously claimed and allowed to be carried forward under Section 211(4) of this Act as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act. The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the calendar year, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the succeeding calendar years as allowed to be carried forward under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one taxable year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. Each employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act and who retains income tax withholdings under subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act must make a return with respect to such taxes and retained amounts in the form and manner that the Department, by rule, requires and pay to the Department or to a depositary designated by the Department those withheld taxes not retained by the taxpayer. For purposes of this subsection (g), the term taxpayer shall include taxpayer and members of the taxpayer's unitary business group as defined under paragraph (27) of subsection (a) of Section 1501 of this Act. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act. No credit awarded under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2015 may be credited against payments due under this Section.

(g-1) For amounts deducted or withheld after December 31, 2024, a taxpayer who makes an election under the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act shall be allowed a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first quarterly reporting period beginning after the certificate is issued equal to the portion of the REV Illinois Credit attributable to the incremental income tax attributable to new employees and retained employees as certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity pursuant to an agreement with the taxpayer under the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act for the taxable year. The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the quarterly reporting period, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the succeeding quarterly reporting period as allowed to be carried forward under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest quarterly reporting period for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one quarterly reporting period that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. Each employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act and who retains income tax withholdings this subsection must make a return with respect to such taxes and retained amounts in the form and manner that the Department, by rule, requires and pay to the Department or to a depositary designated by the Department those withheld taxes not retained by the taxpayer. For purposes of this subsection (g-1), the term taxpayer shall include taxpayer and members of the taxpayer's unitary business group as defined under paragraph (27) of subsection (a) of Section 1501 of this Act. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

(g-2) For amounts deducted or withheld after December 31, 2024, a taxpayer who makes an election under the Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act shall be allowed a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first quarterly reporting period beginning after the certificate is issued equal to the portion of the MICRO Illinois Credit attributable to the incremental income tax attributable to new employees and retained employees as certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity pursuant to an agreement with the taxpayer under the Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act for the taxable year. The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the quarterly reporting period, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the succeeding quarterly reporting period as allowed to be carried forward under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest quarterly reporting period for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one quarterly reporting period that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. Each employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act and who retains income tax withholdings this subsection must make a return with respect to such taxes and retained amounts in the form and manner that the Department, by rule, requires and pay to the Department or to a depositary designated by the Department those withheld taxes not retained by the taxpayer. For purposes of this subsection, the term taxpayer shall include taxpayer and members of the taxpayer's unitary business group as defined under paragraph (27) of subsection (a) of Section 1501 of this Act. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

(h) An employer may claim a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first calendar year ending after the date on which a tax credit certificate was issued under Section 35 of the Small Business Job Creation Tax Credit Act. The credit shall be equal to the amount shown on the certificate, but may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the calendar year, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the 5 succeeding calendar years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one calendar year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

(i) Each employer with 50 or fewer full-time equivalent employees during the reporting period may claim a credit against the payments due under this Section for each qualified employee in an amount equal to the maximum credit allowable. The credit may be taken against payments due for reporting periods that begin on or after January 1, 2020, and end on or before December 31, 2027. An employer may not claim a credit for an employee who has worked fewer than 90 consecutive days immediately preceding the reporting period; however, such credits may accrue during that 90-day period and be claimed against payments under this Section for future reporting periods after the employee has worked for the employer at least 90 consecutive days. In no event may the credit exceed the employer's liability for the reporting period. Each employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act and who retains income tax withholdings under this subsection must make a return with respect to such taxes and retained amounts in the form and manner that the Department, by rule, requires and pay to the Department or to a depositary designated by the Department those withheld taxes not retained by the employer.

For each reporting period, the employer may not claim a credit or credits for more employees than the number of employees making less than the minimum or reduced wage for the current calendar year during the last reporting period of the preceding calendar year. Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection, an employer shall not be eligible for credits for a reporting period unless the average wage paid by the employer per employee for all employees making less than $55,000 during the reporting period is greater than the average wage paid by the employer per employee for all employees making less than $55,000 during the same reporting period of the prior calendar year.

For purposes of this subsection (i):

"Compensation paid in Illinois" has the meaning ascribed to that term under Section 304(a)(2)(B) of this Act.

"Employer" and "employee" have the meaning ascribed to those terms in the Minimum Wage Law, except that "employee" also includes employees who work for an employer with fewer than 4 employees. Employers that operate more than one establishment pursuant to a franchise agreement or that constitute members of a unitary business group shall aggregate their employees for purposes of determining eligibility for the credit.

"Full-time equivalent employees" means the ratio of the number of paid hours during the reporting period and the number of working hours in that period.

"Maximum credit" means the percentage listed below of the difference between the amount of compensation paid in Illinois to employees who are paid not more than the required minimum wage reduced by the amount of compensation paid in Illinois to employees who were paid less than the current required minimum wage during the reporting period prior to each increase in the required minimum wage on January 1. If an employer pays an employee more than the required minimum wage and that employee previously earned less than the required minimum wage, the employer may include the portion that does not exceed the required minimum wage as compensation paid in Illinois to employees who are paid not more than the required minimum wage.

(1) 25% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2020 and ending on or before December 31, 2020;

(2) 21% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2021 and ending on or before December 31, 2021;

(3) 17% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2022 and ending on or before December 31, 2022;

(4) 13% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2023 and ending on or before December 31, 2023;

(5) 9% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2024 and ending on or before December 31, 2024;

(6) 5% for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2025 and ending on or before December 31, 2025.

The amount computed under this subsection may continue to be claimed for reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2026 and:

(A) ending on or before December 31, 2026 for employers with more than 5 employees; or

(B) ending on or before December 31, 2027 for employers with no more than 5 employees.

"Qualified employee" means an employee who is paid not more than the required minimum wage and has an average wage paid per hour by the employer during the reporting period equal to or greater than his or her average wage paid per hour by the employer during each reporting period for the immediately preceding 12 months. A new qualified employee is deemed to have earned the required minimum wage in the preceding reporting period.

"Reporting period" means the quarter for which a return is required to be filed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2023, if a private employer grants all of its employees the option of taking a paid leave of absence of at least 30 days for the purpose of serving as an organ donor or bone marrow donor, then the private employer may take a credit against the payments due under this Section in an amount equal to the amount withheld under this Section with respect to wages paid while the employee is on organ donation leave, not to exceed $1,000 in withholdings for each employee who takes organ donation leave. To be eligible for the credit, such a leave of absence must be taken without loss of pay, vacation time, compensatory time, personal days, or sick time for at least the first 30 days of the leave of absence. The private employer shall adopt rules governing organ donation leave, including rules that (i) establish conditions and procedures for requesting and approving leave and (ii) require medical documentation of the proposed organ or bone marrow donation before leave is approved by the private employer. A private employer must provide, in the manner required by the Department, documentation from the employee's medical provider, which the private employer receives from the employee, that verifies the employee's organ donation. The private employer must also provide, in the manner required by the Department, documentation that shows that a qualifying organ donor leave policy was in place and offered to all qualifying employees at the time the leave was taken. For the private employer to receive the tax credit, the employee taking organ donor leave must allow for the applicable medical records to be disclosed to the Department. If the private employer cannot provide the required documentation to the Department, then the private employer is ineligible for the credit under this Section. A private employer must also provide, in the form required by the Department, any additional documentation or information required by the Department to administer the credit under this Section. The credit under this subsection (j) shall be taken within one year after the date upon which the organ donation leave begins. If the leave taken spans into a second tax year, the employer qualifies for the allowable credit in the later of the 2 years. If the amount of credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried and applied to the tax liability for the 3 taxable years following the excess credit year. The tax credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits for more than one year that are available to offset liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

Nothing in this subsection (j) prohibits a private employer from providing an unpaid leave of absence to its employees for the purpose of serving as an organ donor or bone marrow donor; however, if the employer's policy provides for fewer than 30 days of paid leave for organ or bone marrow donation, then the employer shall not be eligible for the credit under this Section.

As used in this subsection (j):

"Organ" means any biological tissue of the human body that may be donated by a living donor, including, but not limited to, the kidney, liver, lung, pancreas, intestine, bone, skin, or any subpart of those organs.

"Organ donor" means a person from whose body an organ is taken to be transferred to the body of another person.

"Private employer" means a sole proprietorship, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or other entity with one or more employees. "Private employer" does not include a municipality, county, State agency, or other public employer.

This subsection (j) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

(k) For reporting periods beginning on or after January 1, 2025 and before January 1, 2027, an employer may claim a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first reporting period to occur after the date on which a tax credit certificate is issued for a non-profit theater production under Section 10 of the Live Theater Production Tax Credit Act. The credit shall be equal to the amount shown on the certificate, but may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Article to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the total amount due under this Article with respect to amounts withheld during the first reporting period to occur after the date on which a tax credit certificate is issued, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section for reporting periods that occur in the 5 succeeding calendar years. The excess credit shall be applied to the earliest reporting period for which there is a payment due under this Article. If there are credits from more than one reporting period that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. The Department of Revenue, in cooperation with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, shall adopt rules to enforce and administer the provisions of this subsection.

(l) (k) A taxpayer who is issued a certificate under the Local Journalism Sustainability Act for a taxable year shall be allowed a credit against payments due under this Section as provided in that Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 102-700, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 110, Section 110-905, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-592, Article 40, Section 40-900, eff. 6-7-24; 103-592, Article 45, Section 45-10, eff. 6-7-24; revised 7-9-24.)

Section 265. The Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 5-56 as follows:

(35 ILCS 10/5-56)

Sec. 5-56. Annual report. Annually, until construction is completed, a company seeking New Construction EDGE Credits shall submit a report that, at a minimum, describes the projected project scope, timeline, and anticipated budget. Once the project has commenced, the annual report shall include actual data for the prior year as well as projections for each additional year through completion of the project. The Department shall issue detailed reporting guidelines prescribing the requirements of construction-related construction related reports. In order to receive credit for construction expenses, the company must provide the Department with evidence that a certified third-party executed an Agreed-Upon Procedure (AUP) verifying the construction expenses or accept the standard construction wage expense estimated by the Department.

Upon review of the final project scope, timeline, budget, and AUP, the Department shall issue a tax credit certificate reflecting a percentage of the total construction job wages paid throughout the completion of the project.

Upon 7 business days' notice, the taxpayer shall make available for inspection and copying at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the records identified in paragraph (1) of this Section to the taxpayer in charge of the project, its officers and agents, and to federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies and prosecutors.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 270. The Local Journalism Sustainability Act is amended by changing Sections 40-1 and 40-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 18/40-1)

Sec. 40-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Local Journalism Sustainability Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(35 ILCS 18/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Award cycle" means the 4 reporting periods for which the employer is awarded a credit under Section 40-10.

"Comparable rate" has the meaning given to that term by the Federal Communications Commission in its campaign advertising rate rules.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Independently owned" means, as applied to a local news organization, that:

(1) the local news organization is not a publicly traded entity and no more than 5% of the beneficial ownership of the local news organization is owned, directly or indirectly, by a publicly traded entity; and

(2) the local news organization is not a subsidiary.

"Local news organization" means an entity that:

(1) engages professionals to create, edit, produce, and distribute original content concerning matters of public interest through reporting activities, including conducting interviews, observing current events, or analyzing documents or other information;

(2) has at least one employee who meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the employee is employed by the entity on a full-time basis for at least 30 hours a week;

(B) the employee's job duties for the entity consist primarily of providing coverage of Illinois or local Illinois community news as described in paragraph (C);

(C) the employee gathers, prepares, collects, photographs, writes, edits, reports, or publishes original local or State community news for dissemination to the local or State community; and

(D) the employee lives within 50 miles of the coverage area;

(3) in the case of a print publication, has published at least one print publication per month over the previous 12 months and either (i) holds a valid United States Postal Service periodical permit or (ii) has at least 25% of its content dedicated to local news;

(4) in the case of a digital-only entity, has published one piece about the community per week over the previous 12 months and has at least 33% of its digital audience in Illinois, averaged over a 12-month period;

(5) in the case of a hybrid entity that has both print and digital outlets, meets the requirements in either paragraph (3) or (4) of this definition;

(6) has disclosed in its print publication or on its website its beneficial ownership or, in the case of a not-for-profit entity, its board of directors;

(7) in the case of an entity that maintains tax status under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code, has declared the coverage of local or State news as the stated mission in its filings with the Internal Revenue Service;

(8) has not received any payments of more than 50% of its gross receipts for the previous year from political action committees or other entities described in Section 527 of the federal Internal Revenue Code or from an organization that maintains Section 501(c)(4) or 501(c)(6) status under the federal Internal Revenue Code, unless those payments are for political advertising during the lowest unit windows and using comparable rates; and

(9) has not received more than 30% of its revenue from the previous taxable year from political advertisements during lowest unit windows.

"Local news organization" does not include an organization that received more than $100,000 from organizations described in paragraph (8) during the taxable year or any preceding taxable year.

"Lowest unit window" has the meaning given to that term by the Federal Communications Commission in its campaign advertising rate rules.

"New journalism position" means an employment position that results in a net increase in qualified journalists employed by the local news organization from January 1 of the preceding calendar year compared to January 1 of the calendar year in which a credit under this Act is sought.

"Private fund" means a corporation that:

(1) would be considered an investment company under Section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-3, but for the application of paragraph (1) or (7) of subsection (c) of that Section;

(2) is not a venture capital fund, as defined in Section 275.203(l)-1 of Title 17 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as in effect on the effective date of this Act; and

(3) is not an institution selected under Section 107 of the federal Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994.

"Qualified journalist" means a person who:

(1) is employed for an average of at least 30 hours per week; and

(2) is responsible for gathering, developing, preparing, directing the recording of, producing, collecting, photographing, recording, writing, editing, reporting, designing, presenting, distributing, or publishing original news or information that concerns local matters of public interest.

"Reporting period" means the quarter for which a return is required to be filed under Article 7 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 275. The Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act is amended by changing Section 50-1 as follows:

(35 ILCS 19/50-1)

Sec. 50-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Music and Musicians Tax Credit and Jobs Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 280. The Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act is amended by changing Section 110-20 as follows:

(35 ILCS 45/110-20)

Sec. 110-20. Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Program; project applications.

(a) The Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Program is hereby established and shall be administered by the Department. The Program will provide financial incentives to eligible semiconductor manufacturers, microchip manufacturers, quantum computer manufacturers, and companies that primarily engage in research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips. For the purposes of this Section, a company is primarily engaged in research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips if at least 50% of its business activities involve research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips..

(b) Any taxpayer planning a project to be located in Illinois may request consideration for designation of its project as a MICRO project, by formal written letter of request or by formal application to the Department, in which the applicant states its intent to make at least a specified level of investment and intends to hire a specified number of full-time employees at a designated location in Illinois. As circumstances require, the Department shall require a formal application from an applicant and a formal letter of request for assistance.

(c) In order to qualify for credits under the Program program, an applicant must:

(1) for a semiconductor manufacturer, a microchip manufacturer, a quantum computer manufacturer, or a company focusing on research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips:

(A) make an investment of at least $1,500,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create at least 500 new full-time employee jobs; or

(2) for a semiconductor component parts manufacturer, a microchip component parts manufacturer, a quantum computer component parts manufacturer, or a company focusing on research and development in the manufacture of component parts for quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips:

(A) make an investment of at least $300,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) manufacture one or more parts that are primarily used for the manufacture of semiconductors or microchips;

(C) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(D) create at least 150 new full-time employee jobs; or

(3) for a semiconductor manufacturer, a microchip manufacturer, a quantum computer manufacturer, a company focusing on research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips, or a semiconductor or microchip component parts manufacturer that does not qualify quality under paragraph (2) above:

(A) make an investment of at least $2,500,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 48-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create at least 50 new full-time employee jobs or new full-time employees equivalent to 10% of the number of full-time employees employed by the applicant world-wide on the date the application is filed with the Department; or

(4) for a semiconductor manufacturer, quantum computer manufacturer, microchip manufacturer, or semiconductor or microchip component parts manufacturer with existing operations in Illinois that intends to convert or expand, in whole or in part, the existing facility from traditional manufacturing to semiconductor manufacturing, quantum computer manufacturing, or microchip manufacturing or semiconductor, quantum computer, or microchip component parts manufacturing, or a company focusing on research and development in the manufacturing of quantum computers, semiconductors, or microchips:

(A) make an investment of at least $100,000,000 in capital improvements at the project site;

(B) to be placed in service within the State within a 60-month period after approval of the application; and

(C) create the lesser of 75 new full-time employee jobs or new full-time employee jobs equivalent to 10% of the Statewide baseline applicable to the taxpayer and any related member at the time of application.

(d) For any applicant creating the full-time employee jobs noted in subsection (c), those jobs must have a total compensation equal to or greater than 120% of the average wage paid to full-time employees in the county where the project is located, as determined by the Department.

(e) Each applicant must outline its hiring plan and commitment to recruit and hire full-time employee positions at the project site. The hiring plan may include a partnership with an institution of higher education to provide internships, including, but not limited to, internships supported by the Clean Jobs Workforce Network Program, or full-time permanent employment for students at the project site. Additionally, the applicant may create or utilize participants from apprenticeship programs that are approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training. The applicant Applicant may apply for apprenticeship education expense credits in accordance with the provisions set forth in 14 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 522. Each applicant is required to report annually, on or before April 15, on the diversity of its workforce in accordance with Section 110-50 of this Act. For existing facilities of applicants under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) above, if the taxpayer expects a reduction in force due to its transition to manufacturing semiconductors, microchips, or semiconductor or microchip component parts, the plan submitted under this Section must outline the taxpayer's plan to assist with retraining its workforce aligned with the taxpayer's adoption of new technologies and anticipated efforts to retrain employees through employment opportunities within the taxpayer's workforce.

(f) A taxpayer may not enter into more than one agreement under this Act with respect to a single address or location for the same period of time. Also, a taxpayer may not enter into an agreement under this Act with respect to a single address or location for the same period of time for which the taxpayer currently holds an active agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act. This provision does not preclude the applicant from entering into an additional agreement after the expiration or voluntary termination of an earlier agreement under this Act or under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act to the extent that the taxpayer's application otherwise satisfies the terms and conditions of this Act and is approved by the Department. An applicant with an existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act may submit an application for an agreement under this Act after it terminates any existing agreement under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act with respect to the same address or location.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 285. The Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 170-1 as follows:

(35 ILCS 60/170-1)

Sec. 170-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Illinois Gives Tax Credit Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 290. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3-5, and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.2)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Use" means the exercise by any person of any right or power over tangible personal property incident to the ownership of that property, or, on and after January 1, 2025, incident to the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use that property through a lease, except that it does not include the sale of such property in any form as tangible personal property in the regular course of business to the extent that such property is not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, and does not include the use of such property by its owner for demonstration purposes: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing. "Use" does not mean the demonstration use or interim use of tangible personal property by a retailer before he sells that tangible personal property. On and after January 1, 2025, the lease of tangible personal property to a lessee by a retailer who is subject to tax on lease receipts under Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly does not qualify as demonstration use or interim use of that property. For watercraft or aircraft, if the period of demonstration use or interim use by the retailer exceeds 18 months, the retailer shall pay on the retailers' original cost price the tax imposed by this Act, and no credit for that tax is permitted if the watercraft or aircraft is subsequently sold by the retailer. "Use" does not mean the physical incorporation of tangible personal property, to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, as an ingredient or constituent, into other tangible personal property (a) which is sold in the regular course of business or (b) which the person incorporating such ingredient or constituent therein has undertaken at the time of such purchase to cause to be transported in interstate commerce to destinations outside the State of Illinois: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing.

"Lease" means a transfer of the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use, but not title to, tangible personal property for a fixed or indeterminate term for consideration, regardless of the name by which the transaction is called. "Lease" does not include a lease entered into merely as a security agreement that does not involve a transfer of possession or control from the lessor to the lessee.

On and after January 1, 2025, the term "sale", when used in this Act, includes a lease.

"Watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

"Purchase at retail" means the acquisition of the ownership of, the title to, the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use, tangible personal property through a sale at retail.

"Purchaser" means anyone who, through a sale at retail, acquires the ownership of, the title to, the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use, tangible personal property for a valuable consideration.

"Sale at retail" means any transfer of the ownership of or title to tangible personal property to a purchaser, for the purpose of use, and not for the purpose of resale in any form as tangible personal property to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, for a valuable consideration: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product of manufacturing. For this purpose, slag produced as an incident to manufacturing pig iron or steel and sold is considered to be an intentionally produced by-product of manufacturing. "Sale at retail" includes any such transfer made for resale unless made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as incorporated by reference into Section 12 of this Act. Transactions whereby the possession of the property is transferred but the seller retains the title as security for payment of the selling price are sales.

"Sale at retail" shall also be construed to include any Illinois florist's sales transaction in which the purchase order is received in Illinois by a florist and the sale is for use or consumption, but the Illinois florist has a florist in another state deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in such other state.

Nonreusable tangible personal property that is used by persons engaged in the business of operating a restaurant, cafeteria, or drive-in is a sale for resale when it is transferred to customers in the ordinary course of business as part of the sale of food or beverages and is used to deliver, package, or consume food or beverages, regardless of where consumption of the food or beverages occurs. Examples of those items include, but are not limited to nonreusable, paper and plastic cups, plates, baskets, boxes, sleeves, buckets or other containers, utensils, straws, placemats, napkins, doggie bags, and wrapping or packaging materials that are transferred to customers as part of the sale of food or beverages in the ordinary course of business.

The purchase, employment, and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use, or sale of tangible personal property.

"Selling price" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, property other than as hereinafter provided, and services, but, prior to January 1, 2020 and beginning again on January 1, 2022, not including the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property where the item that is traded-in is of like kind and character as that which is being sold; beginning January 1, 2020 and until January 1, 2022, "selling price" includes the portion of the value of or credit given for traded-in motor vehicles of the First Division as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code of like kind and character as that which is being sold that exceeds $10,000. "Selling price" shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost, or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include interest or finance charges which appear as separate items on the bill of sale or sales contract nor charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, or on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by this Act, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit, on account of the seller's tax liability under any local occupation tax administered by the Department, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchasers, the tax that is imposed under any local use tax administered by the Department. Effective December 1, 1985, "selling price" shall include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the Cigarette Tax Act, on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax imposed under the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit.

The provisions of this paragraph, which provides only for an alternative meaning of "selling price" with respect to the sale of certain motor vehicles incident to the contemporaneous lease of those motor vehicles, continue in effect and are not changed by the tax on leases implemented by Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for any motor vehicle, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Vehicle Code, that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing the vehicle for a defined period that is longer than one year and (1) is a motor vehicle of the second division that: (A) is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers; or (C) has a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or less or (2) is a motor vehicle of the first division, "selling price" or "amount of sale" means the consideration received by the lessor pursuant to the lease contract, including amounts due at lease signing and all monthly or other regular payments charged over the term of the lease. Also included in the selling price is any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, including, but not limited to, excess mileage charges and charges for excess wear and tear. For sales that occur in Illinois, with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle does not incur the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act on those amounts, and the retailer who makes the retail sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor is not required to collect the tax imposed by this Act or to pay the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on those amounts. However, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle assumes the liability for reporting and paying the tax on those amounts directly to the Department in the same form (Illinois Retailers' Occupation Tax, and local retailers' occupation taxes, if applicable) in which the retailer would have reported and paid such tax if the retailer had accounted for the tax to the Department. For amounts received by the lessor from the lessee that are not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor must file the return and pay the tax to the Department by the due date otherwise required by this Act for returns other than transaction returns. If the retailer is entitled under this Act to a discount for collecting and remitting the tax imposed under this Act to the Department with respect to the sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor, then the right to the discount provided in this Act shall be transferred to the lessor with respect to the tax paid by the lessor for any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed; provided that the discount is only allowed if the return is timely filed and for amounts timely paid. The "selling price" of a motor vehicle that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year shall not be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessor, nor shall it be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessee, regardless of whether the trade-in value thereof is assigned by the lessee to the lessor. In the case of a motor vehicle that is sold for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year, the sale occurs at the time of the delivery of the vehicle, regardless of the due date of any lease payments. A lessor who incurs a Retailers' Occupation Tax liability on the sale of a motor vehicle coming off lease may not take a credit against that liability for the Use Tax the lessor paid upon the purchase of the motor vehicle (or for any tax the lessor paid with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that was not calculated at the time the lease was executed) if the selling price of the motor vehicle at the time of purchase was calculated using the definition of "selling price" as defined in this paragraph. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, lessors shall file all returns and make all payments required under this paragraph to the Department by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department. This paragraph does not apply to leases of motor vehicles for which, at the time the lease is entered into, the term of the lease is not a defined period, including leases with a defined initial period with the option to continue the lease on a month-to-month or other basis beyond the initial defined period.

The phrase "like kind and character" shall be liberally construed (including, but not limited to, any form of motor vehicle for any form of motor vehicle, or any kind of farm or agricultural implement for any other kind of farm or agricultural implement), while not including a kind of item which, if sold at retail by that retailer, would be exempt from retailers' occupation tax and use tax as an isolated or occasional sale.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Retailer" means and includes every person engaged in the business of making sales, including, on and after January 1, 2025, leases, at retail as defined in this Section. With respect to leases, a "retailer" also means a "lessor", except as otherwise provided in this Act.

A person who holds himself or herself out as being engaged (or who habitually engages) in selling tangible personal property at retail is a retailer hereunder with respect to such sales (and not primarily in a service occupation) notwithstanding the fact that such person designs and produces such tangible personal property on special order for the purchaser and in such a way as to render the property of value only to such purchaser, if such tangible personal property so produced on special order serves substantially the same function as stock or standard items of tangible personal property that are sold at retail.

A person whose activities are organized and conducted primarily as a not-for-profit service enterprise, and who engages in selling tangible personal property at retail (whether to the public or merely to members and their guests) is a retailer with respect to such transactions, excepting only a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes either (1), to the extent of sales by such person to its members, students, patients, or inmates of tangible personal property to be used primarily for the purposes of such person, or (2), to the extent of sales by such person of tangible personal property which is not sold or offered for sale by persons organized for profit. The selling of school books and school supplies by schools at retail to students is not "primarily for the purposes of" the school which does such selling. This paragraph does not apply to nor subject to taxation occasional dinners, social, or similar activities of a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, whether or not such activities are open to the public.

A person who is the recipient of a grant or contract under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (P.L. 92-258) and serves meals to participants in the federal Nutrition Program for the Elderly in return for contributions established in amount by the individual participant pursuant to a schedule of suggested fees as provided for in the federal Act is not a retailer under this Act with respect to such transactions.

Persons who engage in the business of transferring tangible personal property upon the redemption of trading stamps are retailers hereunder when engaged in such business.

The isolated or occasional sale of tangible personal property at retail by a person who does not hold himself out as being engaged (or who does not habitually engage) in selling such tangible personal property at retail or a sale through a bulk vending machine does not make such person a retailer hereunder. However, any person who is engaged in a business which is not subject to the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act because of involving the sale of or a contract to sell real estate or a construction contract to improve real estate, but who, in the course of conducting such business, transfers tangible personal property to users or consumers in the finished form in which it was purchased, and which does not become real estate, under any provision of a construction contract or real estate sale or real estate sales agreement entered into with some other person arising out of or because of such nontaxable business, is a retailer to the extent of the value of the tangible personal property so transferred. If, in such transaction, a separate charge is made for the tangible personal property so transferred, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the amount so separately charged, but not less than the cost of such property to the transferor; if no separate charge is made, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the cost to the transferor of such tangible personal property.

"Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any of the following retailers:

(1) A retailer having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse, or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State. However, the ownership of property that is located at the premises of a printer with which the retailer has contracted for printing and that consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a part of the final printed product, or copy from which the printed product is produced shall not result in the retailer being deemed to have or maintain an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse, or other place of business within this State.

(1.1) A retailer having a contract with a person located in this State under which the person, for a commission or other consideration based upon the sale of tangible personal property by the retailer, directly or indirectly refers potential customers to the retailer by providing to the potential customers a promotional code or other mechanism that allows the retailer to track purchases referred by such persons. Examples of mechanisms that allow the retailer to track purchases referred by such persons include, but are not limited to, the use of a link on the person's Internet website, promotional codes distributed through the person's hand-delivered or mailed material, and promotional codes distributed by the person through radio or other broadcast media. The provisions of this paragraph (1.1) shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property by the retailer to customers who are referred to the retailer by all persons in this State under such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December. A retailer meeting the requirements of this paragraph (1.1) shall be presumed to be maintaining a place of business in this State but may rebut this presumption by submitting proof that the referrals or other activities pursued within this State by such persons were not sufficient to meet the nexus standards of the United States Constitution during the preceding 4 quarterly periods.

(1.2) Beginning July 1, 2011, a retailer having a contract with a person located in this State under which:

(A) the retailer sells the same or substantially similar line of products as the person located in this State and does so using an identical or substantially similar name, trade name, or trademark as the person located in this State; and

(B) the retailer provides a commission or other consideration to the person located in this State based upon the sale of tangible personal property by the retailer.

The provisions of this paragraph (1.2) shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property by the retailer to customers in this State under all such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) Beginning October 1, 2018, a retailer making sales of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois from outside of Illinois if:

(A) the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois are $100,000 or more; or

(B) the retailer enters into 200 or more separate transactions for the sale of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois.

The retailer shall determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the criteria of either subparagraph (A) or (B) of this paragraph (9) for the preceding 12-month period. If the retailer meets the threshold of either subparagraph (A) or (B) for a 12-month period, he or she is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act and file returns for one year. At the end of that one-year period, the retailer shall determine whether he or she met the threshold of either subparagraph (A) or (B) during the preceding 12-month period. If the retailer met the criteria in either subparagraph (A) or (B) for the preceding 12-month period, he or she is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act and file returns for the subsequent year. If at the end of a one-year period a retailer that was required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act determines that he or she did not meet the threshold in either subparagraph (A) or (B) during the preceding 12-month period, the retailer shall subsequently determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the threshold of either subparagraph (A) or (B) for the preceding 12-month period.

Beginning January 1, 2020, neither the gross receipts from nor the number of separate transactions for sales of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois that a retailer makes through a marketplace facilitator and for which the retailer has received a certification from the marketplace facilitator pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included for purposes of determining whether he or she has met the thresholds of this paragraph (9).

(10) Beginning January 1, 2020, a marketplace facilitator that meets a threshold set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2d of this Act.

"Bulk vending machine" means a vending machine, containing unsorted confections, nuts, toys, or other items designed primarily to be used or played with by children which, when a coin or coins of a denomination not larger than $0.50 are inserted, are dispensed in equal portions, at random and without selection by the customer.

(Source: P.A. 102-353, eff. 1-1-22; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use, which, on and after January 1, 2025, includes use by a lessee, of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (18).

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes production related tangible personal property, as defined in Section 3-50, purchased on or after July 1, 2019. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (6) of this Section.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (35) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(37) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(38) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental-purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental-Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(39) Tangible personal property purchased by a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(40) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (40) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (40):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (40) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(41) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (41) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90. As used in this item (41):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(42) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (42) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(43) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(44) Beginning July 1, 2024, home-delivered meals provided to Medicare or Medicaid recipients when payment is made by an intermediary, such as a Medicare Administrative Contractor, a Managed Care Organization, or a Medicare Advantage Organization, pursuant to a government contract. This item (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(45) (44) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 3-10, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption). This item (45) (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(46) (44) Use by the lessee of the following leased tangible personal property:

(1) software transferred subject to a license that meets the following requirements:

(A) it is evidenced by a written agreement signed by the licensor and the customer;

(i) an electronic agreement in which the customer accepts the license by means of an electronic signature that is verifiable and can be authenticated and is attached to or made part of the license will comply with this requirement;

(ii) a license agreement in which the customer electronically accepts the terms by clicking "I agree" does not comply with this requirement;

(B) it restricts the customer's duplication and use of the software;

(C) it prohibits the customer from licensing, sublicensing, or transferring the software to a third party (except to a related party) without the permission and continued control of the licensor;

(D) the licensor has a policy of providing another copy at minimal or no charge if the customer loses or damages the software, or of permitting the licensee to make and keep an archival copy, and such policy is either stated in the license agreement, supported by the licensor's books and records, or supported by a notarized statement made under penalties of perjury by the licensor; and

(E) the customer must destroy or return all copies of the software to the licensor at the end of the license period; this provision is deemed to be met, in the case of a perpetual license, without being set forth in the license agreement; and

(2) property that is subject to a tax on lease receipts imposed by a home rule unit of local government if the ordinance imposing that tax was adopted prior to January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-643, eff. 7-1-24; 103-746, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 105/3-10) from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property, which, on and after January 1, 2025, includes leases of tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, and beginning again on August 5, 2022 through August 14, 2022, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after July 1, 2017 and prior to January 1, 2024, (iv) 90% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028, and (v) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to mid-range ethanol blends, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of mid-range ethanol blends is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of mid-range ethanol blends made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2028 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1.

Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 0%. On and after January 1, 2026, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act.

With respect to prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use. No depreciation is allowed in cases where the tax under this Act is imposed on lease receipts.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-5, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 295. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to: (A) the modification, refurbishment, completion, repair, replacement, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (27) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(30) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(31) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (31) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (31):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (31) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(32) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75. As used in this item (32):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(33) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(34) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(35) Beginning July 1, 2024, home-delivered meals provided to Medicare or Medicaid recipients when payment is made by an intermediary, such as a Medicare Administrative Contractor, a Managed Care Organization, or a Medicare Advantage Organization, pursuant to a government contract. This paragraph (35) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(36) (35) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 3-10, food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or by an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. This item (36) (35) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(37) (36) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 3-10, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption). This item (37) (36) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(38) (35) Use by a lessee of the following leased tangible personal property:

(1) software transferred subject to a license that meets the following requirements:

(A) it is evidenced by a written agreement signed by the licensor and the customer;

(i) an electronic agreement in which the customer accepts the license by means of an electronic signature that is verifiable and can be authenticated and is attached to or made part of the license will comply with this requirement;

(ii) a license agreement in which the customer electronically accepts the terms by clicking "I agree" does not comply with this requirement;

(B) it restricts the customer's duplication and use of the software;

(C) it prohibits the customer from licensing, sublicensing, or transferring the software to a third party (except to a related party) without the permission and continued control of the licensor;

(D) the licensor has a policy of providing another copy at minimal or no charge if the customer loses or damages the software, or of permitting the licensee to make and keep an archival copy, and such policy is either stated in the license agreement, supported by the licensor's books and records, or supported by a notarized statement made under penalties of perjury by the licensor; and

(E) the customer must destroy or return all copies of the software to the licensor at the end of the license period; this provision is deemed to be met, in the case of a perpetual license, without being set forth in the license agreement; and

(2) property that is subject to a tax on lease receipts imposed by a home rule unit of local government if the ordinance imposing that tax was adopted prior to January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-10, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-10, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-643, eff. 7-1-24; 103-746, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; 103-995, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred, including, on and after January 1, 2025, transferred by lease, as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, (iii) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after July 1, 2017 and before January 1, 2024, (iv) 90% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028, and (v) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to mid-range ethanol blends, as defined in Section 3-44.3 of the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028 and (ii) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of mid-range ethanol blends is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the selling price of mid-range ethanol blends transferred as an incident to the sale of service during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2028 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 0% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 0% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

On and an after January 1, 2026, food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or by an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act is exempt from the tax under this Act. On and after January 1, 2026, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) is exempt from the tax under this Act.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use. No depreciation is allowed in cases where the tax under this Act is imposed on lease receipts.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-10, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-20, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 110/9)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request. Beginning with returns due on or after January 1, 2025, the vendor's discount allowed in this Section, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Use Tax Act, including any local tax administered by the Department and reported on the same return, shall not exceed $1,000 per month in the aggregate. When determining the discount allowed under this Section, servicemen shall include the amount of tax that would have been due at the 1% rate but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A serviceman need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to pay and does pay the tax imposed by the Service Occupation Tax Act with respect to his sale of service involving the incidental transfer by him of the same property.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable Rules and Regulations to be promulgated by the Department. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. The return shall include the gross receipts which were received during the preceding calendar month or quarter on the following items upon which tax would have been due but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly: (i) food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption); and (ii) food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. The return shall also include the amount of tax that would have been due on the items listed in the previous sentence but for the 0% rate imposed under Public Act 102-700 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

In the case of leases, except as otherwise provided in this Act, the lessor, in collecting the tax, may collect for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act on aviation fuel transferred as an incident of a sale of service in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax on aviation fuel as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, servicemen collecting tax on aviation fuel shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, servicemen subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May, and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August, and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November, and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, retailers' occupation tax, or use tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any serviceman filing a return hereunder shall also include the total tax upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased for use by him as an incident to a sale of service, and such serviceman shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Service Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration hereunder, such serviceman shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State treasury Treasury, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property, other than (i) tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government and (ii) aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, this Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Clean Air Act Permit Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim, and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year............................Total Deposit

2024....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State treasury Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23; 103-592, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 1-1-25; 103-592, Article 110, Section 110-10, eff. 6-7-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 300. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment, including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to: (A) the modification, refurbishment, completion, repair, replacement, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The changes made to this paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (29) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(30) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(31) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(32) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (32) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (32):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (32) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(33) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (33) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55. As used in this item (33):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(34) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (34) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(35) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(36) Beginning July 1, 2024, home-delivered meals provided to Medicare or Medicaid recipients when payment is made by an intermediary, such as a Medicare Administrative Contractor, a Managed Care Organization, or a Medicare Advantage Organization, pursuant to a government contract. This paragraph (36) (35) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(37) (36) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 3-10, food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969 or by an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. This item (37) (36) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(38) (37) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 3-10, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption). This item (38) (37) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(39) (36) The lease of the following tangible personal property:

(1) computer software transferred subject to a license that meets the following requirements:

(A) it is evidenced by a written agreement signed by the licensor and the customer;

(i) an electronic agreement in which the customer accepts the license by means of an electronic signature that is verifiable and can be authenticated and is attached to or made part of the license will comply with this requirement;

(ii) a license agreement in which the customer electronically accepts the terms by clicking "I agree" does not comply with this requirement;

(B) it restricts the customer's duplication and use of the software;

(C) it prohibits the customer from licensing, sublicensing, or transferring the software to a third party (except to a related party) without the permission and continued control of the licensor;

(D) the licensor has a policy of providing another copy at minimal or no charge if the customer loses or damages the software, or of permitting the licensee to make and keep an archival copy, and such policy is either stated in the license agreement, supported by the licensor's books and records, or supported by a notarized statement made under penalties of perjury by the licensor; and

(E) the customer must destroy or return all copies of the software to the licensor at the end of the license period; this provision is deemed to be met, in the case of a perpetual license, without being set forth in the license agreement; and

(2) property that is subject to a tax on lease receipts imposed by a home rule unit of local government if the ordinance imposing that tax was adopted prior to January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-15, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-15, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-643, eff. 7-1-24; 103-746, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; 103-995, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property, including, on and after January 1, 2025, tangible personal property transferred by lease. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, (iii) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after July 1, 2017 and prior to January 1, 2024, (iv) 90% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028, and (v) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to mid-range ethanol blends, as defined in Section 3-44.3 of the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028 and (ii) 100% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of mid-range ethanol blends is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the selling price of mid-range ethanol blends transferred as an incident to the sale of service during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2028 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

Beginning on July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall be imposed at the rate of 0% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, the tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 0% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph).

On and after January 1, 2026, food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Use Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act. On and after January 1, 2026, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-15, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-25, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 305. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 2, 2-5, 2-10, and 2-12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/1)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Sale at retail" means any transfer of the ownership of, the title to, the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use tangible personal property to a purchaser, for the purpose of use or consumption, and not for the purpose of resale in any form as tangible personal property to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, for a valuable consideration: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or byproduct of manufacturing. For this purpose, slag produced as an incident to manufacturing pig iron or steel and sold is considered to be an intentionally produced byproduct of manufacturing. Transactions whereby the possession of the property is transferred but the seller retains the title as security for payment of the selling price shall be deemed to be sales.

"Sale at retail" shall be construed to include any transfer of the ownership of, the title to, the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use tangible personal property to a purchaser, for use or consumption by any other person to whom such purchaser may transfer the tangible personal property without a valuable consideration, and to include any transfer, whether made for or without a valuable consideration, for resale in any form as tangible personal property unless made in compliance with Section 2c of this Act.

Sales of tangible personal property, which property, to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, as an ingredient or constituent, goes into and forms a part of tangible personal property subsequently the subject of a "Sale at retail", are not sales at retail as defined in this Act: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or byproduct of manufacturing.

"Sale at retail" shall be construed to include any Illinois florist's sales transaction in which the purchase order is received in Illinois by a florist and the sale is for use or consumption, but the Illinois florist has a florist in another state deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in such other state.

Nonreusable tangible personal property that is used by persons engaged in the business of operating a restaurant, cafeteria, or drive-in is a sale for resale when it is transferred to customers in the ordinary course of business as part of the sale of food or beverages and is used to deliver, package, or consume food or beverages, regardless of where consumption of the food or beverages occurs. Examples of those items include, but are not limited to nonreusable, paper and plastic cups, plates, baskets, boxes, sleeves, buckets or other containers, utensils, straws, placemats, napkins, doggie bags, and wrapping or packaging materials that are transferred to customers as part of the sale of food or beverages in the ordinary course of business.

The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use or sale of tangible personal property.

A person whose activities are organized and conducted primarily as a not-for-profit service enterprise, and who engages in selling tangible personal property at retail (whether to the public or merely to members and their guests) is engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail with respect to such transactions, excepting only a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes either (1), to the extent of sales by such person to its members, students, patients or inmates of tangible personal property to be used primarily for the purposes of such person, or (2), to the extent of sales by such person of tangible personal property which is not sold or offered for sale by persons organized for profit. The selling of school books and school supplies by schools at retail to students is not "primarily for the purposes of" the school which does such selling. The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to nor subject to taxation occasional dinners, socials or similar activities of a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes, whether or not such activities are open to the public.

A person who is the recipient of a grant or contract under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (P.L. 92-258) and serves meals to participants in the federal Nutrition Program for the Elderly in return for contributions established in amount by the individual participant pursuant to a schedule of suggested fees as provided for in the federal Act is not engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail with respect to such transactions.

"Lease" means a transfer of the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use, but not title to, tangible personal property for a fixed or indeterminate term for consideration, regardless of the name by which the transaction is called. "Lease" does not include a lease entered into merely as a security agreement that does not involve a transfer of possession or control from the lessor to the lessee.

On and after January 1, 2025, the term "sale", when used in this Act, includes a lease.

"Purchaser" means anyone who, through a sale at retail, acquires the ownership of, the title to, the possession or control of, the right to possess or control, or a license to use tangible personal property for a valuable consideration.

"Reseller of motor fuel" means any person engaged in the business of selling or delivering or transferring title of motor fuel to another person other than for use or consumption. No person shall act as a reseller of motor fuel within this State without first being registered as a reseller pursuant to Section 2c or a retailer pursuant to Section 2a.

"Selling price" or the "amount of sale" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, property, other than as hereinafter provided, and services, but, prior to January 1, 2020 and beginning again on January 1, 2022, not including the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property where the item that is traded-in is of like kind and character as that which is being sold; beginning January 1, 2020 and until January 1, 2022, "selling price" includes the portion of the value of or credit given for traded-in motor vehicles of the First Division as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code of like kind and character as that which is being sold that exceeds $10,000. "Selling price" shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under this Act, or on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by the Use Tax Act, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit, on account of the seller's tax liability under any local occupation tax administered by the Department, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchasers, the tax that is imposed under any local use tax administered by the Department. Effective December 1, 1985, "selling price" shall include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the Cigarette Tax Act, on account of the sellers' duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax imposed under the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit.

The provisions of this paragraph, which provides only for an alternative meaning of "selling price" with respect to the sale of certain motor vehicles incident to the contemporaneous lease of those motor vehicles, continue in effect and are not changed by the tax on leases implemented by Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for any motor vehicle, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing the vehicle for a defined period that is longer than one year and (1) is a motor vehicle of the second division that: (A) is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers; or (C) has a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or less or (2) is a motor vehicle of the first division, "selling price" or "amount of sale" means the consideration received by the lessor pursuant to the lease contract, including amounts due at lease signing and all monthly or other regular payments charged over the term of the lease. Also included in the selling price is any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, including, but not limited to, excess mileage charges and charges for excess wear and tear. For sales that occur in Illinois, with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle does not incur the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act on those amounts, and the retailer who makes the retail sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor is not required to collect the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act or to pay the tax imposed by this Act on those amounts. However, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle assumes the liability for reporting and paying the tax on those amounts directly to the Department in the same form (Illinois Retailers' Occupation Tax, and local retailers' occupation taxes, if applicable) in which the retailer would have reported and paid such tax if the retailer had accounted for the tax to the Department. For amounts received by the lessor from the lessee that are not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor must file the return and pay the tax to the Department by the due date otherwise required by this Act for returns other than transaction returns. If the retailer is entitled under this Act to a discount for collecting and remitting the tax imposed under this Act to the Department with respect to the sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor, then the right to the discount provided in this Act shall be transferred to the lessor with respect to the tax paid by the lessor for any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed; provided that the discount is only allowed if the return is timely filed and for amounts timely paid. The "selling price" of a motor vehicle that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year shall not be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessor, nor shall it be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessee, regardless of whether the trade-in value thereof is assigned by the lessee to the lessor. In the case of a motor vehicle that is sold for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year, the sale occurs at the time of the delivery of the vehicle, regardless of the due date of any lease payments. A lessor who incurs a Retailers' Occupation Tax liability on the sale of a motor vehicle coming off lease may not take a credit against that liability for the Use Tax the lessor paid upon the purchase of the motor vehicle (or for any tax the lessor paid with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that was not calculated at the time the lease was executed) if the selling price of the motor vehicle at the time of purchase was calculated using the definition of "selling price" as defined in this paragraph. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, lessors shall file all returns and make all payments required under this paragraph to the Department by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department. This paragraph does not apply to leases of motor vehicles for which, at the time the lease is entered into, the term of the lease is not a defined period, including leases with a defined initial period with the option to continue the lease on a month-to-month or other basis beyond the initial defined period.

The phrase "like kind and character" shall be liberally construed (including but not limited to any form of motor vehicle for any form of motor vehicle, or any kind of farm or agricultural implement for any other kind of farm or agricultural implement), while not including a kind of item which, if sold at retail by that retailer, would be exempt from retailers' occupation tax and use tax as an isolated or occasional sale.

"Gross receipts" from the sales of tangible personal property at retail means the total selling price or the amount of such sales, as hereinbefore defined. In the case of charge and time sales, the amount thereof shall be included only as and when payments are received by the seller. In the case of leases, except as otherwise provided in this Act, the amount thereof shall be included only as and when gross receipts are received by the lessor. Receipts or other consideration derived by a seller from the sale, transfer or assignment of accounts receivable to a wholly owned subsidiary will not be deemed payments prior to the time the purchaser makes payment on such accounts.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

The isolated or occasional sale of tangible personal property at retail by a person who does not hold himself out as being engaged (or who does not habitually engage) in selling such tangible personal property at retail, or a sale through a bulk vending machine, does not constitute engaging in a business of selling such tangible personal property at retail within the meaning of this Act; provided that any person who is engaged in a business which is not subject to the tax imposed by this Act because of involving the sale of or a contract to sell real estate or a construction contract to improve real estate or a construction contract to engineer, install, and maintain an integrated system of products, but who, in the course of conducting such business, transfers tangible personal property to users or consumers in the finished form in which it was purchased, and which does not become real estate or was not engineered and installed, under any provision of a construction contract or real estate sale or real estate sales agreement entered into with some other person arising out of or because of such nontaxable business, is engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail to the extent of the value of the tangible personal property so transferred. If, in such a transaction, a separate charge is made for the tangible personal property so transferred, the value of such property, for the purpose of this Act, shall be the amount so separately charged, but not less than the cost of such property to the transferor; if no separate charge is made, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the cost to the transferor of such tangible personal property. Construction contracts for the improvement of real estate consisting of engineering, installation, and maintenance of voice, data, video, security, and all telecommunication systems do not constitute engaging in a business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the meaning of this Act if they are sold at one specified contract price.

A person who holds himself or herself out as being engaged (or who habitually engages) in selling tangible personal property at retail is a person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail hereunder with respect to such sales (and not primarily in a service occupation) notwithstanding the fact that such person designs and produces such tangible personal property on special order for the purchaser and in such a way as to render the property of value only to such purchaser, if such tangible personal property so produced on special order serves substantially the same function as stock or standard items of tangible personal property that are sold at retail.

Persons who engage in the business of transferring tangible personal property upon the redemption of trading stamps are engaged in the business of selling such property at retail and shall be liable for and shall pay the tax imposed by this Act on the basis of the retail value of the property transferred upon redemption of such stamps.

"Bulk vending machine" means a vending machine, containing unsorted confections, nuts, toys, or other items designed primarily to be used or played with by children which, when a coin or coins of a denomination not larger than $0.50 are inserted, are dispensed in equal portions, at random and without selection by the customer.

"Remote retailer" means a retailer that does not maintain within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent is located here permanently or temporarily or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State.

"Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State" has the meaning given to that term in Section 2 of the Use Tax Act.

"Marketplace" means a physical or electronic place, forum, platform, application, or other method by which a marketplace seller sells or offers to sell items.

"Marketplace facilitator" means a person who, pursuant to an agreement with an unrelated third-party marketplace seller, directly or indirectly through one or more affiliates facilitates a retail sale by an unrelated third-party third party marketplace seller by:

(1) listing or advertising for sale by the marketplace seller in a marketplace, tangible personal property that is subject to tax under this Act; and

(2) either directly or indirectly, through agreements or arrangements with third parties, collecting payment from the customer and transmitting that payment to the marketplace seller regardless of whether the marketplace facilitator receives compensation or other consideration in exchange for its services.

A person who provides advertising services, including listing products for sale, is not considered a marketplace facilitator, so long as the advertising service platform or forum does not engage, directly or indirectly through one or more affiliated persons, in the activities described in paragraph (2) of this definition of "marketplace facilitator".

"Marketplace facilitator" does not include any person licensed under the Auction License Act. This exemption does not apply to any person who is an Internet auction listing service, as defined by the Auction License Act.

"Marketplace seller" means a person who that makes sales through a marketplace operated by an unrelated third-party third party marketplace facilitator.

(Source: P.A. 102-353, eff. 1-1-22; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-983, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 120/2)

Sec. 2. Tax imposed.

(a) A tax is imposed upon persons engaged in the business of selling at retail, which, on and after January 1, 2025, includes leasing, tangible personal property, including computer software, and including photographs, negatives, and positives that are the product of photoprocessing, but not including products of photoprocessing produced for use in motion pictures for public commercial exhibition. Beginning January 1, 2001, prepaid telephone calling arrangements shall be considered tangible personal property subject to the tax imposed under this Act regardless of the form in which those arrangements may be embodied, transmitted, or fixed by any method now known or hereafter developed.

The imposition of the tax under this Act on persons engaged in the business of leasing tangible personal property applies to leases in effect, entered into, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025. In the case of leases, except as otherwise provided in this Act, the lessor must remit, for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

The inclusion of leases in the tax imposed under this Act by Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly does not, however, extend to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and semitrailers, as defined in Section 1-187 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that are required to be registered with an agency of this State. The taxation of these items shall continue in effect as prior to the effective date of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly (i.e., dealers owe retailers' occupation tax, lessors owe use tax, and lessees are not subject to retailers' occupation or use tax).

Sales of (1) electricity delivered to customers by wire; (2) natural or artificial gas that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; and (3) water that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains are not subject to tax under this Act. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this Act.

(b) Beginning on January 1, 2021, a remote retailer is engaged in the occupation of selling at retail in Illinois for purposes of this Act, if:

(1) the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois are $100,000 or more; or

(2) the retailer enters into 200 or more separate transactions for the sale of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois.

Remote retailers that meet or exceed the threshold in either paragraph (1) or (2) above shall be liable for all applicable State retailers' and locally imposed retailers' occupation taxes administered by the Department on all retail sales to Illinois purchasers.

The remote retailer shall determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for the preceding 12-month period. If the retailer meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for a 12-month period, he or she is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act and all retailers' occupation tax imposed by local taxing jurisdictions in Illinois, provided such local taxes are administered by the Department, and to file all applicable returns for one year. At the end of that one-year period, the retailer shall determine whether the retailer met the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period. If the retailer met the criteria in either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period, he or she is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to collect and remit all applicable State and local retailers' occupation taxes and file returns for the subsequent year. If, at the end of a one-year period, a retailer that was required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act determines that he or she did not meet the criteria in either paragraph (1) or (2) during the preceding 12-month period, then the retailer shall subsequently determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period.

(b-2) Beginning on January 1, 2025, a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State that makes retail sales of tangible personal property to Illinois customers from a location or locations outside of Illinois is engaged in the occupation of selling at retail in Illinois for the purposes of this Act. Those retailers are liable for all applicable State and locally imposed retailers' occupation taxes administered by the Department on retail sales made by those retailers to Illinois customers from locations outside of Illinois.

(b-5) For the purposes of this Section, neither the gross receipts from nor the number of separate transactions for sales of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois that a remote retailer makes through a marketplace facilitator shall be included for the purposes of determining whether he or she has met the thresholds of subsection (b) of this Section so long as the remote retailer has received certification from the marketplace facilitator that the marketplace facilitator is legally responsible for payment of tax on such sales.

(b-10) A remote retailer that is required to collect taxes imposed under the Use Tax Act on retail sales made to Illinois purchasers or a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State that is required to collect taxes imposed under the Use Tax Act on retail sales made to Illinois purchasers shall be liable to the Department for such taxes, except when the remote retailer or retailer maintaining a place of business in this State is relieved of the duty to remit such taxes by virtue of having paid to the Department taxes imposed by this Act in accordance with this Section upon his or her gross receipts from such sales.

(c) Marketplace facilitators engaged in the business of selling at retail tangible personal property in Illinois. Beginning January 1, 2021, a marketplace facilitator is engaged in the occupation of selling at retail tangible personal property in Illinois for purposes of this Act if, during the previous 12-month period:

(1) the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property on its own behalf or on behalf of marketplace sellers to purchasers in Illinois equals $100,000 or more; or

(2) the marketplace facilitator enters into 200 or more separate transactions on its own behalf or on behalf of marketplace sellers for the sale of tangible personal property to purchasers in Illinois, regardless of whether the marketplace facilitator or marketplace sellers for whom such sales are facilitated are registered as retailers in this State.

A marketplace facilitator who meets either paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection is required to remit the applicable State retailers' occupation taxes under this Act and local retailers' occupation taxes administered by the Department on all taxable sales of tangible personal property made by the marketplace facilitator or facilitated for marketplace sellers to customers in this State. A marketplace facilitator selling or facilitating the sale of tangible personal property to customers in this State is subject to all applicable procedures and requirements of this Act.

The marketplace facilitator shall determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for the preceding 12-month period. If the marketplace facilitator meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for a 12-month period, he or she is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to remit the tax imposed under this Act and all retailers' occupation tax imposed by local taxing jurisdictions in Illinois, provided such local taxes are administered by the Department, and to file all applicable returns for one year. At the end of that one-year period, the marketplace facilitator shall determine whether it met the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period. If the marketplace facilitator met the criteria in either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period, it is considered a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State and is required to collect and remit all applicable State and local retailers' occupation taxes and file returns for the subsequent year. If at the end of a one-year period a marketplace facilitator that was required to collect and remit the tax imposed under this Act determines that he or she did not meet the criteria in either paragraph (1) or (2) during the preceding 12-month period, the marketplace facilitator shall subsequently determine on a quarterly basis, ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December, whether he or she meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) for the preceding 12-month period.

A marketplace facilitator shall be entitled to any credits, deductions, or adjustments to the sales price otherwise provided to the marketplace seller, in addition to any such adjustments provided directly to the marketplace facilitator. This Section pertains to, but is not limited to, adjustments such as discounts, coupons, and rebates. In addition, a marketplace facilitator shall be entitled to the retailers' discount provided in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on all marketplace sales, and the marketplace seller shall not include sales made through a marketplace facilitator when computing any retailers' discount on remaining sales. Marketplace facilitators shall report and remit the applicable State and local retailers' occupation taxes on sales facilitated for marketplace sellers separately from any sales or use tax collected on taxable retail sales made directly by the marketplace facilitator or its affiliates.

The marketplace facilitator is liable for the remittance of all applicable State retailers' occupation taxes under this Act and local retailers' occupation taxes administered by the Department on sales through the marketplace and is subject to audit on all such sales. The Department shall not audit marketplace sellers for their marketplace sales where a marketplace facilitator remitted the applicable State and local retailers' occupation taxes unless the marketplace facilitator seeks relief as a result of incorrect information provided to the marketplace facilitator by a marketplace seller as set forth in this Section. The marketplace facilitator shall not be held liable for tax on any sales made by a marketplace seller that take place outside of the marketplace and which are not a part of any agreement between a marketplace facilitator and a marketplace seller. In addition, marketplace facilitators shall not be held liable to State and local governments of Illinois for having charged and remitted an incorrect amount of State and local retailers' occupation tax if, at the time of the sale, the tax is computed based on erroneous data provided by the State in database files on tax rates, boundaries, or taxing jurisdictions or incorrect information provided to the marketplace facilitator by the marketplace seller.

(d) A marketplace facilitator shall:

(1) certify to each marketplace seller that the marketplace facilitator assumes the rights and duties of a retailer under this Act with respect to sales made by the marketplace seller through the marketplace; and

(2) remit taxes imposed by this Act as required by this Act for sales made through the marketplace.

(e) A marketplace seller shall retain books and records for all sales made through a marketplace in accordance with the requirements of this Act.

(f) A marketplace facilitator is subject to audit on all marketplace sales for which it is considered to be the retailer, but shall not be liable for tax or subject to audit on sales made by marketplace sellers outside of the marketplace.

(g) A marketplace facilitator required to collect taxes imposed under the Use Tax Act on marketplace sales made to Illinois purchasers shall be liable to the Department for such taxes, except when the marketplace facilitator is relieved of the duty to remit such taxes by virtue of having paid to the Department taxes imposed by this Act in accordance with this Section upon his or her gross receipts from such sales.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall allow the Department to collect retailers' occupation taxes from both the marketplace facilitator and marketplace seller on the same transaction.

(i) If, for any reason, the Department is prohibited from enforcing the marketplace facilitator's duty under this Act to remit taxes pursuant to this Section, the duty to remit such taxes remains with the marketplace seller.

(j) Nothing in this Section affects the obligation of any consumer to remit use tax for any taxable transaction for which a certified service provider acting on behalf of a remote retailer or a marketplace facilitator does not collect and remit the appropriate tax.

(k) Nothing in this Section shall allow the Department to collect the retailers' occupation tax from both the marketplace facilitator and the marketplace seller.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-983, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale, which, on and after January 1, 2025, includes the lease, of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, farm machinery and equipment also includes electrical power generation equipment used primarily for production agriculture.

This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners or lessors, lessees, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Tangible personal property sold to a purchaser if the purchaser is exempt from use tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2028, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 CFR 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including, but not limited to, municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2029, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft. However, until January 1, 2024, this exemption excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films.

Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2023, this exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. From January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2029, this exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to: (A) persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations; and (B) persons who engage in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants without regard to whether or not those persons meet the qualifications of item (A).

The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (40) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to February 5, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-629).

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental-purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental-Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(44) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had Public Act 101-31 been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (44) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (44):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(45) Beginning January 1, 2020 and through December 31, 2020, sales of tangible personal property made by a marketplace seller over a marketplace for which tax is due under this Act but for which use tax has been collected and remitted to the Department by a marketplace facilitator under Section 2d of the Use Tax Act are exempt from tax under this Act. A marketplace seller claiming this exemption shall maintain books and records demonstrating that the use tax on such sales has been collected and remitted by a marketplace facilitator. Marketplace sellers that have properly remitted tax under this Act on such sales may file a claim for credit as provided in Section 6 of this Act. No claim is allowed, however, for such taxes for which a credit or refund has been issued to the marketplace facilitator under the Use Tax Act, or for which the marketplace facilitator has filed a claim for credit or refund under the Use Tax Act.

(46) Beginning July 1, 2022, breast pumps, breast pump collection and storage supplies, and breast pump kits. This item (46) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70. As used in this item (46):

"Breast pump" means an electrically controlled or manually controlled pump device designed or marketed to be used to express milk from a human breast during lactation, including the pump device and any battery, AC adapter, or other power supply unit that is used to power the pump device and is packaged and sold with the pump device at the time of sale.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" means items of tangible personal property designed or marketed to be used in conjunction with a breast pump to collect milk expressed from a human breast and to store collected milk until it is ready for consumption.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" includes, but is not limited to: breast shields and breast shield connectors; breast pump tubes and tubing adapters; breast pump valves and membranes; backflow protectors and backflow protector adaptors; bottles and bottle caps specific to the operation of the breast pump; and breast milk storage bags.

"Breast pump collection and storage supplies" does not include: (1) bottles and bottle caps not specific to the operation of the breast pump; (2) breast pump travel bags and other similar carrying accessories, including ice packs, labels, and other similar products; (3) breast pump cleaning supplies; (4) nursing bras, bra pads, breast shells, and other similar products; and (5) creams, ointments, and other similar products that relieve breastfeeding-related symptoms or conditions of the breasts or nipples, unless sold as part of a breast pump kit that is pre-packaged by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

"Breast pump kit" means a kit that: (1) contains no more than a breast pump, breast pump collection and storage supplies, a rechargeable battery for operating the breast pump, a breastmilk cooler, bottle stands, ice packs, and a breast pump carrying case; and (2) is pre-packaged as a breast pump kit by the breast pump manufacturer or distributor.

(47) Tangible personal property sold by or on behalf of the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. This item (47) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(48) Beginning on January 1, 2024, tangible personal property purchased by an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who presents valid military identification and purchases the property using a form of payment where the federal government is the payor. The member of the armed forces must complete, at the point of sale, a form prescribed by the Department of Revenue documenting that the transaction is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph. Retailers must keep the form as documentation of the exemption in their records for a period of not less than 6 years. "Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(49) Beginning July 1, 2024, home-delivered meals provided to Medicare or Medicaid recipients when payment is made by an intermediary, such as a Medicare Administrative Contractor, a Managed Care Organization, or a Medicare Advantage Organization, pursuant to a government contract. This paragraph (49) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(50) (49) Beginning on January 1, 2026, as further defined in Section 2-10, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption). This item (50) (49) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(51) (49) Gross receipts from the lease of the following tangible personal property:

(1) computer software transferred subject to a license that meets the following requirements:

(A) it is evidenced by a written agreement signed by the licensor and the customer;

(i) an electronic agreement in which the customer accepts the license by means of an electronic signature that is verifiable and can be authenticated and is attached to or made part of the license will comply with this requirement;

(ii) a license agreement in which the customer electronically accepts the terms by clicking "I agree" does not comply with this requirement;

(B) it restricts the customer's duplication and use of the software;

(C) it prohibits the customer from licensing, sublicensing, or transferring the software to a third party (except to a related party) without the permission and continued control of the licensor;

(D) the licensor has a policy of providing another copy at minimal or no charge if the customer loses or damages the software, or of permitting the licensee to make and keep an archival copy, and such policy is either stated in the license agreement, supported by the licensor's books and records, or supported by a notarized statement made under penalties of perjury by the licensor; and

(E) the customer must destroy or return all copies of the software to the licensor at the end of the license period; this provision is deemed to be met, in the case of a perpetual license, without being set forth in the license agreement; and

(2) property that is subject to a tax on lease receipts imposed by a home rule unit of local government if the ordinance imposing that tax was adopted prior to January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; 102-700, Article 70, Section 70-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 75, Section 75-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1026, eff. 5-27-22; 103-9, Article 5, Section 5-20, eff. 6-7-23; 103-9, Article 15, Section 15-20, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-384, eff. 1-1-24; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-643, eff. 7-1-24; 103-746, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; 103-995, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-10) from Ch. 120, par. 441-10

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales, which, on and after January 1, 2025, includes leases, of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, and beginning again on August 5, 2022 through August 14, 2022, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after July 1, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-872), each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after July 1, 2017 and prior to January 1, 2024, (iv) 90% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028, and (v) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to mid-range ethanol blends, as defined in Section 3-44.3 of the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2028 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2028. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of mid-range ethanol blends is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of mid-range ethanol blends made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2028 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2024. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023. On and after January 1, 2024 and on or before December 31, 2030, the taxation of biodiesel, renewable diesel, and biodiesel blends shall be as provided in Section 3-5.1 of the Use Tax Act.

Until July 1, 2022 and from July 1, 2023 through December 31, 2025, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, with respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), the tax is imposed at the rate of 0%. On and after January 1, 2026, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act.

With respect to prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, blood sugar testing materials, syringes, and needles used by human diabetics, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including, but not limited to, soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 CFR 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) a "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) a statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-700, Article 20, Section 20-20, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 60, Section 60-30, eff. 4-19-22; 102-700, Article 65, Section 65-10, eff. 4-19-22; 103-9, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-12)

Sec. 2-12. Location where retailer is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling. The purpose of this Section is to specify where a retailer is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property for the purposes of this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, and for the purpose of collecting any other local retailers' occupation tax administered by the Department. This Section applies only with respect to the particular selling activities described in the following paragraphs. The provisions of this Section are not intended to, and shall not be interpreted to, affect where a retailer is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling with respect to any activity that is not specifically described in the following paragraphs.

(1) If a purchaser who is present at the retailer's place of business, having no prior commitment to the retailer, agrees to purchase and makes payment for tangible personal property at the retailer's place of business, then the transaction shall be deemed an over-the-counter sale occurring at the retailer's same place of business where the purchaser was present and made payment for that tangible personal property if the retailer regularly stocks the purchased tangible personal property or similar tangible personal property in the quantity, or similar quantity, for sale at the retailer's same place of business and then either (i) the purchaser takes possession of the tangible personal property at the same place of business or (ii) the retailer delivers or arranges for the tangible personal property to be delivered to the purchaser.

(2) If a purchaser, having no prior commitment to the retailer, agrees to purchase tangible personal property and makes payment over the phone, in writing, or via the Internet and takes possession of the tangible personal property at the retailer's place of business, then the sale shall be deemed to have occurred at the retailer's place of business where the purchaser takes possession of the property if the retailer regularly stocks the item or similar items in the quantity, or similar quantities, purchased by the purchaser.

(3) A retailer is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling food, beverages, or other tangible personal property through a vending machine at the location where the vending machine is located at the time the sale is made if (i) the vending machine is a device operated by coin, currency, credit card, token, coupon or similar device; (2) the food, beverage or other tangible personal property is contained within the vending machine and dispensed from the vending machine; and (3) the purchaser takes possession of the purchased food, beverage or other tangible personal property immediately.

(4) Minerals. A producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. With respect to minerals (i) the term "extracted from the earth" means the location at which the coal or other mineral is extracted from the mouth of the mine, and (ii) a "mineral" includes not only coal, but also oil, sand, stone taken from a quarry, gravel and any other thing commonly regarded as a mineral and extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(5) A retailer selling tangible personal property to a nominal lessee or bailee pursuant to a lease with a dollar or other nominal option to purchase is engaged in the business of selling at the location where the property is first delivered to the lessee or bailee for its intended use.

(5.5) Lease transactions. The lease of tangible personal property that is subject to the tax on leases under Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly is sourced as follows:

(i) For a lease that requires recurring periodic payments and for which the property is delivered to the lessee by the lessor, each periodic payment is sourced to the primary property location for each period covered by the payment. The primary property location shall be as indicated by an address for the property provided by the lessee that is available to the lessor from its records maintained in the ordinary course of business, when use of this address does not constitute bad faith. The property location is not altered by intermittent use at different locations, such as use of business property that accompanies employees on business trips and service calls.

(ii) For all other leases, including a lease that does not require recurring periodic payments and any lease for which the lessee takes possession of the property at the lessor's place of business, the payment is sourced as otherwise provided under this Act for sales at retail other than leases.

(6) Beginning on January 1, 2021, a remote retailer making retail sales of tangible personal property that meet or exceed the thresholds established in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 2 of this Act is engaged in the business of selling at the Illinois location to which the tangible personal property is shipped or delivered or at which possession is taken by the purchaser.

(7) Beginning January 1, 2021, a marketplace facilitator facilitating sales of tangible personal property that meet or exceed one of the thresholds established in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (c) of Section 2 of this Act is deemed to be engaged in the business of selling at the Illinois location to which the tangible personal property is shipped or delivered or at which possession is taken by the purchaser when the sale is made by a marketplace seller on the marketplace facilitator's marketplace.

(8) Beginning on January 1, 2025, for sales that would otherwise be sourced outside of this State, a retailer maintaining a place of business in this State that makes retail sales of tangible personal property to Illinois customers from a location or locations outside of Illinois is engaged in the business of selling at the Illinois location to which the tangible personal property is shipped or delivered or at which possession is taken by the purchaser.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-983, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 310. The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 6 as follows:

(35 ILCS 145/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 481b.32)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Hotel" means any building or buildings in which the public may, for a consideration, obtain living quarters, sleeping or housekeeping accommodations. The term includes, but is not limited to, inns, motels, tourist homes or courts, lodging houses, rooming houses and apartment houses, retreat centers, conference centers, and hunting lodges. For the purposes of re-renters of hotel rooms only, "hotel" does not include a short-term rental.

(2) "Operator" means any person engaged in the business of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel.

(3) "Occupancy" means the use or possession, or the right to the use or possession, of any room or rooms in a hotel for any purpose, or the right to the use or possession of the furnishings or to the services and accommodations accompanying the use and possession of the room or rooms.

(4) "Room" or "rooms" means any living quarters, sleeping or housekeeping accommodations.

(5) "Permanent resident" means any person who occupied or has the right to occupy any room or rooms, regardless of whether or not it is the same room or rooms, in a hotel for at least 30 consecutive days.

(6) "Rent" or "rental" means the consideration received for occupancy, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, including all receipts, cash, credits, and property or services of any kind or nature. "Rent" or "rental" includes any fee, charge, or commission received from a guest by a re-renter of hotel rooms specifically in connection with the re-rental of hotel rooms, but does not include any fee, charge, or commission received from a short-term rental by a hosting platform.

(7) "Department" means the Department of Revenue.

(8) "Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

(9) "Re-renter of hotel rooms" means a person who is not employed by the hotel operator but who, either directly or indirectly, through agreements or arrangements with third parties, collects or processes the payment of rent for a hotel room located in this State and (i) obtains the right or authority to grant control of, access to, or occupancy of a hotel room in this State to a guest of the hotel or (ii) facilitates the booking of a hotel room located in this State. A person who obtains those rights or authorities is not considered a re-renter of a hotel room if the person operates under a shared hotel brand with the operator.

(10) "Hosting platform" or "platform" means a person who provides an online application, software, website, or system through which a short-term rental located in this State is advertised or held out to the public as available to rent for occupancy. For purposes of this definition, "short-term rental" means an owner-occupied, tenant-occupied, or non-owner-occupied dwelling, including, but not limited to, an apartment, house, cottage, or condominium, located in this State, where: (i) at least one room in the dwelling is rented to an occupant for a period of less than 30 consecutive days; and (ii) all accommodations are reserved in advance; provided, however, that a dwelling shall be considered a single room if rented as such.

(11) "Shared hotel brand" means an identifying trademark that a hotel operator is expressly licensed to operate under in accordance with the terms of a hotel franchise or management agreement.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(35 ILCS 145/6) (from Ch. 120, par. 481b.36)

Sec. 6. Returns; allocation of proceeds.

(a) Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the last day of each calendar month, every person engaged as a hotel operator in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. the name of the operator;

2. his residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in business as a hotel operator in this State (including, if required by the Department, the address of each hotel from which rental receipts were received);

3. total amount of rental receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from engaging in business as a hotel operator during such preceding calendar month;

4. total amount of rental receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from renting, leasing or letting rooms to permanent residents during such preceding calendar month;

5. total amount of other exclusions from gross rental receipts allowed by this Act;

6. gross rental receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. the amount of tax due;

8. credit for any reimbursement of tax paid by a re-renter of hotel rooms to hotel operators for rentals purchased for re-rental, as provided in Section 3-3 of this Act;

9. such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If the operator's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 30 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 31 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 31 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 31 of the following year.

If the operator's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 31 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which an operator may file his return, in the case of any operator who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such operator shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one 1 business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In his return, the operator shall determine the value of any consideration other than money received by him in connection with engaging in business as a hotel operator and he shall include such value in his return. Such determination shall be subject to review and revision by the Department in the manner hereinafter provided for the correction of returns.

Where the operator is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

The person filing the return herein provided for shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax herein imposed. The operator filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% or $25 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the operator for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the operator's liabilities under this Act, as shown on an original return, the Department may authorize the operator to credit such excess payment against liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, in accordance with reasonable rules adopted by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the operator, the operator's discount shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the discount as applied to the credit taken and that actually due, and that operator shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

(b) Until July 1, 2024, the Department shall deposit the total net revenue realized from the tax imposed under this Act as provided in this subsection (b). Beginning on July 1, 2024, the Department shall deposit the total net revenue realized from the tax imposed under this Act as provided in subsection (c).

There shall be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund in the State treasury Treasury for each State fiscal year 40% of the amount of total net revenue from the tax imposed by subsection (a) of Section 3. Of the remaining 60%: (i) $5,000,000 shall be deposited into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Subsidy Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of 1/8 of $5,000,000 plus cumulative deficiencies in such deposits for prior months, and (ii) an amount equal to the then applicable Advance Amount, as defined in subsection (d), shall be deposited into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Advance Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of 1/8 of the then applicable Advance Amount plus any cumulative deficiencies in such deposits for prior months. (The deposits of the then applicable Advance Amount during each fiscal year shall be treated as advances of funds to the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority for its corporate purposes to the extent paid to the Authority or its trustee and shall be repaid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury Treasury by the State Treasurer on behalf of the Authority pursuant to Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, as amended. If in any fiscal year the full amount of the then applicable Advance Amount is not repaid into the General Revenue Fund, then the deficiency shall be paid from the amount in the Local Government Distributive Fund that would otherwise be allocated to the City of Chicago under the State Revenue Sharing Act.)

Of the remaining 60% of the amount of total net revenue beginning on August 1, 2011 through June 30, 2023, from the tax imposed by subsection (a) of Section 3 after all required deposits into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund, an amount equal to 8% of the net revenue realized from this Act during the preceding month shall be deposited as follows: 18% of such amount shall be deposited into the Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund for the purposes described in subsection (n) of Section 5 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act and the remaining 82% of such amount shall be deposited into the Local Tourism Fund each month for purposes authorized by Section 605-705 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law. Beginning on August 1, 2011 and through June 30, 2023, an amount equal to 4.5% of the net revenue realized from this Act during the preceding month shall be deposited as follows: 55% of such amount shall be deposited into the Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund for the purposes described in subsection (n) of Section 5 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act and the remaining 45% of such amount deposited into the International Tourism Fund for the purposes authorized in Section 605-707 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law.

Beginning on July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, of the remaining 60% of the amount of total net revenue realized from the tax imposed under subsection (a) of Section 3, after all required deposits into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund:

(1) an amount equal to 8% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the preceding month shall be deposited as follows: 82% to the Local Tourism Fund and 18% to the Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund; and

(2) an amount equal to 4.5% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the preceding month shall be deposited as follows: 55% to the Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund and 45% to the International Tourism Fund.

After making all these deposits, any remaining net revenue realized from the tax imposed under subsection (a) of Section 3 shall be deposited into the Tourism Promotion Fund in the State treasury Treasury. All moneys received by the Department from the additional tax imposed under subsection (b) of Section 3 shall be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund in the State treasury Treasury.

(c) Beginning on July 1, 2024, the total net revenue realized from the tax imposed under this Act for the preceding month shall be deposited each month as follows:

(1) 50% shall be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund; and

(2) the remaining 50% shall be deposited in the following order of priority:

(A) First:

(i) $5,000,000 shall be deposited into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Subsidy Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of one-eighth of $5,000,000 plus cumulative deficiencies in those deposits for prior months; and

(ii) an amount equal to the then applicable Advance Amount, as defined in subsection (d), shall be deposited into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and credited to the Advance Account each fiscal year by making monthly deposits in the amount of one-eighth of the then applicable Advance Amount plus any cumulative deficiencies in such deposits for prior months; the deposits of the then applicable Advance Amount during each fiscal year shall be treated as advances of funds to the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority for its corporate purposes to the extent paid to the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority or its trustee and shall be repaid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury Treasury by the State Treasurer on behalf of the Authority pursuant to Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act; if, in any fiscal year, the full amount of the Advance Amount is not repaid into the General Revenue Fund, then the deficiency shall be paid from the amount in the Local Government Distributive Fund that would otherwise be allocated to the City of Chicago under the State Revenue Sharing Act; and

(B) after all required deposits into the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund under paragraph (A) have been made each month, the remainder shall be deposited as follows:

(i) 56% into the Tourism Promotion Fund;

(ii) 23% into the Local Tourism Fund;

(iii) 14% into the Chicago Travel Industry Promotion Fund; and

(iv) 7% into the International Tourism Fund.

(d) As used in subsections (b) and (c):

"Advance Amount" means, for fiscal year 2002, $22,179,000, and for subsequent fiscal years through fiscal year 2033, 105.615% of the Advance Amount for the immediately preceding fiscal year, rounded up to the nearest $1,000.

"Net revenue realized" means the revenue collected by the State under this Act less the amount paid out as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under this Act.

(e) The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the operator's last State income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the State income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department for the same period, the operator shall attach to his annual information return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The operator's annual information return to the Department shall also disclose payroll information of the operator's business during the year covered by such return and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual tax returns by such operator as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty in an amount determined in accordance with Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to an operator who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-592, eff. 7-1-24; 103-642, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-12-24.)

Section 315. The Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 6 as follows:

(35 ILCS 155/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Renting" means any transfer of the possession or right to possession of an automobile to a user for a valuable consideration for a period of one year or less.

"Renting" does not include making a charge for the use of an automobile where the rentor, either himself or through an agent, furnishes a service of operating an automobile so that the rentor remains in possession of the automobile, because this does not constitute a transfer of possession or right to possession of the automobile.

"Renting" does not include the making of a charge by an automobile dealer for the use of an automobile as a demonstrator in connection with the dealer's business of selling, where the charge is merely made to recover the costs of operating the automobile as a demonstrator and is not intended as a rental or leasing charge in the ordinary sense.

"Renting" does not include peer-to-peer car sharing, as defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, if tax due on the automobile under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Use Tax Act was paid upon the purchase of the automobile or when the automobile was brought into Illinois. The car-sharing program shall ask a shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner if the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner paid applicable taxes at the time of purchase. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the car-sharing program shall have the right to rely on the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner's response and to be held legally harmless for such reliance.

"Automobile" means (1) any motor vehicle of the first division, or (2) a motor vehicle of the second division which: (A) is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (C) has a Gross Vehicle Weight Rating, as defined in Section 1-124.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, of 8,000 pounds or less.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, conservator, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Rentor" means any person, firm, corporation, or association engaged in the business of renting or leasing automobiles to users. For this purpose, the objective of making a profit is not necessary to make the renting activity a business.

"Rentor" does not include a car-sharing program or a shared-vehicle owner, as defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, if tax due on the automobile under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Use Tax Act was paid upon the purchase of the automobile or when the automobile was brought into Illinois. The car-sharing program shall ask a shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner if the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner paid applicable taxes at the time of purchase. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the car-sharing program shall have the right to rely on the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner's response and to be held legally harmless for such reliance.

"Rentee" means any user to whom the possession, or the right to possession, of an automobile is transferred for a valuable consideration for a period of one year or less, whether paid for by the "rentee" or by someone else.

"Rentee" does not include a shared-vehicle driver, as defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, if tax due on the automobile under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Use Tax Act was paid upon the purchase of the automobile or when the automobile was brought into Illinois. The car-sharing program shall ask a shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner if the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner paid applicable taxes at the time of purchase. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the car-sharing program shall have the right to rely on the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner's response and to be held legally harmless for such reliance.

"Gross receipts" from the renting of tangible personal property or "rent" means the total rental price or leasing price. In the case of rental transactions in which the consideration is paid to the rentor on an installment basis, the amounts of such payments shall be included by the rentor in gross receipts or rent only as and when payments are received by the rentor.

"Gross receipts" does not include receipts received by an automobile dealer from a manufacturer or service contract provider for the use of an automobile by a person while that person's automobile is being repaired by that automobile dealer and the repair is made pursuant to a manufacturer's warranty or a service contract where a manufacturer or service contract provider reimburses that automobile dealer pursuant to a manufacturer's warranty or a service contract and the reimbursement is merely made to recover the costs of operating the automobile as a loaner vehicle.

"Rental price" means the consideration for renting or leasing an automobile valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, including cash credits, property and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property rented, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost, or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include charges that are added by a rentor on account of the rentor's tax liability under this Act or on account of the rentor's duty to collect, from the rentee, the tax that is imposed by Section 4 of this Act. The phrase "rental price" does not include compensation paid to a rentor by a rentee in consideration of the waiver by the rentor of any right of action or claim against the rentee for loss or damage to the automobile rented and also does not include a separately stated charge for insurance or recovery of refueling costs or other separately stated charges that are not for the use of tangible personal property.

"Rental price" does not include consideration paid for peer-to-peer car sharing to a shared-vehicle owner or a car-sharing program, as those terms are defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, if tax due on the automobile under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Use Tax Act was paid upon the purchase of the automobile or when the automobile was brought into Illinois. The car-sharing program shall ask a shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner if the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner paid applicable taxes at the time of purchase. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the car-sharing program shall have the right to rely on the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner's response and to be held legally harmless for such reliance.

(Source: P.A. 103-520, eff. 8-11-23; revised 10-23-24.)

(35 ILCS 155/6)

Sec. 6. Applicability. The taxes imposed by Sections 3 and 4 of this Act do not apply to any amounts paid or received for peer-to-peer car sharing, as defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, or the privilege of sharing a shared vehicle through a car-sharing program, as defined in Section 5 of the Car-Sharing Program Act, if the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner paid applicable taxes upon the purchase of the automobile.

As used in this Section, "applicable taxes" means, with respect to vehicles purchased in Illinois, the retailers' occupation tax levied under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or the use tax levied under the Use Tax Act. "Applicable taxes", with respect to vehicles not purchased in Illinois, refers to the sales, use, excise, or other generally applicable tax that is due upon the purchase of a vehicle in the jurisdiction in which the vehicle was purchased.

Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the car-sharing program shall have the right to rely on the shared-vehicle shared vehicle owner's response and to be held legally harmless for such reliance.

(Source: P.A. 103-520, eff. 8-11-23; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 320. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 18-185, 18-250, 22-15, and 22-40 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; (p) made for road purposes in the first year after a township assumes the rights, powers, duties, assets, property, liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of a road district abolished under the provisions of Section 6-133 of the Illinois Highway Code; and (q) made under Section 4 of the Community Mental Health Act to provide the necessary funds or to supplement existing funds for community mental health facilities and services, including facilities and services for the person with a developmental disability or a substance use disorder; and (r) (q) made for the payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.11 of the School Code or to refund or continue to refund those bonds.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (h-8) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 9.6a of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to make contributions to the pension fund established under Article 13 of the Illinois Pension Code; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsections (h) and (h-8) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects and bonds issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for the purpose of making contributions to the pension fund established under Article 12 of the Illinois Pension Code; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for persons with disabilities under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; (q) made by Ford Heights School District 169 under Section 17-9.02 of the School Code; (r) made for the purpose of making employer contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago under Section 34-53 of the School Code; and (s) made under Section 4 of the Community Mental Health Act to provide the necessary funds or to supplement existing funds for community mental health facilities and services, including facilities and services for the person with a developmental disability or a substance use disorder; and (t) (s) made for the payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.11 of the School Code or to refund or continue to refund those bonds.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; (m) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of the School Code; and (n) made under Section 4 of the Community Mental Health Act to provide the necessary funds or to supplement existing funds for community mental health facilities and services, including facilities and services for the person with a developmental disability or a substance use disorder; and (o) (n) made for the payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.11 of the School Code or to refund or continue to refund those bonds.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) if the bonds were approved by referendum after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (m) made under Section 4 of the Community Mental Health Act to provide the necessary funds or to supplement existing funds for community mental health facilities and services, including facilities and services for the person with a developmental disability or a substance use disorder; and (n) (m) made for the payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.11 of the School Code or to refund or continue to refund those bonds.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). A debt service extension base established or increased at any time pursuant to any provision of this Law, except Section 18-212, shall be increased each year commencing with the later of (i) the 2009 levy year or (ii) the first levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to the taxing district, by the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year. The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, 18-230, 18-206, and 18-233. Beginning with levy year 2022, for taxing districts that are specified in Section 18-190.7, the taxing district's aggregate extension base shall be calculated as provided in Section 18-190.7. An adjustment under Section 18-135 shall be made for the 2007 levy year and all subsequent levy years whenever one or more counties within which a taxing district is located (i) used estimated valuations or rates when extending taxes in the taxing district for the last preceding levy year that resulted in the over or under extension of taxes, or (ii) increased or decreased the tax extension for the last preceding levy year as required by Section 18-135(c). Whenever an adjustment is required under Section 18-135, the aggregate extension base of the taxing district shall be equal to the amount that the aggregate extension of the taxing district would have been for the last preceding levy year if either or both (i) actual, rather than estimated, valuations or rates had been used to calculate the extension of taxes for the last levy year, or (ii) the tax extension for the last preceding levy year had not been adjusted as required by subsection (c) of Section 18-135.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2012, the aggregate extension base for West Northfield School District No. 31 in Cook County shall be $12,654,592.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for the purpose of calculating the limiting rate for levy year 2023, the last preceding aggregate extension base for Homewood School District No. 153 in Cook County shall be $19,535,377.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2022, the aggregate extension base of a home equity assurance program that levied at least $1,000,000 in property taxes in levy year 2019 or 2020 under the Home Equity Assurance Act shall be the amount that the program's aggregate extension base for levy year 2021 would have been if the program had levied a property tax for levy year 2021.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value, and (iv) any increase in assessed value due to oil or gas production from an oil or gas well required to be permitted under the Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act that was not produced in or accounted for during the previous levy year. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Act of 1995, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, except for school districts that reduced their extension for educational purposes pursuant to Section 18-206, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided. In the case of a taxing district that obtained referendum approval for an increased limiting rate on March 20, 2012, the limiting rate for tax year 2012 shall be the rate that generates the approximate total amount of taxes extendable for that tax year, as set forth in the proposition approved by the voters; this rate shall be the final rate applied by the county clerk for the aggregate of all capped funds of the district for tax year 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-311, eff. 8-6-21; 102-519, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-707, eff. 4-22-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-895, eff. 5-23-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-587, eff. 5-28-24; 103-591, eff. 7-1-24; 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 7-9-24.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-250)

Sec. 18-250. Additions to forfeited taxes and unpaid special assessments; fee for estimate.

(a) When any property has been forfeited for taxes or special assessments, the clerk shall compute the amount of back taxes and special assessments, interest, statutory costs, and printer's fees remaining due, with one year's interest on all taxes forfeited, and enter them upon the collector's books as separate items. Except as otherwise provided in Section 21-375, the aggregate so computed shall be collected in the same manner as the taxes on other property for that year. The county clerk shall examine the forfeitures, and strike all errors and make corrections as necessary. For counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, interest added to forfeitures under this Section shall be at the rate of 12% per year. For counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, interest added to forfeitures under this Section shall accrue at the rate of (i) 12% per year if the forfeiture is for a tax year before tax year 2023 or (ii) 0.75% per month, or portion thereof, if the forfeiture is for tax year 2023 or any tax year thereafter.

(b) In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, taxes first extended for prior years, or previously extended for prior years for which application for judgment and order of sale is not already pending, shall be added to the tax of the current year, with interest and costs as provided by law. Forfeitures shall not be so added, but they shall remain a lien on the property upon which they were charged until paid or sold as provided by law. There shall be added to such forfeitures annually the same interest as would be added if forfeited annually, until paid or sold, and the addition of each year's interest shall be considered a separate forfeiture. Forfeitures may be redeemed in the manner provided in Section 21-370 or 21-375. Taxes and special assessments for which application for judgment and order of sale is pending, or entered but not enforced for any reason, shall not be added to the tax for the current year. However, if the taxes and special assessments remain unpaid, the property, shall be advertised and sold under judgments and orders of sale to be entered in pending applications, or already entered in prior applications, including judgments and orders of sale under which the purchaser fails to complete his or her purchase.

(c) In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, on or before January 1, 2001 and during each year thereafter, the county clerk shall compute the amount of taxes on each property that remain due or forfeited for any year prior to the current year and have not become subject to Sections 20-180 through 20-190, and the clerk shall enter the same upon the collector's warrant books of the current and all following years as separate items in a suitable column. The county clerk shall examine the collector's warrant books and the Tax Judgment, Sale, Redemption and Forfeiture records for the appropriate years and may take any other actions as the clerk finds to be necessary or convenient in order to comply with this subsection. On and after January 1, 2001, any taxes for any year remaining due or forfeited against real property in such county not entered on the current collector's warrant books shall be deemed uncollectible and void, but shall not be subject to the posting or other requirements of Sections 20-180 through 20-190.

(d) In counties with 100,000 or more inhabitants, the county clerk shall, when making the annual collector's books, in a suitable column, insert and designate previous forfeitures of general taxes by the word "forfeiture", to be stamped opposite each property forfeited at the last previous tax sale for general taxes and not redeemed or purchased previous to the completion of the collector's books. The collectors of general taxes shall stamp upon all bills rendered and receipts given the information on the collector's books regarding forfeiture of general taxes, and the stamped notation shall also refer the recipient to the county clerk for full information. The county clerk shall be allowed to collect from the person requesting an estimate of costs of redemption of a forfeited property, the fee provided by law.

(Source: P.A. 103-555, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-22-24.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-15)

Sec. 22-15. Service of notice. The purchaser or his or her assignee shall give the notice required by Section 22-10 by causing it to be published in a newspaper as set forth in Section 22-20. In addition, the notice shall be served upon owners who reside on any part of the subject property by leaving a copy of the notice with those owners personally. The notice must be served by a sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, by a coroner) of the county in which the property, or any part thereof, is located or, by a person who is licensed or registered as a private detective under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, if the notice required by Section 22-10 is to be served by the sheriff, no sale in error may be declared pursuant to Section 22-50 or subparagraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 21-310 based upon the sheriff's failure to serve the notice in accordance with this Section unless the notice and service list for the first service attempt is delivered by the purchaser or assignee to the sheriff at least 5 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption. Purchasers or assignees may request that the sheriff make additional service attempts to the same entities and locations, and the sheriff may make those additional attempts within the noticing period established in Section 22-10, but the sheriff's failure to make such additional service attempts is not grounds for a sale in error under Section 22-50 or subparagraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 21-310.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, if the purchaser or assignee requests that the sheriff make an additional service attempt upon an entity or to a location that was not included on the service list for the first attempt, then the purchaser or assignee must deliver the notice and service list for the additional service attempt to the sheriff at least 4 months before the expiration of the period of redemption. If the purchaser or assignee delivers the notice and service list for an additional service attempt upon an entity or to a location that was not included on the service list for the first attempt to the sheriff at least 4 months before the expiration of the period of redemption, then the sheriff's failure to serve the notice in accordance with this Section may be grounds for a sale in error under Section 22-50 but not under subparagraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 21-310. If the purchaser or assignee fails to deliver the notice and service list for an additional service attempt upon an entity or to a location that was not included on the first service list to the sheriff at least 4 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, then the sheriff's failure to serve that additional notice in accordance with this Section is not grounds for a sale in error under either Section 22-50 or subparagraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 21-310.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants where a taxing district is a petitioner for tax deed pursuant to Section 21-90, in lieu of service by the sheriff or coroner the notice may be served by a special process server appointed by the circuit court as provided in this Section. The taxing district may move prior to filing one or more petitions for tax deed for appointment of such a special process server. The court, upon being satisfied that the person named in the motion is at least 18 years of age and is capable of serving notice as required under this Code, shall enter an order appointing such person as a special process server for a period of one year. The appointment may be renewed for successive periods of one year each by motion and order, and a copy of the original and any subsequent order shall be filed in each tax deed case in which a notice is served by the appointed person. Delivery of the notice to and service of the notice by the special process server shall have the same force and effect as its delivery to and service by the sheriff or coroner.

The same form of notice shall also be served, in the manner set forth under Sections 2-203, 2-204, 2-205, 2-205.1, and 2-211 of the Code of Civil Procedure, upon all other owners and parties interested in the property, if upon diligent inquiry they can be found in the county, and upon the occupants of the property.

If the property sold has more than 4 dwellings or other rental units, and has a managing agent or party who collects rents, that person shall be deemed the occupant and shall be served with notice instead of the occupants of the individual units. If the property has no dwellings or rental units, but economic or recreational activities are carried on therein, the person directing such activities shall be deemed the occupant. Holders of rights of entry and possibilities of reverter shall not be deemed parties interested in the property.

When a party interested in the property is a trustee, notice served upon the trustee shall be deemed to have been served upon any beneficiary or note holder thereunder unless the holder of the note is disclosed of record.

When a judgment is a lien upon the property sold, the holder of the lien shall be served with notice if the name of the judgment debtor as shown in the transcript, certified copy or memorandum of judgment filed of record is identical, as to given name and surname, with the name of the party interested as it appears of record.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort, cannot be found or served with notice in the county as provided in this Section, and the person in actual occupancy and possession is tenant to, or in possession under the owners or the parties interested in the property, then service of notice upon the tenant, occupant or person in possession shall be deemed service upon the owners or parties interested.

If any owner or party interested, upon diligent inquiry and effort, cannot be found or served with notice in the county, then the person making the service shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to that party at his or her residence, if ascertainable.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-477 apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-477).

(Source: P.A. 103-555, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-6-24.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-40)

Sec. 22-40. Issuance of deed; possession.

(a) To obtain an order for issuance of tax deed, the petitioner must provide sufficient evidence that:

(1) the redemption period has expired and the property has not been redeemed;

(2) all taxes and special assessments which became due and payable subsequent to the sale have been paid, unless the county or its agent, as trustee pursuant to Section 21-90, is the petitioner;

(3) all forfeitures and sales which occur subsequent to the sale are paid or redeemed, unless the county or its agent, as trustee pursuant to Section 21-90, is the petitioner;

(4) the notices required by law have been given, and all advancements of public funds under the police power made by a county, city, village, or town under Section 22-35 have been paid; and

(5) the petitioner has complied with all the provisions of law entitling him or her to a deed.

Upon receipt of sufficient evidence of the requirements under this subsection (a), the court shall find that the petitioner complied with those requirements and shall enter an order directing the county clerk, on the production of the tax certificate and a certified copy of the order, to issue to the purchaser or its assignee a tax deed. The court shall insist on strict compliance with Section 22-10 through 22-25. Prior to the entry of an order directing the issuance of a tax deed, the petitioner shall furnish the court with a report of proceedings of the evidence received on the application for tax deed and the report of proceedings shall be filed and made a part of the court record.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (e), if taxes for years prior to the year or years sold are or become delinquent subsequent to the date of sale, the court shall find that the lien of those delinquent taxes has been or will be merged into the tax deed grantee's title if the court determines that the tax deed grantee or any prior holder of the certificate of purchase, or any person or entity under common ownership or control with any such grantee or prior holder of the certificate of purchase, was at no time the holder of any certificate of purchase for the years sought to be merged. If delinquent taxes are merged into the tax deed pursuant to this subsection, the court shall enter an order declaring which specific taxes have been or will be merged into the tax deed title and directing the county treasurer and county clerk to reflect that declaration in the warrant and judgment records; provided, that no such order shall be effective until a tax deed has been issued and timely recorded. Nothing contained in this Section shall relieve any owner liable for delinquent property taxes under this Code from the payment of the taxes that have been merged into the title upon issuance of the tax deed.

(c) The county clerk is entitled to a fee of $10 in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $5 in counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants for the issuance of the tax deed, with the exception of deeds issued to the county pursuant to its authority under Section 21-90. The clerk may not include in a tax deed more than one property as listed, assessed and sold in one description, except in cases where several properties are owned by one person.

Upon application, the court shall, enter an order to place the tax deed grantee or the grantee's successor in interest in possession of the property and may enter orders and grant relief as may be necessary or desirable to maintain the grantee or the grantee's successor in interest in possession.

(d) The court shall retain jurisdiction to enter orders pursuant to subsections (b) and (c) of this Section. Public Act 92-223 This amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly and Public Act 95-477 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall be construed as being declarative of existing law and not as a new enactment.

(e) Prior to the issuance of any tax deed under this Section, the petitioner must redeem all taxes and special assessments on the property that are subject to a pending tax petition filed by a county or its assignee pursuant to Section 21-90.

(f) If, for any reason, a purchaser fails to obtain an order for tax deed within the required time period and no sale in error was granted or redemption paid, then the certificate shall be forfeited to the county, as trustee, pursuant to Section 21-90.

(Source: P.A. 103-555, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-5-24.)

Section 325. The Telecommunications Excise Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 630/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 2002)

Sec. 2. As used in this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

(a) "Gross charge" means the amount paid for the act or privilege of originating or receiving telecommunications in this State and for all services and equipment provided in connection therewith by a retailer, valued in money whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, services, and property of every kind or nature, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of such telecommunications, the cost of materials used, labor or service costs, or any other expense whatsoever. In case credit is extended, the amount thereof shall be included only as and when paid. "Gross charges" for private line service shall include charges imposed at each channel termination point within this State, charges for the channel mileage between each channel termination point within this State, and charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided within Illinois. Charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided in Illinois shall be determined by the retailer as follows: (i) for interstate inter-office channels having 2 channel termination points, only one of which is in Illinois, 50% of the total charge imposed; or (ii) for interstate inter-office channels having more than 2 channel termination points, one or more of which are in Illinois, an amount equal to the total charge multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of channel termination points within Illinois and the denominator of which is the total number of channel termination points. Prior to January 1, 2004, any method consistent with this paragraph or other method that reasonably apportions the total charges for interstate inter-office channels among the states in which channel terminations points are located shall be accepted as a reasonable method to determine the charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided within Illinois for that period. However, "gross charges" shall not include any of the following:

(1) Any amounts added to a purchaser's bill because of a charge made pursuant to (i) the tax imposed by this Article; (ii) charges added to customers' bills pursuant to the provisions of Section Sections 9-221 or 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, as amended, or any similar charges added to customers' bills by retailers who are not subject to rate regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of recovering any of the tax liabilities or other amounts specified in such provisions of such Act; (iii) the tax imposed by Section 4251 of the Internal Revenue Code; (iv) 911 surcharges; or (v) the tax imposed by the Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act.

(2) Charges for a sent collect telecommunication received outside of the State.

(3) Charges for leased time on equipment or charges for the storage of data or information for subsequent retrieval or the processing of data or information intended to change its form or content. Such equipment includes, but is not limited to, the use of calculators, computers, data processing equipment, tabulating equipment, or accounting equipment and also includes the usage of computers under a time-sharing agreement.

(4) Charges for customer equipment, including such equipment that is leased or rented by the customer from any source, wherein such charges are disaggregated and separately identified from other charges.

(5) Charges to business enterprises certified under Section 9-222.1 of the Public Utilities Act, as amended, or under Section 95 of the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act, to the extent of such exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(5.1) Charges to business enterprises certified under the Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act, to the extent of the exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(5.2) Charges to entities certified under Section 605-1115 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to the extent of the exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(6) Charges for telecommunications and all services and equipment provided in connection therewith between a parent corporation and its wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries when the tax imposed under this Article has already been paid to a retailer and only to the extent that the charges between the parent corporation and wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries represent expense allocation between the corporations and not the generation of profit for the corporation rendering such service.

(7) Bad debts. Bad debt means any portion of a debt that is related to a sale at retail for which gross charges are not otherwise deductible or excludable that has become worthless or uncollectable, as determined under applicable federal income tax standards. If the portion of the debt deemed to be bad is subsequently paid, the retailer shall report and pay the tax on that portion during the reporting period in which the payment is made.

(8) Charges paid by inserting coins in coin-operated telecommunication devices.

(9) Amounts paid by telecommunications retailers under the Telecommunications Municipal Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act.

(10) Charges for nontaxable services or telecommunications if (i) those charges are aggregated with other charges for telecommunications that are taxable, (ii) those charges are not separately stated on the customer bill or invoice, and (iii) the retailer can reasonably identify the nontaxable charges on the retailer's books and records kept in the regular course of business. If the nontaxable charges cannot reasonably be identified, the gross charge from the sale of both taxable and nontaxable services or telecommunications billed on a combined basis shall be attributed to the taxable services or telecommunications. The burden of proving nontaxable charges shall be on the retailer of the telecommunications.

(b) "Amount paid" means the amount charged to the taxpayer's service address in this State regardless of where such amount is billed or paid.

(c) "Telecommunications", in addition to the meaning ordinarily and popularly ascribed to it, includes, without limitation, messages or information transmitted through use of local, toll, and wide area telephone service; private line services; channel services; telegraph services; teletypewriter; computer exchange services; cellular mobile telecommunications service; specialized mobile radio; stationary 2-way two way radio; paging service; or any other form of mobile and portable one-way or 2-way two-way communications; or any other transmission of messages or information by electronic or similar means, between or among points by wire, cable, fiber optics fiber-optics, laser, microwave, radio, satellite, or similar facilities. As used in this Act, "private line" means a dedicated non-traffic sensitive service for a single customer, that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels, from one or more specified locations to one or more other specified locations. The definition of "telecommunications" shall not include value added services in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, content, code, and protocol of the information for purposes other than transmission. "Telecommunications" shall not include purchases of telecommunications by a telecommunications service provider for use as a component part of the service provided by him to the ultimate retail consumer who originates or terminates the taxable end-to-end communications. Carrier access charges, right of access charges, charges for use of inter-company facilities, and all telecommunications resold in the subsequent provision of, used as a component of, or integrated into end-to-end telecommunications service shall be non-taxable as sales for resale.

(d) "Interstate telecommunications" means all telecommunications that either originate or terminate outside this State.

(e) "Intrastate telecommunications" means all telecommunications that originate and terminate within this State.

(f) "Department" means the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

(g) "Director" means the Director of Revenue for the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

(h) "Taxpayer" means a person who individually or through his agents, employees, or permittees engages in the act or privilege of originating or receiving telecommunications in this State and who incurs a tax liability under this Article.

(i) "Person" means any natural individual, firm, trust, estate, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court, the federal Federal and State governments, including State universities created by statute or any city, town, county, or other political subdivision of this State.

(j) "Purchase at retail" means the acquisition, consumption, or use of telecommunication through a sale at retail.

(k) "Sale at retail" means the transmitting, supplying, or furnishing of telecommunications and all services and equipment provided in connection therewith for a consideration to persons other than the federal Federal and State governments, and State universities created by statute and other than between a parent corporation and its wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries for their use or consumption and not for resale.

(l) "Retailer" means and includes every person engaged in the business of making sales at retail as defined in this Article. The Department may, in its discretion, upon application, authorize the collection of the tax hereby imposed by any retailer not maintaining a place of business within this State, who, to the satisfaction of the Department, furnishes adequate security to insure collection and payment of the tax. Such retailer shall be issued, without charge, a permit to collect such tax. When so authorized, it shall be the duty of such retailer to collect the tax upon all of the gross charges for telecommunications in this State in the same manner and subject to the same requirements as a retailer maintaining a place of business within this State. The permit may be revoked by the Department at its discretion.

(m) "Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any retailer having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution facilities, transmission facilities, sales office, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State.

(n) "Service address" means the location of telecommunications equipment from which the telecommunications services are originated or at which telecommunications services are received by a taxpayer. In the event this may not be a defined location, as in the case of mobile phones, paging systems, maritime systems, "service address" means the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. For air-to-ground systems and the like, "service address" shall mean the location of a taxpayer's primary use of the telecommunications equipment as defined by telephone number, authorization code, or location in Illinois where bills are sent.

(o) "Prepaid telephone calling arrangements" mean the right to exclusively purchase telephone or telecommunications services that must be paid for in advance and enable the origination of one or more intrastate, interstate, or international telephone calls or other telecommunications using an access number, an authorization code, or both, whether manually or electronically dialed, for which payment to a retailer must be made in advance, provided that, unless recharged, no further service is provided once that prepaid amount of service has been consumed. Prepaid telephone calling arrangements include the recharge of a prepaid calling arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "recharge" means the purchase of additional prepaid telephone or telecommunications services whether or not the purchaser acquires a different access number or authorization code. "Prepaid telephone calling arrangement" does not include an arrangement whereby a customer purchases a payment card and pursuant to which the service provider reflects the amount of such purchase as a credit on an invoice issued to that customer under an existing subscription plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-669, eff. 11-16-21; 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 330. The Telecommunications Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 635/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Gross charges" means the amount paid to a telecommunications retailer for the act or privilege of originating or receiving telecommunications in this State and for all services rendered in connection therewith, valued in money whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, services, and property of every kind or nature, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of such telecommunications, the cost of the materials used, labor or service costs, or any other expense whatsoever. In case credit is extended, the amount thereof shall be included only as and when paid. "Gross charges" for private line service shall include charges imposed at each channel termination point within this State, charges for the channel mileage between each channel termination point within this State, and charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided within Illinois. Charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided in Illinois shall be determined by the retailer as follows: (i) for interstate inter-office channels having 2 channel termination points, only one of which is in Illinois, 50% of the total charge imposed; or (ii) for interstate inter-office channels having more than 2 channel termination points, one or more of which are in Illinois, an amount equal to the total charge multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of channel termination points within Illinois and the denominator of which is the total number of channel termination points. Prior to January 1, 2004, any method consistent with this paragraph or other method that reasonably apportions the total charges for interstate inter-office channels among the states in which channel terminations points are located shall be accepted as a reasonable method to determine the charges for that portion of the interstate inter-office channel provided within Illinois for that period. However, "gross charges" shall not include any of the following:

(1) Any amounts added to a purchaser's bill because of a charge made under: (i) the fee imposed by this Section, (ii) additional charges added to a purchaser's bill under Section 9-221 or 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, (iii) the tax imposed by the Telecommunications Excise Tax Act, (iv) 911 surcharges, (v) the tax imposed by Section 4251 of the Internal Revenue Code, or (vi) the tax imposed by the Simplified Municipal Telecommunications Tax Act.

(2) Charges for a sent collect telecommunication received outside of this State.

(3) Charges for leased time on equipment or charges for the storage of data or information or subsequent retrieval or the processing of data or information intended to change its form or content. Such equipment includes, but is not limited to, the use of calculators, computers, data processing equipment, tabulating equipment, or accounting equipment and also includes the usage of computers under a time-sharing agreement.

(4) Charges for customer equipment, including such equipment that is leased or rented by the customer from any source, wherein such charges are disaggregated and separately identified from other charges.

(5) Charges to business enterprises certified under Section 9-222.1 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent of such exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(5.1) Charges to business enterprises certified under Section 95 of the Reimagining Energy and Vehicles in Illinois Act, to the extent of the exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(5.2) Charges to business enterprises certified under Section 110-95 of the Manufacturing Illinois Chips for Real Opportunity (MICRO) Act, to the extent of the exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(5.3) Charges to entities certified under Section 605-1115 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to the extent of the exemption and during the period of time specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(6) Charges for telecommunications and all services and equipment provided in connection therewith between a parent corporation and its wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries, and only to the extent that the charges between the parent corporation and wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries represent expense allocation between the corporations and not the generation of profit other than a regulatory required profit for the corporation rendering such services.

(7) Bad debts ("bad debt" means any portion of a debt that is related to a sale at retail for which gross charges are not otherwise deductible or excludable that has become worthless or uncollectible, as determined under applicable federal income tax standards; if the portion of the debt deemed to be bad is subsequently paid, the retailer shall report and pay the tax on that portion during the reporting period in which the payment is made).

(8) Charges paid by inserting coins in coin-operated telecommunication devices.

(9) Charges for nontaxable services or telecommunications if (i) those charges are aggregated with other charges for telecommunications that are taxable, (ii) those charges are not separately stated on the customer bill or invoice, and (iii) the retailer can reasonably identify the nontaxable charges on the retailer's books and records kept in the regular course of business. If the nontaxable charges cannot reasonably be identified, the gross charge from the sale of both taxable and nontaxable services or telecommunications billed on a combined basis shall be attributed to the taxable services or telecommunications. The burden of proving nontaxable charges shall be on the retailer of the telecommunications.

(a-5) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(b) "Telecommunications" includes, but is not limited to, messages or information transmitted through use of local, toll, and wide area telephone service, channel services, telegraph services, teletypewriter service, computer exchange services, private line services, specialized mobile radio services, or any other transmission of messages or information by electronic or similar means, between or among points by wire, cable, fiber optics, laser, microwave, radio, satellite, or similar facilities. Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, "telecommunications" shall also include wireless telecommunications as hereinafter defined. "Telecommunications" shall not include value added services in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, content, code, and protocol of the information for purposes other than transmission. "Telecommunications" shall not include purchase of telecommunications by a telecommunications service provider for use as a component part of the service provided by him or her to the ultimate retail consumer who originates or terminates the end-to-end communications. Retailer access charges, right of access charges, charges for use of intercompany facilities, and all telecommunications resold in the subsequent provision and used as a component of, or integrated into, end-to-end telecommunications service shall not be included in gross charges as sales for resale. "Telecommunications" shall not include the provision of cable services through a cable system as defined in the Cable Communications Act of 1984 (47 U.S.C. Sections 521 and following) as now or hereafter amended or through an open video system as defined in the Rules of the Federal Communications Commission (47 C.D.F. 76.1550 and following) as now or hereafter amended. Beginning January 1, 2001, prepaid telephone calling arrangements shall not be considered "telecommunications" subject to the tax imposed under this Act. For purposes of this Section, "prepaid telephone calling arrangements" means that term as defined in Section 2-27 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(c) "Wireless telecommunications" includes cellular mobile telephone services, personal wireless services as defined in Section 704(C) of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 (Public Law No. 104-104) as now or hereafter amended, including all commercial mobile radio services, and paging services.

(d) "Telecommunications retailer" or "retailer" or "carrier" means and includes every person engaged in the business of making sales of telecommunications at retail as defined in this Section. The Department may, in its discretion, upon applications, authorize the collection of the fee hereby imposed by any retailer not maintaining a place of business within this State, who, to the satisfaction of the Department, furnishes adequate security to insure collection and payment of the fee. When so authorized, it shall be the duty of such retailer to pay the fee upon all of the gross charges for telecommunications in the same manner and subject to the same requirements as a retailer maintaining a place of business within this State.

(e) "Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any retailer having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution facilities, transmission facilities, sales office, warehouse, or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State.

(f) "Sale of telecommunications at retail" means the transmitting, supplying, or furnishing of telecommunications and all services rendered in connection therewith for a consideration, other than between a parent corporation and its wholly owned subsidiaries or between wholly owned subsidiaries, when the gross charge made by one such corporation to another such corporation is not greater than the gross charge paid to the retailer for their use or consumption and not for sale.

(g) "Service address" means the location of telecommunications equipment from which telecommunications services are originated or at which telecommunications services are received. If this is not a defined location, as in the case of wireless telecommunications, paging systems, maritime systems, "service address" means the customer's place of primary use as defined in the Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Conformity Act. For air-to-ground systems, and the like, "service address" shall mean the location of the customer's primary use of the telecommunications equipment as defined by the location in Illinois where bills are sent.

(Source: P.A. 102-1125, eff. 2-3-23; 103-595, eff. 6-26-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 335. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 9-169.2, 13-309, 13-310, and 15-112 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/9-169.2)

Sec. 9-169.2. Minimum required employer contribution. The minimum required employer contribution for a specified year, as set forth in the annual actuarial report required under Section 9-169.1, shall be the amount determined by the Fund's actuary to be equal to the sum of: (i) the projected normal cost for pensions for that fiscal year based on the entry age actuarial cost method, plus (ii) a projected unfunded actuarial accrued liability amortization payment for pensions for the fiscal year, plus (iii) projected expenses for that fiscal year, plus (iv) interest to adjust for payment pattern during the fiscal year, less (v) projected employee contributions for that fiscal year.

The minimum required employer contribution for the next year shall be submitted annually by the county on or before June 14 of each year unless another time frame is agreed upon by the county and the Fund.

For the purposes of this Section:

"5-Year smoothed actuarial value of assets" means the value of assets as determined by a method that spreads the effect of each year's investment return in excess of or below the expected return.

"Entry age actuarial cost method" means a method of determining the normal cost and is determined as a level percentage of pay that, if paid from entry age to the assumed retirement age, assuming all the actuarial assumptions are exactly met by experience and no changes in assumptions or benefit provisions, would accumulate to a fund sufficient to pay all benefits provided by the Fund.

"Layered amortization" means a technique that separately layers the different components of the unfunded actuarial accrued liabilities to be amortized over a fixed period not to exceed 30 years.

"Projected expenses" means the projected administrative expenses for the cost of administering administrating the Fund.

"Projected normal costs for pensions" means the cost of the benefits that accrue during the year for active members under the entry age actuarial cost method.

"Unfunded actuarial accrued liability amortization payment" means the annual contribution equal to the difference between the values of assets and the accrued liabilities of the plan, calculated by an actuary, needed to amortize the Fund's liabilities over a period of 30 years starting in 2017, with layered amortization of the Fund's unexpected unfunded actuarial accrued liability amortization payment following 2017 in periods of 30 years, with amortization payments increasing 2% per year, and reflecting a discount rate for all liabilities consistent with the assumed investment rate of return on fund assets and a 5-year smoothed actuarial value of assets.

(Source: P.A. 103-529, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-17-24.)

(40 ILCS 5/13-309) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 13-309)

Sec. 13-309. Duty disability benefit.

(a) Any employee who becomes disabled, which disability is the result of an injury or illness compensable under the Illinois Workers' Compensation Act or the Illinois Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, is entitled to a duty disability benefit during the period of disability for which the employee does not receive any part of salary, or any part of a retirement annuity under this Article; except that in the case of an employee who first enters service on or after June 13, 1997 and becomes disabled before August 18, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-621), a duty disability benefit is not payable for the first 3 days of disability that would otherwise be payable under this Section if the disability does not continue for at least 11 additional days. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-621 are prospective only and do not entitle an employee to a duty disability benefit for the first 3 days of any disability that occurred before that effective date and did not continue for at least 11 additional days. This benefit shall be 75% of salary at the date disability begins. However, if the disability in any measure resulted from any physical defect or disease which existed at the time such injury was sustained or such illness commenced, the duty disability benefit shall be 50% of salary.

Unless the employer acknowledges that the disability is a result of injury or illness compensable under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, the duty disability benefit shall not be payable until the issue of compensability under those Acts is finally adjudicated. The period of disability shall be as determined by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission or acknowledged by the employer.

An employee in service before June 13, 1997 shall also receive a child's disability benefit during the period of disability of $10 per month for each unmarried natural or adopted child of the employee under 18 years of age.

The first payment shall be made not later than one month after the benefit is granted, and subsequent payments shall be made at least monthly. The Board shall by rule prescribe for the payment of such benefits on the basis of the amount of salary lost during the period of disability.

(b) The benefit shall be allowed only if all of the following requirements are met by the employee:

(1) Application is made to the Board.

(2) A medical report is submitted by at least one licensed health care professional as part of the employee's application.

(3) The employee is examined by at least one licensed health care professional appointed by the Board and found to be in a disabled physical condition and shall be re-examined at least annually thereafter during the continuance of disability. The employee need not be examined by a licensed health care professional appointed by the Board if the attorney for the district certifies in writing that the employee is entitled to receive compensation under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Board may require other evidence of disability.

(c) The benefit shall terminate when:

(1) The employee returns to work or receives a retirement annuity paid wholly or in part under this Article;

(2) The disability ceases;

(3) The employee attains age 65, but if the employee becomes disabled at age 60 or later, benefits may be extended for a period of no more than 5 years after disablement;

(4) The employee (i) refuses to submit to reasonable examinations by licensed health care professionals appointed by the Board, (ii) fails or refuses to consent to and sign an authorization allowing the Board to receive copies of or to examine the employee's medical and hospital records, or (iii) fails or refuses to provide complete information regarding any other employment for compensation he or she has received since becoming disabled; or

(5) The employee willfully and continuously refuses to follow medical advice and treatment to enable the employee to return to work. However, this provision does not apply to an employee who relies in good faith on treatment by prayer through spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized church or religious denomination, by a duly accredited practitioner thereof.

In the case of a duty disability recipient who returns to work, the employee must make application to the Retirement Board within 2 years from the date the employee last received duty disability benefits in order to become again entitled to duty disability benefits based on the injury for which a duty disability benefit was theretofore paid.

(Source: P.A. 103-523, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-17-24.)

(40 ILCS 5/13-310) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 13-310)

Sec. 13-310. Ordinary disability benefit.

(a) Any employee who becomes disabled as the result of any cause other than injury or illness incurred in the performance of duty for the employer or any other employer, or while engaged in self-employment activities, shall be entitled to an ordinary disability benefit. The eligible period for this benefit shall be 25% of the employee's total actual service prior to the date of disability with a cumulative maximum period of 5 years.

(b) The benefit shall be allowed only if the employee files an application in writing with the Board, and a medical report is submitted by at least one licensed health care professional as part of the employee's application.

The benefit is not payable for any disability which begins during any period of unpaid leave of absence. No benefit shall be allowed for any period of disability prior to 30 days before application is made, unless the Board finds good cause for the delay in filing the application. The benefit shall not be paid during any period for which the employee receives or is entitled to receive any part of salary.

The benefit is not payable for any disability which begins during any period of absence from duty other than allowable vacation time in any calendar year. An employee whose disability begins during any such ineligible period of absence from service may not receive benefits until the employee recovers from the disability and is in service for at least 15 consecutive working days after such recovery.

In the case of an employee who first enters service on or after June 13, 1997, an ordinary disability benefit is not payable for the first 3 days of disability that would otherwise be payable under this Section if the disability does not continue for at least 11 additional days.

Beginning on August 18, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-621) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, an employee who first entered service on or after June 13, 1997 is also eligible for ordinary disability benefits on the 31st day after the last day worked, provided all sick leave is exhausted.

(c) The benefit shall be 50% of the employee's salary at the date of disability, and shall terminate when the earliest of the following occurs:

(1) The employee returns to work or receives a retirement annuity paid wholly or in part under this Article;

(2) The disability ceases;

(3) The employee willfully and continuously refuses to follow medical advice and treatment to enable the employee to return to work. However, this provision does not apply to an employee who relies in good faith on treatment by prayer through spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized church or religious denomination, by a duly accredited practitioner thereof;

(4) The employee (i) refuses to submit to a reasonable physical examination within 30 days of application by a licensed health care professional appointed by the Board, (ii) in the case of chronic alcoholism, the employee refuses to join a rehabilitation program licensed by the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois and certified by the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Hospitals, (iii) fails or refuses to consent to and sign an authorization allowing the Board to receive copies of or to examine the employee's medical and hospital records, or (iv) fails or refuses to provide complete information regarding any other employment for compensation he or she has received since becoming disabled; or

(5) The eligibility eligible period for this benefit has been exhausted.

The first payment of the benefit shall be made not later than one month after the same has been granted, and subsequent payments shall be made at least monthly.

(Source: P.A. 102-210, eff. 7-30-21; 103-523, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-17-24.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-112) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-112)

Sec. 15-112. Final rate of earnings. "Final rate of earnings":

(a) This subsection (a) applies only to a Tier 1 member.

For an employee who is paid on an hourly basis or who receives an annual salary in installments during 12 months of each academic year, the average annual earnings during the 48 consecutive calendar month period ending with the last day of final termination of employment or the 4 consecutive academic years of service in which the employee's earnings were the highest, whichever is greater. For any other employee, the average annual earnings during the 4 consecutive academic years of service in which his or her earnings were the highest. For an employee with less than 48 months or 4 consecutive academic years of service, the average earnings during his or her entire period of service. The earnings of an employee with more than 36 months of service under item (a) of Section 15-113.1 prior to the date of becoming a participant are, for such period, considered equal to the average earnings during the last 36 months of such service.

(b) This subsection (b) applies to a Tier 2 member.

For an employee who is paid on an hourly basis or who receives an annual salary in installments during 12 months of each academic year, the average annual earnings obtained by dividing by 8 the total earnings of the employee during the 96 consecutive months in which the total earnings were the highest within the last 120 months prior to termination.

For any other employee, the average annual earnings during the 8 consecutive academic years within the 10 years prior to termination in which the employee's earnings were the highest. For an employee with less than 96 consecutive months or 8 consecutive academic years of service, whichever is necessary, the average earnings during his or her entire period of service.

(c) For an employee on leave of absence with pay, or on leave of absence without pay who makes contributions during such leave, earnings are assumed to be equal to the basic compensation on the date the leave began.

(d) For an employee on disability leave, earnings are assumed to be equal to the basic compensation on the date disability occurs or the average earnings during the 24 months immediately preceding the month in which disability occurs, whichever is greater.

(e) For a Tier 1 member who retires on or after August 22, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 90-511) this amendatory Act of 1997 with at least 20 years of service as a firefighter or police officer under this Article, the final rate of earnings shall be the annual rate of earnings received by the participant on his or her last day as a firefighter or police officer under this Article, if that is greater than the final rate of earnings as calculated under the other provisions of this Section.

(f) If a Tier 1 member is an employee for at least 6 months during the academic year in which his or her employment is terminated, the annual final rate of earnings shall be 25% of the sum of (1) the annual basic compensation for that year, and (2) the amount earned during the 36 months immediately preceding that year, if this is greater than the final rate of earnings as calculated under the other provisions of this Section.

(g) In the determination of the final rate of earnings for an employee, that part of an employee's earnings for any academic year beginning after June 30, 1997, which exceeds the employee's earnings with that employer for the preceding year by more than 20% 20 percent shall be excluded; in the event that an employee has more than one employer this limitation shall be calculated separately for the earnings with each employer. In making such calculation, only the basic compensation of employees shall be considered, without regard to vacation or overtime or to contracts for summer employment. Beginning September 1, 2024, this subsection (g) also applies to an employee who has been employed at 1/2 time or less for 3 or more years.

(h) The following are not considered as earnings in determining the final rate of earnings: (1) severance or separation pay, (2) retirement pay, (3) payment for unused sick leave, and (4) payments from an employer for the period used in determining the final rate of earnings for any purpose other than (i) services rendered, (ii) leave of absence or vacation granted during that period, and (iii) vacation of up to 56 work days allowed upon termination of employment; except that, if the benefit has been collectively bargained between the employer and the recognized collective bargaining agent pursuant to the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, payment received during a period of up to 2 academic years for unused sick leave may be considered as earnings in accordance with the applicable collective bargaining agreement, subject to the 20% increase limitation of this Section. Any unused sick leave considered as earnings under this Section shall not be taken into account in calculating service credit under Section 15-113.4.

(i) Intermittent periods of service shall be considered as consecutive in determining the final rate of earnings.

(Source: P.A. 103-548, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 340. The Revenue Anticipation Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 425/3) (from Ch. 85, par. 831-3)

Sec. 3. Notes issued under this Act shall be due not more than 12 months from the date of issue and shall be payable in accordance with the resolution adopted by the governing body providing for the issuance of the notes or warrants. Notes issued under this Act shall bear interest at not more than the maximum interest rate allowed by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable annually or semi-annually or at the time of payment of principal. The interest to the due date of the note may be represented by appropriate coupons and be executed by the facsimile signature of the appropriate treasurer. No notes shall be issued under this Act after the revenue to be anticipated is delinquent. No notes shall be issued or sold, unless such issuance and sale is authorized by a vote of at least two-thirds 2/3 of the members elected to the governing body. The notes shall be sold to the highest responsible bidder after due advertisement and public opening of bids. The governing body may authorize notes to be issued and sold from time to time and in such amounts as the appropriate treasurer deems necessary to provide funds to pay obligations due or to accrue within the then fiscal year.

Notes issued under this Act shall be received by any collector of revenues against which they are issued at par plus accrued interest, and, when so received, shall be cancelled with the same effect as though paid pursuant to this Act.

Such notes shall be signed by the presiding officer of the governing body and countersigned by the treasurer. Such notes shall be payable to bearer provided that the notes may be registered as to principal in the name of the holder on the books of the treasurer and evidence of such registration shall be endorsed upon the back of notes so registered. After such registration, no transfer shall be made except upon such books and similarly noted on the note unless the last registration was to bearer. Such notes may be re-registered from time to time in the name of the designated holder but such registration shall not affect the negotiability of the coupons attached.

(Source: P.A. 83-1521; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 345. The Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 430/3) (from Ch. 146 1/2, par. 3)

Sec. 3. Each warrant issued under this Act may be made payable at the time fixed in the warrant and shall bear interest, payable only out of the taxes against which it is drawn, at a rate of interest specified in the warrant but not exceeding 7% if issued prior to January 1, 1972, and at the rate of not more than 8% if issued after January 1, 1972 and before November 12, 1981, and at a rate not to exceed the rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended if issued on or after November 12, 1981, annually from the date of issuance until paid, or until notice is given by publication in a newspaper or otherwise, that the money for its payment is available, and that it will be paid on presentation. All jurors' certificates shall be issued in conformity with this Act. This Act does not apply to school districts, cities, villages, or incorporated towns. For the purposes of this Section, "prime commercial rate" means such prime rate as from time to time is publicly announced by the largest commercial banking institution located in this State, as measured by total assets.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 350. The Medical Service Facility Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 450/5) (from Ch. 85, par. 925)

Sec. 5. The resolution authorizing the issuance of such bonds shall specify the total amount of bonds to be issued, the form and denomination of the bonds, the date they are to bear, the place where they are payable, the date or dates of maturity, which shall not be more than 20 years after the date the bonds bear, the rate of interest, which shall not exceed the rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended and the dates on which interest is payable.

The tax authorized to be levied and collected under this Act shall be extended annually against all the taxable property within the county or municipality, as the case may be, at such a rate that the proceeds of the tax, when combined with the rental income derived from the medical service facility, will be sufficient to pay the principal of the bonds at maturity and to pay the interest thereon as it falls due.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 355. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 8.2 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10.25 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/8.2)

Sec. 8.2. Part-time law enforcement officers.

(a) A person hired to serve as a part-time law enforcement officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to the officer's successful completion of the part-time police training course; (ii) attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) a training waiver attesting to the Board's determination that the part-time police training course is unnecessary because of the person's prior law enforcement experience obtained in Illinois, in any other state, or with an agency of the federal government. A person hired on or after March 14, 2002 (the effective date of Public Act 92-533) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly must obtain this certificate within 18 months after the initial date of hire as a probationary part-time law enforcement officer in the State of Illinois. The probationary part-time law enforcement officer must be enrolled and accepted into a Board-approved course within 6 months after active employment by any department in the State. A person hired on or after January 1, 1996 and before March 14, 2002 (the effective date of Public Act 92-533) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly must obtain this certificate within 18 months after the date of hire. A person hired before January 1, 1996 must obtain this certificate within 24 months after January 1, 1996 (the effective date of Public Act 89-170) this amendatory Act of 1995. Agencies seeking a reciprocity waiver for training completed outside of Illinois must conduct a thorough background check and provide verification of the officer's prior training. After review and satisfaction of all requested conditions, the officer shall be awarded an equivalency certificate satisfying the requirements of this Section. Within 60 days after January 1, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-389) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, the Board shall adopt uniform rules providing for a waiver process for a person previously employed and qualified as a law enforcement or county corrections officer under federal law or the laws of any other state, or who has completed a basic law enforcement officer or correctional officer academy who would be qualified to be employed as a law enforcement officer or correctional officer by the federal government or any other state. These rules shall address the process for evaluating prior training credit, a description and list of the courses typically required for reciprocity candidates to complete prior to taking the exam, and a procedure for employers seeking a pre-activation determination for a reciprocity training waiver. The rules shall provide that any eligible person previously trained as a law enforcement or county corrections officer under federal law or the laws of any other state shall successfully complete the following prior to the approval of a waiver:

(1) a training program or set of coursework approved by the Board on the laws of this State relevant to the duties and training requirements of law enforcement and county correctional officers;

(2) firearms training; and

(3) successful passage of the equivalency certification examination.

The employing agency may seek an extension waiver from the Board extending the period for compliance. An extension waiver shall be issued only for good and justifiable reasons, and the probationary part-time law enforcement officer may not practice as a part-time law enforcement officer during the extension waiver period. If training is required and not completed within the applicable time period, as extended by any waiver that may be granted, then the officer must forfeit the officer's position.

An individual who is not certified by the Board or whose certified status is inactive shall not function as a law enforcement officer, be assigned the duties of a law enforcement officer by an agency, or be authorized to carry firearms under the authority of the employer, except that sheriffs who are elected are exempt from the requirement of certified status. Failure to be in accordance with this Act shall cause the officer to forfeit the officer's position.

(a-5) A part-time probationary law enforcement officer shall be allowed to complete 6 six months of a part-time police training course and function as a law enforcement officer as permitted by this subsection with a waiver from the Board, provided the part-time law enforcement officer is still enrolled in the training course. If the part-time probationary law enforcement officer withdraws from the course for any reason or does not complete the course within the applicable time period, as extended by any waiver that may be granted, then the officer must forfeit the officer's position. A probationary law enforcement officer must function under the following rules:

(1) A law enforcement agency may not grant a person status as a law enforcement officer unless the person has been granted an active law enforcement officer certification by the Board.

(2) A part-time probationary law enforcement officer shall not be used as a permanent replacement for a full-time law enforcement officer.

(3) A part-time probationary law enforcement officer shall be directly supervised at all times by a Board-certified Board certified law enforcement officer. Direct supervision requires oversight and control with the supervisor having final decision-making authority as to the actions of the recruit during duty hours.

(b) Inactive status. A person who has an inactive law enforcement officer certification has no law enforcement authority.

(1) A law enforcement officer's certification becomes inactive upon termination, resignation, retirement, or separation from the employing agency for any reason. The Board shall reactivate re-activate a certification upon written application from the law enforcement officer's employing agency that shows the law enforcement officer: (i) has accepted a part-time law enforcement position with that a law enforcement agency, (ii) is not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for reactivation re-activation required by the Board.

The Board may refuse to reactivate re-activate the certification of a law enforcement officer who was involuntarily terminated for good cause by the officer's employing agency for conduct subject to decertification under this Act or resigned or retired after receiving notice of a law enforcement agency's investigation.

(2) A law enforcement agency may place an officer who is currently certified on inactive status by sending a written request to the Board. A law enforcement officer whose certificate has been placed on inactive status shall not function as a law enforcement officer until the officer has completed any requirements for reactivating the certificate as required by the Board. A request for inactive status in this subsection shall be in writing, accompanied by verifying documentation, and shall be submitted to the Board by the law enforcement officer's employing agency.

(3) Certification that has become inactive under paragraph (2) of this subsection (b), shall be reactivated by written notice from the law enforcement officer's law enforcement agency upon a showing that the law enforcement officer is: (i) employed in a part-time law enforcement position with the same law enforcement agency, (ii) not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for reactivation re-activation required by the Board. The Board may also establish special training requirements to be completed as a condition for reactivation re-activation.

The Board shall review a notice for reactivation from a law enforcement agency and provide a response within 30 days. The Board may extend this review. A law enforcement officer shall be allowed to be employed as a part-time law enforcement officer while the law enforcement officer reactivation waiver is under review.

A law enforcement officer who is refused reactivation or an employing agency of a law enforcement officer who is refused reactivation under this Section may request a hearing in accordance with the hearing procedures as outlined in subsection (h) of Section 6.3 of this Act.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (3) of this Section, a law enforcement officer whose certification has become inactive under paragraph (2) may have the officer's employing agency submit a request for a waiver of training requirements to the Board in writing and accompanied by any verifying documentation. A grant of a waiver is within the discretion of the Board. Within 7 days of receiving a request for a waiver under this section, the Board shall notify the law enforcement officer and the chief administrator of the law enforcement officer's employing agency, whether the request has been granted, denied, or if the Board will take additional time for information. A law enforcement agency or law enforcement officer, whose request for a waiver under this subsection is denied, is entitled to request a review of the denial by the Board. The law enforcement agency must request a review within 20 days after the waiver being denied. The burden of proof shall be on the law enforcement agency to show why the law enforcement officer is entitled to a waiver of the legislatively required training and eligibility requirements.

(c) The part-time police training course referred to in this Section shall be of similar content and the same number of hours as the courses for full-time officers and shall be provided by Mobile Team In-Service Training Units under the Intergovernmental Law Enforcement Officer's In-Service Training Act or by another approved program or facility in a manner prescribed by the Board.

(d) Within 14 days, a law enforcement officer shall report to the Board: (1) any name change; (2) any change in employment; or (3) the filing of any criminal indictment or charges against the officer alleging that the officer committed any offense as enumerated in Section 6.1 of this Act.

(e) All law enforcement officers must report the completion of the training requirements required in this Act in compliance with Section 8.4 of this Act.

(e-1) Each employing agency shall allow and provide an opportunity for a law enforcement officer to complete the requirements in this Act. All mandated training shall be provided for at no cost to the employees. Employees shall be paid for all time spent attending mandated training.

(e-2) Each agency, academy, or training provider shall maintain proof of a law enforcement officer's completion of legislatively required training in a format designated by the Board. The report of training shall be submitted to the Board within 30 days following completion of the training. A copy of the report shall be submitted to the law enforcement officer. Upon receipt of a properly completed report of training, the Board will make the appropriate entry into the training records of the law enforcement officer.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, the Board shall adopt rules defining what constitutes employment on a part-time basis.

(g) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-694 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and Public Act 101-652 take effect July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 103-389, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-29-24.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.25)

Sec. 10.25. Training; cell phone medical information. The Board shall develop and require each law enforcement officer to participate in training on accessing and utilizing medical information stored in cell phones. The Board may use the program approved under Section 2310-711 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to develop the Board's program.

(Source: P.A. 103-939, eff. 1-1-25.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.26)

Sec. 10.26 10.25. Training; autism-informed response training course.

(a) The Board shall develop or approve a course to assist law enforcement officers in identifying and appropriately responding to individuals with autism spectrum disorders.

(b) The Board shall conduct or approve the autism-informed response training course no later than January 1, 2027 (2 years after the effective date of Public Act 103-949) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly. The Board may consult with the Department of Public Health or Department of Human Services to develop and update the curriculum as needed. The course must include instruction in autism-informed responses, procedures, and techniques, which may include, but are not limited to:

(1) recognizing the signs and symptoms of an autism spectrum disorder;

(2) responding to the needs of a victim with an autism spectrum disorder;

(3) interview and interrogation techniques for an individual with an autism spectrum disorder; and

(4) techniques for differentiating an individual with an autism spectrum disorder from a person who is being belligerent and uncooperative.

The Board must, within a reasonable amount of time, update this course, from time to time, to conform with national trends and best practices.

(c) The Board is encouraged to adopt model policies to assist law enforcement agencies in appropriately responding to individuals with autism spectrum disorders.

(Source: P.A. 103-949, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

Section 360. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 7.1 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/7.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2025)

Sec. 7.1. Training.

(a) Each 9-1-1 Authority, as well as its answering points, shall ensure its public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator Supervisors comply with the training, testing, and certification requirements established pursuant to Section 2605-53 of the Illinois Department of State Police Law.

(b) Each 9-1-1 Authority, as well as its answering points, shall maintain a record regarding its public safety telecommunicators and public safety telecommunicator Supervisors compliance with this Section for at least 7 years and shall make the training records available for inspection by the Administrator upon request.

(c) Costs incurred for the development of standards, training, testing, and certification shall be expenses paid by the Department from the funds available to the Administrator and the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board under Section 30 of this Act. Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the use of grants or other nonsurcharge funding sources available for this purpose.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 365. The Community Emergency Services and Support Act is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(50 ILCS 754/55)

Sec. 55. Immunity. The exemptions from civil liability in Section 15.1 of the Emergency Telephone System Systems Act apply to any act or omission in the development, design, installation, operation, maintenance, performance, or provision of service directed by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-580, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 370. The Small Wireless Facilities Deployment Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 840/15) (was 50 ILCS 835/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2030)

Sec. 15. Regulation of small wireless facilities.

(a) This Section applies to activities of a wireless provider within or outside rights-of-way.

(b) Except as provided in this Section, an authority may not prohibit, regulate, or charge for the collocation of small wireless facilities.

(c) Small wireless facilities shall be classified as permitted uses and subject to administrative review in conformance with this Act, except as provided in paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of this Section regarding height exceptions or variances, but not subject to zoning review or approval if they are collocated (i) in rights-of-way in any zone, or (ii) outside rights-of-way in property zoned exclusively for commercial or industrial use.

(d) An authority may require an applicant to obtain one or more permits to collocate a small wireless facility. An authority shall receive applications for, process, and issue permits subject to the following requirements:

(1) An authority may not directly or indirectly require an applicant to perform services unrelated to the collocation for which approval is sought, such as in-kind contributions to the authority, including reserving fiber, conduit, or utility pole space for the authority on the wireless provider's utility pole. An authority may reserve space on authority utility poles for future public safety uses or for the authority's electric utility uses, but a reservation of space may not preclude the collocation of a small wireless facility unless the authority reasonably determines that the authority utility pole cannot accommodate both uses.

(2) An applicant shall not be required to provide more information to obtain a permit than the authority requires of a communications service provider that is not a wireless provider that requests to attach facilities to a structure; however, a wireless provider may be required to provide the following information when seeking a permit to collocate small wireless facilities on a utility pole or wireless support structure:

(A) site specific structural integrity and, for an authority utility pole, make-ready analysis prepared by a structural engineer, as that term is defined in Section 4 of the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989;

(B) the location where each proposed small wireless facility or utility pole would be installed and photographs of the location and its immediate surroundings depicting the utility poles or structures on which each proposed small wireless facility would be mounted or location where utility poles or structures would be installed;

(C) specifications and drawings prepared by a structural engineer, as that term is defined in Section 4 of the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989, for each proposed small wireless facility covered by the application as it is proposed to be installed;

(D) the equipment type and model numbers for the antennas and all other wireless equipment associated with the small wireless facility;

(E) a proposed schedule for the installation and completion of each small wireless facility covered by the application, if approved;

(F) certification that the collocation complies with paragraph (6) to the best of the applicant's knowledge; and

(G) the wireless provider's certification from a radio engineer that it operates the small wireless facility within all applicable FCC standards.

(3) Subject to paragraph (6), an authority may not require the placement of small wireless facilities on any specific utility pole, or category of utility poles, or require multiple antenna systems on a single utility pole; however, with respect to an application for the collocation of a small wireless facility associated with a new utility pole, an authority may propose that the small wireless facility be collocated on an existing utility pole or existing wireless support structure within 200 feet of the proposed collocation, which the applicant shall accept if it has the right to use the alternate structure on reasonable terms and conditions and the alternate location and structure does not impose technical limits or additional material costs as determined by the applicant. The authority may require the applicant to provide a written certification describing the property rights, technical limits, or material cost reasons the alternate location does not satisfy the criteria in this paragraph (3).

(4) Subject to paragraph (6), an authority may not limit the placement of small wireless facilities mounted on a utility pole or a wireless support structure by minimum horizontal separation distances.

(5) An authority may limit the maximum height of a small wireless facility to 10 feet above the utility pole or wireless support structure on which the small wireless facility is collocated. Subject to any applicable waiver, zoning, or other process that addresses wireless provider requests for an exception or variance and does not prohibit granting of such exceptions or variances, the authority may limit the height of new or replacement utility poles or wireless support structures on which small wireless facilities are collocated to the higher of: (i) 10 feet in height above the tallest existing utility pole, other than a utility pole supporting only wireless facilities, that is in place on the date the application is submitted to the authority, that is located within 300 feet of the new or replacement utility pole or wireless support structure and that is in the same right-of-way within the jurisdictional boundary of the authority, provided the authority may designate which intersecting right-of-way within 300 feet of the proposed utility pole or wireless support structures shall control the height limitation for such facility; or (ii) 45 feet above ground level.

(6) An authority may require that:

(A) the wireless provider's operation of the small wireless facilities does not interfere with the frequencies used by a public safety agency for public safety communications; a wireless provider shall install small wireless facilities of the type and frequency that will not cause unacceptable interference with a public safety agency's communications equipment; unacceptable interference will be determined by and measured in accordance with industry standards and the FCC's regulations addressing unacceptable interference to public safety spectrum or any other spectrum licensed by a public safety agency; if a small wireless facility causes such interference, and the wireless provider has been given written notice of the interference by the public safety agency, the wireless provider, at its own expense, shall take all reasonable steps necessary to correct and eliminate the interference, including, but not limited to, powering down the small wireless facility and later powering up the small wireless facility for intermittent testing, if necessary; the authority may terminate a permit for a small wireless facility based on such interference if the wireless provider is not making a good faith effort to remedy the problem in a manner consistent with the abatement and resolution procedures for interference with public safety spectrum established by the FCC including 47 CFR 22.970 through 47 CFR 22.973 and 47 CFR 90.672 through 47 CFR 90.675;

(B) the wireless provider comply with requirements that are imposed by a contract between an authority and a private property owner that concern design or construction standards applicable to utility poles and ground-mounted equipment located in the right-of-way;

(C) the wireless provider comply with applicable spacing requirements in applicable codes and ordinances concerning the location of ground-mounted equipment located in the right-of-way if the requirements include a waiver, zoning, or other process that addresses wireless provider requests for exception or variance and do not prohibit granting of such exceptions or variances;

(D) the wireless provider comply with local code provisions or regulations concerning undergrounding requirements that prohibit the installation of new or the modification of existing utility poles in a right-of-way without prior approval if the requirements include a waiver, zoning, or other process that addresses requests to install such new utility poles or modify such existing utility poles and do not prohibit the replacement of utility poles;

(E) the wireless provider comply with generally applicable standards that are consistent with this Act and adopted by an authority for construction and public safety in the rights-of-way, including, but not limited to, reasonable and nondiscriminatory wiring and cabling requirements, grounding requirements, utility pole extension requirements, acoustic regulations, and signage limitations; and shall comply with reasonable and nondiscriminatory requirements that are consistent with this Act and adopted by an authority regulating the location, size, surface area and height of small wireless facilities, or the abandonment and removal of small wireless facilities;

(F) the wireless provider not collocate small wireless facilities on authority utility poles that are part of an electric distribution or transmission system within the communication worker safety zone of the pole or the electric supply zone of the pole; however, the antenna and support equipment of the small wireless facility may be located in the communications space on the authority utility pole and on the top of the pole, if not otherwise unavailable, if the wireless provider complies with applicable codes for work involving the top of the pole; for purposes of this subparagraph (F), the terms "communications space", "communication worker safety zone", and "electric supply zone" have the meanings given to those terms in the National Electric Safety Code as published by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers;

(G) the wireless provider comply with the applicable codes and local code provisions or regulations that concern public safety;

(H) the wireless provider comply with written design standards that are generally applicable for decorative utility poles, or reasonable stealth, concealment, and aesthetic requirements that are identified by the authority in an ordinance, written policy adopted by the governing board of the authority, a comprehensive plan, or other written design plan that applies to other occupiers of the rights-of-way, including on a historic landmark or in a historic district;

(I) subject to subsection (c) of this Section, and except for facilities excluded from evaluation for effects on historic properties under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4), reasonable, technically feasible, and non-discriminatory design or concealment measures in a historic district or historic landmark; any such design or concealment measures, including restrictions on a specific category of poles, may not have the effect of prohibiting any provider's technology; such design and concealment measures shall not be considered a part of the small wireless facility for purposes of the size restrictions of a small wireless facility; this paragraph may not be construed to limit an authority's enforcement of historic preservation in conformance with the requirements adopted pursuant to the Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act or the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, 54 U.S.C. Section 300101 et seq., and the regulations adopted to implement those laws; and

(J) When a wireless provider replaces or adds a new radio transceiver or antennas to an existing small wireless facility, certification by the wireless provider from a radio engineer that the continuing operation of the small wireless facility complies with all applicable FCC standards.

(7) Within 30 days after receiving an application, an authority must determine whether the application is complete and notify the applicant. If an application is incomplete, an authority must specifically identify the missing information. An application shall be deemed complete if the authority fails to provide notification to the applicant within 30 days after when all documents, information, and fees specifically enumerated in the authority's permit application form are submitted by the applicant to the authority. Processing deadlines are tolled from the time the authority sends the notice of incompleteness to the time the applicant provides the missing information.

(8) An authority shall process applications as follows:

(A) an application to collocate a small wireless facility on an existing utility pole or wireless support structure shall be processed on a nondiscriminatory basis and deemed approved if the authority fails to approve or deny the application within 90 days; however, if an applicant intends to proceed with the permitted activity on a deemed approved basis, the applicant must notify the authority in writing of its intention to invoke the deemed approved remedy no sooner than 75 days after the submission of a completed application; the permit shall be deemed approved on the latter of the 90th day after submission of the complete application or the 10th day after the receipt of the deemed approved notice by the authority; the receipt of the deemed approved notice shall not preclude the authority's denial of the permit request within the time limits as provided under this Act; and

(B) an application to collocate a small wireless facility that includes the installation of a new utility pole shall be processed on a nondiscriminatory basis and deemed approved if the authority fails to approve or deny the application within 120 days; however, if an applicant intends to proceed with the permitted activity on a deemed approved basis, the applicant must notify the authority in writing of its intention to invoke the deemed approved remedy no sooner than 105 days after the submission of a completed application; the permit shall be deemed approved on the latter of the 120th day after submission of the complete application or the 10th day after the receipt of the deemed approved notice by the authority; the receipt of the deemed approved notice shall not preclude the authority's denial of the permit request within the time limits as provided under this Act.

(9) An authority shall approve an application unless the application does not meet the requirements of this Act. If an authority determines that applicable codes, local code provisions or regulations that concern public safety, or the requirements of paragraph (6) require that the utility pole or wireless support structure be replaced before the requested collocation, approval may be conditioned on the replacement of the utility pole or wireless support structure at the cost of the provider. The authority must document the basis for a denial, including the specific code provisions or application conditions on which the denial was based, and send the documentation to the applicant on or before the day the authority denies an application. The applicant may cure the deficiencies identified by the authority and resubmit the revised application once within 30 days after notice of denial is sent to the applicant without paying an additional application fee. The authority shall approve or deny the revised application within 30 days after the applicant resubmits the application or it is deemed approved; however, the applicant must notify the authority in writing of its intention to proceed with the permitted activity on a deemed approved basis, which may be submitted with the resubmitted application. Any subsequent review shall be limited to the deficiencies cited in the denial. However, this revised application cure does not apply if the cure requires the review of a new location, new or different structure to be collocated upon, new antennas, or other wireless equipment associated with the small wireless facility.

(10) The time period for applications may be further tolled by:

(A) the express agreement in writing by both the applicant and the authority; or

(B) a local, State, or federal disaster declaration or similar emergency that causes the delay.

(11) An applicant seeking to collocate small wireless facilities within the jurisdiction of a single authority shall be allowed, at the applicant's discretion, to file a consolidated application and receive a single permit for the collocation of up to 25 small wireless facilities if the collocations each involve substantially the same type of small wireless facility and substantially the same type of structure. If an application includes multiple small wireless facilities, the authority may remove small wireless facility collocations from the application and treat separately small wireless facility collocations for which incomplete information has been provided or that do not qualify for consolidated treatment or that are denied. The authority may issue separate permits for each collocation that is approved in a consolidated application.

(12) Collocation for which a permit is granted shall be completed within 180 days after issuance of the permit, unless the authority and the wireless provider agree to extend this period or a delay is caused by make-ready work for an authority utility pole or by the lack of commercial power or backhaul availability at the site, provided the wireless provider has made a timely request within 60 days after the issuance of the permit for commercial power or backhaul services, and the additional time to complete installation does not exceed 360 days after issuance of the permit. Otherwise, the permit shall be void unless the authority grants an extension in writing to the applicant.

(13) The duration of a permit shall be for a period of not less than 5 years, and the permit shall be renewed for equivalent durations unless the authority makes a finding that the small wireless facilities or the new or modified utility pole do not comply with the applicable codes or local code provisions or regulations in paragraphs (6) and (9). If this Act is repealed as provided in Section 90, renewals of permits shall be subject to the applicable authority code provisions or regulations in effect at the time of renewal.

(14) An authority may not prohibit, either expressly or de facto, the (i) filing, receiving, or processing applications, or (ii) issuing of permits or other approvals, if any, for the collocation of small wireless facilities unless there has been a local, State, or federal disaster declaration or similar emergency that causes the delay.

(15) Applicants shall submit applications, supporting information, and notices by personal delivery or as otherwise required by the authority. An authority may require that permits, supporting information, and notices be submitted by personal delivery at the authority's designated place of business, by regular mail postmarked on the date due, or by any other commonly used means, including electronic mail, as required by the authority.

(e) Application fees are subject to the following requirements:

(1) An authority may charge an application fee of up to $650 for an application to collocate a single small wireless facility on an existing utility pole or wireless support structure and up to $350 for each small wireless facility addressed in an application to collocate more than one small wireless facility on existing utility poles or wireless support structures.

(2) An authority may charge an application fee of $1,000 for each small wireless facility addressed in an application that includes the installation of a new utility pole for such collocation.

(3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of State law or local ordinance, applications pursuant to this Section must be accompanied by the required application fee.

(4) Within 2 months after the effective date of this Act, an authority shall make available application fees consistent with this subsection, through ordinance, or in a written schedule of permit fees adopted by the authority.

(5) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, an authority may charge recurring rates and application fees up to the amount permitted by the Federal Communications Communication Commission in its Declaratory Ruling and Third Report and Order adopted on September 26, 2018 in WT Docket Nos. 17-70, 17-84 and cited as 33 FCC Rcd 9088, 9129, or any subsequent ruling, order, or guidance issued by the Federal Communication Commission regarding fees and recurring rates.

(f) An authority shall not require an application, approval, or permit, or require any fees or other charges, from a communications service provider authorized to occupy the rights-of-way, for: (i) routine maintenance; (ii) the replacement of wireless facilities with wireless facilities that are substantially similar, the same size, or smaller if the wireless provider notifies the authority at least 10 days prior to the planned replacement and includes equipment specifications for the replacement of equipment consistent with the requirements of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section; or (iii) the installation, placement, maintenance, operation, or replacement of micro wireless facilities that are suspended on cables that are strung between existing utility poles in compliance with applicable safety codes. However, an authority may require a permit to work within rights-of-way for activities that affect traffic patterns or require lane closures.

(g) Nothing in this Act authorizes a person to collocate small wireless facilities on: (1) property owned by a private party or property owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is not located within rights-of-way, subject to subsection (j) of this Section, or a privately owned utility pole or wireless support structure without the consent of the property owner; (2) property owned, leased, or controlled by a park district, forest preserve district, or conservation district for public park, recreation, or conservation purposes without the consent of the affected district, excluding the placement of facilities on rights-of-way located in an affected district that are under the jurisdiction and control of a different unit of local government as provided by the Illinois Highway Code; or (3) property owned by a rail carrier registered under Section 18c-7201 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Metra Commuter Rail or any other public commuter rail service, or an electric utility as defined in Section 16-102 of the Public Utilities Act, without the consent of the rail carrier, public commuter rail service, or electric utility. The provisions of this Act do not apply to an electric or gas public utility or such utility's wireless facilities if the facilities are being used, developed, and maintained consistent with the provisions of subsection (i) of Section 16-108.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

For the purposes of this subsection, "public utility" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to relieve any person from any requirement (1) to obtain a franchise or a State-issued authorization to offer cable service or video service or (2) to obtain any required permission to install, place, maintain, or operate communications facilities, other than small wireless facilities subject to this Act.

(h) Agreements between authorities and wireless providers that relate to the collocation of small wireless facilities in the right-of-way, including the collocation of small wireless facilities on authority utility poles, that are in effect on the effective date of this Act remain in effect for all small wireless facilities collocated on the authority's utility poles pursuant to applications submitted to the authority before the effective date of this Act, subject to applicable termination provisions. Such agreements entered into after the effective date of the Act shall comply with the Act.

(i) An authority shall allow the collocation of small wireless facilities on authority utility poles subject to the following:

(1) An authority may not enter into an exclusive arrangement with any person for the right to attach small wireless facilities to authority utility poles.

(2) The rates and fees for collocations on authority utility poles shall be nondiscriminatory regardless of the services provided by the collocating person.

(3) An authority may charge an annual recurring rate to collocate a small wireless facility on an authority utility pole located in a right-of-way that equals (i) $270 per year or (ii) the actual, direct, and reasonable costs related to the wireless provider's use of space on the authority utility pole. Rates for collocation on authority utility poles located outside of a right-of-way are not subject to these limitations. In any controversy concerning the appropriateness of a cost-based rate for an authority utility pole located within a right-of-way, the authority shall have the burden of proving that the rate does not exceed the actual, direct, and reasonable costs for the applicant's proposed use of the authority utility pole. Nothing in this paragraph (3) prohibits a wireless provider and an authority from mutually agreeing to an annual recurring rate of less than $270 to collocate a small wireless facility on an authority utility pole.

(4) Authorities or other persons owning or controlling authority utility poles within the right-of-way shall offer rates, fees, and other terms that comply with subparagraphs (A) through (E) of this paragraph (4). Within 2 months after the effective date of this Act, an authority or a person owning or controlling authority utility poles shall make available, through ordinance or an authority utility pole attachment agreement, license or other agreement that makes available to wireless providers, the rates, fees, and terms for the collocation of small wireless facilities on authority utility poles that comply with this Act and with subparagraphs (A) through (E) of this paragraph (4). In the absence of such an ordinance or agreement that complies with this Act, and until such a compliant ordinance or agreement is adopted, wireless providers may collocate small wireless facilities and install utility poles under the requirements of this Act.

(A) The rates, fees, and terms must be nondiscriminatory, competitively neutral, and commercially reasonable, and may address, among other requirements, the requirements in subparagraphs (A) through (I) of paragraph (6) of subsection (d) of this Section; subsections (e), (i), and (k) of this Section; Section 30; and Section 35, and must comply with this Act.

(B) For authority utility poles that support aerial facilities used to provide communications services or electric service, wireless providers shall comply with the process for make-ready work under 47 U.S.C. 224 and its implementing regulations, and the authority shall follow a substantially similar process for make-ready work except to the extent that the timing requirements are otherwise addressed in this Act. The good-faith estimate of the person owning or controlling the authority utility pole for any make-ready work necessary to enable the pole to support the requested collocation shall include authority utility pole replacement, if necessary.

(C) For authority utility poles that do not support aerial facilities used to provide communications services or electric service, the authority shall provide a good-faith estimate for any make-ready work necessary to enable the authority utility pole to support the requested collocation, including pole replacement, if necessary, within 90 days after receipt of a complete application. Make-ready work, including any authority utility pole replacement, shall be completed within 60 days of written acceptance of the good-faith estimate by the applicant at the wireless provider's sole cost and expense. Alternatively, if the authority determines that applicable codes or public safety regulations require the authority utility pole to be replaced to support the requested collocation, the authority may require the wireless provider to replace the authority utility pole at the wireless provider's sole cost and expense.

(D) The authority shall not require more make-ready work than required to meet applicable codes or industry standards. Make-ready work may include work needed to accommodate additional public safety communications needs that are identified in a documented and approved plan for the deployment of public safety equipment as specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section and included in an existing or preliminary authority or public service agency budget for attachment within one year of the application. Fees for make-ready work, including any authority utility pole replacement, shall not exceed actual costs or the amount charged to communications service providers for similar work and shall not include any consultants' fees or expenses for authority utility poles that do not support aerial facilities used to provide communications services or electric service. Make-ready work, including any pole replacement, shall be completed within 60 days of written acceptance of the good-faith estimate by the wireless provider, at its sole cost and expense.

(E) A wireless provider that has an existing agreement with the authority on the effective date of the Act may accept the rates, fees, and terms that an authority makes available under this Act for the collocation of small wireless facilities or the installation of new utility poles for the collocation of small wireless facilities that are the subject of an application submitted 2 or more years after the effective date of the Act as provided in this paragraph (4) by notifying the authority that it opts to accept such rates, fees, and terms. The existing agreement remains in effect, subject to applicable termination provisions, for the small wireless facilities the wireless provider has collocated on the authority's utility poles pursuant to applications submitted to the authority before the wireless provider provides such notice and exercises its option under this subparagraph.

(5) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, an authority may charge recurring rates and application fees up to the amount permitted by the Federal Communications Communication Commission in its Declaratory Ruling and Third Report and Order adopted on September 26, 2018 in WT Docket Nos. 17-70, 17-84 and cited as 33 FCC Rcd 9088, 9129, or any subsequent ruling, order, or guidance issued by the Federal Communication Commission regarding fees and recurring rates.

(j) An authority shall authorize the collocation of small wireless facilities on utility poles owned or controlled by the authority that are not located within rights-of-way to the same extent the authority currently permits access to utility poles for other commercial projects or uses. The collocations shall be subject to reasonable and nondiscriminatory rates, fees, and terms as provided in an agreement between the authority and the wireless provider.

(k) Nothing in this Section precludes an authority from adopting reasonable rules with respect to the removal of abandoned small wireless facilities. A small wireless facility that is not operated for a continuous period of 12 months shall be considered abandoned and the owner of the facility must remove the small wireless facility within 90 days after receipt of written notice from the authority notifying the owner of the abandonment. The notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, by the authority to the owner at the last known address of the owner. If the small wireless facility is not removed within 90 days of such notice, the authority may remove or cause the removal of the facility pursuant to the terms of its pole attachment agreement for authority utility poles or through whatever actions are provided for abatement of nuisances or by other law for removal and cost recovery. An authority may require a wireless provider to provide written notice to the authority if it sells or transfers small wireless facilities subject to this Act within the jurisdictional boundary of the authority. Such notice shall include the name and contact information of the new wireless provider.

(l) Nothing in this Section requires an authority to install or maintain any specific utility pole or to continue to install or maintain utility poles in any location if the authority makes a non-discriminatory decision to eliminate above-ground utility poles of a particular type generally, such as electric utility poles, in all or a significant portion of its geographic jurisdiction. For authority utility poles with collocated small wireless facilities in place when an authority makes a decision to eliminate above-ground utility poles of a particular type generally, the authority shall either (i) continue to maintain the authority utility pole or install and maintain a reasonable alternative utility pole or wireless support structure for the collocation of the small wireless facility, or (ii) offer to sell the utility pole to the wireless provider at a reasonable cost or allow the wireless provider to install its own utility pole so it can maintain service from that location.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-21, eff. 6-25-21; 103-601, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 375. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-15003.6, 4-11001.5, 5-1009, 5-1069, 5-1069.3, 5-12020, 5-15017, 5-31012, 5-31016, 6-4002, and 6-27004 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-1189 and 5-12022 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-15003.6)

Sec. 3-15003.6. Pregnant committed persons.

(a) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section and the Sections preceding Section 3-15004:

(1) "Restraints" means any physical restraint or mechanical device used to control the movement of a body or limbs, or both, including, but not limited to, flex cuffs, soft restraints, hard metal handcuffs, a black box, Chubb cuffs, leg irons, belly chains, a security (tether) chain, or a convex shield, or shackles of any kind.

(2) "Labor" means the period of time before a birth and shall include any medical condition in which an individual is sent or brought to the hospital for the purpose of delivering a baby. These situations include: induction of labor, prodromal labor, pre-term labor, prelabor rupture of membranes, the 3 stages of active labor, uterine hemorrhage during the third trimester of pregnancy, and caesarian delivery including pre-operative preparation.

(3) "Postpartum" means the 6-week period following birth unless determined to be a longer period by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or other qualified medical professional.

(4) "Correctional institution" means any entity under the authority of a county law enforcement division that has the power to detain or restrain, or both, a person under the laws of the State.

(5) "Corrections official" means the official that is responsible for oversight of a correctional institution, or his or her designee.

(6) "Committed person" means any person incarcerated or detained in any facility who is accused of, convicted of, sentenced for, or adjudicated delinquent for, violations of criminal law or the terms and conditions of parole, probation, pretrial release, or diversionary program, and any person detained under the immigration laws of the United States at any correctional facility.

(7) "Extraordinary circumstance" means an extraordinary medical or security circumstance, including a substantial flight risk, that dictates restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the committed person, the staff of the correctional institution or medical facility, other committed persons, or the public.

(8) "Participant" ' means an individual placed into an electronic monitoring program, as defined by Section 5-8A-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) A county department of corrections shall not apply security restraints to a committed person that has been determined by a qualified medical professional to be pregnant or otherwise is known by the county department of corrections to be pregnant or in postpartum recovery unless the corrections official makes an individualized determination that the committed person presents a substantial flight risk or some other extraordinary circumstance that dictates security restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the committed person, committed person's child or unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other committed persons, or the public. The protections set out in clauses (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this Section shall apply to security restraints used pursuant to this subsection. The corrections official shall immediately remove all restraints upon the written or oral request of medical personnel. The corrections official shall immediately remove all approved electronic monitoring devices, as that term is defined in Section 5-8A-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, of a pregnant participant during labor and delivery or earlier upon the written or oral request of medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably possible.

(1) Qualified authorized health staff shall have the authority to order therapeutic restraints for a pregnant or postpartum committed person who is a danger to the committed person, the committed person's child, unborn child, or other persons due to a psychiatric or medical disorder. Therapeutic restraints may only be initiated, monitored, and discontinued by qualified and authorized health staff and used to safely limit a committed person's mobility for psychiatric or medical reasons. No order for therapeutic restraints shall be written unless medical or mental health personnel, after personally observing and examining the committed person, are clinically satisfied that the use of therapeutic restraints is justified and permitted in accordance with hospital policies and applicable State law. Metal handcuffs or shackles are not considered therapeutic restraints.

(2) Whenever therapeutic restraints are used by medical personnel, Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall apply.

(3) Leg irons, shackles, or waist shackles shall not be used on any pregnant or postpartum committed person regardless of security classification. Except for therapeutic restraints under clause (b)(2), no restraints of any kind may be applied to committed persons during labor.

(4) When a pregnant or postpartum committed person must be restrained, restraints used shall be the least restrictive restraints possible to ensure the safety and security of the committed person, the committed person's child, unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other committed persons, or the public, and in no case shall include leg irons, shackles, or waist shackles.

(5) Upon the pregnant committed person's entry into a hospital room, and completion of initial room inspection, a corrections official shall be posted immediately outside the hospital room, unless requested to be in the room by medical personnel attending to the committed person's medical needs.

(6) The county department of corrections shall provide adequate corrections personnel to monitor the pregnant committed person during the committed person's transport to and from the hospital and during the committed person's stay at the hospital.

(7) Where the county department of corrections requires committed person safety assessments, a corrections official may enter the hospital room to conduct periodic committed person safety assessments, except during a medical examination or the delivery process.

(8) (Blank).

(c) Enforcement. No later than 30 days before the end of each fiscal year, the county sheriff or corrections official of the correctional institution where a pregnant or postpartum committed person has been restrained pursuant to this Section during that previous fiscal year, shall submit a written report to the Jail and Detention Standards Unit of the Department of Corrections, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, that includes an account of every instance of restraint pursuant to this Section. The written report shall state the date, time, location, and rationale for each instance in which restraints are used. The written report shall not contain any individually identifying information of any committed person. Such reports shall be made available for public inspection.

(d) Data reporting. No later than 30 days before the end of each fiscal year, each county sheriff shall submit a written report to the Jail and Detention Standards Unit of the Department of Corrections, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, that includes the number of pregnant committed persons in custody each year and the number of people who deliver or miscarry while in custody. The written reports shall not contain any individually identifying information of a committed person. The written reports shall be made available for public inspection.

(Source: P.A. 103-745, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-11001.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 4-11001.5. Lake County Children's Advocacy Center Pilot Program.

(a) The Lake County Children's Advocacy Center Pilot Program is established. Under the Pilot Program, any grand juror or petit juror in Lake County may elect to have his or her juror fees earned under Section 4-11001 of this Code to be donated to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center, a division of the Lake County State's Attorney's office.

(b) On or before January 1, 2017, the Lake County board shall adopt, by ordinance or resolution, rules and policies governing and effectuating the ability of jurors to donate their juror fees to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center beginning January 1, 2017 and ending December 31, 2018. At a minimum, the rules and policies must provide:

(1) for a form that a juror may fill out to elect to donate his or her juror fees. The form must contain a statement, in at least 14-point bold type, that donation of juror fees is optional;

(2) that all monies donated by jurors shall be transferred by the county to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center at the same time a juror is paid under Section 4-11001 of this Code who did not elect to donate his or her juror fees; and

(3) that all juror fees donated under this Section shall be used exclusively for the operation of Lake County Children's Advocacy Center.

The Lake County board shall adopt an ordinance or resolution reestablishing the rules and policies previously adopted under this subsection allowing a juror to donate his or her juror fees to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center through December 31, 2021.

(c) The following information shall be reported to the General Assembly and the Governor by the Lake County board after each calendar year of the Pilot Program on or before March 31, 2018, March 31, 2019, July 1, 2020, and July 1, 2021:

(1) the number of grand and petit jurors who earned fees under Section 4-11001 of this Code during the previous calendar year;

(2) the number of grand and petit jurors who donated fees under this Section during the previous calendar year;

(3) the amount of donated fees under this Section during the previous calendar year;

(4) how the monies donated in the previous calendar year were used by the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center; and

(5) how much cost there was incurred by Lake County and the Lake County State's Attorney's office in the previous calendar year in implementing the Pilot Program.

(d) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; 103-563, eff. 11-17-23; revised 7-29-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1009) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1009)

Sec. 5-1009. Limitation on home rule powers. Except as provided in Sections 5-1006, 5-1006.5, 5-1006.8, 5-1006.9, 5-1007, and 5-1008, on and after September 1, 1990, no home rule county has the authority to impose, pursuant to its home rule authority, a retailers' occupation tax, service occupation tax, use tax, sales tax, or other tax on the use, sale, or purchase of tangible personal property based on the gross receipts from such sales or the selling or purchase price of said tangible personal property. Notwithstanding the foregoing, this Section does not preempt any home rule imposed tax such as the following: (1) a tax on alcoholic beverages, whether based on gross receipts, volume sold, or any other measurement; (2) a tax based on the number of units of cigarettes or tobacco products; (3) a tax, however measured, based on the use of a hotel or motel room or similar facility; (4) a tax, however measured, on the sale or transfer of real property; (5) a tax, however measured, on lease receipts; (6) a tax on food prepared for immediate consumption and on alcoholic beverages sold by a business which provides for on premise consumption of said food or alcoholic beverages; or (7) other taxes not based on the selling or purchase price or gross receipts from the use, sale, or purchase of tangible personal property. This Section does not preempt a home rule county from imposing a tax, however measured, on the use, for consideration, of a parking lot, garage, or other parking facility.

On and after December 1, 2019, no home rule county has the authority to impose, pursuant to its home rule authority, a tax, however measured, on sales of aviation fuel, as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, unless the tax revenue is expended for airport-related purposes. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. Aviation fuel shall be excluded from tax only for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47017(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the county.

This Section is a limitation, pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, on the power of home rule units to tax. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 101-10 are a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-1069. Group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(a) The county board of any county may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the county, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, or the county board may self-insure, for the benefit of its employees, all or a portion of the employees' group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, including a combination of self-insurance and other types of insurance authorized by this Section, provided that the county board complies with all other requirements of this Section. The insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The county board may provide for payment by the county of a portion or all of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge, if any. If the county board undertakes a plan under which the county pays only a portion of the premium or charge, the county board shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the county board does not provide for self-insurance or for a plan under which the county pays a portion or all of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the county board may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the total premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The county board may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if it provides for self-insurance or, where it makes arrangements to provide group insurance through an insurance carrier, if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois. The county board may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the county elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 5-1069.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, a comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, a diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

A policy subject to this subsection shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

For purposes of this subsection:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A county, including a home rule county, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers. A home rule county to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(d-25) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage, the insurance coverage shall include joint mental health therapy services for any member of the sheriff's office, including the sheriff, and any spouse or partner of the member who resides with the member.

The joint mental health therapy services provided under this subsection shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e) The term "employees" as used in this Section includes elected or appointed officials but does not include temporary employees.

(f) The county board may, by ordinance, arrange to provide group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or a combination of those types of insurance, under this Section to retired former employees and retired former elected or appointed officials of the county.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(h) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include, on and after June 1, 2025, mental health counseling for any county employee who is a first responder without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided, except that this subsection does not apply to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

The requirement that mental health counseling be included in health insurance coverage as provided in this subsection is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers.

As used in this subsection:

"First responders" means police and corrections officers, deputy sheriffs, firefighters, emergency medical services personnel, as that term is defined in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, dispatched pursuant to a 9-1-1 call, emergency medical dispatchers, as that term is defined in Section 3.70 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, public safety telecommunicators, as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone System Act, and mental health professionals employed and dispatched by any unit of local government in response to emergency crisis calls received on public emergency service lines instead of or in conjunction with law enforcement.

"Mental health counseling" means counseling therapy sessions provided by a clinical social worker, professional counselor, or licensed psychologist.

(Source: P.A. 103-818, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1011, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-1069. Group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(a) The county board of any county may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the county, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, or the county board may self-insure, for the benefit of its employees, all or a portion of the employees' group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, including a combination of self-insurance and other types of insurance authorized by this Section, provided that the county board complies with all other requirements of this Section. The insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The county board may provide for payment by the county of a portion or all of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge, if any. If the county board undertakes a plan under which the county pays only a portion of the premium or charge, the county board shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the county board does not provide for self-insurance or for a plan under which the county pays a portion or all of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the county board may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the total premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The county board may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if it provides for self-insurance or, where it makes arrangements to provide group insurance through an insurance carrier, if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois. The county board may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all patients 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the county elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 5-1069.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for patients 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for patients 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the patient's health care provider for patients under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580), a comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(4.5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 (the effective date of Public Act 103-808) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, molecular breast imaging (MBI) and magnetic resonance imaging of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580), a diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

A policy subject to this subsection shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

For purposes of this subsection:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A county, including a home rule county, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers. A home rule county to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(d-25) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage, the insurance coverage shall include joint mental health therapy services for any member of the sheriff's office, including the sheriff, and any spouse or partner of the member who resides with the member.

The joint mental health therapy services provided under this subsection shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e) The term "employees" as used in this Section includes elected or appointed officials but does not include temporary employees.

(f) The county board may, by ordinance, arrange to provide group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or a combination of those types of insurance, under this Section to retired former employees and retired former elected or appointed officials of the county.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(h) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include, on and after June 1, 2025, mental health counseling for any county employee who is a first responder without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided, except that this subsection does not apply to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

The requirement that mental health counseling be included in health insurance coverage as provided in this subsection is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers.

As used in this subsection:

"First responders" means police and corrections officers, deputy sheriffs, firefighters, emergency medical services personnel, as that term is defined in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, dispatched pursuant to a 9-1-1 call, emergency medical dispatchers, as that term is defined in Section 3.70 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, public safety telecommunicators, as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone System Act, and mental health professionals employed and dispatched by any unit of local government in response to emergency crisis calls received on public emergency service lines instead of or in conjunction with law enforcement.

"Mental health counseling" means counseling therapy sessions provided by a clinical social worker, professional counselor, or licensed psychologist.

(Source: P.A. 103-808, eff. 1-1-26; 103-818, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1011, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356u.10, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70, and 356z.71, 356z.74, and 356z.77 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1189)

Sec. 5-1189. Shelby County rescue squad. The Shelby County Board may form, manage, fund, and operate a volunteer rescue squad to provide assistance within Shelby County to any public entity providing law enforcement, firefighting, emergency disaster response, or first responder services. The volunteer rescue squad may (i) locate missing persons, including drowning victims, (ii) perform a supporting, and not direct, role in fighting fires, and (iii) extricate persons from unsafe conditions. The Shelby County Board may provide benefits for rescue squad volunteers who suffer disease, injury, or death in the line of duty.

(Source: P.A. 103-895, eff. 1-1-25.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1190)

Sec. 5-1190 5-1189. Access to and use of county infrastructure for broadband. A county may lease, license, or otherwise grant access to and use of infrastructure, including fiber optic cables, that the county owns or controls to public or private entities to facilitate the delivery of broadband services on the condition that the lease, license, access, or use: (1) be granted on a nondiscriminatory, nonexclusive, and competitively neutral basis; and (2) comply with all other State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, including, but not limited to, all applicable safety codes and requirements. However, nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to lease, license, or otherwise grant access to or use of infrastructure that the county does not own or control to public or private entities to facilitate the delivery of broadband services. This Section applies to leases, licenses, or other agreements entered into, amended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-947) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-947, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1191)

Sec. 5-1191 5-1189. Transportation to problem-solving courts.

(a) As used in this Section, "problem-solving court" means a court program regulated under the Drug Court Treatment Act, the Juvenile Drug Court Treatment Act, the Mental Health Court Treatment Act, or the Veterans and Servicemembers Court Treatment Act.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a county may use funds designated by law or ordinance for transportation purposes to fund rides for persons to attend problem-solving courts. The county may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with another unit of local government for the purposes of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-988, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12020)

Sec. 5-12020. Commercial wind energy facilities and commercial solar energy facilities.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Commercial solar energy facility" means a "commercial solar energy system" as defined in Section 10-720 of the Property Tax Code. "Commercial solar energy facility" does not mean a utility-scale solar energy facility being constructed at a site that was eligible to participate in a procurement event conducted by the Illinois Power Agency pursuant to subsection (c-5) of Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

"Commercial wind energy facility" means a wind energy conversion facility of equal or greater than 500 kilowatts in total nameplate generating capacity. "Commercial wind energy facility" includes a wind energy conversion facility seeking an extension of a permit to construct granted by a county or municipality before January 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1123).

"Facility owner" means (i) a person with a direct ownership interest in a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility, or both, regardless of whether the person is involved in acquiring the necessary rights, permits, and approvals or otherwise planning for the construction and operation of the facility, and (ii) at the time the facility is being developed, a person who is acting as a developer of the facility by acquiring the necessary rights, permits, and approvals or by planning for the construction and operation of the facility, regardless of whether the person will own or operate the facility.

"Nonparticipating property" means real property that is not a participating property.

"Nonparticipating residence" means a residence that is located on nonparticipating property and that is existing and occupied on the date that an application for a permit to develop the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility is filed with the county.

"Occupied community building" means any one or more of the following buildings that is existing and occupied on the date that the application for a permit to develop the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility is filed with the county: a school, place of worship, day care facility, public library, or community center.

"Participating property" means real property that is the subject of a written agreement between a facility owner and the owner of the real property that provides the facility owner an easement, option, lease, or license to use the real property for the purpose of constructing a commercial wind energy facility, a commercial solar energy facility, or supporting facilities. "Participating property" also includes real property that is owned by a facility owner for the purpose of constructing a commercial wind energy facility, a commercial solar energy facility, or supporting facilities.

"Participating residence" means a residence that is located on participating property and that is existing and occupied on the date that an application for a permit to develop the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility is filed with the county.

"Protected lands" means real property that is:

(1) subject to a permanent conservation right consistent with the Real Property Conservation Rights Act; or

(2) registered or designated as a nature preserve, buffer, or land and water reserve under the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.

"Supporting facilities" means the transmission lines, substations, access roads, meteorological towers, storage containers, and equipment associated with the generation and storage of electricity by the commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility.

"Wind tower" includes the wind turbine tower, nacelle, and blades.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or whether the county has formed a zoning commission and adopted formal zoning under Section 5-12007, a county may establish standards for commercial wind energy facilities, commercial solar energy facilities, or both. The standards may include all of the requirements specified in this Section but may not include requirements for commercial wind energy facilities or commercial solar energy facilities that are more restrictive than specified in this Section. A county may also regulate the siting of commercial wind energy facilities with standards that are not more restrictive than the requirements specified in this Section in unincorporated areas of the county that are outside the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality and that are outside the 1.5-mile radius surrounding the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality.

(c) If a county has elected to establish standards under subsection (b), before the county grants siting approval or a special use permit for a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility, or modification of an approved siting or special use permit, the county board of the county in which the facility is to be sited or the zoning board of appeals for the county shall hold at least one public hearing. The public hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the Open Meetings Act and shall be held not more than 60 days after the filing of the application for the facility. The county shall allow interested parties to a special use permit an opportunity to present evidence and to cross-examine witnesses at the hearing, but the county may impose reasonable restrictions on the public hearing, including reasonable time limitations on the presentation of evidence and the cross-examination of witnesses. The county shall also allow public comment at the public hearing in accordance with the Open Meetings Act. The county shall make its siting and permitting decisions not more than 30 days after the conclusion of the public hearing. Notice of the hearing shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. A facility owner must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to the date of the required public hearing. A commercial wind energy facility owner seeking an extension of a permit granted by a county prior to July 24, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-132) must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to a decision by the county to grant the permit extension. Counties may allow test wind towers or test solar energy systems to be sited without formal approval by the county board.

(d) A county with an existing zoning ordinance in conflict with this Section shall amend that zoning ordinance to be in compliance with this Section within 120 days after January 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1123).

(e) A county may require:

(1) a wind tower of a commercial wind energy facility to be sited as follows, with setback distances measured from the center of the base of the wind tower:

Setback Description Setback Distance

Occupied Community 2.1 times the maximum blade tip Buildings height of the wind tower to the nearest point on the outside wall of the structure

Participating Residences 1.1 times the maximum blade tip height of the wind tower to the nearest point on the outside wall of the structure

Nonparticipating Residences 2.1 times the maximum blade tip height of the wind tower to the nearest point on the outside wall of the structure

Boundary Lines of None Participating Property

Boundary Lines of 1.1 times the maximum blade tip Nonparticipating Property height of the wind tower to the nearest point on the property line of the nonparticipating property

Public Road Rights-of-Way 1.1 times the maximum blade tip height of the wind tower to the center point of the public road right-of-way

Overhead Communication and 1.1 times the maximum blade tip Electric Transmission height of the wind tower to the and Distribution Facilities nearest edge of the property (Not Including Overhead line, easement, or Utility Service Lines to right-of-way Individual Houses or containing the overhead line Outbuildings)

Overhead Utility Service None Lines to Individual Houses or Outbuildings

Fish and Wildlife Areas 2.1 times the maximum blade and Illinois Nature tip height of the wind tower Preserve Commission to the nearest point on the Protected Lands property line of the fish and wildlife area or protected land

This Section does not exempt or excuse compliance with electric facility clearances approved or required by the National Electrical Code, the The National Electrical Safety Code, the Illinois Commerce Commission, and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, and their designees or successors; .

(2) a wind tower of a commercial wind energy facility to be sited so that industry standard computer modeling indicates that any occupied community building or nonparticipating residence will not experience more than 30 hours per year of shadow flicker under planned operating conditions;

(3) a commercial solar energy facility to be sited as follows, with setback distances measured from the nearest edge of any component of the facility:

Setback Description Setback Distance

Occupied Community 150 feet from the nearest Buildings and Dwellings on point on the outside wall Nonparticipating Properties of the structure

Boundary Lines of None Participating Property

Public Road Rights-of-Way 50 feet from the nearest edge

Boundary Lines of 50 feet to the nearest Nonparticipating Property point on the property line of the nonparticipating property

(4) a commercial solar energy facility to be sited so that the facility's perimeter is enclosed by fencing having a height of at least 6 feet and no more than 25 feet; and

(5) a commercial solar energy facility to be sited so that no component of a solar panel has a height of more than 20 feet above ground when the solar energy facility's arrays are at full tilt.

The requirements set forth in this subsection (e) may be waived subject to the written consent of the owner of each affected nonparticipating property.

(f) A county may not set a sound limitation for wind towers in commercial wind energy facilities or any components in commercial solar energy facilities that is more restrictive than the sound limitations established by the Illinois Pollution Control Board under 35 Ill. Adm. Code Parts 900, 901, and 910.

(g) A county may not place any restriction on the installation or use of a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility unless it adopts an ordinance that complies with this Section. A county may not establish siting standards for supporting facilities that preclude development of commercial wind energy facilities or commercial solar energy facilities.

A request for siting approval or a special use permit for a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility, or modification of an approved siting or special use permit, shall be approved if the request is in compliance with the standards and conditions imposed in this Act, the zoning ordinance adopted consistent with this Code, and the conditions imposed under State and federal statutes and regulations.

(h) A county may not adopt zoning regulations that disallow, permanently or temporarily, commercial wind energy facilities or commercial solar energy facilities from being developed or operated in any district zoned to allow agricultural or industrial uses.

(i) A county may not require permit application fees for a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility that are unreasonable. All application fees imposed by the county shall be consistent with fees for projects in the county with similar capital value and cost.

(j) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a county shall not require standards for construction, decommissioning, or deconstruction of a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility or related financial assurances that are more restrictive than those included in the Department of Agriculture's standard wind farm agricultural impact mitigation agreement, template 81818, or standard solar agricultural impact mitigation agreement, version 8.19.19, as applicable and in effect on December 31, 2022. The amount of any decommissioning payment shall be in accordance with the financial assurance required by those agricultural impact mitigation agreements.

(j-5) A commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility shall file a farmland drainage plan with the county and impacted drainage districts outlining how surface and subsurface drainage of farmland will be restored during and following construction or deconstruction of the facility. The plan is to be created independently by the facility developer and shall include the location of any potentially impacted drainage district facilities to the extent this information is publicly available from the county or the drainage district, plans to repair any subsurface drainage affected during construction or deconstruction using procedures outlined in the agricultural impact mitigation agreement entered into by the commercial wind energy facility owner or commercial solar energy facility owner, and procedures for the repair and restoration of surface drainage affected during construction or deconstruction. All surface and subsurface damage shall be repaired as soon as reasonably practicable.

(k) A county may not condition approval of a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility on a property value guarantee and may not require a facility owner to pay into a neighboring property devaluation escrow account.

(l) A county may require certain vegetative screening surrounding a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility but may not require earthen berms or similar structures.

(m) A county may set blade tip height limitations for wind towers in commercial wind energy facilities but may not set a blade tip height limitation that is more restrictive than the height allowed under a Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation by the Federal Aviation Administration under 14 CFR Part 77.

(n) A county may require that a commercial wind energy facility owner or commercial solar energy facility owner provide:

(1) the results and recommendations from consultation with the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are obtained through the Ecological Compliance Assessment Tool (EcoCAT) or a comparable successor tool; and

(2) the results of the United States Fish and Wildlife Service's Information for Planning and Consulting environmental review or a comparable successor tool that is consistent with (i) the "U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service's Land-Based Wind Energy Guidelines" and (ii) any applicable United States Fish and Wildlife Service solar wildlife guidelines that have been subject to public review.

(o) A county may require a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility to adhere to the recommendations provided by the Illinois Department of Natural Resources in an EcoCAT natural resource review report under 17 Ill. Adm. Code Part 1075.

(p) A county may require a facility owner to:

(1) demonstrate avoidance of protected lands as identified by the Illinois Department of Natural Resources and the Illinois Nature Preserve Commission; or

(2) consider the recommendations of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources for setbacks from protected lands, including areas identified by the Illinois Nature Preserve Commission.

(q) A county may require that a facility owner provide evidence of consultation with the Illinois State Historic Preservation Office to assess potential impacts on State-registered historic sites under the Illinois State Agency Historic Resources Preservation Act.

(r) To maximize community benefits, including, but not limited to, reduced stormwater runoff, flooding, and erosion at the ground mounted solar energy system, improved soil health, and increased foraging habitat for game birds, songbirds, and pollinators, a county may (1) require a commercial solar energy facility owner to plant, establish, and maintain for the life of the facility vegetative ground cover, consistent with the goals of the Pollinator-Friendly Solar Site Act and (2) require the submittal of a vegetation management plan that is in compliance with the agricultural impact mitigation agreement in the application to construct and operate a commercial solar energy facility in the county if the vegetative ground cover and vegetation management plan comply with the requirements of the underlying agreement with the landowner or landowners where the facility will be constructed.

No later than 90 days after January 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1123), the Illinois Department of Natural Resources shall develop guidelines for vegetation management plans that may be required under this subsection for commercial solar energy facilities. The guidelines must include guidance for short-term and long-term property management practices that provide and maintain native and non-invasive naturalized perennial vegetation to protect the health and well-being of pollinators.

(s) If a facility owner enters into a road use agreement with the Illinois Department of Transportation, a road district, or other unit of local government relating to a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility, the road use agreement shall require the facility owner to be responsible for (i) the reasonable cost of improving roads used by the facility owner to construct the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility and (ii) the reasonable cost of repairing roads used by the facility owner during construction of the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility so that those roads are in a condition that is safe for the driving public after the completion of the facility's construction. Roadways improved in preparation for and during the construction of the commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility shall be repaired and restored to the improved condition at the reasonable cost of the developer if the roadways have degraded or were damaged as a result of construction-related activities.

The road use agreement shall not require the facility owner to pay costs, fees, or charges for road work that is not specifically and uniquely attributable to the construction of the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility. Road-related fees, permit fees, or other charges imposed by the Illinois Department of Transportation, a road district, or other unit of local government under a road use agreement with the facility owner shall be reasonably related to the cost of administration of the road use agreement.

(s-5) The facility owner shall also compensate landowners for crop losses or other agricultural damages resulting from damage to the drainage system caused by the construction of the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility. The commercial wind energy facility owner or commercial solar energy facility owner shall repair or pay for the repair of all damage to the subsurface drainage system caused by the construction of the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility in accordance with the agriculture impact mitigation agreement requirements for repair of drainage. The commercial wind energy facility owner or commercial solar energy facility owner shall repair or pay for the repair and restoration of surface drainage caused by the construction or deconstruction of the commercial wind energy facility or the commercial solar energy facility as soon as reasonably practicable.

(t) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a facility owner with siting approval from a county to construct a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility is authorized to cross or impact a drainage system, including, but not limited to, drainage tiles, open drainage ditches, culverts, and water gathering vaults, owned or under the control of a drainage district under the Illinois Drainage Code without obtaining prior agreement or approval from the drainage district in accordance with the farmland drainage plan required by subsection (j-5).

(u) The amendments to this Section adopted in Public Act 102-1123 do not apply to: (1) an application for siting approval or for a special use permit for a commercial wind energy facility or commercial solar energy facility if the application was submitted to a unit of local government before January 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1123); (2) a commercial wind energy facility or a commercial solar energy facility if the facility owner has submitted an agricultural impact mitigation agreement to the Department of Agriculture before January 27, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1123); or (3) a commercial wind energy or commercial solar energy development on property that is located within an enterprise zone certified under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, that was classified as industrial by the appropriate zoning authority on or before January 27, 2023, and that is located within 4 miles of the intersection of Interstate 88 and Interstate 39.

(Source: P.A. 102-1123, eff. 1-27-23; 103-81, eff. 6-9-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 7-29-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12022)

Sec. 5-12022. Building permit fee for veterans with a disability.

(a) A veteran with a disability or the veteran's caregiver shall not be charged any building permit fee for improvements to the residence of the veteran with a disability if the improvements are required to accommodate a disability of the veteran. Nothing in this subsection changes the obligation of any person to submit to the county applications, forms, or other paperwork to obtain a building permit. A veteran or caregiver must provide proof of veteran status and attest to the fact that the improvements to the residence are required to accommodate the veteran's disability. Proof of veteran status is to be construed liberally, and veteran status shall include service in the Armed Forces of the United States, National Guard, or the reserves of the Armed Forces of the United States.

(b) What constitutes proof of veteran status shall be determined by the county. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs may not adjudicate any dispute arising under subsection paragraph (a).

(c) A home rule county may not regulate building permit fees in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 103-621, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12023)

Sec. 5-12023 5-12022. Battery-charged fences.

(a) As used in this Section, "battery-charged fence" means a fence energized by a battery that is not more than 12 volts of direct current that interfaces with an alarm system in a manner that enables the fence to cause the connected alarm system to transmit a signal intended to notify law enforcement of a potential intrusion.

(b) Notwithstanding any other law, a county may not require a permit or other approval for the installation, maintenance, placement, replacement, or servicing of a battery-charged fence if (i) the battery-charged fence is located on nonresidential property completely surrounded by a nonelectric perimeter fence or wall that is not less than 5 feet in height and does not exceed 10 feet in height or 2 feet higher than the nonelectric perimeter fence or wall, whichever is higher, and (ii) any electrical charge produced on contact does not exceed energizer characteristics set for electric fences by the International Electrotechnical Commission.

(c) Any battery-charged fence installed under this Section must have conspicuous signs located on the fence placed not less than 30 feet apart that read: "WARNING: ELECTRIC FENCE".

(d) A home rule county may not regulate battery-charged fencing in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 103-796, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-15017) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-15017)

Sec. 5-15017. Revenue bonds. In order to pay the cost of the construction, acquisition by condemnation, purchase, or otherwise of any waterworks properties, or sewage facilities, or a combination thereof, or waste management facilities, as the case may be, and the improvement or extension from time to time thereof, including engineering, inspection, legal and financial fees and costs, working capital, interest on such bonds during construction and for a reasonable period thereafter, establishment of reserves to secure such bonds and all other expenditures of such county incidental and necessary or convenient thereto, the county board may issue and sell revenue bonds payable solely from the income and revenue derived from the operation of the waterworks properties, or sewage facilities, or a combination thereof, or waste management facilities, as the case may be, and may also from time to time issue revenue bonds for the purpose of paying, refunding, or redeeming revenue bonds before, after, or at their maturity, including paying redemption premiums or interest accruing or to accrue on the bonds being paid or redeemed or for paying any other costs in connection with any such payment or redemption. All such bonds shall be authorized by ordinance to be adopted by the board, which shall be separate and distinct as applies to waterworks properties and as applied to sewage facilities except where the system is combined. Such bonds shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or serially at such times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, may bear interest at such rate or rates not exceeding the maximum rate established in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as from time to time in effect, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be subject to redemption in such manner, and upon such terms with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, and may be executed in such manner by such officers, and may contain such terms and covenants, all as provided by the ordinance authorizing the issue.

Such bonds shall be sold in such manner as the board shall determine, and if issued to bear interest at the maximum rate specified in this Section shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest; however, the selling price of any bonds bearing less than such maximum rate, shall be such that the interest cost of the money received from the sale of the bonds shall not exceed such maximum rate, computed to absolute maturity, according to standard tables of bond values.

Notwithstanding the form or tenor thereof, and in the absence of expressed recitals on the face thereof that the bonds are non-negotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments.

To secure payment of any and all such bonds such ordinance shall set forth the covenants and undertakings of the county in connection with the issuance thereof, and the issuance of additional bonds payable from the revenues or income to be derived from the operation of the waterworks properties or sewage facilities, or waste management facilities, as the case may be, as well as the use and operation thereof, and for the use and disposition for waterworks, and sewerage, and waste management purposes of investment earnings on funds and accounts created with respect to the revenue bonds.

In case any officer whose signature appears on the bond or coupons attached thereto shall cease to be such officer before the delivery of the bonds to the purchaser, such signature shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes to the same effect as if he had remained in office until the delivery of the bonds.

Under no circumstances shall any bonds issued or any other obligation, except as set forth in Section 5-15003, incurred pursuant to the provisions of this Division be or become an indebtedness or an obligation of the county payable from taxes and shall not in any event constitute an indebtedness of such county within the meaning of the constitutional provisions or limitations, and such fact shall be plainly stated on the face of each bond.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 7-30-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-31012) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-31012)

Sec. 5-31012. Powers of district. To the extent necessary to carry out the purpose of this Division and in addition to any other powers, duties, and functions vested in museum districts by law, but subject to limitations and restrictions imposed elsewhere by this Division or other law, a museum district is authorized and empowered:

(a) To adopt bylaws, adopt and use a common seal, enter into contracts, acquire and hold real and personal property, and take such other actions as may be necessary for the proper conduct of its affairs.

(b) To make and publish all ordinances, rules, and regulations necessary for the management and protection of its property and the conduct of its affairs.

(c) To study and ascertain the museum district artifacts and other materials, the need for preserving such resources and providing such facilities and the extent to which such needs are currently being met, and to prepare and adopt coordinated plans to meet such needs.

(d) To acquire by gift, devise, purchase, lease, agreement, or otherwise the fee or any lessor right or interest in real and personal property, and to hold the same with public access for those who wish to examine or study it. The museum district may accept the transfer of any real or personal property owned or controlled by the State of Illinois, the county board, or the governing body of any municipality, district, or public corporation and not devoted or dedicated to any other inconsistent public use. In acquiring or accepting land or rights thereto, the museum district shall give due consideration to its historical value or county significance, and no real property shall be acquired or accepted which in the opinion of the museum district and the Illinois State Museum is of low value as to its proposed use.

(e) To acquire any or all interest in real or personal property by a contract for purchase providing for payment in installments over a period not to exceed 10 years with interest on the unpaid balance owing not to exceed an amount calculated pursuant to the provisions of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended. The indebtedness incurred under this subsection when aggregated with existing indebtedness may not exceed the debt limits provided in Section 5-31016.

(f) To classify, designate, plan, develop, preserve, administer, and maintain all areas and facilities in which it has an interest and to construct, reconstruct, alter, renew, equip, and maintain buildings and other structures. Any work performed on any building, appurtenance, structure, or area listed on the National Register of Historic Places or deemed eligible for such listing shall be performed within such guidelines as are established by the Department of Natural Resources.

(g) To accept gifts, grants, bequests, contributions, and appropriations of money and personal property for museum district purposes.

(h) To employ and fix the compensation of an executive officer who shall be responsible to the board for the implementation of its policies. The executive officer shall have the power, subject to the approval of the board, to employ and fix the compensation of such assistants and employees as the board may consider necessary for the implementation of this Division.

(i) To charge and collect reasonable fees for the use of such facilities, privileges, and conveniences as may be provided.

(j) To police its property and to exercise police powers in respect thereto or in respect to the enforcement of any rule or regulation provided by its ordinances.

(k) To lease land for a period not longer than 50 years to a responsible person, firm, or corporation for construction, reconstruction, alteration, development, operation, and maintenance of buildings, roads, and parking areas. Any work performed on any leased building, structure, appurtenances, or area which is listed on the National Register of Historic Places or deemed eligible for such listing shall be performed within such guidelines as are established by the Department of Natural Resources. Upon expiration of any lease of land under this subsection, title to all structures on the leased land shall be vested in the museum district.

(l) To lease any building or facility constructed, reconstructed, altered, renewed, equipped, furnished, extended, developed, and maintained by the museum district to a responsible person, firm, or corporation for operation or development or both, and maintenance for a period not longer than 20 years. Development, maintenance, or both of any building, structures, appurtenances, or area which is listed on the National Register of Historic Places or deemed eligible for such listing shall be performed within such guidelines as are established by the Department of Natural Resources.

(m) To make grants to not-for-profit historical clubs, organizations, or groups within the county.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 7-30-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-31016) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-31016)

Sec. 5-31016. Indebtedness. Whenever a museum district does not have sufficient money in its treasury to meet all necessary expenses and liabilities, it may issue tax anticipation warrants. Such issue of tax anticipation warrants shall be subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act "An Act to provide for the manner of issuing warrants upon any county, township, or other municipal corporation or quasi municipal corporation, or of any farm drainage district, river district, drainage and levee district, fire protection district and jurors' certificates", approved June 27, 1913, as now or hereafter amended.

No museum district shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding .25% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of the taxable property within the museum district.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 7-30-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/6-4002) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-4002)

Sec. 6-4002. Resolution. The resolution of the county board authorizing the issuance of the general obligation bonds shall prescribe all the details of the bonds and specify the total amount of the bonds to be issued, the form and denomination of the bonds, the date they are to bear, the place they are payable, the date or dates of maturity, which shall not be more than 30 years after the date of the bonds, the rate of interest, which shall not exceed that authorized by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, and the dates on which the interest is payable.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 7-30-24.)

(55 ILCS 5/6-27004) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-27004)

Sec. 6-27004. Purposes for which fund may be used; reimbursement. All moneys received from the issuance of bonds as herein authorized, or from any tax levied pursuant to the authority granted by this Division, shall be set apart in said working cash fund by the county treasurer and shall be used only for the purposes and in the manner hereinafter provided. Such fund, and the moneys therein, shall not be regarded as current assets available for appropriation and shall not be appropriated by the county board in the resolution termed the annual appropriations bill. The county board may appropriate moneys to the working cash fund up to the maximum amount allowable in the fund, and the working cash fund may receive such appropriations and any other contributions. In order to provide moneys with which to meet ordinary and necessary disbursements for salaries and other corporate purposes, such fund and the moneys therein may be transferred, in whole or in part, to the general corporate fund of the county and so disbursed therefrom (a) in anticipation of the collection of any taxes lawfully levied for general corporate purposes, (b) in anticipation of the receipt of moneys to be derived from fees and commissions to be earned by the county clerk and the county collector for extending and collecting taxes levied, or (c) in the anticipation of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. Moneys transferred to the general corporate fund in anticipation of the collection of taxes shall be deemed to have been transferred in anticipation of the collection of that part of the taxes so levied which is in excess of the amount or amounts thereof required to pay (a) any tax anticipation warrants and the interest thereon, theretofore or thereafter issued under the provisions of Sections 2 and 3 of the Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act Section two (2) and three (3) of "An Act to provide for the manner of issuing warrants upon the treasurer of the State or of any county, township, city, village or other municipal corporation and jurors' certificates", approved June 27, 1913, as amended, (b) the aggregate amount of receipts from taxes imposed to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, which the corporate authorities estimate will be set aside for the payment of the proportionate amount of debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as required by Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State Revenue Sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and (c) any notes and the interest thereon, theretofore or thereafter issued under the provisions of Division 6-2, and such taxes levied for general corporate purposes when collected shall be applied, first, to the payment of any such warrant and the interest thereon, the amount estimated to be required to satisfy debt service and pension or retirement obligations as set forth in Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State revenue sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and to the payment of any such notes and the interest thereon, and then to the reimbursement of said working cash fund as hereinafter provided. Upon the receipt by said county treasurer of any taxes, or other moneys, in anticipation of the collection or receipt whereof moneys of such working cash fund have been so transferred for disbursement, such fund shall immediately be reimbursed therefrom until the full amount so transferred has been re-transferred to such fund. Unless the taxes and other moneys so received and applied to the reimbursement of the working cash fund, prior to the close of the fiscal year following the fiscal year in which the last tax penalty date fall due shall be sufficient to effect a complete reimbursement of such fund for any moneys transferred therefrom in anticipation of the collection or receipt of such taxes, or other moneys, such working cash fund shall be reimbursed for the amount of the deficiency therein from any other revenues accruing to said general corporate fund, and it shall be the duty of the county board to make provision for the immediate reimbursement of the amount of any such deficiency in its next resolution termed the annual appropriations bill.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 380. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-4.1-8, 10-4-2, 10-4-2.3, 11-19-1, 11-48.3-11, 11-61-3, 11-135-1, and 11-135-4 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 11-13-28 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-4.1-8) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-4.1-8)

Sec. 8-4.1-8. Bonds authorized by Applicable Law may be issued in one or more series, bear such date or dates, become due at such time or times within the period of years provided by Applicable Law, bear interest payable at such intervals and at such rate or rates as authorized under Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein," approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, which rates may be fixed or variable, be in such denominations, be in such form, either coupon or registered or book-entry, carry such conversion, registration, and exchange privileges, be subject to defeasance upon such terms, have such rank or priority, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places within or without the State of Illinois, be subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and be sold in such manner at private or public sale and at such price as the corporate authorities shall determine. Whenever such bonds are sold at a price less than par, they shall be sold at such price and bear interest at such rate or rates such that the net interest rate received upon the sale of such Bonds does not exceed the maximum rate determined under Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 85-158; revised 7-30-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 10-4-2. Group insurance.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the municipality, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, and may arrange to provide that insurance for the benefit of the spouses or dependents of those employees. The insurance may include provision for employees or other insured persons who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The corporate authorities may provide for payment by the municipality of a portion of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge. If the corporate authorities undertake a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge, the corporate authorities shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those municipal employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the corporate authorities do not provide for a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the corporate authorities may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The corporate authorities may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois, or are obtained through an intergovernmental joint self-insurance pool as authorized under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. The corporate authorities may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the municipality elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 10-4-2.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, a comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, a diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

A policy subject to this subsection shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

For purposes of this subsection:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A municipality, including a home rule municipality, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule municipality powers. A home rule municipality to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(d-25) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include joint mental health therapy services for any member of the municipality's police department or fire department and any spouse or partner of the member who resides with the member.

The joint mental health therapy services provided under this subsection shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 103-818, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 10-4-2. Group insurance.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the municipality, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, and may arrange to provide that insurance for the benefit of the spouses or dependents of those employees. The insurance may include provision for employees or other insured persons who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The corporate authorities may provide for payment by the municipality of a portion of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge. If the corporate authorities undertake a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge, the corporate authorities shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those municipal employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the corporate authorities do not provide for a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the corporate authorities may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The corporate authorities may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois, or are obtained through an intergovernmental joint self-insurance pool as authorized under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. The corporate authorities may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all patients 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the municipality elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 10-4-2.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for patients 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for patients 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the patient's health care provider for patients under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-580), a comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(4.5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 (the effective date of Public Act 103-808) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, molecular breast imaging (MBI) and magnetic resonance imaging of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(5) For a group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2020, (the effective date of Public Act 101-580), a diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

A policy subject to this subsection shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

For purposes of this subsection:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A municipality, including a home rule municipality, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule municipality powers. A home rule municipality to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(d-25) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include joint mental health therapy services for any member of the municipality's police department or fire department and any spouse or partner of the member who resides with the member.

The joint mental health therapy services provided under this subsection shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

This subsection is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 103-808, eff. 1-1-26; 103-818, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356u.10, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70, and 356z.71, 356z.74, and 356z.77 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-13-28)

Sec. 11-13-28. Building permit fee for veterans with a disability.

(a) A veteran with a disability or the veteran's caregiver shall not be charged any building permit fee for improvements to the residence of the veteran with a disability if the improvements are required to accommodate a disability of the veteran. Nothing in this subsection changes the obligation of any person to submit to the municipality applications, forms, or other paperwork to obtain a building permit. A veteran or caregiver must provide proof of veteran status and attest to the fact that the improvements to the residence are required to accommodate the veteran's disability. Proof of veteran status is to be construed liberally, and veteran status shall include service in the Armed Forces of the United States, National Guard, or the reserves of the Armed Forces of the United States.

(b) What constitutes proof of veteran status shall be determined by the municipality. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs may not adjudicate any dispute arising under subsection paragraph (a).

(c) A home rule municipality may not regulate building permit fees in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 103-621, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-13-29)

Sec. 11-13-29 11-13-28. Battery-charged fences.

(a) As used in this Section, "battery-charged fence" means a fence energized by a battery that is not more than 12 volts of direct current that interfaces with an alarm system in a manner that enables the fence to cause the connected alarm system to transmit a signal intended to notify law enforcement of a potential intrusion.

(b) Notwithstanding any other law, a municipality may not require a permit or other approval for the installation, maintenance, placement, replacement, or servicing of a battery-charged fence if (i) the battery-charged fence is located on nonresidential property completely surrounded by a nonelectric perimeter fence or wall that is not less than 5 feet in height and does not exceed 10 feet in height or 2 feet higher than the nonelectric perimeter fence or wall, whichever is higher, and (ii) any electrical charge produced on contact does not exceed energizer characteristics set for electric fences by the International Electrotechnical Commission.

(c) Any battery-charged fence installed under this Section must have conspicuous signs located on the fence placed not less than 30 feet apart that read: "WARNING: ELECTRIC FENCE".

(d) A home rule municipality may not regulate battery-charged fencing in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 103-796, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-19-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-19-1)

Sec. 11-19-1. Contracts.

(a) Any city, village, or incorporated town may make contracts with any other city, village, or incorporated town or with any person, corporation, or county, or any agency created by intergovernmental agreement, for more than one year and not exceeding 30 years relating to the collection and final disposition, or relating solely to either the collection or final disposition of garbage, refuse and ashes. A municipality may contract with private industry to operate a designated facility for the disposal, treatment, or recycling of solid waste, and may enter into contracts with private firms or local governments for the delivery of waste to such facility. In regard to a contract involving a garbage, refuse, or garbage and refuse incineration facility, the 30-year 30 year contract limitation imposed by this Section shall be computed so that the 30 years shall not begin to run until the date on which the facility actually begins accepting garbage or refuse. The payments required in regard to any contract entered into under this Division 19 shall not be regarded as indebtedness of the city, village, or incorporated town, as the case may be, for the purpose of any debt limitation imposed by any law. On and after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-316) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 shall not enter into any new contracts with any other unit of local government, by intergovernmental agreement or otherwise, or with any corporation or person relating to the collecting and final disposition of general construction or demolition debris; except that this sentence does not apply to a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 that is a party to: (1) a contract relating to the collecting and final disposition of general construction or demolition debris on January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-316) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly; or (2) the renewal or extension of a contract relating to the collecting and final disposition of general construction or demolition debris irrespective of whether the contract automatically renews, is amended, or is subject to a new request for proposal after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-316) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(a-5) If a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 located in a county as defined in the Solid Waste and Recycling Program Act has never awarded a franchise to a private entity for the collection of waste from non-residential locations, then the municipality may not award a franchise unless:

(1) the municipality provides prior written notice to all haulers licensed to provide waste hauling service in that municipality of the municipality's intent to issue a request for proposal under this Section;

(2) the municipality adopts an ordinance requiring each licensed hauler, for a period of no less than 36 continuous months commencing on the first day of the month following the effective date of such ordinance, to report every 6 months to the municipality the number of non-residential locations served by the hauler in the municipality and the number of non-residential locations contracting with the hauler for the recyclable materials collection service pursuant to Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act; and

(3) the report to the municipality required under paragraph (2) of this subsection (a-5) for the final 6 months of that 36-month period establishes that less than 50% of the non-residential locations in the municipality contract for recyclable material collection services pursuant to Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act.

All such reports shall be filed with the municipality by the hauler on or before the last day of the month following the end of the 6-month reporting period. Within 15 days after the last day for licensed haulers to file such reports, the municipality shall post on its website: (i) the information provided by each hauler pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (a-5), without identifying the hauler; and (ii) the aggregate number of non-residential locations served by all licensed haulers in the municipality and the aggregate number of non-residential locations contracting with all licensed haulers in the municipality for the recyclable materials collection service under Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act.

(a-10) Beginning at the conclusion of the 36-month reporting period and thereafter, and upon written request of the municipality, each licensed hauler shall, for every 6-month period, report to the municipality (i) the number of non-residential locations served by the hauler in the municipality and the number of non-residential locations contracting with the hauler for the recyclable materials collection service pursuant to Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act, (ii) an estimate of the quantity of recyclable materials, in tons, collected by the hauler in the municipality from non-residential locations contracting with the hauler for recyclable materials collection service pursuant to Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act, and (iii) an estimate of the quantity of municipal waste, in tons, collected by the hauler in the municipality from those non-residential locations. All reports for that 6-month period shall be filed with the municipality by the hauler on or before the last day of the month following the end of the 6-month reporting period. Within 15 days after the last day for licensed haulers to file such reports, the municipality shall post on its website: (i) the information provided by each hauler pursuant to this subsection (a-10), without identifying the hauler; and (ii) the aggregate number of non-residential locations served by all licensed haulers in the municipality and the aggregate number of non-residential locations contracting with all licensed haulers in the municipality for the recyclable materials collection service under Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act.

A municipality subject to subsection (a-5) of this Section may not award a franchise unless 2 consecutive 6-month reports determine that less than 50% of the non-residential locations within the municipality contract for recyclable material collection service pursuant to Section 10 of the Solid Waste Hauling and Recycling Program Act.

(b) If a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 has never awarded a franchise to a private entity for the collection of waste from non-residential locations, then that municipality may not award such a franchise without issuing a request for proposal. The municipality may not issue a request for proposal without first: (i) holding at least one public hearing seeking comment on the advisability of issuing a request for proposal and awarding a franchise; (ii) providing at least 30 days' written notice of the hearing, delivered by first class mail to all private entities that provide non-residential waste collection services within the municipality that the municipality is able to identify through its records; and (iii) providing at least 30 days' public notice of the hearing.

After issuing a request for proposal, the municipality may not award a franchise without first: (i) allowing at least 30 days for proposals to be submitted to the municipality; (ii) holding at least one public hearing after the receipt of proposals on whether to award a franchise to a proposed franchisee; and (iii) providing at least 30 days' public notice of the hearing. At the public hearing, the municipality must disclose and discuss the proposed franchise fee or calculation formula of such franchise fee that it will receive under the proposed franchise.

(b-5) If no request for proposal is issued within 120 days after the initial public hearing required in subsection (b), then the municipality must hold another hearing as outlined in subsection (b).

(b-10) If a municipality has not awarded a franchise within 210 days after the date that a request for proposal is issued pursuant to subsection (b), then the municipality must adhere to all of the requirements set forth in subsections (b) and (b-5).

(b-15) The franchise fee and any other fees, taxes, or charges imposed by the municipality in connection with a franchise for the collection of waste from non-residential locations must be used exclusively for costs associated with administering the franchise program.

(c) If a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 has never awarded a franchise to a private entity for the collection of waste from non-residential locations, then a private entity may not begin providing waste collection services to non-residential locations under a franchise agreement with that municipality at any time before the date that is 15 months after the date the ordinance or resolution approving the award of the franchise is adopted.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "waste" means garbage, refuse, or ashes as defined in Section 11-19-2.

(e) A home rule unit may not award a franchise to a private entity for the collection of waste in a manner contrary to the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) A municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 shall not award a franchise or contract to any private entity for the collection of general construction or demolition debris from residential or non-residential locations. This subsection does not apply to a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 that is a party to: (1) a franchise or contract with a private entity for the collection of general construction or demolition debris from residential or non-residential locations on January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-316) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly; or (2) the renewal or extension of a franchise or contract with a private entity for the collection of general construction or demolition debris from residential or non-residential locations irrespective of whether the franchise or contract automatically renews, is amended, or is subject to a new request for proposal after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-316) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-316, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-22-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-48.3-11) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-48.3-11)

Sec. 11-48.3-11. The Authority shall have continuing power to borrow money for the purpose of carrying out and performing its duties and exercising its powers under this Division.

For the purpose of evidencing the obligation of the Authority to repay any money borrowed as aforesaid, the Authority may, pursuant to ordinance adopted by the Board, from time to time issue and dispose of its interest bearing revenue bonds, and may also from time to time issue and dispose of its interest bearing revenue bonds to refund any bonds at maturity or pursuant to redemption provisions or at any time before maturity with the consent of the holders thereof. All such bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the exhibitions, rentals, and leases and other authorized activities operated by it, and from funds, if any, received and to be received by the Authority from any other source. Such bonds may bear such date or dates, may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, may bear interest at such rate or rates, not exceeding the maximum rate permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be executed in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance. In case any officer whose signature appears on any bond ceases (after attaching his or her signature) to hold office, his or her signature shall nevertheless be valid and effective for all purposes. The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the Authority may bring mandamus, injunction, civil actions, and proceedings to compel the performance and observance by the Authority or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the Authority with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the Authority and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provisions of the ordinance authorizing their issuance, or to enjoin the Authority and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any such bonds and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is non-negotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments under the Uniform Commercial Code.

From and after the issuance of any bonds as herein provided, it shall be the duty of the corporate authorities of the Authority to fix and establish rates, charges, rents, and fees for the use of facilities acquired, constructed, reconstructed, extended, or improved with the proceeds of the sale of said bonds sufficient at all times, with other revenues of the Authority, to pay:

(a) The cost of maintaining, repairing, regulating, and operating the said facilities; and

(b) The bonds and interest thereon as they shall become due, and all sinking fund requirements and other requirements provided by the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the bonds or as provided by any trust agreement executed to secure payment thereof.

To secure the payment of any or all of such bonds and for the purpose of setting forth the covenants and undertakings of the Authority in connection with the issuance thereof and the issuance of any additional bonds payable from such revenue income to be derived from the exhibitions, office rentals, air space leases and rentals, and other revenue, if any, the Authority may execute and deliver a trust agreement or agreements; provided that no lien upon any physical property of the Authority shall be created thereby.

A remedy for any breach or default of the terms of any such trust agreement by the Authority may be by mandamus, injunction, civil action, and proceedings in any court of competent jurisdiction to compel performance and compliance therewith, but the trust agreement may prescribe by whom or on whose behalf such action may be instituted.

Before any such bonds (excepting refunding bonds) are sold, the entire authorized issue, or any part thereof, shall be offered for sale as a unit after advertising for bids at least 3 times in a daily newspaper of general circulation published in the metropolitan area, the last publication to be at least 10 days before bids are required to be filed. Copies of such advertisement may be published in any newspaper or financial publication in the United States. All bids shall be sealed, filed, and opened as provided by ordinance and the bonds shall be awarded to the highest and best bidder or bidders therefor. The Authority shall have the right to reject all bids and readvertise for bids in the manner provided for in the initial advertisement. If no bids are received, however, such bonds may be sold at not less than par value, without further advertising, within 60 days after the bids are required to be filed pursuant to any advertisement.

(Source: P.A. 86-279; revised 7-31-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-61-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-61-3)

Sec. 11-61-3. The corporate authorities of each municipality having a population of less than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall have the express power to purchase or lease either real estate or personal property for public purposes through contracts which provide for the consideration for such purchase or lease to be paid through installments to be made at stated intervals during a certain period of time, but, in no case, shall such contracts provide for the consideration to be paid during a period of time in excess of 20 years nor shall such contracts provide for the payment of interest at a rate of more than that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended. The indebtedness incurred under this Section when aggregated with existing indebtedness may not exceed the debt limits provided in Division 5 of Article 8 of this Code.

The amendatory Acts of 1972 and 1973 are not a limit upon any municipality which is a home rule unit.

(Source: P.A. 91-493, eff. 8-13-99; revised 7-31-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-135-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-135-1)

Sec. 11-135-1. Any 2 or more municipalities, except cities of 500,000 or more inhabitants, may acquire either by purchase or construction a waterworks system or a common source of supply of water, or both, and may operate jointly a waterworks system or a common source of supply of water, or both, and improve and extend the same, as provided in this Division 135. The corporate authorities of the specified municipalities desiring to avail themselves of the provisions of this Division 135 shall adopt a resolution or ordinance determining and electing to acquire and operate jointly a waterworks system or a common source of supply of water, or both, as the case may be. Such resolution or ordinance may be rescinded at any time prior to the issuance and sale of revenue bonds and after the rescinding municipality has no outstanding obligation to pay a proportionate share of the costs of development, construction, or operation.

Any municipality adopting a resolution or ordinance to acquire and operate jointly a waterworks system or a common source of supply of water, or both, as the case may be, under the provisions of this Division 135, is authorized from time to time to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself to the Commission, to bear a proportionate share of the development costs of any project proposed by the Commission, including plans, feasibility reports, and engineering, even though the project is never constructed or water is never supplied by the Commission to such municipality.

Whenever any municipality determines to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself for its proportionate share of development costs as above provided, it shall adopt an ordinance declaring its intention to do so, fix the maximum amount of its share of the cost it proposes to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself for, and the period over which it proposes to pay its obligation (not exceeding 5 years) and the maximum amount to be paid annually, if such obligation is to be paid in installments. The time of payment of any such installment obligation may be extended for a period of not exceeding five years from the final maturity date of the original obligation.

From and after such ordinance becomes effective, it shall be the duty of the municipality to include an amount sufficient to pay the annual installments of its obligation each year in the next succeeding appropriation ordinances. No prior appropriation shall be required for a municipality to authorize the payments, advances, or obligations herein provided for.

Whenever any municipality has obligated itself for development costs as herein provided and after the effective date of the ordinance under which it obligated itself for a specific amount for development costs of a project and after approval of such obligation by the Commission, the Commission is authorized to borrow funds temporarily for payment of such development costs in advance of permanent financing. The Commission may from time to time and pursuant to an appropriate resolution borrow money and issue its interim notes to evidence borrowings for such purpose, including all necessary and incidental expenses in connection therewith.

Any resolution authorizing the issuance of such notes shall describe the project and the development costs to be undertaken, specify the principal amount, rate of interest as authorized under Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, and the maturity date which shall coincide with the due date of the obligations or the installments thereof incurred by the respective municipalities pursuant to this Section not, however, to exceed 5 years from date.

Contemporaneously with the issuance as provided by this Division of revenue bonds, all outstanding interim notes issued for development costs of a project though they have not then matured shall be paid, both principal and interest to date of payment, from funds derived from the sale of revenue bonds for the permanent financing of any such project for which interim notes may have been issued and such interim notes shall be surrendered and cancelled.

Any municipality adopting a resolution or ordinance to acquire and operate jointly a waterworks system or a common source of supply of water, or both, as the case may be, under the provisions of this Division 135 is further authorized from time to time, to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself to the Commission to bear, a proportionate share of the construction and operating costs of any project proposed by the Commission.

Whenever a municipality determines to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself for its proportionate share of construction or operating costs as above provided, it shall adopt an ordinance declaring its intention to do so, fix the maximum amount of its share of the cost it proposes to pay, to advance, or to obligate itself for, and the period over which it proposes to pay its obligation and the maximum amount to be paid annually, if such obligation is to be paid in installments. From and after such ordinance becomes effective, it shall be the duty of the municipality to include an amount sufficient to pay the annual installments of its obligation each year in the next succeeding appropriation ordinances. No prior appropriation shall be required for a municipality to authorize the payments, advances, or obligations herein provided for.

Whenever any municipality has paid, advanced, or obligated itself for development, construction, or operating costs as herein provided, the Commission is authorized to contract with such municipality, on such terms as may be agreed, for the repayment to such municipality by the Commission of any payment or advance made by such municipality to the Commission to charge, in addition to all other charges and rates authorized under the provisions of this Division, such rates and charges for water sold by the Commission as shall be necessary to provide for such repayment. In addition, any payment or advance of such costs made by a municipality pursuant to this Section may be repaid by the Commission to the municipality from the proceeds of revenue bonds authorized to be issued by the Commission pursuant to this Division 135.

(Source: P.A. 82-783; revised 7-31-24.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-135-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-135-4)

Sec. 11-135-4. A commission may from time to time issue its revenue bonds in such principal amounts as the commission shall deem necessary to provide sufficient funds to carry out any of its corporate purposes and powers, including, without limitation, developing, acquiring, constructing, extending, or improving a waterworks system or common source of supply of water, or any combination thereof, the funding or refunding of the principal of, redemption premium, if any, and interest on, any bonds issued by it whether or not such bonds or interest to be funded or refunded have or have not become due, the payment of engineering, legal, and other expenses, together with interest to a date one year subsequent to the estimated date of completion of the project, the establishment or increase of reserves to secure or to pay such bonds and interest thereon, the providing of working capital, and the payment of all other costs or expenses of the commission incident to and necessary or convenient to carry out its corporate purposes and powers. These bonds shall have all the qualities of negotiable instruments under the laws of this State and shall not constitute indebtedness of any of the municipalities constituting the commission.

Every issue of bonds of such commission shall be payable out of the revenues to be derived pursuant to contracts with the specified municipalities and participating water commissions or by virtue of the operation of any properties acquired or to be acquired or constructed. A commission may issue such types of bonds as it may determine, including bonds as to which the principal and interest are payable exclusively from the revenues from one or more projects, or from an interest therein or a right to the products and services thereof, or from one or more revenue producing contracts made by the commission, or its revenues generally. Any such bonds may be additionally secured by a pledge of any grant, subsidy, or contribution from the United States, the State of Illinois, or any unit of local government, or any combination thereof.

Before the treasurer of the commission is entitled to receive the proceeds of the sale of such a bond issue, he shall supply a corporate surety bond in an amount equivalent to the amount of funds to be derived from the sale of the bonds, and, in addition thereto, he shall supply a separate corporate surety bond for the faithful accounting of any funds that may come into his possession in an amount equal to the amount of funds likely to come into his hands in any one year from the revenue to be derived from the operation of any of the properties of the commission. The cost of these surety bonds shall be paid by the commission.

The revenue bonds shall be issued pursuant to an ordinance or resolution, and may be issued in one or more series, and shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times within the estimated period of usefulness of the project involved and in any event not more than 50 years from the date thereof, bear interest at such rate or rates as authorized under Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, which rates may be fixed or variable, be in such denominations, be in such form, either coupon or registered, carry such conversion, registration, and exchange privileges, have such rank or priority, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places within or without the State of Illinois, be subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and contain or be subject to such other terms as the ordinance or resolution may provide, and shall not be restricted by the provisions of any other law limiting the amounts, maturities, interest rates, or other terms of obligations of public agencies or private persons. The bonds shall be sold in such manner as the commission shall determine, at private or public sale. It shall not be necessary that the ordinance or resolution refer to plans and specifications nor that there be on file for public inspection prior to the adoption of such ordinance detailed plans and specifications of the project. This ordinance or resolution may contain such covenants and restrictions in relation to the operation of the properties under the control of the commission and the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of payment of the bonds thereby authorized and as may be thereafter issued. It shall be plainly stated on the face of each bond that it does not constitute an indebtedness of any municipality represented by the commission within the meaning of any statutory or constitutional limitation. Upon the issuance of revenue bonds, the revenue of the commission derived pursuant to contracts entered into for the sale of water to the specified municipalities and from the operation of its properties, shall be accounted for as provided in the ordinance or resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds. Any commission created under the provisions of this Division 135 may also issue new bonds for the purpose of providing funds for the payment of unpaid bonds in accordance with the procedure prescribed by this Division 135.

The amendatory Acts of 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975 and 1981 are not a limit upon any municipality which is a home rule unit.

(Source: P.A. 91-659, eff. 12-22-99; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 385. The Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Allocation Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(65 ILCS 110/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act, words or terms have the following meanings:

(a) "Closed military installation" means a former base, camp, post, station, yard, center, homeport facility for any ship, or other activity under the jurisdiction of the United States Department of the Defense which is not less in the aggregate than 500 acres and which is closed or in the process of being closed by the Secretary of Defense under and pursuant to Title II of the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act (Public Law 100-526; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note), The Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (part A of title XXIX of Public Law 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note), Section 2687 of Title 10 of the United States Code (10 U.S.C. 2687), or an installation, described in subsection (b) of Section 15 of the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act, that has been transferred or is in the process of being transferred by the Secretary of the Army pursuant to the Illinois Land Conservation Act (Title XXIX of Public Law 104-106; 16 U.S.C. 1609), as each may be further supplemented or amended.

(b) "Economic development plan" means the written plan of a municipality that sets forth an economic development program for an economic development project area. Each economic development plan shall include, but not be limited to, (i) estimated economic development project costs, (ii) the sources of funds to pay those costs, (iii) the nature and term of any obligations to be issued by the municipality to pay those costs, (iv) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the economic development project area, (v) an estimate of the equalized assessed valuation of the economic development project area after completion of an economic development project, (vi) the estimated date of completion of any economic development project proposed to be undertaken, (vii) a general description of the types of any proposed developers, users, or tenants of any property to be located or improved within the economic development project area, (viii) a description of the type, structure, and general character of the facilities to be developed or improved, (ix) a description of the general land uses to apply in the economic development project area, (x) a general description or an estimate of the type, class, and number of employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed or improved, and (xi) a commitment by the municipality to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan regarding any economic development program to be undertaken by the municipality.

(c) "Economic development project" means any development project furthering the objectives of this Act.

(d) "Economic development project area" means any improved or vacant area that (i) is within or partially within and contiguous to the boundaries of a closed military installation as defined in subsection (a) of this Section (except the installation described in Section 15 of the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act) or, only in the case of the installation described in Section 15 of the Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act, is within or contiguous to the closed military installation, (ii) is located entirely within the territorial limits of a municipality, (iii) is contiguous, (iv) is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres, (v) is suitable for siting by a commercial, manufacturing, industrial, research, transportation, or residential housing enterprise or facilities to include, but not be limited to, commercial businesses, offices, factories, mills, processing plants, industrial or commercial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities, transportation facilities, or single-family single or multi-family residential housing units, regardless of whether the area has been used at any time for those facilities and regardless of whether the area has been used or is suitable for other uses and (vi) has been approved and certified by the corporate authorities of the municipality pursuant to this Act.

(e) "Economic development project costs" means and includes the total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or to be incurred under an economic development project, including, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans and specifications, and implementation and administration of an economic development plan and personnel and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, marketing, financial planning, police, fire, public works, public utility, or other services. No charges for professional services, however, may be based on a percentage of incremental tax revenues.

(2) Property assembly costs within an economic development project area, including, but not limited to, acquisition of land and other real or personal property or rights or interests in property.

(3) Site preparation costs, including, but not limited to, clearance of any area within an economic development project area by demolition or removal of any existing buildings, structures, fixtures, utilities, and improvements and clearing and grading; and including installation, repair, construction, reconstruction, extension, or relocation of public streets, public utilities, and other public site improvements located outside the boundaries of an economic development project area that are essential to the preparation of the economic development project area for use with an economic development plan.

(4) Costs of renovation, rehabilitation, reconstruction, relocation, repair, or remodeling of any existing buildings, improvements, equipment, and fixtures within an economic development project area.

(5) Costs of installation or construction within an economic development project area of any buildings, structures, works, streets, improvements, equipment, utilities, or fixtures, whether publicly or privately owned or operated.

(6) Financing costs, including, but not limited to, all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations, payment of any interest on any obligations issued under this Act that accrues during the estimated period of construction of any economic development project for which the obligations are issued and for not more than 36 months after that period, and any reasonable reserves related to the issuance of the obligations.

(7) All or a portion of a taxing district's capital or operating costs resulting from an economic development project necessarily incurred or estimated to be incurred by a taxing district in the furtherance of the objectives of an economic development project, to the extent that the municipality, by written agreement, accepts and approves those costs.

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to pay relocation costs by federal or State law.

(9) The estimated tax revenues from real property in an economic development project area acquired by a municipality in furtherance of an economic development project under this Act that, according to the economic development plan, is to be used for a private use (i) that any taxing district would have received had the municipality not adopted tax increment allocation financing for an economic development project area and (ii) that would result from the taxing district's levies made after the time of the adoption by the municipality of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized assessed value of real property in the economic development project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property.

(10) Costs of rebating ad valorem taxes paid by any developer or other nongovernmental person in whose name the general taxes were paid for the last preceding year on any lot, block, tract, or parcel of land in the economic development project area, provided that:

(A) the economic development project area is located in an enterprise zone created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act;

(B) the ad valorem taxes shall be rebated only in amounts and for a tax year or years as the municipality and any one or more affected taxing districts have agreed by prior written agreement;

(C) any amount of rebate of taxes shall not exceed the portion, if any, of taxes levied by the municipality or taxing district or districts that is attributable to the increase in the current equalized assessed valuation of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the economic development project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property existing at the time property tax allocation financing was adopted for the economic development project area; and

(D) costs of rebating ad valorem taxes shall be paid by a municipality solely from the special tax allocation fund established under this Act and shall not be paid from the proceeds of any obligations issued by a municipality.

(11) Costs of job training or advanced vocational or career education, including, but not limited to, courses in occupational, semi-technical, or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, but only if the costs are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education, or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in the economic development project area and only if, when the costs are incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, they shall be set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts that describes the program to be undertaken, including, without limitation, the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay the costs, and the term of the agreement. These costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20 and 10-23.3a of the School Code.

(12) Private financing costs incurred by a developer or other nongovernmental person in connection with an economic development project, provided that:

(A) private financing costs shall be paid or reimbursed by a municipality only pursuant to the prior official action of the municipality evidencing an intent to pay or reimburse such private financing costs;

(B) except as provided in subparagraph (D), the aggregate amount of the costs paid or reimbursed by a municipality in any one year shall not exceed 30% of the costs paid or incurred by the developer or other nongovernmental person in that year;

(C) private financing costs shall be paid or reimbursed by a municipality solely from the special tax allocation fund established under this Act and shall not be paid from the proceeds of any obligations issued by a municipality; and

(D) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund in any year to make the payment or reimbursement in full, any amount of the interest costs remaining to be paid or reimbursed by a municipality shall accrue and be payable when funds are available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment.

If a special service area has been established under the Special Service Area Tax Act, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act may be used within the economic development project area for the purposes permitted by that Act as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(f) "Municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town.

(g) "Obligations" means any instrument evidencing the obligation of a municipality to pay money, including, without limitation, bonds, notes, installment or financing contracts, certificates, tax anticipation warrants or notes, vouchers, and any other evidences of indebtedness.

(h) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, and school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium, and any other districts or other municipal corporations with the power to levy taxes.

(Source: P.A. 91-642, eff. 8-20-99; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 390. The Airport Authorities Act is amended by changing Section 15.2 as follows:

(70 ILCS 5/15.2) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 68.15b)

Sec. 15.2. An Airport Authority may construct office, aircraft hangar and service buildings and appurtenant facilities upon a public airport owned and operated by the authority for the use and occupancy of the State Department of Transportation under a lease to the State of Illinois for such purpose. The rents and charges payable thereunder shall be not greater than the total costs to the authority of constructing and maintaining said airport improvements and of funding such costs under the provisions of Sections 8.03, 8.04, 8.08, 15, and 15.1, as amended, of this Act as hereinafter provided. The rentals payable to the authority under such lease, together with such non-tax revenues as are available to the authority, shall also be adequate in amount for the authority to establish and maintain a bond reserve account. Such lease shall not be effective for a longer term than is reasonably required to enable such funding to occur, and in no event shall the term thereof exceed 30 thirty years. Such airport improvements shall be constructed upon plans and specifications approved by the Department of Transportation. The lease of said improvements and the site thereof to the State of Illinois shall be executed by the Department of Central Management Services for the use of the Department of Transportation. In the event the General Assembly does not appropriate the necessary funds for paying the rentals on the lease entered into by the authority under this Section, the authority may lease such facilities to another lessee.

The authority may secure the funds required for the construction of said improvements through the issuance and sale of revenue bonds as authorized by and subject to the conditions stated in said Sections 15 and 15.1 of this Act, which bonds shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such revenue bonds shall be primarily secured by the income receivable by the authority under said lease. Other available and unpledged airport operating income may be pledged by the authority to meet any deficiency in the income from the lease in meeting the principal and interest maturities of said revenue bonds and the maintenance and depreciation requirements of said Section 15.1. The principal amount of such revenue bonds shall be based upon the actual total costs of said improvements, including costs of engineering and architects services, the costs incidental to the issuance of the bonds, including legal costs, the costs of selling and printing the bonds, and the interest on the bonds during the time of construction. Construction contracts for said improvements shall be awarded upon competitive bids and such bids and the making of awards shall be subject to approval by the Authority and the Department of Transportation.

(Source: P.A. 82-1057; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 395. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act is amended by changing Section 23.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 210/23.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 1243.1)

Sec. 23.1. Affirmative action.

(a) The Authority shall, within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, establish and maintain an affirmative action program designed to promote equal employment opportunity and eliminate the effects of past discrimination. Such program shall include a plan, including timetables where appropriate, which shall specify goals and methods for increasing participation by women and minorities in employment, including employment related to the planning, organization, and staging of the games, by the Authority and by parties which contract with the Authority. The Authority shall submit a detailed plan with the General Assembly prior to September 1 of each year. Such program shall also establish procedures and sanctions, which the Authority shall enforce to ensure compliance with the plan established pursuant to this Section and with State and federal laws and regulations relating to the employment of women and minorities. A determination by the Authority as to whether a party to a contract with the Authority has achieved the goals or employed the methods for increasing participation by women and minorities shall be determined in accordance with the terms of such contracts or the applicable provisions of rules and regulations of the Authority existing at the time such contract was executed, including any provisions for consideration of good faith efforts at compliance which the Authority may reasonably adopt.

(b) The Authority shall adopt and maintain minority-owned and women-owned business enterprise procurement programs under the affirmative action program described in subsection (a) for any and all work, including all contracting related to the planning, organization, and staging of the games, undertaken by the Authority. That work shall include, but is not limited to, the purchase of professional services, construction services, supplies, materials, and equipment. The programs shall establish goals of awarding not less than 25% of the annual dollar value of all contracts, purchase orders, or other agreements (collectively referred to as "contracts") to minority-owned businesses and 5% of the annual dollar value of all contracts to women-owned businesses. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the programs shall require in connection with the prequalification or consideration of vendors for professional service contracts, construction contracts, and contracts for supplies, materials, equipment, and services that each proposer or bidder submit as part of his or her proposal or bid a commitment detailing how he or she will expend 25% or more of the dollar value of his or her contracts with one or more minority-owned businesses and 5% or more of the dollar value with one or more women-owned businesses. Bids or proposals that do not include such detailed commitments are not responsive and shall be rejected unless the Authority deems it appropriate to grant a waiver of these requirements. In addition the Authority may, in connection with the selection of providers of professional services, reserve the right to select a minority-owned or women-owned business or businesses to fulfill the commitment to minority and woman business participation. The commitment to minority and woman business participation may be met by the contractor or professional service provider's status as a minority-owned or women-owned business, by joint venture or by subcontracting a portion of the work with or purchasing materials for the work from one or more such businesses, or by any combination thereof. Each contract shall require the contractor or provider to submit a certified monthly report detailing the status of that contractor or provider's compliance with the Authority's minority-owned and women-owned business enterprise procurement program. The Authority, after reviewing the monthly reports of the contractors and providers, shall compile a comprehensive report regarding compliance with this procurement program and file it quarterly with the General Assembly. If, in connection with a particular contract, the Authority determines that it is impracticable or excessively costly to obtain minority-owned or women-owned businesses to perform sufficient work to fulfill the commitment required by this subsection, the Authority shall reduce or waive the commitment in the contract, as may be appropriate. The Authority shall establish rules and regulations setting forth the standards to be used in determining whether or not a reduction or waiver is appropriate. The terms "minority-owned business" and "women-owned business" have the meanings given to those terms in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(c) The Authority shall adopt and maintain an affirmative action program in connection with the hiring of minorities and women on the Expansion Project and on any and all construction projects, including all contracting related to the planning, organization, and staging of the games, undertaken by the Authority. The program shall be designed to promote equal employment opportunity and shall specify the goals and methods for increasing the participation of minorities and women in a representative mix of job classifications required to perform the respective contracts awarded by the Authority.

(d) In connection with the Expansion Project, the Authority shall incorporate the following elements into its minority-owned and women-owned business procurement programs to the extent feasible: (1) a major contractors program that permits minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses to bear significant responsibility and risk for a portion of the project; (2) a mentor/protege program that provides financial, technical, managerial, equipment, and personnel support to minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses; (3) an emerging firms program that includes minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses that would not otherwise qualify for the project due to inexperience or limited resources; (4) a small projects program that includes participation by smaller minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses on jobs where the total dollar value is $5,000,000 or less; and (5) a set-aside program that will identify contracts requiring the expenditure of funds less than $50,000 for bids to be submitted solely by minority-owned businesses and women-owned businesses.

(e) The Authority is authorized to enter into agreements with contractors' associations, labor unions, and the contractors working on the Expansion Project to establish an Apprenticeship Preparedness Training Program to provide for an increase in the number of minority and women journeymen and apprentices in the building trades and to enter into agreements with Community College District 508 to provide readiness training. The Authority is further authorized to enter into contracts with public and private educational institutions and persons in the hospitality industry to provide training for employment in the hospitality industry.

(f) McCormick Place Advisory Board. There is created a McCormick Place Advisory Board composed as follows: 2 members shall be appointed by the Mayor of Chicago; 2 members shall be appointed by the Governor; 2 members shall be State Senators appointed by the President of the Senate; 2 members shall be State Senators appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; 2 members shall be State Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; and 2 members shall be State Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. The terms of all previously appointed members of the Advisory Board expire on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly. A State Senator or State Representative member may appoint a designee to serve on the McCormick Place Advisory Board in his or her absence.

A "member of a minority group" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

Members of the McCormick Place Advisory Board shall serve 2-year terms and until their successors are appointed, except members who serve as a result of their elected position whose terms shall continue as long as they hold their designated elected positions. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term in the same manner as original appointments are made. The McCormick Place Advisory Board shall elect its own chairperson.

Members of the McCormick Place Advisory Board shall serve without compensation but, at the Authority's discretion, shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses in connection with the performance of their duties.

The McCormick Place Advisory Board shall meet quarterly, or as needed, shall produce any reports it deems necessary, and shall:

(1) Work with the Authority on ways to improve the area physically and economically;

(2) Work with the Authority regarding potential means for providing increased economic opportunities to minorities and women produced indirectly or directly from the construction and operation of the Expansion Project;

(3) Work with the Authority to minimize any potential impact on the area surrounding the McCormick Place Expansion Project, including any impact on minority-owned or women-owned businesses, resulting from the construction and operation of the Expansion Project;

(4) Work with the Authority to find candidates for building trades apprenticeships, for employment in the hospitality industry, and to identify job training programs;

(5) Work with the Authority to implement the provisions of subsections (a) through (e) of this Section in the construction of the Expansion Project, including the Authority's goal of awarding not less than 25% and 5% of the annual dollar value of contracts to minority-owned and women-owned businesses, the outreach program for minorities and women, and the mentor/protege program for providing assistance to minority-owned and women-owned businesses.

(g) (Blank). The Authority shall comply with subsection (e) of Section 5-42 of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law. For purposes of this Section, the term "games" has the meaning set forth in the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games (2016) Law.

(Source: P.A. 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 400. The Conservation District Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 410/15) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7116)

Sec. 15. (a) Whenever a district does not have sufficient money in its treasury to meet all necessary expenses and liabilities thereof, it may issue tax anticipation warrants. Such issue of tax anticipation warrants shall be subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act "An Act to provide for the manner of issuing warrants upon the treasurer of the State or of any county, township, or other municipal corporation or quasi municipal corporation, or of any farm drainage district, river district, drainage and levee district, fire protection district and jurors' certificates", approved June 27, 1913, as now and hereafter amended.

(b) For the purpose of acquisition of real property, or rights thereto, a district may incur indebtedness and, as evidence of the indebtedness thus created, may issue and sell bonds without first obtaining the consent of the legal voters of the district.

(b-5) For the purpose of development of real property, all or a portion of which has been acquired with referendum-approved bonds, a district located entirely within McHenry County may incur indebtedness and, as evidence of the indebtedness thus created, may issue and sell bonds without first obtaining the consent of the legal voters of the district. Development, for the purposes of this subsection (b-5), shall mean the improvement or maintenance of existing trails, parking lots, bridges, roads, picnic shelters, and other improvements, adding or improving access to conservation areas or district facilities to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act, demolition of unnecessary or unsafe structures, and the stabilization, revitalization, or rehabilitation of historic structures.

(c) For the purpose of development of real property, a district may incur indebtedness and, as evidence of the indebtedness thus created, may issue and sell bonds only after the proposition to issue bonds has been submitted to the legal voters of the district at an election and has been approved by a majority of those voting on the proposition. Such election is subject to Section 15.1 of this Act.

(d) No district shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose, to any amount including existing indebtedness in the aggregate exceeding 0.575% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of the taxable property therein; except that a district entirely within a county of under 750,000 inhabitants and contiguous to a county of more than 2,000,000 inhabitants may incur indebtedness, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate not exceeding 1.725% of that value if the aggregate indebtedness over 0.575% is submitted to the legal voters of the district at an election and is approved by a majority of those voting on the proposition as provided in Section 15.1.

The following do not in any way limit the right of a district to issue non-referendum bonds under this Section: bonds heretofore or hereafter issued and outstanding that are approved by referendum, as described in this subsection (d); refunding bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds approved by referendum; and bonds issued under this Section that have been paid in full or for which provisions for payment have been made by an irrevocable deposit of funds in an amount sufficient to pay the principal and interest on those bonds to their respective maturity date.

(e) Before or at the time of issuing bonds as described in this Section, the district shall provide by ordinance for the collection of an annual tax, in addition to all other taxes authorized by this Act act, sufficient to pay such bonds and the interest thereon as the same respectively become due. Such bonds shall be divided into series, the first of which shall mature not later than 5 years after the date of issue and the last of which shall mature not later than 25 years after the date of issue; shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended; shall be in such form as the district shall by resolution provide; and shall be payable as to both principal and interest from the proceeds of the annual levy of taxes authorized to be levied by this Section, or so much thereof as will be sufficient to pay the principal thereof and the interest thereon. Prior to the authorization and issuance of such bonds the district may, with or without notice, negotiate and enter into an agreement or agreements with any bank, investment banker, trust company, or insurance company, or group thereof, whereunder the marketing of such bonds may be assured and consummated. The proceeds of such bonds shall be deposited in a special fund, to be kept separate and apart from all other funds of the conservation district.

(Source: P.A. 98-1168, eff. 6-1-15; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 405. The Central Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 504/21)

Sec. 21. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(g) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 410. The Eastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 506/21)

Sec. 21. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 415. The Joliet Arsenal Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 508/21)

Sec. 21. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 420. The Quad Cities Regional Economic Development Authority Act, approved September 22, 1987 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(70 ILCS 510/5) (from Ch. 85, par. 6205)

Sec. 5. Conflicts of interest; requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) No member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof other than the representatives of a professional sports team shall, in his or her own name or in the name of a nominee, be an officer, director, or hold an ownership interest of more than 7-1/2% in any person, association, trust, corporation, partnership, or other entity which is, in its own name or in the name of a nominee, a party to a contract or agreement upon which the member or officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote.

(b) With respect to any direct or any indirect interest, other than an interest prohibited in subsection (a), in a contract or agreement upon which the member or officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote, a member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof shall disclose the same to the secretary of the Authority prior to the taking of final action by the Authority concerning such contract or agreement and shall so disclose the nature and extent of such interest and his or her acquisition thereof, which disclosures shall be publicly acknowledged by the Authority and entered upon the minutes of the Authority. If a member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof holds such an interest, then he or she shall refrain from any further official involvement in regard to such contract or agreement, from voting on any matter pertaining to such contract or agreement, and from communicating with other members of the Authority or its officers, agents, and employees concerning said contract or agreement. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any contract or agreement entered into in conformity with this subsection (b) shall not be void or invalid by reason of the interest described in this subsection, nor shall any person so disclosing the interest and refraining from further official involvement as provided in this subsection be guilty of an offense, be removed from office, or be subject to any other penalty on account of such interest.

(c) Any contract or agreement made in violation of subsection (a) or (b) of this Section shall be null and void and give rise to no action against the Authority. No real estate to which a member or employee of the Authority holds legal title or in which such person has any beneficial interest, including any interest in a land trust, shall be purchased by the Authority or by a nonprofit corporation or limited-profit entity for a development to be financed under this Act. All members and employees of the Authority shall file annually with the Authority a record of all real estate in this State of which such person holds legal title or in which such person has any beneficial interest, including any interest in a land trust. In the event it is later disclosed that the Authority has purchased real estate in which a member or employee had an interest, such purchase shall be voidable by the Authority and the member or employee involved shall be disqualified from membership in or employment by the Authority.

(d) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(e) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(f) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(g) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 425. The Riverdale Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 516/21)

Sec. 21. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 430. The Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(70 ILCS 518/26)

Sec. 26. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 435. The Southern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 5-26 as follows:

(70 ILCS 519/5-26)

Sec. 5-26. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 440. The Southwestern Illinois Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 11.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 520/11.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 6161.1)

Sec. 11.1. (a) No member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee of the Authority shall, in his or her own name or in the name of a nominee, be an officer or director of or hold an ownership of more than 7.5% in any person, association, trust, corporation, partnership, or other entity that is, in its own name or in the name of a nominee, a party to a contract or agreement upon which the member, officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote.

(b) With respect to any direct or any indirect interest, other than an interest prohibited in subsection (a), in a contract or agreement upon which the member, officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote, the member, officer, agent, or employee shall disclose that interest to the secretary of the Authority before the taking of final action by the Authority concerning that contract or agreement and shall also disclose the nature and extent of that interest and his or her acquisition of that interest, which disclosures shall be publicly acknowledged by the Authority and entered upon the minutes of the Authority. If a member of the Authority or an officer, agent, or employee of the Authority holds such an interest, then he or she shall refrain from any further official involvement in regard to the contract or agreement, from voting on any matter pertaining to the contract or agreement, and from communicating with other members of the Authority or its officers, agents, and employees concerning the contract or agreement. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any contract or agreement entered into in conformity with this subsection (b) shall not be void or invalid by reason of an interest described in this subsection, nor shall any person so disclosing the interest and refraining from further official involvement as provided in this subsection be guilty of an offense, be removed from office, or be subject to any other penalty on account of that interest.

(c) Any contract or agreement made in violation of subsection (a) or (b) is void and gives rise to no action against the Authority.

(d) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(e) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(f) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(g) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 445. The Tri-County River Valley Development Authority Law is amended by changing Section 2005.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 525/2005.1)

Sec. 2005.1. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 450. The Upper Illinois River Valley Development Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 5.1 and 7 as follows:

(70 ILCS 530/5.1)

Sec. 5.1. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-30-24.)

(70 ILCS 530/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 7157)

Sec. 7. Bonds.

(a) The Authority, with the written approval of the Governor, shall have the continuing power to issue bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness in an aggregate amount outstanding not to exceed $500,000,000 for the purpose of developing, constructing, acquiring, or improving projects, including those established by business entities locating or expanding property within the territorial jurisdiction of the Authority, for entering into venture capital agreements with businesses locating or expanding within the territorial jurisdiction of the Authority, for acquiring and improving any property necessary and useful in connection therewith and for the purposes of the Employee Ownership Assistance Act. For the purpose of evidencing the obligations of the Authority to repay any money borrowed, the Authority may, pursuant to resolution, from time to time issue and dispose of its interest bearing revenue bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness and may also from time to time issue and dispose of such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness to refund, at maturity, at a redemption date or in advance of either, any bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness pursuant to redemption provisions or at any time before maturity. All such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness shall be payable solely and only from the revenues or income to be derived from loans made with respect to projects, from the leasing or sale of the projects or from any other funds available to the Authority for such purposes. The bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness may bear such date or dates, may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, may bear interest at such rate or rates not exceeding the maximum rate permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner, and may contain such terms and covenants as may be provided by an applicable resolution.

(b-1) The holder or holders of any bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness issued by the Authority may bring suits at law or proceedings in equity to compel the performance and observance by any corporation or person or by the Authority or any of its agents or employees of any contract or covenant made with the holders of such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness, to compel such corporation, person, the Authority and any of its agents or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness by the provision of the resolution authorizing their issuance and to enjoin such corporation, person, the Authority and any of its agents or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant.

(b-2) If the Authority fails to pay the principal of or interest on any of the bonds or premium, if any, as the same become due, a civil action to compel payment may be instituted in the appropriate circuit court by the holder or holders of the bonds on which such default of payment exists or by an indenture trustee acting on behalf of such holders. Delivery of a summons and a copy of the complaint to the Chairman of the Board shall constitute sufficient service to give the circuit court jurisdiction of the subject matter of such a suit and jurisdiction over the Authority and its officers named as defendants for the purpose of compelling such payment. Any case, controversy, or cause of action concerning the validity of this Act relates to the revenue of the State of Illinois.

(c) Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is non-negotiable, all such bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness, temporary bonds, notes, or evidences of indebtedness may be issued as provided by ordinance.

(d) To secure the payment of any or all of such bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness, the revenues to be received by the Authority from a lease agreement or loan agreement shall be pledged, and, for the purpose of setting forth the covenants and undertakings of the Authority in connection with the issuance thereof and the issuance of any additional bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness payable from such revenues, income, or other funds to be derived from projects, the Authority may execute and deliver a mortgage or trust agreement. A remedy for any breach or default of the terms of any such mortgage or trust agreement by the Authority may be by mandamus proceedings in the appropriate circuit court to compel the performance and compliance therewith, but the trust agreement may prescribe by whom or on whose behalf such action may be instituted.

(e) Such bonds or notes shall be secured as provided in the authorizing ordinance which may, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, include in addition to any other security a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any or all revenues or money of the Authority from whatever source which may by law be used for debt service purposes and a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any funds or accounts established or provided for by ordinance of the Authority authorizing the issuance of such bonds or notes.

(f) (Blank).

(g) The State of Illinois pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with such holders or in any way impair the rights and remedies of such holders until such bonds and notes, together with interest thereon, with interest on any unpaid installments of interest, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of such holders, are fully met and discharged. In addition, the State pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the basis on which State funds are to be paid to the Authority as provided in this Act, or the use of such funds, so as to impair the terms of any such contract. The Authority is authorized to include these pledges and agreements of the State in any contract with the holders of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this Section.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-750, eff. 1-1-15; 99-499, eff. 1-29-16; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 455. The Illinois Urban Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(70 ILCS 531/5)

Sec. 5. Conflicts of interest; requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) No member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof shall, in the member's own name or in the name of a nominee, be an officer, director, or hold an ownership interest in any person, association, trust, corporation, partnership, or other entity which is, in its own name or in the name of a nominee, a party to a contract or agreement upon which the member or officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote.

(b) With respect to any direct or any indirect interest, other than an interest prohibited in subsection (a), in a contract or agreement upon which the member or officer, agent, or employee may be called upon to act or vote, a member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof must disclose the interest to the secretary of the Authority prior to the taking of final action by the Authority concerning the contract or agreement and shall disclose the nature and extent of the interest and his or her acquisition thereof, which shall be publicly acknowledged by the Authority and entered upon the minutes of the Authority. If a member of the Authority or officer, agent, or employee thereof holds such an interest then the member shall refrain from any further official involvement in regard to the contract or agreement, from voting on any matter pertaining to the contract or agreement, and from communicating with other members of the Authority or its officers, agents, and employees concerning the contract or agreement. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any contract or agreement entered into in conformity with this subsection shall not be void or invalid by reason of the interest described in this subsection, nor shall any person disclosing an interest and refraining from further official involvement as provided in this subsection be guilty of an offense, be removed from office, or be subject to any other penalty on account of the interest.

(c) Any contract or agreement made in violation of subsection subsections (a) or (b) shall be null and void, whether or not the contract performance has been authorized, and shall give rise to no action against the Authority. No real estate to which a member or employee of the Authority holds legal title or in which a member or employee of the Authority has any beneficial interest, including any interest in a land trust, shall be purchased by the Authority or by a nonprofit corporation or limited-profit entity for a development to be financed under this Act.

All members and employees of the Authority shall file annually with the Authority a record of all real estate in this State to which the member or employee holds legal title or in which the member or employee has any beneficial interest, including any interest in a land trust. In the event it is later disclosed that the Authority has purchased real estate in which a member or employee had an interest, that purchase shall be voidable by the Authority and the member or employee involved shall be disqualified from membership in or employment by the Authority.

(d) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(e) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(f) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(g) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 460. The Western Illinois Economic Development Authority Act is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(70 ILCS 532/26)

Sec. 26. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 465. The Will-Kankakee Regional Development Authority Law is amended by changing Section 5.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 535/5.1)

Sec. 5.1. Requests for assistance; disclosure of economic interests.

(a) The Authority may not hear a request for assistance from a restricted person. This prohibition extends to business relationships between a person who is an Authority leader within one year prior to the request for assistance and to any entity in which a restricted person holds or, within the past 2 years, held an ownership interest of 10% or more.

(b) An Authority leader shall disclose and recuse himself or herself from matters relating to requests for assistance from an entity that is relocating full-time employees from another Authority's counties if (i) both Authorities contract with or employ the same Authority leader or (ii) there is or, within the past 2 years of the request, there was a business relationship between the Authority leaders at the 2 Authorities.

(c) The Board of the Authority shall vote to renew the appointment of the Executive Director and other Authority leaders on an annual basis. All contracts shall be approved on an annual basis and use a public process to solicit applications. This requirement does not apply to full-time employees of the Authority unless otherwise required by applicable State law or local ordinance.

(d) Each Authority leader shall submit a statement of economic interests interest in accordance with Article 4A of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Additionally, each Authority leader shall disclose to the Board outside sources of income and any business relationships in economic development consulting or lobbying. Reporting shall include the source of income, services provided, and timeline of when services were provided. If the source of income is a firm or organization with multiple clients, the report shall list all of the entities for which the individual provided services.

(Source: P.A. 103-517, eff. 8-11-23; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 470. The Illinois Drainage Code is amended by changing Section 6-12 as follows:

(70 ILCS 605/6-12) (from Ch. 42, par. 6-12)

Sec. 6-12. Extending payment of assessments; hearing; order assessments - Hearing - Order. The court shall hear such petition and make such order as it deems proper. The court may order the time of payment of any such assessments or one or more installments of assessments, or any part or parts thereof, extended, may change the number of installments into which such assessments are divided, may fix the rate of interest which said extended assessments shall bear, which shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, and shall give the owners an opportunity to pay the assessments or installments proposed to be refunded in cash within a reasonable time to be fixed by the court without further notice, and after the expiration of the time fixed and the commissioners have reported such cash payments to the court, the court shall also fix the amount of the refunding bonds and authorize their issuance by the commissioners at a rate of interest not to exceed the rate of interest on the extended assessments, and such refunding notes or bonds shall be a lien upon such extended assessments or installments. Extended assessments or installments shall continue to be a lien upon the lands assessed until paid.

(Source: P.A. 84-886; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 475. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 6.3 as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/6.3)

Sec. 6.3. Health insurance; joint mental health therapy services. If a fire protection district is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for officers and members of the fire department, the insurance coverage shall include joint mental health therapy services for any officer or member of the fire department and any spouse or partner of the officer or member who resides with the officer or member. The joint mental health therapy services provided under this Section shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed clinical professional counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed social worker, or a licensed professional counselor.

(Source: P.A. 103-818, eff. 1-1-25.)

(70 ILCS 705/6.4)

Sec. 6.4 6.3. Mental health counseling.

(a) As used in this Section:

"First responders" means firefighters, emergency medical services personnel, as that term is defined in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, dispatched pursuant to a 9-1-1 call, emergency medical dispatchers, as that term is defined in Section 3.70 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, and public safety telecommunicators, as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone System Act.

"Mental health counseling" means counseling therapy sessions provided by a clinical social worker, professional counselor, or licensed psychologist.

(b) If a fire protection district is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include, on and after June 1, 2025, mental health counseling for any employee who is a first responder without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided, except that this Section does not apply to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-1011, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

Section 480. The Museum District Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1105/17) (from Ch. 85, par. 6817)

Sec. 17. Debt and bonds. The board of a museum district may, for any of its authorized purposes, borrow money upon the faith and credit of the district and may issue bonds. A district may not, however, become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount including existing indebtedness in the aggregate exceeding 1.5% of the assessed value, as equalized by the Department of Revenue, of the taxable property in the district. A district may not incur (i) indebtedness in excess of .3% of the assessed value, as equalized by the Department of Revenue, of taxable property in the district for the development of historical sites, together with related lands and facilities, held by the district or (ii) indebtedness for any other purpose except the acquisition of historical sites, together with related lands and facilities, unless the proposition to issue bonds or otherwise incur indebtedness is certified by the board to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law, and the proposition is approved by a majority of those voting upon the proposition. Before or at the time of issuing bonds, the board shall provide by ordinance for the collection of an annual tax sufficient to pay the interest on the bonds as it falls due and to pay the principal of the bonds as they mature. The bonds shall mature not later than 20 years after the date thereof. Such bonds shall bear interest at such rate or rates as do not exceed those set forth in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended from time to time, and shall be issuable upon any terms and may have provisions as make use of any authority as may be provided in the Local Government Debt Reform Act, as amended from time to time.

(Source: P.A. 86-477; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 485. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 20a as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/20) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.20)

Sec. 20. The Chicago Park District is authorized to issue the bonds of such district for the payment of land condemned or purchased for park or boulevards, for the building, maintaining, improving, and protecting of such for the purpose of establishing, acquiring, completing, enlarging, ornamenting, building, rebuilding, and improving public parks, boulevards, bridges, subways, viaducts, and approaches thereto, wharfs, piers, jetties, air landing fields and basins, shore protection works, pleasure grounds and ways, walks, pathways, driveways, roadways, highways, and all public works, grounds, or improvements under the control of and within the jurisdiction of such park commissioners and including the filling in of submerged lands for park purposes and constructing all buildings, field houses, stadiums, shelters, conservatories, museums, service shops, power plants, structures, playground devices, boulevard and building lighting systems and building all other types of permanent improvement and construction necessary to render the property under the control of such park commissioners usable for the enjoyment thereof as public parks, parkways, boulevards, and pleasure ways and for the payment of the expenses incident thereto, and may pledge its property and credit therefor.

Such district shall not incur any bonded indebtedness, exclusive of outstanding indebtedness to an amount in the aggregate exceeding 2.3% of the assessed valuation of all taxable property therein as last equalized and determined for state and local taxes preceding the incurring of such indebtedness. Bonds may be issued from time to time to an amount which together with the outstanding bonded indebtedness of such district, exclusive of bonds issued to create a working cash fund, will not exceed 1% of the assessed valuation of all taxable property therein as last equalized and determined for state and local taxes preceding the issuance of such bonds without submitting the question to the legal voters for approval.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section and except for working cash fund bonds issued and to be issued under Section 2 of the Chicago Park District Working Cash Fund Act "An Act authorizing the Chicago Park District to provide for the creation, maintenance and administration of a working cash fund", approved July 11, 1935, as amended, bonds shall not be issued until the proposition to issue such has been submitted to and approved by a majority of the legal voters of such park district voting upon the proposition, at an election, after notice of such submission has been given in the manner provided by the general election law.

Submission of any proposition of issuing bonds shall be authorized by resolution to be adopted by the Chicago Park District commissioners, which shall designate the election at which the question is to be submitted the amount of bonds and purpose for which such bonds are to be issued.

Any proposition to issue bonds shall be certified by the Chicago Park District commissioners to the proper election officials, who shall submit that proposition in accordance with the general election law. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

----------------------------

Shall bonds of the Chicago Park District to the amount of YES ........ Dollars ($........) be -------------------------

issued for the purpose of...... NO ...............................? -------------------------------------------------------------

Bonds shall be issued in the name of the Chicago Park District in such form and denomination and shall be payable at such place and time, not exceeding 20 years from date thereof or, for bonds issued after July 24, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-338) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, not exceeding 30 years from the date thereof, and may be redeemable prior to maturity with or without premium at the option of the commissioners, as such commissioners may determine by ordinance duly adopted and the bonds shall be signed by the president and attested by the secretary under the corporate seal. After such advertising as the commissioners shall deem necessary, the bonds shall be sold at such price and upon such terms as determined by the commissioners and which will not cause the net effective interest rate to be paid by the Chicago Park District to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. The validity of any bond so executed shall remain unimpaired, although one or more of the officers executing such shall have ceased to be such officer or officers before delivery thereof to the purchaser.

For the purpose of paying the principal of and interest upon such bonds, the Chicago Park District is authorized to levy and have collected a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within its jurisdiction, in addition to all other taxes authorized by law to be levied and collected for park purposes, sufficient to pay the interest on such bonds as it falls due and to pay the principal thereof as it matures, and the county clerk of the county in which such park district is located upon receiving a certificate from the commissioners that the amount set out in such certificate is necessary to pay the interest on and principal of such bonds, shall assess and extend such amount upon the taxable property embraced in such park district, the same as other park taxes are by law assessed and extended, and such taxes shall be collected and paid over in like manner as other park taxes are required by law to be collected and paid.

(Source: P.A. 93-338, eff. 7-24-03; revised 7-24-24.)

(70 ILCS 1505/20a) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.20a)

Sec. 20a. Bonds; issuance; interest. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 20 of this Act, the Chicago Park District is authorized to issue from time to time bonds of such district in the principal amount of $84,000,000 for the purpose of paying the cost of erecting, enlarging, ornamenting, building, rebuilding, rehabilitating, and improving any aquarium or any museum or museums of art, industry, science, or natural or other history located within any public park or parks under the control of the Chicago Park District, without submitting the question of issuing such bonds to the voters of the District.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 20 of this Act, and in addition to any other amount of bonds authorized to be issued under this Act, the Chicago Park District is authorized to issue from time to time, before January 1, 2004, bonds of the district in the principal amount of $128,000,000 for the purpose of paying the cost of erecting, enlarging, ornamenting, building, rebuilding, rehabilitating, and improving any aquarium or any museum or museums of art, industry, science, or natural or other history located within any public park or parks under the control of the Chicago Park District, without submitting the question of issuing the bonds to the voters of the District.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 20 of this Act, and in addition to any other amount of bonds authorized to be issued under this Act, the Chicago Park District is authorized to issue from time to time bonds of the district in the principal amount of $250,000,000 for the purpose of making contributions to the pension fund established under Article 12 of the Illinois Pension Code without submitting the question of issuing the bonds to the voters of the District; except that in any one year, the Chicago Park District may not issue bonds in excess of $75,000,000. Any bond issuances under this subsection are intended to decrease the unfunded liability of the pension fund and shall not decrease the amount of the employer contributions required in any given year under Section 12-149 of the Illinois Pension Code.

The bonds authorized under this Section shall be of such denomination or denominations, may be registerable as to principal only, and shall mature serially within a period of not to exceed 20 years or, for bonds issued after July 24, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-338) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, within a period of not to exceed 30 years, may be redeemable prior to maturity with or without premium at the option of the commissioners on such terms and conditions as the commissioners of the Chicago Park District shall fix by the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such bonds. The bonds shall bear interest at the rate of not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended.

Such bonds shall be executed for and on behalf of the Park District by such officers as shall be specified in the bond ordinance, and one of such officers may be authorized to execute the bonds by his facsimile signature, which officer shall adopt as and for his official manual signature the facsimile signature as it appears upon the bonds.

The ordinance authorizing the issuance of the bonds shall provide for the levy and collection, in each of the years any of such bonds shall be outstanding, a tax without limitation as to rate or amount and in addition to all other taxes upon all the taxable property within the corporate boundaries of the Chicago Park District, sufficient to pay the principal of and the interest upon such bonds as the same matures and becomes due.

A certified copy of the ordinance providing for the issuance of the bonds and the levying and collecting of the tax to pay the same shall be filed with the County Clerk of the county in which the Chicago Park District is located or with the respective County Clerks of each county in which the Chicago Park District is located. Such ordinance shall be irrevocable and upon receipt of the certified copy thereof the County Clerk or County Clerks, as the case may be, shall provide for, assess and extend the tax as therein provided upon all the taxable property located within the corporate boundaries of the Chicago Park District, in the same manner as other park taxes by law shall be provided for, assessed and extended, and such taxes shall be collected and paid out in the same manner as other park taxes by law shall be collected and paid.

The interest on any unexpended proceeds of bonds issued under this Section shall be credited to the Chicago Park District and shall be paid into the District's general corporate fund. The Chicago Park District may transfer such amount of interest from the general corporate fund to the aquarium and museum bond fund.

The amount of the outstanding bonded indebtedness of the Chicago Park District issued under this Section shall not be included in the bonded indebtedness of the District in determining whether or not the District has exceeded its limitation of 1/2 of 1% of the assessed valuation of all taxable property in the District as last equalized and determined by the Department of Revenue for the issuance of any bonds authorized under the provisions of Section 20 of this Act without submitting the question to the legal voters for approval.

(Source: P.A. 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 490. The Chicago Park District Working Cash Fund Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1510/2) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.25)

Sec. 2. For the purpose of creating such working cash fund the commissioners of the Chicago Park District, without the submission thereof to the voters for approval, may incur an indebtedness and issue bonds therefor in an amount not to exceed $40,000,000 in addition to bonds in the amount of $25,000,000 heretofore authorized, and in addition to bonds in the amounts of $5,000,000 and $7,000,000 heretofore authorized, and issued for that purpose. Bonds in the amount of not to exceed $40,000,000 may be sold in any one year and if such maximum amount shall not be so sold in the first year the balance thereof may be sold in any year thereafter at the discretion of the commissioners.

Such bonds shall be authorized by ordinance and shall be of the form and denomination, payable at the place and bear such date as may be determined by the commissioners and shall mature within not to exceed 20 years from their date or, for bonds issued after July 24, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-338) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, within not to exceed 30 years from their date, but may be made callable on any interest payment date at the price of par and accrued interest after notice shall be given by publication or otherwise and at the time or times and in the manner as may be provided in the bond ordinance.

Such bonds may be registered as to principal and shall bear interest at the rate of not more than that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, such interest to be payable at such time and place and in such manner as may be provided in the bond ordinance.

The bonds may be signed by the facsimile signature of the President with like effect as if signed with his genuine signature and shall be signed by such other officers of the Chicago Park District as may be designated in the bond ordinance.

The validity of any bond shall remain unimpaired although one or more of the officers executing same shall have ceased to be such officer or officers before delivery thereof.

Such bonds may be sold for such price and after such advertising as shall be approved and directed by the commissioners.

Money received from the proceeds of taxes levied for payment of principal of and interest upon such bonds shall be deposited in a special fund of such municipality and designated as "Bond and Interest Sinking Fund Account of the Chicago Park District." Said fund shall be faithfully applied to the payment of the bonds and interest thereon for which such taxes were levied.

If such money is not immediately necessary for the payment of said bonds or if the bonds cannot be purchased before maturity then said money may be invested under the direction of the commissioners in bonds or other interest bearing obligations of the United States or bonds of the State of Illinois.

The maturity date of the invested securities shall be prior to the due date of the bonds for the payment of which said money was collected. Such securities may be sold when ordered by the commissioners if necessary to obtain money to meet bond and interest payments.

Prior to the maturity of the bonds, after setting aside a sum of money equal to the amount of interest that will accrue thereon within the next 6 months period from the time it is proposed to purchase and/or redeem any such bonds, or the commissioners may require that said sum of money be equal to the amount of interest that will so accrue within the next 12 months period, the treasurer of the park district shall use the money available from the proceeds of taxes levied for the payment of the bonds first, in the purchase of such bonds at the lowest price obtainable, but not to exceed their par value and accrued interest, after sealed tenders for such purchase shall have been advertised for as may be directed by the commissioners and thereafter such money shall be used by said official in calling said bonds for payment according to their terms of redemption.

Bonds called for payment and paid or purchased shall be marked paid and cancelled.

Whenever any bonds are so purchased and/or redeemed and cancelled, the taxes thereafter to be extended for payment of interest shall be reduced in the amount of interest that would have thereafter accrued upon such bonds so cancelled, and a resolution shall be adopted by the commissioners finding such facts and a certified copy thereof shall be filed in the office of the county clerk whereupon it shall be the duty of such official to reduce and extend such taxes in accordance therewith.

The ordinance authorizing said bonds shall prescribe all details thereof and shall provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property within said Chicago Park District sufficient to pay the interest upon and the principal of said bonds as the same become due, which tax shall be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by said park district.

A copy of the bond ordinance duly certified shall be filed in the office of the County Clerk of Cook County and shall constitute authority for the extension and collection of such bond and interest taxes as required by the constitution.

(Source: P.A. 93-338, eff. 7-24-03; revised 7-25-24.)

(70 ILCS 1510/4) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.27)

Sec. 4. Money shall be transferred from said working cash fund to the general corporate fund only upon the authority of the commissioners who shall from time to time by separate resolution direct the treasurer to make transfers of such sums as may be required for the purposes herein authorized. Every resolution shall set forth:

(a) The taxes in anticipation of the collection of which such transfer is to be made and from which such working cash fund is to be reimbursed;

(b) The entire amount of taxes extended or which such commissioners estimate will be extended or received for any year, in anticipation of the collection of all or part of which, such transfer is to be made;

(c) The aggregate amount of warrants theretofore issued in anticipation of the collection of such taxes under the provisions of the Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act "An Act to provide for the manner of issuing warrants upon the treasurer of the state or of any county, township, city, village or other municipal corporation and jurors' certificates," approved June 27, 1913, as amended, together with the amount of interest accrued and/or which such commissioners estimate will accrue thereon.

(d) The aggregate amount of moneys theretofore transferred from the working cash fund to the general corporate fund in anticipation of the collection of such taxes.

(e) The aggregate amount of receipts from taxes imposed to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, which the corporate authorities estimate will be set aside for the payment of the proportionate amount of debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as required by Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State Revenue Sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended.

The amount which any such resolution shall direct the treasurer so to transfer, in anticipation of the collection of taxes levied or to be received for any year, together with the aggregate amount of such tax anticipation warrants theretofore issued against such taxes and the amount of the interest accrued and/or estimated to accrue on such warrants, the amount estimated to be required to satisfy debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as set forth in Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State revenue sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and the aggregate amount of such transfers theretofore made in anticipation of the collection of such taxes, shall not exceed ninety per cent of the actual estimated amount of said taxes extended and to be extended or to be received as set forth in said resolution.

To the extent that at any time moneys are available in the working cash fund they shall be transferred to the general corporate fund and disbursed for the payment of salaries and other corporate expenses so as to avoid whenever possible, the issuance of tax anticipation warrants.

(Source: P.A. 81-1506; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 495. The Havana Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1805/17) (from Ch. 19, par. 617)

Sec. 17. The bonds or certificates shall be sold by the corporate authorities of the Port District in such manner as the Board determines, except that if issued to bear interest at the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, the bonds shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest, and except that the selling price of bonds bearing interest at a rate less than the maximum rate permitted in that Act shall be such that the interest cost to the district of the money received from the bond sale shall not exceed such maximum rate annually computed to absolute maturity of such bonds or certificates according to standard tables of bond values.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 500. The Illinois Valley Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1815/23) (from Ch. 19, par. 823)

Sec. 23. The bonds or certificates shall be sold by the corporate authorities of the Port District in such manner as the Board determines except that if issued to bear interest at the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, the bonds shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest, and except that the selling price of bonds bearing interest at a rate less than the maximum rate permitted in that Act shall be such that the interest cost to the District of the money received from the bond sale shall not exceed such maximum rate annually computed to absolute maturity of such bonds or certificates according to standard tables of bond values.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 505. The Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1820/9) (from Ch. 19, par. 859)

Sec. 9. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, or port facilities or any part thereof. The bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligation, may bear interest at such rate or rates not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All such bonds may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring civil actions to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as hereinafter provided.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 510. The Joliet Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 10 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1825/9) (from Ch. 19, par. 259)

Sec. 9. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, or port facilities or any part thereof. The bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligation, may bear interest at such rate or rates as permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All such bonds may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring civil actions to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as hereinafter provided.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

(70 ILCS 1825/10) (from Ch. 19, par. 260)

Sec. 10. All bonds, whether general obligation or revenue, shall be sold by the Board in such manner as the Board shall determine, except that if issued to bear interest at the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, the bonds shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest and except that the selling price of bonds bearing interest at a rate less than the maximum rate permitted in that Act shall be such that the interest cost to the District of the money received from the bond sale shall not exceed such maximum rate annually computed to absolute maturity of the bonds according to standard tables of bond values.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 515. The Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Sections 22.1 and 23.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1830/22.1) (from Ch. 19, par. 522.1)

Sec. 22.1. If the Board desires to issue general obligation bonds it shall adopt an ordinance specifying the amount of bonds to be issued, the purpose for which they will be issued, the maximum rate of interest they will bear which shall not be more than that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. The ordinance shall also specify the date of maturity which shall not be more than 20 years after the date of issuance. This ordinance shall not be effective until it has been submitted to referendum of, and approved by, a majority of the legal voters of the District. The Board shall certify its ordinance and the proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition is in favor of the issuance of such general obligation bonds the District is thereafter authorized to issue and, in accordance with the provisions of Section 25.1 of this Act, to sell the bonds specified in such ordinance and to adopt an ordinance levying an annual tax against all of the taxable property within the District sufficient to pay the maturing principal and interest of such bonds and to file a certified copy of both such ordinances in the office of the county clerks of St. Clair, Monroe, and Randolph Counties. Thereafter such county clerks shall annually extend taxes against all the taxable property within the District at the rate specified in such ordinance levying such taxes. The aggregate amount of principal of general obligation bonds issued under the provisions of this Section shall not exceed 2.5% of the assessed valuation of all taxable property in the District.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

--------------------------------------------------------

Shall general obligation bonds in the amount of $.... be issued by the Kaskaskia YES Regional Port District for the purpose of ...., maturing in not more than .... years, --------------------------

bearing not more than ....% interest, and a tax levied NO to pay the principal and interest thereof? -------------------------------------------------------------

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-18-24.)

(70 ILCS 1830/23.1) (from Ch. 19, par. 523.1)

Sec. 23.1. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, port facilities, aquariums, museums, planetariums, climatrons, and any other building or facility which the District has the power to acquire, construct, reconstruct, extend, or improve, or any part thereof, may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All general obligation bonds and revenue bonds may bear interest at such rate or rates not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligations, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring a civil suit to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as provided in this Act.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds are negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 520. The Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1835/12) (from Ch. 19, par. 712)

Sec. 12. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, port facilities, aquariums, museums, planetariums, climatrons, and any other building or facilities which the District has the power to acquire, construct, reconstruct, extend, or improve, or any part thereof. The revenue bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. Both revenue and general obligation bonds may bear interest at such rate or rates as permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, payable semi-annually, as provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligations, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants as provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons attached thereto issued by the District may bring suit to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 525. The Shawneetown Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1850/9) (from Ch. 19, par. 409)

Sec. 9. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, or port facilities or any part thereof. The bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligation, may bear interest at such rate or rates as permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All such bonds may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring civil actions to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as hereinafter provided.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 530. The Southwest Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 11 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1855/10) (from Ch. 19, par. 460)

Sec. 10. If the Board desires to issue general obligation bonds it shall adopt an ordinance specifying the amount of bonds to be issued, the purpose for which they will be issued, the maximum rate of interest they will bear which shall not be more than that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. The ordinance shall also specify the date of maturity which shall not be more than 20 years after the date of issuance. This ordinance shall not be effective until it has been submitted to referendum of, and approved by, a majority of the legal voters of the District. The Board shall certify its ordinance and the proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition is in favor of the issuance of such general obligation bonds the District shall thereafter be authorized to issue and, in accordance with the provisions of Section 13 of this Act, to sell the bonds specified in such ordinance and to adopt an ordinance levying an annual tax against all of the taxable property within the District sufficient to pay the maturing principal and interest of such bonds and to file a certified copy of both such ordinances in the office of the county clerk of St. Clair County. Thereafter, the county clerk shall annually extend taxes against all the taxable property within the District at the rate specified in such ordinance levying such taxes. The aggregate amount of principal of general obligation bonds issued under the provisions of this Section section of this Act shall not exceed 2.5% of the assessed valuation of all taxable property in the District.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

--------------------------------------------------------

Shall general obligation bonds in the amount of $.... be issued YES by the Southwest Regional Port District for the purpose of ...., maturing in not more than .... years, -------------------

bearing not more than ....% interest, and a tax levied to pay the principal NO and interest thereof? -------------------------------------------------------------

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-24-24.)

(70 ILCS 1855/11) (from Ch. 19, par. 461)

Sec. 11. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, port facilities, aquariums, museums, planetariums, climatrons, and any other building or facility which the District has the power to acquire, construct, reconstruct, extend, or improve, or any part thereof. The bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All general obligation bonds and revenue bonds may bear interest at such rate or rates as permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligations, may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner, and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring civil actions to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as hereinafter provided.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 535. The America's Central Port District Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1860/8) (from Ch. 19, par. 291)

Sec. 8. The District has the continuing power to borrow money and issue either general obligation bonds, after approval by referendum as hereinafter provided, or revenue bonds without referendum approval for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, extending, or improving terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, and port facilities, and for acquiring any property and equipment useful for the construction, reconstruction, extension, improvement, or operation of its terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, and port facilities, and for acquiring necessary working cash funds.

The District may, pursuant to ordinance adopted by the Board and without submitting the question to referendum, from time to time issue and dispose of its interest bearing revenue bonds and may also in the same manner from time to time issue and dispose of its interest bearing revenue bonds to refund any revenue bonds at maturity or pursuant to redemption provisions or at any time before maturity with the consent of the holders thereof.

If the Board desires to issue general obligation bonds it shall adopt an ordinance specifying the amount of bonds to be issued, the purpose for which they will be issued, the maximum rate of interest they will bear which shall not be greater than that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. The ordinance shall also specify the date of maturity which shall not be more than 20 years after the date of issuance, and levying a tax that will be required to amortize such bonds. This ordinance is not effective until it has been submitted to referendum of, and approved by, the legal voters of the District. The Board shall certify the ordinance and the question to the proper election officials, who shall submit the question to the voters at an election in accordance with the general election law. If a majority of the vote is in favor of the issuance of the general obligation bonds the county clerk shall annually extend taxes against all taxable property within the District at a rate sufficient to pay the maturing principal and interest of these bonds.

The question shall be in substantially the following form:

-

Shall general obligation bonds

in the amount of $.... be issued YES

by America's Central Port

District for the purpose of .... -------------

maturing in not more than .....

years, bearing not more than ....% NO

interest, and a tax levied to pay

the principal and interest thereof? -------------------------------------------------------------

(Source: P.A. 98-854, eff. 1-1-15; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 540. The Waukegan Port District Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1865/9) (from Ch. 19, par. 187)

Sec. 9. All revenue bonds shall be payable solely from the revenues or income to be derived from the terminals, terminal facilities, airfields, airports, or port facilities or any part thereof. The Bonds may bear such date or dates and may mature at such time or times not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing their issuance. All bonds, whether revenue or general obligation, may bear interest at such rate or rates not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such interest may be paid semiannually. All such bonds may be in such form, may carry such registration privileges, may be executed in such manner, may be payable at such place or places, may be made subject to redemption in such manner and upon such terms, with or without premium as is stated on the face thereof, may be authenticated in such manner, and may contain such terms and covenants, all as may be provided in the ordinance authorizing issuance.

The holder or holders of any bonds or interest coupons appertaining thereto issued by the District may bring civil actions to compel the performance and observance by the District or any of its officers, agents, or employees of any contract or covenant made by the District with the holders of such bonds or interest coupons and to compel the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees to perform any duties required to be performed for the benefit of the holders of any such bonds or interest coupons by the provision in the ordinance authorizing their issuance, and to enjoin the District and any of its officers, agents, or employees from taking any action in conflict with any such contract or covenant, including the establishment of charges, fees, and rates for the use of facilities as hereinafter provided.

Notwithstanding the form and tenor of any bond, whether revenue or general obligation, and in the absence of any express recital on the face thereof that it is nonnegotiable, all such bonds shall be negotiable instruments. Pending the preparation and execution of any such bonds, temporary bonds may be issued with or without interest coupons as may be provided by ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 545. The White County Port District Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1870/17) (from Ch. 19, par. 767)

Sec. 17. The bonds or certificates shall be sold by the corporate authorities of the Port District in such manner as the Board determines, except that if issued to bear interest at the maximum rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, the bonds shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest, and except that the selling price of the bonds bearing interest at a rate less than the maximum rate permitted in that Act shall be such that the interest cost to the district of the money received from the bond sale shall not exceed such maximum rate annually computed to absolute maturity of such bonds or certificates according to standard tables of bond values.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 7-26-24.)

Section 550. The River Conservancy Districts Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2105/11) (from Ch. 42, par. 394)

Sec. 11. (1) The board of trustees of a conservancy district incorporated under this Act may acquire, by gift, purchase, or lease, land or any of the facilities enumerated below, and may construct, develop, operate, extend, and improve such facilities:

(a) Dams and reservoirs for water storage, water wells, water purification works, pumping stations, conduits, pipe lines, regulating works, and all appurtenances required for the production and delivery of adequate and pure water to incorporated cities and villages, corporations, and persons in unincorporated areas within or without the borders of the conservancy district. The board is empowered and legally obligated to build, operate, and maintain such water facilities, to adopt and enforce ordinances for the protection of water sources, and to sell water to the incorporated cities and villages and the corporations and persons in unincorporated areas by meter measurements and at rates that will at least defray all fixed, maintenance and operating expenses.

(b) Sewage treatment plants, collector, interceptor, and outlet sewers, force mains, conduits, lateral sewers, and extensions, pumping stations, ejector stations, and all other appurtenances, extensions, or improvements necessary or useful and convenient for the sanitary collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. The board may prohibit and disconnect storm water drains and outlets where necessary to relieve existing sanitary sewers of storm water loads in order to assure the efficient and sanitary collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. The board is empowered and legally obligated to establish rates and charges for the services of any such sewerage facilities that at least defray all fixed, maintenance, and operating expenses.

(c) Lodges, cottages, trailer courts, and camping grounds, marinas and related facilities for the accommodation and servicing of boats, tennis courts, swimming pools, golf courses, skating rinks, skeet ranges, playgrounds, stables, bridle paths, and athletic fields, picnic grounds and parking areas, convention and entertainment centers, and other related buildings and facilities for the accommodation and recreation of persons visiting the reservoirs owned by the district or from which it is drawing a supply of water. Any such facilities, when acquired, may be leased by the board to a responsible person, firm, or corporation for operation over a period not longer than 20 years from the date of the lease, or the board may lease, for a period not longer than 50 years from the date of the lease, land to a responsible person, firm, or corporation for development for any of the foregoing recreational purposes and may grant to such person, firm, or corporation the right, at the option of the person, firm, or corporation, to extend the lease for a period not longer than 50 years from the expiration of the original lease. If the board determines to operate any such recreational facilities, it shall establish for the revenue-producing facilities rates and charges which at least defray all fixed, maintenance, and operating expenses.

(2) The board of trustees of the Rend Lake Conservancy District may acquire, by gift, purchase, or lease, land or facilities specified below, and may construct, develop, operate, extend, and improve such facilities:

Industrial projects consisting of one or more buildings and other structures, improvements, machinery, and equipment suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research, or commercial enterprise and any other improvements necessary or convenient thereto. Any such facilities, when acquired, may be leased for operation for a period not longer than 20 years after the date of the commencement of the lease, or the board may lease, for a period not longer than 50 years after the date of the commencement of the lease, land to a responsible person, firm, or corporation for development of any of the foregoing industrial projects and may grant to such person, firm or corporation the right, at the option of the person, firm or corporation, to extend the lease for a period not longer than 50 years from the date of expiration of the original lease. If the board decides to operate any such industrial projects, it shall establish for the revenue producing facilities rates and charges which will at least defray all fixed, maintenance, and operating expenses. However, nothing in Public Act 83-785 this amendatory Act of 1983 shall permit the Rend Lake Conservancy District to acquire, purchase, lease, construct, develop, operate, or extend a facility for the purpose of mining coal.

(3) For the purpose of developing, operating, or financing the cost of any such facilities under subsection (1) or (2), the authorized board may combine into one system any 2 or more such facilities and may use or pledge the revenues derived from one to pay for the other.

Further, for such purposes, the authorized board shall have the express power to execute a note or notes and to execute a mortgage or trust deed to secure the payment of such notes; such trust deed or mortgage shall cover real estate, or some part thereof, or personal property owned by the District and the lien of the mortgage shall apply to the real estate or personal property so mortgaged by the District, and the proceeds of the note or notes may be used for the purposes set forth in this Section.

For purposes of this Section, the authorized board shall not execute notes bearing a rate of interest that exceeds the rate permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-785; revised 7-29-24.)

Section 555. The Sanitary District Act of 1907 is amended by changing Section 16.2 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2205/16.2) (from Ch. 42, par. 262.2)

Sec. 16.2. All bonds issued pursuant to this Act shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 560. The North Shore Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Sections 9.1 and 22 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2305/9.1) (from Ch. 42, par. 285.1)

Sec. 9.1. All bonds issued pursuant to this Act shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-31-24.)

(70 ILCS 2305/22) (from Ch. 42, par. 296.2)

Sec. 22. When any special assessment is made under this Act, the ordinance authorizing such assessment may provide that the entire assessment and each individual assessment be divided into annual installments, not more than 20 twenty in number. In all cases such division shall be made so that all installments shall be equal in amount, except that all fractional amounts shall be added to the first installment so as to leave the remaining installments of the aggregate equal in amount and each a multiple of $100. The said several installments shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted for public corporation bonds under the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, except that for the purposes of this Section, "the time the contract is made" shall mean the date of adoption of the original ordinance authorizing the assessment; both principal and interest shall be payable, collected, and enforced as they shall become due in the manner provided for the levy, payment, collection, and enforcement of such assessments and interest, as provided in Divisions 1 and 2 of Article 9 and Division 87 of Article 11 of the "Illinois Municipal Code", approved May 29, 1961, as heretofore or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-1525; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 565. The Sanitary District Act of 1917 is amended by changing Sections 3, 8.2, 16.3, and 20 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2405/3) (from Ch. 42, par. 301)

Sec. 3. Board of trustees; creation; term. A board of trustees shall be created, consisting of 5 members in any sanitary district which includes one or more municipalities with a population of over 90,000 but less than 500,000 according to the most recent Federal census, and consisting of 3 members in any other district. However, the board of trustees for the Fox River Water Reclamation District, the Sanitary District of Decatur, and the Northern Moraine Wastewater Reclamation District shall each consist of 5 members. Each board of trustees shall be created for the government, control, and management of the affairs and business of each sanitary district organized under this Act and shall be created in the following manner:

(1) If the district's corporate boundaries are located wholly within a single county, the presiding officer of the county board, with the advice and consent of the county board, shall appoint the trustees for the district;

(2) If the district's corporate boundaries are located in more than one county, the members of the General Assembly whose legislative districts encompass any portion of the district shall appoint the trustees for the district.

In any sanitary district which shall have a 3-member 3 member board of trustees, within 60 days after the adoption of such act, the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint three trustees not more than 2 of whom shall be from one incorporated city, town, or village in districts in which are included 2 or more incorporated cities, towns, or villages, or parts of 2 or more incorporated cities, towns, or villages, who shall hold their office respectively for one 1, 2, and 3 years, from the first Monday of May next after their appointment and until their successors are appointed and have qualified, and thereafter on or before the second Monday in April of each year the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint one trustee whose term shall be for 3 years commencing the first Monday in May of the year in which he is appointed. The length of the term of the first trustees shall be determined by lot at their first meeting.

In the case of any sanitary district created after January 1, 1978 in which a 5-member 5 member board of trustees is required, the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint 5 trustees, one of whom shall hold office for one year, two of whom shall hold office for 2 years, and 2 of whom shall hold office for 3 years from the first Monday of May next after their respective appointments and until their successors are appointed and have qualified. Thereafter, on or before the second Monday in April of each year the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint one trustee or 2 trustees, as shall be necessary to maintain a 5-member 5 member board of trustees, whose terms shall be for 3 years commencing the first Monday in May of the year in which they are respectively appointed. The length of the terms of the first trustees shall be determined by lot at their first meeting.

In any sanitary district created prior to January 1, 1978 in which a 5-member 5 member board of trustees is required as of January 1, 1978, the two trustees already serving terms which do not expire on May 1, 1978 shall continue to hold office for the remainders of their respective terms, and 3 trustees shall be appointed by the appropriate appointing authority by April 10, 1978 and shall hold office for terms beginning May 1, 1978. Of the three new trustees, one shall hold office for 2 years and 2 shall hold office for 3 years from May 1, 1978 and until their successors are appointed and have qualified. Thereafter, on or before the second Monday in April of each year the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint one trustee or 2 trustees, as shall be necessary to maintain a 5-member 5 member board of trustees, whose terms shall be for 3 years commencing the first Monday in May of the year in which they are respectively appointed. The lengths of the terms of the trustees who are to hold office beginning May 1, 1978 shall be determined by lot at their first meeting after May 1, 1978.

No more than 3 members of a 5-member 5 member board of trustees may be of the same political party; except that in any sanitary district which otherwise meets the requirements of this Section and which lies within 4 counties of the State of Illinois or, prior to April 30, 2008, in the Fox River Water Reclamation District; the appointments of the 5 members of the board of trustees shall be made without regard to political party. Beginning with the appointments made on April 30, 2008, all appointments to the board of trustees of the Fox River Water Reclamation District shall be made so that no more than 3 of the 5 members are from the same political party.

Beginning with the 2021 municipal election, the board of trustees of the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District shall be elected as provided in this paragraph. The election of trustees shall be in accordance with Section 2A-1.1 of the Election Code. Any board member serving on August 23, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-523) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly whose term does not expire in 2021 shall serve until his or her successor is elected and qualified. The board of trustees of the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District shall: on or before January 1, 2020, divide the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District into 5 trustee districts and assign the trustee districts to reflect the results of the most recent federal decennial census; and thereafter, in the year following each decennial census, redistrict the trustee districts to reflect the results of the most recent census. The board of trustees shall consist of 1 elected trustee in each trustee district. A petition for nomination for election of a trustee of the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District shall contain at least 100 signatures of registered voters residing within the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District. The trustees shall be elected for staggered terms at the election as provided by the Election Code. Two trustees shall be elected at the 2021 election, and 3 trustees shall be elected at the following consolidated election. Elected trustees shall take office on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in the month following the month of their election and shall hold their offices for 4 years and until their successors are elected and qualified. If a vacancy occurs before the 2021 election on the board of trustees of the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District: (i) the District Manager shall, no later than 7 days from the date of the vacancy, notify the State legislators representing any portion of the District, publish notification of the vacancy on the District's website, and send notification of the vacancy to local newspapers, radio stations, and television stations; (ii) each notification published or sent shall contain instructions on how to apply to the District Manager for the vacant trustee position; (iii) applications for the vacancy shall be accepted for at least 30 days after the date the notification of the vacancy was published and sent; (iv) applications for the vacancy shall include a letter of interest and resume; (v) once the application period has closed, the District Manager shall forward all applications received to the State legislators notified of the vacancy in item (i); (vi) the President of the board of trustees and the District Manager shall hold a public meeting with the State legislators notified of the vacancy to review all applications and, by unanimous vote of all State legislators representing any portion of the District, select a candidate to fill the trustee vacancy; and (vii) the board of trustees shall appoint the selected candidate at the next board of trustees meeting. If a vacancy exists after the 2021 election on the board of trustees of the Fox Metro Water Reclamation District, the vacancy shall be filled by appointment by the president of the board of trustees, with the advice and consent of the members of the board of trustees, until the next regular election at which trustees of the district are elected, and shall be made a matter of record in the office of the county clerk in the county where the district is located; for a vacancy filled by appointment, the portion of the unexpired term remaining after the next regular election at which trustees of the district are elected shall be filled by election, as provided for in this paragraph.

Within 60 days after the release of Federal census statistics showing that a sanitary district having a 3-member 3 member board of trustees contains one or more municipalities with a population over 90,000 but less than 500,000, or, for the Northern Moraine Wastewater Reclamation District, within 60 days after September 11, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-608) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint 2 additional trustees to the board of trustees, one to hold office for 2 years and one to hold office for 3 years from the first Monday of May next after their appointment and until their successors are appointed and have qualified. The lengths of the terms of these two additional members shall be determined by lot at the first meeting of the board of trustees held after the additional members take office. The three trustees already holding office in the sanitary district shall continue to hold office for the remainders of their respective terms. Thereafter, on or before the second Monday in April of each year the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint one trustee or 2 trustees, as shall be necessary to maintain a 5-member 5 member board of trustees, whose terms shall be for 3 years commencing the first Monday in May of the year in which they are respectively appointed.

If any sanitary district having a 5-member 5 member board of trustees shall cease to contain one or more municipalities with a population over 90,000 but less than 500,000 according to the most recent Federal census, then, for so long as that sanitary district does not contain one or more such municipalities, on or before the second Monday in April of each year the appropriate appointing authority shall appoint one trustee whose term shall be for 3 years commencing the first Monday in May of the year in which he is appointed. In districts which include 2 or more incorporated cities, towns, or villages, or parts of 2 or more incorporated cities, towns, or villages, all of the trustees shall not be from one incorporated city, town or village.

If a vacancy occurs on any board of trustees, the appropriate appointing authority shall within 60 days appoint a trustee who shall hold office for the remainder of the vacated term.

The appointing authority shall require each of the trustees to enter into bond, with security to be approved by the appointing authority, in such sum as the appointing authority may determine.

A majority of the board of trustees shall constitute a quorum but a smaller number may adjourn from day to day. No trustee or employee of such district shall be directly or indirectly interested in any contract, work or business of the district, or the sale of any article, the expense, price, or consideration of which is paid by such district; nor in the purchase of any real estate or property belonging to the district, or which shall be sold for taxes or assessments, or by virtue of legal process at the suit of the district. Provided, that nothing herein shall be construed as prohibiting the appointment or selection of any person as trustee or employee whose only interest in the district is as owner of real estate in the district or of contributing to the payment of taxes levied by the district. The trustees shall have the power to provide and adopt a corporate seal for the district.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, in any sanitary district created prior to November 22, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-1033) this amendatory Act of 1985, in which a 5-member five member board of trustees has been appointed and which currently includes one or more municipalities with a population of over 90,000 but less than 500,000, the board of trustees shall consist of five members.

Except as otherwise provided for vacancies, in the event that the appropriate appointing authority fails to appoint a trustee under this Section, the appropriate appointing authority shall reconvene and appoint a successor on or before July 1 of that year.

(Source: P.A. 101-523, eff. 8-23-19; revised 7-31-24.)

(70 ILCS 2405/8.2) (from Ch. 42, par. 307.2)

Sec. 8.2. All bonds issued pursuant to this Act shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-19-24.)

(70 ILCS 2405/16.3) (from Ch. 42, par. 315.3)

Sec. 16.3. The trustees of any district, having been authorized by an election held pursuant to the preceding Section, being desirous of exercising such authority, shall have an estimate made of the cost of the acquisition of the contemplated waterworks, and by ordinance shall provide for the issuance of revenue bonds. The ordinance shall set forth a brief description of the contemplated waterworks, the estimated cost of acquisition or construction thereof, the amount, rate of interest, time and place of payment, and other details in connection with the issuance of the bonds. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semi-annually, and shall be payable at such times and places not exceeding 20 years from their date as shall be prescribed in the ordinance providing for their issuance.

This ordinance may contain such covenants and restrictions upon the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of payment of the bonds thereby authorized and as may be thereafter issued, and shall pledge the revenues derived from the operation of the waterworks for the purpose of paying all maintenance and operation costs, principal, and interest on all bonds issued under the provisions of this Act, and for providing an adequate depreciation fund, which depreciation fund is hereby defined for the purposes of this Act to be for such replacements as may be necessary from time to time for the continued effective and efficient operation of the waterworks properties of such district, and such fund shall not be allowed to accumulate beyond a reasonable amount necessary for that purpose, the terms and provisions of which shall be incorporated in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the bonds.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-19-24.)

(70 ILCS 2405/20) (from Ch. 42, par. 317b)

Sec. 20. When any special assessment is made under this Act, the ordinance authorizing such assessment may provide that the entire assessment and each individual assessment be divided into annual installments, not more than 20 twenty in number. In all cases such division shall be made so that all installments shall be equal in amount, except that all fractional amounts shall be added to the first installment so as to leave the remaining installments of the aggregate equal in amount and each a multiple of $100 one hundred dollars. The said several installments shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted for public corporation bonds under the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, except that for the purposes of this Section, "the time the contract is made" shall mean the date of adoption of the original ordinance authorizing the assessment; both principal and interest shall be payable, collected, and enforced as they shall become due in the manner provided for the levy, payment, collection, and enforcement of such assessments and interest, as provided in Article 9 and Division 87 of Article 11 of the "Illinois Municipal Code," as heretofore and hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-1525; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 570. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Sections 9b, 9d, 9.6, and 10.1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/9b) (from Ch. 42, par. 328b)

Sec. 9b. From and after April 1, 1958, the corporate authorities of any such sanitary district may by ordinance, establish a fund to be known as a "corporate working cash fund" which shall be maintained and administered in the manner provided by this Act for the purpose of enabling said corporate authorities to have in the treasury at all times sufficient money to meet demands thereon for ordinary and necessary expenditures for corporate purposes.

The corporate authorities may incur an indebtedness and issue bonds therefor in an amount, when added to (a) proceeds from the sale of bonds previously issued to create or increase the working cash fund (b) any amounts collected from the corporate working cash levy and (c) amounts transferred from the construction working cash fund, will not exceed 90% of the amount produced by multiplying the maximum corporate tax rate permitted under this Act by the last known equalized assessed valuation of all property within the territorial boundaries of the sanitary district at the time any bonds are issued plus 90% of the last known entitlement of such district to such taxes as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. The bonds shall mature within 20 years from the date of issuance and shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

In order to authorize and issue such bonds, the corporate authorities shall adopt an ordinance designating the purpose and fixing the date and the amount of the bonds proposed to be issued, the maturity thereof, the rate of interest thereon, place of payment and denomination, and provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property of the sanitary district sufficient to pay and discharge the principal thereof at maturity, and to pay the interest thereon as it falls due. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of the county where the sanitary district is located of a certified copy of any such ordinance, the county clerk shall extend the tax therein provided for.

Said bonds may be issued by the corporate authorities without submitting the question of issuance to the legal voters of such sanitary district for approval.

Before or at the time of issuing said corporate working cash fund bonds the corporate authorities shall, by ordinance provide for the collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property of the sanitary district sufficient to pay and discharge the principal thereof at maturity, and to pay the interest thereon as it falls due. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of the county where the sanitary district is located of a certified copy of any such ordinance, the county clerk shall extend the tax therein provided for.

All moneys derived from the issuance of said corporate working cash fund bonds pursuant to this Amendatory Act of 1957, when received by the treasurer of the district, shall be set apart in the corporate working cash fund. The moneys in such fund shall not be regarded as current assets available for appropriation and shall not be appropriated by the corporate authorities in the annual sanitary district budget, but in order to provide moneys with which to meet ordinary and necessary disbursements for salaries and other corporate purposes may be transferred, in whole or in part, to the corporate fund of the sanitary district and so disbursed therefrom in anticipation of the collection of any taxes lawfully levied for corporate purposes or in the anticipation of the receipt of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. Moneys transferred to the corporate fund in anticipation of the collection of taxes shall be deemed to have been transferred in anticipation of the collection of that part of the taxes so levied which is in excess of the amount or amounts thereof required to pay any warrants or notes, and the interest thereon theretofore or thereafter issued, and such taxes levied for corporate purposes when collected shall be applied first to the payment of any such warrants or notes and the interest thereon and then to the reimbursement of the corporate working cash fund as hereinafter provided. Upon the receipt by the treasurer of the sanitary district of any taxes in anticipation of the collection or receipt whereof moneys of the corporate working cash fund have been so transferred for disbursement, such fund shall immediately be reimbursed therefrom until the full amount so transferred has been retransferred to said fund. If the taxes in anticipation of the collection of which such transfers are made are not collected in sufficient amounts to effect a complete reimbursement of the working cash fund within the second budget year following the year in which said transfer was made, of the amounts transferred from the corporate working cash fund to the corporate fund, the deficiencies between the amounts thus transferred and the amounts repaid from collection shall be general obligations of the corporate fund until repaid either from taxes in anticipation of which transfers were made or from appropriations which may be made in the annual sanitary district budgets of sums of money to apply on such general obligations or until repaid from both the taxes in anticipation of which such transfers were made and from appropriations which may be made in the annual sanitary district budgets of sums of money to apply on such general obligations.

Moneys shall be transferred from the corporate working cash fund to the corporate fund only upon the authority of the corporate authorities, which shall by resolution direct the treasurer of the sanitary district to make such transfers. The resolution shall set forth (a) the taxes or funds in anticipation of the collection or receipt of which the corporate working cash fund is to be reimbursed, (b) for a transfer in anticipation of the extension of real estate taxes, the entire amount of taxes extended, or which the board shall estimate will be extended, for any year by the county clerk upon the books of the collectors of State state and county taxes within the sanitary district in anticipation of all or part of which such transfer is to be made, (c) for a transfer in anticipation of such taxes, hereinabove referred to, to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, the amount of such taxes which the board shall estimate will be received, (d) the aggregate amount of warrants or notes theretofore issued in anticipation of the collection of such taxes, (e) the aggregate amount of receipts from taxes imposed to replace revenue lost by units of local government and school districts as a result of the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, which the corporate authorities estimate will be set aside for the payment of the proportionate amount of debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as required by Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State Revenue Sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and (f) the aggregate amount of moneys theretofore transferred from the corporate working cash fund to the corporate fund in anticipation of the collection of such taxes. The amount which the resolution shall direct the treasurer of the sanitary district so to transfer in anticipation of the collection of taxes levied or to be received for any year, together with the aggregate amount of such anticipation tax warrants or notes theretofore drawn against such taxes, the amount estimated to be required to satisfy debt service and pension or retirement obligations, as set forth in Section 12 of the State Revenue Sharing Act "An Act in relation to State revenue sharing with local government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and the aggregate amount of such transfers theretofore made in anticipation of the collection of such taxes shall not exceed 100% of the actual or estimated amount of such taxes extended or to be extended or to be received as set forth in the resolution. When moneys are available in the corporate working cash fund they shall be transferred to the corporate fund and disbursed for the payment of salaries and other corporate expenses so as to avoid, or reduce in amount, whenever possible, the issuance of tax anticipation warrants or notes.

Any member of the board of commissioners of said sanitary district or any officer thereof or any other person holding any other position of trust or employment under the said board, who is guilty of the wilful violation of any of the provisions of this Amendatory Act of 1957, shall be guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not exceeding $10,000 and shall forfeit his right to his office, trust, or employment and shall be removed therefrom. Any such member, officer, or person shall be liable for any sum that may be unlawfully diverted from the corporate working cash fund or otherwise used, to be recovered by the corporate authorities of said sanitary district or by any taxpayer in the name and for the benefit of said board of commissioners in an appropriate civil action. A taxpayer so suing shall file a bond for and shall be liable for, all costs, taxed against the board of commissioners in such a suit. Nothing herein shall bar any other remedies.

The authority granted by this Amendatory Act of 1957 shall be cumulative authority for the issuance of bonds and shall not be held to repeal any laws with respect thereto.

(Source: P.A. 89-574, eff. 1-1-97; revised 7-19-24.)

(70 ILCS 2605/9d) (from Ch. 42, par. 328d)

Sec. 9d. All bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness issued pursuant to this Act shall be sold at such price and upon such terms as determined by the Board of Commissioners and which will not cause the net effective interest rate to be paid by the sanitary district to exceed that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 84-208; revised 7-19-24.)

(70 ILCS 2605/9.6) (from Ch. 42, par. 328.6)

Sec. 9.6. Without submitting the issuance thereof to the legal voters of the Sanitary District for approval the corporate authorities thereof by ordinance may authorize bonds for the purpose of refunding the principal of its bonds whenever proceeds of taxes levied therefor shall not have been received in time to pay such principal at its maturity.

The refunding bonds may be exchanged par for par for such bonds or refunding bonds may be sold at not less than their par value and the proceeds received shall be used to pay such bonds and in any event the bonds refunded shall be cancelled upon the delivery of the refunding bonds. The refunding bonds shall mature 10 years from their date and may bear interest at a rate not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended. After the cancellation of the bonds refunded the money thereafter received from the proceeds of the delinquent taxes, the non-collection of which made necessary such refunding, shall be paid into a special sinking fund for the payment of the refunding bonds and may be used by the treasurer of such sanitary district in the purchase of such refunding bonds at not to exceed their par value and accrued interest and any refunding bonds so purchased shall be cancelled and the tax next to be extended for payment of the refunding bonds shall be reduced in the amount of the refunding bonds so cancelled. If any such money shall not have been used in the purchase of refunding bonds, such money shall be set aside in a fund to be used for payment of the interest and principal of such refunding bonds as the same shall mature and the tax or taxes next to be extended for such payment shall be reduced by the amount so set aside. An ordinance shall be adopted annually during the term of the refunding bonds, finding the amount of refunding bonds so purchased from the proceeds of such delinquent taxes, and the amount of money on hand received from the collection of such delinquent taxes not used in purchasing refunding bonds, and directing the reduction in that amount of the tax next to be extended for payment of the refunding bonds and a certified copy thereof shall be filed in the office of the county clerk, whereupon it shall be the duty of such official to reduce and extend such tax levy in accordance therewith.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-19-24.)

(70 ILCS 2605/10.1) (from Ch. 42, par. 329a)

Sec. 10.1. Every sanitary district shall also have the power to construct a sewerage system or drainage system to serve a particular locality within its corporate limits or to extend or improve an existing sewerage system or drainage system, for the purpose of serving a particular locality within the sanitary district not theretofore served by its existing sewerage system or drainage system, and to pay the cost thereof by the issuance and sale of revenue bonds of the sanitary district, payable solely from the revenue derived from the operation of the sewerage system or drainage system, constructed or acquired for that particular locality, or from the revenue to be derived from the operation of the improvements and extensions of an existing system.

These bonds may be issued for maturities not exceeding 40 years from the date of the bonds and in such amounts as may be necessary to provide sufficient funds to pay all the costs of the improvement, or extension, or construction, or acquisition for improvement and extension of the sewerage system or drainage system, including engineering, legal, and other expenses, together with interest, to a date 6 months subsequent to the estimated date of completion. These bonds shall bear interest at a rate not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semi-annually. Bonds issued under this Act are negotiable instruments. They shall be executed by the presiding officer and clerk of the sanitary district, or such other officer or officers as the trustees may, by resolution, designate, and shall be sealed with the sanitary district corporate seal. In case any officer whose signature appears on the bonds or coupons ceases to hold that office before the bonds are delivered, his signature nevertheless, shall be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as though he had remained in office until the bonds were delivered. The bonds shall be sold in such manner and upon such terms as the board of trustees shall determine.

Bonds issued under this Section section are payable from revenue derived from the operation of that sewerage system or drainage system or improvement or extension. These bonds shall not, in any event, constitute an indebtedness of the sanitary district, within the meaning of any constitutional or statutory limitation, and it shall be so stated on the face of each bond. The face of each bond shall also contain a description of the locality for which that system or improvement or extension is constructed and acquired.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 575. The Sanitary District Act of 1936 is amended by changing Sections 11.1, 26c, 29, 32b.1, and 32e as follows:

(70 ILCS 2805/11.1) (from Ch. 42, par. 422.1)

Sec. 11.1. All bonds issued pursuant to this Act shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-22-24.)

(70 ILCS 2805/26c) (from Ch. 42, par. 437c)

Sec. 26c. The trustees of any district, having been authorized by an election held pursuant to the preceding section, being desirous of exercising such authority, shall have an estimate made of the cost of the acquisition of the contemplated drainage system, and by ordinance shall provide for the issuance of revenue bonds. The ordinance shall set forth a brief description of the contemplated drainage system, the estimated cost of acquisition or construction thereof, the amount, rate of interest, time and place of payment, and other details in connection with the issuance of the bonds. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semiannually, and shall be payable at such times and places not exceeding 20 years from their date as shall be prescribed in the ordinance providing for their issuance.

This ordinance may contain such covenants and restrictions upon the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of payment of the bonds thereby authorized and as may be thereafter issued, and shall pledge the revenues derived from the operation of the drainage system for the purpose of paying all maintenance and operation costs, principal, and interest on all bonds issued under the provisions of this Act, and for providing an adequate depreciation fund, which depreciation fund is hereby defined for the purposes of this Act to be for such replacements as may be necessary from time to time for the continued effective and efficient operation of the drainage system properties of such district, and such fund shall not be allowed to accumulate beyond a reasonable amount necessary for that purpose, the terms and provisions of which shall be incorporated in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the bonds.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-22-24.)

(70 ILCS 2805/29) (from Ch. 42, par. 440)

Sec. 29. When any special assessment is made under this Act, the ordinance authorizing such assessment may provide that the entire assessment and each individual assessment be divided into annual installments, not more than 20 twenty in number. In all cases such division shall be made so that all installments shall be equal in amount, except that all fractional amounts shall be added to the first installment so as to leave the remaining installments of the aggregate equal in amount and each a multiple of $100 one hundred dollars. The said several installments shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted for public corporation bonds under the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, except that for the purposes of this Section, "the time the contract is made" shall mean the date of adoption of the original ordinance authorizing the assessment; both principal and interest shall be payable, collected and enforced as they shall become due in the manner provided for the levy, payment, collection and enforcement of such assessments and interest, as provided in Division 2 of Article 9 of the "Illinois Municipal Code", approved May 29, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-1525; revised 7-22-24.)

(70 ILCS 2805/32b.1) (from Ch. 42, par. 443b.1)

Sec. 32b.1. The board of trustees of any sanitary district created hereunder, after receiving a petition in writing, signed by not less than 50% of the legal voters and not less than 50% of the record owners of land in any contiguous territory situated within such sanitary district, shall have the power, by the issuance of revenue bonds, or by special assessment, as determined by ordinance of the board of trustees, to purchase or construct waterworks within such contiguous territory and thereafter operate, maintain, improve, and extend such waterworks as defined in this Act. Such petition, when submitted to the board of trustees, shall contain an estimate of the cost of the purchase or construction of such waterworks. The ordinance to provide for the purchase or construction of such waterworks shall be adopted only by a vote of a majority of the members of the board of trustees. Such ordinance shall contain an accurate description of the territory which will be affected by the purchase or construction of the waterworks, and the costs of such purchase, construction, improvement, or extension shall be paid solely by the issuance and sale of revenue bonds of the district secured by and payable solely from the revenue to be derived from the operation of such waterworks, or by special assessment, as the case may be.

Revenue bonds provided for in this Section may be issued in such amounts as may be necessary to provide sufficient funds to pay all costs of purchasing or constructing such waterworks, including engineering, legal, and other expenses. Such bonds shall bear interest at a rate not exceeding the rate permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semi-annually, and shall be payable at such times and places not exceeding 30 years from their date as shall be prescribed in the ordinance providing for their issuance. However, if the board of trustees determines by ordinance that the purchase and construction of such waterworks is to be secured and paid by special assessment, then the proceedings for making, levying, collecting, and enforcing any special assessment levied hereunder, the letting of contracts, the issuance of special assessment bonds, the performance of the work, and all other matters required or pertaining to the purchase or construction and making of the improvements or extensions shall be as provided in Division 2 of Article 9 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as heretofore and hereafter amended. Whenever in said Division 2 the words "city council" or the words "board of local improvements" are used, the same shall apply to the board of trustees constituted by this Act, and the word "mayor" or "president of the board of local improvement" shall apply to the president of the board of trustees constituted by this Act, and the words applying to the city or its officers in that Article shall be held to apply to the sanitary district created under this Act and its officers.

(Source: P.A. 83-673; revised 7-22-24.)

(70 ILCS 2805/32e) (from Ch. 42, par. 443e)

Sec. 32e. The trustees of any district, having been authorized by an election held pursuant to Section 32d, and being desirous of exercising such authority, shall have an estimate made of the cost of the acquisition or construction of the contemplated waterworks, and by ordinance shall provide for the method of financing such acquisition or construction. The ordinance shall set forth a brief description of the contemplated waterworks, the estimated cost of acquisition or construction thereof, the method of financing such acquisition or construction, the amount, rate of interest, time and place of payment, and other details in connection with the issuance of any bonds necessary therefor. If all or part of such financing is to be by issuance of revenue bonds, such bonds shall bear interest at not exceeding the rate permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semi-annually, and shall be payable at such times and places not exceeding 30 years from their date as shall be prescribed in the ordinance providing for their issuance.

This ordinance may contain such covenants and restrictions upon the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of payment of the bonds thereby authorized and as may be thereafter issued, and shall pledge the revenues derived from the operation of the waterworks for the purpose of paying all maintenance and operation costs, principal and interest on all bonds issued under the provisions of this Act, and for providing an adequate depreciation fund, which depreciation fund is hereby defined for the purposes of this Act to be for such replacements as may be necessary from time to time for the continued effective and efficient operation of the waterworks properties of such district, and such fund shall not be allowed to accumulate beyond a reasonable amount necessary for that purpose, the terms and provisions of which shall be incorporated in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the revenue bonds.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 580. The Sanitary District Refunding Bond Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3005/1) (from Ch. 42, par. 298.1)

Sec. 1. The corporate authorities of any sanitary district, without submitting the question to the electors thereof for approval, may authorize by ordinance the issuance of refunding bonds (1) to refund its bonds prior to their maturity; (2) to refund its unpaid matured bonds; (3) to refund matured coupons evidencing interest upon its unpaid bonds; (4) to refund interest at the coupon rate upon its unpaid matured bonds that has accrued since the maturity of those bonds; and (5) to refund its bonds which by their terms are subject to redemption before maturity.

The refunding bonds may be made registerable as to principal and may bear interest at a rate of not to exceed that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable at such time and place as may be provided in the bond ordinance. The refunding bonds shall remain valid even though one or more of the officers executing the bonds ceases to hold his or their offices before the bonds are delivered.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 585. The Sanitary District Revenue Bond Act is amended by changing Section 2a as follows:

(70 ILCS 3010/2a) (from Ch. 42, par. 319.2a)

Sec. 2a. Every sanitary district has the power to construct or acquire, and to improve, extend, and operate a sewerage system. Any sanitary district that owns and operates or that may hereafter own and operate a sewerage system also has the power, when determined by its board of trustees to be in the public interest and necessary for the protection of the public health, to enter into and perform contracts, whether long-term or short-term, with any industrial establishment for the provision and operation by the sanitary district of sewerage facilities to abate or reduce the pollution of water caused by discharges of industrial wastes by the industrial establishment and the payment periodically by the industrial establishment to the sanitary district of amounts at least sufficient, in the determination of such board of trustees, to compensate the sanitary district for the cost of providing (including payment of principal and interest charges, if any), and of operating and maintaining the sewerage facilities serving such industrial establishment.

Every sanitary district has the power to borrow money from the Reconstruction Finance Corporation, the Public Works Administration, or from any other source, for the purpose of improving or extending or for the purpose of constructing or acquiring and improving and extending a sewerage system and as evidence thereof, to issue its revenue bonds, payable solely from the revenue derived from the operation of the sewerage system by that sanitary district. These bonds may be issued for maturities not exceeding forty years from the date of the bonds, and in such amounts as may be necessary to provide sufficient funds to pay all the costs of the improvement or extension or construction or acquisition and improvement and extension of the sewerage system, including engineering, legal and other expenses, together with interest, to a date six months subsequent to the estimated date of completion. These bonds shall bear interest at a rate not exceeding that permitted by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semiannually. Bonds issued under this Act are negotiable instruments. They shall be executed by the presiding officer and clerk of the sanitary district and shall be sealed with the sanitary district's corporate seal. In case any officer whose signature appears on the bonds or coupons ceases to hold that office before the bonds are delivered, his signature, nevertheless, shall be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as though he had remained in office until the bonds were delivered. The bonds shall be sold in such manner and upon such terms as the board of trustees shall determine.

(Source: P.A. 83-591; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 590. The Sanitary Districts Corporate Notes Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3015/1) (from Ch. 42, par. 319.31)

Sec. 1. Any sanitary district, including the district organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act "An Act to create sanitary districts and to remove obstructions in Illinois and Des Plaines Rivers", approved May 29, 1889, as amended, is authorized to issue from time to time general obligation corporate notes in an amount not to exceed 85% of the corporate taxes levied for the year during which said notes are issued, provided no such notes shall be issued at any time there are tax anticipation warrants outstanding against the corporate tax levied for the year during which such notes are issued. Such notes shall mature within two years from date and shall bear interest at a rate per annum not exceeding the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended.

In order to authorize and issue such notes, the corporate authorities shall adopt an ordinance fixing the amount of notes, the date thereof, the form thereof, the maturity thereof, terms of redemption prior to maturity, rate of interest thereon, place of payment and denomination, which shall be in multiples of $1,000, and provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property in the sanitary district sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on such notes to maturity. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk County Clerk of the county in which the sanitary district is located of a certified copy of such ordinance, it shall be the duty of the county clerk County Clerk to extend the tax therefor in addition to and in excess of all other taxes heretofore or hereafter authorized to be levied by such sanitary district.

The corporate authorities may sell such notes at private or public sale and enter into any contract or agreement necessary, appropriate, or incidental to the exercise of the powers granted by this Act, including, without limitation, contracts or agreements for the sale and purchase of such notes and the payment of costs and expenses incident thereto. The corporate authorities may pay such costs and expenses, in whole or in part, from the corporate fund.

From and after such notes have been issued as provided for by this Act, while such notes are outstanding, it shall be the duty of the county clerk County Clerk in computing the tax rate for corporate purposes of any such district to reduce the rate for corporate purposes by the amount levied to pay the principal of and interest on the notes authorized by this Act; provided the tax rate shall not be reduced beyond the amount necessary to reimburse any money borrowed from the working cash fund, and it shall be the duty of the clerk Clerk of the sanitary district annually, not less than thirty days prior to the tax extension date, to certify to the county clerk County Clerk the amount of money borrowed from the working cash fund to be reimbursed from the corporate tax levy.

No reimbursement shall be made to the working cash fund until there has been accumulated from the tax levy provided for the notes, an amount sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on such notes to maturity.

(Source: P.A. 82-976; revised 7-18-24.)

Section 595. The Solid Waste Disposal District Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3105/20) (from Ch. 85, par. 1670)

Sec. 20. Whenever a district does not have sufficient money in its treasury to meet all necessary expenses and liabilities thereof, it may issue tax anticipation warrants. Such issue of tax anticipation warrants shall be subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Warrants and Jurors Certificates Act "An Act to provide for the manner of issuing warrants upon the treasurer of the State or of any county, township, or other municipal corporation or quasi municipal corporation, or of any farm drainage district, river district, drainage and levee district, fire protection district and jurors' certificates", approved June 27, 1913, as now and hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 76-1204; revised 7-17-24.)

Section 600. The Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3205/13) (from Ch. 85, par. 6013)

Sec. 13. Bonds and notes.

(A) (1) The Authority may at any time and from time to time issue bonds and notes for any corporate purpose, including the establishment of reserves and the payment of interest and costs of issuance. In this Act, the term "bonds" includes notes of any kind, interim certificates, refunding bonds, or any other evidence of obligation for borrowed money issued under this Section 13. Bonds may be issued in one or more series and may be payable and secured either on a parity with or separately from other bonds.

(2) The bonds of any issue shall be payable solely from all or any part of the property or revenues of the Authority, including, without limitation:

(i) Rents, rates, fees, charges, or other revenues payable to or any receipts of the Authority, including amounts which are deposited pursuant to the Act with a trustee for bondholders;

(ii) Payments by financial institutions, insurance companies, or others pursuant to letters or lines of credit, policies of insurance, or purchase agreements;

(iii) Investment earnings from funds or accounts maintained pursuant to a bond resolution or trust agreement; and

(iv) Proceeds of refunding bonds.

(3) Bonds may be authorized by a resolution of the Authority and may be secured by a trust agreement by and between the Authority and a corporate trustee or trustees, which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or without the State. Bonds may:

(i) Mature at a time or times, whether as serial bonds or as term bonds or both, not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates of issue;

(ii) Notwithstanding the provisions provision of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, or any other provision of law, bear interest at any fixed or variable rate or rates determined by the method provided in the resolution or trust agreement;

(iii) Be payable at a time or times, in the denominations and form, either coupon or registered or both, and carry the registration and privileges as to exchange, transfer, or conversion and for the replacement of mutilated, lost, or destroyed bonds as the resolution or trust agreement may provide;

(iv) Be payable in lawful money of the United States at a designated place;

(v) Be subject to the terms of purchase, payment, redemption, refunding, or refinancing that the resolution or trust agreement provides;

(vi) Be executed by the manual or facsimile signatures of the officers of the Authority designated by the Authority which signatures shall be valid at delivery even for one who has ceased to hold office; and

(vii) Be sold in the manner and upon the terms determined by the Authority.

(B) Any resolution or trust agreement may contain provisions which shall be a part of the contract with the holders of the bonds as to:

(1) Pledging, assigning, or directing the use, investment, or disposition of all or any part of the revenues of the Authority or proceeds or benefits of any contract, including, without limit, any management agreement or assistance agreement and conveying or otherwise securing any property or property rights;

(2) The setting aside of loan funding deposits, debt service reserves, capitalized interest accounts, replacement or operating reserves, cost of issuance accounts and sinking funds, and the regulation, investment, and disposition thereof;

(3) Limitations on the purposes to which or the investments in which the proceeds of sale of any issue of bonds or the Authority's revenues and receipts may be applied or made;

(4) Limitations on the issue of additional bonds, the terms upon which additional bonds may be issued and secured, the terms upon which additional bonds may rank on a parity with, or be subordinate or superior to, other bonds;

(5) The refunding, advance refunding, or refinancing of outstanding bonds;

(6) The procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract with bondholders may be altered or amended and the amount of bonds and holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which consent shall be given;

(7) Defining the acts or omissions which shall constitute a default in the duties of the Authority to holders of bonds and providing the rights or remedies of such holders in the event of a default which may include provisions restricting individual right of action by bondholders;

(8) Providing for guarantees, pledges of property, letters of credit, or other security, or insurance for the benefit of bondholders; and

(9) Any other matter relating to the bonds which the Authority determines appropriate.

(C) No member of the Authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable personally on the bonds or subject to any personal liability by reason of the issuance of the bonds.

(D) The Authority may enter into agreements with agents, banks, insurers, or others for the purpose of enhancing the marketability of or security for its bonds.

(E)(1) A pledge by the Authority of revenues and receipts as security for an issue of bonds or for the performance of its obligations under any management agreement or assistance agreement shall be valid and binding from the time when the pledge is made.

(2) The revenues and receipts pledged shall immediately be subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery or further act, and the lien of any pledge shall be valid and binding against any person having any claim of any kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the Authority, irrespective of whether the person has notice.

(3) No resolution, trust agreement, management agreement, or assistance agreement or any financing statement, continuation statement, or other instrument adopted or entered into by the Authority need be filed or recorded in any public record other than the records of the Authority in order to perfect the lien against third persons, regardless of any contrary provision of law.

(F) The Authority may issue bonds to refund, advance refund, or refinance any of its bonds then outstanding, including the payment of any redemption premium and any interest accrued or to accrue to the earliest or any subsequent date of redemption, purchase, or maturity of the bonds. Refunding or advance refunding bonds may be issued for the public purposes of realizing savings in the effective costs of debt service, directly or through a debt restructuring, for alleviating impending or actual default, or for paying principal of, redemption premium, if any, and interest on bonds as they mature or are subject to redemption, and may be issued in one or more series in an amount in excess of that of the bonds to be refunded.

(G) At no time shall the total outstanding bonds and notes of the Authority issued under this Section 13 exceed (i) $150,000,000 in connection with facilities owned by the Authority or in connection with other authorized corporate purposes of the Authority and (ii) $399,000,000 in connection with facilities owned by a governmental owner other than the Authority; however, the limit on the total outstanding bond and notes set forth in this sentence shall not apply to any refunding or restructuring bonds issued by the Authority on and after June 17, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-16) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly but prior to December 31, 2024. Bonds which are being paid or retired by issuance, sale, or delivery of bonds or notes, and bonds or notes for which sufficient funds have been deposited with the paying agent or trustee to provide for payment of principal and interest thereon, and any redemption premium, as provided in the authorizing resolution, shall not be considered outstanding for the purposes of this paragraph.

(H) The bonds and notes of the Authority shall not be indebtedness of the City of Chicago, of the State, or of any political subdivision of the State other than the Authority. The bonds and notes of the Authority are not general obligations of the State of Illinois or the City of Chicago, or of any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, and are not secured by a pledge of the full faith and credit of the State of Illinois or the City of Chicago, or of any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, and the holders of bonds and notes of the Authority may not require the levy or imposition by the State or the City of Chicago, or any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, of any taxes or, except as provided in this Act, the application of revenues or funds of the State of Illinois or the City of Chicago or any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority to the payment of bonds and notes of the Authority.

(I) In order to provide for the payment of debt service requirements (including amounts for reserve funds and to pay the costs of credit enhancements) on bonds issued pursuant to this Act, the Authority may provide in any trust agreement securing such bonds for a pledge and assignment of its right to all amounts to be received from the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and for a pledge and assignment (subject to the terms of any management agreement or assistance agreement) of all taxes and other amounts to be received under Section 19 of this Act and may further provide by written notice to the State Treasurer and State Comptroller (which notice shall constitute a direction to those officers) for a direct payment of these amounts to the trustee for its bondholders.

(J) The State of Illinois pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act that the State will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with such holders or in any way impair the rights and remedies of such holders until such bonds and notes, together with interest thereon, with interest on any unpaid installments of interest, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of such holders, are fully met and discharged. In addition, the State pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act that the State will not limit or alter the basis on which State funds are to be allocated, deposited and paid to the Authority as provided in this Act, or the use of such funds, so as to impair the terms of any such contract. The Authority is authorized to include these pledges and agreements of the State in any contract with the holders of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this Section. Nothing in Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly is intended to limit or alter the rights and powers of the Authority so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-25-24.)

Section 605. The Downstate Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act is amended by changing Section 100 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3210/100)

Sec. 100. Bonds and notes.

(a) (1) The Authority may at any time and from time to time issue bonds and notes for any corporate purpose, including the establishment of reserves and the payment of interest and costs of issuance. In this Act, the term "bonds" includes notes of any kind, interim certificates, refunding bonds, or any other evidence of obligation for borrowed money issued under this Section 100. Bonds may be issued in one or more series and may be payable and secured either on a parity with or separately from other bonds.

(2) The bonds of any issue shall be payable solely from all or any part of the property or revenues of the Authority, including, without limitation:

(i) Rents, rates, fees, charges, or other revenues payable to or any receipts of the Authority, including amounts which are deposited pursuant to the Act with a trustee for bondholders;

(ii) Payments by financial institutions, insurance companies, or others pursuant to letters or lines of credit, policies of insurance, or purchase agreements;

(iii) Investment earnings from funds or accounts maintained pursuant to a bond resolution or trust agreement; and

(iv) Proceeds of refunding bonds.

(3) Bonds may be authorized by a resolution of the Authority and may be secured by a trust agreement by and between the Authority and a corporate trustee or trustees, which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or without the State. Bonds may:

(i) Mature at a time or times, whether as serial bonds, as term bonds, or as both, not exceeding 40 years from their respective dates of issue;

(ii) Notwithstanding the provisions provision of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, or any other provision of law, bear interest at any fixed or variable rate or rates determined by the method provided in the resolution or trust agreement;

(iii) Be payable at a time or times, in the denominations and form, either coupon, or registered, or both, and carry the registration and privileges as to exchange, transfer or conversion and for the replacement of mutilated, lost or destroyed bonds as the resolution or trust agreement may provide;

(iv) Be payable in lawful money of the United States at a designated place;

(v) Be subject to the terms of purchase, payment, redemption, refunding, or refinancing that the resolution or trust agreement provides;

(vi) Be executed by the manual or facsimile signatures of the officers of the Authority designated by the Authority which signatures shall be valid at delivery even for one who has ceased to hold office; and

(vii) Be sold in the manner and upon the terms determined by the Authority.

(b) Any resolution or trust agreement may contain provisions which shall be part of the contract with the holders of the bonds as to:

(1) Pledging, assigning, or directing the use, investment, or disposition of all or any part of the revenues of the Authority or proceeds or benefits of any contract, including, without limit, any management agreement or assistance agreement and conveying or otherwise securing any property or property rights;

(2) The setting aside of loan funding deposits, debt service reserves, capitalized interest accounts, replacement or operating reserves, cost of issuance accounts and sinking funds, and the regulation, investment, and disposition thereof;

(3) Limitations on the purposes to which or the investments in which the proceeds of sale of any issue of bonds or the Authority's revenues and receipts may be applied or made;

(4) Limitations on the issue of additional bonds, the terms upon which additional bonds may be issued and secured, the terms upon which additional bonds may rank on a parity with, or be subordinate or superior to, other bonds;

(5) The refinancing, advance refunding, or refinancing of outstanding bonds;

(6) The procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract with bondholders may be altered or amended and the amount of bonds and holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which consent shall be given;

(7) Defining the acts or omissions which shall constitute a default in the duties of the Authority to holders of bonds and providing the rights or remedies of such holders in the event of a default which may include provisions restricting individual right of action by bondholders;

(8) Providing for guarantees, pledges of property, letters of credit, or other security, or insurance for the benefit of bondholders; and

(9) Any other matter relating to the bonds which the Authority determines appropriate.

(c) No member of the Authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable personally on the bonds or subject to any personal liability by reason of the issuance of the bonds.

(d) The Authority may enter into agreements with agents, banks, insurers, or others for the purpose of enhancing the marketability of or security for its bonds.

(e) (1) A pledge by the Authority of revenues and receipts as security for an issue of bonds or for the performance of its obligations under any management agreement or assistance agreement shall be valid and binding from the time when the pledge is made.

(2) The revenues and receipts pledged shall immediately be subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery or further act, and the lien of any pledge shall be valid and binding against any person having any claim of any kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the Authority, irrespective of whether the person has notice.

(3) No resolution, trust agreement, management agreement, or assistance agreement or any financing statement, continuation statement, or other instrument adopted or entered into by the Authority need be filed or recorded in any public record other than the records of the Authority in order to perfect the lien against third persons, regardless of any contrary provision of law.

(f) The Authority may issue bonds to refund, advance refund, or refinance any of its bonds then outstanding, including the payment of any redemption premium and any interest accrued or to accrue to the earliest or any subsequent date of redemption, purchase or maturity of the bonds. Refunding or advance refunding bonds may be issued for the public purposes of realizing savings in the effective costs of debt service, directly or through a debt restructuring, for alleviating impending or actual default, or for paying principal of, redemption premium, if any, and interest on bonds as they mature or are subject to redemption, and may be issued in one or more series in an amount in excess of that of the bonds to be refunded.

(g) At no time shall the total outstanding bonds and notes of the Authority issued under this Section 100 exceed (i) $40,000,000 in connection with facilities owned by the Authority; and (ii) $40,000,000 in connection with facilities owned by a governmental owner other than the Authority. Bonds which are being paid or retired by issuance, sale, or delivery of bonds or notes, and bonds or notes for which sufficient funds have been deposited with the paying agent or trustee to provide for payment of principal and interest thereon, and any redemption premium, as provided in the authorizing resolution, shall not be considered outstanding for the purposes of this paragraph.

(h) The bonds and notes of the Authority shall not be indebtedness of the State, or of any political subdivision of the State other than the Authority. The bonds and notes of the Authority are not general obligations of the State of Illinois, or of any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, and are not secured by a pledge of the full faith and credit of the State of Illinois, or of any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, and the holders of bonds and notes of the Authority may not require the levy or imposition by the State, or any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, of any taxes or, except as provided in this Act, the application of revenues or funds of the State of Illinois, or any other political subdivision of the State other than the Authority, to the payment of bonds and notes of the Authority.

(i) In order to provide for the payment of debt service requirements (including amounts for reserve funds and to pay the costs of credit enhancements) on bonds issued pursuant to this Act, the Authority may provide in any trust agreement securing such bonds for a pledge and assignment of its right to all amounts to be received from the Illinois Sports Facilities Fund and for a pledge and assignment (subject to the terms of any management agreement or assistance agreement) of all taxes and other amounts to be received under Section 100 of this Act and may further provide written notice to the State Treasurer and State Comptroller (which notice shall constitute a direction to those officers) for a direct payment of these amounts to the trustee for its bondholders.

(j) The State of Illinois pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act that the State will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with such holders or in any way impair the rights and remedies of such holders until such bonds and notes, together with interest thereon, with interest on any unpaid installments of interest, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of such holders, are fully met and discharged. In addition, the State pledges to and agrees with the holders of the bonds and notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Act that the State will not limit or alter the basis on which State funds are to be allocated, deposited, and paid to the Authority as provided in this Act, or the use of such funds, so as to impair the terms of any such contract. The Authority is authorized to include these pledges and agreements of the State in any contract with the holders of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-227, eff. 1-1-04; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 610. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 4.03 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/4.03)

Sec. 4.03. Taxes.

(a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of the Authority, the Board may, by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in Public Act 95-708 is intended to invalidate any taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-708).

(b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law. The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act, including, without limitation, conformity to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by this Section.

(c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section, the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for details of the tax.

(d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term "parking facility" means a parking area or structure having parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is regulated by parking meters.

(e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the metropolitan region. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be 1.25% of the gross receipts from sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The rate of tax imposed in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties under this Section on sales of aviation fuel on or after December 1, 2019 shall, however, be 0.25% unless the Regional Transportation Authority in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties has an "airport-related purpose" and the additional 0.50% of the 0.75% tax on aviation fuel is expended for airport-related purposes. If there is no airport-related purpose to which aviation fuel tax revenue is dedicated, then aviation fuel is excluded from the additional 0.50% of the 0.75% tax. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the retailer's discount is not allowed for taxes paid on aviation fuel that are subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

The Board and DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties must comply with the certification requirements for airport-related purposes under Section 2-22 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. This exclusion for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the Authority.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section or the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund, as appropriate.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan region in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation tax by an entity that is located in the metropolitan region and that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969, or an entity that holds a permit issued pursuant to the Life Care Facilities Act; (2) 1.25% of the selling price of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, candy, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, the rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred. The rate of tax imposed in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties under this Section on sales of aviation fuel on or after December 1, 2019 shall, however, be 0.25% unless the Regional Transportation Authority in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties has an "airport-related purpose" and the additional 0.50% of the 0.75% tax on aviation fuel is expended for airport-related purposes. If there is no airport-related purpose to which aviation fuel tax revenue is dedicated, then aviation fuel is excluded from the additional 0.5% of the 0.75% tax.

The Board and DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties must comply with the certification requirements for airport-related purposes under Section 2-22 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. This exclusion for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the Authority.

The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax, and except that the retailer's discount is not allowed for taxes paid on aviation fuel that are subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section or the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund, as appropriate.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21, and 22 of the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

(g-5) If, on January 1, 2025, a unit of local government has in effect a tax under subsections (e), (f), and (g), or if, after January 1, 2025, a unit of local government imposes a tax under subsections (e), (f), and (g), then that tax applies to leases of tangible personal property in effect, entered into, or renewed on or after that date in the same manner as the tax under this Section and in accordance with the changes made by Public Act 103-592 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of $50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim. The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002 and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that amount in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.

(j) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including, without limitation, conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.

(l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers, users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid, which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act. The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales or uses.

(m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing, increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the first month to occur not less than 60 days following such adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance or resolution until the Department begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by Public Act 95-708. The tax rates authorized by Public Act 95-708 are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.

(n) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), the State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. If an airport-related purpose has been certified, taxes and penalties collected in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties on aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019 from the 0.50% of the 0.75% rate shall be immediately paid over by the Department to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, for deposit into the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the Authority. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i) the amount of taxes collected in each county other than Cook County in the metropolitan region, (not including, if an airport-related purpose has been certified, the taxes and penalties collected from the 0.50% of the 0.75% rate on aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019 that are deposited into the Local Government Aviation Trust Fund) (ii) the amount of taxes collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago, each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items (i), (ii), and (iii), and less 1.5% of the remainder, which shall be transferred from the trust fund into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the Authority, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the transfer of the amount certified into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and the payment of two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.

(p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax authorized under paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this Section is in effect.

Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) shall remain in effect only until the time as any tax authorized by paragraph (e), (f), or (g) of this Section is are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax authorized by paragraph (e), (f), or (g) is imposed the Board may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraph (e), (f), or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other than an ordinance of the Board.

(q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations (including enforcement by the Regional Transportation Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the imposition of a tax under paragraph (e), (f), or (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-700, eff. 4-19-22; 103-592, eff. 1-1-25; 103-781, eff. 8-5-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 615. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 1D-1, 2-3.25f, 2-3.169, 5-1, 5-2.2, 5-13, 10-16a, 10-22.3f, 10-22.6, 10-22.22, 10-22.24b, 10-22.36, 14A-32, 18-8.15, 19-1, 21B-50, 22-94, 24-4.1, 24A-2.5, 24A-5, 27A-5, 34-18, 34-18.68, 34-22.6, 34-22.10, and 34A-502 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.204, 27-23.17, and 34-18.85 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1D-1)

(Text of Section from P.A. 100-55 and 103-594)

Sec. 1D-1. Block grant funding.

(a) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall award to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants a general education block grant and an educational services block grant, determined as provided in this Section, in lieu of distributing to the district separate State funding for the programs described in subsections (b) and (c). The provisions of this Section, however, do not apply to any federal funds that the district is entitled to receive. In accordance with Section 2-3.32, all block grants are subject to an audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant.

(b) The general education block grant shall include the following programs: REI Initiative, Summer Bridges, K-6 Comprehensive Arts, School Improvement Support, Urban Education, Scientific Literacy, Substance Abuse Prevention, Second Language Planning, Staff Development, Outcomes and Assessment, K-6 Reading Improvement, 7-12 Continued Reading Improvement, Truants' Optional Education, Hispanic Programs, Agriculture Education, Report Cards, and Criminal Background Investigations. The general education block grant shall also include Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative through June 30, 2026. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the general education block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, at least 25% of any additional Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative program funding over and above the previous fiscal year's allocation shall be used to fund programs for children ages 0-3. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, funding for Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative programs above the allocation for these programs in Fiscal Year 2017 must be used solely as a supplement for these programs and may not supplant funds received from other sources.

(b-5) Beginning in Fiscal Year 2027, the Department of Early Childhood shall award a block grant for Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants. The grants are subject to audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes. The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grant to which it is entitled under this Section. The Department of Early Childhood shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grant on a schedule determined by the Department. A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the Department of Early Childhood on its use of the block grant in such form and detail as the Department may specify. In addition, the report must include the following description for the district, which must also be reported to the General Assembly: block grant allocation and expenditures by program; population and service levels by program; and administrative expenditures by program. The Department shall ensure that the reporting requirements for the district are the same as for all other school districts in this State. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, at least 25% of any additional Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative program funding over and above the previous fiscal year's allocation shall be used to fund programs for children ages 0-3. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, funding for Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative programs above the allocation for these programs in Fiscal Year 2017 must be used solely as a supplement for these programs and may not supplant funds received from other sources.

(c) The educational services block grant shall include the following programs: Regular and Vocational Transportation, State Lunch and Free Breakfast Program, Special Education (Personnel, Transportation, Orphanage, Private Tuition), funding for children requiring special education services, Summer School, Educational Service Centers, and Administrator's Academy. This subsection (c) does not relieve the district of its obligation to provide the services required under a program that is included within the educational services block grant. It is the intention of the General Assembly in enacting the provisions of this subsection (c) to relieve the district of the administrative burdens that impede efficiency and accompany single-program funding. The General Assembly encourages the board to pursue mandate waivers pursuant to Section 2-3.25g.

The funding program included in the educational services block grant for funding for children requiring special education services in each fiscal year shall be treated in that fiscal year as a payment to the school district in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section. Nothing in this Section shall change the nature of payments for any program that, apart from this Section, would be or, prior to adoption or amendment of this Section, was on the basis of a payment in a fiscal year in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section.

(d) For fiscal year 1996 and each fiscal year thereafter, the amount of the district's block grants shall be determined as follows: (i) with respect to each program that is included within each block grant, the district shall receive an amount equal to the same percentage of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program as the percentage of the appropriation received by the district from the 1995 fiscal year appropriation made for that program, and (ii) the total amount that is due the district under the block grant shall be the aggregate of the amounts that the district is entitled to receive for the fiscal year with respect to each program that is included within the block grant that the State Board of Education shall award the district under this Section for that fiscal year. In the case of the Summer Bridges program, the amount of the district's block grant shall be equal to 44% of the amount of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program.

(e) The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grants to which it is entitled under this Section. The State Board of Education shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grants on a schedule determined by the State Board of Education.

(f) A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the State Board of Education on its use of the block grants in such form and detail as the State Board of Education may specify. In addition, the report must include the following description for the district, which must also be reported to the General Assembly: block grant allocation and expenditures by program; population and service levels by program; and administrative expenditures by program. The State Board of Education shall ensure that the reporting requirements for the district are the same as for all other school districts in this State.

(g) This paragraph provides for the treatment of block grants under Article 1C for purposes of calculating the amount of block grants for a district under this Section. Those block grants under Article 1C are, for this purpose, treated as included in the amount of appropriation for the various programs set forth in paragraph (b) above. The appropriation in each current fiscal year for each block grant under Article 1C shall be treated for these purposes as appropriations for the individual program included in that block grant. The proportion of each block grant so allocated to each such program included in it shall be the proportion which the appropriation for that program was of all appropriations for such purposes now in that block grant, in fiscal 1995.

Payments to the school district under this Section with respect to each program for which payments to school districts generally, as of the date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, are on a reimbursement basis shall continue to be made to the district on a reimbursement basis, pursuant to the provisions of this Code governing those programs.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a block grant under this Section may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year from any block grant authorized under this Code or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code (other than supplemental general State aid) as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referred to in subsection (c) of this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any block grant or general State aid to be classified under this subsection (h) and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to the block grant as provided in this Section, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of provision of services.

(Source: P.A. 100-55, eff. 8-11-17; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24.)

(Text of Section from P.A. 100-465 and 103-594)

Sec. 1D-1. Block grant funding.

(a) For fiscal year 1996 through fiscal year 2017, the State Board of Education shall award to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants a general education block grant and an educational services block grant, determined as provided in this Section, in lieu of distributing to the district separate State funding for the programs described in subsections (b) and (c). The provisions of this Section, however, do not apply to any federal funds that the district is entitled to receive. In accordance with Section 2-3.32, all block grants are subject to an audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant.

(b) The general education block grant shall include the following programs: REI Initiative, Summer Bridges, Preschool At Risk, K-6 Comprehensive Arts, School Improvement Support, Urban Education, Scientific Literacy, Substance Abuse Prevention, Second Language Planning, Staff Development, Outcomes and Assessment, K-6 Reading Improvement, 7-12 Continued Reading Improvement, Truants' Optional Education, Hispanic Programs, Agriculture Education, Report Cards, and Criminal Background Investigations. The general education block grant shall also include Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative through June 30, 2026. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the general education block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes.

(b-5) Beginning in Fiscal Year 2027, the Department of Early Childhood shall award a block grant for Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative to a school district having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants. The grants are subject to audit. Therefore, block grant receipts and block grant expenditures shall be recorded to the appropriate fund code for the designated block grant. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all amounts paid under the block grant from State appropriations to a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 inhabitants shall be appropriated and expended by the board of that district for any of the programs included in the block grant or any of the board's lawful purposes. The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grant to which it is entitled under this Section. The Department of Early Childhood shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grant on a schedule determined by the Department. A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the Department of Early Childhood on its use of the block grant in such form and detail as the Department may specify. In addition, the report must include the following description for the district, which must also be reported to the General Assembly: block grant allocation and expenditures by program; population and service levels by program; and administrative expenditures by program. The Department shall ensure that the reporting requirements for the district are the same as for all other school districts in this State. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, at least 25% of any additional Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative program funding over and above the previous fiscal year's allocation shall be used to fund programs for children ages 0-3. Beginning in Fiscal Year 2018, funding for Preschool Education, Parental Training, and Prevention Initiative programs above the allocation for these programs in Fiscal Year 2017 must be used solely as a supplement for these programs and may not supplant funds received from other sources. (b-10).

(c) The educational services block grant shall include the following programs: Regular and Vocational Transportation, State Lunch and Free Breakfast Program, Special Education (Personnel, Transportation, Orphanage, Private Tuition), funding for children requiring special education services, Summer School, Educational Service Centers, and Administrator's Academy. This subsection (c) does not relieve the district of its obligation to provide the services required under a program that is included within the educational services block grant. It is the intention of the General Assembly in enacting the provisions of this subsection (c) to relieve the district of the administrative burdens that impede efficiency and accompany single-program funding. The General Assembly encourages the board to pursue mandate waivers pursuant to Section 2-3.25g.

The funding program included in the educational services block grant for funding for children requiring special education services in each fiscal year shall be treated in that fiscal year as a payment to the school district in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section. Nothing in this Section shall change the nature of payments for any program that, apart from this Section, would be or, prior to adoption or amendment of this Section, was on the basis of a payment in a fiscal year in respect of services provided or costs incurred in the prior fiscal year, calculated in each case as provided in this Section.

(d) For fiscal year 1996 through fiscal year 2017, the amount of the district's block grants shall be determined as follows: (i) with respect to each program that is included within each block grant, the district shall receive an amount equal to the same percentage of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program as the percentage of the appropriation received by the district from the 1995 fiscal year appropriation made for that program, and (ii) the total amount that is due the district under the block grant shall be the aggregate of the amounts that the district is entitled to receive for the fiscal year with respect to each program that is included within the block grant that the State Board of Education shall award the district under this Section for that fiscal year. In the case of the Summer Bridges program, the amount of the district's block grant shall be equal to 44% of the amount of the current fiscal year appropriation made for that program.

(e) The district is not required to file any application or other claim in order to receive the block grants to which it is entitled under this Section. The State Board of Education shall make payments to the district of amounts due under the district's block grants on a schedule determined by the State Board of Education.

(f) A school district to which this Section applies shall report to the State Board of Education on its use of the block grants in such form and detail as the State Board of Education may specify. In addition, the report must include the following description for the district, which must also be reported to the General Assembly: block grant allocation and expenditures by program; population and service levels by program; and administrative expenditures by program. The State Board of Education shall ensure that the reporting requirements for the district are the same as for all other school districts in this State.

(g) Through fiscal year 2017, this paragraph provides for the treatment of block grants under Article 1C for purposes of calculating the amount of block grants for a district under this Section. Those block grants under Article 1C are, for this purpose, treated as included in the amount of appropriation for the various programs set forth in paragraph (b) above. The appropriation in each current fiscal year for each block grant under Article 1C shall be treated for these purposes as appropriations for the individual program included in that block grant. The proportion of each block grant so allocated to each such program included in it shall be the proportion which the appropriation for that program was of all appropriations for such purposes now in that block grant, in fiscal 1995.

Payments to the school district under this Section with respect to each program for which payments to school districts generally, as of the date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, are on a reimbursement basis shall continue to be made to the district on a reimbursement basis, pursuant to the provisions of this Code governing those programs.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a block grant under this Section may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year from any block grant authorized under this Code or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code (other than supplemental general State aid) as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referred to in subsection (c) of this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any block grant or general State aid to be classified under this subsection (h) and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this subsection (h) by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to the block grant as provided in this Section, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of provision of services.

(Source: P.A. 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25f) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25f)

Sec. 2-3.25f. State interventions.

(a) The State Board of Education shall provide technical assistance to schools in school improvement status to assist with the development and implementation of Improvement Plans.

Schools or school districts that fail to make reasonable efforts to implement an approved Improvement Plan may suffer loss of State funds by school district, attendance center, or program as the State Board of Education deems appropriate.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) Schools that receive Targeted Support or Comprehensive Support designations shall enter a 4-year cycle of school improvement status. If, at the end of the 4-year cycle, the school fails to meet the exit criteria specified in the State Plan referenced in subsection (b) of Section 2-3.25a of this Code, the school shall escalate to a more intensive intervention. Targeted Support schools that remain Targeted for one or more of the same student groups as in the initial identification after completion of a 4-year cycle of Targeted School Improvement shall be redesignated as Comprehensive Support schools, as provided in paragraph (2.5) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code. Comprehensive Support schools that remain in the lowest-performing 5% after completion of a 4-year cycle of Comprehensive School Improvement shall be redesignated as Intensive Support schools and shall escalate through more rigorous, tiered support, developed in consultation with the Balanced Accountability Measure Committee and other relevant stakeholder groups, which may ultimately result in the (i) change of recognition status of the school district or school to nonrecognized or (ii) authorization for the State Superintendent of Education to direct the reassignment of pupils or direct the reassignment or replacement of school or school district personnel. If a school district is nonrecognized in its entirety, for any reason, including those not related to performance in the accountability system, it shall automatically be dissolved on July 1 following that nonrecognition and its territory realigned with another school district or districts by the regional board of school trustees in accordance with the procedures set forth in Section 7-11 of the School Code. The effective date of the nonrecognition of a school shall be July 1 following the nonrecognition.

(b-5) The State Board of Education shall also develop a system to provide assistance and resources to lower performing school districts. At a minimum, the State Board shall identify school districts to receive Intensive, Comprehensive, and Targeted Support. The school district shall provide the exclusive bargaining representative with a 5-day notice that the district has had one or more schools within the district identified as being in Comprehensive or Intensive School Improvement Status. In addition, the State Board may, by rule, develop other categories of low-performing schools and school districts to receive services.

The State Board of Education shall work with districts with one or more schools in Comprehensive or Intensive School Improvement Status, through technical assistance and professional development, based on the results of the needs assessment under Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code, to develop and implement a continuous improvement plan that would increase outcomes for students. The plan for continuous improvement shall be based on the results of the needs assessment and shall be used to determine the types of services that are to be provided to each Comprehensive and Intensive School. Potential services may include, but are not limited to, monitoring adult and student practices, reviewing and reallocating district resources, developing a district and school leadership team, providing access to curricular content area specialists, and providing online resources and professional development.

The support provided by a vendor or learning partner approved to support a school's continuous improvement plan related to English language arts must be based on the comprehensive literacy plan for the State developed by the State Board of Education under Section 2-3.200 2-3.196, as added by Public Act 103-402.

The State Board of Education may require districts with one or more Comprehensive or Intensive Schools identified as having deficiencies in one or more core functions of the needs assessment to undergo an accreditation process.

(c) All federal requirements apply to schools and school districts utilizing federal funds under Title I, Part A of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965.

(Source: P.A. 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-735, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.169)

Sec. 2-3.169. State Global Scholar Certification.

(a) The State Global Scholar Certification Program is established to recognize recognized public and nonpublic high school graduates who have attained global competence. State Global Scholar Certification shall be awarded beginning with the 2017-2018 school year. School district or nonpublic school participation in this certification is voluntary.

(b) The purposes of State Global Scholar Certification are as follows:

(1) To recognize the value of a global education.

(2) To certify attainment of global competence.

(3) To provide employers with a method of identifying globally competent employees.

(4) To provide colleges and universities with an additional method to recognize applicants seeking admission.

(5) To prepare students with 21st century skills.

(6) To encourage the development of a globally ready workforce in the STEM (science, technology, engineering, and mathematics), manufacturing, agriculture, and service sectors.

(c) State Global Scholar Certification confirms attainment of global competence, sufficient for meaningful use in college and a career, by a graduating public or nonpublic high school student.

(d) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish the criteria that students must achieve to earn State Global Scholar Certification, which shall minimally include attainment of 6 globally focused courses, service learning experiences, global collaboration or dialogue, and passage of a capstone project demonstrating global competency, as approved by the participating school district or nonpublic school for this purpose.

(e) The State Board of Education shall do both of the following:

(1) Prepare and deliver to participating school districts or nonpublic schools an appropriate mechanism for designating State Global Scholar Certification on the diploma and transcript of a student indicating that the student has been awarded State Global Scholar Certification by the State Board of Education.

(2) Provide other information the State Board of Education deems necessary for school districts or nonpublic schools to successfully participate in the certification.

(f) A school district or nonpublic school that participates in certification under this Section shall do both of the following:

(1) Maintain appropriate records in order to identify students who have earned State Global Scholar Certification.

(2) Make the appropriate designation on the diploma and transcript of each student who earns State Global Scholar Certification.

(g) No fee may be charged to a student to receive the designation pursuant to the Section. Notwithstanding this prohibition, costs may be incurred by the student in demonstrating proficiency.

(h) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules as may be necessary to provide students attending schools that do not offer State Global Scholar Certification the opportunity to earn State Global Scholar Certification remotely beginning with the 2026-2027 school year. These rules shall include, but are not limited to, a list of all school courses and course codes derived from the State Board of Education's Illinois State Course Catalog and Illinois Virtual Course Catalog that are designated as and qualify as globally focused coursework.

If the provider of the online course determines and can demonstrate that a student meets all of the criteria required to earn State Global Scholar Certification, then the school district or nonpublic school shall designate that the student has earned State Global Scholar Certification on the student's diploma and transcript.

A school district or nonpublic school shall provide, upon the request of a student, evidence to the student that the student has completed at least 6 globally focused courses required to earn State Global Scholar Certification for the student to submit to the provider of the online course.

A student enrolled in a school district or nonpublic school that awarded State Global Scholar Certification prior to the 2026-2027 school year and offered a course to complete the capstone project requirement prior to the 2026-2027 school year may not earn State Global Scholar Certification remotely under this subsection (h).

(Source: P.A. 103-352, eff. 7-28-23; 103-979, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.204)

Sec. 2-3.204. Type 1 diabetes informational materials.

(a) The State Board of Education, in coordination with the Department of Public Health, shall develop type 1 diabetes informational materials for the parents and guardians of students. The informational materials shall be made available to each school district and charter school on the State Board's Internet website. Each school district and charter school shall post the informational materials on the school district's or charter school's website, if any.

(b) Information developed pursuant to this Section may include, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) A description of type 1 diabetes.

(2) A description of the risk factors and warning signs associated with type 1 diabetes.

(3) A recommendation regarding a student displaying warning signs associated with type 1 diabetes that the parent or guardian of the student should immediately consult with the student's primary care provider to determine if immediate screening for type 1 diabetes is appropriate.

(4) A description of the screening process for type 1 diabetes and the implications of test results.

(5) A recommendation that, following a type 1 diabetes diagnosis, the parent or guardian should consult with the student's primary care provider to develop an appropriate treatment plan, which may include consultation with and examination by a specialty care provider, including, but not limited to, a properly qualified endocrinologist.

(Source: P.A. 103-641, eff. 7-1-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.205)

Sec. 2-3.205 2-3.204. Air quality resources. The State Board of Education shall, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, compile resources for elementary and secondary schools relating to indoor air quality in schools, including best practices for assessing and maintaining ventilation systems and information on any potential State or federal funding sources that may assist a school in identifying ventilation needs. The State Board of Education shall compile these resources in consultation with stakeholders, including, but not limited to, the Department of Public Health, local public health professionals, ventilation professionals affiliated with a Department of Labor apprenticeship program, licensed design professionals, representatives from regional offices of education, school district administrators, teachers, or any other relevant professionals, stakeholders, or representatives of State agencies. No later than 30 days after resources are compiled under this Section, the State Board of Education shall implement outreach strategies to make the compiled resources available to elementary and secondary schools, including publication of the compiled resources on the State Board of Education's website. The State Board of Education may, in consultation with the Department of Public Health or any other relevant stakeholders, update the compiled resources as necessary.

(Source: P.A. 103-736, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 5-1)

Sec. 5-1. County school units.

(a) The territory in each county, exclusive of any school district governed by any special act which requires the district to appoint its own school treasurer, shall constitute a county school unit. County school units of less than 2,000,000 inhabitants shall be known as Class I county school units and the office of township trustees, where existing on July 1, 1962, in such units shall be abolished on that date and all books and records of such former township trustees shall be forthwith thereafter transferred to the county board of school trustees. County school units of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants shall be known as Class II county school units and shall retain the office of township trustees unless otherwise provided in subsection (b), (c), or (d), or shall be administered as provided in Section 5-2.2.

(b) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (c), the school board of any elementary school district having a fall, 1989 aggregate enrollment of at least 2,500 but less than 6,500 pupils and having boundaries that are coterminous with the boundaries of a high school district, and the school board of any high school district having a fall, 1989 aggregate enrollment of at least 2,500 but less than 6,500 pupils and having boundaries that are coterminous with the boundaries of an elementary school district, may, whenever the territory of such school district forms a part of a Class II county school unit, by proper resolution withdraw such school district from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of the township in which such school district is located and from the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer in such Class II county school unit; provided that the school board of any such school district shall, upon the adoption and passage of such resolution, thereupon elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1. Upon the adoption and passage of such resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer: (1) the trustees of schools in such township shall no longer have or exercise any powers and duties with respect to the school district governed by such school board or with respect to the school business, operations or assets of such school district; and (2) all books and records of the township trustees relating to the school business and affairs of such school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board of such school district. Upon the effective date of Public Act 88-155 this amendatory Act of 1993, the legal title to, and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the township trustees in any school buildings and school sites used and occupied by the school board of such school district for school purposes, that legal title, right, title, and interest thereafter having been transferred to and vested in the regional board of school trustees under Public Act P.A. 87-473 until the abolition of that regional board of school trustees by Public Act P.A. 87-969, shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board of that school district.

Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (c), the school boards of Oak Park & River Forest District 200, Oak Park Elementary School District 97, and River Forest School District 90 may, by proper resolution, withdraw from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of Proviso and Cicero Townships and the township treasurer, provided that the school board shall, upon the adoption and passage of the resolution, elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1 of this Code. Upon the adoption and passage of the resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer: (1) the trustees of schools in the township or townships shall no longer have or exercise any powers or duties with respect to the school district or with respect to the school business, operations, or assets of the school district; (2) all books and records of the trustees of schools and all moneys, securities, loanable funds, and other assets relating to the school business and affairs of the school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board; and (3) all legal title to and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the trustees of schools in any common school lands, school buildings, or school sites used and occupied by the school board and all rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of the common school lands, buildings, or sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board.

Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (c), the respective school boards of Berwyn North School District 98, Berwyn South School District 100, Cicero School District 99, and J.S. Morton High School District 201 may, by proper resolution, withdraw from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of Cicero Township and the township treasurer, provided that the school board shall, upon the adoption and passage of the resolution, elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1 of this Code. Upon the adoption and passage of the resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer: (1) the trustees of schools in the township shall no longer have or exercise any powers or duties with respect to the school district or with respect to the school business, operations, or assets of the school district; (2) all books and records of the trustees of schools and all moneys, securities, loanable funds, and other assets relating to the school business and affairs of the school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board; and (3) all legal title to and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the trustees of schools in any common school lands, school buildings, or school sites used and occupied by the school board and all rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of the common school lands, buildings, or sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board.

Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (c) of this Section and upon final judgment, including the exhaustion of all appeals or a settlement between all parties, regarding claims set forth in the case of Township Trustees of Schools Township 38 North, Range 12 East v. Lyons Township High School District No. 204 case N. 13 CH 23386 pending in 2018 in the Circuit Court of Cook County, Illinois, County Department, Chancery Division, and all related pending claims, the school board of Lyons Township High School District 204 may commence, by proper resolution, to withdraw from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of Lyons Township and the township treasurer, provided that the school board shall, upon the adoption and passage of the resolution, elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1 of this Code. Upon the adoption and passage of the resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer commencing with the first day of the succeeding fiscal year, but not prior to July 1, 2019: (1) the trustees of schools in the township shall no longer have or exercise any powers or duties with respect to the school district or with respect to the school business, operations, or assets of the school district; (2) all books and records of the trustees of schools and all moneys, securities, loanable funds, and other assets relating to the school business and affairs of the school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board, allowing for a reasonable period of time not to exceed 90 days to liquidate any pooled investments; and (3) all legal title to and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the trustees of schools in any common school lands, school buildings, or school sites used and occupied by the school board and all rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of the common school lands, buildings, or sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 100-921 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly are prospective only, starting from August 17, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-921) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, and shall not affect any legal action pending on August 17, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-921) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly in the Illinois courts in which Lyons Township High School District 204 is a listed party.

Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (c), the school boards of Glenbrook High School District 225, Northbrook Elementary School District 27, Northbrook School District 28, Sunset Ridge School District 29, Northbrook/Glenview School District 30, West Northfield School District 31, and Glenview Community Consolidated School District 34 may, by proper resolution, withdraw from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of Northfield and Maine Townships and the township treasurer, provided that the school board shall, upon the adoption and passage of the resolution, elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1 of this Code. Upon the adoption and passage of the resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer: (1) the trustees of schools in the township or townships shall no longer have or exercise any powers or duties with respect to the school district or with respect to the school business, operations, or assets of the school district; (2) all books and records of the trustees of schools and all moneys, securities, loanable funds, and other assets relating to the school business and affairs of the school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board; and (3) all legal title to and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the trustees of schools in any common school lands, school buildings, or school sites used and occupied by the school board and all rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of the common school lands, buildings, or sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of any township located in a Class II county school unit shall be abolished as provided in this subsection if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) During the same 30-day 30 day period, each school board of each elementary and unit school district that is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished gives written notice by certified mail, return receipt requested to the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township of the date of a meeting of the school board, to be held not more than 90 nor less than 60 days after the date when the notice is given, at which meeting the school board is to consider and vote upon the question of whether there shall be submitted to the electors of the school district a proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township. None of the notices given under this paragraph to the township treasurer and trustees of schools of a township shall be deemed sufficient or in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph unless all of those notices are given within the same 30-day 30 day period.

(2) Each school board of each elementary and unit school district that is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished, by the affirmative vote of at least 5 members of the school board at a school board meeting of which notice is given as required by paragraph (1) of this subsection, adopts a resolution requiring the secretary of the school board to certify to the proper election authorities for submission to the electors of the school district at the next consolidated election in accordance with the general election law a proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township. None of the resolutions adopted under this paragraph by any elementary or unit school districts that are subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph or sufficient to authorize submission of the proposition to abolish those offices to a referendum of the electors in any such school district unless all of the school boards of all of the elementary and unit school districts that are subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township adopt such a resolution in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph.

(3) The school boards of all of the elementary and unit school districts that are subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished submit a proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township to the electors of their respective school districts at the same consolidated election in accordance with the general election law, the ballot in each such district to be in substantially the following form:

----------------------------------------------

OFFICIAL BALLOT

Shall the offices of township

treasurer and YES

trustee of -------------

schools of Township ..... NO

Range ..... be abolished?

---------------------------------------------------------

(4) At the consolidated election at which the proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township is submitted to the electors of each elementary and unit school district that is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township, a majority of the electors voting on the proposition in each such elementary and unit school district votes in favor of the proposition as submitted to them.

If in each elementary and unit school district that is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished a majority of the electors in each such district voting at the consolidated election on the proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township votes in favor of the proposition as submitted to them, the proposition shall be deemed to have passed; but if in any such elementary or unit school district a majority of the electors voting on that proposition in that district fails to vote in favor of the proposition as submitted to them, then notwithstanding the vote of the electors in any other such elementary or unit school district on that proposition the proposition shall not be deemed to have passed in any of those elementary or unit school districts, and the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of the township in which those offices were sought to be abolished shall not be abolished, unless in each of those elementary and unit school districts remaining subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township proceedings are again initiated to abolish those offices and all of the proceedings and conditions prescribed in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection are repeated and met in each of those elementary and unit school districts.

Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this Section or any other provision of the School Code, the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township that has a population of less than 200,000 and that contains a unit school district and is located in a Class II county school unit shall also be abolished as provided in this subsection if all of the conditions set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection are met and if the following additional condition is met:

The electors in all of the school districts subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of the township in which those offices are sought to be abolished shall vote at the consolidated election on the proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township. If a majority of the electors in all of the school districts combined voting on the proposition vote in favor of the proposition, then the proposition shall be deemed to have passed; but if a majority of the electors voting on the proposition in all of the school district fails to vote in favor of the proposition as submitted to them, then the proposition shall not be deemed to have passed and the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of the township in which those offices were sought to be abolished shall not be abolished, unless and until the proceedings detailed in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection and the conditions set forth in this paragraph are met.

If the proposition to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township is deemed to have passed at the consolidated election as provided in this subsection, those offices shall be deemed abolished by operation of law effective on January 1 of the calendar year immediately following the calendar year in which that consolidated election is held, provided that if after the election, the trustees of schools by resolution elect to abolish the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools effective on July 1 immediately following the election, then the offices shall be abolished on July 1 immediately following the election. On the date that the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township are deemed abolished by operation of law, the school board of each elementary and unit school district and the school board of each high school district that is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township at the time those offices are abolished: (i) shall appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1; and (ii) unless the term of the contract of a township treasurer expires on the date that the office of township treasurer is abolished, shall pay to the former township treasurer its proportionate share of any aggregate compensation that, were the office of township treasurer not abolished at that time, would have been payable to the former township treasurer after that date over the remainder of the term of the contract of the former township treasurer that began prior to but ends after that date. In addition, on the date that the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township are deemed abolished as provided in this subsection, the school board of each elementary school, high school, and unit school district that until that date is subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township shall be deemed by operation of law to have agreed and assumed to pay and, when determined, shall pay to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund a proportionate share of the unfunded liability existing in that Fund at the time these offices are abolished in that calendar year for all annuities or other benefits then or thereafter to become payable from that Fund with respect to all periods of service performed prior to that date as a participating employee in that Fund by persons serving during those periods of service as a trustee of schools, township treasurer or regular employee in the office of the township treasurer of that township. That unfunded liability shall be actuarially determined by the board of trustees of the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund, and the board of trustees shall thereupon notify each school board required to pay a proportionate share of that unfunded liability of the aggregate amount of the unfunded liability so determined. The amount so paid to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund by each of those school districts shall be credited to the account of the township in that Fund. For each elementary school, high school, and unit school district under the jurisdiction and authority of a township treasurer and trustees of schools of a township in which those offices are abolished as provided in this subsection, each such district's proportionate share of the aggregate compensation payable to the former township treasurer as provided in this paragraph and each such district's proportionate share of the aggregate amount of the unfunded liability payable to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund as provided in this paragraph shall be computed in accordance with the ratio that the number of pupils in average daily attendance in each such district for the school year last ending prior to the date on which the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of that township are abolished bears to the aggregate number of pupils in average daily attendance in all of those districts as so reported for that school year.

Upon abolition of the offices of township treasurer and trustee of schools of a township as provided in this subsection: (i) the regional board of school trustees, in its corporate capacity, shall be deemed the successor in interest to the former trustees of schools of that township with respect to the common school lands and township loanable funds of the township; (ii) all right, title, and interest existing or vested in the former trustees of schools of that township in the common school lands and township loanable funds of the township, and all records, moneys, securities and other assets, rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of those common school lands or township loanable funds, shall be transferred to and deemed vested by operation of law in the regional board of school trustees, which shall hold legal title to, manage, and operate all common school lands and township loanable funds of the township, receive the rents, issues, and profits therefrom, and have and exercise with respect thereto the same powers and duties as are provided by this Code to be exercised by regional boards of school trustees when acting as township land commissioners in counties having at least 220,000 but fewer than 2,000,000 inhabitants; (iii) the regional board of school trustees shall select to serve as its treasurer with respect to the common school lands and township loanable funds of the township a person from time to time also serving as the appointed school treasurer of any school district that was subject to the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer and trustees of schools of that township at the time those offices were abolished, and the person selected to also serve as treasurer of the regional board of school trustees shall have his compensation for services in that capacity fixed by the regional board of school trustees, to be paid from the township loanable funds, and shall make to the regional board of school trustees the reports required to be made by treasurers of township land commissioners, give bond as required by treasurers of township land commissioners, and perform the duties and exercise the powers of treasurers of township land commissioners; (iv) the regional board of school trustees shall designate in the manner provided by Section 8-7, insofar as applicable, a depositary for its treasurer, and the proceeds of all rents, issues, and profits from the common school lands and township loanable funds of that township shall be deposited and held in the account maintained for those purposes with that depositary and shall be expended and distributed therefrom as provided in Section 15-24 and other applicable provisions of this Code; and (v) whenever there is vested in the trustees of schools of a township at the time that office is abolished under this subsection the legal title to any school buildings or school sites used or occupied for school purposes by any elementary school, high school, or unit school district subject to the jurisdiction and authority of those trustees of school at the time that office is abolished, the legal title to those school buildings and school sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and invested in the school board of that school district, in its corporate capacity under Section 10-22.35B of this Code, the same to be held, sold, exchanged, leased, or otherwise transferred in accordance with applicable provisions of this Code.

Notwithstanding Section 2-3.25g of this Code, a waiver of a mandate established under this Section may not be requested.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district that forms a part of a Class II county school unit may, by a resolution adopted by at least two-thirds of the members of the school board of a school district, withdraw a school district from the jurisdiction and authority of the trustees of schools of the township in which such school district is located and from the jurisdiction and authority of the township treasurer of the township in which such school district is located, provided that the school board of the school district shall, upon the adoption and passage of such resolution, thereupon elect or appoint its own school treasurer as provided in Section 8-1 of this Code. The appointed school treasurer may include a township treasurer. The school board may enter into a contractual or intergovernmental agreement with an appointed school treasurer for school treasurer services.

Upon adoption and passage of the resolution and the election or appointment by the school board of its own school treasurer commencing with the first day of the succeeding fiscal year, but not prior to July 1, 2025: (1) the trustees of schools in the township or townships shall no longer have or exercise any powers or duties with respect to the school district or with respect to the school business, operations, or assets of the school district; (2) all books and records of the trustees of schools and all moneys, securities, loanable funds, and other assets relating to the school business and affairs of the school district shall be transferred and delivered to the school board; and (3) all legal title to and all right, title, and interest formerly held by the trustees of schools in any common school lands, school buildings, or school sites used and occupied by the school board and all rights of property and causes of action pertaining to or constituting a part of the common school lands, buildings, or sites shall be deemed transferred by operation of law to and shall vest in the school board.

(Source: P.A. 103-144, eff. 6-30-23; 103-790, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/5-2.2)

Sec. 5-2.2. Designation of trustees. After the April 5, 2011 consolidated election, the trustees of schools in Township 36 North, Range 13 East shall no longer be elected pursuant to the provisions of Sections 5-2, 5-2.1, 5-3, 5-4, 5-12, and 5-13 of this Code. Any such trustees elected before such date may complete the term to which that trustee was elected, but shall not be succeeded by election. Instead, the board of education or board of school directors of each of the elementary and high school districts that are subject to the jurisdiction of Township 36 North, Range 13 East shall appoint one of the members to serve as trustee of schools. The trustees of schools shall be appointed by each board of education or board of school directors within 60 days after December 8, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-631) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and shall reorganize within 30 days after all the trustees of schools have been appointed or within 30 days after all the trustees of schools were due to have been appointed, whichever is sooner. Trustees of schools so appointed shall serve at the pleasure of the board of education or board of school directors appointing them, but in no event longer than 2 years unless reappointed.

After the April 4, 2023 consolidated election, no trustees of schools shall be elected. Any trustees elected or appointed on or before April 4, 2023 may complete the term to which that trustee was trustees elected or appointed, but may not be succeeded by election. Each school board of each school district that is a part of a Class II county school unit shall appoint one member of the school board or one school employee to serve as trustee of schools of the township in which such school district is located. The trustees of schools shall be appointed by each school board within 60 days after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-790) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and shall reorganize within 30 days after all the trustees of schools have been appointed or within 90 days after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-790) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, whichever is sooner. A trustee of schools shall serve at the pleasure of the school board that appointed the trustee of schools but may not serve as a trustee of schools for longer than 2 years unless reappointed by the school board.

A majority of members of the trustees of schools shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The trustees shall organize by appointing one of their number president, who shall hold the office for 2 years. If the president is absent from any meeting, or refuses to perform any of the duties of the office, a president pro-tempore may be appointed. Trustees who serve on the board as a result of appointment or election at the time of the reorganization shall continue to serve as a member of the trustees of schools, with no greater or lesser authority than any other trustee, until such time as their elected term expires.

Each trustee of schools appointed by a board of education or board of school directors shall be entitled to indemnification and protection against claims and suits by the board that appointed that trustee of schools for acts or omissions as a trustee of schools in the same manner and to the same extent as the trustee of schools is entitled to indemnification and protection for acts or omissions as a member of the board of education or board of school directors under Section 10-20.20 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-790, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/5-13) (from Ch. 122, par. 5-13)

Sec. 5-13. Term of office of trustees. In townships already organized, the school trustee shall be elected in each odd numbered year for a term of 6 years to succeed the trustee whose term expires in such odd numbered year.

The first-elected trustees in a newly organized township shall at their first meeting cast lots for their respective terms of office, for 2, 4, and 6 years; and thereafter one 1 trustee shall be elected in each odd-numbered year.

This Section is inoperative on and after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-790) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-790, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-16a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-771)

Sec. 10-16a. School board member's leadership training.

(a) This Section applies to all school board members serving pursuant to Section 10-10 of this Code who have been elected after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly or appointed to fill a vacancy of at least one year's duration after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(a-5) In this Section, "trauma" has the meaning ascribed to that term in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code.

(b) Every voting member of a school board of a school district elected or appointed for a term beginning after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, within a year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly or the first year of his or her first term, shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training covering topics in education and labor law, financial oversight and accountability, fiduciary responsibilities of a school board member, and, beginning with the 2023-2024 school year, trauma-informed practices for students and staff. The school district shall maintain on its Internet website, if any, the names of all voting members of the school board who have successfully completed the training.

(b-5) The training regarding trauma-informed practices for students and staff required by this Section must include information that is relevant to and within the scope of the duties of a school board member. Such information may include, but is not limited to:

(1) the recognition of and care for trauma in students and staff;

(2) the relationship between staff wellness and student learning;

(3) the effect of trauma on student behavior and learning;

(4) the prevalence of trauma among students, including the prevalence of trauma among student populations at higher risk of experiencing trauma;

(5) the effects of implicit or explicit bias on recognizing trauma among various student groups in connection with race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socio-economic status, and other relevant factors; and

(6) effective district and school practices that are shown to:

(A) prevent and mitigate the negative effect of trauma on student behavior and learning; and

(B) support the emotional wellness of staff.

(c) The training on financial oversight, accountability, fiduciary responsibilities, and, beginning with the 2023-24 school year, trauma-informed practices for students and staff may be provided by an association established under this Code for the purpose of training school board members or by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with an association so established.

(d) The State Board of Education may adopt rules that are necessary for the administration of the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; 103-413, eff. 1-1-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-771)

Sec. 10-16a. School board member's training.

(a) This Section applies to all school board members serving pursuant to Section 10-10 of this Code.

(a-5) In this Section, "trauma" has the meaning ascribed to that term in subsection (b) of Section 3-11 of this Code.

(b) Every voting member of a school board of a school district, within the first year of his or her first term, shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development and leadership training covering topics in education and labor law, financial oversight and accountability, fiduciary responsibilities of a school board member, trauma-informed practices for students and staff, and, improving student outcomes. The school district shall maintain on its Internet website, if any, the names of all voting members of the school board who have successfully completed the training.

(b-5) The training regarding trauma-informed practices for students and staff required by this Section must include information that is relevant to and within the scope of the duties of a school board member. Such information may include, but is not limited to:

(1) the recognition of and care for trauma in students and staff;

(2) the relationship between staff wellness and student learning;

(3) the effect of trauma on student behavior and learning;

(4) the prevalence of trauma among students, including the prevalence of trauma among student populations at higher risk of experiencing trauma;

(5) the effects of implicit or explicit bias on recognizing trauma among various student groups in connection with race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socio-economic status, and other relevant factors; and

(6) effective district and school practices that are shown to:

(A) prevent and mitigate the negative effect of trauma on student behavior and learning; and

(B) support the emotional wellness of staff.

(b-10) The training regarding improving student outcomes required by this Section must include information that is relevant to and within the scope of the duties of a school board member.

(c) The training on financial oversight, accountability, fiduciary responsibilities, trauma-informed practices for students and staff, and improving student outcomes shall be provided by a statewide association established under this Code for the purpose of training school board members or by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with an association so established.

(d) The State Board of Education may adopt rules that are necessary for the administration of the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; 103-413, eff. 1-1-24; 103-771, eff. 6-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356u.10, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70, and 356z.71, 356z.74, and 356z.77 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of students; school searches.

(a) To expel students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, the hearing officer shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a student, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the student from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled student may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A student must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend students guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a student is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the student in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of a student along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardian of the student may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 3 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting. In consultation with stakeholders deemed appropriate by the State Board of Education, the State Board of Education shall draft and publish guidance for the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting in accordance with this Section and Section 13A-4 on or before July 1, 2025.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended students, including those students suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a student's parent or guardian to notify school officials that a student suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(c) A school board must invite a representative from a local mental health agency to consult with the board at the meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause of a student's expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to all school personnel, school board members, and school resource officers, on the requirements of this Section and Section 10-20.14, the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, trauma-responsive learning environments, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3-11, the appropriate and available supportive services for the promotion of student attendance and engagement, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of the individual's duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) The expulsion of students enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(l) An in-school suspension program provided by a school district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive interaction with other students and school personnel. A school district may employ a school social worker or a licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.

(Source: P.A. 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-896, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of students; school searches.

(a) To expel students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents or guardians have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, the hearing officer shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a student, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the student from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled student may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A student must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend students guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend students guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a student is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the student in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardians of a student along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardians, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardians of the student may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 3 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting. In consultation with stakeholders deemed appropriate by the State Board of Education, the State Board of Education shall draft and publish guidance for the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting in accordance with this Section and Section 13A-4 on or before July 1, 2025.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended students, including those students suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a student's parents or guardians to notify school officials that a student suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(b-35) In all suspension review hearings conducted under subsection (b) or expulsion hearings conducted under subsection (a), a student may disclose any factor to be considered in mitigation, including his or her status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A. A representative of the parent's or guardian's choice, or of the student's choice if emancipated, must be permitted to represent the student throughout the proceedings and to address the school board or its appointed hearing officer. With the approval of the student's parent or guardian, or of the student if emancipated, a support person must be permitted to accompany the student to any disciplinary hearings or proceedings. The representative or support person must comply with any rules of the school district's hearing process. If the representative or support person violates the rules or engages in behavior or advocacy that harasses, abuses, or intimidates either party, a witness, or anyone else in attendance at the hearing, the representative or support person may be prohibited from further participation in the hearing or proceeding. A suspension or expulsion proceeding under this subsection (b-35) must be conducted independently from any ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding, and an absence of pending or possible criminal charges, criminal investigations, or proceedings may not be a factor in school disciplinary decisions.

(b-40) During a suspension review hearing conducted under subsection (b) or an expulsion hearing conducted under subsection (a) that involves allegations of sexual violence by the student who is subject to discipline, neither the student nor his or her representative shall directly question nor have direct contact with the alleged victim. The student who is subject to discipline or his or her representative may, at the discretion and direction of the school board or its appointed hearing officer, suggest questions to be posed by the school board or its appointed hearing officer to the alleged victim.

(c) A school board must invite a representative from a local mental health agency to consult with the board at the meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause of a student's expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to all school personnel, school board members, and school resource officers on the requirements of this Section and Section 10-20.14, the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, trauma-responsive learning environments, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3-11, the appropriate and available supportive services for the promotion of student attendance and engagement, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of the individual's duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. A school district that adopts a policy under this subsection (g) must include a provision allowing for consideration of any mitigating factors, including, but not limited to, a student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) Through June 30, 2026, the expulsion of students enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(k-5) On and after July 1, 2026, the expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded under Section 15-25 of the Department of Early Childhood Act is subject to the requirements of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 15-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act.

(l) An in-school suspension program provided by a school district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive interaction with other students and school personnel. A school district may employ a school social worker or a licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.

(Source: P.A. 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-896, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.22) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.22)

Sec. 10-22.22. Transportation for pupils; tuition; vocational school pupils-Tuition. To provide free transportation for pupils, and where in its judgment the interests of the district and of the pupils therein will be best subserved by so doing the school board may permit the pupils in the district or in any particular grade to attend the schools of other districts and may permit any pupil to attend an area secondary vocational school operated by a public school district or a public or non-public vocational school within the State of Illinois or adjacent states approved by the Board of Vocational Education, and may provide free transportation for such pupils and shall pay the tuition of such pupils in the schools attended; such tuition shall be based upon per capita cost computed in the following manner: The cost of conducting and maintaining any area secondary vocational school facility shall be first determined and shall include the following expenses applicable only to such educational facility under rules and regulations established by the Board of Vocational Education and Rehabilitation as follows:

a. Salaries of teachers, vocational counselors, and supporting professional workers, necessary non-certified workers, clerks, custodial employees, and any district taxes specifically for their pension and retirement benefits.

b. Equipment and supplies necessary for program operation.

c. Administrative costs.

d. Operation of physical plant, including heat, light, water, repairs, and maintenance.

e. Auxiliary service, not including any transportation cost.

From such total cost thus determined there shall be deducted the State reimbursement due on account of such educational facility for the same year, not including any State reimbursement for area secondary vocational school transportation. Such net cost shall be divided by the average number of pupils in average daily attendance in such area secondary vocational school facility for the school year in order to arrive at the net per capita tuition cost. Such costs shall be computed on pupils regularly enrolled in an area secondary vocational school on the basis of one-sixth day for every class hour attended pursuant to such enrollment; provided . Provided, that the board, subject to the approval of the county superintendent of schools, may determine what schools outside of its their district such pupils shall attend. This Section section does not require the board of directors or board of education of any district to admit pupils from another district.

(Source: P.A. 94-213, eff. 7-14-05; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.24b)

Sec. 10-22.24b. School counseling services. School counseling services in public schools may be provided by school counselors as defined in Section 10-22.24a of this Code or by individuals who hold a Professional Educator License with a school support personnel endorsement in the area of school counseling under Section 21B-25 of this Code.

School counseling services may include, but are not limited to:

(1) designing and delivering a comprehensive school counseling program through a standards-based, data-informed program that promotes student achievement and wellness;

(2) (blank);

(3) school counselors working as culturally skilled professionals who act sensitively to promote social justice and equity in a pluralistic society;

(4) providing individual and group counseling;

(5) providing a core counseling curriculum that serves all students and addresses the knowledge and skills appropriate to their developmental level through a collaborative model of delivery involving the school counselor, classroom teachers, and other appropriate education professionals, and including prevention and pre-referral activities;

(6) making referrals when necessary to appropriate offices or outside agencies;

(7) providing college and career development activities and counseling;

(8) developing individual career plans with students, which includes planning for post-secondary education, as appropriate, and engaging in related and relevant career and technical education coursework in high school;

(9) assisting all students with a college or post-secondary education plan, which must include a discussion on all post-secondary education options, including 4-year colleges or universities, community colleges, and vocational schools, and includes planning for post-secondary education, as appropriate, and engaging in related and relevant career and technical education coursework in high school;

(10) (blank);

(11) educating all students on scholarships, financial aid, and preparation of the Federal Application for Federal Student Aid;

(12) collaborating with institutions of higher education and local community colleges so that students understand post-secondary education options and are ready to transition successfully;

(13) providing crisis intervention and contributing to the development of a specific crisis plan within the school setting in collaboration with multiple stakeholders;

(14) providing educational opportunities for students, teachers, and parents on mental health issues;

(15) providing counseling and other resources to students who are in crisis;

(16) working to address barriers that prohibit or limit access to mental health services;

(17) addressing bullying and conflict resolution with all students;

(18) teaching communication skills and helping students develop positive relationships;

(19) using culturally sensitive skills in working with all students to promote wellness;

(20) working to address the needs of all students with regard to citizenship status;

(21) (blank);;

(22) providing academic, social-emotional, and college and career supports to all students irrespective of special education or Section 504 status;

(23) assisting students in goal setting and success skills for classroom behavior, study skills, test preparation, internal motivation, and intrinsic rewards;

(24) (blank);;

(25) providing information for all students in the selection of courses that will lead to post-secondary education opportunities toward a successful career;

(26) interpreting achievement test results and guiding students in appropriate directions;

(27) (blank);

(28) providing families with opportunities for education and counseling as appropriate in relation to the student's educational assessment;

(29) consulting and collaborating with teachers and other school personnel regarding behavior management and intervention plans and inclusion in support of students;

(30) teaming and partnering with staff, parents, businesses, and community organizations to support student achievement and social-emotional learning standards for all students;

(31) developing and implementing school-based prevention programs, including, but not limited to, mediation and violence prevention, implementing social and emotional education programs and services, and establishing and implementing bullying prevention and intervention programs;

(32) developing culturally sensitive assessment instruments for measuring school counseling prevention and intervention effectiveness and collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data;

(33) participating on school and district committees to advocate for student programs and resources, as well as establishing a school counseling advisory council that includes representatives of key stakeholders selected to review and advise on the implementation of the school counseling program;

(34) acting as a liaison between the public schools and community resources and building relationships with important stakeholders, such as families, administrators, teachers, and board members;

(35) maintaining organized, clear, and useful records in a confidential manner consistent with Section 5 of the Illinois School Student Records Act, the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act;

(36) presenting an annual agreement to the administration, including a formal discussion of the alignment of school and school counseling program missions and goals and detailing specific school counselor responsibilities;

(37) identifying and implementing culturally sensitive measures of success for student competencies in each of the 3 domains of academic, social and emotional, and college and career learning based on planned and periodic assessment of the comprehensive developmental school counseling program;

(38) collaborating as a team member in Multi-Tiered Systems of Support and other school initiatives;

(39) conducting observations and participating in recommendations or interventions regarding the placement of children in educational programs or special education classes;

(40) analyzing data and results of school counseling program assessments, including curriculum, small-group, and closing-the-gap results reports, and designing strategies to continue to improve program effectiveness;

(41) analyzing data and results of school counselor competency assessments;

(42) following American School Counselor Association Ethical Standards for School Counselors to demonstrate high standards of integrity, leadership, and professionalism;

(43) using student competencies to assess student growth and development to inform decisions regarding strategies, activities, and services that help students achieve the highest academic level possible;

(44) practicing as a culturally skilled school counselor by infusing the multicultural competencies within the role of the school counselor, including the practice of culturally sensitive attitudes and beliefs, knowledge, and skills;

(45) infusing the Social-Emotional Standards, as presented in the State Board of Education standards, across the curriculum and in the counselor's role in ways that empower and enable students to achieve academic success across all grade levels;

(46) providing services only in areas in which the school counselor has appropriate training or expertise, as well as only providing counseling or consulting services within his or her employment to any student in the district or districts which employ such school counselor, in accordance with professional ethics;

(47) having adequate training in supervision knowledge and skills in order to supervise school counseling interns enrolled in graduate school counselor preparation programs that meet the standards established by the State Board of Education;

(48) being involved with State and national professional associations;

(49) complete the required training as outlined in Section 10-22.39;

(50) (blank);

(51) (blank);

(52) (blank);

(53) (blank);

(54) (blank); and

(55) promoting career and technical education by assisting each student to determine an appropriate postsecondary plan based upon the student's skills, strengths, and goals and assisting the student to implement the best practices that improve career or workforce readiness after high school.

School districts may employ a sufficient number of school counselors to maintain the national and State recommended student-counselor ratio of 250 to 1. School districts may have school counselors spend at least 80% of his or her work time in direct contact with students.

Nothing in this Section prohibits other qualified professionals, including other endorsed school support personnel, from providing the services listed in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-876, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-542, eff. 7-1-24 (see Section 905 of P.A. 103-563 for effective date of P.A. 103-542; 103-780, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.36) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.36)

Sec. 10-22.36. Buildings for school purposes.

(a) To build or purchase a building for school classroom or instructional purposes upon the approval of a majority of the voters upon the proposition at a referendum held for such purpose or in accordance with Section 17-2.11, 19-3.5, or 19-3.10. The board may initiate such referendum by resolution. The board shall certify the resolution and proposition to the proper election authority for submission in accordance with the general election law.

The questions of building one or more new buildings for school purposes or office facilities, and issuing bonds for the purpose of borrowing money to purchase one or more buildings or sites for such buildings or office sites, to build one or more new buildings for school purposes or office facilities or to make additions and improvements to existing school buildings, may be combined into one or more propositions on the ballot.

Before erecting, or purchasing or remodeling such a building the board shall submit the plans and specifications respecting heating, ventilating, lighting, seating, water supply, toilets and safety against fire to the regional superintendent of schools having supervision and control over the district, for approval in accordance with Section 2-3.12.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, no referendum shall be required if the purchase, construction, or building of any such building (1) occurs while the building is being leased by the school district or (2) is paid with (A) funds derived from the sale or disposition of other buildings, land, or structures of the school district or (B) funds received (i) as a grant under the School Construction Law or (ii) as gifts or donations, provided that no funds to purchase, construct, or build such building, other than lease payments, are derived from the district's bonded indebtedness or the tax levy of the district.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, no referendum shall be required if the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid with funds received from the County School Facility and Resources Occupation Tax Law under Section 5-1006.7 of the Counties Code or from the proceeds of bonds or other debt obligations secured by revenues obtained from that Law.

Notwithstanding any of the foregoing, for Decatur School District Number 61, no referendum shall be required if at least 50% of the cost of the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid, or will be paid, with funds received or expected to be received as part of, or otherwise derived from, any COVID-19 pandemic relief program or funding source, including, but not limited to, Elementary and Secondary School Emergency Relief Fund grant proceeds.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), for any school district: (i) that is a tier 1 school, (ii) that has a population of less than 50,000 inhabitants, (iii) whose student population is between 5,800 and 6,300, (iv) in which 57% to 62% of students are low-income, and (v) whose average district spending is between $10,000 to $12,000 per pupil, until July 1, 2025, no referendum shall be required if at least 50% of the cost of the purchase, construction, or building of any such building is paid, or will be paid, with funds received or expected to be received as part of, or otherwise derived from, the federal Consolidated Appropriations Act and the federal American Rescue Plan Act of 2021.

For this subsection (b), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to construct a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering constructing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school board's Internet website.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (a) and (b), for Cahokia Community Unit School District 187, no referendum shall be required for the lease of any building for school or educational purposes if the cost is paid or will be paid with funds available at the time of the lease in the district's existing fund balances to fund the lease of a building during the 2023-2024 or 2024-2025 school year.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to lease a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering leasing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school district's website.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (a) and (b), for Bloomington School District 87, no referendum shall be required for the purchase, construction, or building of any building for school or education purposes if such cost is paid or will be paid with funds available at the time of contract, purchase, construction, or building in Bloomington School District Number 87's existing fund balances to fund the procurement or requisition of a building or site during the 2022-2023, 2023-2024, or 2024-2025 school year.

For this subsection (d), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to construct a school building and to receive input from the community. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and name or description of the school building that the school board is considering constructing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school board's website.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), for any school district: (i) that is designated as a Tier 1 or Tier 2 school district under Section 18-8.15, (ii) with at least one school that is located on federal property, (iii) whose overall student population is no more than 4,500 students and no less than 2,500 students, and (iv) that receives a federal Public Schools on Military Installations grant until June 30, 2030, no referendum shall be required if at least 75% of the cost of construction or building of any such building is paid or will be paid with funds received or expected to be received from the Public Schools on Military Installations grant.

For this subsection (e), the school board must hold at least 2 public hearings, the sole purpose of which shall be to discuss the decision to construct a school building and to receive input from those community members in attendance. The notice of each public hearing that sets forth the time, date, place, and description of the school construction project must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by publication on the school district's website.

(f) (e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) and (b), beginning September 1, 2024, no referendum shall be required to build or purchase a building for school classroom or instructional purposes if, prior to the building or purchase of the building, the board determines, by resolution, that the building or purchase will result in an increase in pre-kindergarten or kindergarten classroom space in the district.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-699, eff. 7-1-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-509, eff. 8-4-23; 103-591, eff. 7-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-878, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/14A-32)

Sec. 14A-32. Accelerated placement; school district responsibilities.

(a) Each school district shall have a policy that allows for accelerated placement that includes or incorporates by reference the following components:

(1) a provision that provides that participation in accelerated placement is not limited to those children who have been identified as gifted and talented, but rather is open to all children who demonstrate high ability and who may benefit from accelerated placement;

(2) a fair and equitable decision-making process that involves multiple persons and includes a student's parents or guardians;

(3) procedures for notifying parents or guardians of a child of a decision affecting that child's participation in an accelerated placement program; and

(4) an assessment process that includes multiple valid, reliable indicators.

(a-5) By no later than the beginning of the 2023-2024 school year, a school district's accelerated placement policy shall allow for the automatic enrollment, in the following school term, of a student into the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework offered by the high school if the student meets or exceeds State standards in English language arts, mathematics, or science on a State assessment administered under Section 2-3.64a-5 as follows:

(1) A student who exceeds State standards in English language arts shall be automatically enrolled into the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in English, social studies, humanities, or related subjects.

(2) A student who exceeds State standards in mathematics shall be automatically enrolled into the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in mathematics.

(3) A student who exceeds State standards in science shall be automatically enrolled into the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in science.

(a-10) By no later than the beginning of the 2027-2028 school year, a school district's accelerated placement policy shall allow for automatic eligibility, in the following school term, for a student to enroll in the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework offered by the high school if the student meets State standards in English language arts, mathematics, or science on a State assessment administered under Section 2-3.64a-5 as follows:

(1) A student who meets State standards in English language arts shall be automatically eligible to enroll in the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in English, social studies, humanities, or related subjects.

(2) A student who meets State standards in mathematics shall be automatically eligible to enroll in the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in mathematics.

(3) A student who meets State standards in science shall be automatically eligible to enroll in the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in science.

(a-15) For a student entering grade 12, the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework in English language arts or mathematics shall be a dual credit course, as defined in the Dual Credit Quality Act, an Advanced Placement course, as defined in Section 10 of the College and Career Success for All Students Act, or an International Baccalaureate course; otherwise, the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework under this subsection (a-15) may include a dual credit course, as defined in the Dual Credit Quality Act, an Advanced Placement course, as defined in Section 10 of the College and Career Success for All Students Act, an International Baccalaureate course, an honors class, an enrichment opportunity, a gifted program, or another program offered by the district.

A school district may use the student's most recent State assessment results to determine whether a student meets or exceeds State standards. For a student entering grade 9, results from the State assessment taken in grades 6 through 8 may be used. For other high school grades, the results from a locally selected, nationally normed assessment may be used instead of the State assessment if those results are the most recent.

(a-20) A school district's accelerated placement policy may allow for the waiver of a course or unit of instruction completion requirement if (i) completion of the course or unit of instruction is required by this Code or rules adopted by the State Board of Education as a prerequisite to receiving a high school diploma and (ii) the school district has determined that the student has demonstrated mastery of or competency in the content of the course or unit of instruction. The school district shall maintain documentation of this determination of mastery or competency for each student, that shall include identification of the learning standards or competencies reviewed, the methods of measurement used, student performance, the date of the determination, and identification of the district personnel involved in the determination process.

(a-25) A school district's accelerated placement policy must include a process through which the parent or guardian of each student who meets State standards is provided notification in writing of the student's eligibility for enrollment in accelerated courses. This notification must provide details on the procedures for the parent or guardian to enroll or not enroll the student in accelerated courses, in writing, on forms the school district makes available. If no course selection is made by the parent or guardian in accordance with procedures set forth by the school district, the student shall be automatically enrolled in the next most rigorous level of coursework. A school district must provide the parent or guardian of a student eligible for enrollment under subsection (a-5) or (a-10) with the option to instead have the student enroll in alternative coursework that better aligns with the student's postsecondary education or career goals. If applicable, a school district must provide notification to a student's parent or guardian that the student will receive a waiver of a course or unit of instruction completion requirement under subsection subsections (a-5) or (a-10).

Nothing in subsection (a-5) or (a-10) may be interpreted to preclude other students from enrolling in advanced coursework per the policy of a school district.

(a-30) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the implementation of policies that allow for automatic enrollment of students who meet standards on State assessments into the next most rigorous level of advanced coursework offered by a high school.

(b) Further, a school district's accelerated placement policy may include or incorporate by reference, but need not be limited to, the following components:

(1) procedures for annually informing the community at-large, including parents or guardians, community-based organizations, and providers of out-of-school programs, about the accelerated placement program and the methods used for the identification of children eligible for accelerated placement, including strategies to reach groups of students and families who have been historically underrepresented in accelerated placement programs and advanced coursework;

(2) a process for referral that allows for multiple referrers, including a child's parents or guardians; other referrers may include licensed education professionals, the child, with the written consent of a parent or guardian, a peer, through a licensed education professional who has knowledge of the referred child's abilities, or, in case of possible early entrance, a preschool educator, pediatrician, or psychologist who knows the child;

(3) a provision that provides that children participating in an accelerated placement program and their parents or guardians will be provided a written plan detailing the type of acceleration the child will receive and strategies to support the child;

(4) procedures to provide support and promote success for students who are newly enrolled in an accelerated placement program;

(5) a process for the school district to review and utilize disaggregated data on participation in an accelerated placement program to address gaps among demographic groups in accelerated placement opportunities; and

(6) procedures to promote equity, which may incorporate one or more of the following evidence-based practices:

(A) the use of multiple tools to assess exceptional potential and provide several pathways into advanced academic programs when assessing student need for advanced academic or accelerated programming;

(B) providing enrichment opportunities starting in the early grades to address achievement gaps that occur at school entry and provide students with opportunities to demonstrate their advanced potential;

(C) the use of universal screening combined with local school-based norms for placement in accelerated and advanced learning programs;

(D) developing a continuum of services to identify and develop talent in all learners ranging from enriched learning experiences, such as problem-based learning, performance tasks, critical thinking, and career exploration, to accelerated placement and advanced academic programming; and

(E) providing professional learning in gifted education for teachers and other appropriate school personnel to appropriately identify and challenge students from diverse cultures and backgrounds who may benefit from accelerated placement or advanced academic programming.

(c) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules to determine data to be collected and disaggregated by demographic group regarding accelerated placement, including the rates of students who participate in and successfully complete advanced coursework, and a method of making the information available to the public.

(d) On or before November 1, 2022, following a review of disaggregated data on the participation and successful completion rates of students enrolled in an accelerated placement program, each school district shall develop a plan to expand access to its accelerated placement program and to ensure the teaching capacity necessary to meet the increased demand.

(Source: P.A. 102-209, eff. 11-30-21 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-671 for effective date of P.A. 102-209); 103-263, eff. 6-30-23; 103-743, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.15)

Sec. 18-8.15. Evidence-Based Funding for student success for the 2017-2018 and subsequent school years.

(a) General provisions.

(1) The purpose of this Section is to ensure that, by June 30, 2027 and beyond, this State has a kindergarten through grade 12 public education system with the capacity to ensure the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities in accordance with Section 1 of Article X of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. To accomplish that objective, this Section creates a method of funding public education that is evidence-based; is sufficient to ensure every student receives a meaningful opportunity to learn irrespective of race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, gender, or community-income level; and is sustainable and predictable. When fully funded under this Section, every school shall have the resources, based on what the evidence indicates is needed, to:

(A) provide all students with a high quality education that offers the academic, enrichment, social and emotional support, technical, and career-focused programs that will allow them to become competitive workers, responsible parents, productive citizens of this State, and active members of our national democracy;

(B) ensure all students receive the education they need to graduate from high school with the skills required to pursue post-secondary education and training for a rewarding career;

(C) reduce, with a goal of eliminating, the achievement gap between at-risk and non-at-risk students by raising the performance of at-risk students and not by reducing standards; and

(D) ensure this State satisfies its obligation to assume the primary responsibility to fund public education and simultaneously relieve the disproportionate burden placed on local property taxes to fund schools.

(2) The Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section shall be applied to all Organizational Units in this State. The Evidence-Based Funding formula outlined in this Act is based on the formula outlined in Senate Bill 1 of the 100th General Assembly, as passed by both legislative chambers. As further defined and described in this Section, there are 4 major components of the Evidence-Based Funding model:

(A) First, the model calculates a unique Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit in this State that considers the costs to implement research-based activities, the unit's student demographics, and regional wage differences.

(B) Second, the model calculates each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity, or the amount each Organizational Unit is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target from local resources.

(C) Third, the model calculates how much funding the State currently contributes to the Organizational Unit and adds that to the unit's Local Capacity to determine the unit's overall current adequacy of funding.

(D) Finally, the model's distribution method allocates new State funding to those Organizational Units that are least well-funded, considering both Local Capacity and State funding, in relation to their Adequacy Target.

(3) An Organizational Unit receiving any funding under this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that Organizational Unit is authorized to make expenditures by law.

(4) As used in this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed in this paragraph (4):

"Adequacy Target" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Adjusted EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Adjusted Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Adjusted Operating Tax Rate" means a tax rate for all Organizational Units, for which the State Superintendent shall calculate and subtract for the Operating Tax Rate a transportation rate based on total expenses for transportation services under this Code, as reported on the most recent Annual Financial Report in Pupil Transportation Services, function 2550 in both the Education and Transportation funds and functions 4110 and 4120 in the Transportation fund, less any corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code divided by the Adjusted EAV. If an Organizational Unit's corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code exceed the total transportation expenses, as defined in this paragraph, no transportation rate shall be subtracted from the Operating Tax Rate.

"Allocation Rate" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Alternative School" means a public school that is created and operated by a regional superintendent of schools and approved by the State Board.

"Applicable Tax Rate" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Assessment" means any of those benchmark, progress monitoring, formative, diagnostic, and other assessments, in addition to the State accountability assessment, that assist teachers' needs in understanding the skills and meeting the needs of the students they serve.

"Assistant principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as an assistant principal in this State.

"At-risk student" means a student who is at risk of not meeting the Illinois Learning Standards or not graduating from elementary or high school and who demonstrates a need for vocational support or social services beyond that provided by the regular school program. All students included in an Organizational Unit's Low-Income Count, as well as all English learner and disabled students attending the Organizational Unit, shall be considered at-risk students under this Section.

"Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" for fiscal year 2018 means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For fiscal year 2019 and each subsequent fiscal year, "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For the purposes of this definition, "enrolled in the Organizational Unit" means the number of students reported to the State Board who are enrolled in schools within the Organizational Unit that the student attends or would attend if not placed or transferred to another school or program to receive needed services. For the purposes of calculating "ASE", all students, grades K through 12, excluding those attending kindergarten for a half day and students attending an alternative education program operated by a regional office of education or intermediate service center, shall be counted as 1.0. All students attending kindergarten for a half day shall be counted as 0.5, unless in 2017 by June 15 or by March 1 in subsequent years, the school district reports to the State Board of Education the intent to implement full-day kindergarten district-wide for all students, then all students attending kindergarten shall be counted as 1.0. Special education pre-kindergarten students shall be counted as 0.5 each. If the State Board does not collect or has not collected both an October 1 and March 1 enrollment count by grade or a December 1 collection of special education pre-kindergarten students as of August 31, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-465), it shall establish such collection for all future years. For any year in which a count by grade level was collected only once, that count shall be used as the single count available for computing a 3-year average ASE. Funding for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be calculated using the Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section for the 2019-2020 school year and each subsequent school year until separate adequacy formulas are developed and adopted for each type of program. ASE for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be determined by the March 1 enrollment for the program. For the 2019-2020 school year, the ASE used in the calculation must be the first-year ASE and, in that year only, the assignment of students served by a regional office of education or intermediate service center shall not result in a reduction of the March enrollment for any school district. For the 2020-2021 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 2-year average ASE. Beginning with the 2021-2022 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 3-year average ASE. School districts shall submit the data for the ASE calculation to the State Board within 45 days of the dates required in this Section for submission of enrollment data in order for it to be included in the ASE calculation. For fiscal year 2018 only, the ASE calculation shall include only enrollment taken on October 1. In recognition of the impact of COVID-19, the definition of "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" shall be adjusted for calculations under this Section for fiscal years 2022 through 2024. For fiscal years 2022 through 2024, the enrollment used in the calculation of ASE representing the 2020-2021 school year shall be the greater of the enrollment for the 2020-2021 school year or the 2019-2020 school year.

"Base Funding Guarantee" is defined in paragraph (10) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Base Funding Minimum" is defined in subsection (e) of this Section.

"Base Tax Year" means the property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of primary State aid.

"Base Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the county clerk and defined in PTELL.

"Bilingual Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education shall include all additional investments in English learner students' adequacy elements.

"Budget Year" means the school year for which primary State aid is calculated and awarded under this Section.

"Central office" means individual administrators and support service personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations, and security of the Organizational Unit.

"Comparable Wage Index" or "CWI" means a regional cost differentiation metric that measures systemic, regional variations in the salaries of college graduates who are not educators. The CWI utilized for this Section shall, for the first 3 years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, be the CWI initially developed by the National Center for Education Statistics, as most recently updated by Texas A & M University. In the fourth and subsequent years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, the State Superintendent shall re-determine the CWI using a similar methodology to that identified in the Texas A & M University study, with adjustments made no less frequently than once every 5 years.

"Computer technology and equipment" means computers servers, notebooks, network equipment, copiers, printers, instructional software, security software, curriculum management courseware, and other similar materials and equipment.

"Computer technology and equipment investment allocation" means the final Adequacy Target amount of an Organizational Unit assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 in the prior school year attributable to the additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the result of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit assigned to a Tier 1 or Tier 2 final Adequacy Target attributable to the received computer technology and equipment investment grant shall include all additional investments in computer technology and equipment adequacy elements.

"Core subject" means mathematics; science; reading, English, writing, and language arts; history and social studies; world languages; and subjects taught as Advanced Placement in high schools.

"Core teacher" means a regular classroom teacher in elementary schools and teachers of a core subject in middle and high schools.

"Core Intervention teacher (tutor)" means a licensed teacher providing one-on-one or small group tutoring to students struggling to meet proficiency in core subjects.

"CPPRT" means corporate personal property replacement tax funds paid to an Organizational Unit during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

"EAV" means equalized assessed valuation as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section and calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"ECI" means the Bureau of Labor Statistics' national employment cost index for civilian workers in educational services in elementary and secondary schools on a cumulative basis for the 12-month calendar year preceding the fiscal year of the Evidence-Based Funding calculation.

"EIS Data" means the employment information system data maintained by the State Board on educators within Organizational Units.

"Employee benefits" means health, dental, and vision insurance offered to employees of an Organizational Unit, the costs associated with the statutorily required payment of the normal cost of the Organizational Unit's teacher pensions, Social Security employer contributions, and Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund employer contributions.

"English learner" or "EL" means a child included in the definition of "English learners" under Section 14C-2 of this Code participating in a program of transitional bilingual education or a transitional program of instruction meeting the requirements and program application procedures of Article 14C of this Code. For the purposes of collecting the number of EL students enrolled, the same collection and calculation methodology as defined above for "ASE" shall apply to English learners, with the exception that EL student enrollment shall include students in grades pre-kindergarten through 12.

"Essential Elements" means those elements, resources, and educational programs that have been identified through academic research as necessary to improve student success, improve academic performance, close achievement gaps, and provide for other per student costs related to the delivery and leadership of the Organizational Unit, as well as the maintenance and operations of the unit, and which are specified in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Evidence-Based Funding" means State funding provided to an Organizational Unit pursuant to this Section.

"Extended day" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students outside the regular school day before and after school or during non-instructional times during the school day.

"Extension Limitation Ratio" means a numerical ratio in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Extension.

"Final Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Final Resources" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Full-time equivalent" or "FTE" means the full-time equivalency compensation for staffing the relevant position at an Organizational Unit.

"Funding Gap" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

"Hybrid District" means a partial elementary unit district created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code.

"Instructional assistant" means a core or special education, non-licensed employee who assists a teacher in the classroom and provides academic support to students.

"Instructional facilitator" means a qualified teacher or licensed teacher leader who facilitates and coaches continuous improvement in classroom instruction; provides instructional support to teachers in the elements of research-based instruction or demonstrates the alignment of instruction with curriculum standards and assessment tools; develops or coordinates instructional programs or strategies; develops and implements training; chooses standards-based instructional materials; provides teachers with an understanding of current research; serves as a mentor, site coach, curriculum specialist, or lead teacher; or otherwise works with fellow teachers, in collaboration, to use data to improve instructional practice or develop model lessons.

"Instructional materials" means relevant instructional materials for student instruction, including, but not limited to, textbooks, consumable workbooks, laboratory equipment, library books, and other similar materials.

"Laboratory School" means a public school that is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board.

"Librarian" means a teacher with an endorsement as a library information specialist or another individual whose primary responsibility is overseeing library resources within an Organizational Unit.

"Limiting rate for Hybrid Districts" means the combined elementary school and high school limiting rates.

"Local Capacity" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Percentage" is defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Ratio" is defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Low-Income Count" means, for an Organizational Unit in a fiscal year, the higher of the average number of students for the prior school year or the immediately preceding 3 school years who, as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services), are eligible for at least one of the following low-income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services. Until such time that grade level low-income populations become available, grade level low-income populations shall be determined by applying the low-income percentage to total student enrollments by grade level. The low-income percentage is determined by dividing the Low-Income Count by the Average Student Enrollment. The low-income percentage for a regional office of education or an intermediate service center operating one or more alternative education programs must be set to the weighted average of the low-income percentages of all of the school districts in the service region. The weighted low-income percentage is the result of multiplying the low-income percentage of each school district served by the regional office of education or intermediate service center by each school district's Average Student Enrollment, summarizing those products and dividing the total by the total Average Student Enrollment for the service region.

"Maintenance and operations" means custodial services, facility and ground maintenance, facility operations, facility security, routine facility repairs, and other similar services and functions.

"Minimum Funding Level" is defined in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds" means, for any given fiscal year, all State funds appropriated under Section 2-3.170 of this Code.

"New State Funds" means, for a given school year, all State funds appropriated for Evidence-Based Funding in excess of the amount needed to fund the Base Funding Minimum for all Organizational Units in that school year.

"Nurse" means an individual licensed as a certified school nurse, in accordance with the rules established for nursing services by the State Board, who is an employee of and is available to provide health care-related services for students of an Organizational Unit.

"Operating Tax Rate" means the rate utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes. For Hybrid Districts, the Operating Tax Rate shall be the combined elementary and high school rates utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

"Organizational Unit" means a Laboratory School or any public school district that is recognized as such by the State Board and that contains elementary schools typically serving kindergarten through 5th grades, middle schools typically serving 6th through 8th grades, high schools typically serving 9th through 12th grades, a program established under Section 2-3.66 or 2-3.41, or a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center under Article 13A or 13B. The General Assembly acknowledges that the actual grade levels served by a particular Organizational Unit may vary slightly from what is typical.

"Organizational Unit CWI" is determined by calculating the CWI in the region and original county in which an Organizational Unit's primary administrative office is located as set forth in this paragraph, provided that if the Organizational Unit CWI as calculated in accordance with this paragraph is less than 0.9, the Organizational Unit CWI shall be increased to 0.9. Each county's current CWI value shall be adjusted based on the CWI value of that county's neighboring Illinois counties, to create a "weighted adjusted index value". This shall be calculated by summing the CWI values of all of a county's adjacent Illinois counties and dividing by the number of adjacent Illinois counties, then taking the weighted value of the original county's CWI value and the adjacent Illinois county average. To calculate this weighted value, if the number of adjacent Illinois counties is greater than 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.25 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.75. If the number of adjacent Illinois counties is 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.33 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.66. The greater of the county's current CWI value and its weighted adjusted index value shall be used as the Organizational Unit CWI.

"Preceding Tax Year" means the property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Preceding Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate.

"Preliminary Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Preliminary Resources" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as a principal in this State.

"Professional development" means training programs for licensed staff in schools, including, but not limited to, programs that assist in implementing new curriculum programs, provide data focused or academic assessment data training to help staff identify a student's weaknesses and strengths, target interventions, improve instruction, encompass instructional strategies for English learner, gifted, or at-risk students, address inclusivity, cultural sensitivity, or implicit bias, or otherwise provide professional support for licensed staff.

"Prototypical" means 450 special education pre-kindergarten and kindergarten through grade 5 students for an elementary school, 450 grade 6 through 8 students for a middle school, and 600 grade 9 through 12 students for a high school.

"PTELL" means the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"PTELL EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Pupil support staff" means a nurse, psychologist, social worker, family liaison personnel, or other staff member who provides support to at-risk or struggling students.

"Real Receipts" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Regionalization Factor" means, for a particular Organizational Unit, the figure derived by dividing the Organizational Unit CWI by the Statewide Weighted CWI.

"School counselor" means a licensed school counselor who provides guidance and counseling support for students within an Organizational Unit.

"School site staff" means the primary school secretary and any additional clerical personnel assigned to a school.

"Special education" means special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code.

"Special Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education shall include all special education investment adequacy elements.

"Specialist teacher" means a teacher who provides instruction in subject areas not included in core subjects, including, but not limited to, art, music, physical education, health, driver education, career-technical education, and such other subject areas as may be mandated by State law or provided by an Organizational Unit.

"Specially Funded Unit" means an Alternative School, safe school, Department of Juvenile Justice school, special education cooperative or entity recognized by the State Board as a special education cooperative, State-approved charter school, or alternative learning opportunities program that received direct funding from the State Board during the 2016-2017 school year through any of the funding sources included within the calculation of the Base Funding Minimum or Glenwood Academy.

"Supplemental Grant Funding" means supplemental general State aid funding received by an Organizational Unit during the 2016-2017 school year pursuant to subsection (H) of Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed).

"State Adequacy Level" is the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Organizational Units.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"State Superintendent" means the State Superintendent of Education.

"Statewide Weighted CWI" means a figure determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit CWI times the ASE for that Organizational Unit creating a weighted value, summing all Organizational Units' weighted values, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units, thereby creating an average weighted index.

"Student activities" means non-credit producing after-school programs, including, but not limited to, clubs, bands, sports, and other activities authorized by the school board of the Organizational Unit.

"Substitute teacher" means an individual teacher or teaching assistant who is employed by an Organizational Unit and is temporarily serving the Organizational Unit on a per diem or per period-assignment basis to replace another staff member.

"Summer school" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students during the summer months outside of the regular school year.

"Supervisory aide" means a non-licensed staff member who helps in supervising students of an Organizational Unit, but does so outside of the classroom, in situations such as, but not limited to, monitoring hallways and playgrounds, supervising lunchrooms, or supervising students when being transported in buses serving the Organizational Unit.

"Target Ratio" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1", "Tier 2", "Tier 3", and "Tier 4" are defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 2 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 3 Aggregate Funding", and "Tier 4 Aggregate Funding" are defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

(b) Adequacy Target calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target is the sum of the Organizational Unit's cost of providing Essential Elements, as calculated in accordance with this subsection (b), with the salary amounts in the Essential Elements multiplied by a Regionalization Factor calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (b).

(2) The Essential Elements are attributable on a pro rata basis related to defined subgroups of the ASE of each Organizational Unit as specified in this paragraph (2), with investments and FTE positions pro rata funded based on ASE counts in excess of or less than the thresholds set forth in this paragraph (2). The method for calculating attributable pro rata costs and the defined subgroups thereto are as follows:

(A) Core class size investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding required to support that number of FTE core teacher positions as is needed to keep the respective class sizes of the Organizational Unit to the following maximum numbers:

(i) For grades kindergarten through 3, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 15 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 20 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

(ii) For grades 4 through 12, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 20 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 25 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

The number of non-Low-Income Count students in a grade shall be determined by subtracting the Low-Income students in that grade from the ASE of the Organizational Unit for that grade.

(B) Specialist teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover that number of FTE specialist teacher positions that correspond to the following percentages:

(i) if the Organizational Unit operates an elementary or middle school, then 20.00% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers, as determined under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2); and

(ii) if such Organizational Unit operates a high school, then 33.33% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers.

(C) Instructional facilitator investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE instructional facilitator position for every 200 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students of the Organizational Unit.

(D) Core intervention teacher (tutor) investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE teacher position for each prototypical elementary, middle, and high school.

(E) Substitute teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover substitute teacher costs that is equal to 5.70% of the minimum pupil attendance days required under Section 10-19 of this Code for all full-time equivalent core, specialist, and intervention teachers, school nurses, special education teachers and instructional assistants, instructional facilitators, and summer school and extended day teacher positions, as determined under this paragraph (2), at a salary rate of 33.33% of the average salary for grade K through 12 teachers and 33.33% of the average salary of each instructional assistant position.

(F) Core school counselor investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE school counselor for each 450 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 6 through 8 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 9 through 12 ASE high school students.

(G) Nurse investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE nurse for each 750 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students across all grade levels it serves.

(H) Supervisory aide investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE for each 225 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE for each 200 ASE high school students.

(I) Librarian investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE librarian for each prototypical elementary school, middle school, and high school and one FTE aide or media technician for every 300 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(J) Principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical high school.

(K) Assistant principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical high school.

(L) School site staff investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed for one FTE position for each 225 ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE position for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE position for each 200 ASE high school students.

(M) Gifted investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $40 per kindergarten through grade 12 ASE.

(N) Professional development investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $125 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for trainers and other professional development-related expenses for supplies and materials.

(O) Instructional material investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $190 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover instructional material costs.

(P) Assessment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $25 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover assessment costs.

(Q) Computer technology and equipment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs. For the 2018-2019 school year and subsequent school years, Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 and Tier 2 in the prior school year shall receive an additional $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs in the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target. The State Board may establish additional requirements for Organizational Unit expenditures of funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q), including a requirement that funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q) may be used only for serving the technology needs of the district. It is the intent of Public Act 100-465 that all Tier 1 and Tier 2 districts receive the addition to their Adequacy Target in the following year, subject to compliance with the requirements of the State Board.

(R) Student activities investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the following funding amounts to cover student activities: $100 per kindergarten through grade 5 ASE student in elementary school, plus $200 per ASE student in middle school, plus $675 per ASE student in high school.

(S) Maintenance and operations investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $1,038 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for day-to-day maintenance and operations expenditures, including salary, supplies, and materials, as well as purchased services, but excluding employee benefits. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $352.92.

(T) Central office investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $742 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover central office operations, including administrators and classified personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations of the school district, and security personnel. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $368.48.

(U) Employee benefit investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive 30% of the total of all salary-calculated elements of the Adequacy Target, excluding substitute teachers and student activities investments, to cover benefit costs. For central office and maintenance and operations investments, the benefit calculation shall be based upon the salary proportion of each investment. If at any time the responsibility for funding the employer normal cost of teacher pensions is assigned to school districts, then that amount certified by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois to be paid by the Organizational Unit for the preceding school year shall be added to the benefit investment. For any fiscal year in which a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code is responsible for paying the employer normal cost of teacher pensions, then that amount of its employer normal cost plus the amount for retiree health insurance as certified by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago to be paid by the school district for the preceding school year that is statutorily required to cover employer normal costs and the amount for retiree health insurance shall be added to the 30% specified in this subparagraph (U). The Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago shall submit such information as the State Superintendent may require for the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (U).

(V) Additional investments in low-income students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students; and

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students.

(W) Additional investments in English learner students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 English learner students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 English learner students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 English learner students;

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 English learner students; and

(v) one FTE core teacher position for every 100 English learner students.

(X) Special education investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover special education as follows:

(i) one FTE teacher position for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students;

(ii) one FTE instructional assistant for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students; and

(iii) one FTE psychologist position for every 1,000 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(3) For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements, the State Superintendent shall annually calculate average salaries to the nearest dollar using the employment information system data maintained by the State Board, limited to public schools only and excluding special education and vocational cooperatives, schools operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, and charter schools, for the following positions:

(A) Teacher for grades K through 8.

(B) Teacher for grades 9 through 12.

(C) Teacher for grades K through 12.

(D) School counselor for grades K through 8.

(E) School counselor for grades 9 through 12.

(F) School counselor for grades K through 12.

(G) Social worker.

(H) Psychologist.

(I) Librarian.

(J) Nurse.

(K) Principal.

(L) Assistant principal.

For the purposes of this paragraph (3), "teacher" includes core teachers, specialist and elective teachers, instructional facilitators, tutors, special education teachers, pupil support staff teachers, English learner teachers, extended day teachers, and summer school teachers. Where specific grade data is not required for the Essential Elements, the average salary for corresponding positions shall apply. For substitute teachers, the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 shall apply.

For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements for positions not included within EIS Data, the following salaries shall be used in the first year of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding:

(i) school site staff, $30,000; and

(ii) non-instructional assistant, instructional assistant, library aide, library media tech, or supervisory aide: $25,000.

In the second and subsequent years of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding, the amounts in items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph (3) shall annually increase by the ECI.

The salary amounts for the Essential Elements determined pursuant to subparagraphs (A) through (L), (S) and (T), and (V) through (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be multiplied by a Regionalization Factor.

(c) Local Capacity calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity represents an amount of funding it is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target for purposes of the Evidence-Based Funding formula calculation. "Local Capacity" means either (i) the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) if its Real Receipts are equal to or less than its Local Capacity Target or (ii) the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) if Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target.

(2) "Local Capacity Target" means, for an Organizational Unit, that dollar amount that is obtained by multiplying its Adequacy Target by its Local Capacity Ratio.

(A) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Percentage is the conversion of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio, as such ratio is determined in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (2), into a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The calculation of Local Capacity Percentage is described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2).

(B) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio in a given year is the percentage obtained by dividing its Adjusted EAV or PTELL EAV, whichever is less, by its Adequacy Target, with the resulting ratio further adjusted as follows:

(i) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 12 and Hybrid Districts, no further adjustments shall be made;

(ii) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 8, the ratio shall be multiplied by 9/13;

(iii) for Organizational Units serving grades 9 through 12, the Local Capacity Ratio shall be multiplied by 4/13; and

(iv) for an Organizational Unit with a different grade configuration than those specified in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (B), the State Superintendent shall determine a comparable adjustment based on the grades served.

(C) The Local Capacity Percentage is equal to the percentile ranking of the district. Local Capacity Percentage converts each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio to a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The Local Capacity Percentage cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking for each Organizational Unit shall be calculated using the standard normal distribution of the score in relation to the weighted mean and weighted standard deviation and Local Capacity Ratios of all Organizational Units. If the value assigned to any Organizational Unit is in excess of 90%, the value shall be adjusted to 90%. For Laboratory Schools, the Local Capacity Percentage shall be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from the public university that are allocated to the Laboratory School. For a regional office of education or an intermediate service center operating one or more alternative education programs, the Local Capacity Percentage must be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from school districts that are allocated to the regional office of education or intermediate service center. The weighted mean for the Local Capacity Percentage shall be determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio times the ASE for the unit creating a weighted value, summing the weighted values of all Organizational Units, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units. The weighted standard deviation shall be determined by taking the square root of the weighted variance of all Organizational Units' Local Capacity Ratio, where the variance is calculated by squaring the difference between each unit's Local Capacity Ratio and the weighted mean, then multiplying the variance for each unit times the ASE for the unit to create a weighted variance for each unit, then summing all units' weighted variance and dividing by the total ASE of all units.

(D) For any Organizational Unit, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity Target shall be reduced by either (i) the school board's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (ii) of subsection (b-4) of Section 16-158 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year or (ii) the board of education's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (iv) of subsection (b) of Section 17-129 of the Illinois Pension Code absent the employer normal cost portion of the required contribution and amount allowed pursuant to subdivision (3) of Section 17-142.1 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year. In the preceding sentence, item (i) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and item (ii) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of the City of Chicago.

(3) If an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target, then its Local Capacity shall equal an Adjusted Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (3). The Adjusted Local Capacity Target is calculated as the sum of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target and its Real Receipts Adjustment. The Real Receipts Adjustment equals the Organizational Unit's Real Receipts less its Local Capacity Target, with the resulting figure multiplied by the Local Capacity Percentage.

As used in this paragraph (3), "Real Percent of Adequacy" means the sum of an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum, with the resulting figure divided by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target.

(d) Calculation of Real Receipts, EAV, and Adjusted EAV for purposes of the Local Capacity calculation.

(1) An Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are the product of its Applicable Tax Rate and its Adjusted EAV. An Organizational Unit's Applicable Tax Rate is its Adjusted Operating Tax Rate for property within the Organizational Unit.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the equalized assessed valuation, or EAV, of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (d). The State Superintendent shall then determine the Adjusted EAV of each Organizational Unit in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which Adjusted EAV figure shall be used for the purposes of calculating Local Capacity.

(3) To calculate Real Receipts and EAV, the Department of Revenue shall supply to the State Superintendent the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every Organizational Unit, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all Organizational Units subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under PTELL.

(A) The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (i) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that Organizational Unit exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that Organizational Unit if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (I) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (II) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (ii) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each Organizational Unit all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

(B) With respect to any part of an Organizational Unit within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Division 74.4 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Division 74.6 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current EAV of real property located in any such project area that is attributable to an increase above the total initial EAV of such property shall be used as part of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, the total initial EAV or the current EAV, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(B-5) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (B-5).

(C) For Organizational Units that are Hybrid Districts, the State Superintendent shall use the lesser of the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, or the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code.

(D) If a school district's boundaries span multiple counties, then the Department of Revenue shall send to the State Board, for the purposes of calculating Evidence-Based Funding, the limiting rate and individual rates by purpose for the county that contains the majority of the school district's equalized assessed valuation.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years or the lesser of its EAV in the immediately preceding year or the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years if the EAV in the immediately preceding year has declined by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years. In the event of Organizational Unit reorganization, consolidation, or annexation, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV for the first 3 years after such change shall be as follows: the most current EAV shall be used in the first year, the average of a 2-year EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the second year, and the lesser of a 3-year average EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the Adjusted EAV declines by 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years for the third year. For any school district whose EAV in the immediately preceding year is used in calculations, in the following year, the Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 2 years or the immediately preceding year if that year represents a decline of 10% or more when comparing the 2 most recent years.

"PTELL EAV" means a figure calculated by the State Board for Organizational Units subject to PTELL as described in this paragraph (4) for the purposes of calculating an Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (4), the PTELL EAV of an Organizational Unit shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section and the Organizational Unit's Extension Limitation Ratio. If an Organizational Unit has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the PTELL EAV shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section multiplied by an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the equalized assessed valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the equalized assessed valuation of disconnected property.

As used in this paragraph (4), "new property" and "recovered tax increment value" shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

(e) Base Funding Minimum calculation.

(1) For the 2017-2018 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of an Organizational Unit or a Specially Funded Unit shall be the amount of State funds distributed to the Organizational Unit or Specially Funded Unit during the 2016-2017 school year prior to any adjustments and specified appropriation amounts described in this paragraph (1) from the following Sections, as calculated by the State Superintendent: Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed); Section 5 of Article 224 of Public Act 99-524 (equity grants); Section 14-7.02b of this Code (funding for children requiring special education services); Section 14-13.01 of this Code (special education facilities and staffing), except for reimbursement of the cost of transportation pursuant to Section 14-13.01; Section 14C-12 of this Code (English learners); and Section 18-4.3 of this Code (summer school), based on an appropriation level of $13,121,600. For a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, the Base Funding Minimum also includes (i) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to funding programs authorized by the Sections of this Code listed in the preceding sentence and (ii) the difference between (I) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to the funding programs authorized by Section 14-7.02 (non-public special education reimbursement), subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 (special education transportation), Section 29-5 (transportation), Section 2-3.80 (agricultural education), Section 2-3.66 (truants' alternative education), Section 2-3.62 (educational service centers), and Section 14-7.03 (special education - orphanage) of this Code and Section 15 of the Childhood Hunger Relief Act (free breakfast program) and (II) the school district's actual expenditures for its non-public special education, special education transportation, transportation programs, agricultural education, truants' alternative education, services that would otherwise be performed by a regional office of education, special education orphanage expenditures, and free breakfast, as most recently calculated and reported pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 1D-1 of this Code. The Base Funding Minimum for Glenwood Academy shall be $952,014. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Base Funding Minimum must be the total amount of State funds allocated to those programs in the 2018-2019 school year and amounts provided pursuant to Article 34 of Public Act 100-586 and Section 3-16 of this Code. All programs established after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10) and administered by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must have an initial Base Funding Minimum set to an amount equal to the first-year ASE multiplied by the amount of per pupil funding received in the previous school year by the lowest funded similar existing program type. If the enrollment for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center is zero, then it may not receive Base Funding Minimum funds for that program in the next fiscal year, and those funds must be distributed to Organizational Units under subsection (g).

(2) For the 2018-2019 and subsequent school years, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units and Specially Funded Units shall be the sum of (i) the amount of Evidence-Based Funding for the prior school year, (ii) the Base Funding Minimum for the prior school year, and (iii) any amount received by a school district pursuant to Section 7 of Article 97 of Public Act 100-21.

For the 2022-2023 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units shall be the amounts recalculated by the State Board of Education for Fiscal Year 2019 through Fiscal Year 2022 that were necessary due to average student enrollment errors for districts organized under Article 34 of this Code, plus the Fiscal Year 2022 property tax relief grants provided under Section 2-3.170 of this Code, ensuring each Organizational Unit has the correct amount of resources for Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding calculations and that Fiscal Year 2023 Evidence-Based Funding Distributions are made in accordance with this Section.

(3) Subject to approval by the General Assembly as provided in this paragraph (3), an Organizational Unit that meets all of the following criteria, as determined by the State Board, shall have District Intervention Money added to its Base Funding Minimum at the time the Base Funding Minimum is calculated by the State Board:

(A) The Organizational Unit is operating under an Independent Authority under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code for a minimum of 4 school years or is subject to the control of the State Board pursuant to a court order for a minimum of 4 school years.

(B) The Organizational Unit was designated as a Tier 1 or Tier 2 Organizational Unit in the previous school year under paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

(C) The Organizational Unit demonstrates sustainability through a 5-year financial and strategic plan.

(D) The Organizational Unit has made sufficient progress and achieved sufficient stability in the areas of governance, academic growth, and finances.

As part of its determination under this paragraph (3), the State Board may consider the Organizational Unit's summative designation, any accreditations of the Organizational Unit, or the Organizational Unit's financial profile, as calculated by the State Board.

If the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3), it must submit a report to the General Assembly, no later than January 2 of the fiscal year in which the State Board makes it determination, on the amount of District Intervention Money to add to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum. The General Assembly must review the State Board's report and may approve or disapprove, by joint resolution, the addition of District Intervention Money. If the General Assembly fails to act on the report within 40 calendar days from the receipt of the report, the addition of District Intervention Money is deemed approved. If the General Assembly approves the amount of District Intervention Money to be added to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum, the District Intervention Money must be added to the Base Funding Minimum annually thereafter.

For the first 4 years following the initial year that the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3) and has received funding under this Section, the Organizational Unit must annually submit to the State Board, on or before November 30, a progress report regarding its financial and strategic plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (3). The plan shall include the financial data from the past 4 annual financial reports or financial audits that must be presented to the State Board by November 15 of each year and the approved budget financial data for the current year. The plan shall be developed according to the guidelines presented to the Organizational Unit by the State Board. The plan shall further include financial projections for the next 3 fiscal years and include a discussion and financial summary of the Organizational Unit's facility needs. If the Organizational Unit does not demonstrate sufficient progress toward its 5-year plan or if it has failed to file an annual financial report, an annual budget, a financial plan, a deficit reduction plan, or other financial information as required by law, the State Board may establish a Financial Oversight Panel under Article 1H of this Code. However, if the Organizational Unit already has a Financial Oversight Panel, the State Board may extend the duration of the Panel.

(f) Percent of Adequacy and Final Resources calculation.

(1) The Evidence-Based Funding formula establishes a Percent of Adequacy for each Organizational Unit in order to place such units into tiers for the purposes of the funding distribution system described in subsection (g) of this Section. Initially, an Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy are calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (f). Then, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources and Final Percent of Adequacy are calculated to account for the Organizational Unit's poverty concentration levels pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (f).

(2) An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity Target, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum. An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Percent of Adequacy is the lesser of (i) its Preliminary Resources divided by its Adequacy Target or (ii) 100%.

(3) Except for Specially Funded Units, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity, CPPRT, and Adjusted Base Funding Minimum. The Base Funding Minimum of each Specially Funded Unit shall serve as its Final Resources, except that the Base Funding Minimum for State-approved charter schools shall not include any portion of general State aid allocated in the prior year based on the per capita tuition charge times the charter school enrollment.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy is its Final Resources divided by its Adequacy Target. An Organizational Unit's Adjusted Base Funding Minimum is equal to its Base Funding Minimum less its Supplemental Grant Funding, with the resulting figure added to the product of its Supplemental Grant Funding and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy.

(g) Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system.

(1) In each school year under the Evidence-Based Funding formula, each Organizational Unit receives funding equal to the sum of its Base Funding Minimum and the unit's allocation of New State Funds determined pursuant to this subsection (g). To allocate New State Funds, the Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system first places all Organizational Units into one of 4 tiers in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), based on the Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy. New State Funds are allocated to each of the 4 tiers as follows: Tier 1 Aggregate Funding equals 50% of all New State Funds, Tier 2 Aggregate Funding equals 49% of all New State Funds, Tier 3 Aggregate Funding equals 0.9% of all New State Funds, and Tier 4 Aggregate Funding equals 0.1% of all New State Funds. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 1 or Tier 2 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to its tier Funding Gap, as defined in the following sentence, multiplied by the tier's Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g). For Tier 1, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as specified in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources. For Tier 2, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as described in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources and its Tier 1 funding allocation. To determine the Organizational Unit's Funding Gap, the resulting amount is then multiplied by a factor equal to one minus the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target percentage. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 3 or Tier 4 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to the product of its Adequacy Target and the tier's Allocation Rate, as specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(2) To ensure equitable distribution of dollars for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, no Tier 2 Organizational Unit shall receive fewer dollars per ASE than any Tier 3 Organizational Unit. Each Tier 2 and Tier 3 Organizational Unit shall have its funding allocation divided by its ASE. Any Tier 2 Organizational Unit with a funding allocation per ASE below the greatest Tier 3 allocation per ASE shall get a funding allocation equal to the greatest Tier 3 funding allocation per ASE multiplied by the Organizational Unit's ASE. Each Tier 2 Organizational Unit's Tier 2 funding allocation shall be multiplied by the percentage calculated by dividing the original Tier 2 Aggregate Funding by the sum of all Tier 2 Organizational Units' Tier 2 funding allocation after adjusting districts' funding below Tier 3 levels.

(3) Organizational Units are placed into one of 4 tiers as follows:

(A) Tier 1 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy less than the Tier 1 Target Ratio. The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed, with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(B) Tier 2 consists of all Tier 1 Units and all other Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of less than 0.90.

(C) Tier 3 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 0.90 and less than 1.0.

(D) Tier 4 consists of all Organizational Units with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 1.0.

(4) The Allocation Rates for Tiers 1 through 4 are determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Allocation Rate is 30%.

(B) The Tier 2 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 2 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Funding Gaps for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, unless the result of such equation is higher than 1.0. If the result of such equation is higher than 1.0, then the Tier 2 Allocation Rate is 1.0.

(C) The Tier 3 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 3 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 3 Organizational Units.

(D) The Tier 4 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 4 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(5) A tier's Target Ratio is determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate.

(B) The Tier 2 Target Ratio is 0.90.

(C) The Tier 3 Target Ratio is 1.0.

(6) If, at any point, the Tier 1 Target Ratio is greater than 90%, then all Tier 1 funding shall be allocated to Tier 2 and no Tier 1 Organizational Unit's funding may be identified.

(7) In the event that all Tier 2 Organizational Units receive funding at the Tier 2 Target Ratio level, any remaining New State Funds shall be allocated to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(8) If any Specially Funded Units, excluding Glenwood Academy, recognized by the State Board do not qualify for direct funding following the implementation of Public Act 100-465 from any of the funding sources included within the definition of Base Funding Minimum, the unqualified portion of the Base Funding Minimum shall be transferred to one or more appropriate Organizational Units as determined by the State Superintendent based on the prior year ASE of the Organizational Units.

(8.5) If a school district withdraws from a special education cooperative, the portion of the Base Funding Minimum that is attributable to the school district may be redistributed to the school district upon withdrawal. The school district and the cooperative must include the amount of the Base Funding Minimum that is to be reapportioned in their withdrawal agreement and notify the State Board of the change with a copy of the agreement upon withdrawal.

(9) The Minimum Funding Level is intended to establish a target for State funding that will keep pace with inflation and continue to advance equity through the Evidence-Based Funding formula. The target for State funding of New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds is $50,000,000 for State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years. The Minimum Funding Level is equal to $350,000,000. In addition to any New State Funds, no more than $50,000,000 New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds may be counted toward the Minimum Funding Level. If the sum of New State Funds and applicable New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds are less than the Minimum Funding Level, than funding for tiers shall be reduced in the following manner:

(A) First, Tier 4 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds until such time as Tier 4 funding is exhausted.

(B) Next, Tier 3 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 funding until such time as Tier 3 funding is exhausted.

(C) Next, Tier 2 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 and Tier 3.

(D) Finally, Tier 1 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 2, 3, and 4 funding. In addition, the Allocation Rate for Tier 1 shall be reduced to a percentage equal to the Tier 1 Allocation Rate set by paragraph (4) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the result of New State Funds divided by the Minimum Funding Level.

(9.5) For State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years, if New State Funds exceed $300,000,000, then any amount in excess of $300,000,000 shall be dedicated for purposes of Section 2-3.170 of this Code up to a maximum of $50,000,000.

(10) In the event of a decrease in the amount of the appropriation for this Section in any fiscal year after implementation of this Section, the Organizational Units receiving Tier 1 and Tier 2 funding, as determined under paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), shall be held harmless by establishing a Base Funding Guarantee equal to the per pupil kindergarten through grade 12 funding received in accordance with this Section in the prior fiscal year. Reductions shall be made to the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units in Tier 3 and Tier 4 on a per pupil basis equivalent to the total number of the ASE in Tier 3-funded and Tier 4-funded Organizational Units divided by the total reduction in State funding. The Base Funding Minimum as reduced shall continue to be applied to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units and adjusted by the relative formula when increases in appropriations for this Section resume. In no event may State funding reductions to Organizational Units in Tier 3 or Tier 4 exceed an amount that would be less than the Base Funding Minimum established in the first year of implementation of this Section. If additional reductions are required, all school districts shall receive a reduction by a per pupil amount equal to the aggregate additional appropriation reduction divided by the total ASE of all Organizational Units.

(11) The State Superintendent shall make minor adjustments to the distribution formula set forth in this subsection (g) to account for the rounding of percentages to the nearest tenth of a percentage and dollar amounts to the nearest whole dollar.

(h) State Superintendent administration of funding and district submission requirements.

(1) The State Superintendent shall, in accordance with appropriations made by the General Assembly, meet the funding obligations created under this Section.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit under this Section. No Evidence-Based Funding shall be distributed within an Organizational Unit without the approval of the unit's school board.

(3) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the unit's aggregate financial adequacy amount, which shall be the sum of the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the unit's total State funds allocated for its students with disabilities. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the amount of funding and applicable FTE calculated for each Essential Element of the unit's Adequacy Target.

(4) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the amount the unit must expend on special education and bilingual education and computer technology and equipment for Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 that received an additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant to their Adequacy Target pursuant to the unit's Base Funding Minimum, Special Education Allocation, Bilingual Education Allocation, and computer technology and equipment investment allocation.

(5) Moneys distributed under this Section shall be calculated on a school year basis, but paid on a fiscal year basis, with payments beginning in August and extending through June. Unless otherwise provided, the moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed in 22 equal payments at least 2 times monthly to each Organizational Unit. If moneys appropriated for any fiscal year are distributed other than monthly, the distribution shall be on the same basis for each Organizational Unit.

(6) Any school district that fails, for any given school year, to maintain school as required by law or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to receive Evidence-Based Funding. In case of non-recognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion that the enrollment in the attendance center or centers bears to the enrollment of the school district. "Recognized school" means any public school that meets the standards for recognition by the State Board. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim that was filed while it was recognized.

(7) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12 of this Code, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(8) Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent shall calculate for each Organizational Unit an amount of its Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. An Organizational Unit must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board.

(9) All Organizational Units in this State must submit annual spending plans, as part of the budget submission process, no later than October 31 of each year to the State Board. The spending plan shall describe how each Organizational Unit will utilize the Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding it receives from this State under this Section with specific identification of the intended utilization of Low-Income, English learner, and special education resources. Additionally, the annual spending plans of each Organizational Unit shall describe how the Organizational Unit expects to achieve student growth and how the Organizational Unit will achieve State education goals, as defined by the State Board, and shall indicate which stakeholder groups the Organizational Unit engaged with to inform its annual spending plans. The State Superintendent may, from time to time, identify additional requisites for Organizational Units to satisfy when compiling the annual spending plans required under this subsection (h). The format and scope of annual spending plans shall be developed by the State Superintendent and the State Board of Education. School districts that serve students under Article 14C of this Code shall continue to submit information as required under Section 14C-12 of this Code. Annual spending plans required under this subsection (h) shall be integrated into annual school district budgets completed pursuant to Section 17-1 or Section 34-43. Organizational Units that do not submit a budget to the State Board shall be provided with a separate planning template developed by the State Board. The State Board shall create an Evidence-Based Funding spending plan tool to make Evidence-Based Funding spending plan data for each Organizational Unit available on the State Board's website no later than December 31, 2025, with annual updates thereafter. The tool shall allow for the selection and review of each Organizational Unit's planned use of Evidence-Based Funding.

(10) No later than January 1, 2018, the State Superintendent shall develop a 5-year strategic plan for all Organizational Units to help in planning for adequacy funding under this Section. The State Superintendent shall submit the plan to the Governor and the General Assembly, as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. The plan shall include recommendations for:

(A) a framework for collaborative, professional, innovative, and 21st century learning environments using the Evidence-Based Funding model;

(B) ways to prepare and support this State's educators for successful instructional careers;

(C) application and enhancement of the current financial accountability measures, the approved State plan to comply with the federal Every Student Succeeds Act, and the Illinois Balanced Accountability Measures in relation to student growth and elements of the Evidence-Based Funding model; and

(D) implementation of an effective school adequacy funding system based on projected and recommended funding levels from the General Assembly.

(11) On an annual basis, the State Superintendent must recalibrate all of the following per pupil elements of the Adequacy Target and applied to the formulas, based on the study of average expenses and as reported in the most recent annual financial report:

(A) Gifted under subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(B) Instructional materials under subparagraph (O) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(C) Assessment under subparagraph (P) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(D) Student activities under subparagraph (R) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(E) Maintenance and operations under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(F) Central office under subparagraph (T) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(i) Professional Review Panel.

(1) A Professional Review Panel is created to study and review topics related to the implementation and effect of Evidence-Based Funding, as assigned by a joint resolution or Public Act of the General Assembly or a motion passed by the State Board of Education. The Panel must provide recommendations to and serve the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board. The State Superintendent or his or her designee must serve as a voting member and chairperson of the Panel. The State Superintendent must appoint a vice chairperson from the membership of the Panel. The Panel must advance recommendations based on a three-fifths majority vote of Panel members present and voting. A minority opinion may also accompany any recommendation of the Panel. The Panel shall be appointed by the State Superintendent, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (i) and include the following members:

(A) Two appointees that represent district superintendents, recommended by a statewide organization that represents district superintendents.

(B) Two appointees that represent school boards, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school boards.

(C) Two appointees from districts that represent school business officials, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school business officials.

(D) Two appointees that represent school principals, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school principals.

(E) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by a statewide organization that represents teachers.

(F) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by another statewide organization that represents teachers.

(G) Two appointees that represent regional superintendents of schools, recommended by organizations that represent regional superintendents.

(H) Two independent experts selected solely by the State Superintendent.

(I) Two independent experts recommended by public universities in this State.

(J) One member recommended by a statewide organization that represents parents.

(K) Two representatives recommended by collective impact organizations that represent major metropolitan areas or geographic areas in Illinois.

(L) One member from a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(M) One representative from a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

The State Superintendent shall ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives from school districts and communities reflecting the geographic, socio-economic, racial, and ethnic diversity of this State. The State Superintendent shall additionally ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives with expertise in bilingual education and special education. Staff from the State Board shall staff the Panel.

(2) In addition to those Panel members appointed by the State Superintendent, 4 members of the General Assembly shall be appointed as follows: one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate, one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and one member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate. There shall be one additional member appointed by the Governor. All members appointed by legislative leaders or the Governor shall be non-voting, ex officio members.

(3) The Panel must study topics at the direction of the General Assembly or State Board of Education, as provided under paragraph (1). The Panel may also study the following topics at the direction of the chairperson:

(A) The format and scope of annual spending plans referenced in paragraph (9) of subsection (h) of this Section.

(B) The Comparable Wage Index under this Section.

(C) Maintenance and operations, including capital maintenance and construction costs.

(D) "At-risk student" definition.

(E) Benefits.

(F) Technology.

(G) Local Capacity Target.

(H) Funding for Alternative Schools, Laboratory Schools, safe schools, and alternative learning opportunities programs.

(I) Funding for college and career acceleration strategies.

(J) Special education investments.

(K) Early childhood investments, in collaboration with the Illinois Early Learning Council.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Within 5 years after the implementation of this Section, and every 5 years thereafter, the Panel shall complete an evaluative study of the entire Evidence-Based Funding model, including an assessment of whether or not the formula is achieving State goals. The Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of the study.

(6) (Blank).

(7) To ensure that (i) the Adequacy Target calculation under subsection (b) accurately reflects the needs of students living in poverty or attending schools located in areas of high poverty, (ii) racial equity within the Evidence-Based Funding formula is explicitly explored and advanced, and (iii) the funding goals of the formula distribution system established under this Section are sufficient to provide adequate funding for every student and to fully fund every school in this State, the Panel shall review the Essential Elements under paragraph (2) of subsection (b). The Panel shall consider all of the following in its review:

(A) The financial ability of school districts to provide instruction in a foreign language to every student and whether an additional Essential Element should be added to the formula to ensure that every student has access to instruction in a foreign language.

(B) The adult-to-student ratio for each Essential Element in which a ratio is identified. The Panel shall consider whether the ratio accurately reflects the staffing needed to support students living in poverty or who have traumatic backgrounds.

(C) Changes to the Essential Elements that may be required to better promote racial equity and eliminate structural racism within schools.

(D) The impact of investing $350,000,000 in additional funds each year under this Section and an estimate of when the school system will become fully funded under this level of appropriation.

(E) Provide an overview of alternative funding structures that would enable the State to become fully funded at an earlier date.

(F) The potential to increase efficiency and to find cost savings within the school system to expedite the journey to a fully funded system.

(G) The appropriate levels for reenrolling and graduating high-risk high school students who have been previously out of school. These outcomes shall include enrollment, attendance, skill gains, credit gains, graduation or promotion to the next grade level, and the transition to college, training, or employment, with an emphasis on progressively increasing the overall attendance.

(H) The evidence-based or research-based practices that are shown to reduce the gaps and disparities experienced by African American students in academic achievement and educational performance, including practices that have been shown to reduce disparities in disciplinary rates, drop-out rates, graduation rates, college matriculation rates, and college completion rates.

On or before December 31, 2021, the Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of its review. This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2022.

(8) On or before April 1, 2024, the Panel must submit a report to the General Assembly on annual adjustments to Glenwood Academy's base-funding minimum in a similar fashion to school districts under this Section.

(j) References. Beginning July 1, 2017, references in other laws to general State aid funds or calculations under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) shall be deemed to be references to evidence-based model formula funds or calculations under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-33, eff. 6-25-21; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 102-782, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-780, eff. 8-2-24; 103-802, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in the Local Government Debt Limitation Act.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(a-5) After January 1, 2018, no school district may issue bonds under Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code and rely on an exception to the debt limitations in this Section unless it has complied with the requirements of Section 21 of the Bond Issue Notification Act and the bonds have been approved by referendum.

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of August 14, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-757).

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-105) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, North Shore School District 112 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $150,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of new buildings and improving the sites thereof and the building and equipping of additions to, altering, repairing, equipping, and renovating existing buildings and improving the sites thereof are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $150,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-110) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Sandoval Community Unit School District 501 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 20, 2012.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required because of the age and current condition of the Sandoval Elementary School building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 19, 2022, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the election held on March 20, 2012.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-110) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund the bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-115) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Bureau Valley Community Unit School District 340 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $25,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuances of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the renovating and equipping of some existing school buildings, the building and equipping of new school buildings, and the demolishing of some existing school buildings are required as a result of the age and condition of existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2021, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $25,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-120) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Paxton-Buckley-Loda Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $28,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects as described in said proposition, relating to the building and equipping of one or more school buildings or additions to existing school buildings, are required as a result of the age and condition of the District's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $28,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-125) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hillsboro Community Unit School District 3 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $34,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) altering, repairing, and equipping the high school agricultural/vocational building, demolishing the high school main, cafeteria, and gym buildings, building and equipping a school building, and improving sites are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $34,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-130) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Waltham Community Consolidated School District 185 may incur indebtedness in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $9,500,000 to build and equip a new school building and improve the site thereof, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) A majority of the voters of the district voting on an advisory question voted in favor of the question regarding the use of funding sources to build a new school building without increasing property tax rates at the general election held on November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board enters into intergovernmental agreements with the City of LaSalle to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing districts LaSalle I and LaSalle III and with the Village of Utica to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing district Utica I for the purposes of repaying the debt issued pursuant to this subsection (p-130). Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the intergovernmental agreement may extend these tax increment financing districts as necessary to ensure repayment of the debt.

(3) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the debt is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(4) The debt is incurred, in one or more issuances, not later than January 1, 2021, and the aggregate principal amount of debt issued in all such issuances combined must not exceed $9,500,000.

The debt incurred under this subsection (p-130) and on any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Debt issued under this subsection (p-130) and any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-11 of this Code and subsection (b) of Section 17 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, to the contrary.

(p-133) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds heretofore or hereafter issued by East Prairie School District 73 with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,353,147 and approved by the voters of the district at the general election held on November 8, 2016, and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund the bonds, shall not be considered indebtedness for the purposes of any statutory debt limitation and may mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-135) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Brookfield LaGrange Park School District Number 95 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $20,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 4, 2017.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the additions and renovations to the Brook Park Elementary and S. E. Gross Middle School buildings are required to accommodate enrollment growth, replace outdated facilities, and create spaces consistent with 21st century learning and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $20,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 4, 2017.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-135) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-140) The debt incurred on any bonds issued by Wolf Branch School District 113 under Section 17-2.11 of this Code for the purpose of repairing or replacing all or a portion of a school building that has been damaged by mine subsidence in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000 and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation and must mature no later than 25 years from the date of issuance, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, including Section 19-3 of this Code. The maximum allowable amount of debt exempt from statutory debt limitations under this subsection (p-140) shall be reduced by an amount equal to any grants awarded by the State Board of Education or Capital Development Board for the explicit purpose of repairing or reconstructing a school building damaged by mine subsidence.

(p-145) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Greenview Community Unit School District 200 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $3,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the bonding is necessary for construction and expansion of the district's kindergarten through grade 12 facility.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $3,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-145) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-145) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-150) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Komarek School District 94 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $20,800,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) building and equipping additions to, altering, repairing, equipping, or demolishing a portion of, or improving the site of the district's existing school building is required as a result of the age and condition of the existing building and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, no later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all of the bond issuances combined may not exceed $20,800,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-150) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds may not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, including Section 19-3, bonds issued under this subsection (p-150) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds must mature within 30 years from their date of issuance.

(p-155) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Williamsville Community Unit School District 15 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $40,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $40,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-155) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-155) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-160) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Berkeley School District 87 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $105,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held on March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) building and equipping a school building to replace the Sunnyside Intermediate and MacArthur Middle School buildings; building and equipping additions to and altering, repairing, and equipping the Riley Intermediate and Northlake Middle School buildings; altering, repairing, and equipping the Whittier Primary and Jefferson Primary School buildings; improving sites; renovating instructional spaces; providing STEM (science, technology, engineering, and mathematics) labs; and constructing life safety, security, and infrastructure improvements are required to replace outdated facilities and to provide safe spaces consistent with 21st century learning and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $105,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-160) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-165) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Elmwood Park Community Unit School District 401 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of an addition to the John Mills Elementary School building; the renovating, altering, repairing, and equipping of the John Mills and Elmwood Elementary School buildings; the installation of safety and security improvements; and the improvement of school sites are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-165) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-165) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-170) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Maroa-Forsyth Community Unit School District 2 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $33,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $33,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-170) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-170) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-175) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Schiller Park School District 81 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) building and equipping a school building to replace the Washington Elementary School building, installing fire suppression systems, security systems, and federal Americans with Disability Act of 1990 compliance measures, acquiring land, and improving the site are required to accommodate enrollment growth, replace an outdated facility, and create spaces consistent with 21st century learning and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 17, 2020.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-175) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-175) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 27 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-180) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Iroquois County Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,125,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 6, 2021.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) building and equipping a new school building in the City of Watseka; altering, repairing, renovating, and equipping portions of the existing facilities of the district; and making site improvements is necessary because of the age and condition of the district's existing school facilities and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,125,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 6, 2021.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-180) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-180) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-185) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Field Community Consolidated School District 3 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,600,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 6, 2021.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) it is necessary to alter, repair, renovate, and equip the existing facilities of the district, including, but not limited to, roof replacement, lighting replacement, electrical upgrades, restroom repairs, and gym renovations, and make site improvements because of the age and condition of the district's existing school facilities and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,600,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 6, 2021.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-185) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-185) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-190) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mahomet-Seymour Community Unit School District 3 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $97,900,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) it is necessary to build and equip a new junior high school building, build and equip a new transportation building, and build and equip additions to, renovate, and make site improvements at the Lincoln Trail Elementary building, Middletown Prairie Elementary building, and Mahomet-Seymour High School building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $97,900,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-190) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-190) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-195) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, New Berlin Community Unit School District 16 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $23,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) it is necessary to alter, repair, and equip the junior/senior high school building, including creating new classroom, gym, and other instructional spaces, renovating the J.V. Kirby Pretzel Dome, improving heating, cooling, and ventilation systems, installing school safety and security improvements, removing asbestos, and making site improvements, and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $23,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-195) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-195) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-200) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Highland Community Unit School District 5 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $40,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) it is necessary to improve the sites of, build, and equip a new primary school building and build and equip additions to and alter, repair, and equip existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $40,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-200) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-200) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-205) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Sullivan Community Unit School District 300 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $25,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects set forth in the proposition for the issuance of the bonds are required because of the age, condition, or capacity of the school district's existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $25,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-205) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-205) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-210) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Manhattan School District 114 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $85,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age, condition, or capacity of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuances of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $85,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-210) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-210) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-215) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Golf Elementary School District 67 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $56,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) it is necessary to build and equip a new school building and improve the site thereof and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $56,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after June 28, 2022.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-215) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-215) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-220) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Joliet Public Schools District 86 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $99,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 4, 2023.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $99,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 4, 2023.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-220), and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds, shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-220) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-225) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Union Ridge School District 86 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 19, 2024.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 19, 2024.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-225) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limit limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-225) and any bonds issued issue to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-230) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Bethel School District 82 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $3,975,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 19, 2024.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that the projects set forth in the proposition for the bond issuance were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's existing school buildings.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $3,975,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only the projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 19, 2024.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-230) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limit limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-230) and any bonds issued issue to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-235) (p-225) Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, debt incurred on any bonds issued under Section 19-3 of this Code and authorized by an election held on or after November 5, 2024, and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds, shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under Section 19-3 of this Code and authorized by an election held on or after November 5, 2024, and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 102-316, eff. 8-6-21; 102-949, eff. 5-27-22; 103-449, eff. 1-1-24; 103-591, eff. 7-1-24; 103-978, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-50)

Sec. 21B-50. Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(a) There is established an alternative educator licensure program, to be known as the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(b) The Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers may be offered by a recognized institution approved to offer educator preparation programs by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The program shall be comprised of up to 3 phases:

(1) A course of study that at a minimum includes instructional planning; instructional strategies, including special education, reading, and English language learning; classroom management; and the assessment of students and use of data to drive instruction.

(2) A year of residency, which is a candidate's assignment to a full-time teaching position or as a co-teacher for one full school year. An individual must hold an Educator License with Stipulations with an alternative provisional educator endorsement in order to enter the residency. In residency, the candidate must be assigned an effective, fully licensed teacher by the principal or principal equivalent to act as a mentor and coach the candidate through residency, complete additional program requirements that address required State and national standards, pass the State Board's teacher performance assessment, if required under Section 21B-30, and be recommended by the principal or qualified equivalent of a principal, as required under subsection (d) of this Section, and the program coordinator to be recommended for full licensure or to continue with a second year of the residency.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A comprehensive assessment of the candidate's teaching effectiveness, as evaluated by the principal or qualified equivalent of a principal, as required under subsection (d) of this Section, and the program coordinator, at the end of either the first or the second year of residency. If there is disagreement between the 2 evaluators about the candidate's teaching effectiveness at the end of the first year of residency, a second year of residency shall be required. If there is disagreement between the 2 evaluators at the end of the second year of residency, the candidate may complete one additional year of residency teaching under a professional development plan developed by the principal or qualified equivalent and the preparation program. At the completion of the third year, a candidate must have positive evaluations and a recommendation for full licensure from both the principal or qualified equivalent and the program coordinator or no Professional Educator License shall be issued.

Successful completion of the program shall be deemed to satisfy any other practice or student teaching and content matter requirements established by law.

(c) An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for up to 2 years of teaching in the public schools, including without limitation a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or Section 15-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act or charter school, or in a State-recognized nonpublic school in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and in which a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State, but may be renewed for a third year if needed to complete the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers. The endorsement shall be issued only once to an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Has graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a bachelor's degree or higher.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Has completed a major in the content area if seeking a middle or secondary level endorsement or, if seeking an early childhood, elementary, or special education endorsement, has completed a major in the content area of early childhood reading, English/language arts, mathematics, or one of the sciences. If the individual does not have a major in a content area for any level of teaching, he or she must submit transcripts to the State Board of Education to be reviewed for equivalency.

(4) Has successfully completed phase (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(5) Has passed a content area test required for the specific endorsement, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A candidate possessing the alternative provisional educator endorsement may receive a salary, benefits, and any other terms of employment offered to teachers in the school who are members of an exclusive bargaining representative, if any, but a school is not required to provide these benefits during the years of residency if the candidate is serving only as a co-teacher. If the candidate is serving as the teacher of record, the candidate must receive a salary, benefits, and any other terms of employment. Residency experiences must not be counted towards tenure.

(d) The recognized institution offering the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers must partner with a school district, including without limitation a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or Section 15-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act or charter school, or a State-recognized, nonpublic school in this State in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and in which a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State. A recognized institution that partners with a public school district administering a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or Section 15-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act must require a principal to recommend or evaluate candidates in the program. A recognized institution that partners with an eligible entity administering a preschool educational program under Section 2-3.71 of this Code or Section 15-30 of the Department of Early Childhood Act and that is not a public school district must require a principal or qualified equivalent of a principal to recommend or evaluate candidates in the program. The program presented for approval by the State Board of Education must demonstrate the supports that are to be provided to assist the provisional teacher during the one-year or 2-year residency period and if the residency period is to be less than 2 years in length, assurances from the partner school districts to provide intensive mentoring and supports through at least the end of the second full year of teaching for educators who completed the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers in less than 2 years. These supports must, at a minimum, provide additional contact hours with mentors during the first year of residency.

(e) Upon completion of phases under paragraphs (1), (2), (4), and, if needed, (3) in subsection (b) of this Section and all assessments required under Section 21B-30 of this Code, an individual shall receive a Professional Educator License.

(f) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish and implement the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers.

(Source: P.A. 103-111, eff. 6-29-23; 103-488, eff. 8-4-23; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-780, eff. 8-2-24; revised 8-12-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-94)

Sec. 22-94. Employment history review.

(a) This Section applies to all permanent and temporary positions for employment with a school or a contractor of a school involving direct contact with children or students.

(b) In this Section:

"Contractor" means firms holding contracts with any school including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct contact with children or students.

"Direct contact with children or students" means the possibility of care, supervision, guidance, or control of children or students or routine interaction with children or students.

"School" means a public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school.

"Sexual misconduct" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (c) of Section 22-85.5 of this Code.

(c) Prior to hiring an applicant to work directly with children or students, a school or contractor must ensure that the following criteria are met:

(1) the school or contractor has no knowledge or information pertaining to the applicant that would disqualify the applicant from employment;

(2) the applicant swears or affirms that the applicant is not disqualified from employment;

(3) using the template developed by the State Board of Education, the applicant provides all of the following:

(A) a list, including the name, address, telephone number, and other relevant contact information of the following:

(i) the applicant's current employer;

(ii) all former employers of the applicant that were schools or school contractors, as well as all former employers at which the applicant had direct contact with children or students;

(B) A written authorization that consents to and authorizes disclosure by the applicant's current and former employers under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3) of the information requested under paragraph (4) of this subsection (c) and the release of related records and that releases those employers from any liability that may arise from such disclosure or release of records pursuant to subsection (e).

(C) A written statement of whether the applicant:

(i) has been the subject of a sexual misconduct allegation, unless a subsequent investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated;

(ii) has ever been discharged from, been asked to resign from, resigned from, or otherwise been separated from any employment, has ever been disciplined by an employer, or has ever had an employment contract not renewed due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated; or

(iii) has ever had a license or certificate suspended, surrendered, or revoked or had an application for licensure, approval, or endorsement denied due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated.

(4) The school or contractor shall initiate a review of the employment history of the applicant by contacting those employers listed by the applicant under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) and, using the template developed by the State Board of Education, request all of the following information:

(A) the dates of employment of the applicant;

(B) a statement as to whether the applicant:

(i) has been the subject of a sexual misconduct allegation, unless a subsequent investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated;

(ii) was discharged from, was asked to resign from, resigned from, or was otherwise separated from any employment, was disciplined by the employer, or had an employment contract not renewed due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated; or

(iii) has ever had a license or certificate suspended, surrendered, or revoked due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated.

(C) The template shall include the following option: if the employer does not have records or evidence regarding the questions in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) of subsection (c), the employer may state that there is no knowledge of information pertaining to the applicant that would disqualify the applicant from employment.

(5) For applicants licensed by the State Board of Education, the school district, charter school, or nonpublic school shall verify the applicant's reported previous employers with previous employers in the State Board of Education's educator licensure database to ensure accuracy.

(d) An applicant who provides false information or willfully fails to disclose information required in subsection (c) shall be subject to discipline, up to and including termination or denial of employment.

(e) No later than 20 days after receiving a request for information required under paragraph (4) of subsection (c), an employer who has or had an employment relationship with the applicant shall disclose the information requested. If the employer has an office of human resources or a central office, information shall be provided by that office. The employer who has or had an employment relationship with the applicant shall disclose the information on the template developed by the State Board of Education. For any affirmative response to items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) or subsection (c), the employer who has or had an employment relationship with the applicant shall provide additional information about the matters disclosed and all related records.

A school shall complete the template at time of separation from employment, or at the request of the employee, and maintain it as part of the employee's personnel file. If the school completes an investigation after an employee's separation from employment, the school shall update the information accordingly.

Information received under this Section shall not be deemed a public record.

A school or contractor who receives information under this subsection (e) may use the information for the purpose of evaluating an applicant's fitness to be hired or for continued employment and may report the information, as appropriate, to the State Board of Education, a State licensing agency, a law enforcement agency, a child protective services agency, another school or contractor, or a prospective employer.

An employer, school, school administrator, or contractor who provides information or records about a current or former employee or applicant under this Section is immune from criminal and civil liability for the disclosure of the information or records, unless the information or records provided were knowingly false. This immunity shall be in addition to and not a limitation on any other immunity provided by law or any absolute or conditional privileges applicable to the disclosure by virtue of the circumstances or the applicant's consent to the disclosure and shall extent to any circumstances when the employer, school, school administrator, or contractor in good faith shares findings of sexual misconduct with another employer.

Unless the laws of another state prevent the release of the information or records requested or disclosure is restricted by the terms of a contract entered into prior to July 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-702) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, and notwithstanding any other provisions of law to the contrary, an employer, school, school administrator, contractor, or applicant shall report and disclose, in accordance with this Section, all relevant information, records, and documentation that may otherwise be confidential.

(f) A school or contractor may not hire an applicant who does not provide the information required under subsection (c) for a position involving direct contact with children or students.

(g) Beginning on July 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-702) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, a school or contractor may not enter into a collective bargaining agreement, an employment contract, an agreement for resignation or termination, a severance agreement, or any other contract or agreement or take any action that:

(1) has the effect of suppressing information concerning a pending investigation or a completed investigation in which an allegation was substantiated related to a report of suspected sexual misconduct by a current or former employee;

(2) affects the ability of the school or contractor to report suspected sexual misconduct to the appropriate authorities; or

(3) requires the school or contractor to expunge information about allegations or findings of suspected sexual misconduct from any documents maintained by the school or contractor, unless, after an investigation, an allegation is found to be false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated.

(h) Any provision of an employment contract or agreement for resignation or termination or a severance agreement that is executed, amended, or entered into on or after July 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-702) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and that is contrary to this Section is void and unenforceable.

(i) For substitute employees, all of the following apply:

(1) The employment history review required by this Section is required only prior to the initial hiring of a substitute employee or placement on a school's approved substitute list and shall remain valid as long as the substitute employee continues to be employed by the same school or remains on the school's approved substitute list.

(2) A substitute employee seeking to be added to another school's substitute list shall undergo an additional employment history review under this Section. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (i) or in subsection (k), the appearance of a substitute employee on one school's substitute list does not relieve another school from compliance with this Section.

(3) An employment history review conducted upon initial hiring of a substitute employee by a contractor or any other entity that furnishes substitute staffing services to schools shall satisfy the requirements of this Section for all schools using the services of that contractor or other entity.

(4) A contractor or any other entity furnishing substitute staffing services to schools shall comply with paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (j).

(j) For employees of contractors, all of the following apply:

(1) The employment history review required by this Section shall be performed, either at the time of the initial hiring of an employee or prior to the assignment of an existing employee to perform work for a school in a position involving direct contact with children or students. The review shall remain valid as long as the employee remains employed by the same contractor, even if assigned to perform work for other schools.

(2) A contractor shall maintain records documenting employment history reviews for all employees as required by this Section and, upon request, shall provide a school for whom an employee is assigned to perform work access to the records pertaining to that employee.

(3) Prior to assigning an employee to perform work for a school in a position involving direct contact with children or students, the contractor shall inform the school of any instance known to the contractor in which the employee:

(A) has been the subject of a sexual misconduct allegation unless a subsequent investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated;

(B) has ever been discharged, been asked to resign from, resigned from, or otherwise been separated from any employment, been removed from a substitute list, been disciplined by an employer, or had an employment contract not renewed due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated; or

(C) has ever had a license or certificate suspended, surrendered, or revoked due to an adjudication or finding of sexual misconduct or while an allegation of sexual misconduct was pending or under investigation, unless the investigation resulted in a finding that the allegation was false, unfounded, or unsubstantiated.

(4) The contractor may not assign an employee to perform work for a school in a position involving direct contact with children or students if the school objects to the assignment after being informed of an instance listed in paragraph (3).

(k) An applicant who has undergone an employment history review under this Section and seeks to transfer to or provide services to another school in the same school district, diocese, or religious jurisdiction, or to another school established and supervised by the same organization is not required to obtain additional reports under this Section before transferring.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall be construed:

(1) to prevent a prospective employer from conducting further investigations of prospective employees or from requiring applicants to provide additional background information or authorizations beyond what is required under this Section, nor to prevent a current or former employer from disclosing more information than what is required under this Section;

(2) to relieve a school, school employee, contractor of the school, or agent of the school from any legal responsibility to report sexual misconduct in accordance with State and federal reporting requirements;

(3) to relieve a school, school employee, contractor of the school, or agent of the school from any legal responsibility to implement the provisions of Section 7926 of Chapter 20 of the United States Code; or

(4) to prohibit the right of the exclusive bargaining representative under a collective bargaining agreement to grieve and arbitrate the validity of an employee's termination or discipline for just cause.

(m) The State Board of Education shall develop the templates required under paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (c).

(Source: P.A. 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-4.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-4.1)

Sec. 24-4.1. Residence requirements.) Residency within any school district shall not be considered in determining the employment or the compensation of a teacher or whether to retain, promote, assign, or transfer that teacher.

(Source: P.A. 82-381; revised 10-16-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/24A-2.5)

Sec. 24A-2.5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Evaluator" means:

(1) an administrator qualified under Section 24A-3; or

(2) other individuals qualified under Section 24A-3, provided that, if such other individuals are in the bargaining unit of a district's teachers, the district and the exclusive bargaining representative of that unit must agree to those individuals evaluating other bargaining unit members.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in item (2) of this definition, a school district operating under Article 34 of this Code may require department chairs qualified under Section 24A-3 to evaluate teachers in their department or departments, provided that the school district shall bargain with the bargaining representative of its teachers over the impact and effects on department chairs of such a requirement.

"Implementation date" means, unless otherwise specified and provided that the requirements set forth in subsection (d) of Section 24A-20 have been met:

(1) For school districts having 500,000 or more inhabitants, in at least 300 schools by September 1, 2012 and in the remaining schools by September 1, 2013.

(2) For school districts having less than 500,000 inhabitants and receiving a Race to the Top Grant or School Improvement Grant after January 15, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-861) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the date specified in those grants for implementing an evaluation system for teachers and principals incorporating student growth as a significant factor.

(3) For the lowest performing 20% percent of remaining school districts having less than 500,000 inhabitants (with the measure of and school year or years used for school district performance to be determined by the State Superintendent of Education at a time determined by the State Superintendent), September 1, 2015.

(4) For all other school districts having less than 500,000 inhabitants, September 1, 2016.

Notwithstanding items (3) and (4) of this definition, a school district and the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers may jointly agree in writing to an earlier implementation date, provided that such date must not be earlier than September 1, 2013. The written agreement of the district and the exclusive bargaining representative must be transmitted to the State Board of Education.

"Race to the Top Grant" means a grant made by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education for the program first funded pursuant to paragraph (2) of Section 14006(a) of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009.

"School Improvement Grant" means a grant made by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education pursuant to Section 1003(g) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-861, eff. 1-15-10; 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/24A-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24A-5)

Sec. 24A-5. Content of evaluation plans. This Section does not apply to teachers assigned to schools identified in an agreement entered into between the board of a school district operating under Article 34 of this Code and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers in accordance with Section 34-85c of this Code.

Each school district to which this Article applies shall establish a teacher evaluation plan which ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once in the course of every 2 or 3 school years as provided in this Section.

Each school district shall establish a teacher evaluation plan that ensures that:

(1) each teacher not in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once every school year; and

(2) except as otherwise provided in this Section, each teacher in contractual continued service is evaluated at least once in the course of every 2 school years. However, any teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory" must be evaluated at least once in the school year following the receipt of such rating.

No later than September 1, 2022, each school district must establish a teacher evaluation plan that ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" is evaluated at least once in the course of the 3 school years after receipt of the rating and implement an informal teacher observation plan established by agency rule and by agreement of the joint committee established under subsection (b) of Section 24A-4 of this Code that ensures that each teacher in contractual continued service whose performance is rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" is informally observed at least once in the course of the 2 school years after receipt of the rating.

For the 2022-2023 school year only, if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, a school district may waive the evaluation requirement of all teachers in contractual continued service whose performances were rated as either "excellent" or "proficient" during the last school year in which the teachers were evaluated under this Section.

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section or any other Section of this Code, a principal shall not be prohibited from evaluating any teachers within a school during his or her first year as principal of such school. If a first-year principal exercises this option in a school district where the evaluation plan provides for a teacher in contractual continued service to be evaluated once in the course of every 2 or 3 school years, as applicable, then a new 2-year or 3-year evaluation plan must be established.

The evaluation plan shall comply with the requirements of this Section and of any rules adopted by the State Board of Education pursuant to this Section.

The plan shall include a description of each teacher's duties and responsibilities and of the standards to which that teacher is expected to conform, and shall include at least the following components:

(a) personal observation of the teacher in the classroom by the evaluator, unless the teacher has no classroom duties.

(b) consideration of the teacher's attendance, planning, instructional methods, classroom management, where relevant, and competency in the subject matter taught.

(c) by no later than the applicable implementation date, consideration of student growth as a significant factor in the rating of the teacher's performance.

(d) prior to September 1, 2012, rating of the performance of teachers in contractual continued service as either:

(i) "excellent", "satisfactory" or "unsatisfactory"; or

(ii) "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(e) on and after September 1, 2012, rating of the performance of all teachers as "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(f) specification as to the teacher's strengths and weaknesses, with supporting reasons for the comments made.

(g) inclusion of a copy of the evaluation in the teacher's personnel file and provision of a copy to the teacher.

(h) within 30 school days after the completion of an evaluation rating a teacher in contractual continued service as "needs improvement", development by the evaluator, in consultation with the teacher, and taking into account the teacher's ongoing on-going professional responsibilities including his or her regular teaching assignments, of a professional development plan directed to the areas that need improvement and any supports that the district will provide to address the areas identified as needing improvement.

(i) within 30 school days after completion of an evaluation rating a teacher in contractual continued service as "unsatisfactory", development and commencement by the district of a remediation plan designed to correct deficiencies cited, provided the deficiencies are deemed remediable. In all school districts the remediation plan for unsatisfactory, tenured teachers shall provide for 90 school days of remediation within the classroom, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides for a shorter duration. In all school districts evaluations issued pursuant to this Section shall be issued within 10 days after the conclusion of the respective remediation plan. However, the school board or other governing authority of the district shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher in the event the evaluation is not issued within 10 days after the conclusion of the respective remediation plan.

(j) participation in the remediation plan by the teacher in contractual continued service rated "unsatisfactory", an evaluator and a consulting teacher selected by the evaluator of the teacher who was rated "unsatisfactory", which consulting teacher is an educational employee as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, has at least 5 years' teaching experience, and a reasonable familiarity with the assignment of the teacher being evaluated, and who received an "excellent" rating on his or her most recent evaluation. Where no teachers who meet these criteria are available within the district, the district shall request and the applicable regional office of education shall supply, to participate in the remediation process, an individual who meets these criteria.

In a district having a population of less than 500,000 with an exclusive bargaining agent, the bargaining agent may, if it so chooses, supply a roster of qualified teachers from whom the consulting teacher is to be selected. That roster shall, however, contain the names of at least 5 teachers, each of whom meets the criteria for consulting teacher with regard to the teacher being evaluated, or the names of all teachers so qualified if that number is less than 5. In the event of a dispute as to qualification, the State Board shall determine qualification.

(k) a mid-point and final evaluation by an evaluator during and at the end of the remediation period, immediately following receipt of a remediation plan provided for under subsections (i) and (j) of this Section. Each evaluation shall assess the teacher's performance during the time period since the prior evaluation; provided that the last evaluation shall also include an overall evaluation of the teacher's performance during the remediation period. A written copy of the evaluations and ratings, in which any deficiencies in performance and recommendations for correction are identified, shall be provided to and discussed with the teacher within 10 school days after the date of the evaluation, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides to the contrary. These subsequent evaluations shall be conducted by an evaluator. The consulting teacher shall provide advice to the teacher rated "unsatisfactory" on how to improve teaching skills and to successfully complete the remediation plan. The consulting teacher shall participate in developing the remediation plan, but the final decision as to the evaluation shall be done solely by the evaluator, unless an applicable collective bargaining agreement provides to the contrary. Evaluations at the conclusion of the remediation process shall be separate and distinct from the required annual evaluations of teachers and shall not be subject to the guidelines and procedures relating to those annual evaluations. The evaluator may but is not required to use the forms provided for the annual evaluation of teachers in the district's evaluation plan.

(l) reinstatement to the evaluation schedule set forth in the district's evaluation plan for any teacher in contractual continued service who achieves a rating equal to or better than "satisfactory" or "proficient" in the school year following a rating of "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory".

(m) dismissal in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 24-16.5 or 34-85 of this Code of any teacher who fails to complete any applicable remediation plan with a rating equal to or better than a "satisfactory" or "proficient" rating. Districts and teachers subject to dismissal hearings are precluded from compelling the testimony of consulting teachers at such hearings under subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 24-16.5 or 34-85 of this Code, either as to the rating process or for opinions of performances by teachers under remediation.

(n) After the implementation date of an evaluation system for teachers in a district as specified in Section 24A-2.5 of this Code, if a teacher in contractual continued service successfully completes a remediation plan following a rating of "unsatisfactory" in an overall performance evaluation received after the foregoing implementation date and receives a subsequent rating of "unsatisfactory" in any of the teacher's overall performance evaluation ratings received during the 36-month period following the teacher's completion of the remediation plan, then the school district may forgo remediation and seek dismissal in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 24-12 or Section 34-85 of this Code.

(o) Teachers who are due to be evaluated in the last year before they are set to retire shall be offered the opportunity to waive their evaluation and to retain their most recent rating, unless the teacher was last rated as "needs improvement" or "unsatisfactory". The school district may still reserve the right to evaluate a teacher provided the district gives notice to the teacher at least 14 days before the evaluation and a reason for evaluating the teacher.

Nothing in this Section or Section 24A-4 shall be construed as preventing immediate dismissal of a teacher for deficiencies which are deemed irremediable or for actions which are injurious to or endanger the health or person of students in the classroom or school, or preventing the dismissal or non-renewal of teachers not in contractual continued service for any reason not prohibited by applicable employment, labor, and civil rights laws. Failure to strictly comply with the time requirements contained in Section 24A-5 shall not invalidate the results of the remediation plan.

Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

If the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act that suspends in-person instruction, the timelines in this Section connected to the commencement and completion of any remediation plan are waived. Except if the parties mutually agree otherwise and the agreement is in writing, any remediation plan that had been in place for more than 45 days prior to the suspension of in-person instruction shall resume when in-person instruction resumes and any remediation plan that had been in place for fewer than 45 days prior to the suspension of in-person instruction shall be discontinued and a new remediation period shall begin when in-person instruction resumes. The requirements of this paragraph apply regardless of whether they are included in a school district's teacher evaluation plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-252, eff. 1-1-22; 102-729, eff. 5-6-22; 103-85, eff. 6-9-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-8-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.17)

Sec. 27-23.17. Workplace Readiness Week.

(a) Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, all public high schools, including charter schools, may designate and annually observe a week known as "Workplace Readiness Week". During that week, students shall be provided information on their rights as workers. The topics covered shall include, but are not limited to, local, State, and federal laws regarding each of the following areas and shall include the labor movement's role in winning the protections and benefits described in those areas:

(1) Prohibitions against misclassification of employees as independent contractors.

(2) Child labor.

(3) Wage and hour protections.

(4) Worker safety.

(5) Workers' compensation.

(6) Unemployment insurance.

(7) Paid sick leave and paid family leave.

(8) The right to organize a union in the workplace.

(9) Prohibitions against retaliation by employers when workers exercise their rights as workers or any other rights guaranteed by law.

During Workplace Readiness Week, students shall also be provided information introducing them to State-approved apprenticeship programs, how to access them, the variety of programs available, and how they can provide an alternative career path for those students who choose not to attend a traditional higher education program.

(b) If a school observes Workplace Readiness Week under this Section, then, for students in grades 11 and 12, the information required to be provided in subsection (a) shall be integrated into the regular school program but may also be provided during special events after regular school hours. Integration into the regular school program is encouraged, but not required, to occur during Workplace Readiness Week.

(Source: P.A. 103-598, eff. 7-1-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.18)

Sec. 27-23.18 27-23.17. Relaxation activities. Each school district may provide to students, in addition to and not substituting recess, at least 20 minutes a week of relaxation activities to enhance the mental and physical health of students as part of the school day. Relaxation activities may include, but are not limited to, mindful-based movements, yoga, stretching, meditation, breathing exercises, guided relaxation techniques, quiet time, walking, in-person conversation, and other stress-relieving activities. A school district may partner with public and private community organizations to provide relaxation activities. These activities may take place in a physical education class, social-emotional learning class, or student-support or advisory class or as a part of another similar class, including a new class.

(Source: P.A. 103-764, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. In all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. This limitation does not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003.

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. A charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. The State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 22-100, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code;

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code;

(29) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) Section 28-19.2 of this Code;

(31) Section 34-21.6 of this Code;

(32) Section 22-85.10 of this Code;

(33) Section 2-3.196 of this Code;

(34) Section 22-95 of this Code;

(35) Section 34-18.62 of this Code;

(36) the Illinois Human Rights Act; and

(37) Section 2-3.204 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is authorized by the State Board, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-641, eff. 7-1-24; 103-806, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-9-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. In all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. This limitation does not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003.

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. A charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. The State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 22-100, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code;

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code;

(19) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code;

(20) Section 10-22.25b of this Code;

(21) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) Section 27-9.1b of this Code;

(23) Section 34-18.8 of this Code;

(24) Article 26A of this Code;

(25) Section 2-3.188 of this Code;

(26) Section 22-85.5 of this Code;

(27) subsections (d-10), (d-15), and (d-20) of Section 10-20.56 of this Code;

(28) Sections 10-20.83 and 34-18.78 of this Code;

(29) Section 10-20.13 of this Code;

(30) Section 28-19.2 of this Code;

(31) Section 34-21.6 of this Code;

(32) Section 22-85.10 of this Code;

(33) Section 2-3.196 of this Code;

(34) Section 22-95 of this Code;

(35) Section 34-18.62 of this Code;

(36) the Illinois Human Rights Act; and

(37) Section 2-3.204 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is authorized by the State Board, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; 102-697, eff. 4-5-22; 102-702, eff. 7-1-23; 102-805, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-175, eff. 6-30-23; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-641, eff. 7-1-24; 103-806, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18)

Sec. 34-18. Powers of the board. The board shall exercise general supervision and jurisdiction over the public education and the public school system of the city, and, except as otherwise provided by this Article, shall have power:

1. To make suitable provision for the establishment and maintenance throughout the year or for such portion thereof as it may direct, not less than 9 months and in compliance with Section 10-19.05, of schools of all grades and kinds, including normal schools, high schools, night schools, schools for defectives and delinquents, parental and truant schools, schools for the blind, the deaf, and persons with physical disabilities, schools or classes in manual training, constructural and vocational teaching, domestic arts, and physical culture, vocation and extension schools and lecture courses, and all other educational courses and facilities, including establishing, equipping, maintaining and operating playgrounds and recreational programs, when such programs are conducted in, adjacent to, or connected with any public school under the general supervision and jurisdiction of the board; provided that the calendar for the school term and any changes must be submitted to and approved by the State Board of Education before the calendar or changes may take effect, and provided that in allocating funds from year to year for the operation of all attendance centers within the district, the board shall ensure that supplemental general State aid or supplemental grant funds are allocated and applied in accordance with Section 18-8, 18-8.05, or 18-8.15. To admit to such schools without charge foreign exchange students who are participants in an organized exchange student program which is authorized by the board. The board shall permit all students to enroll in apprenticeship programs in trade schools operated by the board, whether those programs are union-sponsored or not. No student shall be refused admission into or be excluded from any course of instruction offered in the common schools by reason of that student's sex. No student shall be denied equal access to physical education and interscholastic athletic programs supported from school district funds or denied participation in comparable physical education and athletic programs solely by reason of the student's sex. Equal access to programs supported from school district funds and comparable programs will be defined in rules promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation with the Illinois High School Association. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, neither the board of education nor any local school council or other school official shall recommend that children with disabilities be placed into regular education classrooms unless those children with disabilities are provided with supplementary services to assist them so that they benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register;

2. To furnish lunches to pupils, to make a reasonable charge therefor, and to use school funds for the payment of such expenses as the board may determine are necessary in conducting the school lunch program;

3. To co-operate with the circuit court;

4. To make arrangements with the public or quasi-public libraries and museums for the use of their facilities by teachers and pupils of the public schools;

5. To employ dentists and prescribe their duties for the purpose of treating the pupils in the schools, but accepting such treatment shall be optional with parents or guardians;

6. To grant the use of assembly halls and classrooms when not otherwise needed, including light, heat, and attendants, for free public lectures, concerts, and other educational and social interests, free of charge, under such provisions and control as the principal of the affected attendance center may prescribe;

7. To apportion the pupils to the several schools; provided that no pupil shall be excluded from or segregated in any such school on account of his color, race, sex, or nationality. The board shall take into consideration the prevention of segregation and the elimination of separation of children in public schools because of color, race, sex, or nationality. Except that children may be committed to or attend parental and social adjustment schools established and maintained either for boys or girls only. All records pertaining to the creation, alteration or revision of attendance areas shall be open to the public. Nothing herein shall limit the board's authority to establish multi-area attendance centers or other student assignment systems for desegregation purposes or otherwise, and to apportion the pupils to the several schools. Furthermore, beginning in school year 1994-95, pursuant to a board plan adopted by October 1, 1993, the board shall offer, commencing on a phased-in basis, the opportunity for families within the school district to apply for enrollment of their children in any attendance center within the school district which does not have selective admission requirements approved by the board. The appropriate geographical area in which such open enrollment may be exercised shall be determined by the board of education. Such children may be admitted to any such attendance center on a space available basis after all children residing within such attendance center's area have been accommodated. If the number of applicants from outside the attendance area exceed the space available, then successful applicants shall be selected by lottery. The board of education's open enrollment plan must include provisions that allow low-income students to have access to transportation needed to exercise school choice. Open enrollment shall be in compliance with the provisions of the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan cited in Section 34-1.01;

8. To approve programs and policies for providing transportation services to students. Nothing herein shall be construed to permit or empower the State Board of Education to order, mandate, or require busing or other transportation of pupils for the purpose of achieving racial balance in any school;

9. Subject to the limitations in this Article, to establish and approve system-wide curriculum objectives and standards, including graduation standards, which reflect the multi-cultural diversity in the city and are consistent with State law, provided that for all purposes of this Article courses or proficiency in American Sign Language shall be deemed to constitute courses or proficiency in a foreign language; and to employ principals and teachers, appointed as provided in this Article, and fix their compensation. The board shall prepare such reports related to minimal competency testing as may be requested by the State Board of Education and, in addition, shall monitor and approve special education and bilingual education programs and policies within the district to ensure that appropriate services are provided in accordance with applicable State and federal laws to children requiring services and education in those areas;

10. To employ non-teaching personnel or utilize volunteer personnel for: (i) non-teaching duties not requiring instructional judgment or evaluation of pupils, including library duties; and (ii) supervising study halls, long distance teaching reception areas used incident to instructional programs transmitted by electronic media such as computers, video, and audio, detention and discipline areas, and school-sponsored extracurricular activities. The board may further utilize volunteer nonlicensed personnel or employ nonlicensed personnel to assist in the instruction of pupils under the immediate supervision of a teacher holding a valid educator license, directly engaged in teaching subject matter or conducting activities; provided that the teacher shall be continuously aware of the nonlicensed persons' activities and shall be able to control or modify them. The general superintendent shall determine qualifications of such personnel and shall prescribe rules for determining the duties and activities to be assigned to such personnel;

10.5. To utilize volunteer personnel from a regional School Crisis Assistance Team (S.C.A.T.), created as part of the Safe to Learn Program established pursuant to Section 25 of the Illinois Violence Prevention Act of 1995, to provide assistance to schools in times of violence or other traumatic incidents within a school community by providing crisis intervention services to lessen the effects of emotional trauma on individuals and the community; the School Crisis Assistance Team Steering Committee shall determine the qualifications for volunteers;

11. To provide television studio facilities in not to exceed one school building and to provide programs for educational purposes, provided, however, that the board shall not construct, acquire, operate, or maintain a television transmitter; to grant the use of its studio facilities to a licensed television station located in the school district; and to maintain and operate not to exceed one school radio transmitting station and provide programs for educational purposes;

12. To offer, if deemed appropriate, outdoor education courses, including field trips within the State of Illinois, or adjacent states, and to use school educational funds for the expense of the said outdoor educational programs, whether within the school district or not;

13. During that period of the calendar year not embraced within the regular school term, to provide and conduct courses in subject matters normally embraced in the program of the schools during the regular school term and to give regular school credit for satisfactory completion by the student of such courses as may be approved for credit by the State Board of Education;

14. To insure against any loss or liability of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, Local School Councils, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, or the former Subdistrict Councils or of any member, officer, agent, or employee thereof, resulting from alleged violations of civil rights arising from incidents occurring on or after September 5, 1967 or from the wrongful or negligent act or omission of any such person whether occurring within or without the school premises, provided the officer, agent, or employee was, at the time of the alleged violation of civil rights or wrongful act or omission, acting within the scope of his or her employment or under direction of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, Local School Councils, or the former Subdistrict Councils; and to provide for or participate in insurance plans for its officers and employees, including, but not limited to, retirement annuities, medical, surgical and hospitalization benefits in such types and amounts as may be determined by the board; provided, however, that the board shall contract for such insurance only with an insurance company authorized to do business in this State. Such insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized religious denomination;

15. To contract with the corporate authorities of any municipality or the county board of any county, as the case may be, to provide for the regulation of traffic in parking areas of property used for school purposes, in such manner as is provided by Section 11-209 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

16. (a) To provide, on an equal basis, access to a high school campus and student directory information to the official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States for the purposes of informing students of the educational and career opportunities available in the military if the board has provided such access to persons or groups whose purpose is to acquaint students with educational or occupational opportunities available to them. The board is not required to give greater notice regarding the right of access to recruiting representatives than is given to other persons and groups. In this paragraph 16, "directory information" means a high school student's name, address, and telephone number.

(b) If a student or his or her parent or guardian submits a signed, written request to the high school before the end of the student's sophomore year (or if the student is a transfer student, by another time set by the high school) that indicates that the student or his or her parent or guardian does not want the student's directory information to be provided to official recruiting representatives under subsection (a) of this Section, the high school may not provide access to the student's directory information to these recruiting representatives. The high school shall notify its students and their parents or guardians of the provisions of this subsection (b).

(c) A high school may require official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States to pay a fee for copying and mailing a student's directory information in an amount that is not more than the actual costs incurred by the high school.

(d) Information received by an official recruiting representative under this Section may be used only to provide information to students concerning educational and career opportunities available in the military and may not be released to a person who is not involved in recruiting students for the armed forces of Illinois or the United States;

17. (a) To sell or market any computer program developed by an employee of the school district, provided that such employee developed the computer program as a direct result of his or her duties with the school district or through the utilization of school district resources or facilities. The employee who developed the computer program shall be entitled to share in the proceeds of such sale or marketing of the computer program. The distribution of such proceeds between the employee and the school district shall be as agreed upon by the employee and the school district, except that neither the employee nor the school district may receive more than 90% of such proceeds. The negotiation for an employee who is represented by an exclusive bargaining representative may be conducted by such bargaining representative at the employee's request.

(b) For the purpose of this paragraph 17:

(1) "Computer" means an internally programmed, general purpose digital device capable of automatically accepting data, processing data and supplying the results of the operation.

(2) "Computer program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer, which causes the computer to process data in order to achieve a certain result.

(3) "Proceeds" means profits derived from the marketing or sale of a product after deducting the expenses of developing and marketing such product;

18. To delegate to the general superintendent of schools, by resolution, the authority to approve contracts and expenditures in amounts of $35,000 or less;

19. Upon the written request of an employee, to withhold from the compensation of that employee any dues, payments, or contributions payable by such employee to any labor organization as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. Under such arrangement, an amount shall be withheld from each regular payroll period which is equal to the pro rata share of the annual dues plus any payments or contributions, and the board shall transmit such withholdings to the specified labor organization within 10 working days from the time of the withholding;

19a. Upon receipt of notice from the comptroller of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more, a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or a housing authority of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more that a debt is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority by an employee of the Chicago Board of Education, to withhold, from the compensation of that employee, the amount of the debt that is due and owing and pay the amount withheld to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority; provided, however, that the amount deducted from any one salary or wage payment shall not exceed 25% of the net amount of the payment. Before the Board deducts any amount from any salary or wage of an employee under this paragraph, the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority shall certify that (i) the employee has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to dispute the debt that is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority and (ii) the employee has received notice of a wage deduction order and has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to object to the order. For purposes of this paragraph, "net amount" means that part of the salary or wage payment remaining after the deduction of any amounts required by law to be deducted and "debt due and owing" means (i) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority for services, work, or goods, after the period granted for payment has expired, or (ii) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority pursuant to a court order or order of an administrative hearing officer after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust, judicial review;

20. The board is encouraged to employ a sufficient number of licensed school counselors to maintain a student/counselor ratio of 250 to 1. Each counselor shall spend at least 75% of his work time in direct contact with students and shall maintain a record of such time;

21. To make available to students vocational and career counseling and to establish 5 special career counseling days for students and parents. On these days representatives of local businesses and industries shall be invited to the school campus and shall inform students of career opportunities available to them in the various businesses and industries. Special consideration shall be given to counseling minority students as to career opportunities available to them in various fields. For the purposes of this paragraph, minority student means a person who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

Counseling days shall not be in lieu of regular school days;

22. To report to the State Board of Education the annual student dropout rate and number of students who graduate from, transfer from, or otherwise leave bilingual programs;

23. Except as otherwise provided in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or other applicable State or federal law, to permit school officials to withhold, from any person, information on the whereabouts of any child removed from school premises when the child has been taken into protective custody as a victim of suspected child abuse. School officials shall direct such person to the Department of Children and Family Services or to the local law enforcement agency, if appropriate;

24. To develop a policy, based on the current state of existing school facilities, projected enrollment, and efficient utilization of available resources, for capital improvement of schools and school buildings within the district, addressing in that policy both the relative priority for major repairs, renovations, and additions to school facilities and the advisability or necessity of building new school facilities or closing existing schools to meet current or projected demographic patterns within the district;

25. To make available to the students in every high school attendance center the ability to take all courses necessary to comply with the Board of Higher Education's college entrance criteria effective in 1993;

26. To encourage mid-career changes into the teaching profession, whereby qualified professionals become licensed teachers, by allowing credit for professional employment in related fields when determining point of entry on the teacher pay scale;

27. To provide or contract out training programs for administrative personnel and principals with revised or expanded duties pursuant to this Code in order to ensure they have the knowledge and skills to perform their duties;

28. To establish a fund for the prioritized special needs programs, and to allocate such funds and other lump sum amounts to each attendance center in a manner consistent with the provisions of part 4 of Section 34-2.3. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require any additional appropriations of State funds for this purpose;

29. (Blank);

30. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other law to the contrary, to contract with third parties for services otherwise performed by employees, including those in a bargaining unit, and to lay off layoff those employees upon 14 days' days written notice to the affected employees. Those contracts may be for a period not to exceed 5 years and may be awarded on a system-wide basis. The board may not operate more than 30 contract schools, provided that the board may operate an additional 5 contract turnaround schools pursuant to item (5.5) of subsection (d) of Section 34-8.3 of this Code, and the governing bodies of contract schools are subject to the Freedom of Information Act and Open Meetings Act;

31. To promulgate rules establishing procedures governing the layoff or reduction in force of employees and the recall of such employees, including, but not limited to, criteria for such layoffs, reductions in force or recall rights of such employees and the weight to be given to any particular criterion. Such criteria shall take into account factors, including, but not limited to, qualifications, certifications, experience, performance ratings or evaluations, and any other factors relating to an employee's job performance;

32. To develop a policy to prevent nepotism in the hiring of personnel or the selection of contractors;

33. (Blank); and

34. To establish a Labor Management Council to the board comprised of representatives of the board, the chief executive officer, and those labor organizations that are the exclusive representatives of employees of the board and to promulgate policies and procedures for the operation of the Council.

The specifications of the powers herein granted are not to be construed as exclusive, but the board shall also exercise all other powers that may be requisite or proper for the maintenance and the development of a public school system, not inconsistent with the other provisions of this Article or provisions of this Code which apply to all school districts.

In addition to the powers herein granted and authorized to be exercised by the board, it shall be the duty of the board to review or to direct independent reviews of special education expenditures and services. The board shall file a report of such review with the General Assembly on or before May 1, 1990.

(Source: P.A. 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-894, eff. 5-20-22; 103-8, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.68)

Sec. 34-18.68. Chicago Board of Education Non-Citizen Advisory Board.

(a) The Chicago Board of Education Non-Citizen Diversity Advisory Board is created to provide non-citizen students with maximum opportunity for success during their elementary and secondary education experience.

(b) The Chicago Board of Education Non-Citizen Advisory Board is composed of individuals appointed by the Mayor to advise the Chicago Board of Education on, but not limited to, the following issues:

(1) Appropriate ways to create an equitable and inclusive learning environment for non-citizen students;

(2) Strengthening student, parent, and guardian privacy and confidentiality in school-related issues;

(3) Establishing appropriate communication methods between the district and non-citizen students to maximize interactions between the student's school, parents, and guardians;

(4) Ensuring principals and other district leaders learn and disseminate information on resources available to non-citizen students and their families;

(5) Developing appropriate methods by which non-citizen students are encouraged and supported to continue their education at an institution of higher education; and

(6) Providing the perspective of non-citizen families and students who are affected by Board actions, governance, policies, and procedures.

(Source: P.A. 102-177, eff. 6-1-22; revised 10-23-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.85)

Sec. 34-18.85. Chicago Board of Education Black Student Achievement Committee.

(a) The Chicago Board of Education Black Student Achievement Committee is created to be a standing committee of the Board with the purpose of providing Black students with the maximum opportunity for success in areas where research shows that there has been chronic underperformance of African American students during their elementary and secondary education experience.

(b) The Chicago Board of Education Black Student Achievement Committee shall be chaired by a member of the Board and shall be composed of individuals appointed by the President of the Board to help the Board shape educational policies and to:

(1) develop strategies and recommendations for Black student achievement and opportunity;

(2) use data to conduct an evidence-based needs assessment to better understand needs and establish a baseline for Black student achievement;

(3) develop a strategic management plan to identify goals, objectives, and outcomes designed to bring about academic parity between Black children and their peers;

(4) identify and track metrics and key performance indicators that demonstrate positive movement toward achieving the goals and objectives outlined in the strategic management plan; and

(5) prepare and provide regular progress reports to the Board and the public.

(c) The Committee's membership shall be diverse in terms of skills and geography.

(Source: P.A. 103-584, eff. 3-18-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.87)

Sec. 34-18.87 34-18.85. Automated external defibrillator; attendance centers and extracurricular activities.

(a) As used in this Section, "automated external defibrillator" has the meaning provided in the Automated External Defibrillator Act.

(b) The school district shall require all attendance centers to have present during the school day and during a school-sponsored extracurricular activity on school grounds at least one automated external defibrillator.

(c) An automated external defibrillator installed and maintained in accordance with the Physical Fitness Facility Medical Emergency Preparedness Act may be used to satisfy the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-1019, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-22.6)

Sec. 34-22.6. Issuance of bonds. For the purpose of erecting, purchasing, or otherwise acquiring buildings suitable for school houses, erecting temporary school structures, erecting additions to, repairing, rehabilitating, modernizing and replacing existing school buildings and temporary school structures, and furnishing and equipping school buildings and temporary school structures, and purchasing or otherwise acquiring and improving sites for such purposes, the board may incur an indebtedness and issue bonds therefor in an amount or amounts not to exceed in the aggregate $150,000,000 in addition to the bonds authorized under Sections 34-22.1, 34-22.2, 34-22.3, 34-22.4, 34-22.5, and 34-22.7. Bonds authorized under this Section may also be issued for the purposes of paying interest on such bonds, establishing reserves to secure such bonds and paying the costs of issuance of such bonds. In connection with the issuance of its bonds, the board may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for the bonds. These may include, without limitation, municipal bond insurance, letters of credit, lines of credit by which the board may borrow funds to pay or redeem its bonds, and purchase or remarketing arrangements for assuring the ability of owners of the board's bonds to sell or to have redeemed their bonds. The board may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, including from bond proceeds but only under circumstances in which the total interest paid or to be paid on the bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the bonds to bear interest, calculated to their absolute maturity, at a rate in excess of the maximum rate allowed by law.

The resolution of the board authorizing the issuance of its bonds may provide that interest rates may vary from time to time depending upon criteria established by the board, which may include, without limitation, a variation in interest rates as may be necessary to cause bonds to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a national banking association, bank, trust company, investment banker, or other financial institution to serve as a remarketing agent in that connection. The resolution of the board authorizing the issuance of its bonds may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions will apply during such times as the bonds are held by a person providing a letter of credit or other credit enhancement arrangement for those bonds. The Board may use proceeds of the sale of bonds authorized under this Section to pay the cost of obtaining such municipal bond insurance, letter of credit, or other credit facilities. Bonds may also be issued under this Section to pay the cost of refunding any bonds issued under this Section, including prior to their maturity. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates not to exceed the maximum annual rate provided for in Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, and, if issued at such maximum annual rate, shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest. If any of the bonds are issued to bear interest at a rate of less than such maximum annual rate the minimum price at which they may be sold shall be such that the interest cost to the board on the proceeds of the bonds shall not exceed such maximum annual rate computed to stated maturity according to standard tables of bond values.

Whenever the board desires to issue bonds as authorized in this Section, it shall adopt a resolution designating the purpose for which the proceeds of the bonds are to be expended and fixing the amount of the bonds proposed to be issued, the maturity or maturities thereof, and optional provisions, if any, the rate of interest thereon, and the amount of taxes to be levied annually for the purpose of paying the interest upon and the principal, whether due at maturity or upon sinking fund installment dates, of such bonds.

Said bonds shall be issued in the corporate name of the school district. They shall be signed by the president and secretary of said board and countersigned by the mayor and the comptroller (or city clerk if there be no comptroller) of the city. They shall be sold by the city comptroller (or city clerk if there be no comptroller) upon such terms as may be approved by the board after advertisement for bids as ordered by and under the direction of the board, and the proceeds thereof shall be received by the city treasurer, as school treasurer, and expended by the board for the purposes provided in the bond resolution.

Before or at the time of issuing any bonds authorized in this Section, the board shall provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property of such school district sufficient to pay and discharge the principal thereof at maturity, or upon sinking fund installment dates, and to pay the interest thereon as it falls due. Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner with the other taxes of such school district and shall be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes which such board is now, or may hereafter be, authorized by law to levy for any and all school purposes. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of the county wherein such school district is located of a duly certified copy of any such ordinance, it shall be the duty of such county clerk to extend the tax therein provided for, including an amount to cover loss and cost of collecting said taxes and also deferred collections thereof and abatements in the amounts of such taxes as extended upon the collector's books. The ordinance shall be in force upon its passage.

(Source: P.A. 85-1418; 86-1477; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-22.10) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-22.10)

Sec. 34-22.10. Issuance of bonds. For the sole purpose of purchasing or otherwise acquiring school buildings and related property and facilities for an agricultural science school pursuant to an agreement entered into pursuant to subparagraph (7) of Section 34-21.1, the board may incur an indebtedness and issue bonds therefor in an amount or amounts not to exceed in the aggregate $20,000,000 in addition to the bonds authorized under Sections 34-22.1, 34-22.2, 34-22.3, 34-22.4, 34-22.5, 34-22.6, and 34-22.7. Bonds authorized under this Section may also be issued for the purposes of paying interest on such bonds, establishing reserves to secure such bonds and paying the costs of issuance of such bonds.

In connection with the issuance of its bonds, the board may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for the bonds. These may include, without limitation, municipal bond insurance, letters of credit, lines of credit by which the board may borrow funds to pay or redeem its bonds, and purchase or remarketing arrangements for assuring the ability of owners of the board's bonds to sell or to have redeemed their bonds. The board may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, including from bond proceeds but only under circumstances in which the total interest paid or to be paid on the bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the bonds to bear interest, calculated to their absolute maturity, at a rate in excess of the maximum rate allowed by law.

The Board may use proceeds of the sale of bonds authorized under this Section to pay the cost of obtaining such municipal bond insurance, letter of credit, or other credit facilities. Bonds may also be issued under this Section to pay the cost of refunding any bonds issued under this Section, including prior to their maturity. The bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates not to exceed the maximum annual rate provided for in Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, and, if issued at such maximum annual rate, shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest. If any of the bonds are issued to bear interest at a rate of less than such maximum annual rate the minimum price at which they may be sold shall be such that the interest cost to the board on the proceeds of the bonds shall not exceed such maximum annual rate computed to stated maturity according to standard tables of bond values. The resolution of the board authorizing the issuance of its bonds may provide that interest rates may vary from time to time depending upon criteria established by the board, which may include, without limitation, a variation in interest rates as may be necessary to cause bonds to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a national banking association, bank, trust company, investment banker, or other financial institution to serve as a remarketing agent in that connection. The resolution of the board authorizing the issuance of its bonds may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions will apply during such times as the bonds are held by a person providing a letter of credit or other credit enhancement arrangement for those bonds.

Whenever the board desires to issue bonds as authorized in this Section, it shall adopt a resolution designating the purpose for which the proceeds of the bonds are to be expended and fixing the amount of the bonds proposed to be issued, the maturity or maturities thereof, and optional provisions, if any, the rate of interest thereon, and the amount of taxes to be levied annually for the purpose of paying the interest upon and the principal, whether due at maturity or upon sinking fund installment dates, of such bonds.

Said bonds shall be issued in the corporate name of the school district. They shall be signed by the president and secretary of said board. They shall be sold upon such terms as may be approved by the board after advertisement for bids as ordered by and under the direction of the board, and the proceeds thereof shall be received by the city treasurer, as school treasurer, and expended by the board for the purposes provided in the bond resolution.

Before or at the time of issuing any bonds authorized in this Section, the board shall, by resolution, provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property of such school district sufficient to pay and discharge the principal thereof at maturity, or upon sinking fund installment dates, and to pay the interest thereon as it falls due. Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner with the other taxes of such school district and shall be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes which such board is now, or may hereafter be, authorized by law to levy for any and all school purposes. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of the county wherein such school district is located of a duly certified copy of any such resolution, it shall be the duty of such county clerk to extend the tax therein provided for, including an amount to cover loss and cost of collecting said taxes and also deferred collections thereof and abatements in the amounts of such taxes as extended upon the collector's books. The resolution shall be in force upon its passage.

(Source: P.A. 86-930; revised 7-17-24.)

(105 ILCS 5/34A-502) (from Ch. 122, par. 34A-502)

Sec. 34A-502. Terms of Bonds.

(a) Whenever the Authority desires or is required to issue Bonds as provided in this Article, it shall adopt a resolution designating the amount of the Bonds to be issued, the purposes for which the proceeds of the Bonds are to be used and the manner in which such proceeds shall be held pending the application thereof. The Bonds shall be issued in the corporate name of the Authority, shall bear such date or dates, and shall mature at such time or times not exceeding 30 years from their date as such resolution may provide; provided, however, that Bonds issued on or after July 1, 1993 shall mature on or before June 1, 2009. The Bonds may be issued as serial bonds payable in installments or as term bonds with sinking fund installments or as a combination thereof as the Authority may determine in such resolution. The Bonds shall be in such denominations of $1,000 or integral multiples thereof. The Bonds shall be in such form, either coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable at such place or places, and be subject to such terms of redemption at such redemption prices, including premium, as such resolution may provide. The Bonds shall be sold by the Authority at public sale. The Bonds shall be sold to the highest and best bidders upon sealed bids. The Authority shall, from time to time as Bonds are to be sold, advertise in at least 2 daily newspapers, one of which is published in the City of Springfield and one in the City of Chicago, for proposals to purchase Bonds. Each of such advertisements for proposals shall be published at least 10 ten days prior to the date of the opening of the bids. The Authority may reserve the right to reject any and all bids.

(b) Bonds issued prior to December 31, 1980 shall bear interest at such rate or rates and at such price or prices as the Authority may approve in the resolution authorizing the issuance of Bonds. Bonds issued after December 31, 1980 shall bear interest at a rate or rates not to exceed the maximum annual rate provided for in Section 2 of the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, and, if issued at such maximum annual rate, shall be sold for not less than par and accrued interest. If any of the Bonds are issued to bear interest at a rate of less than such maximum annual rate the minimum price at which they may be sold shall be such that the interest cost to the Authority on the proceeds of the Bonds shall not exceed such maximum annual rate computed to stated maturity according to standard tables of bond values.

(c) In connection with the issuance of its Bonds, the Authority may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for the Bonds. These may include, without limitation, municipal bond insurance, letters of credit, lines of credit by which the Authority may borrow funds to pay or redeem its Bonds, and purchase or remarketing arrangements for assuring the ability of owners of the Authority's Bonds to sell or to have redeemed their Bonds. The Authority may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, including from Bond proceeds but only under circumstances in which the total interest paid or to be paid on the Bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the Bonds to bear interest, calculated to their absolute maturity, at a rate in excess of the maximum rate allowed by law.

The resolution of the Authority authorizing the issuance of its Bonds may provide that interest rates may vary from time to time depending upon criteria established by the Authority, which may include, without limitation, a variation in interest rates as may be necessary to cause Bonds to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a national banking association, bank, trust company, investment banker, or other financial institution to serve as a remarketing agent in that connection. The resolution of the Authority authorizing the issuance of its Bonds may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions will apply during such times as the Bonds are held by a person providing a letter of credit or other credit enhancement arrangement for those Bonds.

(Source: P.A. 88-511; revised 7-17-24.)

Section 620. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/3)

Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program.

(a) The program established under this Act shall include, but not be limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: human ecology and health; human growth and development; the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic, and social responsibilities of family life, including sexual abstinence until marriage; the prevention and control of disease, including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention, transmission, and spread of AIDS; age-appropriate sexual abuse and assault awareness and prevention education in grades pre-kindergarten through 12; public and environmental health; consumer health; safety education and disaster preparedness; mental health and illness; personal health habits; alcohol and drug use and abuse, including the use and abuse of fentanyl, and the medical and legal ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use; abuse during pregnancy; evidence-based and medically accurate information regarding sexual abstinence; tobacco and e-cigarettes and other vapor devices; nutrition; and dental health. The instruction on mental health and illness must evaluate the multiple dimensions of health by reviewing the relationship between physical and mental health to enhance student understanding, attitudes, and behaviors that promote health, well-being, and human dignity and must include how and where to find mental health resources and specialized treatment in the State. The program shall also provide course material and instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. The program shall include information about cancer, including, without limitation, types of cancer, signs and symptoms, risk factors, the importance of early prevention and detection, and information on where to go for help. Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid (including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the Heimlich maneuver), heart disease, diabetes, stroke, the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide, and teen dating violence in grades 7 through 12. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, training on how to properly administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) and how to use an automated external defibrillator shall be included as a basis for curricula in all secondary schools in this State.

(b) Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year in grades 9 through 12, the program shall include instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of allergies. Information for the instruction, study, and discussion shall come from information provided by the Department of Public Health and the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. This instruction, study, and discussion shall include, at a minimum:

(1) recognizing the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) the steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; and

(3) safe emergency epinephrine administration.

(c) No later than 30 days after the first day of each school year, the school board of each public elementary and secondary school in the State shall provide all teachers, administrators, and other school personnel, as determined by school officials, with information regarding emergency procedures and life-saving techniques, including, without limitation, the Heimlich maneuver, hands-only cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and use of the school district's automated external defibrillator. The information shall be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization. A school board may use the services of non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in life-saving techniques to instruct teachers, administrators, and other school personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In addition, each school board is authorized to allocate appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to conduct training programs for teachers and other school personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming certified to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic programs and other extracurricular school activities to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements established by the American Red Cross or another qualified certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish and administer a matching grant program to pay for half of the cost that a school district incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization). A school district that applies for a grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought. The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a first-come, first-serve basis.

(d) No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course on AIDS or family life instruction or to receive training on how to properly administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation or how to use an automated external defibrillator if his or her parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in the course or program or the training shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

(e) Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom instruction in grades 5 through 12, shall be age and developmentally appropriate, and may include the information contained in the Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Instruction Resource Guide under Section 22-81 of the School Code, as applicable. The instruction, which shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of Education shall determine how to develop and make available to all elementary and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and guidelines that will assist the schools in incorporating the instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the school day or as part of an after-school program, support services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent, parents, or guardians are chemically dependent.

Beginning with the 2024-2025 school year, the program shall include instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of fentanyl in grades 6 through 12. Information for the instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of fentanyl shall be age and developmentally appropriate and may include information contained in the Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Instruction Resource Guide under Section 22-81 of the School Code, as applicable. The instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of fentanyl in grades 9 through 12 shall include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Information on fentanyl itself, including an explanation of the differences between synthetic and nonsynthetic opioids and illicit drugs, the variations of fentanyl itself, and the differences between the legal and illegal uses of fentanyl.

(2) The side effects and the risk factors of using fentanyl, along with information comparing the lethal amounts of fentanyl to other drugs. Information on the risk factors may include, but is not limited to:

(A) the lethal dose of fentanyl;

(B) how often fentanyl is placed in drugs without a person's knowledge;

(C) an explanation of what fentanyl does to a person's body and the severity of fentanyl's addictive properties; and

(D) how the consumption of fentanyl can lead to hypoxia, as well as an explanation of what hypoxia precisely does to a person's body.

(3) Details about the process of lacing fentanyl in other drugs and why drugs get laced with fentanyl.

(4) Details about how to detect fentanyl in drugs and how to save someone from an overdose of fentanyl, which shall include:

(A) how to buy and use fentanyl test strips;

(B) how to buy and use naloxone, either through a nasal spray or an injection; and

(C) how to detect if someone is overdosing on fentanyl. Students in grades 9 through 12 shall be assessed on the instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of fentanyl. The assessment may include, but is not limited to:

(i) the differences between synthetic and nonsynthetic drugs;

(ii) hypoxia;

(iii) the effects of fentanyl on a person's body;

(iv) the lethal dose of fentanyl; and

(v) how to detect and prevent overdoses. The instruction, study, and discussion on the dangers of fentanyl may be taught by a licensed educator, school nurse, school social worker, law enforcement officer, or school counselor.

(Source: P.A. 102-464, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1034, eff. 1-1-23; 103-212, eff. 1-1-24; 103-365, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-608, eff. 1-1-25; 103-810, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 625. The School Construction Law is amended by changing Section 5-300 as follows:

(105 ILCS 230/5-300)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 5-300. Early childhood construction grants.

(a) The Capital Development Board is authorized to make grants to public school districts and not-for-profit entities for early childhood construction projects. These grants shall be paid out of moneys appropriated for that purpose from the School Construction Fund, the Build Illinois Bond Fund, or the Rebuild Illinois Projects Fund. No grants may be awarded to entities providing services within private residences. A not-for-profit early childhood entity that rents or leases from another not-for-profit entity shall be considered an eligible entity under this Section.

A public school district or other eligible entity must provide local matching funds in the following manner:

(1) A public school district assigned to Tier 1 under Section 18-8.15 of the School Code or any other eligible entity in an area encompassed by that district must provide local matching funds in an amount equal to 3% of the grant awarded under this Section.

(2) A public school district assigned to Tier 2 under Section 18-8.15 of the School Code or any other eligible entity in an area encompassed by that district must provide local matching funds in an amount equal to 7.5% of the grant awarded under this Section.

(3) A public school district assigned to Tier 3 under Section 18-8.15 of the School Code or any other eligible entity in an area encompassed by that district must provide local matching funds in an amount equal to 8.75% of the grant awarded under this Section.

(4) A public school district assigned to Tier 4 under Section 18-8.15 of the School Code or any other eligible entity in an area encompassed by that district must provide local matching funds in an amount equal to 10% of the grant awarded under this Section.

A public school district or other eligible entity has no entitlement to a grant under this Section.

(b) The Capital Development Board shall adopt rules to implement this Section. These rules need not be the same as the rules for school construction project grants or school maintenance project grants. The rules may specify:

(1) the manner of applying for grants;

(2) project eligibility requirements;

(3) restrictions on the use of grant moneys;

(4) the manner in which school districts and other eligible entities must account for the use of grant moneys;

(5) requirements that new or improved facilities be used for early childhood and other related programs for a period of at least 10 years;

(5.5) additional eligibility requirements for each type of applicant; and

(6) any other provision that the Capital Development Board determines to be necessary or useful for the administration of this Section.

(b-5) When grants are made to non-profit corporations for the acquisition or construction of new facilities, the Capital Development Board or any State agency it so designates shall hold title to or place a lien on the facility for a period of 10 years after the date of the grant award, after which title to the facility shall be transferred to the non-profit corporation or the lien shall be removed, provided that the non-profit corporation has complied with the terms of its grant agreement. When grants are made to non-profit corporations for the purpose of renovation or rehabilitation, if the non-profit corporation does not comply with item (5) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Capital Development Board or any State agency it so designates shall recover the grant pursuant to the procedures outlined in the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act.

(c) The Capital Development Board, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall establish standards for the determination of priority needs concerning early childhood projects based on projects located in communities in the State with the greatest underserved population of young children, utilizing Census data and other reliable local early childhood service data.

(d) In each school year in which early childhood construction project grants are awarded, 20% of the total amount awarded shall be awarded to a school district with a population of more than 500,000, provided that the school district complies with the requirements of this Section and the rules adopted under this Section.

(e) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-759, eff. 8-2-24; revised 8-12-24.)

Section 630. The Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(110 ILCS 28/25)

Sec. 25. Advisory committee; membership.

(a) The Board of Higher Education, the Illinois Community College Board, the State Board of Education, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Early Childhood shall jointly convene a Consortium advisory committee to provide guidance on the operation of the Consortium.

(b) Membership on the advisory committee shall be comprised of employers and experts appointed by the Board of Higher Education, the Illinois Community College Board, the Department of Early Childhood, the Department of Human Services, and the State Board of Education. Membership shall also include all of the following members:

(1) An employer from a community-based child care provider, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(2) An employer from a for-profit child care provider, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(3) An employer from a nonprofit child care provider, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(4) A provider of family child care, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(5) An employer located in southern Illinois, appointed by the Department of Early Childhood.

(6) An employer located in central Illinois, appointed by the Department of Early Childhood.

(7) At least one member who represents an urban school district, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(8) At least one member who represents a suburban school district, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(9) At least one member who represents a rural school district, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(10) At least one member who represents a school district in a city with a population of 500,000 or more, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(11) Two early childhood advocates with statewide expertise in early childhood workforce issues, appointed by the Department of Early Childhood.

(12) The Chairperson or Vice-Chairperson and the Minority Spokesperson or a designee of the Senate Committee on Higher Education.

(13) The Chairperson or Vice-Chairperson and the Minority Spokesperson or a designee of the House Committee on Higher Education.

(14) One member representing the Illinois Community College Board, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(15) One member representing the Board of Higher Education, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(16) One member representing the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, appointed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(17) One member representing the State Board of Education, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the State Board of Education.

(18) One member representing the Department of Early Childhood, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Department of Early Childhood.

(19) One member representing the Department of Human Services, who shall serve as co-chairperson, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(20) One member representing INCCRRA, appointed by the Department of Early Childhood.

(21) One member representing the Department of Children and Family Services, appointed by the Department of Children and Family Services.

(22) One member representing an organization that advocates on behalf of community college trustees, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(23) One member of a union representing child care and early childhood providers, appointed by the Department of Human Services.

(24) Two members of unions representing higher education faculty, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(25) A representative from the College of Education of an urban public university, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(26) A representative from the College of Education of a suburban public university, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(27) A representative from the College of Education of a rural public university, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(28) A representative from the College of Education of a private university, appointed by the Board of Higher Education.

(29) A representative of an urban community college, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(30) A representative of a suburban community college, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(31) A representative of a rural community college, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(c) The advisory committee shall meet at least twice a year. The committee meetings shall be open to the public in accordance with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act.

(d) Except for the co-chairpersons of the advisory committee, the initial terms for advisory committee members after June 5, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-588) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall be set by lottery at the first meeting after June 5, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-588) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly as follows:

(1) One-third of members shall serve a one-year 1-year term.

(2) One-third of members shall serve a 2-year term.

(3) One-third of members shall serve a 3-year term.

(e) The initial term of co-chairpersons of the advisory committee shall be for 3 years.

(f) After the initial term, each subsequent term for the members of the advisory committee shall be for 3 years or until a successor is appointed.

(g) The members of the advisory committee shall serve without compensation, but shall be entitled to reimbursement for all necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties as members of the advisory committee from funds appropriated for that purpose.

(Source: P.A. 102-174, eff. 7-28-21; 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; revised 7-25-24.)

Section 635. The Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act is amended by changing Section 85 as follows:

(110 ILCS 148/85)

Sec. 85. Statewide planning and supports for College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs.

(a) By no later than June 30, 2017, the IPIC Agencies shall develop and adopt a comprehensive interagency plan for supporting the development of College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs throughout the State. Thereafter, the plan shall be re-assessed and updated at least once every 5 years. The plan shall:

(1) designate priority, State-level industry sectors consistent with those identified through federal and State workforce and economic development planning processes;

(2) articulate a strategy for supporting College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs that includes State and federal funding, business and philanthropic investments, and local investments;

(3) consider the need for school districts and postsecondary institutions to phase in endorsement programs and the elements specified in subsection (d) of Section 80 of this Act over multiple years; and

(4) address how College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs articulate to postsecondary institution degree programs.

(b) In accordance with the interagency plan developed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section and within the limits of available public and private resources, the IPIC Agencies shall establish a public-private steering committee for each priority State-level industry sector that includes representatives from one or more business-led, sector-based partnerships. By no later than June 30, 2018, each steering committee shall recommend to the IPIC Agencies a sequence of minimum career competencies for particular occupational pathways within that sector that students should attain by high school graduation as part of a College and Career Pathway Endorsement program. The IPIC Agencies shall establish methods to recognize and incentivize College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs that:

(1) address a priority State-level industry sector;

(2) are developed jointly by school districts, community colleges, Local Workforce Development Boards, and employers; and

(3) align to sequences of minimum career competencies defined pursuant to this subsection (b), with any regional modifications appropriate for local economic development objectives.

(c) In accordance with the interagency plan developed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section and within the limits of available public and private resources, the IPIC Agencies shall provide all of the following supports for College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs program:

(1) Provide guidance documents for implementation of each of the various elements of College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs.

(2) Provide or designate one or more web-based tools to support College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs, including a professional learning portfolio, Professional Skills Assessment, and mentoring platform.

(3) Make available a statewide insurance policy for appropriate types of Supervised Career Development Experiences.

(4) Provide or designate one or more model instructional units that provide an orientation to all career cluster areas.

(5) Coordinate with business-led, sector-based partnerships to:

(A) designate available curricular and instructional resources that school districts can voluntarily select to address requirements for College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs;

(B) designate stackable industry-based certifications, the completion of which demonstrates mastery of specific career competencies and that are widely valued by employers within a particular sector;

(C) deliver or support sector-oriented professional development, Career Exploration Activities, Intensive Career Exploration Experiences, Team-based Challenges, and Supervised Career Development Experiences; and

(D) develop recognition and incentives for school districts implementing and students attaining College and Career Pathway Endorsements that align to the sequence of minimum career competencies defined pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) To support articulation of College and Career Pathway Endorsement programs into higher education, by no later than June 30, 2018, the ICCB and IBHE shall jointly adopt, in consultation with postsecondary institutions, requirements for postsecondary institutions to define first-year course schedules and degree programs with Endorsement areas to support the successful transition of Endorsement recipients into related degree programs. These requirements shall take effect in the 2020-2021 school year.

(Source: P.A. 99-674, eff. 7-29-16; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 640. The Public Higher Education Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15 as follows:

(110 ILCS 167/15)

Sec. 15. National Guard and reservist classwork policy. The governing board of each public institution of higher education shall adopt a policy to allow a student who is a member of the National Guard of any state, the District of Columbia, a commonwealth, or a territory of the United States or any reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States to submit classwork and complete any other class assignments missed due to the student participating in a drill or other military obligation required as a member of the National Guard or the reserve component.

(Source: P.A. 103-871, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 167/16)

Sec. 16 15. Admission based on legacy status or donor relation prohibited.

(a) In this Section:

"Alumnus" means a graduate of a public institution of higher education.

"Familial relationship" means an individual's father, mother, son, daughter, brother, sister, uncle, aunt, great-aunt, great-uncle, first cousin, nephew, niece, husband, wife, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, stepfather, stepmother, stepson, stepdaughter, stepbrother, stepsister, half brother, or half sister; the father, mother, grandfather, or grandmother of the individual's spouse; or the individual's fiance or fiancee.

"Legacy status" means the familial relationship of an individual applying for admission to a public institution of higher education to an alumnus or former or current attendee of the public institution of higher education.

(b) In determining admission to a public institution of higher education, the public institution of higher education may not consider an applicant's legacy status or the applicant's familial relationship to any past, current, or prospective donor of something of value to the public institution of higher education as a factor in admitting the applicant.

(Source: P.A. 103-877, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-20-24.)

(110 ILCS 167/17)

Sec. 17 15. Transcript evaluation fee waivers.

(a) In this Section, "refugee" means a person who has entered the United States on a refugee status from Iraq or Afghanistan.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2025, each public institution of higher education shall pay on behalf of a refugee or reimburse a refugee for payment of any transcript evaluation fees that are required by the public institution of higher education to be paid during the admission process.

(Source: P.A. 103-913, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-20-24.)

Section 645. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/8) (from Ch. 144, par. 188)

Sec. 8. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University shall submit to the Board not later than the 15th day of November of each year their its budget proposals for the operation and capital needs of the institutions under their its governance or supervision for the ensuing fiscal year. The Illinois Community College Board shall submit to the Board by December 15 of each year its budget proposal for the operation and capital needs of the institutions under its governance or supervision for the ensuing fiscal year. Each budget proposal shall conform to the procedures developed by the Board in the design of an information system for State universities and colleges.

In order to maintain a cohesive system of higher education, the Board and its staff shall communicate on a regular basis with all public university presidents. They shall meet at least semiannually to achieve economies of scale where possible and provide the most innovative and efficient programs and services.

The Board, in the analysis of formulating the annual budget request, shall consider rates of tuition and fees and undergraduate tuition and fee waiver programs at the State universities and colleges. The Board shall also consider the current and projected utilization of the total physical plant of each campus of a university or college in approving the capital budget for any new building or facility.

The Board of Higher Education shall submit to the Governor, to the General Assembly, and to the appropriate budget agencies of the Governor and General Assembly its analysis and recommendations on such budget proposals.

The Board is directed to form a broad-based group of individuals representing the Office of the Governor, the General Assembly, public institutions of higher education, State agencies, business and industry, statewide organizations representing faculty and staff, and others as the Board shall deem appropriate to devise a system for allocating State resources to public institutions of higher education based upon performance in achieving State goals related to student success and certificate and degree completion.

Beginning in Fiscal Year 2013, the Board of Higher Education budget recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly shall include allocations to public institutions of higher education based upon performance metrics designed to promote and measure student success in degree and certificate completion. Public university metrics must be adopted by the Board by rule, and public community college metrics must be adopted by the Illinois Community College Board by rule. These metrics must be developed and promulgated in accordance with the following principles:

(1) The metrics must be developed in consultation with public institutions of higher education, as well as other State educational agencies and other higher education organizations, associations, interests, and stakeholders as deemed appropriate by the Board.

(2) The metrics shall include provisions for recognizing the demands on and rewarding the performance of institutions in advancing the success of students who are academically or financially at risk, including first-generation students, low-income students, and students traditionally underrepresented in higher education, as specified in Section 9.16 of this Act.

(3) The metrics shall recognize and account for the differentiated missions of institutions and sectors of higher education.

(4) The metrics shall focus on the fundamental goal of increasing completion of college courses, certificates, and degrees. Performance metrics shall recognize the unique and broad mission of public community colleges through consideration of additional factors, including, but not limited to, enrollment, progress through key academic milestones, transfer to a baccalaureate institution, and degree completion.

(5) The metrics must be designed to maintain the quality of degrees, certificates, courses, and programs. In devising performance metrics, the Board may be guided by the report of the Higher Education Finance Study Commission.

Each State university must submit its plan for capital improvements of non-instructional facilities to the Board for approval before final commitments are made if the total cost of the project as approved by the institution's board of control is in excess of $2 million. Non-instructional uses shall include, but not be limited to, dormitories, union buildings, field houses, stadium, other recreational facilities, and parking lots. The Board shall determine whether or not any project submitted for approval is consistent with the strategic plan for higher education and with instructional buildings that are provided for therein. If the project is found by a majority of the Board not to be consistent, such capital improvement shall not be constructed.

(Source: P.A. 102-1046, eff. 6-7-22; 103-940, eff. 8-9-24; revised 8-23-24.)

Section 650. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 90 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 180 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/90)

Sec. 90. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board of Trustees.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-17-24.)

(110 ILCS 305/180)

Sec. 180. Innovation center. The Board of Trustees, directly or in cooperation with the University of Illinois at Springfield Innovation Center partners, which shall consist of other institutions of higher education, not-for-profit organizations, businesses, and local governments, may finance, design, construct, enlarge, improve, equip, complete, operate, control, and manage a University of Illinois at Springfield Innovation Center (UIS Innovation Center), which is a facility or facilities dedicated to fostering and supporting innovation in academics, entrepreneurship, workforce development, policy development, and non-profit or philanthropic activities. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the UIS Innovation Center (1) may be located on land owned by the Board of Trustees or a University of Illinois at Springfield Innovation Center partner; and (2) shall have costs incurred in connection with the design, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipping, and completion of the business incubation and innovation facilities paid with funds appropriated to the Capital Development Board from the Build Illinois Bond Fund for a grant to the Board of Trustees for the UIS Innovation Center. If the UIS Innovation Center is located on land owned by a University of Illinois at Springfield Innovation Center partner, the Board of Trustees must have an ownership interest in the facility or facilities or a portion thereof. An ownership interest shall bear a reasonable relationship to the proportional share of the costs paid by such grant funds for a term equal to at least the useful life of the innovation facilities.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(110 ILCS 305/185)

Sec. 185 180. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board of Trustees shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(110 ILCS 305/190)

Sec. 190 180. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board of Trustees shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 655. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by changing Section 75 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 155 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/75)

Sec. 75. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 520/155)

Sec. 155. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 520/160)

Sec. 160 155. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 660. The Chicago State University Law is amended by changing Section 5-185 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-265 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-185)

Sec. 5-185. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-265)

Sec. 5-265. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-270)

Sec. 5-270 5-265. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 665. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 10-185 and by setting forth and multiple versions of Section 10-270 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-185)

Sec. 10-185. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-270)

Sec. 10-270. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-275)

Sec. 10-275 10-270. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 670. The Governors State University Law is amended by changing Section 15-185 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 15-265 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-185)

Sec. 15-185. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-265)

Sec. 15-265. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-270)

Sec. 15-270 15-265. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 675. The Illinois State University Law is amended by changing Section 20-190 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 20-275 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-190)

Sec. 20-190. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-275)

Sec. 20-275. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-280)

Sec. 20-280 20-275. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 680. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 25-185 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-270 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-185)

Sec. 25-185. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-270)

Sec. 25-270. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-275)

Sec. 25-275 25-270. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 685. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by changing Section 30-195 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 30-280 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-195)

Sec. 30-195. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-280)

Sec. 30-280. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-285)

Sec. 30-285 30-280. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 690. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by changing Sections 35-115 and 35-190 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 35-275 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-115)

Sec. 35-115. Television station.

(a) The Board of Western Illinois University is authorized, under applicable permit and license of the Federal Communications Communication Commission, to construct and operate an educational television station at or near Macomb, Illinois with a translator at or near Moline, Illinois.

(b) The Board may apply on behalf of Western Illinois University to the Department of Health, Education and Welfare for funds, as authorized under the Educational Television Facilities Act of 1962, to assist in the development of the educational television program authorized in subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 89-4, eff. 1-1-96; revised 10-23-24.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-190)

Sec. 35-190. Employment contract limitations. This Section applies to the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-694) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements. With respect to employment contracts entered into with the president or all chancellors of the University:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses.

(4) Severance payments or contract buyouts may be placed in an escrow account if there are pending criminal charges against the president or all chancellors of the University related to their employment.

(5) Final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University must be made during an open meeting of the Board.

(6) Public notice, compliant with the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, must be given prior to final action on the formation, renewal, extension, or termination of the employment contracts of the president or all chancellors of the University and must include a copy of the Board item or other documentation providing, at a minimum, a description of the proposed principal financial components of the president's or all chancellors' appointments.

(7) Any performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation to the president or all chancellors of the University must be approved by the Board in an open meeting. The performance upon which the bonus is based must be made available to the public no less than 48 hours before Board approval of the performance-based bonus or incentive-based compensation.

(8) Board minutes, board packets, and annual performance reviews concerning the president or all chancellors of the University must be made available to the public on the University's Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 99-694, eff. 1-1-17; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-275)

Sec. 35-275. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the Board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-280)

Sec. 35-280 35-275. Enrollment reporting.

(a) The Board shall report to the Board of Higher Education by the 15th business day after the start of the academic year all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The Board of Higher Education shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

Section 695. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Sections 3-20.3.01 and 3-65 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 3-29.26 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-20.3.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 103-20.3.01)

Sec. 3-20.3.01. Whenever, as a result of any lawful order of any agency, other than a local community college board, having authority to enforce any law or regulation designed for the protection, health, or safety of community college students, employees, or visitors, or any law or regulation for the protection and safety of the environment, pursuant to the "Environmental Protection Act", any local community college district, including any district to which Article VII of this Act applies, is required to alter or repair any physical facilities, or whenever any district determines that it is necessary for energy conservation, health, or safety, environmental protection or accessibility purposes that any physical facilities should be altered or repaired and that such alterations or repairs will be made with funds not necessary for the completion of approved and recommended projects for fire prevention and safety, or whenever after September 11, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1366) this amendatory Act of 1984 any district, including any district to which Article VII applies, provides for alterations or repairs determined by the local community college board to be necessary for health and safety, environmental protection, accessibility or energy conservation purposes, such district may, by proper resolution which specifically identifies the project and which is adopted pursuant to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, levy a tax for the purpose of paying for such alterations or repairs, or survey by a licensed architect or engineer, upon the equalized assessed value of all the taxable property of the district at a rate not to exceed .05% per year for a period sufficient to finance such alterations or repairs, upon the following conditions:

(a) When in the judgment of the local community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered, determined as necessary.

(b) When a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount that is necessary to make the alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary has been secured by the local community college district.

The filing of a certified copy of the resolution or ordinance levying the tax shall be the authority of the county clerk or clerks to extend such tax; provided, however, that in no event shall the extension for the current and preceding years, if any, under this Section be greater than the amount so approved, and interest on bonds issued pursuant to this Section and in the event such current extension and preceding extensions exceed such approval and interest, it shall be reduced proportionately.

The county clerk of each of the counties in which any community college district levying a tax under the authority of this Section is located, in reducing raised levies, shall not consider any such tax as a part of the general levy for community college purposes and shall not include the same in the limitation of any other tax rate which may be extended. Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as all other taxes of community college districts.

The tax rate limit hereinabove specified in this Section may be increased to .10% upon the approval of a proposition to effect such increase by a majority of the electors voting on that proposition at a regular scheduled election. Such proposition may be initiated by resolution of the local community college board and shall be certified by the secretary of the local community college board to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

Each local community college district authorized to levy any tax pursuant to this Section may also or in the alternative by proper resolution or ordinance borrow money for such specifically identified purposes not in excess of $4,500,000 in the aggregate at any one time when in the judgment of the local community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary and a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount has been secured by the local community college district, and as evidence of such indebtedness may issue bonds without referendum. However, Community College District No. 522 and Community College District No. 536 may or in the alternative by proper resolution or ordinance borrow money for such specifically identified purposes not in excess of $20,000,000 in the aggregate at any one time when in the judgment of the community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary and a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount has been secured by the community college district, and as evidence of such indebtedness may issue bonds without referendum. Such bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates authorized by the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, shall mature within 20 years from date, and shall be signed by the chairman, secretary, and treasurer of the local community college board.

In order to authorize and issue such bonds the local community college board shall adopt a resolution fixing the amount of bonds, the date thereof, the maturities thereof and rates of interest thereof, and the board by such resolution, or in a district to which Article VII applies the city council upon demand and under the direction of the board by ordinance, shall provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property in the local community college district sufficient to pay the principal and interest on such bonds to maturity. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of each of the counties in which the community college district is located of a certified copy of such resolution or ordinance it is the duty of the county clerk or clerks to extend the tax therefor without limit as to rate or amount and in addition to and in excess of all other taxes heretofore or hereafter authorized to be levied by such community college district.

The State Board shall set through administrative rule regulations and specifications for minimum requirements for the construction, remodeling, or rehabilitation of heating, ventilating, air conditioning, lighting, seating, water supply, toilet, accessibility, fire safety, and any other matter that will conserve, preserve, or provide for the protection and the health or safety of individuals in or on community college property and will conserve the integrity of the physical facilities of the district.

This Section is cumulative and constitutes complete authority for the issuance of bonds as provided in this Section notwithstanding any other statute or law to the contrary.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-655, eff. 7-28-16; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.26)

Sec. 3-29.26. Winter weather emergency closure; educational support services pay. If a campus is closed due to a city, county, or State declaration of a winter weather emergency, the board shall pay to its employees who provide educational support services to the campus, including, but not limited to, custodial employees, building maintenance employees, transportation employees, food service providers, classroom assistants, or administrative staff, their daily, regular rate of pay and benefits rendered for the campus closure if the closure precludes them from performing their regularly scheduled duties and the employee would have reported for work but for the closure; however, this requirement does not apply if the day is rescheduled and the employee will be paid the employee's daily, regular rate of pay and benefits for the rescheduled day when services are rendered.

(Source: P.A. 103-749, eff. 1-1-25.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.27)

Sec. 3-29.27 3-29.26. Enrollment reporting.

(a) Annually, on or before October 1, each board shall report to the State Board all of the following student enrollment data:

(1) The number of students enrolled at the start of the previous academic year.

(2) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the previous academic year.

(3) The number of students enrolled at the start of the current academic year.

(4) The number of students enrolled full time at the start of the current academic year.

(5) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(6) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the previous academic year.

(7) The number of students enrolled in online learning at the start of the current academic year.

(8) The number of students enrolled in in-person learning at the start of the current academic year.

(9) The rolling average number of students enrolled over the previous 5 academic years.

(b) The State Board shall post the student enrollment data reported under subsection (a) on its Internet website.

(Source: P.A. 103-1020, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-24-24.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-65)

Sec. 3-65. Employment contract limitations.

(a) This Section applies to employment contracts entered into, amended, renewed, or extended after September 22, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-482) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. This Section does not apply to collective bargaining agreements.

(b) The following apply to any employment contract entered into with an employee of the community college district:

(1) Severance under the contract may not exceed one year's year salary and applicable benefits.

(2) A contract with a determinate start and end date may not exceed 4 years.

(3) The contract may not include any automatic rollover clauses, and all renewals or extensions of contracts must be made during an open meeting of the board.

(4) Public notice, in a form as determined by the State Board, must be given of an employment contract entered into, amended, renewed, or extended and must include a complete description of the action to be taken, as well the contract itself, including all addendums or any other documents that change an initial contract.

(Source: P.A. 99-482, eff. 9-22-15; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 700. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 50 and 52 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 65.125 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/50)

Sec. 50. Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Eligible applicant" means a minority student who has graduated from high school or has received a State of Illinois High School Diploma and has maintained a cumulative grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale, and who by reason thereof is entitled to apply for scholarships to be awarded under this Section.

"Minority student" means a student who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Qualified bilingual minority applicant" means a qualified student who demonstrates proficiency in a language other than English by (i) receiving a State Seal of Biliteracy from the State Board of Education or (ii) receiving a passing score on an educator licensure target language proficiency test.

"Qualified student" means a person (i) who is a resident of this State and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States; (ii) who is a minority student, as defined in this Section; (iii) who, as an eligible applicant, has made a timely application for a minority teaching scholarship under this Section; (iv) who is enrolled on at least a half-time basis at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (v) who is enrolled in a course of study leading to teacher licensure, including alternative teacher licensure, or, if the student is already licensed to teach, in a course of study leading to an additional teaching endorsement or a master's degree in an academic field in which he or she is teaching or plans to teach or who has received one or more College and Career Pathway Endorsements pursuant to Section 80 of the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act and commits to enrolling in a course of study leading to teacher licensure, including alternative teacher licensure; (vi) who maintains a grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale; and (vii) who continues to advance satisfactorily toward the attainment of a degree.

(b) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois minority students to pursue teaching careers at the preschool or elementary or secondary school level and to address and alleviate the teacher shortage crisis in this State described under the provisions of the Transitions in Education Act, each qualified student shall be awarded a minority teacher scholarship to any qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. However, preference may be given to qualified applicants enrolled at or above the junior level.

(c) Each minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the qualified Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000. However, if at least $2,850,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program, then, in each fiscal year thereafter, each scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the qualified Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $7,500; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $7,500.

(d) The total amount of minority teacher scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled. If the amount of a minority teacher scholarship to be awarded to a qualified student as provided in subsection (c) of this Section exceeds the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled, the minority teacher scholarship shall be reduced by an amount equal to the amount by which the combined financial assistance available to the student exceeds the cost of attendance.

(e) The maximum number of academic terms for which a qualified student can receive minority teacher scholarship assistance shall be 8 semesters or 12 quarters.

(f) In any academic year for which an eligible applicant under this Section accepts financial assistance through the Paul Douglas Teacher Scholarship Program, as authorized by Section 551 et seq. of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the applicant shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(g) All applications for minority teacher scholarships to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Commission on forms which the Commission shall provide for eligible applicants. The form of applications and the information required to be set forth therein shall be determined by the Commission, and the Commission shall require eligible applicants to submit with their applications such supporting documents or recommendations as the Commission deems necessary.

(h) Subject to a separate appropriation for such purposes, payment of any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be determined by the Commission. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this subsection shall be paid to the institution and used only for payment of the tuition and fee and room and board expenses incurred by the student in connection with his or her attendance at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. Any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be applicable to 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment. If a qualified student withdraws from enrollment prior to completion of the first semester or quarter for which the minority teacher scholarship is applicable, the school shall refund to the Commission the full amount of the minority teacher scholarship.

(i) The Commission shall administer the minority teacher scholarship aid program established by this Section and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(j) When an appropriation to the Commission for a given fiscal year is insufficient to provide scholarships to all qualified students, the Commission shall allocate the appropriation in accordance with this subsection. If funds are insufficient to provide all qualified students with a scholarship as authorized by this Section, the Commission shall allocate the available scholarship funds for that fiscal year to qualified students who submit a complete application form on or before a date specified by the Commission based on the following order of priority:

(1) To students who received a scholarship under this Section in the prior academic year and who remain eligible for a minority teacher scholarship under this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (k), to students who demonstrate financial need, as determined by the Commission.

(k) Notwithstanding paragraph (2) of subsection (j), at least 35% of the funds appropriated for scholarships awarded under this Section in each fiscal year shall be reserved for qualified male minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified Black male applicants beginning with fiscal year 2023. If the Commission does not receive enough applications from qualified male minorities on or before January 1 of each fiscal year to award 35% of the funds appropriated for these scholarships to qualified male minority applicants, then the Commission may award a portion of the reserved funds to qualified female minority applicants in accordance with subsection (j).

Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $2,850,000 but less than $4,200,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for scholarships awarded under this Section, then at least 10% of the funds appropriated shall be reserved for qualified bilingual minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified bilingual minority applicants who are enrolled in an educator preparation program with a concentration in bilingual, bicultural education. Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $4,200,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program, then at least 30% of the funds appropriated shall be reserved for qualified bilingual minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified bilingual minority applicants who are enrolled in an educator preparation program with a concentration in bilingual, bicultural education. Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $2,850,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for scholarships awarded under this Section but the Commission does not receive enough applications from qualified bilingual minority applicants on or before January 1 of that fiscal year to award at least 10% of the funds appropriated to qualified bilingual minority applicants, then the Commission may, in its discretion, award a portion of the reserved funds to other qualified students in accordance with subsection (j).

(l) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Commission to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the one-year period following the termination of the program for which the recipient was awarded a minority teacher scholarship, the recipient (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than one year for each year of scholarship assistance he or she was awarded under this Section; (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool, elementary school, or secondary school at which no less than 30% of the enrolled students are minority students in the year during which the recipient begins teaching at the school or may instead, if the recipient received a scholarship as a qualified bilingual minority applicant, fulfill this teaching obligation in a program in transitional bilingual education pursuant to Article 14C of the School Code or in a school in which 20 or more English learner students in the same language classification are enrolled; and (iii) shall, upon request by the Commission, provide the Commission with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection.

(m) If a recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (l) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, at a rate of interest equal to 5%, and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. If a recipient who enters into repayment under this subsection (m) subsequently, within 5 years of entering repayment, begins to teach at a school meeting the description under subsection (l) of this Section, the Commission may reduce the amount owed by the recipient in proportion to the amount of the teaching obligation completed. The Commission is authorized to establish rules relating to its collection activities for repayment of scholarships under this Section. All repayments collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the State Comptroller for deposit into the State's General Revenue Fund.

(n) A recipient of minority teacher scholarship shall not be considered in violation of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (l) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving, not in excess of 3 years, as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability for a period of time not to exceed 3 years as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full time employment as a teacher at an Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or elementary or secondary school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (l) of this Section and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) becomes a person with a permanent total disability as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (vi) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain licensure as a teacher in Illinois; or (vii) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation.

(o) Scholarship recipients under this Section who withdraw from a program of teacher education but remain enrolled in school to continue their postsecondary studies in another academic discipline shall not be required to commence repayment of their Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship so long as they remain enrolled in school on a full-time basis or if they can document for the Commission special circumstances that warrant extension of repayment.

(p) If the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program does not expend at least 90% of the amount appropriated for the program in a given fiscal year for 3 consecutive fiscal years and the Commission does not receive enough applications from the groups identified in subsection (k) on or before January 1 in each of those fiscal years to meet the percentage reserved for those groups under subsection (k), then up to 3% of amount appropriated for the program for each of next 3 fiscal years shall be allocated to increasing awareness of the program and for the recruitment of Black male applicants. The Commission shall make a recommendation to the General Assembly by January 1 of the year immediately following the end of that third fiscal year regarding whether the amount allocated to increasing awareness and recruitment should continue.

(q) Each qualified Illinois institution of higher learning that receives funds from the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program shall host an annual information session at the institution about the program for teacher candidates of color in accordance with rules adopted by the Commission. Additionally, the institution shall ensure that each scholarship recipient enrolled at the institution meets with an academic advisor at least once per academic year to facilitate on-time completion of the recipient's educator preparation program.

(r) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 101-654 will first take effect with awards made for the 2022-2023 academic year.

(Source: P.A. 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; 103-448, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-19-24.)

(110 ILCS 947/52)

Sec. 52. Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program; Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching.

(a) In this Section, "Foundation" means the Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching, a registered 501(c)(3) not-for-profit corporation.

(a-2) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois students, especially minority students, to pursue teaching careers, especially in teacher shortage disciplines (which shall be defined to include early childhood education) or at hard-to-staff schools (as defined by the Commission in consultation with the State Board of Education), to provide those students with the crucial mentoring, guidance, and in-service support that will significantly increase the likelihood that they will complete their full teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in targeted disciplines and hard-to-staff schools, and to ensure that students in this State will continue to have access to a pool of highly qualified highly-qualified teachers, each qualified student shall be awarded a Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarship to any Illinois institution of higher learning. The Commission shall administer the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program, which shall be managed by the Foundation pursuant to the terms of a grant agreement meeting the requirements of Section 4 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a qualified student shall be a student who meets the following qualifications:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States;

(2) is a high school graduate or a person who has received a State of Illinois High School Diploma;

(3) is enrolled or accepted, on at least a half-time basis, at an institution of higher learning;

(4) is pursuing a postsecondary course of study leading to initial certification or pursuing additional course work needed to gain State Board of Education approval to teach, including alternative teacher licensure; and

(5) is a participant in programs managed by and is approved to receive a scholarship from the Foundation.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) Funds designated for the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program shall be used by the Commission for the payment of scholarship assistance under this Section or for the award of grant funds, subject to the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act, to the Foundation. Subject to appropriation, awards of grant funds to the Foundation shall be made on an annual basis and following an application for grant funds by the Foundation.

(b-10) Each year, the Foundation shall include in its application to the Commission for grant funds an estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance to be provided to qualified students during the grant period. Any amount of appropriated funds exceeding the estimated amount of scholarship assistance may be awarded by the Commission to the Foundation for management expenses expected to be incurred by the Foundation in providing the mentoring, guidance, and in-service supports that will increase the likelihood that qualified students will complete their teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in hard-to-staff schools. If the estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance described in the Foundation's application is less than the actual amount required for the award of scholarship assistance to qualified students, the Foundation shall be responsible for using awarded grant funds to ensure all qualified students receive scholarship assistance under this Section.

(b-15) All grant funds not expended or legally obligated within the time specified in a grant agreement between the Foundation and the Commission shall be returned to the Commission within 45 days. Any funds legally obligated by the end of a grant agreement shall be liquidated within 45 days or otherwise returned to the Commission within 90 days after the end of the grant agreement that resulted in the award of grant funds.

(c) Each scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that, in the case of a recipient who does not reside on campus at the institution of higher learning at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this Section shall be paid to the institution on behalf of recipients.

(d) The total amount of scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution of higher learning at which the student is enrolled. In any academic year for which a qualified student under this Section accepts financial assistance through any other teacher scholarship program administered by the Commission, a qualified student shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(e) A recipient may receive up to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of scholarship assistance under this Section. Scholarship funds are applicable toward 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment each academic year.

(f) All applications for scholarship assistance to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Foundation in a form determined by the Foundation. Each year, the Foundation shall notify the Commission of the individuals awarded scholarship assistance under this Section. Each year, at least 30% of the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarships shall be awarded to students residing in counties having a population of less than 500,000.

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Commission shall administer the payment of scholarship assistance provided through the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for the effective implementation of this Section.

(i) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Foundation to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the 2-year period following the termination of the academic program for which the recipient was awarded a scholarship, the recipient: (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than 5 years, (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or an Illinois public elementary or secondary school that qualifies for teacher loan cancellation under Section 465(a)(2)(A) of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ee(a)(2)(A)) or other Illinois schools deemed eligible for fulfilling the teaching commitment as designated by the Foundation, and (iii) shall, upon request of the Foundation, provide the Foundation with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection. Upon request, the Foundation shall provide evidence of teacher fulfillment to the Commission.

(j) If a recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (i) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, plus interest at a rate of 5% and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. If a recipient who enters into repayment under this subsection (j) subsequently, within 5 years of entering repayment, begins to teach at a school meeting the description under subsection (i) of this Section, the Commission may reduce the amount owed by the recipient in proportion to the amount of the teaching obligation completed. Reduction of the amount owed shall not be construed as reinstatement in the Golden Apple Scholars program. Reinstatement in the program shall be solely at the discretion of the Golden Apple Foundation on terms determined by the Foundation. Payments received by the Commission under this subsection (j) shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the General Revenue Fund, except that that portion of a recipient's repayment that equals the amount in expenses that the Commission has reasonably incurred in attempting collection from that recipient shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the ISAC Accounts Receivable Fund, a special fund in the State treasury.

(k) A recipient of a scholarship awarded by the Foundation under this Section shall not be considered to have failed to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full-time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at an institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability, as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a teacher at a school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (i) and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain certification as a teacher in Illinois; (vi) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation; or (vii) is participating in a program established under Executive Order 10924 of the President of the United States or the federal National Community Service Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12501 et seq.). Any such extension of the period during which the teaching requirement must be fulfilled shall be subject to limitations of duration as established by the Commission.

(l) A recipient who fails to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section shall repay the amount of scholarship assistance awarded to them under this Section within 10 years.

(m) Annually, at a time determined by the Commission in consultation with the Foundation, the Foundation shall submit a report to assist the Commission in monitoring the Foundation's performance of grant activities. The report shall describe the following:

(1) the Foundation's anticipated expenditures for the next fiscal year;

(2) the number of qualified students receiving scholarship assistance at each institution of higher learning where a qualified student was enrolled under this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(3) the total monetary value of scholarship funds paid to each institution of higher learning at which a qualified student was enrolled during the previous fiscal year;

(4) the number of scholarship recipients who completed a baccalaureate degree during the previous fiscal year;

(5) the number of scholarship recipients who fulfilled their teaching obligation during the previous fiscal year;

(6) the number of scholarship recipients who failed to fulfill their teaching obligation during the previous fiscal year;

(7) the number of scholarship recipients granted an extension described in subsection (k) of this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(8) the number of scholarship recipients required to repay scholarship assistance in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(9) the number of scholarship recipients who successfully repaid scholarship assistance in full during the previous fiscal year;

(10) the number of scholarship recipients who defaulted on their obligation to repay scholarship assistance during the previous fiscal year;

(11) the amount of scholarship assistance subject to collection in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section at the end of the previous fiscal year;

(12) the amount of collected funds to be remitted to the Comptroller in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section at the end of the previous fiscal year; and

(13) other information that the Commission may reasonably request.

(n) Nothing in this Section shall affect the rights of the Commission to collect moneys owed to it by recipients of scholarship assistance through the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Program, repealed by Public Act 98-533.

(o) The Auditor General shall prepare an annual audit of the operations and finances of the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program. This audit shall be provided to the Governor, General Assembly, and the Commission.

(p) The suspension of grant making authority found in Section 4.2 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act shall not apply to grants made pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1100, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-448, eff. 8-4-23; revised 10-16-24.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.125)

Sec. 65.125. Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Scholarship Program.

(a) As used in this Section, "incumbent workforce" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Act.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Commission shall implement and administer an early childhood educator scholarship program, to be known as the Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Scholarship Program. Under the Program, the Commission shall annually award scholarships to early childhood education students enrolled in institutions of higher education participating in the Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity under the Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Act with preference given to members of the incumbent workforce.

(c) To ensure alignment with Consortium goals and changing workforce needs, the Commission shall work in partnership with the Board of Higher Education and the Illinois Community College Board in program design, and the Board of Higher Education and the Illinois Community College Board shall solicit feedback from the Consortium advisory committee established under Section 25 of the Early Childhood Access Consortium for Equity Act.

(d) In awarding a scholarship under this Section, the Commission may give preference to applicants who received a scholarship under this Section during the prior academic year, to applicants with financial need, or both.

(e) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Commission to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges to continue or return to teaching or direct services in the early childhood care and education field in this State after they complete their program of study.

(f) The Commission may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the Program.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.130)

Sec. 65.130 65.125. Journalism Student Scholarship Program.

(a) As used in this Section, "local news organization" has the meaning given to that term in the Strengthening Community Media Act.

(b) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois students to pursue careers in journalism, especially in underserved areas of the State, and to provide those students with financial assistance to increase the likelihood that they will complete their full academic commitment and elect to remain in Illinois to pursue a career in journalism, subject to appropriation, not sooner than the 2025-2026 academic year, the Commission shall implement and administer the Journalism Student Scholarship Program. The Commission shall annually award scholarships to persons preparing to work in Illinois, with preference given to those preparing to work in underserved areas. These scholarships shall be awarded to individuals who make application to the Commission and agree to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the 2-year period following the termination of the academic program for which the recipient was awarded a scholarship, the recipient shall:

(1) begin working in journalism in this State for a period of not less than 2 years;

(2) fulfill this obligation at local news organization; and

(3) upon request of the Commission, provide the Commission with evidence that the recipient is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection.

(c) An eligible student is a student who meets the following qualifications:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States;

(2) is a high school graduate or a person who has received an Illinois high school diploma;

(3) is enrolled or accepted, on at least a half-time basis, at an institution of higher learning; and

(4) is pursuing a postsecondary course of study leading to a career in journalism or a similar field.

(d) Each scholarship shall be used by the recipient for the payment of tuition and fees at an institution of higher learning.

(e) The Commission shall administer the Program and shall adopt all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(Source: P.A. 103-1021, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

Section 705. The Student Loan Servicing Rights Act is amended by changing Section 5-70 as follows:

(110 ILCS 992/5-70)

Sec. 5-70. Cosigner release rights.

(a) A servicer may not impose any restriction that permanently bars a borrower from qualifying for cosigner release, including restricting the number of times a borrower may apply for cosigner release.

(b) A servicer may not impose any negative consequences on a borrower or cosigner during the 60 days following the issuance of the notice required pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-50 of this Act or until the servicer makes a final determination about a borrower's cosigner release application, whichever occurs later. As used in this subsection (b), "negative consequences" includes the imposition of additional eligibility criteria, negative credit reporting, lost eligibility or cosigner release, late fees, interest capitalization, or other financial injury.

(c) For any private education loan issued on or after August 2, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-748) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, a servicer may not require proof of more than 12 consecutive, on-time payments as part of the criteria for cosigner release. A borrower who has paid the equivalent of 12 months of principal and interest payments within any 12-month period is deemed to have satisfied the consecutive, on-time payment requirement even if the borrower has not made payments monthly during the 12-month period. If a borrower or cosigner requests a change in terms that restarts the count of consecutive, on-time payments required for cosigner release, the servicer shall notify the borrower and cosigner in writing of the impact of the change and provide the borrower and cosigner with the right to withdraw or reverse the request to avoid the impact.

(d) A borrower may request an appeal of a servicer's determination to deny a request for cosigner release, and the servicer shall permit the borrower to submit additional documentation evidencing the borrower's ability, willingness, and stability to meet the payment obligations. The borrower may request that another employee of the servicer review the cosigner release determination.

(e) A servicer shall establish and maintain a comprehensive record management system reasonably designed to ensure the accuracy, integrity, and completeness of information about cosigner release applications and to ensure compliance with applicable State and federal laws. The system must include the number of cosigner release cosigner-release applications received, the approval and denial rate, and the primary reasons for any denial.

(Source: P.A. 103-748, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 710. The Workforce Development through Charitable Loan Repayment Act is amended by changing Section 10-1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 998/10-1)

Sec. 10-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Workforce Development through Charitable Loan Repayment Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 715. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 1705)

Sec. 5. Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board.

(a) There is hereby created the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board.

(a-5) Until July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board shall consist of 7 members, no more than 4 of whom may be of the same political party, who are residents of Illinois appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

The term of each appointed member of the Board who is in office on June 30, 2003 shall terminate at the close of business on that date or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later.

(b) Beginning on July 1, 2003 or when all of the new members to be initially appointed under this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly have been appointed by the Governor, whichever occurs later, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Board shall consist of 5 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. No more than 3 members may be of the same political party.

The Governor shall appoint to the Board only persons who are residents of Illinois and have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations in representing educational employers or educational employees in collective bargaining matters. One appointed member shall be designated at the time of his or her appointment to serve as chairman.

Of the initial members appointed pursuant to Public Act 93-509 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, 2 shall be designated at the time of appointment to serve a term of 6 years, 2 shall be designated at the time of appointment to serve a term of 4 years, and the other shall be designated at the time of his or her appointment to serve a term of 4 years, with each to serve until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

Each subsequent member shall be appointed in like manner for a term of 6 years and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. Each member of the Board is eligible for reappointment. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments for the balance of the unexpired term.

(c) The chairman shall be paid $50,000 per year, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. Other members of the Board shall each be paid $45,000 per year, or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. They shall be entitled to reimbursement for necessary traveling and other official expenditures necessitated by their official duties.

Each member shall devote his entire time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation.

(d) Three members of the Board constitute a quorum and a vacancy on the Board does not impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all of the powers of the Board.

(e) Any member of the Board may be removed by the Governor, upon notice, for neglect of duty or malfeasance in office, but for no other cause.

(f) The Board may appoint or employ an executive director, attorneys, hearing officers, and such other employees as it deems necessary to perform its functions, except that the Board shall employ a minimum of 8 attorneys and 5 investigators. The Board shall prescribe the duties and qualifications of such persons appointed and, subject to the annual appropriation, fix their compensation and provide for reimbursement of actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(g) The Board may promulgate rules and regulations which allow parties in proceedings before the Board to be represented by counsel or any other person knowledgeable in the matters under consideration.

(h) To accomplish the objectives and to carry out the duties prescribed by this Act, the Board may subpoena witnesses, subpoena the production of books, papers, records, and documents which may be needed as evidence on any matter under inquiry and may administer oaths and affirmations.

In cases of neglect or refusal to obey a subpoena issued to any person, the circuit court in the county in which the investigation or the public hearing is taking place, upon application by the Board, may issue an order requiring such person to appear before the Board or any member or agent of the Board to produce evidence or give testimony. A failure to obey such order may be punished by the court as in civil contempt.

Any subpoena, notice of hearing, or other process or notice of the Board issued under the provisions of this Act may be served by one of the methods permitted in the Board's rules.

(i) The Board shall adopt, promulgate, amend, or rescind rules and regulations in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act as it deems necessary and feasible to carry out this Act.

(j) The Board at the end of every State fiscal year shall make a report in writing to the Governor and the General Assembly, stating in detail the work it has done to carry out the policy of the Act in hearing and deciding cases and otherwise. The Board's report shall include:

(1) the number of unfair labor practice charges filed during the fiscal year;

(2) the number of unfair labor practice charges resolved during the fiscal year;

(3) the total number of unfair labor charges pending before the Board at the end of the fiscal year;

(4) the number of unfair labor charge cases at the end of the fiscal year that have been pending before the Board between 1 and 100 days, 101 and 150 days, 151 and 200 days, 201 and 250 days, 251 and 300 days, 301 and 350 days, 351 and 400 days, 401 and 450 days, 451 and 500 days, 501 and 550 days, 551 and 600 days, 601 and 650 days, 651 and 700 days, and over 701 days;

(5) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases filed during the fiscal year;

(6) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases resolved during the fiscal year;

(7) the total number of representation cases and unit clarification cases pending before the Board at the end of the fiscal year;

(8) the number of representation cases and unit clarification cases at the end of the fiscal year that have been pending before the Board between 1 and 120 days, 121 and 180 days, and over 180 days; and

(9) the Board's progress in meeting the timeliness goals established pursuant to the criteria in Section 15 of this Act; the report shall include, but is not limited to:

(A) the average number of days taken to complete investigations and issue complaints, dismissals, or deferrals;

(B) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue decisions on appeals of dismissals or deferrals;

(C) the average number of days taken to schedule a hearing on complaints once issued;

(D) the average number of days taken to issue a recommended decision and order once the record is closed;

(E) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue final decisions on recommended decisions when where exceptions have been filed;

(F) the average number of days taken for the Board to issue final decisions decision on recommended decisions when no exceptions have been filed; and

(G) in cases where the Board was unable to meet the timeliness goals established in Section 15, an explanation as to why the goal was not met.

(Source: P.A. 102-797, eff. 1-1-23; 103-856, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

Section 720. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 17, par. 302)

Sec. 2. General definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases shall have the following meanings:

"Accommodation party" shall have the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 3-419 of the Uniform Commercial Code.

"Action" in the sense of a judicial proceeding includes recoupments, counterclaims, set-off, and any other proceeding in which rights are determined.

"Affiliate facility" of a bank means a main banking premises or branch of another commonly owned bank. The main banking premises or any branch of a bank may be an "affiliate facility" with respect to one or more other commonly owned banks.

"Appropriate federal banking agency" means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago, or the Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis, as determined by federal law.

"Bank" means any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

A "banking house", "branch", "branch bank", or "branch office" shall mean any place of business of a bank at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made, but shall not include any place at which only records thereof are made, posted, or kept. A place of business at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made shall not be deemed to be a branch, branch bank, or branch office if the place of business is adjacent to and connected with the main banking premises, or if it is separated from the main banking premises by not more than an alley; provided always that (i) if the place of business is separated by an alley from the main banking premises there is a connection between the two by public or private way or by subterranean or overhead passage, and (ii) if the place of business is in a building not wholly occupied by the bank, the place of business shall not be within any office or room in which any other business or service of any kind or nature other than the business of the bank is conducted or carried on. A place of business at which deposits are received, checks paid, or loans made shall not be deemed to be a branch, branch bank, or branch office (i) of any bank if the place is a terminal established and maintained in accordance with paragraph (17) of Section 5 of this Act, or (ii) of a commonly owned bank by virtue of transactions conducted at that place on behalf of the other commonly owned bank under paragraph (23) of Section 5 of this Act if the place is an affiliate facility with respect to the other bank.

"Branch of an out-of-state bank" means a branch established or maintained in Illinois by an out-of-state bank as a result of a merger between an Illinois bank and the out-of-state bank that occurs on or after May 31, 1997, or any branch established by the out-of-state bank following the merger.

"Bylaws" means the bylaws of a bank that are adopted by the bank's board of directors or shareholders for the regulation and management of the bank's affairs. If the bank operates as a limited liability company, however, "bylaws" means the operating agreement of the bank.

"Call report fee" means the fee to be paid to the Commissioner by each State bank pursuant to paragraph (a) of subsection (3) of Section 48 of this Act.

"Capital" includes the aggregate of outstanding capital stock and preferred stock.

"Cash flow reserve account" means the account within the books and records of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate used to record funds designated to maintain a reasonable Bank and Trust Company Fund operating balance to meet agency obligations on a timely basis.

"Charter" includes the original charter and all amendments thereto and articles of merger or consolidation.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, except that beginning on April 6, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047), all references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Commonly owned banks" means 2 or more banks that each qualify as a bank subsidiary of the same bank holding company pursuant to Section 18 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; "commonly owned bank" refers to one of a group of commonly owned banks but only with respect to one or more of the other banks in the same group.

"Community" means a city, village, or incorporated town and also includes the area served by the banking offices of a bank, but need not be limited or expanded to conform to the geographic boundaries of units of local government.

"Company" means a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, business trust, association, or similar organization and, unless specifically excluded, includes a "State bank" and a "bank".

"Consolidating bank" means a party to a consolidation.

"Consolidation" takes place when 2 or more banks, or a trust company and a bank, are extinguished and by the same process a new bank is created, taking over the assets and assuming the liabilities of the banks or trust company passing out of existence.

"Continuing bank" means a merging bank, the charter of which becomes the charter of the resulting bank.

"Converting bank" means a State bank converting to become a national bank, or a national bank converting to become a State bank.

"Converting trust company" means a trust company converting to become a State bank.

"Court" means a court of competent jurisdiction.

"Director" means a member of the board of directors of a bank. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, however, "director" means a manager of the bank and, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, "director" means a member of the bank. The term "director" does not include an advisory director, honorary director, director emeritus, or similar person, unless the person is otherwise performing functions similar to those of a member of the board of directors.

"Director of Banking" means the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Eligible depository institution" means an insured savings association that is in default, an insured savings association that is in danger of default, a State or national bank that is in default or a State or national bank that is in danger of default, as those terms are defined in this Section, or a new bank as that term is defined in Section 11(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or a bridge bank as that term is defined in Section 11(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or a new federal savings association authorized under Section 11(d)(2)(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.

"Fiduciary" means trustee, agent, executor, administrator, committee, guardian for a minor or for a person under legal disability, receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, assignee for creditors, or any holder of similar position of trust.

"Financial institution" means a bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or any licensee under the Consumer Installment Loan Act or the Sales Finance Agency Act and, for purposes of Section 48.3, any proprietary network, funds transfer corporation, or other entity providing electronic funds transfer services, or any corporate fiduciary, its subsidiaries, affiliates, parent company, or contractual service provider that is examined by the Commissioner. For purposes of Section 5c and subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act, "financial institution" includes any proprietary network, funds transfer corporation, or other entity providing electronic funds transfer services, and any corporate fiduciary.

"Foundation" means the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Foundation.

"General obligation" means a bond, note, debenture, security, or other instrument evidencing an obligation of the government entity that is the issuer that is supported by the full available resources of the issuer, the principal and interest of which is payable in whole or in part by taxation.

"Guarantee" means an undertaking or promise to answer for payment of another's debt or performance of another's duty, liability, or obligation whether "payment guaranteed" or "collection guaranteed".

"In danger of default" means a State or national bank, a federally chartered insured savings association, or an Illinois state chartered insured savings association with respect to which the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency has advised the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that:

(1) in the opinion of the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency,

(A) the State or national bank or insured savings association is not likely to be able to meet the demands of the State or national bank's or savings association's obligations in the normal course of business; and

(B) there is no reasonable prospect that the State or national bank or insured savings association will be able to meet those demands or pay those obligations without federal assistance; or

(2) in the opinion of the Commissioner or the appropriate federal banking agency,

(A) the State or national bank or insured savings association has incurred or is likely to incur losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital; and

(B) there is no reasonable prospect that the capital of the State or national bank or insured savings association will be replenished without federal assistance.

"In default" means, with respect to a State or national bank or an insured savings association, any adjudication or other official determination by any court of competent jurisdiction, the Commissioner, the appropriate federal banking agency, or other public authority pursuant to which a conservator, receiver, or other legal custodian is appointed for a State or national bank or an insured savings association.

"Insured savings association" means any federal savings association chartered under Section 5 of the federal Home Owners' Loan Act and any State savings association chartered under the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 or a predecessor Illinois statute, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. The term also includes a savings bank organized or operating under the Savings Bank Act.

"Insured savings association in recovery" means an insured savings association that is not an eligible depository institution and that does not meet the minimum capital requirements applicable with respect to the insured savings association.

"Issuer" means for purposes of Section 33 every person who shall have issued or proposed to issue any security; except that (1) with respect to certificates of deposit, voting trust certificates, collateral-trust certificates, and certificates of interest or shares in an unincorporated investment trust not having a board of directors (or persons performing similar functions), "issuer" means the person or persons performing the acts and assuming the duties of depositor or manager pursuant to the provisions of the trust, agreement, or instrument under which the securities are issued; (2) with respect to trusts other than those specified in clause (1) above, where the trustee is a corporation authorized to accept and execute trusts, "issuer" means the entrusters, depositors, or creators of the trust and any manager or committee charged with the general direction of the affairs of the trust pursuant to the provisions of the agreement or instrument creating the trust; and (3) with respect to equipment trust certificates or like securities, "issuer" means the person to whom the equipment or property is or is to be leased or conditionally sold.

"Letter of credit" and "customer" shall have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 5-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code.

"Main banking premises" means the location that is designated in a bank's charter as its main office.

"Maker or obligor" means for purposes of Section 33 the issuer of a security, the promisor in a debenture or other debt security, or the mortgagor or grantor of a trust deed or similar conveyance of a security interest in real or personal property.

"Merged bank" means a merging bank that is not the continuing, resulting, or surviving bank in a consolidation or merger.

"Merger" includes consolidation.

"Merging bank" means a party to a bank merger.

"Merging trust company" means a trust company party to a merger with a State bank.

"Mid-tier bank holding company" means a corporation that (a) owns 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of each class of stock of a State bank, (b) has no other subsidiaries, and (c) 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of the corporation are owned by a parent bank holding company.

"Municipality" means any municipality, political subdivision, school district, taxing district, or agency.

"National bank" means a national banking association located in this State and after May 31, 1997, means a national banking association without regard to its location.

"Out-of-state bank" means a bank chartered under the laws of a state other than Illinois, a territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia.

"Parent bank holding company" means a corporation that is a bank holding company as that term is defined in the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957 and owns 100% of the issued and outstanding shares of a mid-tier bank holding company.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, joint venture, trust, estate, or unincorporated association.

"Public agency" means the State of Illinois, the various counties, townships, cities, towns, villages, school districts, educational service regions, special road districts, public water supply districts, fire protection districts, drainage districts, levee districts, sewer districts, housing authorities, the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Foundation, the Chicago Park District, and all other political corporations or subdivisions of the State of Illinois, whether now or hereafter created, whether herein specifically mentioned or not, and shall also include any other state or any political corporation or subdivision of another state.

"Public funds" or "public money" means current operating funds, special funds, interest and sinking funds, and funds of any kind or character belonging to, in the custody of, or subject to the control or regulation of the United States or a public agency. "Public funds" or "public money" shall include funds held by any of the officers, agents, or employees of the United States or of a public agency in the course of their official duties and, with respect to public money of the United States, shall include Postal Savings funds.

"Published" means, unless the context requires otherwise, the publishing of the notice or instrument referred to in some newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the bank is located at least once each week for 3 successive weeks. Publishing shall be accomplished by, and at the expense of, the bank required to publish. Where publishing is required, the bank shall submit to the Commissioner that evidence of the publication as the Commissioner shall deem appropriate.

"Qualified financial contract" means any security contract, commodity contract, forward contract, including spot and forward foreign exchange contracts, repurchase agreement, swap agreement, and any similar agreement, any option to enter into any such agreement, including any combination of the foregoing, and any master agreement for such agreements. A master agreement, together with all supplements thereto, shall be treated as one qualified financial contract. The contract, option, agreement, or combination of contracts, options, or agreements shall be reflected upon the books, accounts, or records of the bank, or a party to the contract shall provide documentary evidence of such agreement.

"Recorded" means the filing or recording of the notice or instrument referred to in the office of the Recorder of the county wherein the bank is located.

"Resulting bank" means the bank resulting from a merger or conversion.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the Secretary's stead.

"Securities" means stocks, bonds, debentures, notes, or other similar obligations.

"Stand-by letter of credit" means a letter of credit under which drafts are payable upon the condition the customer has defaulted in performance of a duty, liability, or obligation.

"State bank" means any banking corporation that has a banking charter issued by the Commissioner under this Act.

"State Banking Board" means the State Banking Board of Illinois.

"Subsidiary" with respect to a specified company means a company that is controlled by the specified company. For purposes of paragraphs (8) and (12) of Section 5 of this Act, "control" means the exercise of operational or managerial control of a corporation by the bank, either alone or together with other affiliates of the bank.

"Surplus" means the aggregate of (i) amounts paid in excess of the par value of capital stock and preferred stock; (ii) amounts contributed other than for capital stock and preferred stock and allocated to the surplus account; and (iii) amounts transferred from undivided profits.

"Tier 1 Capital" and "Tier 2 Capital" have the meanings assigned to those terms in regulations promulgated for the appropriate federal banking agency of a state bank, as those regulations are now or hereafter amended.

"Trust company" means a limited liability company or corporation incorporated in this State for the purpose of accepting and executing trusts.

"Undivided profits" means undistributed earnings less discretionary transfers to surplus.

"Unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus", for the purposes of paragraph (21) of Section 5 and Sections 32, 33, 34, 35.1, 35.2, and 47 of this Act means the sum of the state bank's Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital plus such other shareholder equity as may be included by regulation of the Commissioner. Unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated on the basis of the date of the last quarterly call report filed with the Commissioner preceding the date of the transaction for which the calculation is made, provided that: (i) when a material event occurs after the date of the last quarterly call report filed with the Commissioner that reduces or increases the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus by 10% or more, then the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated from the date of the material event for a transaction conducted after the date of the material event; and (ii) if the Commissioner determines for safety and soundness reasons that a state bank should calculate unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus more frequently than provided by this paragraph, the Commissioner may by written notice direct the bank to calculate unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus at a more frequent interval. In the case of a state bank newly chartered under Section 13 or a state bank resulting from a merger, consolidation, or conversion under Sections 21 through 26 for which no preceding quarterly call report has been filed with the Commissioner, unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall be calculated for the first calendar quarter on the basis of the effective date of the charter, merger, consolidation, or conversion.

(Source: P.A. 95-924, eff. 8-26-08; 95-1047, eff. 4-6-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1163, eff. 1-1-11; revised 8-6-24.)

Section 725. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-844)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. However, a facility licensed under any of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Certified medication aide" means a person who has met the qualifications for certification under Section 79 and assists with medication administration while under the supervision of a registered professional nurse as authorized by Section 50-75 of the Nurse Practice Act in an assisted living establishment.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Program" means the Certified Medication Aide Program.

"Qualified establishment" means an assisted living and shared housing establishment licensed by the Department of Public Health.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. A facility licensed under any of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 103-886, eff. 8-9-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-844)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. However, a facility licensed under any of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Certified medication aide" means a person who has met the qualifications for certification under Section 79 and assists with medication administration while under the supervision of a registered professional nurse as authorized by Section 50-75 of the Nurse Practice Act in an assisted living establishment.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"Infection control committee" means persons, including an infection preventionist, who develop and implement policies governing control of infections and communicable diseases and are qualified through education, training, experience, or certification or a combination of such qualifications.

"Infection preventionist" means a registered nurse who develops and implements policies governing control of infections and communicable diseases and is qualified through education, training, experience, or certification or a combination of such qualifications.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Program" means the Certified Medication Aide Program.

"Qualified establishment" means an assisted living and shared housing establishment licensed by the Department of Public Health.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. A facility licensed under any of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 103-844, eff. 7-1-25; 103-886, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-7-24.)

Section 730. The MC/DD Act is amended by changing Section 3-801.1 as follows:

(210 ILCS 46/3-801.1)

Sec. 3-801.1. Access to records of resident with developmental disabilities. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act "An Act in relation to the protection and advocacy of the rights of persons with developmental disabilities, and amending Acts therein named", enacted by the 84th General Assembly, shall have access to the records of a person with developmental disabilities who resides in a facility, subject to the limitations of this Act. The agency shall also have access for the purpose of inspection and copying, to the records of a person with developmental disabilities who resides in any such facility if (1) a complaint is received by such agency from or on behalf of the person with a developmental disability, and (2) such person does not have a guardian or the State or the designee of the State is the guardian of such person. The designated agency shall provide written notice to the person with developmental disabilities and the State guardian of the nature of the complaint based upon which the designated agency has gained access to the records. No record or the contents of any record shall be redisclosed by the designated agency unless the person with developmental disabilities and the State guardian are provided 7 days' advance written notice, except in emergency situations, of the designated agency's intent to redisclose such record, during which time the person with developmental disabilities or the State guardian may seek to judicially enjoin the designated agency's redisclosure of such record on the grounds that such redisclosure is contrary to the interests of the person with developmental disabilities. If a person with developmental disabilities resides in such a facility and has a guardian other than the State or the designee of the State, the facility director shall disclose the guardian's name, address, and telephone number to the designated agency at the agency's request.

Upon request, the designated agency shall be entitled to inspect and copy any records or other materials which may further the agency's investigation of problems affecting numbers of persons with developmental disabilities. When required by law any personally identifiable information of persons with a developmental disability shall be removed from the records. However, the designated agency may not inspect or copy any records or other materials when the removal of personally identifiable information imposes an unreasonable burden on the facility. For the purposes of this Section, "developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in Section 1-106 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-972, eff. 1-1-23; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 735. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.40 and 3.117 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.40)

Sec. 3.40. EMS System Participation Suspensions and Due Process.

(a) An EMS Medical Director may suspend from participation within the System any EMS personnel, EMS Lead Instructor (LI), individual, individual provider, or other participant considered not to be meeting the requirements of the Program Plan of that approved EMS System. An EMS Medical Director must submit a suspension order to the Department describing which requirements of the Program Plan were not met and the suspension's duration. The Department shall review and confirm receipt of the suspension order, request additional information, or initiate an investigation. The Department shall incorporate the duration of that suspension into any further action taken by the Department to suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of the individual or entity for any violation of this Act or the Program Plan arising from the same conduct for which the suspension order was issued if the suspended party has neither requested a Department hearing on the suspension nor worked as a provider in any other System during the term of the suspension.

(b) Prior to suspending any individual or entity, an EMS Medical Director shall provide an opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board in accordance with subsection (f) and the rules promulgated by the Department.

(1) If the local System review board affirms or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the individual or entity shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(2) If the local System review board reverses or modifies the EMS Medical Director's order, the EMS Medical Director shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(3) The suspension shall commence only upon the occurrence of one of the following:

(A) the individual or entity has waived the opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board;

(B) the order has been affirmed or modified by the local system review board and the individual or entity has waived the opportunity for review by the State Board; or

(C) the order has been affirmed or modified by the local system review board, and the local board's decision has been affirmed or modified by the State Board.

(c) An individual interviewed or investigated by the local system review board or the Department shall have the right to a union representative and legal counsel of the individual's choosing present at any interview. The union representative must comply with any confidentiality requirements and requirements for the protection of any patient information presented during the proceeding.

(d) An EMS Medical Director may immediately suspend an EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHRN, LI, PHPA, PHAPRN, or other individual or entity if he or she finds that the continuation in practice by the individual or entity would constitute an imminent danger to the public. The suspended individual or entity shall be issued an immediate verbal notification followed by a written suspension order by the EMS Medical Director which states the length, terms, and basis for the suspension.

(1) Within 24 hours following the commencement of the suspension, the EMS Medical Director shall deliver to the Department, by messenger, telefax, or other Department-approved electronic communication, a copy of the suspension order and copies of any written materials which relate to the EMS Medical Director's decision to suspend the individual or entity. All medical and patient-specific information, including Department findings with respect to the quality of care rendered, shall be strictly confidential pursuant to the Medical Studies Act (Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure).

(2) Within 24 hours following the commencement of the suspension, the suspended individual or entity may deliver to the Department, by messenger, telefax, or other Department-approved electronic communication, a written response to the suspension order and copies of any written materials which the individual or entity feels are appropriate. All medical and patient-specific information, including Department findings with respect to the quality of care rendered, shall be strictly confidential pursuant to the Medical Studies Act.

(3) Within 24 hours following receipt of the EMS Medical Director's suspension order or the individual or entity's written response, whichever is later, the Director or the Director's designee shall determine whether the suspension should be stayed pending an opportunity for a hearing or review in accordance with this Act, or whether the suspension should continue during the course of that hearing or review. When an immediate suspension order is not stayed, the Director or the Director's designee within the Department shall identify if that suspension shall immediately apply to statewide participation only in situations when a licensee has been charged with a crime while performing the licensee's official duties as an EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, TNS, PHRN, LI, PHPA, or PHAPRN and the licensee's continuation to practice poses the possibility of imminent harm to the public based upon off factual evidence provided to the Department. The determination to issue an immediate statewide suspension shall not deny the right to due process to a licensee. The Director or the Director's designee shall issue this determination to the EMS Medical Director, who shall immediately notify the suspended individual or entity. The suspension shall remain in effect during this period of review by the Director or the Director's designee.

(e) Upon issuance of a suspension order for reasons directly related to medical care, the EMS Medical Director shall also provide the individual or entity with the opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board, in accordance with subsection (f) and the rules promulgated by the Department.

(1) If the local System review board affirms or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the individual or entity shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(2) If the local System review board reverses or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the EMS Medical Director shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(3) The suspended individual or entity may elect to bypass the local System review board and seek direct review of the EMS Medical Director's suspension order by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board.

(f) The Resource Hospital shall designate a local System review board in accordance with the rules of the Department, for the purpose of providing a hearing to any individual or entity participating within the System who is suspended from participation by the EMS Medical Director. The EMS Medical Director shall arrange for a certified shorthand reporter to make a stenographic record of that hearing and thereafter prepare a transcript of the proceedings. The EMS Medical Director shall inform the individual of the individual's right to have a union representative and legal counsel of the individual's choosing present at any interview. The union representative must comply with any confidentiality requirements and requirements for the protection of any patient information presented during the proceeding. The transcript, all documents or materials received as evidence during the hearing and the local System review board's written decision shall be retained in the custody of the EMS system. The System shall implement a decision of the local System review board unless that decision has been appealed to the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board in accordance with this Act and the rules of the Department.

(g) The Resource Hospital shall implement a decision of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board which has been rendered in accordance with this Act and the rules of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-521, eff. 1-1-24; 103-779, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.117)

Sec. 3.117. Hospital designations.

(a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation provided they are certified by a nationally recognized certifying body, approved by the Department, and certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, disabilities, and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by a nationally recognized certifying body approved by the Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary Stroke Center.

(3) A center designated as a Primary Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3.5) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances where patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.

(5) A hospital that no longer meets nationally recognized, evidence-based standards for Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate Comprehensive Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Comprehensive Stroke Centers as apply for that designation, provided that the Comprehensive Stroke Centers are certified by a nationally recognized certifying body approved by the Department, and provided that the certifying body's certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally recognized and evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the occurrence of stroke and the disabilities and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Comprehensive Stroke Center.

(3) A hospital designated as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(4) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Comprehensive Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances in which patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Comprehensive Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(5) Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification. Each designated Comprehensive Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal.

(6) A hospital that no longer meets nationally recognized, evidence-based standards for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, or loses its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(a-7) (a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Centers, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Centers, and Primary Stroke Centers Plus in all areas of the State according to the following requirements:

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Centers, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Centers, and Primary Stroke Centers Plus as apply for that designation, provided that the body certifying the facility uses certification criteria consistent with the most current nationally recognized and evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the occurrence of strokes and the disabilities and death associated with strokes.

(2) A Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus shall send a copy of the certificate of its designation and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days after its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus.

(3) A Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees collected under this paragraph shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(4) With respect to a Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus, the Department shall:

(A) suspend or revoke the Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus designation upon receiving notice that the Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center's, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center's, or Primary Stroke Center Plus's certification has lapsed or has been revoked by its certifying body;

(B) in extreme circumstances in which patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, suspend the Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center's, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center's, or Primary Stroke Center Plus's designation until its certifying body investigates the circumstances and makes a final determination regarding its certification;

(C) restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center's, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center's, or Primary Stroke Center Plus's certification; and

(D) suspend the Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center's, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center's, or Primary Stroke Center Plus's designation at the request of a facility seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(5) A Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus designation shall remain valid at all times while the facility maintains its certification as a Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus and is in good standing with the certifying body. The duration of a Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus designation shall be the same as the duration of its Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus certification. Each designated Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's renewal of the certification.

(6) A hospital that no longer meets the criteria for Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Centers, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Centers, or Primary Stroke Centers Plus, or loses its Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Center, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Center, or Primary Stroke Center Plus certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee of the situation within 5 business days after being made aware of it.

(b) Beginning on the first day of the month that begins 12 months after the adoption of rules authorized by this subsection, the Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals in all areas of the State. Designation may be approved by the Department after a hospital has been certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital or through application and designation by the Department. For any hospital that is designated as an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital at the time that the Department begins the designation of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, the Emergent Stroke Ready designation shall remain intact for the duration of the 12-month period until that designation expires. Until the Department begins the designation of hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, hospitals may achieve Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation utilizing the processes and criteria provided in Public Act 96-514.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation and pays an annual fee.

A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(2.5) A hospital may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital provides proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification and the hospital pays an annual fee.

(A) Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, with the certifying body.

(B) The duration of an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall coincide with the duration of its Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification.

(C) Each designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal and Application for Stroke Center Designation form.

(D) A hospital must submit a copy of its certification renewal from the certifying body as soon as practical but no later than 30 business days after that certification is received by the hospital. Upon the Department's receipt of the renewal certification, the Department shall renew the hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation.

(E) A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3) Hospitals seeking Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation that do not have certification shall develop policies and procedures that are consistent with nationally recognized, evidence-based protocols for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:

(A) create written acute care protocols related to emergent stroke care;

(A-5) participate in the data collection system provided in Section 3.118, if available;

(B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;

(C) designate a Clinical Director of Stroke Care who shall be a clinical member of the hospital staff with training or experience, as defined by the facility, in the care of patients with cerebrovascular disease. This training or experience may include, but is not limited to, completion of a fellowship or other specialized training in the area of cerebrovascular disease, attendance at national courses, or prior experience in neuroscience intensive care units. The Clinical Director of Stroke Care may be a neurologist, neurosurgeon, emergency medicine physician, internist, radiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician physician's assistant;

(C-5) provide rapid access to an acute stroke team, as defined by the facility, that considers and reflects nationally recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines;

(D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or subsequently developed medical therapies that meet nationally recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines;

(E) conduct brain image tests at all times;

(F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all times;

(G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall be available for review upon request by the Department or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement with the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital;

(H) admit stroke patients to a unit that can provide appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines or transfer stroke patients to an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, Primary Stroke Center, or Comprehensive Stroke Center, or another facility that can provide the appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines; and

(I) demonstrate compliance with nationally recognized quality indicators.

(4) With respect to Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

(A-5) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation via national Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification to provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification, in good standing.

The Department shall require a hospital that is already certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital to send a copy of the Certificate to the Department.

Within 30 business days of the Department's receipt of a hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Certificate and Application for Stroke Center Designation form that indicates that the hospital is a certified Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, the hospital shall be deemed a State-designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. The Department shall send a designation notice to each hospital that it designates as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital and shall add the names of designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to the website listing immediately upon designation. The Department shall immediately remove the name of a hospital from the website listing when a hospital loses its designation after notice and, if requested by the hospital, a hearing.

The Department shall develop an Application for Stroke Center Designation form that contains a statement that "The above named facility meets the requirements for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital Designation as provided in Section 3.117 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act" and shall instruct the applicant facility to provide: the hospital name and address; the hospital CEO or Administrator's typed name and signature; the hospital Clinical Director of Stroke Care's typed name and signature; and a contact person's typed name, email address, and phone number.

The Application for Stroke Center Designation form shall contain a statement that instructs the hospital to "Provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification from a nationally recognized certifying body approved by the Department".

(B) Designate a hospital as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital no more than 30 business days after receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements for attestation, unless the Department, within 30 days of receipt of the attestation, chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation. If the Department chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation, then the onsite survey shall be conducted within 90 days of receipt of the attestation.

(C) Require annual written attestation, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this Section, and automatically renew Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of the hospital.

(D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation when the Director, or his or her designee, has determined that the hospital no longer meets the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital fails to eliminate the violation immediately or within a fixed period of time, not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the Director, the Director may immediately revoke the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation. The Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital may appeal the revocation within 15 business days after receiving the Director's revocation order, by requesting an administrative hearing.

(E) After notice and an opportunity for an administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, when the Department finds the hospital is not in substantial compliance with current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria.

(c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation, re-designation, and de-designation processes for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Thrombectomy Capable Stroke Centers, Thrombectomy Ready Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers Plus, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals.

(d) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee as subject matter experts at least annually regarding stroke standards of care.

(Source: P.A. 102-687, eff. 12-17-21; 103-149, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 740. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 11.9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/11.9)

Sec. 11.9. Maternal milk donation education.

(a) To ensure an adequate supply of pasteurized donor human milk for premature infants in Illinois, a hospital with licensed obstetric beds shall provide information and instructional materials to parents of each newborn, upon discharge from the hospital, regarding the option to voluntarily donate milk to nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America or its successor organization. The materials shall be provided free of charge and shall include general information regarding nonprofit milk banking practices and contact information for area nonprofit milk banks that are accredited by the Human Milk Banking Association of North America.

(b) The information and instructional materials described in subsection (a) may be provided electronically.

(c) Nothing in this Section prohibits a hospital from obtaining free and suitable information on voluntary milk donation from the Human Milk Banking Association of North America, its successor organization, or its accredited members.

(Source: P.A. 103-160, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(210 ILCS 85/11.10)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 11.10 11.9. Certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth; notification. This Section may be referred to as Liam's Law.

A hospital having custody of a fetus following a spontaneous fetal death occurring during or after a gestation period of at least 20 completed weeks must notify the gestational parent of the parent's right to receive a certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth as described in Section 20.5 of the Vital Records Act. The Department of Public Health shall develop language on a form to be used for notification under this Section and hospitals shall provide the form to the gestational parent. This section of language shall be known as a "Liam's Law notice". The "Liam's Law notice" shall be available in both English and Spanish.

(Source: P.A. 103-948, eff. 7-1-25; revised 10-2-24.)

Section 745. The Fair Patient Billing Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(210 ILCS 88/35)

Sec. 35. Collection limitations.

(a) The hospital shall not pursue legal action for non-payment of a hospital bill against uninsured patients who have clearly demonstrated that they have neither sufficient income nor assets to meet their financial obligations provided the patient has complied with Section 45 of this Act.

(b) A hospital may not bill an uninsured patient who that requires health care services, as defined in Section 5 of the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act, if it determines, through its financial assistance screening process, that the patient has a household income that qualifies the person for free care under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act. If the patient is deemed eligible for public health insurance or any other insurance product certified by the Department of Insurance, the hospital shall provide information to the patient about how the patient can apply for the insurance program under subsection (f) of Section 16.

(Source: P.A. 103-901, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

Section 750. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 21.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 115/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 711)

Sec. 1. The General Assembly of Illinois finds: (1) that there is a serious housing shortage in this State state; (2) that rising costs in the building construction field have has seriously impeded the building of new housing, particularly for moderate-income moderate and low-income low income citizens; (3) that the existing housing stock is continuously depleted through demolition resulting from aging buildings, urban renewal, highway construction, and other necessary public improvements; (4) that advances in the construction of mobile homes have has significantly increased the importance of this mode of housing; and (5) that, through proper regulation and licensing, mobile homes can contribute to the quality housing of Illinois citizens.

(Source: P.A. 77-1472; revised 10-23-24.)

(210 ILCS 115/21.5)

Sec. 21.5. Mobile home parks report. Beginning in 2026, the Department shall prepare an annual report that contains, at a minimum, the total number of mobile parks licensed by registered with the Department; the total number of mobile home parks that closed in the preceding year; the total number of newly permitted mobile home parks from the preceding year; the total number of mobile home parks that failed to renew and comply with the licensing requirements for the preceding calendar year; how many administrative cases were opened in the preceding calendar year; if the administrative case was resolved or is still open; a brief summary of the nature of the administrative cases; and an update on the Department's staffing for mobile home enforcement and oversight. The report shall be made public no later than July 1 for the preceding calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 103-819, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 755. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing the heading of Article V.75 and Sections 155.36, 355, 356z.5, 356z.14, 356z.25, 356z.40, 363, 367a, 367f, 370c, 408, 416, 500-35, 511.109, and 534.3 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 356z.61 and 356z.71 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/Art. V.75 heading)

ARTICLE V 3/4 . GROUP WORKERS' COMPENSATION

POOLS; POOLING; INSOLVENCY FUND .

(215 ILCS 5/155.36)

Sec. 155.36. Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act. Insurance companies that transact the kinds of insurance authorized under Class 1(b) or Class 2(a) of Section 4 of this Code shall comply with Sections 25, 45, 45.1, 45.2, 45.3, 65, 70, 85, and 87, subsection (d) of Section 30, and the definitions of the term "emergency medical condition" and any other term in Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act that is used in the other Sections listed in this Section. Except as provided by Section 85 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act, no law or rule shall be construed to exempt any utilization review program from the requirements of Section 85 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act with respect to any insurance described in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-409, eff. 1-1-22; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/355)

Sec. 355. Accident and health policies; provisions.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Inadequate rate" means a rate:

(1) that is insufficient to sustain projected losses and expenses to which the rate applies; and

(2) the continued use of which endangers the solvency of an insurer using that rate.

"Large employer" has the meaning provided in the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

"Plain language" has the meaning provided in the federal Plain Writing Act of 2010 and subsequent guidance documents, including the Federal Plain Language Guidelines.

"Unreasonable rate increase" means a rate increase that the Director determines to be excessive, unjustified, or unfairly discriminatory in accordance with 45 CFR 154.205.

(b) No policy of insurance against loss or damage from the sickness, or from the bodily injury or death of the insured by accident shall be issued or delivered to any person in this State until a copy of the form thereof and of the classification of risks and the premium rates pertaining thereto have been filed with the Director; nor shall it be so issued or delivered until the Director shall have approved such policy pursuant to the provisions of Section 143. If the Director disapproves the policy form, he or she shall make a written decision stating the respects in which such form does not comply with the requirements of law and shall deliver a copy thereof to the company and it shall be unlawful thereafter for any such company to issue any policy in such form. On and after January 1, 2025, any form filing submitted for large employer group accident and health insurance shall be automatically deemed approved within 90 days of the submission date unless the Director extends by not more than an additional 30 days the period within which the form shall be approved or disapproved by giving written notice to the insurer of such extension before the expiration of the 90 days. Any form in receipt of such an extension shall be automatically deemed approved within 120 days of the submission date. The Director may toll the filing due to a conflict in legal interpretation of federal or State law as long as the tolling is applied uniformly to all applicable forms, written notification is provided to the insurer prior to the tolling, the duration of the tolling is provided within the notice to the insurer, and justification for the tolling is posted to the Department's website. The Director may disapprove the filing if the insurer fails to respond to an objection or request for additional information within the timeframe identified for response. As used in this subsection, "large employer" has the meaning given in Section 5 of the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

(c) For plan year 2026 and thereafter, premium rates for all individual and small group accident and health insurance policies must be filed with the Department for approval. Unreasonable rate increases or inadequate rates shall be modified or disapproved. For any plan year during which the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange operates as a full State-based exchange, the Department shall provide insurers at least 30 days' notice of the deadline to submit rate filings.

(c-5) Unless prohibited under federal law, for plan year 2026 and thereafter, each insurer proposing to offer a qualified health plan issued in the individual market through the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange must incorporate the following approach in its rate filing under this Section:

(1) The rate filing must apply a cost-sharing reduction defunding adjustment factor within a range that:

(A) is uniform across all insurers;

(B) is consistent with the total adjustment expected to be needed to cover actual cost-sharing reduction costs across all silver plans on the Illinois Health Benefits Exchange statewide, provided that such costs are calculated assuming utilization by the State's full individual-market risk pool; and

(C) assumes that the only on-Exchange silver plans that will be purchased are the 87% and 94% cost-sharing reduction variations.

(2) The rate filing must apply an induced demand factor based on the following formula: (Plan Actuarial Value)² - (Plan Actuarial Value) + 1.24.

In the annual notice to insurers described in subsection (c), the Department must include the specific numerical range calculated for the applicable plan year under paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) and the formula in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5).

(d) For plan year 2025 and thereafter, the Department shall post all insurers' rate filings and summaries on the Department's website 5 business days after the rate filing deadline set by the Department in annual guidance. The rate filings and summaries posted to the Department's website shall exclude information that is proprietary or trade secret information protected under paragraph (g) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act or confidential or privileged under any applicable insurance law or rule. All summaries shall include a brief justification of any rate increase or decrease requested, including the number of individual members, the medical loss ratio, medical trend, administrative costs, and any other information required by rule. The plain writing summary shall include notification of the public comment period established in subsection (e).

(e) The Department shall open a 30-day public comment period on the rate filings beginning on the date that all of the rate filings are posted on the Department's website. The Department shall post all of the comments received to the Department's website within 5 business days after the comment period ends.

(f) After the close of the public comment period described in subsection (e), the Department, beginning for plan year 2026, shall issue a decision to approve, disapprove, or modify a rate filing within 60 days. Any rate filing or any rates within a filing on which the Director does not issue a decision within 60 days shall automatically be deemed approved. The Director's decision shall take into account the actuarial justifications and public comments. The Department shall notify the insurer of the decision, make the decision available to the public by posting it on the Department's website, and include an explanation of the findings, actuarial justifications, and rationale that are the basis for the decision. Any company whose rate has been modified or disapproved shall be allowed to request a hearing within 10 days after the action taken. The action of the Director in disapproving a rate shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(g) If, following the issuance of a decision but before the effective date of the premium rates approved by the decision, an event occurs that materially affects the Director's decision to approve, deny, or modify the rates, the Director may consider supplemental facts or data reasonably related to the event.

(h) The Department shall adopt rules implementing the procedures described in subsections (d) through (g) by March 31, 2024.

(i) Subsection (a), subsections (c) through (h), and subsection (j) of this Section do not apply to grandfathered health plans as defined in 45 CFR 147.140; excepted benefits as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-91; or student health insurance coverage as defined in 45 CFR 147.145. For a filing of premium rates or classifications of risk for any of these types of coverage, the Director's initial review period shall not exceed 60 days to issue informal objections to the company that request additional clarification, explanation, substantiating documentation, or correction of concerns identified in the filing before the company implements the premium rates, classifications, or related rate-setting methodologies described in the filing, except that the Director may extend by not more than an additional 30 days the period of initial review by giving written notice to the company of such extension before the expiration of the initial 60-day period. Nothing in this subsection shall confer authority upon the Director to approve, modify, or disapprove rates where that authority is not provided by other law. Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the Director from conducting any investigation, examination, hearing, or other formal administrative or enforcement proceeding with respect to a company's rate filing or implementation thereof under applicable law at any time, including after the period of initial review.

(j) Subsection (a) and subsections (c) through (h) do not apply to group policies issued in the large group market as defined in Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. For large group policies issued, delivered, amended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 that are not described in subsection (i), the premium rates and risk classifications, including any rate manuals and rules used to arrive at the rates, must be filed with the Department annually for approval at least 120 days before the rates are intended to take effect.

(1) A rate filing shall be modified or disapproved if the premiums are unreasonable in relation to the benefits because the rates were not calculated in accordance with sound actuarial principles.

(2) Within 60 days of receipt of the rate filing, the Director shall issue a decision to approve, disapprove, or modify the filing along with the reasons and actuarial justification for the decision. Any rate filing or rates within a filing on which the Director does not issue a decision within 60 days shall be automatically deemed approved.

(3) Any company whose rate or rate filing has been modified or disapproved shall be allowed to request a hearing within 10 days after the action taken. The action of the Director in disapproving a rate or rate filing shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(4) Nothing in this subsection requires a company to file a large group policy's final premium rates for prior approval if the company negotiates the final rates or rate adjustments with the plan sponsor or its administrator in accordance with the rate manual and rules of the currently approved rate filing for the policy.

In this subsection, "administrator" and "plan sponsor" have the meanings meaning given to those terms in 29 U.S.C. 1002(16).

(Source: P.A. 103-106, eff. 1-1-24; 103-650, Article 3, Section 3-5, eff. 1-1-25; 103-650, Article 4, Section 4-5, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.5)

Sec. 356z.5. Prescription inhalers inhalants.

(a) In this Section, "prescription inhaler" means a prescribed medical device that delivers inhaled medications used to treat breathing for persons suffering from asthma or other life-threatening bronchial ailments. "Prescription inhaler" includes metered-dose inhalers, nebulizers, and dry powder inhalers. "Prescription inhaler" does not include inhalers available over the counter without a prescription to provide temporary relief from respiratory symptoms.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed through December 31, 2025 that provides coverage for prescription drugs may not deny or limit coverage for prescription inhalers to enable persons to breathe when suffering from asthma or other life-threatening bronchial ailments based upon any restriction on the number of days before an inhaler refill may be obtained if, contrary to those restrictions, the inhalants have been ordered or prescribed by the treating physician and are medically appropriate.

(c) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 that provides coverage for prescription drugs may not deny or limit, except as otherwise provided in this subsection, coverage for prescription inhalers to enable persons to breathe when suffering from asthma or other life-threatening bronchial ailments based upon any restriction on the number of days before an inhaler refill may be obtained if, contrary to those restrictions, the inhalants have been ordered or prescribed by the treating physician and are medically appropriate. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan subject to this subsection shall limit the total amount that a covered person is required to pay for a covered prescription inhaler to an amount not to exceed $25 per 30-day supply.

(d) Nothing in this Section prevents a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan from reducing a covered person's cost sharing to an amount less than the amount specified in subsection (c).

(e) Coverage for prescription inhalers shall not be subject to any deductible; except that this provision does not apply to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

(f) The Department may adopt rules necessary to implement and administer this Section and to align with federal requirements. The Department may use any of its enforcement powers to obtain a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance's or managed care plan's compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-951, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.14)

Sec. 356z.14. Autism spectrum disorders.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after December 12, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1005) must provide individuals under 21 years of age coverage for the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorders and for the treatment of autism spectrum disorders to the extent that the diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorders are not already covered by the policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan.

(b) Coverage provided under this Section shall be subject to a maximum benefit of $36,000 per year, but shall not be subject to any limits on the number of visits to a service provider. The After December 30, 2009, the Director of the Division of Insurance shall, on an annual basis, adjust the maximum benefit for inflation using the Medical Care Component of the United States Department of Labor Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers. Payments made by an insurer on behalf of a covered individual for any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item, the provision of which was for the treatment of a health condition not diagnosed as an autism spectrum disorder, shall not be applied toward any maximum benefit established under this subsection.

(c) Coverage under this Section shall be subject to copayment, deductible, and coinsurance provisions of a policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan to the extent that other medical services covered by the policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan are subject to these provisions.

(d) This Section shall not be construed as limiting benefits that are otherwise available to an individual under a policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan and benefits provided under this Section may not be subject to dollar limits, deductibles, copayments, or coinsurance provisions that are less favorable to the insured than the dollar limits, deductibles, or coinsurance provisions that apply to physical illness generally.

(e) An insurer may not deny or refuse to provide otherwise covered services, or refuse to renew, refuse to reissue, or otherwise terminate or restrict coverage under an individual contract to provide services to an individual because the individual or the individual's their dependent is diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder or due to the individual utilizing benefits in this Section.

(e-5) An insurer may not deny or refuse to provide otherwise covered services under a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan solely because of the location wherein the clinically appropriate services are provided.

(f) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment for autism spectrum disorders shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued medical treatment is medically necessary and is resulting in improved clinical status. When treatment is anticipated to require continued services to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request a treatment plan consisting of diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, frequency, anticipated duration of treatment, the anticipated outcomes stated as goals, and the frequency by which the treatment plan will be updated.

(g) When making a determination of medical necessity for a treatment modality for autism spectrum disorders, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. During the appeals process, any challenge to medical necessity must be viewed as reasonable only if the review includes a physician with expertise in the most current and effective treatment modalities for autism spectrum disorders.

(h) Coverage for medically necessary early intervention services must be delivered by certified early intervention specialists, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 500 and any subsequent amendments thereto.

(h-5) If an individual has been diagnosed as having an autism spectrum disorder, meeting the diagnostic criteria in place at the time of diagnosis, and treatment is determined medically necessary, then that individual shall remain eligible for coverage under this Section even if subsequent changes to the diagnostic criteria are adopted by the American Psychiatric Association. If no changes to the diagnostic criteria are adopted after April 1, 2012, and before December 31, 2014, then this subsection (h-5) shall be of no further force and effect.

(h-10) An insurer may not deny or refuse to provide covered services, or refuse to renew, refuse to reissue, or otherwise terminate or restrict coverage under an individual contract, for a person diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder on the basis that the individual declined an alternative medication or covered service when the individual's health care provider has determined that such medication or covered service may exacerbate clinical symptomatology and is medically contraindicated for the individual and the individual has requested and received a medical exception as provided for under Section 45.1 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act. For the purposes of this subsection (h-10), "clinical symptomatology" means any indication of disorder or disease when experienced by an individual as a change from normal function, sensation, or appearance.

(h-15) If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage outlined in subsection (h-10), then subsection (h-10) is inoperative with respect to all coverage outlined in subsection (h-10) other than that authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of the coverage set forth in subsection (h-10).

(i) As used in this Section:

"Autism spectrum disorders" means pervasive developmental disorders as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, including autism, Asperger's disorder, and pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified.

"Diagnosis of autism spectrum disorders" means one or more tests, evaluations, or assessments to diagnose whether an individual has autism spectrum disorder that is prescribed, performed, or ordered by (A) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or (B) a licensed clinical psychologist with expertise in diagnosing autism spectrum disorders.

"Medically necessary" means any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item which will or is reasonably expected to do any of the following: (i) prevent the onset of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability; (ii) reduce or ameliorate the physical, mental, or developmental effects of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability; or (iii) assist to achieve or maintain maximum functional activity in performing daily activities.

"Treatment for autism spectrum disorders" shall include the following care prescribed, provided, or ordered for an individual diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder by (A) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or (B) a certified, registered, or licensed health care professional with expertise in treating effects of autism spectrum disorders when the care is determined to be medically necessary and ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches:

(1) Psychiatric care, meaning direct, consultative, or diagnostic services provided by a licensed psychiatrist.

(2) Psychological care, meaning direct or consultative services provided by a licensed psychologist.

(3) Habilitative or rehabilitative care, meaning professional, counseling, and guidance services and treatment programs, including applied behavior analysis, that are intended to develop, maintain, and restore the functioning of an individual. As used in this subsection (i), "applied behavior analysis" means the design, implementation, and evaluation of environmental modifications using behavioral stimuli and consequences to produce socially significant improvement in human behavior, including the use of direct observation, measurement, and functional analysis of the relations between environment and behavior.

(4) Therapeutic care, including behavioral, speech, occupational, and physical therapies that provide treatment in the following areas: (i) self care and feeding, (ii) pragmatic, receptive, and expressive language, (iii) cognitive functioning, (iv) applied behavior analysis, intervention, and modification, (v) motor planning, and (vi) sensory processing.

(j) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-322, eff. 1-1-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 7-23-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.25)

Sec. 356z.25. Coverage for treatment of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after July 18, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-24) shall provide coverage for treatment of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset neuropsychiatric syndrome, including, but not limited to, the use of intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

No group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan shall deny or delay coverage for medically necessary treatment under this Section solely because the insured, enrollee, or beneficiary previously received any treatment, including the same or similar treatment, for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections or pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome, or because the insured, enrollee, or beneficiary has been diagnosed with or receives treatment for an otherwise diagnosed condition.

For the purposes of this Section, coverage of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome shall adhere to the treatment recommendations developed by a medical professional consortium convened for the purposes of researching, identifying, and publishing best practice standards for diagnosis and treatment of such disorders or syndrome that are accessible for medical professionals and are based on evidence of positive patient outcomes. Coverage for any form of medically necessary treatment shall not be limited over a lifetime of an insured, enrollee, or beneficiary, unless the patient is no longer benefiting from the treatment, or by policy period. Nothing in this Section prevents insurers from requesting treatment notes and anticipated duration of treatment and outcomes.

For billing and diagnosis purposes, pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome shall be coded as autoimmune encephalitis until the American Medical Association and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services create and assign a specific code for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome. Thereafter, pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome may be coded as autoimmune encephalitis, pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections, or pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome outlined in this Section, then the requirement that an insurer cover pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(Source: P.A. 103-59, eff. 6-9-23; revised 10-23-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.40)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-701 and 103-720)

Sec. 356z.40. Pregnancy and postpartum coverage.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall provide coverage for pregnancy and newborn care in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 18022(b) regarding essential health benefits.

(b) Benefits under this Section shall be as follows:

(1) An individual who has been identified as experiencing a high-risk pregnancy by the individual's treating provider shall have access to clinically appropriate case management programs. As used in this subsection, "case management" means a mechanism to coordinate and assure continuity of services, including, but not limited to, health services, social services, and educational services necessary for the individual. "Case management" involves individualized assessment of needs, planning of services, referral, monitoring, and advocacy to assist an individual in gaining access to appropriate services and closure when services are no longer required. "Case management" is an active and collaborative process involving a single qualified case manager, the individual, the individual's family, the providers, and the community. This includes close coordination and involvement with all service providers in the management plan for that individual or family, including assuring that the individual receives the services. As used in this subsection, "high-risk pregnancy" means a pregnancy in which the pregnant or postpartum individual or baby is at an increased risk for poor health or complications during pregnancy or childbirth, including, but not limited to, hypertension disorders, gestational diabetes, and hemorrhage.

(2) An individual shall have access to medically necessary treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent with the requirements set forth in this Section and in Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code.

(3) The benefits provided for inpatient and outpatient services for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications shall be provided if determined to be medically necessary, consistent with the requirements of Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code. The facility or provider shall notify the insurer of both the admission and the initial treatment plan within 48 hours after admission or initiation of treatment. Subject to the requirements of Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code, nothing in this paragraph shall prevent an insurer from applying concurrent and post-service utilization review of health care services, including review of medical necessity, case management, experimental and investigational treatments, managed care provisions, and other terms and conditions of the insurance policy.

(4) The benefits for the first 48 hours of initiation of services for an inpatient admission, detoxification or withdrawal management program, or partial hospitalization admission for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications shall be provided without post-service or concurrent review of medical necessity, as the medical necessity for the first 48 hours of such services shall be determined solely by the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider. Subject to Sections Section 370c and 370c.1 of this Code, nothing in this paragraph shall prevent an insurer from applying concurrent and post-service utilization review, including the review of medical necessity, case management, experimental and investigational treatments, managed care provisions, and other terms and conditions of the insurance policy, of any inpatient admission, detoxification or withdrawal management program admission, or partial hospitalization admission services for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications received 48 hours after the initiation of such services. If an insurer determines that the services are no longer medically necessary, then the covered person shall have the right to external review pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(5) If an insurer determines that continued inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment in a facility is no longer medically necessary, the insurer shall, within 24 hours, provide written notice to the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider of its decision and the right to file an expedited internal appeal of the determination. The insurer shall review and make a determination with respect to the internal appeal within 24 hours and communicate such determination to the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider. If the determination is to uphold the denial, the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider have the right to file an expedited external appeal. An independent review organization shall make a determination within 72 hours. If the insurer's determination is upheld and it is determined that continued inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment is not medically necessary, the insurer shall remain responsible for providing benefits for the inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment through the day following the date the determination is made, and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual shall only be responsible for any applicable copayment, deductible, and coinsurance for the stay through that date as applicable under the policy. The covered pregnant or postpartum individual shall not be discharged or released from the inpatient facility, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment until all internal appeals and independent utilization review organization appeals are exhausted. A decision to reverse an adverse determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(6) Except as otherwise stated in this subsection (b), the benefits and cost-sharing shall be provided to the same extent as for any other medical condition covered under the policy.

(7) The benefits required by paragraphs (2) and (6) of this subsection (b) are to be provided to all covered pregnant or postpartum individuals with a diagnosis of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition. The presence of additional related or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny the benefits required by this subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-10-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-701 and 103-720)

Sec. 356z.40. Pregnancy and postpartum coverage.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665) shall provide coverage for pregnancy and newborn care in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 18022(b) regarding essential health benefits. For policies amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026, this subsection also applies to coverage for postpartum care.

(b) Benefits under this Section shall be as follows:

(1) An individual who has been identified as experiencing a high-risk pregnancy by the individual's treating provider shall have access to clinically appropriate case management programs. As used in this subsection, "case management" means a mechanism to coordinate and assure continuity of services, including, but not limited to, health services, social services, and educational services necessary for the individual. "Case management" involves individualized assessment of needs, planning of services, referral, monitoring, and advocacy to assist an individual in gaining access to appropriate services and closure when services are no longer required. "Case management" is an active and collaborative process involving a single qualified case manager, the individual, the individual's family, the providers, and the community. This includes close coordination and involvement with all service providers in the management plan for that individual or family, including assuring that the individual receives the services. As used in this subsection, "high-risk pregnancy" means a pregnancy in which the pregnant or postpartum individual or baby is at an increased risk for poor health or complications during pregnancy or childbirth, including, but not limited to, hypertension disorders, gestational diabetes, and hemorrhage.

(2) An individual shall have access to medically necessary treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent with the requirements set forth in this Section and in Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code.

(3) The benefits provided for inpatient and outpatient services for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications shall be provided if determined to be medically necessary, consistent with the requirements of Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code. The facility or provider shall notify the insurer of both the admission and the initial treatment plan within 48 hours after admission or initiation of treatment. Subject to the requirements of Sections 370c and 370c.1 of this Code, nothing in this paragraph shall prevent an insurer from applying concurrent and post-service utilization review of health care services, including review of medical necessity, case management, experimental and investigational treatments, managed care provisions, and other terms and conditions of the insurance policy.

(4) The benefits for the first 48 hours of initiation of services for an inpatient admission, detoxification or withdrawal management program, or partial hospitalization admission for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications shall be provided without post-service or concurrent review of medical necessity, as the medical necessity for the first 48 hours of such services shall be determined solely by the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider. Subject to Sections Section 370c and 370c.1 of this Code, nothing in this paragraph shall prevent an insurer from applying concurrent and post-service utilization review, including the review of medical necessity, case management, experimental and investigational treatments, managed care provisions, and other terms and conditions of the insurance policy, of any inpatient admission, detoxification or withdrawal management program admission, or partial hospitalization admission services for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition related to pregnancy or postpartum complications received 48 hours after the initiation of such services. If an insurer determines that the services are no longer medically necessary, then the covered person shall have the right to external review pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(5) If an insurer determines that continued inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment in a facility is no longer medically necessary, the insurer shall, within 24 hours, provide written notice to the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider of its decision and the right to file an expedited internal appeal of the determination. The insurer shall review and make a determination with respect to the internal appeal within 24 hours and communicate such determination to the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider. If the determination is to uphold the denial, the covered pregnant or postpartum individual and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual's provider have the right to file an expedited external appeal. An independent review organization shall make a determination within 72 hours. If the insurer's determination is upheld and it is determined that continued inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment is not medically necessary, the insurer shall remain responsible for providing benefits for the inpatient care, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment through the day following the date the determination is made, and the covered pregnant or postpartum individual shall only be responsible for any applicable copayment, deductible, and coinsurance for the stay through that date as applicable under the policy. The covered pregnant or postpartum individual shall not be discharged or released from the inpatient facility, detoxification or withdrawal management, partial hospitalization, intensive outpatient treatment, or outpatient treatment until all internal appeals and independent utilization review organization appeals are exhausted. A decision to reverse an adverse determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(6) Except as otherwise stated in this subsection (b) and subsection (c), the benefits and cost-sharing shall be provided to the same extent as for any other medical condition covered under the policy.

(7) The benefits required by paragraphs (2) and (6) of this subsection (b) are to be provided to (i) all covered pregnant or postpartum individuals with a diagnosis of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition and (ii) all individuals who have experienced a miscarriage or stillbirth. The presence of additional related or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny the benefits required by this subsection (b).

(8) Insurers shall cover all services for pregnancy, postpartum, and newborn care that are rendered by perinatal doulas or licensed certified professional midwives, including home births, home visits, and support during labor, abortion, or miscarriage. Coverage shall include the necessary equipment and medical supplies for a home birth. For home visits by a perinatal doula, not counting any home birth, the policy may limit coverage to 16 visits before and 16 visits after a birth, miscarriage, or abortion, provided that the policy shall not be required to cover more than $8,000 for doula visits for each pregnancy and subsequent postpartum period. As used in this paragraph (8), "perinatal doula" has the meaning given in subsection (a) of Section 5-18.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(9) Coverage for pregnancy, postpartum, and newborn care shall include home visits by lactation consultants and the purchase of breast pumps and breast pump supplies, including such breast pumps, breast pump supplies, breastfeeding supplies, and feeding aids as recommended by the lactation consultant. As used in this paragraph (9), "lactation consultant" means an International Board-Certified Lactation Consultant, a certified lactation specialist with a certification from Lactation Education Consultants, or a certified lactation counselor as defined in subsection (a) of Section 5-18.10 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(10) Coverage for postpartum services shall apply for all covered services rendered within the first 12 months after the end of pregnancy, subject to any policy limitation on home visits by a perinatal doula allowed under paragraph (8) of this subsection (b). Nothing in this paragraph (10) shall be construed to require a policy to cover services for an individual who is no longer insured or enrolled under the policy. If an individual becomes insured or enrolled under a new policy, the new policy shall cover the individual consistent with the time period and limitations allowed under this paragraph (10). This paragraph (10) is subject to the requirements of Section 25 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act, Section 20 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act, and 42 U.S.C. 300gg-113.

(c) All coverage described in subsection (b), other than health care services for home births, shall be provided without cost-sharing, except that, for mental health services, the cost-sharing prohibition does not apply to inpatient or residential services, and, for substance use disorder services, the cost-sharing prohibition applies only to levels of treatment below and not including Level 3.1 (Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential), as established by the American Society for Addiction Medicine. This subsection does not apply to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; 103-701, eff. 1-1-26; 103-720, eff. 1-1-26; revised 11-26-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.61)

Sec. 356z.61. Coverage for liver disease screening. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025 shall provide coverage for preventative liver disease screenings for individuals 35 years of age or older and under the age of 65 at high risk for liver disease, including liver ultrasounds and alpha-fetoprotein blood tests every 6 months, without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this Section does not apply to coverage of liver disease screenings to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.71)

Sec. 356z.71. Coverage for mobile integrated health care services.

(a) In this Section:

"Eligible recipient" means an individual who has received hospital emergency department services 3 or more times in a period of 4 consecutive months in the past 12 months or an individual who has been identified by a health care provider as an individual for whom mobile integrated health care services would likely prevent admission or readmission to or would allow discharge from a hospital, behavioral health facility, acute care facility, or nursing facility.

"Mobile integrated health care services" means medically necessary health services provided on-site by emergency medical services personnel, as defined in Section 5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Mobile integrated health care services" includes health assessment, chronic disease monitoring and education, medication compliance, immunizations and vaccinations, laboratory specimen collection, hospital discharge follow-up care, and minor medical procedures as approved by the applicable EMS Medical Director.

"Mobile integrated health care services" does not include nonemergency ambulance transport.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026, shall provide coverage to an eligible recipient for medically necessary mobile integrated health care services.

(Source: P.A. 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.72)

Sec. 356z.72 356z.61. Wigs and hair prostheses. A group or individual plan of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after January 1, 2026 must provide coverage, no less than once every 12 months, for one wig or other scalp prosthesis worn for hair loss caused by alopecia, chemotherapy, or radiation treatment for cancer or other conditions.

(Source: P.A. 103-753, eff. 8-2-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.73)

Sec. 356z.73 356z.71. Insurance coverage for dependent parents.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance issued, amended, delivered, or renewed after January 1, 2026 that provides dependent coverage shall make that dependent coverage available to the parent or stepparent of the insured if the parent or stepparent meets the definition of a qualifying relative under 26 U.S.C. 152(d) and lives or resides within the accident and health insurance policy's service area.

(b) This Section does not apply to specialized health care service plans, Medicare supplement insurance, hospital-only policies, accident-only policies, or specified disease insurance policies that reimburse for hospital, medical, or surgical expenses.

(Source: P.A. 103-700, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.74)

Sec. 356z.74 356z.71. Coverage for annual menopause health visit. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance providing coverage for more than 25 employees that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 shall provide, for individuals 45 years of age and older, coverage for an annual menopause health visit. A policy subject to this Section shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this Section does not apply to this coverage to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.75)

Sec. 356z.75 356z.71. Coverage during a generic drug shortage.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Eligible prescription drug" means a prescription drug approved under 21 U.S.C. 355(c) that is not under patent.

"Generic drug" means a drug that is approved pursuant to an application referencing an eligible prescription drug that is submitted under subsection (j) of Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 355(j).

"Unavailable" means being listed as Currently in Shortage or as a Discontinuation in the United States Food and Drug Administration's Drug Shortages Database. "Unavailable" does not include being listed as a Resolved Shortage in the United States Food and Drug Administration's Drug Shortages Database.

(b) If a generic drug or a therapeutic equivalent is unavailable due to a supply issue and dosage cannot be adjusted, a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after January 1, 2026 shall provide coverage for a brand name eligible prescription drug until supply of the generic drug or a therapeutic equivalent is available.

(Source: P.A. 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.76)

Sec. 356z.76 356z.71. Coverage for at-home pregnancy tests. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 shall provide coverage for at-home, urine-based pregnancy tests that are prescribed to the covered person, regardless of whether the tests are otherwise available over-the-counter. The coverage required under this Section is limited to 2 at-home, urine-based pregnancy tests every 30 days.

(Source: P.A. 103-870, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.77)

Sec. 356z.77 356z.71. Coverage of vaccination administration fees.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 shall provide coverage for vaccinations for COVID-19, influenza, and respiratory syncytial virus, including the administration of the vaccine by a pharmacist or health care provider authorized to administer such a vaccine, without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement, if the following conditions are met:

(1) the vaccine is authorized or licensed by the United States Food and Drug Administration; and

(2) the vaccine is ordered and administered according to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices standard immunization schedule.

(b) If the vaccinations provided for in subsection (a) are not otherwise available to be administered by a contracted pharmacist or health care provider, the group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan shall cover the vaccination, including administration fees, without imposing a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement.

(c) The coverage required in this Section does not apply to the extent that the coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.78)

Sec. 356z.78 356z.71. Coverage for medically necessary care and treatment to address a major injury to the jaw either through an accident or disease.

(a) In this Section, "medically necessary care and treatment to address a major injury to the jaw either through an accident or disease" includes:

(1) oral and facial surgery, including reconstructive services and procedures necessary to improve, restore, or maintain vital functions;

(2) dental implants, crowns, or bridges;

(3) prosthetic treatment such as obturators, speech appliances, and feeding appliances;

(4) orthodontic treatment and management;

(5) prosthodontic treatment and management; and

(6) otolaryngology treatment and management.

(b) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2026 shall provide coverage for medically necessary care and treatment to address a major injury to the jaw either through an accident or disease. Coverage under this Section may impose the same deductibles, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing limitations that are imposed on other related benefits under the policy.

(Source: P.A. 103-972, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/363)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-747)

Sec. 363. Medicare supplement policies; minimum standards.

(1) Except as otherwise specifically provided therein, this Section and Section 363a of this Code shall apply to:

(a) all Medicare supplement policies and subscriber contracts delivered or issued for delivery in this State on and after January 1, 1989; and

(b) all certificates issued under group Medicare supplement policies or subscriber contracts, which certificates are issued or issued for delivery in this State on and after January 1, 1989.

This Section shall not apply to "Accident Only" or "Specified Disease" types of policies. The provisions of this Section are not intended to prohibit or apply to policies or health care benefit plans, including group conversion policies, provided to Medicare eligible persons, which policies or plans are not marketed or purported or held to be Medicare supplement policies or benefit plans.

(2) For the purposes of this Section and Section 363a, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) "Applicant" means:

(i) in the case of individual Medicare supplement policy, the person who seeks to contract for insurance benefits, and

(ii) in the case of a group Medicare policy or subscriber contract, the proposed certificate holder.

(b) "Certificate" means any certificate delivered or issued for delivery in this State under a group Medicare supplement policy.

(c) "Medicare supplement policy" means an individual policy of accident and health insurance, as defined in paragraph (a) of subsection (2) of Section 355a of this Code, or a group policy or certificate delivered or issued for delivery in this State by an insurer, fraternal benefit society, voluntary health service plan, or health maintenance organization, other than a policy issued pursuant to a contract under Section 1876 of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Section 1395 et seq.) or a policy issued under a demonstration project specified in 42 U.S.C. Section 1395ss(g)(1), or any similar organization, that is advertised, marketed, or designed primarily as a supplement to reimbursements under Medicare for the hospital, medical, or surgical expenses of persons eligible for Medicare.

(d) "Issuer" includes insurance companies, fraternal benefit societies, voluntary health service plans, health maintenance organizations, or any other entity providing Medicare supplement insurance, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(e) "Medicare" means the Health Insurance for the Aged Act, Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965.

(3) No Medicare supplement insurance policy, contract, or certificate, that provides benefits that duplicate benefits provided by Medicare, shall be issued or issued for delivery in this State after December 31, 1988. No such policy, contract, or certificate shall provide lesser benefits than those required under this Section or the existing Medicare Supplement Minimum Standards Regulation, except where duplication of Medicare benefits would result.

(4) Medicare supplement policies or certificates shall have a notice prominently printed on the first page of the policy or attached thereto stating in substance that the policyholder or certificate holder shall have the right to return the policy or certificate within 30 days of its delivery and to have the premium refunded directly to him or her in a timely manner if, after examination of the policy or certificate, the insured person is not satisfied for any reason.

(5) A Medicare supplement policy or certificate may not deny a claim for losses incurred more than 6 months from the effective date of coverage for a preexisting condition. The policy may not define a preexisting condition more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment was recommended by or received from a physician within 6 months before the effective date of coverage.

(6) An issuer of a Medicare supplement policy shall:

(a) not deny coverage to an applicant under 65 years of age who meets any of the following criteria:

(i) becomes eligible for Medicare by reason of disability if the person makes application for a Medicare supplement policy within 6 months of the first day on which the person enrolls for benefits under Medicare Part B; for a person who is retroactively enrolled in Medicare Part B due to a retroactive eligibility decision made by the Social Security Administration, the application must be submitted within a 6-month period beginning with the month in which the person received notice of retroactive eligibility to enroll;

(ii) has Medicare and an employer group health plan (either primary or secondary to Medicare) that terminates or ceases to provide all such supplemental health benefits;

(iii) is insured by a Medicare Advantage plan that includes a Health Maintenance Organization, a Preferred Provider Organization, and a Private Fee-For-Service or Medicare Select plan and the applicant moves out of the plan's service area; the insurer goes out of business, withdraws from the market, or has its Medicare contract terminated; or the plan violates its contract provisions or is misrepresented in its marketing; or

(iv) is insured by a Medicare supplement policy and the insurer goes out of business, withdraws from the market, or the insurance company or agents misrepresent the plan and the applicant is without coverage;

(b) make available to persons eligible for Medicare by reason of disability each type of Medicare supplement policy the issuer makes available to persons eligible for Medicare by reason of age;

(c) not charge individuals who become eligible for Medicare by reason of disability and who are under the age of 65 premium rates for any medical supplemental insurance benefit plan offered by the issuer that exceed the issuer's highest rate on the current rate schedule filed with the Department Division of Insurance for that plan to individuals who are age 65 or older; and

(d) provide the rights granted by items (a) through (d), for 6 months after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-436) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, to any person who had enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B prior to Public Act 95-436 and this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly who otherwise would have been eligible for coverage under item (a).

(7) The Director shall issue reasonable rules and regulations for the following purposes:

(a) To establish specific standards for policy provisions of Medicare policies and certificates. The standards shall be in accordance with the requirements of this Code. No requirement of this Code relating to minimum required policy benefits, other than the minimum standards contained in this Section and Section 363a, shall apply to Medicare supplement policies and certificates. The standards may cover, but are not limited to the following:

(A) Terms of renewability.

(B) Initial and subsequent terms of eligibility.

(C) Non-duplication of coverage.

(D) Probationary and elimination periods.

(E) Benefit limitations, exceptions and reductions.

(F) Requirements for replacement.

(G) Recurrent conditions.

(H) Definition of terms.

(I) Requirements for issuing rebates or credits to policyholders if the policy's loss ratio does not comply with subsection (7) of Section 363a.

(J) Uniform methodology for the calculating and reporting of loss ratio information.

(K) Assuring public access to loss ratio information of an issuer of Medicare supplement insurance.

(L) Establishing a process for approving or disapproving proposed premium increases.

(M) Establishing a policy for holding public hearings prior to approval of premium increases.

(N) Establishing standards for Medicare Select policies.

(O) Prohibited policy provisions not otherwise specifically authorized by statute that, in the opinion of the Director, are unjust, unfair, or unfairly discriminatory to any person insured or proposed for coverage under a Medicare medicare supplement policy or certificate.

(b) To establish minimum standards for benefits and claims payments, marketing practices, compensation arrangements, and reporting practices for Medicare supplement policies.

(c) To implement transitional requirements of Medicare supplement insurance benefits and premiums of Medicare supplement policies and certificates to conform to Medicare program revisions.

(8) If an individual is at least 65 years of age but no more than 75 years of age and has an existing Medicare supplement policy, the individual is entitled to an annual open enrollment period lasting 45 days, commencing with the individual's birthday, and the individual may purchase any Medicare supplement policy with the same issuer that offers benefits equal to or lesser than those provided by the previous coverage. During this open enrollment period, an issuer of a Medicare supplement policy shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of Medicare supplemental coverage, nor discriminate in the pricing of coverage, because of health status, claims experience, receipt of health care, or a medical condition of the individual. An issuer shall provide notice of this annual open enrollment period for eligible Medicare supplement policyholders at the time that the application is made for a Medicare supplement policy or certificate. The notice shall be in a form that may be prescribed by the Department.

(9) Without limiting an individual's eligibility under Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A), for at least 63 days after the later of the applicant's loss of benefits or the notice of termination of benefits, including a notice of claim denial due to termination of benefits, under the State's medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, an issuer shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of any Medicare supplement policy or certificate that is offered and is available for issuance to new enrollees by the issuer; shall not discriminate in the pricing of such a Medicare supplement policy because of health status, claims experience, receipt of health care, or medical condition; and shall not include a policy provision that imposes an exclusion of benefits based on a preexisting condition under such a Medicare supplement policy if the individual:

(a) is enrolled for Medicare Part B;

(b) was enrolled in the State's medical assistance program during the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency described in Section 5-1.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(c) was terminated or disenrolled from the State's medical assistance program after the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency and the later of the date of termination of benefits or the date of the notice of termination, including a notice of a claim denial due to termination, occurred on, after, or no more than 63 days before the end of either, as applicable:

(A) the individual's Medicare supplement open enrollment period described in Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A); or

(B) the 6-month period described in Section 363(6)(a)(i) of this Code; and

(d) submits evidence of the date of termination of benefits or notice of termination under the State's medical assistance program with the application for a Medicare supplement policy or certificate.

(10) Each Medicare supplement policy and certificate available from an insurer on and after June 16, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall be made available to all applicants who qualify under subparagraph (i) of paragraph (a) of subsection (6) or Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A) without regard to age or applicability of a Medicare Part B late enrollment penalty.

(Source: P.A. 102-142, eff. 1-1-22; 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; revised 10-24-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-747)

Sec. 363. Medicare supplement policies; minimum standards.

(1) Except as otherwise specifically provided therein, this Section and Section 363a of this Code shall apply to:

(a) all Medicare supplement policies and subscriber contracts delivered or issued for delivery in this State on and after January 1, 1989; and

(b) all certificates issued under group Medicare supplement policies or subscriber contracts, which certificates are issued or issued for delivery in this State on and after January 1, 1989.

This Section shall not apply to "Accident Only" or "Specified Disease" types of policies. The provisions of this Section are not intended to prohibit or apply to policies or health care benefit plans, including group conversion policies, provided to Medicare eligible persons, which policies or plans are not marketed or purported or held to be Medicare supplement policies or benefit plans.

(2) For the purposes of this Section and Section 363a, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) "Applicant" means:

(i) in the case of individual Medicare supplement policy, the person who seeks to contract for insurance benefits, and

(ii) in the case of a group Medicare policy or subscriber contract, the proposed certificate holder.

(b) "Certificate" means any certificate delivered or issued for delivery in this State under a group Medicare supplement policy.

(c) "Medicare supplement policy" means an individual policy of accident and health insurance, as defined in paragraph (a) of subsection (2) of Section 355a of this Code, or a group policy or certificate delivered or issued for delivery in this State by an insurer, fraternal benefit society, voluntary health service plan, or health maintenance organization, other than a policy issued pursuant to a contract under Section 1876 of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Section 1395 et seq.) or a policy issued under a demonstration project specified in 42 U.S.C. Section 1395ss(g)(1), or any similar organization, that is advertised, marketed, or designed primarily as a supplement to reimbursements under Medicare for the hospital, medical, or surgical expenses of persons eligible for Medicare.

(d) "Issuer" includes insurance companies, fraternal benefit societies, voluntary health service plans, health maintenance organizations, or any other entity providing Medicare supplement insurance, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(e) "Medicare" means the Health Insurance for the Aged Act, Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965.

(3) No Medicare supplement insurance policy, contract, or certificate, that provides benefits that duplicate benefits provided by Medicare, shall be issued or issued for delivery in this State after December 31, 1988. No such policy, contract, or certificate shall provide lesser benefits than those required under this Section or the existing Medicare Supplement Minimum Standards Regulation, except where duplication of Medicare benefits would result.

(4) Medicare supplement policies or certificates shall have a notice prominently printed on the first page of the policy or attached thereto stating in substance that the policyholder or certificate holder shall have the right to return the policy or certificate within 30 days of its delivery and to have the premium refunded directly to him or her in a timely manner if, after examination of the policy or certificate, the insured person is not satisfied for any reason.

(5) A Medicare supplement policy or certificate may not deny a claim for losses incurred more than 6 months from the effective date of coverage for a preexisting condition. The policy may not define a preexisting condition more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment was recommended by or received from a physician within 6 months before the effective date of coverage.

(6) An issuer of a Medicare supplement policy shall:

(a) not deny coverage to an applicant under 65 years of age who meets any of the following criteria:

(i) becomes eligible for Medicare by reason of disability if the person makes application for a Medicare supplement policy within 6 months of the first day on which the person enrolls for benefits under Medicare Part B; for a person who is retroactively enrolled in Medicare Part B due to a retroactive eligibility decision made by the Social Security Administration, the application must be submitted within a 6-month period beginning with the month in which the person received notice of retroactive eligibility to enroll;

(ii) has Medicare and an employer group health plan (either primary or secondary to Medicare) that terminates or ceases to provide all such supplemental health benefits;

(iii) is insured by a Medicare Advantage plan that includes a Health Maintenance Organization, a Preferred Provider Organization, and a Private Fee-For-Service or Medicare Select plan and the applicant moves out of the plan's service area; the insurer goes out of business, withdraws from the market, or has its Medicare contract terminated; or the plan violates its contract provisions or is misrepresented in its marketing; or

(iv) is insured by a Medicare supplement policy and the insurer goes out of business, withdraws from the market, or the insurance company or agents misrepresent the plan and the applicant is without coverage;

(b) make available to persons eligible for Medicare by reason of disability each type of Medicare supplement policy the issuer makes available to persons eligible for Medicare by reason of age;

(c) not charge individuals who become eligible for Medicare by reason of disability and who are under the age of 65 premium rates for any medical supplemental insurance benefit plan offered by the issuer that exceed the issuer's highest rate on the current rate schedule filed with the Department Division of Insurance for that plan to individuals who are age 65 or older; and

(d) provide the rights granted by items (a) through (d), for 6 months after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-436) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, to any person who had enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B prior to Public Act 95-436 and this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly who otherwise would have been eligible for coverage under item (a).

(7) The Director shall issue reasonable rules and regulations for the following purposes:

(a) To establish specific standards for policy provisions of Medicare policies and certificates. The standards shall be in accordance with the requirements of this Code. No requirement of this Code relating to minimum required policy benefits, other than the minimum standards contained in this Section and Section 363a, shall apply to Medicare supplement policies and certificates. The standards may cover, but are not limited to the following:

(A) Terms of renewability.

(B) Initial and subsequent terms of eligibility.

(C) Non-duplication of coverage.

(D) Probationary and elimination periods.

(E) Benefit limitations, exceptions and reductions.

(F) Requirements for replacement.

(G) Recurrent conditions.

(H) Definition of terms.

(I) Requirements for issuing rebates or credits to policyholders if the policy's loss ratio does not comply with subsection (7) of Section 363a.

(J) Uniform methodology for the calculating and reporting of loss ratio information.

(K) Assuring public access to loss ratio information of an issuer of Medicare supplement insurance.

(L) Establishing a process for approving or disapproving proposed premium increases.

(M) Establishing a policy for holding public hearings prior to approval of premium increases.

(N) Establishing standards for Medicare Select policies.

(O) Prohibited policy provisions not otherwise specifically authorized by statute that, in the opinion of the Director, are unjust, unfair, or unfairly discriminatory to any person insured or proposed for coverage under a Medicare medicare supplement policy or certificate.

(b) To establish minimum standards for benefits and claims payments, marketing practices, compensation arrangements, and reporting practices for Medicare supplement policies.

(c) To implement transitional requirements of Medicare supplement insurance benefits and premiums of Medicare supplement policies and certificates to conform to Medicare program revisions.

(8) If an individual is at least 65 years of age but no more than 75 years of age and has an existing Medicare supplement policy, the individual is entitled to an annual open enrollment period lasting 45 days, commencing with the individual's birthday, and the individual may purchase any Medicare supplement policy with the same issuer or any affiliate authorized to transact business in this State that offers benefits equal to or lesser than those provided by the previous coverage. During this open enrollment period, an issuer of a Medicare supplement policy shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of Medicare supplemental coverage, nor discriminate in the pricing of coverage, because of health status, claims experience, receipt of health care, or a medical condition of the individual. An issuer shall provide notice of this annual open enrollment period for eligible Medicare supplement policyholders at the time that the application is made for a Medicare supplement policy or certificate. The notice shall be in a form that may be prescribed by the Department.

(9) Without limiting an individual's eligibility under Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A), for at least 63 days after the later of the applicant's loss of benefits or the notice of termination of benefits, including a notice of claim denial due to termination of benefits, under the State's medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, an issuer shall not deny or condition the issuance or effectiveness of any Medicare supplement policy or certificate that is offered and is available for issuance to new enrollees by the issuer; shall not discriminate in the pricing of such a Medicare supplement policy because of health status, claims experience, receipt of health care, or medical condition; and shall not include a policy provision that imposes an exclusion of benefits based on a preexisting condition under such a Medicare supplement policy if the individual:

(a) is enrolled for Medicare Part B;

(b) was enrolled in the State's medical assistance program during the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency described in Section 5-1.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(c) was terminated or disenrolled from the State's medical assistance program after the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency and the later of the date of termination of benefits or the date of the notice of termination, including a notice of a claim denial due to termination, occurred on, after, or no more than 63 days before the end of either, as applicable:

(A) the individual's Medicare supplement open enrollment period described in Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A); or

(B) the 6-month period described in Section 363(6)(a)(i) of this Code; and

(d) submits evidence of the date of termination of benefits or notice of termination under the State's medical assistance program with the application for a Medicare supplement policy or certificate.

(10) Each Medicare supplement policy and certificate available from an insurer on and after June 16, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 103-102) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall be made available to all applicants who qualify under subparagraph (i) of paragraph (a) of subsection (6) or Department rules implementing 42 U.S.C. 1395ss(s)(2)(A) without regard to age or applicability of a Medicare Part B late enrollment penalty.

(Source: P.A. 102-142, eff. 1-1-22; 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; 103-747, eff. 1-1-26; revised 10-24-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/367a) (from Ch. 73, par. 979a)

Sec. 367a. Blanket accident and health insurance.

(1) Blanket accident and health insurance is the form of accident and health insurance providing excepted benefits, as defined in Section 352c, that covers special groups of persons as enumerated in one of the following paragraphs (a) to (g), inclusive:

(a) Under a policy or contract issued to any carrier for hire, which shall be deemed the policyholder, covering a group defined as all persons who may become passengers on such carrier.

(b) Under a policy or contract issued to an employer, who shall be deemed the policyholder, covering all employees or any group of employees defined by reference to exceptional hazards incident to such employment.

(c) Under a policy or contract issued to a college, school, or other institution of learning or to the head or principal thereof, who or which shall be deemed the policyholder, covering students or teachers. However, student health insurance coverage, as defined in 45 CFR 147.145, shall remain subject to the standards and requirements for individual health insurance coverage except where inconsistent with that regulation. Student health insurance coverage shall not be subject to the Short-Term, Limited-Duration Health Insurance Coverage Act. An insurer issuer providing student health insurance coverage or a policy or contract covering students for limited-scope dental or vision under 45 CFR 148.220 shall require an individual application or enrollment form and shall furnish each insured individual a certificate, which shall have been approved by the Director under Section 355.

(d) Under a policy or contract issued in the name of any volunteer fire department, first aid, or other such volunteer group, which shall be deemed the policyholder, covering all of the members of such department or group.

(e) Under a policy or contract issued to a creditor, who shall be deemed the policyholder, to insure debtors of the creditors; Provided, however, that in the case of a loan which is subject to the Small Loans Act, no insurance premium or other cost shall be directly or indirectly charged or assessed against, or collected or received from the borrower.

(f) Under a policy or contract issued to a sports team or to a camp, which team or camp sponsor shall be deemed the policyholder, covering members or campers.

(g) Under a policy or contract issued to any other substantially similar group which, in the discretion of the Director, may be subject to the issuance of a blanket accident and health policy or contract.

(2) Any insurance company authorized to write accident and health insurance in this state shall have the power to issue blanket accident and health insurance. No such blanket policy may be issued or delivered in this State unless a copy of the form thereof shall have been filed in accordance with Section 355, and it contains in substance such of those provisions contained in Sections 357.1 through 357.30 as may be applicable to blanket accident and health insurance and the following provisions:

(a) A provision that the policy and the application shall constitute the entire contract between the parties, and that all statements made by the policyholder shall, in absence of fraud, be deemed representations and not warranties, and that no such statements shall be used in defense to a claim under the policy, unless it is contained in a written application.

(b) A provision that to the group or class thereof originally insured shall be added from time to time all new persons or individuals eligible for coverage.

(3) An individual application shall not be required from a person covered under a blanket accident or health policy or contract, nor shall it be necessary for the insurer to furnish each person a certificate.

(3.5) Subsection (3) does not apply to major medical insurance, or to any excepted benefits or short-term, limited-duration health insurance coverage for which an insured individual pays premiums or contributions. In those cases, the insurer shall require an individual application or enrollment form and shall furnish each insured individual a certificate, which shall have been approved by the Director under Section 355 of this Code.

(4) All benefits under any blanket accident and health policy shall be payable to the person insured, or to his designated beneficiary or beneficiaries, or to his or her estate, except that if the person insured be a minor or person under legal disability, such benefits may be made payable to his or her parent, guardian, or other person actually supporting him or her. Provided further, however, that the policy may provide that all or any portion of any indemnities provided by any such policy on account of hospital, nursing, medical or surgical services may, at the insurer's option, be paid directly to the hospital or person rendering such services; but the policy may not require that the service be rendered by a particular hospital or person. Payment so made shall discharge the insurer's obligation with respect to the amount of insurance so paid.

(5) Nothing contained in this Section section shall be deemed to affect the legal liability of policyholders for the death of or injury to, any such member of such group.

(Source: P.A. 103-649, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/367f) (from Ch. 73, par. 979f)

Sec. 367f. Firefighters' continuance privilege. As used in this Section:

1. The terms "municipality", "deferred pensioner" and "creditable service" shall have the meaning ascribed to such terms by Sections 4-103, 4-105a, and 4-108, respectively, of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended.

2. "Firefighter" means a person who is a "firefighter" as defined in Section 4-106 of the Illinois Pension Code, a paramedic who is employed by a unit of local government, or an emergency medical technician, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or advanced emergency medical technician who is employed by a unit of local government.

3. The "retirement or disability period" of a firefighter means the period:

a. which begins on the day the firefighter is removed from a municipality's fire department payroll because of the occurrence of any of the following events, to wit: (i) the firefighter retires as a deferred pensioner under Section 4-105a of the Illinois Pension Code, (ii) the firefighter retires from active service as a firefighter with an attained age and accumulated creditable service which together qualify the firefighter for immediate receipt of retirement pension benefits under Section 4-109 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (iii) the firefighter's disability is established under Section 4-112 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

b. which ends on the first to occur of any of the following events, to wit: (i) the firefighter's reinstatement or reentry into active service on the municipality's fire department as provided for under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, (ii) the firefighter's exercise of any refund option available under Section 4-116 of the Illinois Pension Code, (iii) the firefighter's loss pursuant to Section 4-138 of the Illinois Pension Code of any benefits provided for in Article 4 of that Code, or (iv) the firefighter's death or - - if at the time of the firefighter's death the firefighter is survived by a spouse who, in that capacity, is entitled to receive a surviving spouse's monthly pension pursuant to Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code - - then the death or remarriage of that spouse.

No policy of group accident and health insurance under which firefighters employed by a municipality are insured for their individual benefit shall be issued or delivered in this State to any municipality unless such group policy provides for the election of continued group insurance coverage for the retirement or disability period of each firefighter who is insured under the provisions of the group policy on the day immediately preceding the day on which the retirement or disability period of such firefighter begins. So long as any required premiums for continued group insurance coverage are paid in accordance with the provisions of the group policy, an election made pursuant to this Section shall provide continued group insurance coverage for a firefighter throughout the retirement or disability period of the firefighter and, unless the firefighter otherwise elects and subject to any other provisions of the group policy which relate either to the provision or to the termination of dependents' coverage and which are not inconsistent with this Section, for any dependents of the firefighter who are insured under the group policy on the day immediately preceding the day on which the retirement or disability period of the firefighter begins; provided, however, that when such continued group insurance coverage is in effect with respect to a firefighter on the date of the firefighter's death but the retirement or disability period of the firefighter does not end with such firefighter's death, then the deceased firefighter's surviving spouse upon whose death or remarriage such retirement or disability period will end shall be entitled, without further election and upon payment of any required premiums in accordance with the provisions of the group policy, to maintain such continued group insurance coverage in effect until the end of such retirement or disability period. Continued group insurance coverage shall be provided in accordance with this Section at the same premium rate from time to time charged for equivalent coverage provided under the group policy with respect to covered firefighters whose retirement or disability period has not begun, and no distinction or discrimination in the amount or rate of premiums or in any waiver of premium or other benefit provision shall be made between continued group insurance coverage elected pursuant to this Section and equivalent coverage provided to firefighters under the group policy other than pursuant to the provisions of this Section; provided that no municipality shall be required by reason of any provision of this Section to pay any group insurance premium other than one that may be negotiated in a collective bargaining agreement. If a person electing continued coverage under this Section becomes eligible for medicare coverage, benefits under the group policy may continue as a supplement to the medicare coverage upon payment of any required premiums to maintain the benefits of the group policy as supplemental coverage.

Within 15 days of the beginning of the retirement or disability period of any firefighter entitled to elect continued group insurance coverage under any group policy affected by this Section, the municipality last employing such firefighter shall give written notice of such beginning by certified mail, return receipt requested to the insurance company issuing such policy. The notice shall include the firefighter's name and last known place of residence and the beginning date of the firefighter's retirement or disability period.

Within 15 days of the date of receipt of such notice from the municipality, the insurance company by certified mail, return receipt requested, shall give written notice to the firefighter at the firefighter's last known place of residence that coverage under the group policy may be continued for the retirement or disability period of the firefighter as provided in this Section. Such notice shall set forth: (i) a statement of election to be filed by the firefighter if the firefighter wishes to continue such group insurance coverage, (ii) the amount of monthly premium, including a statement of the portion of such monthly premium attributable to any dependents' coverage which the firefighter may elect, and (iii) instructions as to the return of the election form to the insurance company issuing such policy. Election shall be made, if at all, by returning the statement of election to the insurance company by certified mail, return receipt requested within 15 days after having received it.

If the firefighter elects to continue coverage, it shall be the obligation of the firefighter to pay the monthly premium directly to the municipality, which shall forward it to the insurance company issuing the group insurance policy, or as otherwise directed by the insurance company; provided, however, that the firefighter shall be entitled to designate on the statement of election required to be filed with the insurance company that the total monthly premium, or such portion thereof as is not contributed by a municipality, be deducted by a Firefighter's Pension Fund from any monthly pension payment otherwise payable to or on behalf of the firefighter pursuant to Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, and be remitted by such Pension Fund to the insurance company. The portion, if any, of the monthly premium contributed by a municipality for such continued group insurance coverage shall be paid by the municipality directly to the insurance company issuing the group insurance policy, or as otherwise directed by the insurance company. Such continued group insurance coverage shall relate back to the beginning of the firefighter's retirement or disability period.

The amendment, renewal, or extension of any group insurance policy affected by this Section shall be deemed to be the issuance of a new policy of insurance for purposes of this Section.

In the event that a municipality makes a program of accident, health, hospital, or medical benefits available to its firefighters through self-insurance, or by participation in a pool or reciprocal insurer, or by contract in a form other than a policy of group insurance with one or more medical service plans, health care service corporations, health maintenance organizations, or any other professional corporations or plans under which health care or reimbursement for the costs thereof is provided, whether the cost of such benefits is borne by the municipality or the firefighters or both, such firefighters and their surviving spouses shall have the same right to elect continued coverage under such program of benefits as they would have if such benefits were provided by a policy of group accident and health insurance. In such cases, the notice of right to elect continued coverage shall be sent by the municipality; the statement of election shall be sent to the municipality; and references to the required premium shall refer to that portion of the cost of such benefits which is not borne by the municipality, either voluntarily or pursuant to the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement. In the case of a municipality providing such benefits through self-insurance or participation in a pool or reciprocal insurer, the right to elect continued coverage which is provided by this paragraph shall be implemented and made available to the firefighters of the municipality and qualifying surviving spouses not later than July 1, 1985.

The amendment, renewal, or extension of any such contract in a form other than a policy of group insurance policy shall be deemed the formation of a new contract for the purposes of this Section.

This Section shall not limit the exercise of any conversion privileges available under Section 367e.

Pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, this Section specifically denies and limits the exercise by a home rule unit of any power which is inconsistent with this Section and all existing laws and ordinances which are inconsistent with this Section are hereby superseded. This Section does not preempt the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers consistent herewith.

The Division of Insurance of the Department of Insurance Financial and Professional Regulation shall enforce the provisions of this Section, including provisions relating to municipality self-insured benefit plans.

(Source: P.A. 103-52, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-18-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a)(1) On and after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-579), every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews group accident and health policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall provide coverage for the medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act of his or her choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his or her profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician.

(4) "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the World Health Organization's International Classification of Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" includes any mental health condition that occurs during pregnancy or during the postpartum period and includes, but is not limited to, postpartum depression.

(5) Medically necessary treatment and medical necessity determinations shall be interpreted and made in a manner that is consistent with and pursuant to subsections (h) through (t).

(b)(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) (Blank).

(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code, the reimbursing insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, or a provider of treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with appropriate patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria may be used to make medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders.

(4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024):

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the following:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan.

(C) (Blank).

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) shall offer coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and medically necessary clinical stabilization services. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with the most current edition of the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for medication-assisted treatment in accordance with the most current Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

As used in this subsection:

"Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational groups, and discharge planning.

"Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, usually following acute treatment services for substance abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in recovery from addiction.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(6.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024):

(A) shall not impose prior authorization requirements, including limitations on dosage, other than those established under the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, on a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders;

(B) shall not impose any step therapy requirements;

(C) shall place all prescription medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders on, for brand medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers brand medications and, for generic medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers generic medications; and

(D) shall not exclude coverage for a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of substance use disorders and any associated counseling or wraparound services on the grounds that such medications and services were court ordered.

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) With respect to all mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, coverage for inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a residential treatment center certified or licensed by the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services.

(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for those individuals covered under Section 356z.15 of this Code.

(d) With respect to a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, the Department and, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall each enforce the requirements of this Section and Sections 356z.23 and 370c.1 of this Code, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), and any amendments to, and federal guidance or regulations issued under, those Acts, including, but not limited to, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit plans. Specifically, the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall take action:

(1) proactively ensuring compliance by individual and group policies, including by requiring that insurers submit comparative analyses, as set forth in paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 370c.1, demonstrating how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, both as written and in operation, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits as compared to how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, as written and in operation, for medical and surgical benefits;

(2) evaluating all consumer or provider complaints regarding mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition coverage for possible parity violations;

(3) performing parity compliance market conduct examinations or, in the case of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, parity compliance audits of individual and group plans and policies, including, but not limited to, reviews of:

(A) nonquantitative treatment limitations, including, but not limited to, prior authorization requirements, concurrent review, retrospective review, step therapy, network admission standards, reimbursement rates, and geographic restrictions;

(B) denials of authorization, payment, and coverage; and

(C) other specific criteria as may be determined by the Department.

The findings and the conclusions of the parity compliance market conduct examinations and audits shall be made public.

The Director may adopt rules to effectuate any provisions of the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 that relate to the business of insurance.

(e) Availability of plan information.

(1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations made under a group health plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any current or potential participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon request.

(2) The reason for any denial under a group health benefit plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan or policy) of reimbursement or payment for services with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions benefits in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made available within a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner and in readily understandable language by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or beneficiary upon request.

(f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance plans written in Illinois or which purport to provide coverage for a resident of this State; and (2) State employee health plans.

(g) (1) As used in this subsection:

"Benefits", with respect to insurers, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.1 (Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential), 3.3 (Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Residential), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Benefits", with respect to managed care organizations, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Substance use disorder treatment provider or facility" means a licensed physician, licensed psychologist, licensed psychiatrist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed, certified, or otherwise State-approved facility or provider of substance use disorder treatment.

(2) A group health insurance policy, an individual health benefit plan, or qualified health plan that is offered through the health insurance marketplace, small employer group health plan, and large employer group health plan that is amended, delivered, issued, executed, or renewed in this State, or approved for issuance or renewal in this State, on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1023) shall comply with the requirements of this Section and Section 370c.1. The services for the treatment and the ongoing assessment of the patient's progress in treatment shall follow the requirements of 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060.

(3) Prior authorization shall not be utilized for the benefits under this subsection. The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment. For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur for the initiation of treatment of the covered person within 2 business days. For managed care organizations, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur in accordance with the protocol set forth in the provider agreement for initiation of treatment within 24 hours. If the managed care organization is not capable of accepting the notification in accordance with the contractual protocol during the 24-hour period following admission, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall have one additional business day to provide the notification to the appropriate managed care organization. Treatment plans shall be developed in accordance with the requirements and timeframes established in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060. If the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility fails to notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment in accordance with these provisions, the insurer may follow its normal prior authorization processes.

(4) For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, if an insurer determines that benefits are no longer medically necessary, the insurer shall notify the covered person, the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and the covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered person's right to request an external review pursuant to the Health Carrier External Review Act. The notification shall occur within 24 hours following the adverse determination.

Pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier External Review Act, the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may request an expedited external review. An expedited external review may not occur if the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility determines that continued treatment is no longer medically necessary.

If an expedited external review request meets the criteria of the Health Carrier External Review Act, an independent review organization shall make a final determination of medical necessity within 72 hours. If an independent review organization upholds an adverse determination, an insurer shall remain responsible to provide coverage of benefits through the day following the determination of the independent review organization. A decision to reverse an adverse determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(5) The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall provide the insurer with 7 business days' advance notice of the planned discharge of the patient from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility and notice on the day that the patient is discharged from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility.

(6) The benefits required by this subsection shall be provided to all covered persons with a diagnosis of substance use disorder or conditions. The presence of additional related or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny the benefits required by this subsection.

(7) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require an insurer to provide coverage for any of the benefits in this subsection.

(h) As used in this Section:

"Generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care" means standards of care and clinical practice that are generally recognized by health care providers practicing in relevant clinical specialties such as psychiatry, psychology, clinical sociology, social work, addiction medicine and counseling, and behavioral health treatment. Valid, evidence-based sources reflecting generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care include peer-reviewed scientific studies and medical literature, recommendations of nonprofit health care provider professional associations and specialty societies, including, but not limited to, patient placement criteria and clinical practice guidelines, recommendations of federal government agencies, and drug labeling approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions" means a service or product addressing the specific needs of that patient, for the purpose of screening, preventing, diagnosing, managing, or treating an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities, including minimizing the progression of an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities in a manner that is all of the following:

(1) in accordance with the generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care;

(2) clinically appropriate in terms of type, frequency, extent, site, and duration; and

(3) not primarily for the economic benefit of the insurer, purchaser, or for the convenience of the patient, treating physician, or other health care provider.

"Utilization review" means either of the following:

(1) prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently reviewing and approving, modifying, delaying, or denying, based in whole or in part on medical necessity, requests by health care providers, insureds, or their authorized representatives for coverage of health care services before, retrospectively, or concurrently with the provision of health care services to insureds.

(2) evaluating the medical necessity, appropriateness, level of care, service intensity, efficacy, or efficiency of health care services, benefits, procedures, or settings, under any circumstances, to determine whether a health care service or benefit subject to a medical necessity coverage requirement in an insurance policy is covered as medically necessary for an insured.

"Utilization review criteria" means patient placement criteria or any criteria, standards, protocols, or guidelines used by an insurer to conduct utilization review.

(i)(1) Every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State and Medicaid managed care organizations providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment on or after January 1, 2023 shall, pursuant to subsections (h) through (s), provide coverage for medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions.

(2) An insurer shall not set a specific limit on the duration of benefits or coverage of medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions or limit coverage only to alleviation of the insured's current symptoms.

(3) All utilization review conducted by the insurer concerning diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of insureds diagnosed with mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of subsections (k) through (w).

(4) An insurer that authorizes a specific type of treatment by a provider pursuant to this Section shall not rescind or modify the authorization after that provider renders the health care service in good faith and pursuant to this authorization for any reason, including, but not limited to, the insurer's subsequent cancellation or modification of the insured's or policyholder's contract, or the insured's or policyholder's eligibility. Nothing in this Section shall require the insurer to cover a treatment when the authorization was granted based on a material misrepresentation by the insured, the policyholder, or the provider. Nothing in this Section shall require Medicaid managed care organizations to pay for services if the individual was not eligible for Medicaid at the time the service was rendered. Nothing in this Section shall require an insurer to pay for services if the individual was not the insurer's enrollee at the time services were rendered. As used in this paragraph, "material" means a fact or situation that is not merely technical in nature and results in or could result in a substantial change in the situation.

(j) An insurer shall not limit benefits or coverage for medically necessary services on the basis that those services should be or could be covered by a public entitlement program, including, but not limited to, special education or an individualized education program, Medicaid, Medicare, Supplemental Security Income, or Social Security Disability Insurance, and shall not include or enforce a contract term that excludes otherwise covered benefits on the basis that those services should be or could be covered by a public entitlement program. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require an insurer to cover benefits that have been authorized and provided for a covered person by a public entitlement program. Medicaid managed care organizations are not subject to this subsection.

(k) An insurer shall base any medical necessity determination or the utilization review criteria that the insurer, and any entity acting on the insurer's behalf, applies to determine the medical necessity of health care services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions on current generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care. All denials and appeals shall be reviewed by a professional with experience or expertise comparable to the provider requesting the authorization.

(l) In conducting utilization review of all covered health care services for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental, emotional, and nervous disorders or conditions, an insurer shall apply the criteria and guidelines set forth in the most recent version of the treatment criteria developed by an unaffiliated nonprofit professional association for the relevant clinical specialty or, for Medicaid managed care organizations, criteria and guidelines determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services that are consistent with generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous or substance use disorder or condition care. Pursuant to subsection (b), in conducting utilization review of all covered services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of substance use disorders an insurer shall use the most recent edition of the patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

(m) In conducting utilization review relating to level of care placement, continued stay, transfer, discharge, or any other patient care decisions that are within the scope of the sources specified in subsection (l), an insurer shall not apply different, additional, conflicting, or more restrictive utilization review criteria than the criteria set forth in those sources. For all level of care placement decisions, the insurer shall authorize placement at the level of care consistent with the assessment of the insured using the relevant patient placement criteria as specified in subsection (l). If that level of placement is not available, the insurer shall authorize the next higher level of care. In the event of disagreement, the insurer shall provide full detail of its assessment using the relevant criteria as specified in subsection (l) to the provider of the service and the patient.

If an insurer purchases or licenses utilization review criteria pursuant to this subsection, the insurer shall verify and document before use that the criteria were developed in accordance with subsection (k).

(n) In conducting utilization review that is outside the scope of the criteria as specified in subsection (l) or relates to the advancements in technology or in the types or levels of care that are not addressed in the most recent versions of the sources specified in subsection (l), an insurer shall conduct utilization review in accordance with subsection (k).

(o) This Section does not in any way limit the rights of a patient under the Medical Patient Rights Act.

(p) This Section does not in any way limit early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment benefits as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).

(q) To ensure the proper use of the criteria described in subsection (l), every insurer shall do all of the following:

(1) Educate the insurer's staff, including any third parties contracted with the insurer to review claims, conduct utilization reviews, or make medical necessity determinations about the utilization review criteria.

(2) Make the educational program available to other stakeholders, including the insurer's participating or contracted providers and potential participants, beneficiaries, or covered lives. The education program must be provided at least once a year, in-person or digitally, or recordings of the education program must be made available to the aforementioned stakeholders.

(3) Provide, at no cost, the utilization review criteria and any training material or resources to providers and insured patients upon request. For utilization review criteria not concerning level of care placement, continued stay, transfer, discharge, or other patient care decisions used by the insurer pursuant to subsection (m), the insurer may place the criteria on a secure, password-protected website so long as the access requirements of the website do not unreasonably restrict access to insureds or their providers. No restrictions shall be placed upon the insured's or treating provider's access right to utilization review criteria obtained under this paragraph at any point in time, including before an initial request for authorization.

(4) Track, identify, and analyze how the utilization review criteria are used to certify care, deny care, and support the appeals process.

(5) Conduct interrater reliability testing to ensure consistency in utilization review decision making that covers how medical necessity decisions are made; this assessment shall cover all aspects of utilization review as defined in subsection (h).

(6) Run interrater reliability reports about how the clinical guidelines are used in conjunction with the utilization review process and parity compliance activities.

(7) Achieve interrater reliability pass rates of at least 90% and, if this threshold is not met, immediately provide for the remediation of poor interrater reliability and interrater reliability testing for all new staff before they can conduct utilization review without supervision.

(8) Maintain documentation of interrater reliability testing and the remediation actions taken for those with pass rates lower than 90% and submit to the Department of Insurance or, in the case of Medicaid managed care organizations, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services the testing results and a summary of remedial actions as part of parity compliance reporting set forth in subsection (k) of Section 370c.1.

(r) This Section applies to all health care services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions covered by an insurance policy, including prescription drugs.

(s) This Section applies to an insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and conducts utilization review as defined in this Section, including Medicaid managed care organizations, and any entity or contracting provider that performs utilization review or utilization management functions on an insurer's behalf.

(t) If the Director determines that an insurer has violated this Section, the Director may, after appropriate notice and opportunity for hearing, by order, assess a civil penalty between $1,000 and $5,000 for each violation. Moneys collected from penalties shall be deposited into the Parity Advancement Fund established in subsection (i) of Section 370c.1.

(u) An insurer shall not adopt, impose, or enforce terms in its policies or provider agreements, in writing or in operation, that undermine, alter, or conflict with the requirements of this Section.

(v) The provisions of this Section are severable. If any provision of this Section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(w) Beginning January 1, 2026, coverage for inpatient mental health treatment at participating hospitals shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection, no policy shall require prior authorization for admission for such treatment at any participating hospital.

(2) Coverage provided under this subsection also shall not be subject to concurrent review for the first 72 hours, provided that the hospital must notify the insurer of both the admission and the initial treatment plan within 48 hours of admission. A discharge plan must be fully developed and continuity services prepared to meet the patient's needs and the patient's community preference upon release. Nothing in this paragraph supersedes a health maintenance organization's referral requirement for services from nonparticipating providers upon a patient's discharge from a hospital.

(3) Treatment provided under this subsection may be reviewed retrospectively. If coverage is denied retrospectively, neither the insurer nor the participating hospital shall bill, and the insured shall not be liable, for any treatment under this subsection through the date the adverse determination is issued, other than any copayment, coinsurance, or deductible for the stay through that date as applicable under the policy. Coverage shall not be retrospectively denied for the first 72 hours of treatment at a participating hospital except:

(A) upon reasonable determination that the inpatient mental health treatment was not provided;

(B) upon determination that the patient receiving the treatment was not an insured, enrollee, or beneficiary under the policy;

(C) upon material misrepresentation by the patient or health care provider. In this item (C), "material" means a fact or situation that is not merely technical in nature and results or could result in a substantial change in the situation; or

(D) upon determination that a service was excluded under the terms of coverage. In that case, the limitation to billing for a copayment, coinsurance, or deductible shall not apply.

(4) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a policy to cover any health care service excluded under the terms of coverage.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section, nothing shall require the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code to violate any applicable federal laws, regulations, or grant requirements or any State or federal consent decrees. Nothing in subsection (w) shall prevent the Department of Healthcare and Family Services from requiring a health care provider to use specified level of care, admission, continued stay, or discharge criteria, including, but not limited to, those under Section 5-5.23 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as long as the Department of Healthcare and Family Services does not require a health care provider to seek prior authorization or concurrent review from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, a Medicaid managed care organization, or a utilization review organization under the circumstances expressly prohibited by subsection (w). Nothing in this Section prohibits a health plan, including a Medicaid managed care organization, from conducting reviews for fraud, waste, or abuse and reporting suspected fraud, waste, or abuse according to State and federal requirements.

(y) Children's Mental Health. Nothing in this Section shall suspend the screening and assessment requirements for mental health services for children participating in the State's medical assistance program as required in Section 5-5.23 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-579, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1040, eff. 8-9-24; revised 11-26-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/408) (from Ch. 73, par. 1020)

Sec. 408. Fees and charges.

(1) The Director shall charge, collect and give proper acquittances for the payment of the following fees and charges:

(a) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization or certification of a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $2,000.

(b) For filing all documents submitted for the incorporation or organization of a fraternal benefit society, $500.

(c) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation and amendments to declaration of organization, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society or a farm mutual, $200.

(d) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association or a burial society, $100.

(e) For filing amendments to articles of incorporation of a farm mutual, $50.

(f) For filing bylaws or amendments thereto, $50.

(g) For filing agreement of merger or consolidation:

(i) for a domestic company, except for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $2,000.

(ii) for a foreign or alien company, except for a fraternal benefit society, $600.

(iii) for a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(h) For filing agreements of reinsurance by a domestic company, $200.

(i) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien company to be admitted to transact business or accredited as a reinsurer in this State, except for a fraternal benefit society, $5,000.

(j) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien fraternal benefit society to be admitted to transact business in this State, $500.

(k) For filing declaration of withdrawal of a foreign or alien company, $50.

(l) For filing annual statement by a domestic company, except a fraternal benefit society, a mutual benefit association, a burial society, or a farm mutual, $200.

(m) For filing annual statement by a domestic fraternal benefit society, $100.

(n) For filing annual statement by a farm mutual, a mutual benefit association, or a burial society, $50.

(o) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof except to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $400.

(p) For issuing a certificate of authority or renewal thereof to a foreign fraternal benefit society, $200.

(q) For issuing an amended certificate of authority, $50.

(r) For each certified copy of certificate of authority, $20.

(s) For each certificate of deposit, or valuation, or compliance or surety certificate, $20.

(t) For copies of papers or records per page, $1.

(u) For each certification to copies of papers or records, $10.

(v) For multiple copies of documents or certificates listed in subparagraphs (r), (s), and (u) of paragraph (1) of this Section, $10 for the first copy of a certificate of any type and $5 for each additional copy of the same certificate requested at the same time, unless, pursuant to paragraph (2) of this Section, the Director finds these additional fees excessive.

(w) For issuing a permit to sell shares or increase paid-up capital:

(i) in connection with a public stock offering, $300;

(ii) in any other case, $100.

(x) For issuing any other certificate required or permissible under the law, $50.

(y) For filing a plan of exchange of the stock of a domestic stock insurance company, a plan of demutualization of a domestic mutual company, or a plan of reorganization under Article XII, $2,000.

(z) For filing a statement of acquisition of a domestic company as defined in Section 131.4 of this Code, $2,000.

(aa) For filing an agreement to purchase the business of an organization authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act or of a health maintenance organization or a limited health service organization, $2,000.

(bb) For filing a statement of acquisition of a foreign or alien insurance company as defined in Section 131.12a of this Code, $1,000.

(cc) For filing a registration statement as required in Sections 131.13 and 131.14, the notification as required by Sections 131.16, 131.20a, or 141.4, or an agreement or transaction required by Sections 124.2(2), 141, 141a, or 141.1, $200.

(dd) For filing an application for licensing of:

(i) a religious or charitable risk pooling trust or a workers' compensation pool, $1,000;

(ii) a workers' compensation service company, $500;

(iii) a self-insured automobile fleet, $200; or

(iv) a renewal of or amendment of any license issued pursuant to (i), (ii), or (iii) above, $100.

(ee) For filing articles of incorporation for a syndicate to engage in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $2,000.

(ff) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a syndicate engaged in the business of insurance through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(gg) For filing articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to join with other subscribers or limited syndicates to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $1,000.

(hh) For filing amended articles of incorporation for a limited syndicate to do business through the Illinois Insurance Exchange, $100.

(ii) For a permit to solicit subscriptions to a syndicate or limited syndicate, $100.

(jj) For the filing of each form as required in Section 143 of this Code, $50 per form. Informational and advertising filings shall be $25 per filing. The fee for advisory and rating organizations shall be $200 per form.

(i) For the purposes of the form filing fee, filings made on insert page basis will be considered one form at the time of its original submission. Changes made to a form subsequent to its approval shall be considered a new filing.

(ii) Only one fee shall be charged for a form, regardless of the number of other forms or policies with which it will be used.

(iii) Fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $1,500. For advisory or rating organizations, fees charged for a policy filed as it will be issued regardless of the number of forms comprising that policy shall not exceed $2,500.

(iv) The Director may by rule exempt forms from such fees.

(kk) For filing an application for licensing of a reinsurance intermediary, $500.

(ll) For filing an application for renewal of a license of a reinsurance intermediary, $200.

(mm) For filing a plan of division of a domestic stock company under Article IIB, $100,000.

(nn) For filing all documents submitted by a foreign or alien company to be a certified reinsurer in this State, except for a fraternal benefit society, $1,000.

(oo) For filing a renewal by a foreign or alien company to be a certified reinsurer in this State, except for a fraternal benefit society, $400.

(pp) For filing all documents submitted by a reinsurer domiciled in a reciprocal jurisdiction, $1,000.

(qq) For filing a renewal by a reinsurer domiciled in a reciprocal jurisdiction, $400.

(rr) For registering a captive management company or renewal thereof, $50.

(ss) For filing an insurance business transfer plan under Article XLVII, $100,000.

(2) When printed copies or numerous copies of the same paper or records are furnished or certified, the Director may reduce such fees for copies if he finds them excessive. He may, when he considers it in the public interest, furnish without charge to state insurance departments and persons other than companies, copies or certified copies of reports of examinations and of other papers and records.

(3)(a) The expenses incurred in any performance examination authorized by law shall be paid by the company or person being examined. The charge shall be consistent with that otherwise authorized by law and shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination, including, but not limited to, compensation of examiners, electronic data processing costs, supervision and preparation of an examination report, and lodging and travel expenses. All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accord with the applicable travel regulations as published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Section 132 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 CFR 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon authorization of the Director. With the exception of the direct reimbursements authorized by the Director, all performance examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Producer Administration Fund, however, the electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company being examined for payment to the Technology Management Revolving Fund.

(b) The costs and fees incurred in a market conduct examination shall be itemized and bills shall be provided to the examinee on a monthly basis for review prior to submission for payment. The Director shall review and affirmatively endorse detailed billings from any contracted, qualified outside professional assistance retained under Section 402 for market conduct examinations before the detailed billings are sent to the examinee. Before any qualified outside professional assistance conducts billable work on an examination, the Department shall disclose to the examinee the terms of the contracts with the qualified outside professional assistance that will be used, including the fees and hourly rates that can be charged.

(4) At the time of any service of process on the Director as attorney for such service, the Director shall charge and collect the sum of $40, which may be recovered as taxable costs by the party to the suit or action causing such service to be made if he prevails in such suit or action.

(5)(a) The costs incurred by the Department of Insurance in conducting any hearing authorized by law shall be assessed against the parties to the hearing in such proportion as the Director of Insurance may determine upon consideration of all relevant circumstances including: (1) the nature of the hearing; (2) whether the hearing was instigated by, or for the benefit of a particular party or parties; (3) whether there is a successful party on the merits of the proceeding; and (4) the relative levels of participation by the parties.

(b) For purposes of this subsection (5) costs incurred shall mean the hearing officer fees, court reporter fees, and travel expenses of Department of Insurance officers and employees; provided however, that costs incurred shall not include hearing officer fees or court reporter fees unless the Department has retained the services of independent contractors or outside experts to perform such functions.

(c) The Director shall make the assessment of costs incurred as part of the final order or decision arising out of the proceeding; provided, however, that such order or decision shall include findings and conclusions in support of the assessment of costs. This subsection (5) shall not be construed as permitting the payment of travel expenses unless calculated in accordance with the applicable travel regulations of the Department of Central Management Services, as approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board. The Director as part of such order or decision shall require all assessments for hearing officer fees and court reporter fees, if any, to be paid directly to the hearing officer or court reporter by the party or parties party(s) assessed for such costs. The assessments for travel expenses of Department officers and employees shall be reimbursable to the Director of Insurance for deposit to the fund out of which those expenses had been paid.

(d) The provisions of this subsection (5) shall apply in the case of any hearing conducted by the Director of Insurance not otherwise specifically provided for by law.

(6) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every domestic company for examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be the greater fixed amount based upon the combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income or upon admitted assets calculated under this subsection as follows:

(a) Combination of nationwide direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium.

(i) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(ii) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(iv) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

(b) Admitted assets.

(i) $150, if admitted assets are less than $1,000,000;

(ii) $750, if admitted assets are $1,000,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000;

(iii) $3,750, if admitted assets are $5,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(iv) $7,500, if admitted assets are $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(v) $18,000, if admitted assets are $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(vi) $22,500, if admitted assets are $100,000,000 or more, but less than $500,000,000;

(vii) $30,000, if admitted assets are $500,000,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000,000;

(viii) $37,500, if admitted assets are $1,000,000,000 or more.

(c) The sum of financial regulation fees charged to the domestic companies of the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(7) The Director shall charge and collect an annual financial regulation fee from every foreign or alien company, except fraternal benefit societies, for the examination and analysis of its financial condition and to fund the internal costs and expenses of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Commission as may be allocated to the State of Illinois and companies doing an insurance business in this State pursuant to Article X of the Interstate Insurance Receivership Compact. The fee shall be a fixed amount based upon Illinois direct premium income and nationwide reinsurance assumed premium income in accordance with the following schedule:

(a) $150, if the premium is less than $500,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium;

(b) $750, if the premium is $500,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000 and there is no reinsurance assumed premium; or if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is less than $10,000,000;

(c) $3,750, if the premium is less than $5,000,000 and the reinsurance assumed premium is $10,000,000 or more;

(d) $7,500, if the premium is $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000;

(e) $18,000, if the premium is $10,000,000 or more, but less than $25,000,000;

(f) $22,500, if the premium is $25,000,000 or more, but less than $50,000,000;

(g) $30,000, if the premium is $50,000,000 or more, but less than $100,000,000;

(h) $37,500, if the premium is $100,000,000 or more.

The sum of financial regulation fees under this subsection (7) charged to the foreign or alien companies within the same affiliated group shall not exceed $250,000 in the aggregate in any single year and shall be billed by the Director to the member company designated by the group.

(8) Beginning January 1, 1992, the financial regulation fees imposed under subsections (6) and (7) of this Section shall be paid by each company or domestic affiliated group annually. After January 1, 1994, the fee shall be billed by Department invoice based upon the company's premium income or admitted assets as shown in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year. The invoice is due upon receipt and must be paid no later than June 30 of each calendar year. All financial regulation fees collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund. The Department may not collect financial examiner per diem charges from companies subject to subsections (6) and (7) of this Section undergoing financial examination after June 30, 1992.

(9) In addition to the financial regulation fee required by this Section, a company undergoing any financial examination authorized by law shall pay the following costs and expenses incurred by the Department: electronic data processing costs, the expenses authorized under Section 131.21 and subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, and lodging and travel expenses.

Electronic data processing costs incurred by the Department in the performance of any examination shall be billed directly to the company undergoing examination for payment to the Technology Management Revolving Fund. Except for direct reimbursements authorized by the Director or direct payments made under Section 131.21 or subsection (d) of Section 132.4 of this Code, all financial regulation fees and all financial examination charges collected by the Department shall be paid to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

All lodging and travel expenses shall be in accordance with applicable travel regulations published by the Department of Central Management Services and approved by the Governor's Travel Control Board, except that out-of-state lodging and travel expenses related to examinations authorized under Sections 132.1 through 132.7 shall be in accordance with travel rates prescribed under paragraph 301-7.2 of the Federal Travel Regulations, 41 CFR 301-7.2, for reimbursement of subsistence expenses incurred during official travel. All lodging and travel expenses may be reimbursed directly upon the authorization of the Director.

In the case of an organization or person not subject to the financial regulation fee, the expenses incurred in any financial examination authorized by law shall be paid by the organization or person being examined. The charge shall be reasonably related to the cost of the examination including, but not limited to, compensation of examiners and other costs described in this subsection.

(10) Any company, person, or entity failing to make any payment of $150 or more as required under this Section shall be subject to the penalty and interest provisions provided for in subsections (4) and (7) of Section 412.

(11) Unless otherwise specified, all of the fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

(12) For purposes of this Section:

(a) "Domestic company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of this State, and in addition includes a not-for-profit corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, a health maintenance organization, and a limited health service organization.

(b) "Foreign company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State and in addition includes a health maintenance organization and a limited health service organization which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State.

(c) "Alien company" means a company as defined in Section 2 of this Code which is incorporated or organized under the laws of any country other than the United States.

(d) "Fraternal benefit society" means a corporation, society, order, lodge or voluntary association as defined in Section 282.1 of this Code.

(e) "Mutual benefit association" means a company, association or corporation authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XVIII of this Code.

(f) "Burial society" means a person, firm, corporation, society or association of individuals authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of Article XIX of this Code.

(g) "Farm mutual" means a district, county and township mutual insurance company authorized by the Director to do business in this State under the provisions of the Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 103-75, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-897, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/416)

Sec. 416. Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge.

(a) As of July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-840), every company licensed or authorized by the Illinois Department of Insurance and insuring employers' liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act shall remit to the Director a surcharge based upon the annual direct written premium, as reported under Section 136 of this Act, of the company in the manner provided in this Section. Such proceeds shall be deposited into the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund as established in the Workers' Compensation Act. If a company survives or was formed by a merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation, the direct written premiums of all companies party to the merger, consolidation, reorganization, or reincorporation shall, for purposes of determining the amount of the fee imposed by this Section, be regarded as those of the surviving or new company.

(b) Beginning on July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-840) and on July 1 of each year thereafter through 2023, the Director shall charge an annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge from every company subject to subsection (a) of this Section equal to 1.01% of its direct written premium for insuring employers' liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act as reported in each company's annual statement filed for the previous year as required by Section 136. Within 15 days after June 5, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-590) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Director shall charge an annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge from every company subject to subsection (a) of this Section equal to 1.092% of its direct written premium for insuring employers' liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act as reported in each company's annual statement filed for the previous year as required by Section 136. The Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge shall be collected by companies subject to subsection (a) of this Section as a separately stated surcharge on insured employers at the rate of 1.092% of direct written premium for the surcharge due in 2024 and each year thereafter. The Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge shall not be collected by companies subject to subsection (a) of this Section from any employer that self-insures its liabilities arising under the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, provided that the employer has paid the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Fee pursuant to Section 4d of the Workers' Compensation Act. All sums collected by the Department of Insurance under the provisions of this Section shall be paid promptly after the receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund in the State treasury.

(b)(2) (Blank).

(c) In addition to the authority specifically granted under Article XXV of this Code, the Director shall have such authority to adopt rules or establish forms as may be reasonably necessary for purposes of enforcing this Section. The Director shall also have authority to defer, waive, or abate the surcharge or any penalties imposed by this Section if in the Director's opinion the company's solvency and ability to meet its insured obligations would be immediately threatened by payment of the surcharge due.

(d) When a company fails to pay the full amount of any annual Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge of $100 or more due under this Section, there shall be added to the amount due as a penalty an amount equal to 10% of the deficiency for each month or part of a month that the deficiency remains unpaid.

(e) The Department of Insurance may enforce the collection of any delinquent payment, penalty, or portion thereof by legal action or in any other manner by which the collection of debts due the State of Illinois may be enforced under the laws of this State.

(f) Whenever it appears to the satisfaction of the Director that a company has paid pursuant to this Act an Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission Operations Fund Surcharge in an amount in excess of the amount legally collectable from the company, the Director shall issue a credit memorandum for an amount equal to the amount of such overpayment. A credit memorandum may be applied for the 2-year period from the date of issuance, against the payment of any amount due during that period under the surcharge imposed by this Section or, subject to reasonable rule of the Department of Insurance including requirement of notification, may be assigned to any other company subject to regulation under this Act. Any application of credit memoranda after the period provided for in this Section is void.

(g) Annually, the Governor may direct a transfer of up to 2% of all moneys collected under this Section to the Insurance Financial Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 103-590, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-31-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/500-35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 500-35. License.

(a) Unless denied a license pursuant to Section 500-70, persons who have met the requirements of Sections 500-25 and 500-30 shall be issued a 2-year insurance producer license. An insurance producer may receive qualification for a license in one or more of the following lines of authority:

(1) Life: insurance coverage on human lives including benefits of endowment and annuities, and may include benefits in the event of death or dismemberment by accident and benefits for disability income.

(2) Variable life and variable annuity products: insurance coverage provided under variable life insurance contracts and variable annuities.

(3) Accident and health or sickness: insurance coverage for sickness, bodily injury, or accidental death and may include benefits for disability income.

(4) Property: insurance coverage for the direct or consequential loss or damage to property of every kind.

(5) Casualty: insurance coverage against legal liability, including that for death, injury, or disability or damage to real or personal property.

(6) Personal lines: property and casualty insurance coverage sold to individuals and families for primarily noncommercial purposes.

(7) Any other line of insurance permitted under State laws or rules.

(b) An insurance producer license shall remain in effect unless revoked or suspended as long as the fee set forth in Section 500-135 is paid and education requirements for resident individual producers are met by the due date.

(1) Before each license renewal, an insurance producer must satisfactorily complete at least 24 hours of course study or participation in a professional insurance association under paragraph (3) of this subsection in accordance with rules prescribed by the Director. Three of the 24 hours of course study must consist of classroom or webinar ethics instruction. The Director may not approve a course of study unless the course provides for classroom, seminar, webinar, or self-study instruction methods. A course given in a combination instruction method of classroom, seminar, webinar, or self-study shall be deemed to be a self-study course unless the number of classroom, seminar, or webinar certified hours meets or exceeds two-thirds of total hours certified for the course. The self-study material used in the combination course must be directly related to and complement the classroom portion of the course in order to be considered for credit. An instruction method other than classroom or seminar shall be considered as self-study methodology. Self-study credit hours require the successful completion of an examination covering the self-study material. The examination may not be self-evaluated. However, if the self-study material is completed through the use of an approved computerized interactive format whereby the computer validates the successful completion of the self-study material, no additional examination is required. The self-study credit hours contained in a certified course shall be considered classroom hours when at least two-thirds of the hours are given as classroom or seminar instruction.

(2) An insurance producer license automatically terminates when an insurance producer fails to successfully meet the requirements of paragraph item (1) of this subsection (b) of this Section. The producer must complete the course in advance of the renewal date to allow the education provider time to report the credit to the Department.

(3) An insurance producer's active participation in a State or national professional insurance association may be approved by the Director for up to 4 hours of continuing education credit per biennial reporting period. Credit shall be provided on an hour-for-hour basis. These hours shall be verified and submitted by the association on behalf of the insurance producer and credited upon timely filing with the Director or his or her designee on a biennial basis. Any association submitting continuing education credit hours on behalf of insurance producers must be registered as an education provider under Section 500-135. Credit granted under these provisions shall not be used to satisfy ethics education requirements. Active participation in a State or national professional insurance association is defined by one of the following methods:

(A) service on a board of directors of a State or national chapter of the association;

(B) service on a formal committee of a State or national chapter of the association; or

(C) service on a formal subcommittee or task force of a State or national chapter of the association.

(c) A provider of a pre-licensing or continuing education course required by Section 500-30 and this Section must pay a registration fee and a course certification fee for each course being certified as provided by Section 500-135.

(d) An individual insurance producer who allows his or her license to lapse may, within 12 months after the due date of the renewal fee, be issued a license without the necessity of passing a written examination. However, a penalty in the amount of double the unpaid renewal fee shall be required after the due date.

(e) A licensed insurance producer who is unable to comply with license renewal procedures due to military service may request a waiver of those procedures.

(f) The license must contain the licensee's name, address, and personal identification number, the date of issuance, the lines of authority, the expiration date, and any other information the Director deems necessary.

(g) Licensees must inform the Director by any means acceptable to the Director of a change of address within 30 days after the change.

(h) In order to assist in the performance of the Director's duties, the Director may contract with a non-governmental entity including the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC), or any affiliates or subsidiaries that the NAIC oversees, to perform any ministerial functions, including collection of fees, related to producer licensing that the Director and the non-governmental entity may deem appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 102-766, eff. 1-1-23; revised 10-23-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/511.109) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.58-109)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 511.109. Examination. (a) The Director or the Director's designee may examine any applicant for or holder of an administrator's license in accordance with Sections 132 through 132.7. If the Director or the examiners find that the administrator has violated this Article or any other insurance-related laws, rules, or regulations under the Director's jurisdiction because of the manner in which the administrator has conducted business on behalf of an insurer or plan sponsor, then, unless the insurer or plan sponsor is included in the examination and has been afforded the same opportunity to request or participate in a hearing on the examination report, the examination report shall not allege a violation by the insurer or plan sponsor and the Director's order based on the report shall not impose any requirements, prohibitions, or penalties on the insurer or plan sponsor. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Director from using any information obtained during the examination of an administrator to examine, investigate, or take other appropriate regulatory or legal action with respect to an insurer or plan sponsor.

(Source: P.A. 103-897, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/534.3) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.84-3)

Sec. 534.3. Covered claim; unearned premium defined.

(a) "Covered claim" means an unpaid claim for a loss arising out of and within the coverage of an insurance policy to which this Article applies and which is in force at the time of the occurrence giving rise to the unpaid claim, including claims presented during any extended discovery period which was purchased from the company before the entry of a liquidation order or which is purchased or obtained from the liquidator after the entry of a liquidation order, made by a person insured under such policy or by a person suffering injury or damage for which a person insured under such policy is legally liable, and for unearned premium, if:

(i) The company issuing, assuming, or being allocated the policy becomes an insolvent company as defined in Section 534.4 after the effective date of this Article; and

(ii) The claimant or insured is a resident of this State at the time of the insured occurrence, or the property from which a first-party first party claim for damage to property arises is permanently located in this State or, in the case of an unearned premium claim, the policyholder is a resident of this State at the time the policy was issued; provided, that for entities other than an individual, the residence of a claimant, insured, or policyholder is the state in which its principal place of business is located at the time of the insured event.

(b) "Covered claim" does not include:

(i) any amount in excess of the applicable limits of liability provided by an insurance policy to which this Article applies; nor

(ii) any claim for punitive or exemplary damages or fines and penalties paid to government authorities; nor

(iii) any first-party first party claim by an insured who is an affiliate of the insolvent company; nor

(iv) any first-party first party or third-party third party claim by or against an insured whose net worth on December 31 of the year next preceding the date the insurer becomes an insolvent insurer exceeds $25,000,000; provided that an insured's net worth on such date shall be deemed to include the aggregate net worth of the insured and all of its affiliates as calculated on a consolidated basis. However, this exclusion shall not apply to third-party third party claims against the insured where the insured has applied for or consented to the appointment of a receiver, trustee, or liquidator for all or a substantial part of its assets, filed a voluntary petition in bankruptcy, filed a petition or an answer seeking a reorganization or arrangement with creditors or to take advantage of any insolvency law, or if an order, judgment, or decree is entered by a court of competent jurisdiction, on the application of a creditor, adjudicating the insured bankrupt or insolvent or approving a petition seeking reorganization of the insured or of all or substantial part of its assets; nor

(v) any claim for any amount due any reinsurer, insurer, insurance pool, or underwriting association as subrogated recoveries, reinsurance recoverables, contribution, indemnification or otherwise. No such claim held by a reinsurer, insurer, insurance pool, or underwriting association may be asserted in any legal action against a person insured under a policy issued by an insolvent company other than to the extent such claim exceeds the Fund obligation limitations set forth in Section 537.2 of this Code.

(c) "Unearned Premium" means the premium for the unexpired period of a policy which has been terminated prior to the expiration of the period for which premium has been paid and does not mean premium which is returnable to the insured for any other reason.

(Source: P.A. 101-60, eff. 7-12-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 760. The Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 124/3)

Sec. 3. Applicability of Act. This Act applies to an individual or group policy of health insurance coverage with a network plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after January 1, 2019. This Act does not apply to an individual or group policy for excepted benefits or short-term, limited-duration health insurance coverage with a network plan, except to the extent that federal law establishes network adequacy and transparency standards for stand-alone dental plans, which the Department shall enforce for plans amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; 103-777, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 765. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143.31, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 155.49, 352c, 355.2, 355.3, 355.6, 355b, 355c, 356f, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u.10, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.20, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.23, 356z.24, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.28, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.31, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.37, 356z.38, 356z.39, 356z.40, 356z.40a, 356z.41, 356z.44, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.49, 356z.50, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.58, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.63, 356z.64, 356z.65, 356z.66, 356z.67, 356z.68, 356z.69, 356z.70, 356z.71, 356z.72, 356z.73, 356z.74, 356z.75, 356z.77, 364, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including, without limitation, the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-618, eff. 1-1-25; 103-649, eff. 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; 103-700, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-753, eff. 8-2-24; 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; 103-777, eff. 8-2-24; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-26-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143.31, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 155.49, 352c, 355.2, 355.3, 355.6, 355b, 355c, 356f, 356g, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u.10, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.20, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.23, 356z.24, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.28, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.31, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.37, 356z.38, 356z.39, 356z.40, 356z.40a, 356z.41, 356z.44, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.49, 356z.50, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.58, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.63, 356z.64, 356z.65, 356z.66, 356z.67, 356z.68, 356z.69, 356z.70, 356z.71, 356z.72, 356z.73, 356z.74, 356z.75, 356z.77, 364, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including, without limitation, the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-618, eff. 1-1-25; 103-649, eff. 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; 103-700, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-753, eff. 8-2-24; 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; 103-777, eff. 8-2-24; 103-808, eff. 1-1-26; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 770. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143.31, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 155.49, 352c, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 355d, 356m, 356q, 356v, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.61, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 356z.71, 356z.73, 356z.74, 356z.75, 364.3, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. Nothing in this Section shall require a limited health care plan to cover any service that is not a limited health service. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-649, eff. 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; 103-700, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; 103-832, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 775. The Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 134/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

For a health care plan under Section 45 or for a utilization review program under Section 85, "adverse determination" has the meaning given to that term in Section 10 of the Health Carrier External Review Act.

"Clinical peer" means a health care professional who is in the same profession and the same or similar specialty as the health care provider who typically manages the medical condition, procedures, or treatment under review.

"Department" means the Department of Insurance.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity, regardless of the final diagnosis given, such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions;

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part;

(4) inadequately controlled pain; or

(5) with respect to a pregnant woman who is having contractions:

(A) inadequate time to complete a safe transfer to another hospital before delivery; or

(B) a transfer to another hospital may pose a threat to the health or safety of the woman or unborn child.

"Emergency medical screening examination" means a medical screening examination and evaluation by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or to the extent permitted by applicable laws, by other appropriately licensed personnel under the supervision of or in collaboration with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to determine whether the need for emergency services exists.

"Emergency services" means, with respect to an enrollee of a health care plan, transportation services, including but not limited to ambulance services, and covered inpatient and outpatient hospital services furnished by a provider qualified to furnish those services that are needed to evaluate or stabilize an emergency medical condition. "Emergency services" does not refer to post-stabilization medical services.

"Enrollee" means any person and his or her dependents enrolled in or covered by a health care plan.

"Generally accepted standards of care" means standards of care and clinical practice that are generally recognized by health care providers practicing in relevant clinical specialties for the illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities. Valid, evidence-based sources reflecting generally accepted standards of care include peer-reviewed scientific studies and medical literature, recommendations of nonprofit health care provider professional associations and specialty societies, including, but not limited to, patient placement criteria and clinical practice guidelines, recommendations of federal government agencies, and drug labeling approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care plan" means a plan, including, but not limited to, a health maintenance organization, a managed care community network as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code, or an accountable care entity as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code that receives capitated payments to cover medical services from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that has entered into an agreement with the plan to provide health care services to enrollees to whom the plan has the ultimate obligation to arrange for the provision of or payment for services through organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to mean that an independent practice association or a physician hospital organization that subcontracts with a health care plan is, for purposes of that subcontract, a health care plan.

For purposes of this definition, "health care plan" shall not include the following:

(1) indemnity health insurance policies including those using a contracted provider network;

(2) health care plans that offer only dental or only vision coverage;

(3) preferred provider administrators, as defined in Section 370g(g) of the Illinois Insurance Code;

(4) employee or employer self-insured health benefit plans under the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;

(5) health care provided pursuant to the Workers' Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act; and

(6) except with respect to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 65 and subsection (a-5) of Section 70, not-for-profit voluntary health services plans with health maintenance organization authority in existence as of January 1, 1999 that are affiliated with a union and that only extend coverage to union members and their dependents.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a registered professional nurse, or other individual appropriately licensed or registered to provide health care services.

"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital facility, facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to define Independent Practice Associations or Physician-Hospital Organizations as health care providers.

"Health care services" means any services included in the furnishing to any individual of medical care, or the hospitalization incident to the furnishing of such care, as well as the furnishing to any person of any and all other services for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or healing human illness or injury including behavioral health, mental health, home health, and pharmaceutical services and products.

"Medical director" means a physician licensed in any state to practice medicine in all its branches appointed by a health care plan.

"Medically necessary" means that a service or product addresses the specific needs of a patient for the purpose of screening, preventing, diagnosing, managing, or treating an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities, including minimizing the progression of an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities, in a manner that is all of the following:

(1) in accordance with generally accepted standards of care;

(2) clinically appropriate in terms of type, frequency, extent, site, and duration; and

(3) not primarily for the economic benefit of the health care plan, purchaser, or utilization review organization, or for the convenience of the patient, treating physician, or other health care provider.

"Person" means a corporation, association, partnership, limited liability company, sole proprietorship, or any other legal entity.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Post-stabilization medical services" means health care services provided to an enrollee that are furnished in a licensed hospital by a provider that is qualified to furnish such services, and determined to be medically necessary and directly related to the emergency medical condition following stabilization.

"Stabilization" means, with respect to an emergency medical condition, to provide such medical treatment of the condition as may be necessary to assure, within reasonable medical probability, that no material deterioration of the condition is likely to result.

"Step therapy requirement" means a utilization review or formulary requirement that specifies, as a condition of coverage under a health care plan, the order in which certain health care services must be used to treat or manage an enrollee's health condition.

"Step therapy requirement" does not include:

(1) utilization review to identify when a treatment or health care service is contraindicated or clinically appropriate or to limit quantity or dosage for an enrollee based on utilization review criteria consistent with generally accepted standards of care developed in accordance with Section 87 of this Act;

(2) the removal of a drug from a formulary or changing the drug's preferred or cost-sharing tier to higher cost sharing;

(3) use of the medical exceptions process under Section 45.1 of this Act; any decision during a medical exceptions process based on cost is step therapy and prohibited;

(4) a requirement to obtain prior authorization for the requested treatment; or

(5) for health care plans operated or overseen by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, including Medicaid managed care plans, any utilization controls mandated by 42 CFR 456.703 or a preferred drug list as described in Section 5-30.14 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Utilization review" means the evaluation, including any evaluation based on an algorithmic automated process, of the medical necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of health care services, procedures, and facilities.

"Utilization review" includes either of the following:

(1) prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently reviewing and approving, modifying, delaying, or denying, based, in whole or in part, on medical necessity, requests by health care providers, enrollees, or their authorized representatives for coverage of health care services before, retrospectively, or concurrently with the provision of health care services to enrollees; or

(2) evaluating the medical necessity, appropriateness, level of care, service intensity, efficacy, or efficiency of health care services, benefits, procedures, or settings, under any circumstances, to determine whether a health care service or benefit subject to a medical necessity coverage requirement in a health care plan is covered as medically necessary for an enrollee.

"Utilization review criteria" means criteria, standards, protocols, or guidelines used by a utilization review program to conduct utilization review to ensure that a patient's care is aligned with generally accepted standards of care and consistent with State law.

"Utilization review program" means a program established by a person to perform utilization review.

(Source: P.A. 102-409, eff. 1-1-22; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-650, eff. 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 780. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Accredited investor" means an accredited investor as defined in Rule 501(a) promulgated under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77 et seq.), as amended.

"Advertising" means any written, electronic, or printed communication or any communication by means of recorded telephone messages or transmitted on radio, television, the Internet, or similar communications media, including film strips, digital picture slides, motion pictures, and videos published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public in this State, for the purpose of creating an interest in or inducing a person to sell, assign, devise, bequest, or transfer the death benefit or ownership of a policy pursuant to a viatical settlement contract.

"Alien licensee" means a licensee incorporated or organized under the laws of any country other than the United States.

"Business of viatical settlements" means any activity involved in, but not limited to, the offering, soliciting, negotiating, procuring, effectuating, purchasing, investing, financing, monitoring, tracking, underwriting, selling, transferring, assigning, pledging, or hypothecating or in any other manner acquiring an interest in a life insurance policy by means of a viatical settlement contract or other agreement.

"Chronically ill" means having been certified within the preceding 12-month period by a licensed health professional as:

(1) being unable to perform, without substantial assistance from another individual and for at least 90 days due to a loss of functional capacity, at least 2 activities of daily living, including, but not limited to, eating, toileting, transferring, bathing, dressing, or continence;

(2) requiring substantial supervision to protect the individual from threats to health and safety due to severe cognitive impairment; or

(3) having a level of disability similar to that described in paragraph (1) as determined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

"Controlling person" means any person, firm, association, or corporation that directly or indirectly has the power to direct or cause to be directed the management, control, or activities of the viatical settlement provider.

"Director" means the Director of the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Division" means the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Escrow agent" means an independent third-party person who, pursuant to a written agreement signed by the viatical settlement provider and viator, provides escrow services related to the acquisition of a life insurance policy pursuant to a viatical settlement contract. "Escrow agent" does not include any person associated or affiliated with or under the control of a licensee.

"Financial institution" means a financial institution as defined by the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law in Article XLIV of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Financing entity" means an underwriter, placement agent, lender, purchaser of securities, purchaser of a policy or certificate from a viatical settlement provider, credit enhancer, or an entity that has a direct ownership in a policy that is the subject of a viatical settlement contract, and to which both of the following apply:

(1) its principal activity related to the transaction is providing funds to effect the viatical settlement or purchase of one or more viaticated policies; and

(2) it has an agreement in writing with one or more licensed viatical settlement providers to finance the acquisition of viatical settlement contracts. "Financing entity" does not include an investor that is not an accredited investor.

"Financing transaction" means a transaction in which a viatical settlement provider obtains financing from a financing entity, including, without limitation, any secured or unsecured financing, securitization transaction, or securities offering that either is registered or exempt from registration under federal and State securities law.

"Foreign licensee" means any viatical settlement provider incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State.

"Insurance producer" means an insurance producer as defined by Section 500-10 10 of Article XXXI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Licensee" means a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.

"Life expectancy provider" means a person who determines or holds himself or herself out as determining life expectancies or mortality ratings used to determine life expectancies on behalf of or in connection with any of the following:

(1) A viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, or person engaged in the business of viatical settlements.

(2) A viatical investment as defined by Section 2.33 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or a viatical settlement contract.

"NAIC" means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

"Person" means an individual or a legal entity, including, without limitation, a partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, association, trust, business trust, or corporation.

"Policy" means an individual or group policy, group certificate, contract, or arrangement of insurance of the class defined by subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code owned by a resident of this State, regardless of whether delivered or issued for delivery in this State.

"Qualified institutional buyer" means a qualified institutional buyer as defined in Rule 144 promulgated under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended.

"Related provider trust" means a titling trust or other trust established by a licensed viatical settlement provider or a financing entity for the sole purpose of holding the ownership or beneficial interest in purchased policies in connection with a financing transaction. The trust shall have a written agreement with the licensed viatical settlement provider under which the licensed viatical settlement provider is responsible for ensuring compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements and under which the trust agrees to make all records and files related to viatical settlement transactions available to the Director as if those records and files were maintained directly by the licensed viatical settlement provider.

"Special purpose entity" means a corporation, partnership, trust, limited liability company, or other similar entity formed only to provide, directly or indirectly, access to institutional capital markets (i) for a financing entity or licensed viatical settlement provider; or (ii) in connection with a transaction in which the securities in the special purposes entity are acquired by the viator or by qualified institutional buyers or the securities pay a fixed rate of return commensurate with established asset-backed institutional capital markets.

"Stranger-originated life insurance" or "STOLI" means an act, practice, or arrangement to initiate a life insurance policy for the benefit of a third-party investor who, at the time of policy origination, has no insurable interest in the insured. STOLI practices include, but are not limited to, cases in which life insurance is purchased with resources or guarantees from or through a person or entity who, at the time of policy inception, could not lawfully initiate the policy himself or itself and where, at the time of policy inception, there is an arrangement or agreement, whether verbal or written, to directly or indirectly transfer the ownership of the policy or policy benefits to a third party. Trusts created to give the appearance of an insurable interest and used to initiate policies for investors violate insurance interest laws and the prohibition against wagering on life. STOLI arrangements do not include lawful viatical settlement contracts as permitted by this Act.

"Terminally ill" means certified by a physician as having an illness or physical condition that reasonably is expected to result in death in 24 months or less.

"Viatical settlement broker" means a licensed insurance producer who has been issued a license pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 500-35 of the Illinois Insurance Code who, working exclusively on behalf of a viator and for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, offers, solicits, promotes, or attempts to negotiate viatical settlement contracts between a viator and one or more viatical settlement providers or one or more viatical settlement brokers. "Viatical settlement broker" does not include an attorney, a certified public accountant, or a financial planner accredited by a nationally recognized accreditation agency, who is retained to represent the viator and whose compensation is not paid directly or indirectly by the viatical settlement provider or purchaser.

"Viatical settlement contract" means any of the following:

(1) A written agreement between a viator and a viatical settlement provider establishing the terms under which compensation or anything of value is or will be paid, which compensation or value is less than the expected death benefits of the policy, in return for the viator's present or future assignment, transfer, sale, devise, or bequest of the death benefit or ownership of any portion of the insurance policy.

(2) A written agreement for a loan or other lending transaction, secured primarily by an individual life insurance policy or an individual certificate of a group life insurance policy.

(3) The transfer for compensation or value of ownership of a beneficial interest in a trust or other entity that owns such policy, if the trust or other entity was formed or availed of for the principal purpose of acquiring one or more life insurance contracts and the life insurance contract insures the life of a person residing in this State.

(4) A premium finance loan made for a life insurance policy by a lender to a viator on, before, or after the date of issuance of the policy in either of the following situations:

(A) The viator or the insured receives a guarantee of the viatical settlement value of the policy.

(B) The viator or the insured agrees to sell the policy or any portion of the policy's death benefit on any date before or after issuance of the policy.

"Viatical settlement contract" does not include any of the following acts, practices, or arrangements listed below in subparagraphs (a) through (i) of this definition of "viatical settlement contract", unless part of a plan, scheme, device, or artifice to avoid application of this Act; provided, however, that the list of excluded items contained in subparagraphs (a) through (i) is not intended to be an exhaustive list and that an act, practice, or arrangement that is not described below in subparagraphs (a) through (i) does not necessarily constitute a viatical settlement contract:

(a) A policy loan or accelerated death benefit made by the insurer pursuant to the policy's terms;

(b) Loan proceeds that are used solely to pay: (i) premiums for the policy and (ii) the costs of the loan, including, without limitation, interest, arrangement fees, utilization fees and similar fees, closing costs, legal fees and expenses, trustee fees and expenses, and third-party third party collateral provider fees and expenses, including fees payable to letter of credit issuers;

(c) A loan made by a bank or other financial institution in which the lender takes an interest in a life insurance policy solely to secure repayment of a loan or, if there is a default on the loan and the policy is transferred, the transfer of such a policy by the lender, provided that neither the default itself nor the transfer of the policy in connection with the default is pursuant to an agreement or understanding with any other person for the purpose of evading regulation under this Act;

(d) A loan made by a lender that does not violate Article XXXIIa of the Illinois Insurance Code, provided that the premium finance loan is not described in this Act;

(e) An agreement in which all the parties (i) are closely related to the insured by blood or law or (ii) have a lawful substantial economic interest in the continued life, health, and bodily safety of the person insured, or trusts established primarily for the benefit of such parties;

(f) Any designation, consent, or agreement by an insured who is an employee of an employer in connection with the purchase by the employer, or trust established by the employer, of life insurance on the life of the employee;

(g) A bona fide business succession planning arrangement: (i) between one or more shareholders in a corporation or between a corporation and one or more of its shareholders or one or more trusts established by its shareholders; (ii) between one or more partners in a partnership or between a partnership and one or more of its partners or one or more trusts established by its partners; or (iii) between one or more members in a limited liability company or between a limited liability company and one or more of its members or one or more trusts established by its members;

(h) An agreement entered into by a service recipient, or a trust established by the service recipient, and a service provider, or a trust established by the service provider, who performs significant services for the service recipient's trade or business; or

(i) Any other contract, transaction, or arrangement exempted from the definition of viatical settlement contract by the Director based on the Director's determination that the contract, transaction, or arrangement is not of the type intended to be regulated by this Act.

"Viatical settlement investment agent" means a person who is an appointed or contracted agent of a licensed viatical settlement provider who solicits or arranges the funding for the purchase of a viatical settlement by a viatical settlement purchaser and who is acting on behalf of a viatical settlement provider. A viatical settlement investment agent is deemed to represent the viatical settlement provider of whom the viatical settlement investment agent is an appointed or contracted agent.

"Viatical settlement provider" means a person, other than a viator, who enters into or effectuates a viatical settlement contract with a viator. "Viatical settlement provider" does not include:

(1) a bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other financial institution that takes an assignment of a policy as collateral for a loan;

(2) a financial institution or premium finance company making premium finance loans and exempted by the Director from the licensing requirement under the premium finance laws where the institution or company takes an assignment of a life insurance policy solely as collateral for a premium finance loan;

(3) the issuer of the life insurance policy;

(4) an authorized or eligible insurer that provides stop loss coverage or financial guaranty insurance to a viatical settlement provider, purchaser, financing entity, special purpose entity, or related provider trust;

(5) an An individual person who enters into or effectuates no more than one viatical settlement contract in a calendar year for the transfer of policies for any value less than the expected death benefit;

(6) a financing entity;

(7) a special purpose entity;

(8) a related provider trust;

(9) a viatical settlement purchaser; or

(10) any other person that the Director determines is consistent with the definition of viatical settlement provider.

"Viatical settlement purchaser" means a person who provides a sum of money as consideration for a life insurance policy or an interest in the death benefits of a life insurance policy, or a person who owns or acquires or is entitled to a beneficial interest in a trust that owns a viatical settlement contract or is the beneficiary of a life insurance policy, in each case where such policy has been or will be the subject of a viatical settlement contract, for the purpose of deriving an economic benefit. "Viatical settlement purchaser" does not include: (i) a licensee under this Act; (ii) an accredited investor or qualified institutional buyer; (iii) a financing entity; (iv) a special purpose entity; or (v) a related provider trust.

"Viaticated policy" means a life insurance policy that has been acquired by a viatical settlement provider pursuant to a viatical settlement contract.

"Viator" means the owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy who enters or seeks to enter into a viatical settlement contract. For the purposes of this Act, a viator is not limited to an owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy insuring the life of an individual with a terminal or chronic illness or condition, except where specifically addressed. "Viator" does not include:

(1) a licensee;

(2) a qualified institutional buyer;

(3) a financing entity;

(4) a special purpose entity; or

(5) a related provider trust.

(Source: P.A. 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 785. The Vision Care Plan Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 161/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Covered materials" means materials for which reimbursement from the vision care plan is provided to an eye care provider by an enrollee's plan contract or for which a reimbursement would be available but for the application of the enrollee's contractual limitation of deductibles, copayments, or coinsurance. "Covered materials" includes lens treatment or coatings added to a spectacle lens if the base spectacle lens is a covered material.

"Covered services" means services for which reimbursement from the vision care plan is provided to an eye care provider by an enrollee's plan contract or for which a reimbursement would be available but for the application of the enrollee's contractual plan limitation of deductibles, copayments, or coinsurance regardless of how the benefits are listed in an enrollee's benefit plan's definition of benefits.

"Enrollee" means any individual enrolled in a vision care plan provided by a group, employer, or other entity that purchases or supplies coverage for a vision care plan.

"Eye care provider" means a doctor of optometry licensed pursuant to the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches pursuant to the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Materials" means ophthalmic devices, including, but not limited to:

(i) lenses, devices containing lenses, ophthalmic frames, and other lens mounting apparatus, prisms, lens treatments, and coatings;

(ii) contact lenses and prosthetic devices that correct, relieve, or treat defects or abnormal conditions of the human eye or adnexa; and

(iii) any devices that deliver medication or other therapeutic treatment to the human eye or adnexa.

"Services" means the professional work performed by an eye care provider.

"Subcontractor" means any company, group, or third-party entity, including agents, servants, partially owned partially-owned or wholly owned wholly-owned subsidiaries and controlled organizations, that the vision care plan contracts with to supply services or materials for an eye care provider or enrollee to fulfill the benefit plan of a vision care plan.

"Vision care organization" means an entity formed under the laws of this State or another state that issues a vision care plan.

"Vision care plan" means a plan that creates, promotes, sells, provides, advertises, or administers an integrated or stand-alone plan that provides coverage for covered services and covered materials.

(Source: P.A. 103-482, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 790. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143.31, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 355d, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356u.10, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 356z.32a, 356z.33, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 356z.71, 356z.72, 356z.74, 356z.75, 356z.77, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; 103-718, eff. 7-19-24; 103-751, eff. 8-2-24; 103-753, eff. 8-2-24; 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; 103-832, eff. 1-1-25; 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; 103-918, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 795. The Health Carrier External Review Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 180/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

"Adverse determination" means:

(1) a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that, based upon the health information provided for a covered person, a request for a benefit, including any quantity, frequency, duration, or other measurement of a benefit, under the health carrier's health benefit plan upon application of any utilization review technique does not meet the health carrier's requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness or is determined to be experimental or investigational and the requested benefit is therefore denied, reduced, or terminated or payment is not provided or made, in whole or in part, for the benefit;

(2) the denial, reduction, or termination of or failure to provide or make payment, in whole or in part, for a benefit based on a determination by a health carrier or its designee utilization review organization that a preexisting condition was present before the effective date of coverage; or

(3) a rescission of coverage determination, which does not include a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions toward towards the cost of coverage.

"Adverse determination" includes unilateral determinations that replace the requested health care service with an approval of an alternative health care service without the agreement of the covered person or the covered person's attending provider for the requested health care service, or that condition approval of the requested service on first trying an alternative health care service, either if the request was made under a medical exceptions procedure, or if all of the following are true: (1) the requested service was not excluded by name, description, or service category under the written terms of coverage, (2) the alternative health care service poses no greater risk to the patient based on generally accepted standards of care, and (3) the alternative health care service is at least as likely to produce the same or better effect on the covered person's health as the requested service based on generally accepted standards of care. "Adverse determination" includes determinations made based on any source of health information pertaining to the covered person that is used to deny, reduce, replace, condition, or terminate the benefit or payment. "Adverse determination" includes determinations made in response to a request for authorization when the request was submitted by the health care provider regardless of whether the provider gave notice to or obtained the consent of the covered person or authorized representative to file the request. "Adverse determination" does not include substitutions performed under Section 19.5 or 25 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Authorized representative" means:

(1) a person to whom a covered person has given express written consent to represent the covered person for purposes of this Law;

(2) a person authorized by law to provide substituted consent for a covered person;

(3) a family member of the covered person or the covered person's treating health care professional when the covered person is unable to provide consent;

(4) a health care provider when the covered person's health benefit plan requires that a request for a benefit under the plan be initiated by the health care provider; or

(5) in the case of an urgent care request, a health care provider with knowledge of the covered person's medical condition.

"Best evidence" means evidence based on:

(1) randomized clinical trials;

(2) if randomized clinical trials are not available, then cohort studies or case-control studies;

(3) if items (1) and (2) are not available, then case-series; or

(4) if items (1), (2), and (3) are not available, then expert opinion.

"Case-series" means an evaluation of a series of patients with a particular outcome, without the use of a control group.

"Clinical review criteria" means the written screening procedures, decision abstracts, clinical protocols, and practice guidelines used by a health carrier to determine the necessity and appropriateness of health care services. "Clinical review criteria" includes all utilization review criteria as defined in Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Cohort study" means a prospective evaluation of 2 groups of patients with only one group of patients receiving specific intervention.

"Concurrent review" means a review conducted during a patient's stay or course of treatment in a facility, the office of a health care professional, or other inpatient or outpatient health care setting.

"Covered benefits" or "benefits" means those health care services to which a covered person is entitled under the terms of a health benefit plan.

"Covered person" means a policyholder, subscriber, enrollee, or other individual participating in a health benefit plan.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Insurance.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity, including, but not limited to, severe pain, such that a prudent layperson who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child, in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.

"Emergency services" means health care items and services furnished or required to evaluate and treat an emergency medical condition.

"Evidence-based standard" means the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the current best evidence based on an overall systematic review of the research in making decisions about the care of individual patients.

"Expert opinion" means a belief or an interpretation by specialists with experience in a specific area about the scientific evidence pertaining to a particular service, intervention, or therapy.

"Facility" means an institution providing health care services or a health care setting.

"Final adverse determination" means an adverse determination involving a covered benefit that has been upheld by a health carrier, or its designee utilization review organization, at the completion of the health carrier's internal grievance process procedures as set forth by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act or as set forth for any additional authorization or internal appeal process provided by contract between the health carrier and the provider. "Final adverse determination" includes determinations made in an appeal of a denial of prior authorization when the appeal was submitted by the health care provider regardless of whether the provider gave notice to or obtained the consent of the covered person or authorized representative to file an internal appeal.

"Health benefit plan" means a policy, contract, certificate, plan, or agreement offered or issued by a health carrier to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services.

"Health care provider" or "provider" means a physician, hospital facility, or other health care practitioner licensed, accredited, or certified to perform specified health care services consistent with State law, responsible for recommending health care services on behalf of a covered person.

"Health care services" means services for the diagnosis, prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition, illness, injury, or disease.

"Health carrier" means an entity subject to the insurance laws and regulations of this State, or subject to the jurisdiction of the Director, that contracts or offers to contract to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse any of the costs of health care services, including a sickness and accident insurance company, a health maintenance organization, or any other entity providing a plan of health insurance, health benefits, or health care services. "Health carrier" also means Limited Health Service Organizations (LHSO) and Voluntary Health Service Plans.

"Health information" means information or data, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium, and personal facts or information about events or relationships that relate to:

(1) the past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual or a member of the individual's family;

(2) the provision of health care services to an individual; or

(3) payment for the provision of health care services to an individual.

"Independent review organization" means an entity that conducts independent external reviews of adverse determinations and final adverse determinations.

"Medical or scientific evidence" means evidence found in the following sources:

(1) peer-reviewed scientific studies published in or accepted for publication by medical journals that meet nationally recognized requirements for scientific manuscripts and that submit most of their published articles for review by experts who are not part of the editorial staff;

(2) peer-reviewed medical literature, including literature relating to therapies reviewed and approved by a qualified institutional review board, biomedical compendia, and other medical literature that meet the criteria of the National Institutes of Health's Library of Medicine for indexing in Index Medicus (Medline) and Elsevier Science Ltd. for indexing in Excerpta Medicus (EMBASE);

(3) medical journals recognized by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under Section 1861(t)(2) of the federal Social Security Act;

(4) the following standard reference compendia:

(a) The American Hospital Formulary Service-Drug Information;

(b) Drug Facts and Comparisons;

(c) The American Dental Association Accepted Dental Therapeutics; and

(d) The United States Pharmacopoeia-Drug Information;

(5) findings, studies, or research conducted by or under the auspices of federal government agencies and nationally recognized federal research institutes, including:

(a) the federal Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality;

(b) the National Institutes of Health;

(c) the National Cancer Institute;

(d) the National Academy of Sciences;

(e) the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services;

(f) the federal Food and Drug Administration; and

(g) any national board recognized by the National Institutes of Health for the purpose of evaluating the medical value of health care services; or

(6) any other medical or scientific evidence that is comparable to the sources listed in items (1) through (5).

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint venture, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar entity, or any combination of the foregoing.

"Prospective review" means a review conducted prior to an admission or the provision of a health care service or a course of treatment in accordance with a health carrier's requirement that the health care service or course of treatment, in whole or in part, be approved prior to its provision.

"Protected health information" means health information (i) that identifies an individual who is the subject of the information; or (ii) with respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe that the information could be used to identify an individual.

"Randomized clinical trial" means a controlled prospective study of patients that have been randomized into an experimental group and a control group at the beginning of the study with only the experimental group of patients receiving a specific intervention, which includes study of the groups for variables and anticipated outcomes over time.

"Retrospective review" means any review of a request for a benefit that is not a concurrent or prospective review request. "Retrospective review" does not include the review of a claim that is limited to veracity of documentation or accuracy of coding.

"Utilization review" has the meaning provided by the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Utilization review organization" means a utilization review program as defined in the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-650, eff 1-1-25; 103-656, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 800. The Prior Authorization Reform Act is amended by changing Section 77 as follows:

(215 ILCS 200/77)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 77. Prior authorization for drug therapies for hereditary bleeding disorders. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a health insurance issuer or a contracted utilization review organization may not require a prior authorization for drug therapies approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of hereditary bleeding disorders any more frequently than every 6 months or the length of time the prescription for that dosage remains valid, whichever period is shorter.

(Source: P.A. 103-659, eff. 1-1-26; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 805. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 16-108.18 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/16-108.18)

Sec. 16-108.18. Performance-based ratemaking.

(a) The General Assembly finds:

(1) That improving the alignment of utility customer and company interests is critical to ensuring equity, rapid growth of distributed energy resources, electric vehicles, and other new technologies that substantially change the makeup of the grid and protect Illinois residents and businesses from potential economic and environmental harm from the State's energy systems.

(2) There is urgency around addressing increasing threats from climate change and assisting communities that have borne disproportionate impacts from climate change, including air pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and energy burdens. Addressing this problem requires changes to the business model under which utilities in Illinois have traditionally functioned.

(3) Providing targeted incentives to support change through a new performance-based structure to enhance ratemaking is intended to enable alignment of utility, customer, community, and environmental goals.

(4) Though Illinois has taken some measures to move utilities to performance-based ratemaking through the establishment of performance incentives and a performance-based formula rate under the Energy Infrastructure Modernization Act, these measures have not been sufficiently transformative in urgently moving electric utilities toward the State's ambitious energy policy goals: protecting a healthy environment and climate, improving public health, and creating quality jobs and economic opportunities, including wealth building, especially in economically disadvantaged communities and communities of color.

(5) These measures were not developed through a process to understand first what performance measures and penalties would help drive the sought-after behavior by the utilities.

(6) While the General Assembly has not made a finding that the spending related to the Energy Infrastructure and Modernization Act and its performance metrics was not reasonable, it is important to address concerns that these measures may have resulted in excess utility spending and guaranteed profits without meaningful improvements in customer experience, rate affordability, or equity.

(7) Discussions of performance incentive mechanisms must always take into account the affordability of customer rates and bills for all customers, including low-income customers.

(8) The General Assembly therefore directs the Illinois Commerce Commission to complete a transition that includes a comprehensive performance-based regulation framework for electric utilities serving more than 500,000 customers. The breadth of this framework should revise existing utility regulations to position Illinois electric utilities to effectively and efficiently achieve current and anticipated future energy needs of this State, while ensuring affordability for consumers.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Demand response" means measures that decrease peak electricity demand or shift demand from peak to off-peak periods.

"Distributed energy resources" or "DER" means a wide range of technologies that are connected to the grid including those that are located on the customer side of the customer's electric meter and can provide value to the distribution system, including, but not limited to, distributed generation, energy storage, electric vehicles, and demand response technologies.

"Economically disadvantaged communities" means areas of one or more census tracts where average household income does not exceed 80% of area median income.

"Environmental justice communities" means the definition of that term as used and as may be updated in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan by the Illinois Power Agency and its Program Administrator in the Illinois Solar for All Program.

"Equity investment eligible community" means the geographic areas throughout Illinois which would most benefit from equitable investments by the State designed to combat discrimination. Specifically, the equity investment eligible communities shall be defined as the following areas:

(1) R3 Areas as established pursuant to Section 10-40 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, where residents have historically been excluded from economic opportunities, including opportunities in the energy sector; and

(2) Environmental justice communities, as defined by the Illinois Power Agency pursuant to the Illinois Power Agency Act, where residents have historically been subject to disproportionate burdens of pollution, including pollution from the energy sector.

"Performance incentive mechanism" means an instrument by which utility performance is incentivized, which could include a monetary performance incentive.

"Performance metric" means a manner of measurement for a particular utility activity.

(c) Through coordinated, comprehensive system planning, ratemaking, and performance incentives, the performance-based ratemaking framework should be designed to accomplish the following objectives:

(1) maintain and improve service reliability and safety, including and particularly in environmental justice, low-income, and equity investment eligible communities;

(2) decarbonize utility systems at a pace that meets or exceeds State climate goals, while also ensuring the affordability of rates for all customers, including low-income customers;

(3) direct electric utilities to make cost-effective investments that support achievement of Illinois' clean energy policies, including, at a minimum, investments designed to integrate distributed energy resources, comply with critical infrastructure protection standards, plans, and industry best practices, and support and take advantage of potential benefits from the electric vehicle charging and other electrification, while mitigating the impacts;

(4) choose cost-effective assets and services, whether utility-supplied or through third-party contracting, considering both economic and environmental costs and the effects on utility rates, to deliver high-quality service to customers at least cost;

(5) maintain the affordability of electric delivery services for all customers, including low-income customers;

(6) maintain and grow a diverse workforce, diverse supplier procurement base and, for relevant programs, diverse approved-vendor pools, including increased opportunities for minority-owned, female-owned, veteran-owned, and disability-owned business enterprises;

(7) improve customer service performance and engagement;

(8) address the particular burdens faced by consumers in environmental justice and equity investment eligible communities, including shareholder, consumer, and publicly funded bill payment assistance and credit and collection policies, and ensure equitable disconnections, late fees, or arrearages as a result of utility credit and collection practices, which may include consideration of impact by zip code; and

(9) implement or otherwise enhance current supplier diversity programs to increase diverse contractor participation in professional services, subcontracting, and prime contracting opportunities with programs that address barriers to access. Supplier diversity programs shall address specific barriers related to RFP and contract access, access to capital, information technology and cyber security access and costs, administrative burdens, and quality control with specific metrics, outcomes, and demographic data reported.

(d) Multi-Year Rate Plan.

(1) If an electric utility had a performance-based formula rate in effect under Section 16-108.5 as of December 31, 2020, then the utility may file a petition proposing tariffs implementing a 4-year Multi-Year Rate Plan as provided in this Section no later than, January 20, 2023, for delivery service rates to be effective for the billing periods January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2027. The Commission shall issue an order approving or approving as modified the utility's plan no later than December 20, 2023. The term "Multi-Year Rate Plan" refers to a plan establishing the base rates the utility shall charge for each delivery year of the 4-year period to be covered by the plan, which shall be subject to modification only as expressly allowed in this Section.

(2) A utility proposing a Multi-Year Rate Plan shall provide a 4-year investment plan and a description of the utility's major planned investments, including, at a minimum, all investments of $2,000,000 or greater over the plan period for an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State or $500,000 for an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State. The 4-year investment plan must be consistent with the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan described in Section 16-105.17 of this Act. The investment plan shall provide sufficiently detailed information, as required by the Commission, including, at a minimum, a description of each investment, the location of the investment, and an explanation of the need for and benefit of such an investment to the extent known.

(3) The Multi-Year Rate Plan shall be implemented through a tariff filed with the Commission consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (3) that shall apply to all delivery service customers. The Commission shall initiate and conduct an investigation of the tariff in a manner consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (3) and the provisions of Article IX of this Act, to the extent they do not conflict with this paragraph (3). The Multi-Year Rate Plan approved by the Commission shall do the following:

(A) Provide for the recovery of the utility's forecasted rate base, based on the 4-year investment plan and the utility's Integrated Grid Plan. The forecasted rate base must include the utility's planned capital investments, with rates based on average annual plant investment, and investment-related costs, including income tax impacts, depreciation, and ratemaking adjustments and costs that are prudently incurred and reasonable in amount consistent with Commission practice and law. The process used to develop the forecasts must be iterative, rigorous, and lead to forecasts that reasonably represent the utility's investments during the forecasted period and ensure that the investments are projected to be used and useful during the annual investment period and least cost, consistent with the provisions of Articles VIII and IX of this Act.

(B) The cost of equity shall be approved by the Commission consistent with Commission practice and law.

(C) The revenue requirement shall reflect the utility's actual capital structure for the applicable calendar year. A year-end capital structure that includes a common equity ratio of up to and including 50% of the total capital structure shall be deemed prudent and reasonable. A higher common equity ratio must be specifically approved by the Commission.

(D) (Blank).

(E) Provide for recovery of prudent and reasonable projected operating expenses, giving effect to ratemaking adjustments, consistent with Commission practice and law under Article IX of this Act. Operating expenses for years after the first year of the Multi-Year Rate Plan may be estimated by the use of known and measurable changes, expense reductions associated with planned capital investments as appropriate, and reasonable and appropriate escalators, indices, or other metrics.

(F) Amortize the amount of unprotected property-related excess accumulated deferred income taxes in rates as of January 1, 2023 over a period ending December 31, 2027, unless otherwise required to amortize the excess deferred income tax pursuant to Section 16-108.21 of this Act.

(G) Allow recovery of incentive compensation expense that is based on the achievement of operational metrics, including metrics related to budget controls, outage duration and frequency, safety, customer service, efficiency and productivity, environmental compliance and attainment of affordability and environmental goals, and other goals and metrics approved by the Commission. Incentive compensation expense that is based on net income or an affiliate's earnings per share shall not be recoverable.

(H) To the maximum extent practicable, align the 4-year investment plan and annual capital budgets with the electric utility's Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan.

(4) The Commission shall establish annual rates for each year of the Multi-Year Rate Plan that accurately reflect and are based only upon the utility's reasonable and prudent costs of service over the term of the plan, including the effect of all ratemaking adjustments consistent with Commission practice and law as determined by the Commission, provided that the costs are not being recovered elsewhere in rates. Tariff riders authorized by the Commission may continue outside of a plan authorized under this Section to the extent such costs are not recovered elsewhere in rates. For the first Multi-Year Rate Plan multi-year rate plan, the burden of proof shall be on the electric utility to establish the prudence of investments and expenditures and to establish that such investments consistent with and reasonably necessary to meet the requirements of the utility's first approved Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan described in Section 16-105.17 of this Act. For subsequent Multi-Year Rate Plans, the burden of proof shall be on the electric utility to establish the prudence of investments and expenditures and to establish that such investments are consistent with and reasonably necessary to meet the requirements of the utility's most recently approved Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan described in Section 16-105.17 of this Act. The sole fact that a cost differs from that incurred in a prior period or that an investment is different from that described in the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of that cost or investment. The sole fact that an investment is the same or similar to that described in the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan shall not imply prudence and reasonableness of that investment.

(5) To facilitate public transparency, all materials, data, testimony, and schedules shall be provided to the Commission in an editable, machine-readable electronic format including .doc, .docx, .xls, .xlsx, and similar file formats, but not including .pdf or .exif. Should utilities designate any materials confidential, they shall have an affirmative duty to explain why the particular information is marked confidential. In determining prudence and reasonableness of rates, the Commission shall make its determination based upon the record, including each public comment filed or provided orally at open meetings consistent with the Commission's rules and practices.

(6) The Commission may, by order, establish terms, conditions, and procedures for submitting and approving a Multi-Year Rate Plan necessary to implement this Section and ensure that rates remain just and reasonable during the course of the plan, including terms and procedures for rate adjustment.

(7) An electric utility that files a tariff pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (e) must submit a one-time $300,000 filing fee at the time the Chief Clerk of the Commission accepts the filing, which shall be a recoverable expense.

(8) An electric utility operating under a Multi-Year Rate Plan shall file a new Multi-Year Rate Plan at least 300 days prior to the end of the initial Multi-Year Rate Plan unless it elects to file a general rate case pursuant to paragraph (9), and every 4 years thereafter, with a rate-effective date of the proposed tariffs such that, after the Commission suspension period, the rates would take effect immediately at the close of the final year of the initial Multi-Year Rate Plan. In subsequent Multi-Year Rate Plans, as in the initial plans, utilities and stakeholders may propose additional metrics that achieve the outcomes described in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

(9) Election of Rate Case.

(A) On or before the date prescribed by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (9) of this Section, electric utilities that serve more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall file either a general rate case under Section 9-201 of this Act, or a Multi-Year Rate Plan, as set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d).

(B) Electric utilities described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (9) of this Section shall file their initial general rate case or Multi-Year Rate Plan, as applicable, with the Commission no later than January 20, 2023.

(C) Notwithstanding which rate filing option an electric utility elects to file on the date prescribed by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (9) of this Section, the electric utility shall be subject to the Multi-year Integrated Plan filing requirements.

(D) Following its initial rate filing pursuant to paragraph (2), an electric utility subject to the requirements of this Section shall thereafter be permitted to elect a different rate filing option consistent with any filing intervals established for a general rate case or Multi-Year Rate Plan, as follows:

(i) An electric utility that initially elected to file a Multi-Year Rate Plan and thereafter elects to transition to a general rate case may do so upon completion of the 4-year Multi-Year Rate Plan by filing a general rate case at the same time that the utility would have filed its subsequent Multi-Year Rate Plan, as specified in paragraph (8) of this subsection (d). Notwithstanding this election, the annual adjustment of the final year of the Multi-Year Rate Plan shall proceed as specified in paragraph (6) of subsection (f).

(ii) An electric utility that initially elected to a file general rate case and thereafter elects to transition to a Multi-Year Rate Plan may do so only at the 4-year filing intervals identified by paragraph (8) of this subsection (d).

(10) The Commission shall approve tariffs establishing rate design for all delivery service customers unless the electric utility makes the election specified in Section 16-105.5, in which case the rate design shall be subject to the provisions of that Section.

(11) The Commission shall establish requirements for annual performance evaluation reports to be submitted annually for performance metrics. Such reports shall include, but not be limited to, a description of the utility's performance under each metric and an identification of any extraordinary events that adversely affected the utility's performance.

(12) For the first Multi-Year Rate Plan, the Commission shall consolidate its investigation with the proceeding under Section 16-105.17 to establish the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan no later than 45 days after plan filing.

(13) Where a rate change under a Multi-Year Rate Plan will result in a rate increase, an electric utility may propose a rate phase-in plan that the Commission shall approve with or without modification or deny in its final order approving the new delivery services rates. A proposed rate phase-in plan under this paragraph (13) must allow the new delivery services rates to be implemented in no more than 2 steps, as follows: in the first step, at least 50% of the approved rate increase must be reflected in rates, and, in the second step, 100% of the rate increase must be reflected in rates. The second step's rates must take effect no later than 12 months after the first step's rates were placed into effect. The portion of the approved rate increase not implemented in the first step shall be recorded on the electric utility's books as a regulatory asset, and shall accrue carrying costs to ensure that the utility does not recover more or less than it otherwise would because of the deferral. This portion shall be recovered, with such carrying costs at the weighted average cost of capital, through a surcharge applied to retail customer bills that (i) begins no later than 12 months after the date on which the second step's rates went into effect and (ii) is applied over a period not to exceed 24 months. Nothing in this paragraph is intended to limit the Commission's authority to mitigate the impact of rates caused by rate plans, or any other instance on a revenue-neutral basis; nor shall it mitigate a utility's ability to make proposals to mitigate the impact of rates. When a deferral, or similar method, is used to mitigate the impact of rates, the utility should be allowed to recover carrying costs.

(14) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph Section (13), the Commission may, on its own initiative, take revenue-neutral measures to relieve the impact of rate increases on customers. Such initiatives may be taken by the Commission in the first Multi-Year Rate Plan, subsequent multi-year plans, or in other instances described in this Act.

(15) Whenever during the pendency of a Multi-Year Multi-year Rate Plan, an electric utility subject to this Section becomes aware that, due to circumstances beyond its control, prudent operating practices will require the utility to make adjustments to the Multi-Year Rate Plan, the electric utility may file a petition with the Commission requesting modification of the approved annual revenue requirements included in the Multi-Year Rate Plan. The electric utility must support its request with evidence demonstrating why a modification is necessary, due to circumstances beyond the utility's control, to follow prudent operating practices and must set forth the changes to each annual revenue requirement to be approved, and the basis for any changes in anticipated operating expenses or capital investment levels. The utility shall affirmatively address the impact of the changes on the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan and Multi-Year Rate Plan originally submitted and approved by the Commission. Any interested party may file an objection to the changes proposed, or offer alternatives to the utility's proposal, as supported by testimony and evidence. After notice and hearing, the Commission shall issue a final order regarding the electric utility's request no later than 180 days after the filing of the petition.

(e) Performance incentive mechanisms.

(1) The electric industry is undergoing rapid transformation, including fundamental changes in how electricity is generated, procured, and delivered and how customers are choosing to participate in the supply and delivery of electricity to and from the electric grid. Building upon the State's goals to increase the procurement of electricity from renewable energy resources, including distributed generation and storage devices, the General Assembly finds that electric utilities should make cost-effective investments that support moving forward on Illinois' clean energy policies. It is therefore in the State's interest for the Commission to establish performance incentive mechanisms in order to better tie utility revenues to performance and customer benefits, accelerate progress on Illinois energy and other goals, ensure equity and affordability of rates for all customers, including low-income customers, and hold utilities publicly accountable.

(2) The Commission shall approve, based on the substantial evidence proffered in the proceeding initiated pursuant to this subsection performance metrics that, to the extent practicable and achievable by the electric utility, encourage cost-effective, equitable utility achievement of the outcomes described in this subsection (e) while ensuring no degradation in the significant performance improvement achieved through previously established performance metrics. For each electric utility, the Commission shall approve metrics designed to achieve incremental improvements over baseline performance values and targets, over a performance period of up to 10 years, and no less than 4 years.

(A) The Commission shall approve no more than 8 metrics, with at least one metric from each of the categories below, for each electric utility, from items subparagraphs (i) through (vi) of this subparagraph subsection (A). Upon a utility request, the Commission may approve the use of a specific, measurable, and achievable tracking metric described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (e) as a performance metric pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (e).

(i) Metrics designed to ensure the utility maintains and improves the high standards of both overall and locational reliability and resiliency, and makes improvements in power quality, including and particularly in environmental justice and equity investment eligible communities.

(ii) Peak load reductions attributable to demand response programs.

(iii) Supplier diversity expansion, including diverse contractor participation in professional services, subcontracting, and prime contracting opportunities, development of programs that address the barriers to access, aligning demographics of contractors to the demographics in the utility's service territory, establish long-term mentoring relationships that develop and remove barriers to access for diverse and underserved contractors. The utilities shall provide solutions, resources, and tools to address complex barriers of entry related to costly and time-intensive cyber security requirements, increasingly complex information technology requirements, insurance barriers, service provider sign-up process barriers, administrative process barriers, and other barriers that inhibit access to RFPs and contracts. For programs with contracts over $1,000,000, winning bidders must demonstrate a subcontractor development or mentoring relationship with at least one of their diverse subcontracting partners for a core component of the scope of the project. The mentoring time and cost shall be taken into account in the creation of RFP and shall include a structured and measured plan by the prime contractor to increase the capabilities of the subcontractor in their proposed scope. The metric shall include reporting on all supplier diversity programs by goals, program results, demographics and geography, with separate reporting by category of minority-owned, female-owned, veteran-owned, and disability-owned business enterprise metrics. The report shall include resources and expenses committed to the programs and conversion rates of new diverse utility contractors.

(iv) Achieve affordable customer delivery service costs, with particular emphasis on keeping the bills of lower-income households, households in equity investment eligible communities, and household in environmental justice communities within a manageable portion of their income and adopting credit and collection policies that reduce disconnections for these households specifically and for customers overall to ensure equitable disconnections, late fees, or arrearages as a result of utility credit and collection practices, which may include consideration of impact by zip code.

(v) Metrics designed around the utility's timeliness to customer requests for interconnection in key milestone areas, such as: initial response, supplemental review, and system feasibility study; improved average service reliability index for those customers that have interconnected a distributed renewable energy generation device to the utility's distribution system and are lawfully taking service under an applicable tariff; offering a variety of affordable rate options, including demand response, time of use rates for delivery and supply, real-time pricing rates for supply; comprehensive and predictable net metering, and maximizing the benefits of grid modernization and clean energy for ratepayers; and improving customer access to utility system information according to consumer demand and interest.

(vi) Metrics designed to measure the utility's customer service performance, which may include the average length of time to answer a customer's call by a customer service representative, the abandoned call rate and the relative ranking of the electric utility, by a reputable third-party organization, in customer service satisfaction when compared to other similar electric utilities in the Midwest region.

(B) Performance metrics shall include a description of the metric, a calculation method, a data collection method, annual performance targets, and any incentives or penalties for the utility's achievement of, or failure to achieve, their performance targets, provided that the total amount of potential incentives and penalties shall be symmetrical. Incentives shall be rewards or penalties or both, reflected as basis points added to, or subtracted from, the utility's cost of equity. The metrics and incentives shall apply for the entire time period covered by a Multi-Year Rate Plan. The total for all metrics shall be equal to 40 basis points, however, the Commission may adjust the basis points upward or downward by up to 20 basis points for any given Multi-Year Rate Plan, as appropriate, but in no event may the total exceed 60 basis points or fall below 20 basis points.

(C) Metrics related to reliability shall be implemented to ensure equitable benefits to environmental justice and equity investment eligible communities, as defined in this Act.

(D) The Commission shall approve performance metrics that are reasonably within control of the utility to achieve. The Commission also shall not approve a metric that is solely expected to have the effect of reducing the workforce. Performance metrics should measure outcomes and actual, rather than projected, results where possible. Nothing in this subparagraph paragraph is intended to require that different electric utilities must be subject to the same metrics, goals, or incentives.

(E) Increases or enhancements to an existing performance goal or target shall be considered in light of other metrics, cost-effectiveness, and other factors the Commission deems appropriate. Performance metrics shall include one year of tracking data collected in a consistent manner, verifiable by an independent evaluator in order to establish a baseline and measure outcomes and actual results against projections where possible.

(F) For the purpose of determining reasonable performance metrics and related incentives, the Commission shall develop a methodology to calculate net benefits that includes customer and societal costs and benefits and quantifies the effect on delivery rates. In determining the appropriate level of a performance incentive, the Commission shall consider: the extent to which the amount is likely to encourage the utility to achieve the performance target in the least cost manner; the value of benefits to customers, the grid, public health and safety, and the environment from achievement of the performance target, including in particular benefits to equity investment eligible community; the affordability of customer's electric bills, including low-income customers, the utility's revenue requirement, the promotion of renewable and distributed energy, and other such factors that the Commission deems appropriate. The consideration of these factors shall result in an incentive level that ensures benefits exceed costs for customers.

(G) Achievement of performance metrics are based on the assumptions that the utility will adopt or implement the technology and equipment, and make the investments to the extent reasonably necessary to achieve the goal. If the electric utility is unable to meet the performance metrics as a result of extraordinary circumstances outside of its control, including, but not limited to, government-declared emergencies, then the utility shall be permitted to file a petition with the Commission requesting that the utility be excused from compliance with the applicable performance goal or goals and the associated financial incentives and penalties. The burden of proof shall be on the utility, consistent with Article IX, and the utility's petition shall be supported by substantial evidence. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving or denying, in whole or in part, the utility's petition based on the extent to which the utility demonstrated that its achievement of the affected metrics and performance goals was hindered by extraordinary circumstances outside of the utility's control.

(3) The Commission shall approve reasonable and appropriate tracking metrics to collect and monitor data for the purpose of measuring and reporting utility performance and for establishing future performance metrics. These additional tracking metrics shall include at least one metric from each of the following categories of performance:

(A) Minimize emissions of greenhouse gases and other air pollutants that harm human health, particularly in environmental justice and equity investment eligible communities, through minimizing total emissions by accelerating electrification of transportation, buildings, and industries where such electrification results in net reductions, across all fuels and over the life of electrification measures, of greenhouse gases and other pollutants, taking into consideration the fuel mix used to produce electricity at the relevant hour and the effect of accelerating electrification on electricity delivery services rates, supply prices, and peak demand, provided the revenues the utility receives from accelerating electrification of transportation, buildings, and industries exceed the costs.

(B) Enhance the grid's flexibility to adapt to increased deployment of nondispatchable resources, improve the ability and performance of the grid on load balancing, and offer a variety of rate plans to match consumer consumption patterns and lower consumer bills for electricity delivery and supply.

(C) Ensure rates reflect cost savings attributable to grid modernization and utilize distributed energy resources that allow the utility to defer or forgo traditional grid investments that would otherwise be required to provide safe and reliable service.

(D) Metrics designed to create and sustain full-time-equivalent jobs and opportunities for all segments of the population and workforce, including minority-owned businesses, women-owned businesses, veteran-owned businesses, and businesses owned by a person or persons with a disability, and that do not, consistent with State and federal law, discriminate based on race or socioeconomic status as a result of Public Act 102-662 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(E) Maximize and prioritize the allocation of grid planning benefits to environmental justice and economically disadvantaged customers and communities, such that all metrics provide equitable benefits across the utility's service territory and maintain and improve utility customers' access to uninterrupted utility services.

(4) The Commission may establish new tracking and performance metrics in future Multi-Year Rate Plans to further measure achievement of the outcomes set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section and the other goals and requirements of this Section.

(5) The Commission shall also evaluate metrics that were established in prior Multi-Year Rate Plans to determine if there has been an unanticipated material change in circumstances such that adjustments are required to improve the likelihood of the outcomes described in paragraph (2) of subsection (f). For metrics that were established in prior Multi-Year Rate Plan proceedings and that the Commission elects to continue, the design of these metrics, including the goals of tracking metrics and the targets and incentive levels and structures of performance metrics, may be adjusted pursuant to the requirements in this Section. The Commission may also change, adjust, or phase out tracking and performance metrics that were established in prior Multi-Year Rate Plan proceedings if these metrics no longer meet the requirements of this Section or if they are rendered obsolete by the changing needs and technology of an evolving grid. Additionally, performance metrics that no longer require an incentive to create improved utility performance may become tracking metrics in a Multi-Year Rate Plan proceeding.

(6) The Commission shall initiate a workshop process no later than August 1, 2021, or 15 days after September 15, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, whichever is later, for the purpose of facilitating the development of metrics for each utility. The workshop shall be coordinated by the staff of the Commission, or a facilitator retained by staff, and shall be organized and facilitated in a manner that encourages representation from diverse stakeholders and ensures equitable opportunities for participation, without requiring formal intervention or representation by an attorney. Working with staff of the Commission the facilitator may conduct a combination of workshops specific to a utility or applicable to multiple utilities where content and stakeholders are substantially similar. The workshop process shall conclude no later than October 31, 2021. Following the workshop, the staff of the Commission, or the facilitator retained by the Staff, shall prepare and submit a report to the Commission that identifies the participants in the process, the metrics proposed during the process, any material issues that remained unresolved at the conclusions of such process, and any recommendations for workshop process improvements. Any workshop participant may file comments and reply comments in response to the Staff report.

(A) No later than January, 20, 2022, each electric utility that intends to file a petition pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section shall file a petition with the Commission seeking approval of its performance metrics, which shall include for each metric, at a minimum, (i) a detailed description, (ii) the calculation of the baseline, (iii) the performance period and overall performance goal, provided that the performance period shall not commence prior to January 1, 2024, (iv) each annual performance goal, (v) the performance adjustment, which shall be a symmetrical basis point increase or decrease to the utility's cost of equity based on the extent to which the utility achieved the annual performance goal, and (vi) the new or modified tariff mechanism that will apply the performance adjustments. The Commission shall issue its order approving, or approving with modification, the utility's proposed performance metrics no later than September 30, 2022.

(B) No later than August 1, 2025, the Commission shall initiate a workshop process that conforms to the workshop purpose and requirements of this paragraph (6) of this Section to the extent they do not conflict. The workshop process shall conclude no later than October 31, 2025, and the staff of the Commission, or the facilitator retained by the Staff, shall prepare and submit a report consistent with the requirements described in this paragraph (6) of this Section. No later than January 20, 2026, each electric utility subject to the requirements of this Section shall file a petition the reflects, and is consistent with, the components required in this paragraph (6) of this Section, and the Commission shall issue its order approving, or approving with modification, the utility's proposed performance metrics no later than September 30, 2026.

(f) On May 1 of each year, following the approval of the first Multi-Year Rate Plan and its initial year, the Commission shall open an annual performance evaluation proceeding to evaluate the utilities' performance on their metric targets during the year just completed, as well as the appropriate Annual Adjustment as defined in paragraph (6). The Commission shall determine the performance and annual adjustments to be applied through a surcharge in the following calendar year.

(1) On February 15 of each year, prior to the annual performance evaluation proceeding, each utility shall file a performance evaluation report with the Commission that includes a description of and all data supporting how the utility performed under each performance metric and an identification of any extraordinary events that adversely impacted the utility's performance.

(2) The metrics approved under this Section are based on the assumptions that the utility may fully implement the technology and equipment, and make the investments, required to achieve the metrics and performance goals. If the utility is unable to meet the metrics and performance goals because it was hindered by unanticipated technology or equipment implementation delays, government-declared emergencies, or other investment impediments, then the utility shall be permitted to file a petition with the Commission on or before the date that its report is due pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection (f) requesting that the utility be excused from compliance with the applicable performance goal or goals. The burden of proof shall be on the utility, consistent with Article IX, and the utility's petition shall be supported by substantial evidence. No later than 90 days after the utility files its petition, the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving or denying, in whole or in part, the utility's petition based on the extent to which the utility demonstrated that its achievement of the affected metrics and performance goals was hindered by unanticipated technology or equipment implementation delays, or other investment impediments, that were reasonably outside of the utility's control.

(3) The electric utility shall provide for an annual independent evaluation of its performance on metrics. The independent evaluator shall review the utility's assumptions, baselines, targets, calculation methodologies, and other relevant information, especially ensuring that the utility's data for establishing baselines matches actual performance, and shall provide a report to the Commission in each annual performance evaluation describing the results. The independent evaluator shall present this report as evidence as a nonparty participant and shall not be represented by the utility's legal counsel. The independent evaluator shall be hired through a competitive bidding process with approval of the contract by the Commission.

The Commission shall consider the report of the independent evaluator in determining the utility's achievement of performance targets. Discrepancies between the utility's assumptions, baselines, targets, or calculations and those of the independent evaluator shall be closely scrutinized by the Commission. If the Commission finds that the utility's reported data for any metric or metrics significantly and incorrectly deviates from the data reported by the independent evaluator, then the Commission shall order the utility to revise its data collection and calculation process within 60 days, with specifications where appropriate.

(4) The Commission shall, after notice and hearing in the annual performance evaluation proceeding, enter an order approving the utility's performance adjustment based on its achievement of or failure to achieve its performance targets no later than December 20 each year. The Commission-approved penalties or incentives shall be applied beginning with the next calendar year.

(5) In order to promote the transparency of utility investments during the effective period of a multi-year rate plan, inform the Commission's investigation and adjustment of rates in the annual adjustment process, and to facilitate the participation of stakeholders in the annual adjustment process, an electric utility with an effective Multi-Year Rate Plan shall, within 90 days of the close of each quarter during the Multi-Year Rate Plan period, submit to the Commission a report that summarizes the additions to utility plant that were placed into service during the prior quarter, which for purposes of the report shall be the most recently closed fiscal quarter. The report shall also summarize the utility plant the electric utility projects it will place into service through the end of the calendar year in which the report is filed. The projections, estimates, plans, and forward-looking information that are provided in the reports pursuant to this paragraph (5) are for planning purposes and are intended to be illustrative of the investments that the utility proposes to make as of the time of submittal. Nothing in this paragraph (5) precludes, or is intended to limit, a utility's ability to modify and update its projections, estimates, plans, and forward-looking information previously submitted in order to reflect stakeholder input or other new or updated information and analysis, including, but not limited to, changes in specific investment needs, customer electric use patterns, customer applications and preferences, and commercially available equipment and technologies, however the utility shall explain any changes or deviations between the projected investments from the quarterly reports and actual investments in the annual report. The reports submitted pursuant to this subsection are intended to be flexible planning tools, and are expected to evolve as new information becomes available. Within 7 days of receiving a quarterly report, the Commission shall timely make such report available to the public by posting it on the Commission's website. Each quarterly report shall include the following detail:

(A) The total dollar value of the additions to utility plant placed in service during the prior quarter;

(B) A list of the major investment categories the electric utility used to manage its routine standing operational activities during the prior quarter including the total dollar amount for the work reflected in each investment category in which utility plant in service is equal to or greater than $2,000,000 for an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 customers in the State or $500,000 for an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 customers but more than 500,000 customers in the State as of the last day of the quarterly reporting period, as well as a summary description of each investment category;

(C) A list of the projects which the electric utility has identified by a unique investment tracking number for utility plant placed in service during the prior quarter for utility plant placed in service with a total dollar value as of the last day of the quarterly reporting period that is equal to or greater than $2,000,000 for an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 customers in the State or $500,000 for an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than $500,000 retail customers in the State, as well as a summary of each project;

(D) The estimated total dollar value of the additions to utility plant projected to be placed in service through the end of the calendar year in which the report is filed;

(E) A list of the major investment categories the electric utility used to manage its routine standing operational activities with utility plant projected to be placed in service through the end of the calendar year in which the report is filed, including the total dollar amount for the work reflected in each investment category in which utility plant in service is projected to be equal to or greater than $2,000,000 for an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 customers in the State or $500,000 for an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, as well as a summary description of each investment category; and

(F) A list of the projects for which the electric utility has identified by a unique investment tracking number for utility plant projected to be placed in service through the end of the calendar year in which the report is filed with an estimated dollar value that is equal to or greater than $2,000,000 for an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 customers in the State or $500,000 for an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retails customers but more than $500,000 retail customers in the State, as well as a summary description of each project.

(6) As part of the Annual Performance Adjustment, the electric utility shall submit evidence sufficient to support a determination of its actual revenue requirement for the applicable calendar year, consistent with the provisions of paragraphs (d) and (f) of this subsection. The electric utility shall bear the burden of demonstrating that its costs were prudent and reasonable, subject to the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (f). The Commission's review of the electric utility's annual adjustment shall be based on the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the known and measurable costs forecasted to be incurred by the utility, and the used and usefulness of the actual plant investment pursuant to Section 9-211 of this Act, that the Commission applies in a proceeding to review a filing for changes in rates pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act. The Commission shall determine the prudence and reasonableness of the actual costs incurred by the utility during the applicable calendar year, as well as determine the original cost of plant in service as of the end of the applicable calendar year. The Commission shall then determine the Annual Adjustment, which shall mean the amount by which, the electric utility's actual revenue requirement for the applicable year of the Multi-Year Rate Plan either exceeded, or was exceeded by, the revenue requirement approved by the Commission for such calendar year, plus carrying costs calculated at the weighted average cost of capital approved for the Multi-Year Rate Plan.

The Commission's determination of the electric utility's actual revenue requirement for the applicable calendar year shall be based on:

(A) the Commission-approved used and useful, prudent and reasonable actual costs for the applicable calendar year, which shall be determined pursuant to the following criteria:

(i) the The overall level of actual costs incurred during the calendar year, provided that the Commission may not allow recovery of actual costs that are more than 105% of the approved revenue requirement calculated as provided in item (ii) of this subparagraph (A), except to the extent the Commission approves a modification of the Multi-Year Rate Plan to permit such recovery; .

(ii) the The calculation of 105% of the revenue requirement required by this subparagraph (A) shall exclude the revenue requirement impacts of the following volatile and fluctuating variables that occurred during the year: (i) storms and weather-related events for which the utility provides sufficient evidence to demonstrate that such expenses were not foreseeable and not in control of the utility; (ii) new business; (iii) changes in interest rates; (iv) changes in taxes; (v) facility relocations; (vi) changes in pension or post-retirement benefits costs due to fluctuations in interest rates, market returns or actuarial assumptions; (vii) amortization expenses related to costs; and (viii) changes in the timing of when an expenditure or investment is made such that it is accelerated to occur during the applicable year or deferred to occur in a subsequent year; .

(B) the year-end rate base;

(C) the cost of equity approved in the multi-year rate plan; and

(D) the electric utility's actual year-end capital structure, provided that the common equity ratio in such capital structure may not exceed the common equity ratio that was approved by the Commission in the Multi-Year Rate Plan.

(2) The Commission's determinations of the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred for the applicable year, and of the original cost of plant in service as of the end of the applicable calendar year, shall be final upon entry of the Commission's order and shall not be subject to collateral attack in any other Commission proceeding, case, docket, order, rule, or regulation; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit a party from petitioning the Commission to rehear or appeal to the courts the order pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

(g) During the period leading to approval of the first Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan, each electric utility will necessarily continue to invest in its distribution grid. Those investments will be subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law. Any failure to conform to the Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plan ultimately approved shall not imply imprudence or unreasonableness.

(h) After calculating the Performance Adjustment and Annual Adjustment, the Commission shall order the electric utility to collect the amount in excess of the revenue requirement from customers, or issue a refund to customers, as applicable, to be applied through a surcharge beginning with the next calendar year.

Electric utilities subject to the requirements of this Section shall be permitted to file new or revised tariffs to comply with the provisions of, and Commission orders entered pursuant to, this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 810. The Illinois Underground Utility Facilities Damage Prevention Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4.1, 10, and 12 as follows:

(220 ILCS 50/2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly otherwise requires, the terms specified in this Section have the meanings ascribed to them in this Section.

"Approximate location" means the location of the marked facility that lies entirely within the tolerance zone.

Circumstances that are "beyond the reasonable control" of a party include, but are not limited to, severe weather, unforeseen mechanical issues, or site conditions. As used in Section 11, "beyond the reasonable control" also includes, but is not limited to, notice volumes or dig site notification areas that exceed historical averages, as determined by the reasonable control measurement, created as a result of underground utility facility owners or operators or their contractors or subcontractors' non-emergency requests for utility excavation work for underground utility facility owners or operators, that is not part of a large project that has provided at least 60 days' days notice, and only applies to the requests submitted by underground utility facility owners or operators or their contractors or subcontractors' non-emergency utility excavation work for underground utility facility owners or operators.

"Damage" means the contact or dislocation of a facility during excavation or demolition that necessitates immediate or subsequent repair by the underground utility facility owner or operator due to any partial or complete destruction of the facility, including, but not limited to, the protective coating, tracer wire, lateral support, cathodic protection, or housing for the line or device of the facility.

"Damage notification" means a notification through JULIE to the underground utility facility owner or operator that damage to a facility has occurred in the area of the excavation or demolition.

"Day" means any day, beginning at 12:00 a.m. and ending at 11:59 p.m. "Day" does not include holidays recognized by JULIE, Saturdays, Sundays, and the day of the actual notice.

"Demolition" means the wrecking, razing, rending, moving, or removing of a structure by means of any power tool, power equipment (exclusive of transportation equipment), or explosives.

"Emergency request" means a request involving a condition (1) that constitutes an imminent danger to life, health, or property or a utility service outage (2) and that requires repair or action before the expiration of 2 days.

"Excavation" means:

(1) any operation in which earth, rock, or other material in or on the ground is moved, removed, or otherwise displaced by means of any tools, power equipment or explosives, and includes, without limitation, grading, trenching, digging, ditching, drilling, augering, boring, tunneling, scraping, cable or pipe plowing, saw cutting or roadway surface milling when penetrating into the base or subbase of a paved surface, and driving, but does not include:

(A) farm tillage operations;

(B) railroad right-of-way maintenance;

(C) coal mining operations regulated under the federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 or any State law or rules or regulations adopted under the federal statute;

(D) land surveying operations as defined in the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 when not using power equipment;

(E) roadway surface milling;

(F) manually inserting, without the use of power equipment, a temporary round-tipped ground or probe rod as part of facility locating;

(G) manually inserting, without the use of power equipment, a temporary round-tipped probe rod for bar holing to determine the area of a potential leak from a facility transporting hazardous gases or liquids; or

(H) manually inserting, without the use of power equipment, a round-tipped ground rod for the purpose of grounding utility equipment when an emergency exists and no other ground source is available.

(2) An exclusion to this Section in no way prohibits a request from being made for the marking of facilities.

(3) Any exception to excavation contained within this Section is not intended to remove liability that may be imposed against an individual or entity because of damage caused to a facility.

"Excavator" means any person or legal entity, public or private, that engages in excavation or demolition work.

"Exposed notification" means a notification through JULIE to the underground utility facility owner or operator that an unmarked facility has been exposed in the area of the excavation or demolition but has not been damaged.

"Extension" means a request made by an excavator, to extend the expiration date of a normal notice to allow additional time to continue or complete the excavation or demolition project.

(1) An extension request may be made no earlier than the 20th day from the initial normal notice request or latest extension request.

(2) An extension request shall extend the expiration of the initial normal notice request or latest extension request by 25 days.

(3) An extension request may not be made simply to keep a prior notice open without continued excavation occurring within the period of that subsequent notice.

"Geographic information system data" means data to be applied to JULIE software to facilitate a more clearly defined notification area for notices sent to the system underground utility facility owners or operators. "Geographic information system data" includes, but is not limited to:

(1) address points with site addresses;

(2) parcels with site addresses;

(3) road center lines with names and address range;

(4) city limits with names;

(5) political townships with names;

(6) railroads with names;

(7) streams with names; and

(8) water bodies with names.

"Historical averages" are used to determine benchmark notice volumes or dig site notification areas for a particular place. The notice volume is calculated for new and updated requests requiring an underground utility facility owner or operator response. It shall not include notices with a header of no show noshow, incomplete, or no re-mark noremark. The dig site notification area is calculated using the dig site polygon on the notice. The 7-day 7 day look back shall be calculated once daily at the conclusion of the previous calendar day. "Historic averages" shall be determined by comparing notice volumes or dig site notification areas over the immediate past 7 calendar days to the same 7 calendar day period for the past 5 years. A 5-year trimmed mean, removing the highest and lowest years, and averaging the remaining 3 years, shall be the final determinant determinate of this measurement. The official measurement of the notice volumes or dig site notification areas shall be provided by JULIE.

"Incomplete request" means a notice initiated by an excavator through JULIE to the underground utility facility owners or operators notified in a prior request that such underground utility facility owners or operators, as identified by the excavator and confirmed, through the positive response system once implemented, in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 5.1, did not completely mark the entire extent or the entire segment of the proposed excavation, as identified on the prior notice or as previously documented and mutually agreed upon.

"Joint meet notification" means a notice of a meeting held prior to the excavation phase to discuss projects that cannot be adequately communicated within a normal notice request. The meeting is intended to allow the exchange of maps, plans, or schedules. It is not a locating session and shall be held at or near the excavation site, or through electronic means, if available and agreed to by all parties. "Joint meet notification" are not to be used in lieu of valid normal notice requests and are required for, but not limited to, large projects.

"JULIE, Inc." or "JULIE" means the communication system known as "JULIE, Inc." or "JULIE", utilized by excavators, designers, or any other entities covered by this Act to notify underground utility facility owners or operators of their intent to perform excavation or demolition or similar work as defined by this Act and shall include all underground utility facilities owned or operated outside the city limits of the City of Chicago.

"Large project" means a single excavation that exceeds the expiration date of a normal notice request, or involves a series of repetitive, related-scope excavations.

"Normal notice request" means a notification made by an excavator, through JULIE, in advance of a planned excavation or demolition.

(1) The notification shall be made at least 2 days, but no more than 10 days, before beginning the planned excavation or demolition.

(2) Excavation or demolition on a normal notice request is valid for 25 days from the date of the initial request unless a subsequent extension request is made.

(3) Normal notice requests shall be limited to one quarter of a contiguous mile within a municipality and one contiguous mile within any unincorporated area, which includes townships.

(4) Normal notice requests are valid for a single right-of-way with an exception for intersecting rights-of-way of 250 feet in all directions. Any excavation continuing beyond 250 feet on a connecting right-of-way shall require an additional request.

"No show request" means a notice initiated by an excavator through JULIE to the underground utility facility owners or operators notified in the prior notice that such underground utility facility owners or operators, as identified by the excavator and confirmed, once implemented, in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 5.1, either failed to mark their facilities or to communicate their non-involvement with the excavation prior to the dig start date and time on the notice.

"Notice" means any record transmitted to an underground utility facility owner or operator of JULIE which shall include, but not be limited to, cancel, damage, emergency, exposed, extension, incomplete, joint meet, no show, normal, planning design, or re-mark.

"Open cut utility locate" means a method of locating facilities that requires excavation by the underground utility facility owner or operator, or their contractor or subcontractor.

"Place" means any incorporated city, village or town, or unincorporated township or road district, listed within the JULIE database.

"Planning design request" means the process prior to the excavation phase of a project where information is gathered and decisions are made regarding the route or location of a proposed excavation. The use of the information that is obtainable pursuant to this Section is intended to minimize delays of future construction projects and not for imminent excavation. The underground utility facility owner or operator may indicate any portion of the information that is proprietary and require the planner or designer to protect the proprietary information.

"Positive response system" means an automated system facilitated by JULIE allowing underground utility facility owners or operators to communicate to an excavator the presence, absence, or response status of any conflict between the existing facilities in or near the area of excavation or demolition on each notice received.

"Pre-mark" means the use of white paint, chalk, lathe, whiskers, flags, or electronic white lining using lines or polygons to delineate the work area at the site of the proposed excavation or demolition. Unless otherwise stated on the request, all pre-marks are considered a request for a 5-foot radius of an above ground fixed structure or single point pre-mark, or a 10-foot-wide path for linear work.

(1) Physical pre-marking for the area of the planned excavation or demolition shall be accomplished prior to notifying JULIE if the area of excavation cannot be clearly and adequately identified in the normal notice request.

(2) Electronic white lining may be used when available. Electronic white lining provides an alternative method where an excavator may indicate their defined dig area visually by electronic data entry, including lines or polygons, without the need for a physical site visit. The technology allows the excavator to identify for the underground utility facility owner or operator a clear delineation of their proposed excavation area.

(3) A verbal or written pre-mark is adequate when the scope requested to be marked is narrow and explicit enough to prevent marking beyond the actual area of excavation or demolition. An existing above ground fixed structure may be referenced as a verbal or written pre-mark.

"Project owner" means the person or legal entity, public or private, that is financially responsible for the undertaking of a project that involves excavation or demolition.

"Reasonable control measurement" shall use the historical averages and add to the calculation either of the following conditions that shall be met for the place to be considered beyond the reasonable control of the underground utility facility owner or operator:

(1) the total notice volume count over the previous 7 calendar days shall increase by more than 15% of the historic average, and increase by not less than 25 additional notices over the previous 7 calendar days; or

(2) the total dig site notification area over the previous 7 calendar days shall increase by more than 15% of the historic average, and not less than 0.4 additional square miles over the previous 7 calendar days.

The official measurement shall be provided by JULIE.

"Residential property owner" means any individual or entity that owns or leases real property that is used by the individual or entity as its residence or dwelling. Residential property owner does not include any persons who own or lease residential property for the purpose of holding or developing such property or for any other business or commercial purposes.

"Roadway surface milling" means the removal of a uniform pavement section by rotomilling, grinding, saw cutting, or other means that does not penetrate into the roadway base or subbase.

"Service lateral" means underground facilities located in a public right-of-way or utility easement that connects an end user's building or property to an underground utility facility owner's or operator's facility.

"Submerged" means any facility installed below the surface of a lake, river, or navigable waterway.

"Tolerance zone" means:

(1) if the diameter of the underground utility facility is indicated, the distance of one-half of the known diameter plus one and one-half feet on either side of the designated center line of the underground utility facility marking;

(2) if the diameter of the underground utility facility is not indicated, one and one-half feet on either side of the outside edge of the underground utility facility marking; or

(3) if submerged, a distance of 30 feet on either side of the indicated facility.

The underground utility facility markings provided shall not indicate that the width of the marked underground utility facility is any greater than the actual width of the underground utility facility or 2 inches, whichever is greater. The tolerance zone shall also apply to visible utility structures, including, but not limited to, poles with overhead to underground transitions, pedestals, transformers, meters, hydrants, and valve boxes. There shall be a one and one-half foot tolerance zone horizontally around such facilities.

"Underground utility facility" or "facility" means and includes wires, ducts, fiber optic cable, conduits, pipes, sewers, and cables and their connected appurtenances installed or existing beneath the surface of the ground or submerged and either owned, operated, or controlled by:

(1) a public utility as defined in the Public Utilities Act;

(2) a municipally owned or mutually owned utility providing a similar utility service;

(3) a pipeline entity transporting gases, crude oil, petroleum products, or other hydrocarbon materials within the State;

(4) a telecommunications carrier as defined in the Universal Telephone Service Protection Law of 1985, or by a company described in Section 1 of the Telephone Company Act;

(5) a community antenna television system, as defined in the Illinois Municipal Code or the Counties Code;

(6) a holder or broadband service, as those terms are defined in the Cable and Video Competition Law of 2007;

(7) any other entity owning or operating underground facilities that transport or generate electrical power to other utility owners or operators;

(8) an electric cooperative as defined in the Public Utilities Act; and

(9) any other active member of JULIE.

(Source: P.A. 103-614, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(220 ILCS 50/4.1)

Sec. 4.1. Watch and protect.

(a) If, upon notice from JULIE, an underground utility facility owner or operator determines that the facility is within the proposed excavation area and the underground utility facility owner or operator desires to have an authorized representative present during excavation near the facility, the underground utility facility owner or operator shall contact the excavator prior to the dig start date and time provided on the notice to schedule a date and time for the underground utility facility owner or operator to be present when excavation will occur near the facility.

(b) All excavators shall comply with the underground utility facility owner's or operator's request to be present during excavation near an a owner or operator's facilities. In lieu of having an authorized representative present, the underground utility facility owner or operator may choose to perform an open cut utility locate of the facility to expose its location. The underground utility facility owner or operator shall comply with the excavator's schedule for when excavation will occur near the facility.

(c) After excavation has started, if excavation near the underground utility facilities stops by more than one day and then recommences, the excavator shall establish direct contact with the underground utility facility owner or operator not less than one day prior to the excavation, each time the excavation is to occur, to advise the underground utility facility owner or operator of the excavation taking place.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit an excavator from excavating prudently and carefully near the underground utility facility without the underground utility facility owner or operator present if the underground utility facility owner or operator waives the request to be present or to complete an open cut utility locate exposing the facility or is unable to comply with the excavator's schedule.

(Source: P.A. 103-614, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(220 ILCS 50/10) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1610)

Sec. 10. Record of notice; marking of facilities.

(a) Upon notice by the excavator, the underground utility facility owners or operators in or near the excavation or demolition area shall cause a record to be made of the notice and shall mark, by the dig start date and time indicated on the notice, the approximate locations of such facilities so as to enable the excavator to establish the location of the facilities.

For submerged facilities, when the owner or operator of the submerged facilities determines that a proposed excavation or demolition which could include anchoring, pile driving, dredging, or any other water bottom contact for any means performed is in proximity to or in conflict with, submerged facilities located under a lake, river, or navigable waterway, the owner or operator of the submerged facilities shall identify the estimated horizontal route of the submerged facilities, within 15 days or by a date and time mutually agreed to, using marking buoys, other suitable devices, or GPS location data unless directed otherwise by an agency having jurisdiction over the waters under which the submerged facilities are located.

(b) Underground utility facility owners or operators of sewer facilities shall be required to respond and mark the approximate location of those sewer facilities when the excavator indicates, in the notice required in Section 4, that the excavation or demolition project will exceed a depth of 7 feet. "Depth", in this case, is defined as the distance measured vertically from the surface of the ground to the top of the sewer facility.

(c) Underground utility facility owners or operators of sewer facilities shall be required at all times to mark the approximate location of those sewer facilities when:

(1) directional boring is the indicated type of excavation work being performed within the notice;

(2) the sewer facilities owned are non-gravity, pressurized force mains; or

(3) the excavation indicated will occur in the immediate proximity of known sewer facilities that are less than 7 feet deep.

(d) Underground utility facility owners or operators of sewer facilities shall not hold an excavator liable for damages that occur to sewer facilities that were not required to be marked under this Section, provided that prompt notice of known damage is made to JULIE and the underground utility facility owners or operators as required in Section 7.

(e) All entities subject to the requirements of this Act shall plan and conduct their work consistent with reasonable business practices.

(1) Conditions may exist making it unreasonable to request that locations be marked by the dig start date and time indicated on the notice.

(A) In such situations, the excavator and the underground utility facility owner or operator shall interact in good faith to establish a mutually agreeable date and time for the completion of the request.

(B) All mutually agreed upon modifications to the dig start date and time shall be fully documented by the underground utility facility owner or operator and include, at a minimum, the date and time of the interaction, the names of the individuals involved, and acknowledgment by the individuals that agreed to the modification and the new dig start date and time that was mutually agreed upon by both parties. The underground utility facility owner or operator shall retain through JULIE, Inc., the documentation for at least 5 years after the date of the expiration of the notice.

(2) It is unreasonable to request underground utility facility owners or operators to mark all of their facilities in an affected area upon short notice in advance of a large nonemergency project.

(3) It is unreasonable to request extensive notices in excess of a reasonable excavation or demolition work schedule.

(4) It is unreasonable to request notices under conditions where a repeat request is likely to be made because of the passage of time or adverse job conditions.

(5) During periods where the notice volumes or dig site notification areas exceed the historical averages as determined by the reasonable control measurements for the place, only those additional non-emergency requests that are not part of a large project, when that large project has been submitted at least 60 days in advance of the start of the large project by underground utility facility owners or operators or their contractors or subcontractors for excavation work for the underground utility facility owners or operators within the place, may be subject to a request from the underground utility facility owner or operator or the owner or operator's locate contractors or subcontractors for an additional wait time of up to 2 days for the underground utility facility owner or operator, whether utilizing in-house or contract locators, to respond to locate and mark, or provide a no conflict response. It is the responsibility of the requesting underground utility facility owner or operator to document any modification as outlined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 10.

(f) Underground utility facility owners or operators, whether utilizing in-house or contract locators, and the owner or operator's locate contractors or subcontractors must reasonably anticipate seasonal fluctuations in the number of notices and staff accordingly.

Seasonal fluctuations shall not be considered within the reasonable control of underground utility facility owners or operators and the owner or operator's locate contractors or subcontractors within a place or places, when the notice volumes exceed the historical averages as determined by the reasonable control measurement, for non-emergency requests for utility excavation work for underground utility facility owners or operators, that is not part of a large project that has provided at least a 60-day 60 day advance notice.

Only utility excavators when doing utility work may be impacted by this subsection and may incur an additional wait time of up to 2 days.

(g) If an underground utility facility owner or operator receives a notice under this Section but does not own or operate any facilities within the proposed excavation or demolition area described in the notice, that underground utility facility owner or operator, by the dig start date and time on the notice, shall so notify the excavator who initiated the notice in accordance with Section 5.1, and prior to January 1, 2026, may be provided in any reasonable manner including, but not limited to, notification in any one of the following ways:

(1) by face-to-face communication;

(2) by phone or phone message;

(3) by facsimile or email;

(4) by posting in the excavation or demolition area; or

(5) by marking the excavation or demolition area.

(h) The underground utility facility owner or operator has discharged the underground utility facility owner's or operator's obligation to provide notice under this Section if the underground utility facility owner or operator attempts to provide notice utilizing the positive response system, in accordance with Section 5.1, and prior to January 1, 2026, by:

(1) telephone, but is unable to do so because the excavator does not answer the telephone and does not have the ability to receive telephone messages;

(2) facsimile, if the excavator has supplied a facsimile number and does not have a facsimile machine in operation to receive the facsimile transmission; or

(3) email, if the excavator has supplied an email address and the message is electronically undeliverable.

If the underground utility facility owner or operator attempts to provide additional notice by telephone or by facsimile but receives a busy signal, that attempt shall not serve to discharge the underground utility facility owner or operator of the obligation to provide notice under this Section.

(i) Any excavator or legal entity, public or private, who, on or after January 1, 2026, installs a nonconductive service lateral shall ensure that the installation is locatable by electromagnetic means or other equally effective means for marking the location of the service lateral. This subsection does not apply to minor repairs to, or partial replacements of, service laterals installed prior to January 1, 2026.

(j) For the purposes of this Act, the following color coding shall be used to mark the approximate location of facilities by the underground utility facility owners or operators who may utilize a combination of flags, lathe with colored ribbon, chalk, whiskers, or paint as dig site and seasonal conditions warrant.

(Source: P.A. 103-614, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

(220 ILCS 50/12) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1612)

Sec. 12. Noncompliance and enforcement action time frames. No action may be brought by the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 11 of this Act unless commenced within 2 years after the date of the alleged violation of this Act.

Beginning January 1, 2025, all parties submitting alleged violations to the Illinois Commerce Commission shall use the forms provided and shall submit no later than 65 days after the discovery of the alleged violation. Any report of an alleged violation received later than 65 days after the discovery of the alleged violation shall be subject to a penalty as provided for in Section 11.

Beginning January 1, 2025, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall provide notice of investigation to the parties involved in the alleged violation report within 20 days after the receipt of the alleged violation report.

Once a notice of investigation has been sent for all alleged violations reported on or after January 1, 2025, no further action may be brought by the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 11 unless the notice of violation has been provided by the Illinois Commerce Commission staff to the entity determined to be in violation within 195 days after the date of the notice of investigation. For alleged violations that involve utility damage, personal injury or death, or property damage, an additional 130 days shall be allowed for the Illinois Commerce Commission staff to determine if the alleged entity was in violation.

Beginning July 1, 2025, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall provide for public review a monthly report listing all of the reports of alleged violations it received in the prior month. The listing shall be available by the end of the violations report. The listing shall be available by the end of the second full week for all reports from the previous month. The listing shall, at a minimum, include: (1) the name of the party submitting the alleged violation; (2) the name of the party and the name of the project owner that is alleged to be in violation; (3) the date the alleged violation report is submitted; and (4) the Section or Sections of the Act applicable to the submitted alleged violation.

JULIE, Inc., may submit reports to the Illinois Commerce Commission for alleged violations of Section 5.1.

(Source: P.A. 103-614, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-22-24.)

Section 815. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.09, 3, 4, 5.01, 5.1, 7.10, 18, and 18.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.09)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 2.09. "Day care center" means any child care facility which regularly provides day care for less than 24 hours per day, except as provided for in Section 5.12, for (1) more than 8 children in a family home, or (2) more than 3 children in a facility other than a family home, including senior citizen buildings.

The term does not include:

(a) programs operated by (i) public or private elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning that serve children who shall have attained the age of 3 years or (ii) private entities on the grounds of public or private elementary or secondary schools and that serve children who have attained the age of 3 years, except that this exception applies only to the facility and not to the private entities' personnel operating the program;

(b) programs or that portion of the program which serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are recognized by the State Board of Education;

(c) educational program or programs serving children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are operated by a school which is registered with the State Board of Education and which is recognized or accredited by a recognized national or multistate educational organization or association which regularly recognizes or accredits schools;

(d) programs which exclusively serve or that portion of the program which serves children with disabilities who shall have attained the age of 3 years but are less than 21 years of age and which are registered and approved as meeting standards of the State Board of Education and applicable fire marshal standards;

(e) facilities operated in connection with a shopping center or service, religious services, or other similar facility, where transient children are cared for temporarily while parents or custodians of the children are occupied on the premises and readily available;

(f) any type of day care center that is conducted on federal government premises;

(g) special activities programs, including athletics, recreation, crafts instruction, and similar activities conducted on an organized and periodic basis by civic, charitable and governmental organizations, including, but not limited to, programs offered by park districts organized under the Park District Code to children who shall have attained the age of 3 years old if the program meets no more than 3.5 continuous hours at a time or less and no more than 25 hours during any week, and the park district conducts background investigations on employees of the program pursuant to Section 8-23 of the Park District Code;

(h) part day child care facilities, as defined in Section 2.10 of this Act;

(i) programs or that portion of the program which:

(1) serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years;

(2) is operated by churches or religious institutions as described in Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code;

(3) receives no governmental aid;

(4) is operated as a component of a religious, nonprofit elementary school;

(5) operates primarily to provide religious education; and

(6) meets appropriate State or local health and fire safety standards; or

(j) programs or portions of programs that:

(1) serve only school-age children and youth (defined as full-time kindergarten children, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.45, or older);

(2) are organized to promote childhood learning, child and youth development, educational or recreational activities, or character-building;

(3) operate primarily during out-of-school time or at times when school is not normally in session;

(4) comply with the standards of the Illinois Department of Public Health (77 Ill. Adm. Code 750) or the local health department, the Illinois State Fire Marshal (41 Ill. Adm. Code 100), and the following additional health and safety requirements: procedures for employee and volunteer emergency preparedness and practice drills; procedures to ensure that first aid kits are maintained and ready to use; the placement of a minimum level of liability insurance as determined by the Department; procedures for the availability of a working telephone that is onsite and accessible at all times; procedures to ensure that emergency phone numbers are posted onsite; and a restriction on handgun or weapon possession onsite, except if possessed by a peace officer;

(5) perform and maintain authorization and results of criminal history checks through the Illinois State Police and FBI and checks of the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the National Sex Offender Registry, and Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System for employees and volunteers who work directly with children;

(6) make hiring decisions in accordance with the prohibitions against barrier crimes as specified in Section 4.2 of this Act or in Section 21B-80 of the School Code;

(7) provide parents with written disclosure that the operations of the program are not regulated by licensing requirements; and

(8) obtain and maintain records showing the first and last name and date of birth of the child, name, address, and telephone number of each parent, emergency contact information, and written authorization for medical care.

Programs or portions of programs requesting Child Care Assistance Program (CCAP) funding and otherwise meeting the requirements under item (j) shall request exemption from the Department and be determined exempt prior to receiving funding and must annually meet the eligibility requirements and be appropriate for payment under the CCAP.

Programs or portions of programs under item (j) that do not receive State or federal funds must comply with staff qualification and training standards established by rule by the Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services shall set such standards after review of Afterschool for Children and Teens Now (ACT Now) evidence-based quality standards developed for school-age out-of-school time programs, feedback from the school-age out-of-school time program professionals, and review of out-of-school time professional development frameworks and quality tools.

Out-of-school time programs for school-age youth that receive State or federal funds must comply with only those staff qualifications and training standards set for the program by the State or federal entity issuing the funds.

For purposes of items (a), (b), (c), (d), and (i) of this Section, "children who shall have attained the age of 3 years" shall mean children who are 3 years of age, but less than 4 years of age, at the time of enrollment in the program.

(Source: P.A. 103-153, eff. 6-30-23; 103-952, eff. 1-1-25.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 2.09. "Day care center" means any child care facility which regularly provides day care for less than 24 hours per day, except as provided for in Section 5.12, for (1) more than 8 children in a family home, or (2) more than 3 children in a facility other than a family home, including senior citizen buildings.

The term does not include:

(a) programs operated by (i) public or private elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning that serve children who shall have attained the age of 3 years or (ii) private entities on the grounds of public or private elementary or secondary schools and that serve children who have attained the age of 3 years, except that this exception applies only to the facility and not to the private entities' personnel operating the program;

(b) programs or that portion of the program which serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are recognized by the State Board of Education;

(c) educational program or programs serving children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are operated by a school which is registered with the State Board of Education and which is recognized or accredited by a recognized national or multistate educational organization or association which regularly recognizes or accredits schools;

(d) programs which exclusively serve or that portion of the program which serves children with disabilities who shall have attained the age of 3 years but are less than 21 years of age and which are registered and approved as meeting standards of the State Board of Education and applicable fire marshal standards;

(e) facilities operated in connection with a shopping center or service, religious services, or other similar facility, where transient children are cared for temporarily while parents or custodians of the children are occupied on the premises and readily available;

(f) any type of day care center that is conducted on federal government premises;

(g) special activities programs, including athletics, recreation, crafts instruction, and similar activities conducted on an organized and periodic basis by civic, charitable and governmental organizations, including, but not limited to, programs offered by park districts organized under the Park District Code to children who shall have attained the age of 3 years old if the program meets no more than 3.5 continuous hours at a time or less and no more than 25 hours during any week, and the park district conducts background investigations on employees of the program pursuant to Section 8-23 of the Park District Code;

(h) part day child care facilities, as defined in Section 2.10 of this Act;

(i) programs or that portion of the program which:

(1) serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years;

(2) is operated by churches or religious institutions as described in Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code;

(3) receives no governmental aid;

(4) is operated as a component of a religious, nonprofit elementary school;

(5) operates primarily to provide religious education; and

(6) meets appropriate State or local health and fire safety standards; or

(j) programs or portions of programs that:

(1) serve only school-age children and youth (defined as full-time kindergarten children, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.45, or older);

(2) are organized to promote childhood learning, child and youth development, educational or recreational activities, or character-building;

(3) operate primarily during out-of-school time or at times when school is not normally in session;

(4) comply with the standards of the Illinois Department of Public Health (77 Ill. Adm. Code 750) or the local health department, the Illinois State Fire Marshal (41 Ill. Adm. Code 100), and the following additional health and safety requirements: procedures for employee and volunteer emergency preparedness and practice drills; procedures to ensure that first aid kits are maintained and ready to use; the placement of a minimum level of liability insurance as determined by the Department; procedures for the availability of a working telephone that is onsite and accessible at all times; procedures to ensure that emergency phone numbers are posted onsite; and a restriction on handgun or weapon possession onsite, except if possessed by a peace officer;

(5) perform and maintain authorization and results of criminal history checks through the Illinois State Police and FBI and checks of the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the National Sex Offender Registry, and Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System for employees and volunteers who work directly with children;

(6) make hiring decisions in accordance with the prohibitions against barrier crimes as specified in Section 4.2 of this Act or in Section 21B-80 of the School Code;

(7) provide parents with written disclosure that the operations of the program are not regulated by licensing requirements; and

(8) obtain and maintain records showing the first and last name and date of birth of the child, name, address, and telephone number of each parent, emergency contact information, and written authorization for medical care.

Out-of-school time programs for school-age youth that receive State or federal funds must comply with only those staff qualifications and training standards set for the program by the State or federal entity issuing the funds.

For purposes of items (a), (b), (c), (d), and (i) of this Section, "children who shall have attained the age of 3 years" shall mean children who are 3 years of age, but less than 4 years of age, at the time of enrollment in the program.

(Source: P.A. 103-153, eff. 6-30-23; 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-952, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 3. (a) No person, group of persons or corporation may operate or conduct any facility for child care, as defined in this Act, without a license or permit issued by the Department or without being approved by the Department as meeting the standards established for such licensing, with the exception of facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, and with the exception of facilities defined in Section 2.10 of this Act, and with the exception of programs or facilities licensed by the Department of Human Services under the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(b) No part day child care facility as described in Section 2.10 may operate without written notification to the Department or without complying with Section 7.1. Notification shall include a notarized statement by the facility that the facility complies with State state or local health standards and State state fire safety standards, and shall be filed with the department every 2 years.

(c) The Director of the Department shall establish policies and coordinate activities relating to child care licensing, licensing of day care homes and day care centers.

(d) Any facility or agency which is exempt from licensing may apply for licensing if licensing is required for some government benefit.

(e) A provider of day care described in items (a) through (j) of Section 2.09 of this Act is exempt from licensure. The Department shall provide written verification of exemption and description of compliance with standards for the health, safety, and development of the children who receive the services upon submission by the provider of, in addition to any other documentation required by the Department, a notarized statement that the facility complies with: (1) the standards of the Department of Public Health or local health department, (2) the fire safety standards of the State Fire Marshal, and (3) if operated in a public school building, the health and safety standards of the State Board of Education.

(f) Through June 30, 2029, either a qualified child care director, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.130, or a qualified early childhood teacher, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.140, with a minimum of 2,880 hours of experience as an early childhood teacher at the early childhood teacher's current facility must be present for the first and last hour of the workday and at the open or close of the facility. The Department shall adopt rules to implement this subsection. Such rules must be filed with the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules no later than January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 103-821, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-10-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 3. (a) No person, group of persons or corporation may operate or conduct any facility for child care, as defined in this Act, without a license or permit issued by the Department or without being approved by the Department as meeting the standards established for such licensing, with the exception of facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, and with the exception of facilities defined in Section 2.10 of this Act, and with the exception of programs or facilities licensed by the Department of Human Services under the Substance Use Disorder Act, and with the exception of day care centers, day care homes, and group day care homes.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Any facility or agency which is exempt from licensing may apply for licensing if licensing is required for some government benefit.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Through June 30, 2029, either a qualified child care director, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.130, or a qualified early childhood teacher, as described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.140, with a minimum of 2,880 hours of experience as an early childhood teacher at the early childhood teacher's current facility must be present for the first and last hour of the workday and at the open or close of the facility. The Department shall adopt rules to implement this subsection. Such rules must be filed with the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules no later than January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-821, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-10-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 4. License requirement; application; notice.

(a) Any person, group of persons or corporation who or which receives children or arranges for care or placement of one or more children unrelated to the operator must apply for a license to operate one of the types of facilities defined in Sections 2.05 through 2.19 and in Section 2.22 of this Act. Any relative, as defined in Section 2.17 of this Act, who receives a child or children for placement by the Department on a full-time basis may apply for a license to operate a foster family home as defined in Section 2.17 of this Act.

(a-5) Any agency, person, group of persons, association, organization, corporation, institution, center, or group providing adoption services must be licensed by the Department as a child welfare agency as defined in Section 2.08 of this Act. "Providing adoption services", as used in this Act, includes facilitating or engaging in adoption services.

(b) Application for a license to operate a child care facility must be made to the Department in the manner and on forms prescribed by it. An application to operate a foster family home shall include, at a minimum: a completed written form; written authorization by the applicant and all adult members of the applicant's household to conduct a criminal background investigation; medical evidence in the form of a medical report, on forms prescribed by the Department, that the applicant and all members of the household are free from communicable diseases or physical and mental conditions that affect their ability to provide care for the child or children; the names and addresses of at least 3 persons not related to the applicant who can attest to the applicant's moral character; the name and address of at least one relative who can attest to the applicant's capability to care for the child or children; and fingerprints submitted by the applicant and all adult members of the applicant's household.

(b-5) Prior to submitting an application for a foster family home license, a quality of care concerns applicant as defined in Section 2.22a of this Act must submit a preliminary application to the Department in the manner and on forms prescribed by it. The Department shall explain to the quality of care concerns applicant the grounds for requiring a preliminary application. The preliminary application shall include a list of (i) all children placed in the home by the Department who were removed by the Department for reasons other than returning to a parent and the circumstances under which they were removed and (ii) all children placed by the Department who were subsequently adopted by or placed in the private guardianship of the quality of care concerns applicant who are currently under 18 and who no longer reside in the home and the reasons why they no longer reside in the home. The preliminary application shall also include, if the quality of care concerns applicant chooses to submit, (1) a response to the quality of care concerns, including any reason the concerns are invalid, have been addressed or ameliorated, or no longer apply and (2) affirmative documentation demonstrating that the quality of care concerns applicant's home does not pose a risk to children and that the family will be able to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. The Department shall verify the information in the preliminary application and review (i) information regarding any prior licensing complaints, (ii) information regarding any prior child abuse or neglect investigations, (iii) information regarding any involuntary foster home holds placed on the home by the Department, and (iv) information regarding all child exit interviews, as provided in Section 5.26 of the Children and Family Services Act, regarding the home. Foster home applicants with quality of care concerns are presumed unsuitable for future licensure.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (b-5), the Department may make an exception and issue a foster family license to a quality of care concerns applicant if the Department is satisfied that the foster family home does not pose a risk to children and that the foster family will be able to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. In making this determination, the Department must obtain and carefully review all relevant documents and shall obtain consultation from its Clinical Division as appropriate and as prescribed by Department rule and procedure. The Department has the authority to deny a preliminary application based on the record of quality of care concerns of the foster family home. In the alternative, the Department may (i) approve the preliminary application, (ii) approve the preliminary application subject to obtaining additional information or assessments, or (iii) approve the preliminary application for purposes of placing a particular child or children only in the foster family home. If the Department approves a preliminary application, the foster family shall submit an application for licensure as described in subsection (b) of this Section. The Department shall notify the quality of care concerns applicant of its decision and the basis for its decision in writing.

(c) The Department shall notify the public when a child care institution, maternity center, or group home licensed by the Department undergoes a change in (i) the range of care or services offered at the facility or (ii) the type of children served. The Department shall notify the public of the change in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or municipality in which the applicant's facility is or is proposed to be located.

(c-5) When a child care institution, maternity center, or a group home licensed by the Department undergoes a change in (i) the age of children served or (ii) the area within the facility used by children, the Department shall post information regarding proposed changes on its website as required by rule.

(d) If, upon examination of the facility and investigation of persons responsible for care of children and, in the case of a foster home, taking into account information obtained for purposes of evaluating a preliminary application, if applicable, the Department is satisfied that the facility and responsible persons reasonably meet standards prescribed for the type of facility for which application is made, it shall issue a license in proper form, designating on that license the type of child care facility and, except for a child welfare agency, the number of children to be served at any one time.

(e) The Department shall not issue or renew the license of any child welfare agency providing adoption services, unless the agency (i) is officially recognized by the United States Internal Revenue Service as a tax-exempt organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law) and (ii) is in compliance with all of the standards necessary to maintain its status as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law). The Department shall grant a grace period of 24 months from August 15, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-586) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly for existing child welfare agencies providing adoption services to obtain 501(c)(3) status. The Department shall permit an existing child welfare agency that converts from its current structure in order to be recognized as a 501(c)(3) organization as required by this Section to either retain its current license or transfer its current license to a newly formed entity, if the creation of a new entity is required in order to comply with this Section, provided that the child welfare agency demonstrates that it continues to meet all other licensing requirements and that the principal officers and directors and programs of the converted child welfare agency or newly organized child welfare agency are substantially the same as the original. The Department shall have the sole discretion to grant a one-year one year extension to any agency unable to obtain 501(c)(3) status within the timeframe specified in this subsection (e), provided that such agency has filed an application for 501(c)(3) status with the Internal Revenue Service within the 2-year timeframe specified in this subsection (e).

(f) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the changes to this Section made by Public Act 103-770 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly no later than January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-763, eff. 1-1-23; 103-770, eff. 1-1-25; revised 8-20-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 4. License requirement; application; notice; Department of Children and Family Services.

(a) Any person, group of persons or corporation who or which receives children or arranges for care or placement of one or more children unrelated to the operator must apply for a license to operate one of the types of facilities defined in Sections 2.05 through 2.19 (other than a day care center or day care home) and in Section 2.22 of this Act. Any relative, as defined in Section 2.17 of this Act, who receives a child or children for placement by the Department on a full-time basis may apply for a license to operate a foster family home as defined in Section 2.17 of this Act.

(a-5) Any agency, person, group of persons, association, organization, corporation, institution, center, or group providing adoption services must be licensed by the Department as a child welfare agency as defined in Section 2.08 of this Act. "Providing adoption services", as used in this Act, includes facilitating or engaging in adoption services.

(b) Application for a license to operate a child care facility (other than a day care center, day care home, or group day care home) must be made to the Department in the manner and on forms prescribed by it. An application to operate a foster family home shall include, at a minimum: a completed written form; written authorization by the applicant and all adult members of the applicant's household to conduct a criminal background investigation; medical evidence in the form of a medical report, on forms prescribed by the Department, that the applicant and all members of the household are free from communicable diseases or physical and mental conditions that affect their ability to provide care for the child or children; the names and addresses of at least 3 persons not related to the applicant who can attest to the applicant's moral character; the name and address of at least one relative who can attest to the applicant's capability to care for the child or children; and fingerprints submitted by the applicant and all adult members of the applicant's household.

(b-5) Prior to submitting an application for a foster family home license, a quality of care concerns applicant as defined in Section 2.22a of this Act must submit a preliminary application to the Department in the manner and on forms prescribed by it. The Department shall explain to the quality of care concerns applicant the grounds for requiring a preliminary application. The preliminary application shall include a list of (i) all children placed in the home by the Department who were removed by the Department for reasons other than returning to a parent and the circumstances under which they were removed and (ii) all children placed by the Department who were subsequently adopted by or placed in the private guardianship of the quality of care concerns applicant who are currently under 18 and who no longer reside in the home and the reasons why they no longer reside in the home. The preliminary application shall also include, if the quality of care concerns applicant chooses to submit, (1) a response to the quality of care concerns, including any reason the concerns are invalid, have been addressed or ameliorated, or no longer apply and (2) affirmative documentation demonstrating that the quality of care concerns applicant's home does not pose a risk to children and that the family will be able to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. The Department shall verify the information in the preliminary application and review (i) information regarding any prior licensing complaints, (ii) information regarding any prior child abuse or neglect investigations, (iii) information regarding any involuntary foster home holds placed on the home by the Department, and (iv) information regarding all child exit interviews, as provided in Section 5.26 of the Children and Family Services Act, regarding the home. Foster home applicants with quality of care concerns are presumed unsuitable for future licensure.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (b-5), the Department may make an exception and issue a foster family license to a quality of care concerns applicant if the Department is satisfied that the foster family home does not pose a risk to children and that the foster family will be able to meet the physical and emotional needs of children. In making this determination, the Department must obtain and carefully review all relevant documents and shall obtain consultation from its Clinical Division as appropriate and as prescribed by Department rule and procedure. The Department has the authority to deny a preliminary application based on the record of quality of care concerns of the foster family home. In the alternative, the Department may (i) approve the preliminary application, (ii) approve the preliminary application subject to obtaining additional information or assessments, or (iii) approve the preliminary application for purposes of placing a particular child or children only in the foster family home. If the Department approves a preliminary application, the foster family shall submit an application for licensure as described in subsection (b) of this Section. The Department shall notify the quality of care concerns applicant of its decision and the basis for its decision in writing.

(c) The Department shall notify the public when a child care institution, maternity center, or group home licensed by the Department undergoes a change in (i) the range of care or services offered at the facility or (ii) the type of children served. The Department shall notify the public of the change in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or municipality in which the applicant's facility is or is proposed to be located.

(c-5) When a child care institution, maternity center, or a group home licensed by the Department undergoes a change in (i) the age of children served or (ii) the area within the facility used by children, the Department shall post information regarding proposed changes on its website as required by rule.

(d) If, upon examination of the facility and investigation of persons responsible for care of children and, in the case of a foster home, taking into account information obtained for purposes of evaluating a preliminary application, if applicable, the Department is satisfied that the facility and responsible persons reasonably meet standards prescribed for the type of facility for which application is made, it shall issue a license in proper form, designating on that license the type of child care facility and, except for a child welfare agency, the number of children to be served at any one time.

(e) The Department shall not issue or renew the license of any child welfare agency providing adoption services, unless the agency (i) is officially recognized by the United States Internal Revenue Service as a tax-exempt organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law) and (ii) is in compliance with all of the standards necessary to maintain its status as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any successor provision of federal tax law). The Department shall grant a grace period of 24 months from August 15, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-586) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly for existing child welfare agencies providing adoption services to obtain 501(c)(3) status. The Department shall permit an existing child welfare agency that converts from its current structure in order to be recognized as a 501(c)(3) organization as required by this Section to either retain its current license or transfer its current license to a newly formed entity, if the creation of a new entity is required in order to comply with this Section, provided that the child welfare agency demonstrates that it continues to meet all other licensing requirements and that the principal officers and directors and programs of the converted child welfare agency or newly organized child welfare agency are substantially the same as the original. The Department shall have the sole discretion to grant a one-year one year extension to any agency unable to obtain 501(c)(3) status within the timeframe specified in this subsection (e), provided that such agency has filed an application for 501(c)(3) status with the Internal Revenue Service within the 2-year timeframe specified in this subsection (e).

(f) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the changes to this Section made by Public Act 103-770 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly no later than January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-763, eff. 1-1-23; 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-770, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.01)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.01. Licenses; permits; Department of Early Childhood.

(a) In respect to day care centers, the Department of Early Childhood, upon receiving application filed in proper order, shall examine the facilities and persons responsible for care of children therein.

(b) In respect to day care homes, applications may be filed on behalf of such homes by the Department of Early Childhood.

(c) The Department of Early Childhood shall not allow any person to examine facilities under a provision of this Act who has not passed an examination demonstrating that such person is familiar with this Act and with the appropriate standards and regulations of the Department of Early Childhood.

(d) Licenses issued for day care centers, day care homes, and group day care homes shall be valid for 3 years from the date issued, unless revoked by the Department of Early Childhood or voluntarily surrendered by the licensee. When a licensee has made timely and sufficient application for the renewal of a license or a new license with reference to any activity of a continuing nature, the existing license shall continue in full force and effect for up to 30 days until the final agency decision on the application has been made. The Department of Early Childhood may further extend the period in which such decision must be made in individual cases for up to 30 days, but such extensions shall be only upon good cause shown.

(e) The Department of Early Childhood may issue one 6-month permit to a newly established facility for child care to allow that facility reasonable time to become eligible for a full license. If the facility for child care is a day care home the Department of Early Childhood may issue one 2-month permit only.

(f) The Department of Early Childhood may issue an emergency permit to a day care center taking in children as a result of the temporary closure for more than 2 weeks of a licensed child care facility due to a natural disaster. An emergency permit under this subsection shall be issued to a facility only if the persons providing child care services at the facility were employees of the temporarily closed day care center at the time it was closed. No investigation of an employee of a child care facility receiving an emergency permit under this subsection shall be required if that employee has previously been investigated at another child care facility. No emergency permit issued under this subsection shall be valid for more than 90 days after the date of issuance.

(g) During the hours of operation of any licensed day care center, day care home, or group day care home, authorized representatives of the Department of Early Childhood may without notice visit the facility for the purpose of determining its continuing compliance with this Act or rules adopted pursuant thereto.

(h) Day care centers, day care homes, and group day care homes shall be monitored at least annually by a licensing representative from the Department of Early Childhood that recommended licensure.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; revised 10-21-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/5.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 5.1. (a) The Department shall ensure that no day care center, group home, or child care institution as defined in this Act shall on a regular basis transport a child or children with any motor vehicle unless such vehicle is operated by a person who complies with the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. currently holds a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked or suspended for one or more traffic violations during the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

3. demonstrates physical fitness to operate vehicles by submitting the results of a medical examination conducted by a licensed physician;

4. has not been convicted of more than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles within a 12-month period;

5. has not been convicted of reckless driving or driving under the influence or manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within the past 3 years;

6. has signed and submitted a written statement certifying that the person has not, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused a crash which resulted in the death of any person within the 5 years immediately prior to the date of application.

However, such day care centers, group homes, and child care institutions may provide for transportation of a child or children for special outings, functions, or purposes that are not scheduled on a regular basis without verification that drivers for such purposes meet the requirements of this Section.

(a-5) As a means of ensuring compliance with the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall implement appropriate measures to verify that every individual who is employed at a group home or child care institution meets those requirements.

For every person employed at a group home or child care institution who regularly transports children in the course of performing the person's duties, the Department must make the verification every 2 years. Upon the Department's request, the Secretary of State shall provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to make the verifications required under subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who becomes subject to subsection (a) for the first time after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943), the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State before the individual operates a motor vehicle to transport a child or children under the circumstances described in subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who is subject to subsection (a) on January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943), the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State within 30 days after January 1, 2007.

If the Department discovers that an individual fails to meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall promptly notify the appropriate group home or child care institution.

(b) Any individual who holds a valid Illinois school bus driver permit issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to the Illinois Vehicle Code, and who is currently employed by a school district or parochial school, or by a contractor with a school district or parochial school, to drive a school bus transporting children to and from school, shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subsection (a).

(c) The Department may, pursuant to Section 8 of this Act, revoke the license of any day care center, group home, or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section.

(d) A group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section is guilty of a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000. Each day that a group home or child care institution fails to meet the requirements of this Section is a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 5.1. (a) The Department shall ensure that no group home, or child care institution as defined in this Act shall on a regular basis transport a child or children with any motor vehicle unless such vehicle is operated by a person who complies with the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. currently holds a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked or suspended for one or more traffic violations during the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

3. demonstrates physical fitness to operate vehicles by submitting the results of a medical examination conducted by a licensed physician;

4. has not been convicted of more than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles within a 12-month period;

5. has not been convicted of reckless driving or driving under the influence or manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within the past 3 years;

6. has signed and submitted a written statement certifying that the person has not, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused a crash which resulted in the death of any person within the 5 years immediately prior to the date of application.

However, such group homes, and child care institutions may provide for transportation of a child or children for special outings, functions, or purposes that are not scheduled on a regular basis without verification that drivers for such purposes meet the requirements of this Section.

(a-5) As a means of ensuring compliance with the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall implement appropriate measures to verify that every individual who is employed at a group home or child care institution meets those requirements.

For every person employed at a group home or child care institution who regularly transports children in the course of performing the person's duties, the Department must make the verification every 2 years. Upon the Department's request, the Secretary of State shall provide the Department with the information necessary to enable the Department to make the verifications required under subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who becomes subject to subsection (a) for the first time after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943), the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State before the individual operates a motor vehicle to transport a child or children under the circumstances described in subsection (a).

In the case of an individual employed at a group home or child care institution who is subject to subsection (a) on January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-943), the Department must make that verification with the Secretary of State within 30 days after January 1, 2007.

If the Department discovers that an individual fails to meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a), the Department shall promptly notify the appropriate group home or child care institution.

(b) Any individual who holds a valid Illinois school bus driver permit issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to the Illinois Vehicle Code, and who is currently employed by a school district or parochial school, or by a contractor with a school district or parochial school, to drive a school bus transporting children to and from school, shall be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subsection (a).

(c) The Department may, pursuant to Section 8 of this Act, revoke the license of any group home, or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section.

(d) A group home or child care institution that fails to meet the requirements of this Section is guilty of a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000. Each day that a group home or child care institution fails to meet the requirements of this Section is a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 8-15-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/7.10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 7.10. Licensing orientation program and progress report.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child day care licensing" or "day care licensing" means licensing of day care centers, day care homes, and group day care homes.

(a-5) In addition to current day care daycare training and subject to appropriations, the Department or any State agency that assumes day care center licensing responsibilities shall host licensing orientation programs to help educate potential day care center, day care home, and group day care home providers about the child day care licensing process. The programs shall be made available in person and virtually. The Department or its successor shall offer to host licensing orientation programs at least twice annually in each Representative District in the State. Additionally, if one or more persons request that a program be offered in a language other than English, then the Department or its successor must accommodate the request.

(b) No later than September 30th of each year, the Department shall provide the General Assembly with a comprehensive report on its progress in meeting performance measures and goals related to child day care licensing.

(c) The report shall include:

(1) details on the funding for child day care licensing, including:

(A) the total number of full-time employees working on child day care licensing;

(B) the names of all sources of revenue used to support child day care licensing;

(C) the amount of expenditures that is claimed against federal funding sources;

(D) the identity of federal funding sources; and

(E) how funds are appropriated, including appropriations for line staff, support staff, supervisory staff, and training and other expenses and the funding history of such licensing since fiscal year 2010;

(2) current staffing qualifications of day care licensing representatives and day care licensing supervisors in comparison with staffing qualifications specified in the job description;

(3) data history for fiscal year 2010 to the current fiscal year on day care licensing representative caseloads and staffing levels in all areas of the State;

(4) per the DCFS Child Day Care Licensing Advisory Council's work plan, quarterly data on the following measures:

(A) the percentage of new applications disposed of within 90 days;

(B) the percentage of licenses renewed on time;

(C) the percentage of day care centers receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(D) the percentage of day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(E) the percentage of group day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(F) the percentage of provider requests for supervisory review;

(G) the progress on adopting a key indicator system;

(H) the percentage of complaints disposed of within 30 days;

(I) the average number of days a day care center applicant must wait to attend a licensing orientation;

(J) the number of licensing orientation sessions available per region in the past year; and

(K) the number of Department trainings related to licensing and child development available to providers in the past year; and

(5) efforts to coordinate with the Department of Human Services and the State Board of Education on professional development, credentialing issues, and child developers, including training registry, child developers, and Quality Rating and Improvement Systems (QRIS).

(d) The Department shall work with the Governor's appointed Early Learning Council on issues related to and concerning child day care.

(Source: P.A. 103-805, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-10-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 7.10. Licensing orientation program and progress report.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "child day care licensing" or "day care licensing" means licensing of day care centers, day care homes, and group day care homes.

(a-5) In addition to current day care daycare training and subject to appropriations, the Department or any State agency that assumes day care center licensing responsibilities shall host licensing orientation programs to help educate potential day care center, day care home, and group day care home providers about the child day care licensing process. The programs shall be made available in person and virtually. The Department or its successor shall offer to host licensing orientation programs at least twice annually in each Representative District in the State. Additionally, if one or more persons request that a program be offered in a language other than English, then the Department or its successor must accommodate the request.

(b) No later than September 30th of each year, the Department of Early Childhood shall provide the General Assembly with a comprehensive report on its progress in meeting performance measures and goals related to child day care licensing.

(c) The report shall include:

(1) details on the funding for child day care licensing, including:

(A) the total number of full-time employees working on child day care licensing;

(B) the names of all sources of revenue used to support child day care licensing;

(C) the amount of expenditures that is claimed against federal funding sources;

(D) the identity of federal funding sources; and

(E) how funds are appropriated, including appropriations for line staff, support staff, supervisory staff, and training and other expenses and the funding history of such licensing since fiscal year 2010;

(2) current staffing qualifications of day care licensing representatives and day care licensing supervisors in comparison with staffing qualifications specified in the job description;

(3) data history for fiscal year 2010 to the current fiscal year on day care licensing representative caseloads and staffing levels in all areas of the State;

(4) per the DCFS Child Day Care Licensing Advisory Council's work plan, quarterly data on the following measures:

(A) the percentage of new applications disposed of within 90 days;

(B) the percentage of licenses renewed on time;

(C) the percentage of day care centers receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(D) the percentage of day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(E) the percentage of group day care homes receiving timely annual monitoring visits;

(F) the percentage of provider requests for supervisory review;

(G) the progress on adopting a key indicator system;

(H) the percentage of complaints disposed of within 30 days;

(I) the average number of days a day care center applicant must wait to attend a licensing orientation;

(J) the number of licensing orientation sessions available per region in the past year; and

(K) the number of Department of Early Childhood trainings related to licensing and child development available to providers in the past year; and

(5) efforts to coordinate with the Department of Human Services and the State Board of Education on professional development, credentialing issues, and child developers, including training registry, child developers, and Quality Rating and Improvement Systems (QRIS).

(d) The Department of Early Childhood shall work with the Governor's appointed Early Learning Council on issues related to and concerning child day care.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-805, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/18) (from Ch. 23, par. 2228)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 18. Any person, group of persons, association, or corporation that who:

(1) conducts, operates, or acts as a child care facility without a license or permit to do so in violation of Section 3 of this Act;

(2) makes materially false statements in order to obtain a license or permit;

(3) fails to keep the records and make the reports provided under this Act;

(4) advertises any service not authorized by license or permit held;

(5) publishes any advertisement in violation of this Act;

(6) receives within this State any child in violation of Section 16 of this Act; or

(7) violates any other provision of this Act or any reasonable rule or regulation adopted and published by the Department for the enforcement of the provisions of this Act; , is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and, in case of an association or corporation, imprisonment may be imposed upon its officers who knowingly participated in the violation.

Any child care facility that continues to operate after its license is revoked under Section 8 of this Act or after its license expires and the Department refused to renew the license as provided in Section 8 of this Act is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $10,000, and each day of violation is a separate offense.

In a prosecution under this Act, a defendant who relies upon the relationship of any child to the defendant has the burden of proof as to that relationship.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-594)

Sec. 18. Any person, group of persons, association, or corporation that who, with respect to a child care facility other than a day care center, day care home, or group day care home:

(1) conducts, operates, or acts as a child care facility without a license or permit to do so in violation of Section 3 of this Act;

(2) makes materially false statements in order to obtain a license or permit;

(3) fails to keep the records and make the reports provided under this Act;

(4) advertises any service not authorized by license or permit held;

(5) publishes any advertisement in violation of this Act;

(6) receives within this State any child in violation of Section 16 of this Act; or

(7) violates any other provision of this Act or any reasonable rule or regulation adopted and published by the Department for the enforcement of the provisions of this Act; , is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and, in case of an association or corporation, imprisonment may be imposed upon its officers who knowingly participated in the violation.

Any child care facility (other than a day care center, day care home, or group day care home) that continues to operate after its license is revoked under Section 8 of this Act or after its license expires and the Department refused to renew the license as provided in Section 8 of this Act is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $10,000, and each day of violation is a separate offense.

In a prosecution under this Act, a defendant who relies upon the relationship of any child to the defendant has the burden of proof as to that relationship.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(225 ILCS 10/18.1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 18.1. Violations; day care center, day care home, or group day care home. Any person, group of persons, association, or corporation that:

(1) conducts, operates, or acts as a day care center, day care home, or group day care home without a license or permit to do so in violation of Section 3.01 of this Act;

(2) makes materially false statements in order to obtain a license or permit;

(3) fails to keep the records and make the reports provided under this Act;

(4) advertises any service not authorized by license or permit held;

(5) publishes any advertisement in violation of this Act;

(6) receives within this State any child in violation of Section 16.1 of this Act; or

(7) violates any other provision of this Act or any reasonable rule or regulation adopted and published by the Department of Early Childhood for the enforcement of the provisions of this Act; , is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and, in the case of an association or corporation, imprisonment may be imposed upon its officers who knowingly participated in the violation.

Any day care center, day care home, or group day care home that continues to operate after its license is revoked under Section 8 or 8a of this Act or after its license expires and the Department of Early Childhood refused to renew the license as provided in Section 8 or 8a of this Act is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $10,000. Each day of violation is a separate offense.

In a prosecution under this Act, a defendant who relies upon the relationship of any child to the defendant has the burden of proof as to that relationship.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 7-1-26; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 820. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 20/19)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 19. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(1) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may suspend, revoke, place on probation, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the following grounds:

(a) material misstatements in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency or in furnishing information to any insurance company with respect to a claim on behalf of a licensee or a patient;

(b) violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;

(c) conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the clinical social work or social work professions;

(d) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal or restoration of a license under this Act;

(e) professional incompetence;

(f) gross negligence in practice under this Act;

(g) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(h) failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department;

(i) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department;

(j) habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(k) adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(l) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (l) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (l) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(m) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms;

(n) abandonment, without cause, of a client;

(o) willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with Federal or State agencies or departments;

(p) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(q) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(r) physical illness, mental illness, or any other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skills that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

(s) solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising;

(t) violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act;

(u) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act; or

(v) being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, will result in an automatic suspension of the licensee's license. Such suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(4) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of a person who (i) fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied or (ii) has failed to pay any court-ordered child support as determined by a court order or by referral from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(4.5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against a license or permit issued under this Act based solely upon the licensed clinical social worker authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(4.10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed clinical social worker based upon the licensed clinical social worker's license being revoked or suspended, or the licensed clinical social worker being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the licensed clinical social worker violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a licensed clinical social worker practicing in Illinois.

(4.15) The conduct specified in subsection (4.5), (4.10), (4.25), or (4.30) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 32.

(4.20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(4.25) The Department may not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against a license or permit issued under this Act based solely upon an immigration violation by the licensed clinical social worker.

(4.30) The Department may not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed clinical social worker based upon the licensed clinical social worker's license being revoked or suspended, or the licensed clinical social worker being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely upon an immigration violation by the licensed clinical social worker.

(5)(a) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

(b) The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

(c) The Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

(d) The person to be examined may have, at the person's own expense, another physician of the person's choice present during all aspects of the examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

(e) Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination without reasonable cause, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of the person's license until the person submits to the examination.

(f) If the Department or Board finds a person unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that person to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person's license shall be suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

(g) All fines imposed shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that the person can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the person's license.

(h) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 102-1117 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-715, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1048, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 825. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 17.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 2304)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dentist" means a person who has received a general license pursuant to subsection paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the responsibilities specified in Section 17.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by Section 18.

"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental services as authorized by Section 17.

"Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental assistant who has completed the training required by Section 17.1 of this Act.

"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm, or corporation which:

(i) engages in making, providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and

(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to provide such services; and

(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or dentists.

"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient, but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times in the treatment room.

"General supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record, that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute general supervision.

"Public member" means a person who is not a health professional. For purposes of board membership, any person with a significant financial interest in a health service or profession is not a public member.

"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning, and care of conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.

"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry, periodontics, prosthodontics, oral and maxillofacial radiology, and dental anesthesiology.

"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty license pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 11 11(b).

"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates, or is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.

"Informed consent" means legally valid consent that is given by a patient or legal guardian, that is recorded in writing or digitally, that authorizes intervention or treatment services from the treating dentist, and that documents agreement to participate in those services and knowledge of the risks, benefits, and alternatives, including the decision to withdraw from or decline treatment.

"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient of record", except as provided in Section 17.2, means a patient for whom the patient's most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental history and on whom the dentist has performed a physical examination within the last year and evaluated the condition to be treated, including a review of the patient's most recent x-rays.

"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public Health and training certified by the National Incident Management System or the National Disaster Life Support Foundation.

"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one location to another in order to establish a location where dental services can be provided.

"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours of clinical experience, and has completed at least 42 clock hours of additional structured courses in dental education in advanced areas specific to public health dentistry.

"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; a certified school-based health center or school-based oral health program; a prison; or a long-term care facility.

"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a written public health supervision agreement with that public health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured or whose household income is not greater than 300% of the federal poverty level.

"Teledentistry" means the use of telehealth systems and methodologies in dentistry and includes patient diagnosis, treatment planning, care, and education delivery for a patient of record using synchronous and asynchronous communications under an Illinois licensed dentist's authority as provided under this Act.

"Moderate sedation" means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which: (1) patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation; (2) no interventions are required to maintain a patient's airway and spontaneous ventilation is adequate; and (3) cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

"Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which: (1) patients cannot be easily aroused, but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired; (3) patients may require assistance in maintaining airways and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate; and (4) cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

"General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which: (1) patients are not arousable, even by painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired; (3) patients often require assistance in maintaining airways and positive pressure ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function; and (4) cardiovascular function may be impaired.

"Venipuncture" means the puncture of a vein as part of a medical procedure, typically to withdraw a blood sample or for an intravenous catheter for the administration of medication or fluids.

"Enteral route of administration" means administration of a drug that is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract or through oral, rectal, or sublingual mucosa.

"Parenteral route of administration" means administration of a drug by which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal tract through intramuscular, intravenous, intranasal, submucosal, subcutaneous, or intraosseous methods.

(Source: P.A. 102-93, eff. 1-1-22; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. 1-1-23; 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-628, eff. 7-1-24; 103-902, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-10-24.)

(225 ILCS 25/17.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 17.2. Teledentistry.

(a) As used in this Section, "patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's most recent Illinois-licensed dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental history and on whom the dentist has (i) performed a physical examination within the last year; (ii) obtained relevant records that are appropriate for the type of teledentistry service being provided from an in-person examination within the previous 12 months, including a review of the patient's most recent x-rays; or (iii) established a relationship with the patient through an exchange of protected health information for the purpose of providing emergency care, treatment, or services in accordance with subsection (c).

(b) A dentist may only practice or utilize teledentistry on a patient of record. A dentist practicing dentistry through teledentistry is subject to the same standard of care and practice standards that are applicable to dental services provided in a clinic or office setting. A dentist may provide and delegate dental services using teledentistry only under the supervision requirements as specified in this Act for in-person care. Prior to providing teledentistry services to a patient, a dentist must obtain informed consent from the patient as to the treatment proposed to be offered through teledentistry by the dentist. A dentist providing teledentistry under this Section shall provide the patient with the his or her name, direct telephone number, and physical practice address. It is a violation of this Act for a provider of dental services rendering care through teledentistry to require a patient to sign an agreement that limits in any way the patient's ability to write a review of services received or file a complaint with the Department or other regulatory agency. The Department shall adopt rules to provide for the use of teledentistry in the State of Illinois.

(c) A dentist may treat a patient of record to provide emergent care or conduct an initial consultation using teledentistry for the purpose of treating or assessing for acute pain, infection, injury, or any intraoral or perioral condition that presents immediate harm or discomfort to the patient for which treatment cannot be postponed. A provider of dental services rendering emergent care or conducting an initial consultation through teledentistry must direct the patient to receive appropriate in-person care after the provision of teledentistry services.

(Source: P.A. 103-902, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 830. The Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 30/17)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 17. Other activities subject to licensure under this Act.

(a) A licensed dietitian nutritionist may order patient or resident diets, including therapeutic diets, in accordance with the following:

(1) Enteral and parenteral nutrition therapy shall consist of enteral feedings or specialized intravenous solutions and shall only be performed by an individual licensed under this Act who:

(a) is a registered dietitian or registered dietitian nutritionist currently registered with the Commission on Dietetic Registration;

(b) is a certified nutrition support clinician as currently credentialed by the National Board of Nutrition Support Certification; or

(c) meets the requirements set forth in rules that the Department may establish as necessary to implement this Section to be consistent with competencies necessary for evaluating, ordering, and administering administrating enteral and parenteral nutrition therapies.

(2) Notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to the protocols, policies, or procedures of a health care facility, as defined in the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, in which the services are provided.

(b) Developing and managing food service operations whose chief function is nutrition care or that are otherwise utilized in the management or treatment of diseases or medical conditions shall only be performed by an individual licensed under this Act with competencies in the management of health care food service.

(c) A licensed dietitian nutritionist may order oral therapeutic diets.

(d) A licensed dietitian nutritionist shall provide nutrition care services using systematic, evidence-based problem solving methods of the nutrition care process to critically think and make decisions to address nutrition-related problems and provide safe, effective, and quality nutrition services, including medical nutrition therapy, for individuals in clinical and community settings.

(Source: P.A. 102-945, eff. 1-1-23; revised 8-6-24.)

Section 835. The Massage Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(225 ILCS 57/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 45. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, as the Department considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or licensee for any one or more of the following:

(1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted under this Act;

(2) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(3) professional incompetence;

(4) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading manner, including failing to use the massage therapist's own license number in an advertisement;

(5) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising, employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to practice massage contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act;

(6) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;

(7) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(8) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law or accepting and performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform;

(9) knowingly delegating professional responsibilities to a person unqualified by training, experience, or licensure to perform;

(10) failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 60 days;

(11) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(12) having a pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act;

(13) discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(14) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(15) willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(16) making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

(17) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(18) inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability;

(19) charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered;

(20) practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name; or

(21) cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) A person not licensed under this Act and engaged in the business of offering massage therapy services through others, shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or contract with any unlicensed person to practice massage therapy contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act. A person violating this subsection (b) shall be treated as a licensee for the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in Section 90 of this Act.

(c) The Department shall revoke any license issued under this Act of any person who is convicted of prostitution, rape, sexual misconduct, or any crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act and any such conviction shall operate as a permanent bar in the State of Illinois to practice as a massage therapist.

(c-5) A prosecuting attorney shall provide notice to the Department of the licensed massage therapist's name, address, practice address, and license number and a copy of the criminal charges filed immediately after a licensed massage therapist has been charged with any of the following offenses:

(1) an offense for which the sentence includes registration as a sex offender;

(2) involuntary sexual servitude of a minor;

(3) the crime of battery against a patient, including any offense based on sexual conduct or sexual penetration, in the course of patient care or treatment; or

(4) a forcible felony.

If the victim of the crime the licensee has been charged with is a patient of the licensee, the prosecuting attorney shall also provide notice to the Department of the patient's name.

Within 5 business days after receiving notice from the prosecuting attorney of the filing of criminal charges against the licensed massage therapist, the Secretary shall issue an administrative order that the licensed massage therapist shall practice only with a chaperone during all patient encounters pending the outcome of the criminal proceedings. The chaperone shall be a licensed massage therapist or other health care worker licensed by the Department. The administrative order shall specify any other terms or conditions deemed appropriate by the Secretary. The chaperone shall provide written notice to all of the licensed massage therapist's patients explaining the Department's order to use a chaperone. Each patient shall sign an acknowledgment that the patient they received the notice. The notice to the patient of criminal charges shall include, in 14-point font, the following statement: "The massage therapist is presumed innocent until proven guilty of the charges.".

The licensed massage therapist shall provide a written plan of compliance with the administrative order that is acceptable to the Department within 5 business days after receipt of the administrative order. Failure to comply with the administrative order, failure to file a compliance plan, or failure to follow the compliance plan shall subject the licensed massage therapist to temporary suspension of his or her license until the completion of the criminal proceedings.

If the licensee is not convicted of the charge or if any conviction is later overturned by a reviewing court, the administrative order shall be vacated and removed from the licensee's record.

The Department may adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) (Blank).

(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging the patient.

(h) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 103-757, eff. 8-2-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 840. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 18 and 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/18) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-18)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 18. Visiting professor, physician, or resident permits.

(A) Visiting professor permit.

(1) A visiting professor permit shall entitle a person to practice medicine in all of its branches or to practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery provided:

(a) the person maintains an equivalent authorization to practice medicine in all of its branches or to practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery in good standing in his or her native licensing jurisdiction during the period of the visiting professor permit;

(b) the person has received a faculty appointment to teach in a medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic school in Illinois; and

(c) the Department may prescribe the information necessary to establish an applicant's eligibility for a permit. This information shall include without limitation (i) a statement from the dean of the medical school at which the applicant will be employed describing the applicant's qualifications and (ii) a statement from the dean of the medical school listing every affiliated institution in which the applicant will be providing instruction as part of the medical school's education program and justifying any clinical activities at each of the institutions listed by the dean.

(2) Application for visiting professor permits shall be made to the Department, in writing, on forms prescribed by the Department and shall be accompanied by the required fee established by rule, which shall not be refundable. Any application shall require the information as, in the judgment of the Department, will enable the Department to pass on the qualifications of the applicant.

(3) A visiting professor permit shall be valid for no longer than 2 years from the date of issuance or until the time the faculty appointment is terminated, whichever occurs first, and may be renewed only in accordance with subdivision (A)(6) of this Section.

(4) The applicant may be required to appear before the Medical Board for an interview prior to, and as a requirement for, the issuance of the original permit and the renewal.

(5) Persons holding a permit under this Section shall only practice medicine in all of its branches or practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery in the State of Illinois in their official capacity under their contract within the medical school itself and any affiliated institution in which the permit holder is providing instruction as part of the medical school's educational program and for which the medical school has assumed direct responsibility.

(6) After the initial renewal of a visiting professor permit, a visiting professor permit shall be valid until the last day of the next physician license renewal period, as set by rule, and may only be renewed for applicants who meet the following requirements:

(i) have obtained the required continuing education hours as set by rule; and

(ii) have paid the fee prescribed for a license under Section 21 of this Act.

For initial renewal, the visiting professor must successfully pass a general competency examination authorized by the Department by rule, unless he or she was issued an initial visiting professor permit on or after January 1, 2007, but prior to July 1, 2007.

(B) Visiting physician permit.

(1) The Department may, in its discretion, issue a temporary visiting physician permit, without examination, provided:

(a) (blank);

(b) that the person maintains an equivalent authorization to practice medicine in all of its branches or to practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery in good standing in his or her native licensing jurisdiction during the period of the temporary visiting physician permit;

(c) that the person has received an invitation or appointment to study, demonstrate, or perform a specific medical, osteopathic, chiropractic, or clinical subject or technique in a medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic school, a state or national medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic professional association or society conference or meeting, a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, a hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a facility operated pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act; and

(d) that the temporary visiting physician permit shall only permit the holder to practice medicine in all of its branches or practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery within the scope of the medical, osteopathic, chiropractic, or clinical studies, or in conjunction with the state or national medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic professional association or society conference or meeting, for which the holder was invited or appointed.

(2) The application for the temporary visiting physician permit shall be made to the Department, in writing, on forms prescribed by the Department, and shall be accompanied by the required fee established by rule, which shall not be refundable. The application shall require information that, in the judgment of the Department, will enable the Department to pass on the qualification of the applicant, and the necessity for the granting of a temporary visiting physician permit.

(3) A temporary visiting physician permit shall be valid for no longer than (i) 180 days from the date of issuance or (ii) until the time the medical, osteopathic, chiropractic, or clinical studies are completed, or the state or national medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic professional association or society conference or meeting has concluded, whichever occurs first. The temporary visiting physician permit may be issued multiple times to a visiting physician under this paragraph (3) as long as the total number of days it is active does do not exceed 180 days within a 365-day period.

(4) The applicant for a temporary visiting physician permit may be required to appear before the Medical Board for an interview prior to, and as a requirement for, the issuance of a temporary visiting physician permit.

(5) A limited temporary visiting physician permit shall be issued to a physician licensed in another state who has been requested to perform emergency procedures in Illinois if he or she meets the requirements as established by rule.

(C) Visiting resident permit.

(1) The Department may, in its discretion, issue a temporary visiting resident permit, without examination, provided:

(a) (blank);

(b) that the person maintains an equivalent authorization to practice medicine in all of its branches or to practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery in good standing in his or her native licensing jurisdiction during the period of the temporary visiting resident permit;

(c) that the applicant is enrolled in a postgraduate clinical training program outside the State of Illinois that is approved by the Department;

(d) that the individual has been invited or appointed for a specific period of time to perform a portion of that post graduate clinical training program under the supervision of an Illinois licensed physician in an Illinois patient care clinic or facility that is affiliated with the out-of-State post graduate training program; and

(e) that the temporary visiting resident permit shall only permit the holder to practice medicine in all of its branches or practice the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery within the scope of the medical, osteopathic, chiropractic, or clinical studies for which the holder was invited or appointed.

(2) The application for the temporary visiting resident permit shall be made to the Department, in writing, on forms prescribed by the Department, and shall be accompanied by the required fee established by rule. The application shall require information that, in the judgment of the Department, will enable the Department to pass on the qualifications of the applicant.

(3) A temporary visiting resident permit shall be valid for 180 days from the date of issuance or until the time the medical, osteopathic, chiropractic, or clinical studies are completed, whichever occurs first.

(4) The applicant for a temporary visiting resident permit may be required to appear before the Medical Board for an interview prior to, and as a requirement for, the issuance of a temporary visiting resident permit.

(D) Postgraduate training exemption period; visiting rotations. A person may participate in visiting rotations in an approved postgraduate training program, not to exceed a total of 90 days for all rotations, if the following information is submitted in writing or electronically to the Department by the patient care clinics or facilities where the person will be performing the training or by an affiliated program:

(1) The person who has been invited or appointed to perform a portion of their postgraduate clinical training program in Illinois.

(2) The name and address of the primary patient care clinic or facility, the date the training is to begin, and the length of time of the invitation or appointment.

(3) The name and license number of the Illinois physician who will be responsible for supervising the trainee and the medical director or division director of the department or facility.

(4) Certification from the postgraduate training program that the person is approved and enrolled in a an graduate training program approved by the Department in their home state.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-6-24.)

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Medical Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Medical Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking, or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment, or medicine, or the treating, operating, or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means, or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents, or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating State or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) (Blank).

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(49) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physician assistants resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a physician assistant.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume his or her practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Medical Board that the person has been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Medical Board's recommendation that the person be permitted to resume his or her practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Medical Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Medical Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Medical Board and at the expense of the Department. The Medical Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department or the Medical Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Medical Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Medical Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Medical Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Section 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Medical Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Medical Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Medical Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Medical Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

The Medical Board, in determining mental capacity of an individual licensed under this Act, shall consider the latest recommendations of the Federation of State Medical Boards.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine of or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection (B) B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician:

(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device;

(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, the prescription of or treatment with long-term antibiotics;

(3) based solely upon the physician providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state; or

(4) based upon the physician's license being revoked or suspended, or the physician being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the physician violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the physician if it occurred in Illinois.

(D) (Blank).

(E) The conduct specified in subsection (C) shall not trigger reporting requirements under Section 23, constitute grounds for suspension under Section 25, or be included on the physician's profile required under Section 10 of the Patients' Right to Know Act.

(F) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act and who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that the action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of the applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(G) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 102-1117 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-442, eff. 1-1-24; revised 10-22-24.)

Section 845. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (1) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (1), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means:

(1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders;

(2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders;

(3) participation in drug and device selection;

(4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows:

(A) in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications;

(B) vaccination of patients 7 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, except for vaccinations covered by paragraph (15), upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures. Eligible vaccines are those listed on the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Recommended Immunization Schedule, the CDC's Health Information for International Travel, or the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's Vaccines Licensed and Authorized for Use in the United States. As applicable to the State's Medicaid program and other payers, vaccines ordered and administered in accordance with this subsection shall be covered and reimbursed at no less than the rate that the vaccine is reimbursed when ordered and administered by a physician;

(B-5) (blank);

(C) administration of injections of alpha-hydroxyprogesterone caproate, pursuant to a valid prescription, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; and

(D) administration of long-acting injectables for mental health or substance use disorders pursuant to a valid prescription by the patient's physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant upon completion of appropriate training conducted by an Accreditation Council of Pharmaceutical Education accredited provider, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures;

(5) (blank);

(6) drug regimen review;

(7) drug or drug-related research;

(8) the provision of patient counseling;

(9) the practice of telepharmacy;

(10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care;

(11) medication therapy management;

(12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records;

(13) the assessment and consultation of patients and dispensing of hormonal contraceptives;

(14) the initiation, dispensing, or administration of drugs, laboratory tests, assessments, referrals, and consultations for human immunodeficiency virus pre-exposure prophylaxis and human immunodeficiency virus post-exposure prophylaxis under Section 43.5;

(15) vaccination of patients 7 years of age and older for COVID-19 or influenza subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or orally as authorized, approved, or licensed by the United States Food and Drug Administration, pursuant to the following conditions:

(A) the vaccine must be authorized or licensed by the United States Food and Drug Administration;

(B) the vaccine must be ordered and administered according to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices standard immunization schedule;

(C) the pharmacist must complete a course of training accredited by the Accreditation Council on Pharmacy Education or a similar health authority or professional body approved by the Division of Professional Regulation;

(D) the pharmacist must have a current certificate in basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(E) the pharmacist must complete, during each State licensing period, a minimum of 2 hours of immunization-related continuing pharmacy education approved by the Accreditation Council on Pharmacy Education;

(F) the pharmacist must comply with recordkeeping and reporting requirements of the jurisdiction in which the pharmacist administers vaccines, including informing the patient's primary-care provider, when available, and complying with requirements whereby the person administering a vaccine must review the vaccine registry or other vaccination records prior to administering the vaccine; and

(G) the pharmacist must inform the pharmacist's patients who are less than 18 years old, as well as the adult caregiver accompanying the child, of the importance of a well-child visit with a pediatrician or other licensed primary-care provider and must refer patients as appropriate;

(16) the ordering and administration of COVID-19 therapeutics subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or orally with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures. Eligible therapeutics are those approved, authorized, or licensed by the United States Food and Drug Administration and must be administered subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or orally in accordance with that approval, authorization, or licensing; and

(17) the ordering and administration of point of care tests, screenings, and treatments for (i) influenza, (ii) SARS-CoV-2, (iii) Group A Streptococcus, (iv) respiratory syncytial virus, (v) adult-stage head louse, and (vi) health conditions identified by a statewide public health emergency, as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, with notification to the patient's physician, if any, and appropriate record retention or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures. Eligible tests and screenings are those approved, authorized, or licensed by the United States Food and Drug Administration and must be administered in accordance with that approval, authorization, or licensing.

A pharmacist who orders or administers tests or screenings for health conditions described in this paragraph may use a test that may guide clinical decision-making for the health condition that is waived under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 and regulations promulgated thereunder or any established screening procedure that is established under a statewide protocol.

A pharmacist may delegate the administrative and technical tasks of performing a test for the health conditions described in this paragraph to a registered pharmacy technician or student pharmacist acting under the supervision of the pharmacist.

The testing, screening, and treatment ordered under this paragraph by a pharmacist shall not be denied reimbursement under health benefit plans that are within the scope of the pharmacist's license and shall be covered as if the services or procedures were performed by a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant.

A pharmacy benefit manager, health carrier, health benefit plan, or third-party payor shall not discriminate against a pharmacy or a pharmacist with respect to participation referral, reimbursement of a covered service, or indemnification if a pharmacist is acting within the scope of the pharmacist's license and the pharmacy is operating in compliance with all applicable laws and rules.

A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of his or her license, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (1) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA registration number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA registration numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders. A prescription for medication other than controlled substances shall be valid for up to 15 months from the date issued for the purpose of refills, unless the prescription states otherwise.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, partnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" or "device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumbprint thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronically transmitted prescription" means a prescription that is created, recorded, or stored by electronic means; issued and validated with an electronic signature; and transmitted by electronic means directly from the prescriber to a pharmacy. An electronic prescription is not an image of a physical prescription that is transferred by electronic means from computer to computer, facsimile to facsimile, or facsimile to computer.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or licensee's license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(gg) "Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1051, eff. 1-1-23; 103-1, eff. 4-27-23; 103-593, eff. 6-7-24; 103-612, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 850. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4252)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 2. Licensure requirement; exempt activities. Practice without a license forbidden - exception. No person shall after the date of August 31, 1965 begin to practice physical therapy in this State or hold himself out as being able to practice this profession, unless he is licensed as such in accordance with the provisions of this Act. After July 1, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 86-1396) this amendatory Act of 1990, no person shall practice or hold himself out as a physical therapist assistant unless he is licensed as such under this Act. A physical therapist shall use the initials "PT" in connection with his or her name to denote licensure under this Act, and a physical therapist assistant shall use the initials "PTA" in connection with his or her name to denote licensure under this Act.

This Act does not prohibit:

(1) Any person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which he is licensed.

(2) The practice of physical therapy by those persons, practicing under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist and who have met all of the qualifications as provided in Sections 7, 8.1, and 9 of this Act, until the next examination is given for physical therapists or physical therapist assistants and the results have been received by the Department and the Department has determined the applicant's eligibility for a license. Anyone failing to pass said examination shall not again practice physical therapy until such time as an examination has been successfully passed by such person.

(3) The practice of physical therapy for a period not exceeding 6 months by a person who is in this State on a temporary basis to assist in a case of medical emergency or to engage in a special physical therapy project, and who meets the qualifications for a physical therapist as set forth in Sections 7 and 8 of this Act and is licensed in another state as a physical therapist.

(4) Practice of physical therapy by qualified persons who have filed for endorsement for no longer than one year or until such time that notification of licensure has been granted or denied, whichever period of time is lesser.

(5) One or more licensed physical therapists from forming a professional service corporation under the provisions of the "Professional Service Corporation Act", approved September 15, 1969, as now or hereafter amended, and licensing such corporation for the practice of physical therapy.

(6) Physical therapy aides from performing patient care activities under the on-site supervision of a licensed physical therapist or licensed physical therapist assistant. These patient care activities shall not include interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, the planning of or major modifications of, patient programs.

(7) Physical therapist assistants Therapist Assistants from performing patient care activities under the general supervision of a licensed physical therapist. The physical therapist must maintain continual contact with the physical therapist assistant including periodic personal supervision and instruction to insure the safety and welfare of the patient.

(8) The practice of physical therapy by a physical therapy student or a physical therapist assistant student under the on-site supervision of a licensed physical therapist. The physical therapist shall be readily available for direct supervision and instruction to insure the safety and welfare of the patient.

(9) The practice of physical therapy as part of an educational program by a physical therapist licensed in another state or country for a period not to exceed 6 months.

(10) (Blank). The practice, services, or activities of persons practicing the specified occupations set forth in subsection (a) of, and pursuant to a licensing exemption granted in subsection (b) or (d) of, Section 2105-350 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, but only for so long as the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games Professional Licensure Exemption Law is operable.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; revised 8-6-24.)

Section 855. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 24 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 4824)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 24. Grounds for disciplinary action. The Department may refuse to issue, may refuse to renew, may refuse to restore, may suspend, or may revoke any license, or may place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon anyone licensed under this Act for any of the following reasons:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross or repeated malpractice or negligence.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(8) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use of alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice podiatric medicine with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(11) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(12) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 24.2 of this Act.

(13) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a patient.

(15) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with state agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Report Act.

(17) Physical illness, mental illness, or other impairment, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(18) Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

(19) The determination by a circuit court that a licensed podiatric physician is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(20) Holding oneself out to treat human ailments under any name other than his or her own, or the impersonation of any other physician.

(21) Revocation or suspension or other action taken with respect to a podiatric medical license in another jurisdiction that would constitute disciplinary action under this Act.

(22) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the podiatric physician.

(23) Gross, willful, and continued overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for those services, including, but not limited to, filing false statement for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code or other private or public third party payor.

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of podiatric medicine, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) (Blank).

(27) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(28) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(29) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(30) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused an eligible adult to be abused, neglected, or financially exploited as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

Upon receipt of a written communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director of Public Aid), or the Director of Public Health that continuation of practice of a person licensed under this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, the Secretary may immediately suspend the license of such person without a hearing. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such hearing held to determine whether to recommend to the Secretary that the person's license be revoked, suspended, placed on probationary status, or restored, or such person be subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing, the written communication and any other evidence submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against such person; provided, however, the person or his counsel shall have the opportunity to discredit or impeach such evidence and submit evidence rebutting the same.

Except for fraud in procuring a license, all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for the grounds set forth in items (8), (9), (26), and (29) of this Section, no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have been a violation of this Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 26 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 24 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 100-525, eff. 9-22-17; revised 8-6-24.)

Section 860. The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 107/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 25. Powers and duties of the Department. Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Department may:

(a) Authorize examinations to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as professional counselors or clinical professional counselors and pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licensure by endorsement. All examinations, either conducted or authorized, must allow reasonable accommodations for applicants for whom English is not their primary language and a test in their primary language test is not available. Further, all examinations either conducted or authorized must comply with all communication access and reasonable modification requirements in Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.

(b) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to issue or renew or to revoke licenses or suspend, place on probation, censure, or reprimand or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person licensed under this Act.

(c) Formulate rules and regulations required for the administration of this Act.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Establish rules for determining approved graduate professional counseling, clinical professional counseling, psychology, rehabilitation counseling, and similar programs.

(Source: P.A. 102-878, eff. 1-1-23; 103-715, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-24-24.)

Section 865. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 7003)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 3. Definitions. The following terms have the meanings indicated, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Accredited college of veterinary medicine" means a veterinary college, school, or division of a university or college that offers the degree of Doctor of Veterinary Medicine or its equivalent and that is accredited by the Council on Education of the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA).

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Accredited program in veterinary technology" means any post-secondary educational program that is accredited by the AVMA's Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities or any veterinary technician program that is recognized as its equivalent by the AVMA's Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities.

"Animal" means any animal, vertebrate or invertebrate, other than a human.

"Board" means the Veterinary Licensing and Disciplinary Board.

"Certified veterinary technician" means a person who is validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary technology in this State.

"Client" means an entity, person, group, or corporation that has entered into an agreement with a veterinarian for the purposes of obtaining veterinary medical services.

"Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies" means a heterogeneous group of diagnostic and therapeutic philosophies and practices, which at the time they are performed may differ from current scientific knowledge, or whose theoretical basis and techniques may diverge from veterinary medicine routinely taught in accredited veterinary medical colleges, or both. "Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies" includes include, but is are not limited to, veterinary acupuncture, acutherapy, and acupressure; veterinary homeopathy; veterinary manual or manipulative therapy or therapy based on techniques practiced in osteopathy, chiropractic medicine, or physical medicine and therapy; veterinary nutraceutical therapy; veterinary phytotherapy; and other therapies as defined by rule.

"Consultation" means when a veterinarian receives advice in person, telephonically, electronically, or by any other method of communication from a veterinarian licensed in this or any other state or other person whose expertise, in the opinion of the veterinarian, would benefit a patient. Under any circumstance, the responsibility for the welfare of the patient remains with the veterinarian receiving consultation.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Direct supervision" means the supervising veterinarian is readily available on the premises where the animal is being treated.

"Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Immediate supervision" means the supervising veterinarian is in the immediate area, within audible and visual range of the patient and the person treating the patient.

"Impaired veterinarian" means a veterinarian who is unable to practice veterinary medicine with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skills, or abuse of drugs or alcohol of sufficient degree to diminish a person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"Indirect supervision" means the supervising veterinarian need not be on the premises, but has given either written or oral instructions for the treatment of the animal and is available by telephone or other form of communication.

"Licensed veterinarian" means a person who is validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this State.

"Patient" means an animal or group of animals that is examined or treated by a veterinarian.

"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership (general, limited, or limited liability), association, joint venture, cooperative, corporation, limited liability company, or any other group or combination acting in concert, whether or not acting as a principal, partner, member, trustee, fiduciary, receiver, or any other kind of legal or personal representative, or as the successor in interest, assignee, agent, factor, servant, employee, director, officer, or any other representative of such person.

"Practice of veterinary medicine" means to diagnose, prognose, treat, correct, change, alleviate, or prevent animal disease, illness, pain, deformity, defect, injury, or other physical, dental, or mental conditions by any method or mode, such as telemedicine, including the performance of one or more of the following:

(1) Prescribing, dispensing, administering, applying, or ordering the administration of any drug, medicine, biologic, apparatus, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or diagnostic substance, or medical or surgical technique.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Performing upon an animal a surgical or dental operation.

(3.5) Performing upon an animal complementary, alternative, or integrative therapy.

(4) Performing upon an animal any manual or mechanical procedure for reproductive management, including the diagnosis or treatment of pregnancy, sterility, or infertility.

(4.5) The rendering of advice or recommendation by any means, including telephonic and other electronic communications, with regard to the performing upon an animal any manual or mechanical procedure for reproductive management, including the diagnosis or treatment of pregnancy, sterility, or infertility.

(5) Determining the health and fitness of an animal.

(6) Representing oneself, directly or indirectly, as engaging in the practice of veterinary medicine.

(7) Using any word, letters, or title under such circumstances as to induce the belief that the person using them is qualified to engage in the practice of veterinary medicine or any of its branches. Such use shall be prima facie evidence of the intention to represent oneself as engaging in the practice of veterinary medicine.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Supervising veterinarian" means a veterinarian who assumes responsibility for the professional care given to an animal by a person working under his or her direction in either an immediate, direct, or indirect supervision arrangement. The supervising veterinarian must have examined the animal at such time as acceptable veterinary medical practices require requires, consistent with the particular delegated animal health care task.

"Therapeutic" means the treatment, control, and prevention of disease.

"Veterinarian" means a person who is validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this State.

"Veterinarian-client-patient relationship" means that all of the following conditions have been met:

(1) The veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making clinical judgments regarding the health of an animal and the need for medical treatment and the client, owner, or other caretaker has agreed to follow the instructions of the veterinarian;

(2) There is sufficient knowledge of an animal by the veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. This means that the veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the animal by virtue of an in-person examination of the animal or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept, or the veterinarian has access to the patient's records and has been designated by the veterinarian with the prior relationship to provide reasonable and appropriate medical care if the veterinarian with the prior relationship is unavailable; and

(3) The practicing veterinarian is readily available for follow-up in case of adverse reactions or failure of the treatment regimen or, if unavailable, has designated another available veterinarian who has access to the patient's records to provide reasonable and appropriate medical care.

"Veterinarian-client-patient relationship" does not mean a relationship solely based on telephonic or other electronic communications.

"Veterinary medicine" means all branches and specialties included within the practice of veterinary medicine.

"Veterinary premises" means any premises or facility where the practice of veterinary medicine occurs, including, but not limited to, a mobile clinic, outpatient clinic, satellite clinic, or veterinary hospital or clinic. "Veterinary premises" does not mean the premises of a veterinary client, research facility, a federal military base, or an accredited college of veterinary medicine.

"Veterinary prescription drugs" means those drugs restricted to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian in accordance with Section 503(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353).

"Veterinary specialist" means a veterinarian: (1) who has been awarded and maintains certification from a veterinary specialty organization recognized by the American Board of Veterinary Specialties; (2) who has been awarded and maintains certification from a veterinary certifying organization whose standards have been found by the Board to be equivalent to or more stringent than those of American Board of Veterinary Specialties-recognized veterinary specialty organizations; or (3) who otherwise meets criteria that may be established by the Board to support a claim to be a veterinary specialist.

"Veterinary technology" means the performance of services within the field of veterinary medicine by a person who, for compensation or personal profit, is employed by a licensed veterinarian to perform duties that require an understanding of veterinary medicine necessary to carry out the orders of the veterinarian. Those services, however, shall not include diagnosing, prognosing, prescribing, or surgery.

(Source: P.A. 103-309, eff. 1-1-24; 103-505, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-6-24.)

Section 870. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 75. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a registration, may revoke or suspend a registration, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person registered under this Act, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 90, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violating a provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, renewing, restoring, reinstating, or procuring a registration under this Act.

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the Department.

(8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction, governmental agency, unit of government, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the registrant's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(10) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having the registration placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies.

(12) Willfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(13) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the registrant has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Failure to report to the Department (A) any adverse final action taken against the registrant by another registering or licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(17) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(18) Physical or mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills, which results in the inability to practice the profession for which the person is registered with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Gross malpractice.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act related to the registrant's practice, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation.

(21) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing the registration of a person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay a final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by a tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based solely upon the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based upon the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's license being revoked or suspended, or the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist practicing in this State.

(b-3) The conduct specified in subsection (b-1) or (b-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(b-4) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon (1) a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, (2) issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and (3) filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to practice.

(d) (Blank).

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a registrant or a potential registrant is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's registration or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual registered under this Act or any individual who has applied for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, that may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the registrant or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at the individual's own expense, another physician of the individual's choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without a hearing until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals registered under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their registration.

(g) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(h) (f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 102-1117.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-387, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 875. The Auction License Act is amended by changing Section 20-15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 407/20-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2030)

Sec. 20-15. Disciplinary actions; grounds. The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, may place on probation or administrative supervision, suspend, or revoke any license or may reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon any licensee or applicant under this Act or any person or entity who holds oneself out as an applicant or licensee for any of the following reasons:

(1) False or fraudulent representation or material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department in obtaining or seeking to obtain a license.

(2) Violation of any provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, as set forth in subsection (c) of Section 10-5, to any crime that is a felony or misdemeanor under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof, or entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction.

(3.5) Failing to notify the Department, within 30 days after the occurrence, of the information required in subsection (c) of Section 10-5.

(4) Being adjudged to be a person under legal disability or subject to involuntary admission or to meet the standard for judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(5) Discipline of a licensee by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory of the United States, a foreign nation, a governmental agency, or any other entity authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent to one of the grounds for discipline set forth in this Act or for failing to report to the Department, within 30 days, any adverse final action taken against the licensee by any other licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or court, or liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Act.

(6) Engaging in the practice of auctioneering, conducting an auction, or providing an auction service without a license or after the license was expired, revoked, suspended, or terminated or while the license was inoperative.

(7) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the auctioneer exam or any continuing education exam, or aiding or abetting another to do the same.

(8) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional service not actually or personally rendered, except that an auctioneer licensed under this Act may receive a fee from another licensed auctioneer from this State or jurisdiction for the referring of a client or prospect for auction services to the licensed auctioneer.

(9) Making any substantial misrepresentation or untruthful advertising.

(10) Making any false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce.

(11) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or the making of false promises through a licensee, agent, employee, advertising, or otherwise.

(12) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or using any trade name or insignia of membership in any auctioneer association or organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(13) Commingling funds of others with the licensee's own funds or failing to keep the funds of others in an escrow or trustee account.

(14) Failure to account for, remit, or return any moneys, property, or documents coming into the licensee's possession that belong to others, acquired through the practice of auctioneering, conducting an auction, or providing an auction service within 30 days of the written request from the owner of said moneys, property, or documents.

(15) Failure to maintain and deposit into a special account, separate and apart from any personal or other business accounts, all moneys belonging to others entrusted to a licensee while acting as an auctioneer, auction firm, or as a temporary custodian of the funds of others.

(16) Failure to make available to Department personnel during normal business hours all escrow and trustee records and related documents maintained in connection with the practice of auctioneering, conducting an auction, or providing an auction service within 24 hours after a request from Department personnel.

(17) Making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies.

(18) Failing to voluntarily furnish copies of all written instruments prepared by the auctioneer and signed by all parties to all parties at the time of execution.

(19) Failing to provide information within 30 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(20) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(21) (Blank).

(22) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(23) Offering or advertising real estate for sale or lease at auction without a valid broker or managing broker's license under the Real Estate License Act of 1983, or any successor Act, unless exempt from licensure under the terms of the Real Estate License Act of 2000, or any successor Act, except as provided in Section 5-32 of the Real Estate License Act of 2000.

(24) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, mental illness, or disability.

(25) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(26) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(27) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.

(28) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(29) Violating the terms of any order issued by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 102-970, eff. 5-27-22; 103-236, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-13-24.)

Section 880. The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 27 as follows:

(225 ILCS 415/27) (from Ch. 111, par. 6243)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2030)

Sec. 27. As a condition for renewal of a license, licensees shall be required to complete continuing education in accordance with rules established by the Department.

Persons employed as full-time full time court reporters under the Court Reporters Act may apply for a waiver from the continuing education requirements. The waiver shall be granted upon the submission of evidence satisfactory to the Department that the certified shorthand reporter is employed as a full-time full time court reporter under the Court Reporters Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 885. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is amended by changing Sections 1-83 and 1-87 as follows:

(225 ILCS 732/1-83)

Sec. 1-83. Order authority.

(a) Any person who has reason to believe the person has they have incurred pollution or diminution of a water source as a result of a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing treatment of a well may notify the Department and request that an investigation be conducted.

(b) Within 30 calendar days after notification, the Department shall initiate the investigation of the claim and make a reasonable effort to reach a determination within 180 calendar days after notification. The Department may contact the Agency to seek the Agency's assistance in water quality sampling. The Agency may seek cost recovery under subsection (e) of Section 1-87 of this Act and recover all costs for samples taken for the investigation under this Section.

(c) Any person conducting or who has conducted high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall supply any information requested by the Department to assist the Department. The Department shall give due consideration to any information submitted during the course of the investigation.

(d) If sampling results or other information obtained as part of the investigation or the results of tests conducted under subsection (c) of Section 1-80 of this Act indicate that concentrations exceed the standards or criteria referenced by pollution or diminution under Section 1-5 of this Act, the Department shall issue an order to the permittee as necessary to require permanent or temporary replacement of a water source. In addition to any other penalty available under the law and consistent with the Department's order, the permittee shall restore or replace the affected supply with an alternative source of water adequate in quantity and quality for the purposes served by the water source. The quality of a restored or replaced water source shall meet or exceed the quality of the original water source based upon the results of the baseline test results under subsection (b) of Section 1-80 for that water source, or other available information. The Department may require the permittee to take immediate action, including, but not limited to, repair, replacement, alteration, or prohibition of operation of equipment permitted by the Department. The Department may issue conditions within any order to protect the public health or welfare or the environment.

(e) Within 15 calendar days after a determination has been made regarding the pollution or diminution, the Department shall provide notice of its findings and the orders, if any, to all persons that use the water source for domestic, agricultural, industrial, or any other legitimate beneficial uses.

(f) Upon issuance of an order Order or a finding of pollution or diminution under subsection (d) of this Section, the Department shall contact the Agency and forward all information from the investigation to the Agency. The Agency shall investigate the potential for violations as designated within Section 1-87 of this Act.

(g) Reports of potential cases of water pollution that may be associated with high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations may be submitted electronically. The Department shall establish a format for these reports to be submitted through the website developed under Section 1-110 of this Act. The Department shall electronically provide these reports to the Agency.

(h) The Department shall publish, on its website, lists of confirmed cases of pollution or diminution that result from high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. This information shall be searchable by county.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department from issuing a cessation order under Section 8a of the Illinois Oil and Gas Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-23-24.)

(225 ILCS 732/1-87)

Sec. 1-87. Water quality investigation and enforcement.

(a) No person shall cause or allow high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations permitted under this Act to violate Section 12 of the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or surface water or groundwater regulations adopted under the Illinois Environmental Protection Act.

(b) The Agency shall have the duty to investigate complaints that activities under this Act have caused a violation of Section 12 of the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or surface or groundwater rules adopted under the Illinois Environmental Protection Act. Any action taken by the Agency in enforcing these violations shall be taken under and consistent with the Illinois Environmental Protection Act, including, but not limited to, the Agency's authority to seek a civil or criminal cause of action under that Act. The test results under subsections (b) and (c) of Section 1-80 of this Act may be considered by the Agency during an investigation under this Section.

(c) A person who has reason to believe the person has they have incurred contamination of a water source as a result of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing may notify the Agency and request an investigation be conducted. The Agency shall forward this request to the Department for consideration of an investigation under Section 1-83 of this Act. If the Agency is provided with notice under subsection (f) of Section 1-83, the Agency shall conduct an investigation to determine whether pollution or diminution is continuing to occur at the location subject to the order, as well as locations identified by the Department or at any other water source within 1,500 feet of the well site. Any person conducting or who has conducted high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall supply any information requested to assist the Agency in its investigation. The Agency shall give due consideration to any information submitted during the course of the investigation.

(d) Pollution or diminution is a violation of this Act and may be pursued by the Department subject to the procedures and remedies under Sections 1-100 and 1-105 of this Act.

(e) If an Agency investigation under Section 1-83 or subsection (c) of this Section confirms that the cause of the pollution, diminution, or water pollution is attributable to high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, in addition to any other relief available under law, the permittee shall be required to reimburse the costs and reasonable expenses incurred by the Agency for all activities related to the investigation and cleanup. These costs shall include, but not be limited to, inspections, investigations, analyses, personnel, direct and indirect costs, studies, assessments, reports, and review and evaluation of that data, as well as costs under the Agency's review of whether the quality of a restored or replaced water supply meets or exceeds the quality of the water supply before it was affected by the permittee. Costs shall be reimbursed to the Agency by the permittee within 30 calendar days after receipt of a written request for reimbursement by the Agency. For all costs that remain unpaid following 30 calendar days after receipt of a written request for reimbursement, the Agency may institute a civil action for cost recovery under subsection (e) of Section 1-101 of this Act. Failure to reimburse the Agency within 30 calendar days after receipt of the written request for reimbursement is a violation of this Act. Reimbursement of costs collected under this subsection shall be deposited by the Agency into the Illinois Clean Water Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 890. The Sports Wagering Act is amended by changing Section 25-15 as follows:

(230 ILCS 45/25-15)

Sec. 25-15. Board duties and powers.

(a) Except for sports wagering conducted under Section 25-70, the Board shall have the authority to regulate the conduct of sports wagering under this Act.

(b) The Board may adopt any rules the Board considers necessary for the successful implementation, administration, and enforcement of this Act, except for Section 25-70. Rules proposed by the Board may be adopted as emergency rules pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) The Board shall levy and collect all fees, surcharges, civil penalties, and monthly taxes on adjusted gross sports wagering receipts imposed by this Act and deposit all moneys into the Sports Wagering Fund, except as otherwise provided under this Act.

(d) The Board may exercise any other powers necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act that it regulates and the rules of the Board.

(e) The Board shall adopt rules for a license to be employed by a master sports wagering licensee when the employee works in a designated gaming area that has sports wagering or performs duties in furtherance of or associated with the operation of sports wagering by the master sports wagering licensee (occupational license), which shall require an annual license fee of $250. However, occupational licenses issued under the Illinois Gambling Act for employees of an owners license or organization gaming licensee, once granted, are considered equivalent licenses to work in sports wagering positions located at the same gaming facility. License fees shall be deposited into the State Gaming Fund and used for the administration of this Act.

(f) The Board may require that licensees share, in real time and at the sports wagering account level, information regarding a wagerer, amount and type of wager, the time the wager was placed, the location of the wager, including the Internet protocol address, if applicable, the outcome of the wager, and records of abnormal wagering activity. Information shared under this subsection (f) must be submitted in the form and manner as required by rule. If a sports governing body has notified the Board that real-time information sharing for wagers placed on its sports events is necessary and desirable, licensees may share the same information in the form and manner required by the Board by rule with the sports governing body or its designee with respect to wagers on its sports events subject to applicable federal, State, or local laws or regulations, including, without limitation, privacy laws and regulations. Such information may be provided in anonymized form and may be used by a sports governing body solely for integrity purposes. For purposes of this subsection (f), "real time" "real-time" means a commercially reasonable periodic interval.

(g) A master sports wagering licensee, professional sports team, league, or association, sports governing body, or institution of higher education may submit to the Board in writing a request to prohibit a type or form of wagering if the master sports wagering licensee, professional sports team, league, or association, sports governing body, or institution of higher education believes that such wagering by type or form is contrary to public policy, unfair to consumers, or affects the integrity of a particular sport or the sports betting industry. The Board shall grant the request upon a demonstration of good cause from the requester and consultation with licensees. The Board shall respond to a request pursuant to this subsection (g) concerning a particular event before the start of the event or, if it is not feasible to respond before the start of the event, as soon as practicable.

(h) The Board and master sports wagering licensees may cooperate with investigations conducted by sports governing bodies or law enforcement agencies, including, but not limited to, providing and facilitating the provision of account-level betting information and audio or video files relating to persons placing wagers.

(i) A master sports wagering licensee shall make commercially reasonable efforts to promptly notify the Board any information relating to:

(1) criminal or disciplinary proceedings commenced against the master sports wagering licensee in connection with its operations;

(2) abnormal wagering activity or patterns that may indicate a concern with the integrity of a sports event or sports events;

(3) any potential breach of the relevant sports governing body's internal rules and codes of conduct pertaining to sports wagering that a licensee has knowledge of;

(4) any other conduct that corrupts a wagering outcome of a sports event or sports events for purposes of financial gain, including match fixing; and

(5) suspicious or illegal wagering activities, including use of funds derived from illegal activity, wagers to conceal or launder funds derived from illegal activity, using agents to place wagers, and using false identification.

A master sports wagering licensee shall also make commercially reasonable efforts to promptly report information relating to conduct described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this subsection (i) to the relevant sports governing body.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 102-689, eff. 12-17-21; revised 8-13-24.)

Section 895. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 6-15 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer being utilized for fire protection purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of August 15, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-847) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after March 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1166) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-795) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a public university for events that the Board of Trustees of that public university may determine are public events and not student-related activities. If the Board of Trustees of a public university has not issued a written policy pursuant to an exemption under this Section on or before July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550), then that Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. As used in this paragraph, "public university" means the University of Illinois, Illinois State University, Chicago State University, Governors State University, Southern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Eastern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, and Northeastern Illinois University.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a community college district for events that the Board of Trustees of that community college district may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and community college district policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. This paragraph does not apply to any community college district authorized to sell or serve alcoholic liquor under any other provision of this Section.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including, but not limited to, requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. (blank), and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources, the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, or the State Treasurer where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources shall be the Director of Natural Resources, the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Executive Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and the controlling government authority for the facilities, property, or buildings under the jurisdiction of the State Treasurer shall be the State Treasurer or the State Treasurer's designee.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a public library district, provided that the delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of that public library district and is limited to library fundraising events or programs of a cultural or educational nature. Before the board of trustees of a public library district may approve the delivery and sale of alcoholic liquors, the board of trustees of the public library district must have a written policy that has been approved by the board of trustees of the public library district governing when and under what circumstances alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail on property owned by that public library district. The written policy must (i) provide that no alcoholic liquor may be sold, distributed, or consumed in any area of the library accessible to the general public during the event or program, (ii) prohibit the removal of alcoholic liquor from the venue during the event, and (iii) require that steps be taken to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquor to persons under the age of 21. Any public library district that has alcoholic liquor delivered to or sold at retail on property owned by the public library district shall provide dram shop liability insurance in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the public library districts from all financial loss, damage, or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold on any property owned, operated, or controlled by Lewis and Clark Community College, Illinois Community College District No. 536.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 305 West Grove St. in Poplar Grove, Illinois that is owned and operated by North Boone Fire District #3 if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the North Boone Fire District #3 for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless North Boone County Fire District #3 from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

(Source: P.A. 103-956, eff. 8-9-24; 103-971, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

Section 900. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 5-5.01a, 5-5a.1, 5-16.8, 5-16.8a, 5-30.1, and 14-12 and by setting forth and renumbering Sections 5-5.24a and 5-52 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant individuals, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; (16.5) services performed by a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and acting within the scope of his or her license, including, but not limited to, chiropractic manipulative treatment; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, reproductive health care that is otherwise legal in Illinois shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, all tobacco cessation medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and all individual and group tobacco cessation counseling services and telephone-based counseling services and tobacco cessation medications provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article. The Department shall comply with all federal requirements necessary to obtain federal financial participation, as specified in 42 CFR 433.15(b)(7), for telephone-based counseling services provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline, including, but not limited to: (i) entering into a memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement with the Department of Public Health, as administrator of the Illinois Tobacco Quitline; and (ii) developing a cost allocation plan for Medicaid-allowable Illinois Tobacco Quitline services in accordance with 45 CFR 95.507. The Department shall submit the memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement, the cost allocation plan, and all other necessary documentation to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for review and approval. Coverage under this paragraph shall be contingent upon federal approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

On and after July 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide dental services to any adult who is otherwise eligible for assistance under the medical assistance program. As used in this paragraph, "dental services" means diagnostic, preventative, restorative, or corrective procedures, including procedures and services for the prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease, provided by an individual who is licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery or who is under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession.

On and after July 1, 2018, targeted dental services, as set forth in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree entered by the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, in the matter of Memisovski v. Maram, Case No. 92 C 1982, that are provided to adults under the medical assistance program shall be established at no less than the rates set forth in the "New Rate" column in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree for targeted dental services that are provided to persons under the age of 18 under the medical assistance program.

Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2025, the rates paid for sedation evaluation and the provision of deep sedation and intravenous sedation for the purpose of dental services shall be increased by 33% above the rates in effect on December 31, 2024. The rates paid for nitrous oxide sedation shall not be impacted by this paragraph and shall remain the same as the rates in effect on December 31, 2024.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, the Department shall file administrative rules updating the Handicapping Labio-Lingual Deviation orthodontic scoring tool by January 1, 2025, or as soon as practicable.

On and after January 1, 2022, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer and regulate a school-based dental program that allows for the out-of-office delivery of preventative dental services in a school setting to children under 19 years of age. The Department shall establish, by rule, guidelines for participation by providers and set requirements for follow-up referral care based on the requirements established in the Dental Office Reference Manual published by the Department that establishes the requirements for dentists participating in the All Kids Dental School Program. Every effort shall be made by the Department when developing the program requirements to consider the different geographic differences of both urban and rural areas of the State for initial treatment and necessary follow-up care. No provider shall be charged a fee by any unit of local government to participate in the school-based dental program administered by the Department. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit or preempt a home rule unit's or school district's authority to establish, change, or administer a school-based dental program in addition to, or independent of, the school-based dental program administered by the Department.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for individuals 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for individuals 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for individuals 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the individual's health care provider for individuals under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(F) A diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

The Department shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided under this paragraph; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool.

For purposes of this Section:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis.

"Breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography and, after January 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1018), breast tomosynthesis.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free-standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind individuals who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

The Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine that is approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration for all persons between the ages of 9 and 45. Subject to federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine for persons of the age of 46 and above who have been diagnosed with cervical dysplasia with a high risk of recurrence or progression. The Department shall disallow any preauthorization requirements for the administration of the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

On or after July 1, 2022, individuals who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article shall receive coverage for perinatal depression screenings for the 12-month period beginning on the last day of their pregnancy. Medical assistance coverage under this paragraph shall be conditioned on the use of a screening instrument approved by the Department.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant individual who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of having a substance use disorder as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, referral to a local substance use disorder treatment program licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant individuals under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under any program providing case management services for addicted individuals, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted individuals in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of the recipient's substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon the category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 120 calendar days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, new admissions with associated admission documents shall be submitted through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including, but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre-adjudicated, or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

In order to promote environmental responsibility, meet the needs of recipients and enrollees, and achieve significant cost savings, the Department, or a managed care organization under contract with the Department, may provide recipients or managed care enrollees who have a prescription or Certificate of Medical Necessity access to refurbished durable medical equipment under this Section (excluding prosthetic and orthotic devices as defined in the Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act and complex rehabilitation technology products and associated services) through the State's assistive technology program's reutilization program, using staff with the Assistive Technology Professional (ATP) Certification if the refurbished durable medical equipment: (i) is available; (ii) is less expensive, including shipping costs, than new durable medical equipment of the same type; (iii) is able to withstand at least 3 years of use; (iv) is cleaned, disinfected, sterilized, and safe in accordance with federal Food and Drug Administration regulations and guidance governing the reprocessing of medical devices in health care settings; and (v) equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. The reutilization program shall confirm that the recipient or enrollee is not already in receipt of the same or similar equipment from another service provider, and that the refurbished durable medical equipment equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit recipient or enrollee choice to obtain new durable medical equipment or place any additional prior authorization conditions on enrollees of managed care organizations.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost-effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA-approved FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee-for-service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate, or (4) limitations on dosage.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees or hospital fees related to the dispensing, distribution, and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The Department shall not impose a copayment on the coverage provided for naloxone hydrochloride under the medical assistance program.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

A federally qualified health center, as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act, shall be reimbursed by the Department in accordance with the federally qualified health center's encounter rate for services provided to medical assistance recipients that are performed by a dental hygienist, as defined under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, working under the general supervision of a dentist and employed by a federally qualified health center.

Within 90 days after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665), the Department shall seek federal approval of a State Plan amendment to expand coverage for family planning services that includes presumptive eligibility to individuals whose income is at or below 208% of the federal poverty level. Coverage under this Section shall be effective beginning no later than December 1, 2022.

Subject to approval by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of a Title XIX State Plan amendment electing the Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) as a State Medicaid option, as provided for by Subtitle I (commencing with Section 4801) of Title IV of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Public Law 105-33) and Part 460 (commencing with Section 460.2) of Subchapter E of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, PACE program services shall become a covered benefit of the medical assistance program, subject to criteria established in accordance with all applicable laws.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, community-based pediatric palliative care from a trained interdisciplinary team shall be covered under the medical assistance program as provided in Section 15 of the Pediatric Palliative Care Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, within 12 months after June 2, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) and subject to federal approval, acupuncture services performed by an acupuncturist licensed under the Acupuncture Practice Act who is acting within the scope of his or her license shall be covered under the medical assistance program. The Department shall apply for any federal waiver or State Plan amendment, if required, to implement this paragraph. The Department may adopt any rules, including standards and criteria, necessary to implement this paragraph.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the medical assistance program shall, subject to federal approval, reimburse hospitals for costs associated with a newborn screening test for the presence of metachromatic leukodystrophy, as required under the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act, at a rate not less than the fee charged by the Department of Public Health. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the medical assistance program shall, subject to appropriation and federal approval, also reimburse hospitals for costs associated with all newborn screening tests added on and after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-909) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act and required to be performed under that Act at a rate not less than the fee charged by the Department of Public Health. The Department shall seek federal approval before the implementation of the newborn screening test fees by the Department of Public Health.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, beginning on January 1, 2024, subject to federal approval, cognitive assessment and care planning services provided to a person who experiences signs or symptoms of cognitive impairment, as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, medically necessary reconstructive services that are intended to restore physical appearance shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this paragraph, "reconstructive services" means treatments performed on structures of the body damaged by trauma to restore physical appearance.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 55, Section 55-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-95, eff. 1-1-22; 102-123, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; 102-655, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1018, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; 102-1038, eff. 1-1-23; 103-102, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 95, Section 95-15, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-368, eff. 1-1-24; 103-593, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-593, Article 90, Section 90-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-909, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1040, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-10-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-808)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant individuals, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; (16.5) services performed by a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and acting within the scope of his or her license, including, but not limited to, chiropractic manipulative treatment; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, reproductive health care that is otherwise legal in Illinois shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, all tobacco cessation medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and all individual and group tobacco cessation counseling services and telephone-based counseling services and tobacco cessation medications provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article. The Department shall comply with all federal requirements necessary to obtain federal financial participation, as specified in 42 CFR 433.15(b)(7), for telephone-based counseling services provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline, including, but not limited to: (i) entering into a memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement with the Department of Public Health, as administrator of the Illinois Tobacco Quitline; and (ii) developing a cost allocation plan for Medicaid-allowable Illinois Tobacco Quitline services in accordance with 45 CFR 95.507. The Department shall submit the memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement, the cost allocation plan, and all other necessary documentation to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for review and approval. Coverage under this paragraph shall be contingent upon federal approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

On and after July 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide dental services to any adult who is otherwise eligible for assistance under the medical assistance program. As used in this paragraph, "dental services" means diagnostic, preventative, restorative, or corrective procedures, including procedures and services for the prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease, provided by an individual who is licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery or who is under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession.

On and after July 1, 2018, targeted dental services, as set forth in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree entered by the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, in the matter of Memisovski v. Maram, Case No. 92 C 1982, that are provided to adults under the medical assistance program shall be established at no less than the rates set forth in the "New Rate" column in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree for targeted dental services that are provided to persons under the age of 18 under the medical assistance program.

Subject to federal approval, on and after January 1, 2025, the rates paid for sedation evaluation and the provision of deep sedation and intravenous sedation for the purpose of dental services shall be increased by 33% above the rates in effect on December 31, 2024. The rates paid for nitrous oxide sedation shall not be impacted by this paragraph and shall remain the same as the rates in effect on December 31, 2024.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, the Department shall file administrative rules updating the Handicapping Labio-Lingual Deviation orthodontic scoring tool by January 1, 2025, or as soon as practicable.

On and after January 1, 2022, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer and regulate a school-based dental program that allows for the out-of-office delivery of preventative dental services in a school setting to children under 19 years of age. The Department shall establish, by rule, guidelines for participation by providers and set requirements for follow-up referral care based on the requirements established in the Dental Office Reference Manual published by the Department that establishes the requirements for dentists participating in the All Kids Dental School Program. Every effort shall be made by the Department when developing the program requirements to consider the different geographic differences of both urban and rural areas of the State for initial treatment and necessary follow-up care. No provider shall be charged a fee by any unit of local government to participate in the school-based dental program administered by the Department. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit or preempt a home rule unit's or school district's authority to establish, change, or administer a school-based dental program in addition to, or independent of, the school-based dental program administered by the Department.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for individuals 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for individuals 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for individuals 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the individual's health care provider for individuals under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(F) A diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(G) Molecular breast imaging (MBI) and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

The Department shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided under this paragraph; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool.

For purposes of this Section:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis.

"Breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography and, after January 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1018), breast tomosynthesis.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free-standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including radiologists that are trained in all forms of FDA-approved FDA approved breast imaging technologies, breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind individuals who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

The Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine that is approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration for all persons between the ages of 9 and 45. Subject to federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for a human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine for persons of the age of 46 and above who have been diagnosed with cervical dysplasia with a high risk of recurrence or progression. The Department shall disallow any preauthorization requirements for the administration of the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

On or after July 1, 2022, individuals who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article shall receive coverage for perinatal depression screenings for the 12-month period beginning on the last day of their pregnancy. Medical assistance coverage under this paragraph shall be conditioned on the use of a screening instrument approved by the Department.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant individual who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of having a substance use disorder as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, referral to a local substance use disorder treatment program licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant individuals under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under any program providing case management services for addicted individuals, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted individuals in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of the recipient's substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon the category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 120 calendar days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, new admissions with associated admission documents shall be submitted through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including, but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre-adjudicated, or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

In order to promote environmental responsibility, meet the needs of recipients and enrollees, and achieve significant cost savings, the Department, or a managed care organization under contract with the Department, may provide recipients or managed care enrollees who have a prescription or Certificate of Medical Necessity access to refurbished durable medical equipment under this Section (excluding prosthetic and orthotic devices as defined in the Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act and complex rehabilitation technology products and associated services) through the State's assistive technology program's reutilization program, using staff with the Assistive Technology Professional (ATP) Certification if the refurbished durable medical equipment: (i) is available; (ii) is less expensive, including shipping costs, than new durable medical equipment of the same type; (iii) is able to withstand at least 3 years of use; (iv) is cleaned, disinfected, sterilized, and safe in accordance with federal Food and Drug Administration regulations and guidance governing the reprocessing of medical devices in health care settings; and (v) equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. The reutilization program shall confirm that the recipient or enrollee is not already in receipt of the same or similar equipment from another service provider, and that the refurbished durable medical equipment equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit recipient or enrollee choice to obtain new durable medical equipment or place any additional prior authorization conditions on enrollees of managed care organizations.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost-effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA-approved FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee-for-service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate, or (4) limitations on dosage.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees or hospital fees related to the dispensing, distribution, and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The Department shall not impose a copayment on the coverage provided for naloxone hydrochloride under the medical assistance program.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

A federally qualified health center, as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act, shall be reimbursed by the Department in accordance with the federally qualified health center's encounter rate for services provided to medical assistance recipients that are performed by a dental hygienist, as defined under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, working under the general supervision of a dentist and employed by a federally qualified health center.

Within 90 days after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665), the Department shall seek federal approval of a State Plan amendment to expand coverage for family planning services that includes presumptive eligibility to individuals whose income is at or below 208% of the federal poverty level. Coverage under this Section shall be effective beginning no later than December 1, 2022.

Subject to approval by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of a Title XIX State Plan amendment electing the Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) as a State Medicaid option, as provided for by Subtitle I (commencing with Section 4801) of Title IV of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Public Law 105-33) and Part 460 (commencing with Section 460.2) of Subchapter E of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, PACE program services shall become a covered benefit of the medical assistance program, subject to criteria established in accordance with all applicable laws.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, community-based pediatric palliative care from a trained interdisciplinary team shall be covered under the medical assistance program as provided in Section 15 of the Pediatric Palliative Care Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, within 12 months after June 2, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1037) and subject to federal approval, acupuncture services performed by an acupuncturist licensed under the Acupuncture Practice Act who is acting within the scope of his or her license shall be covered under the medical assistance program. The Department shall apply for any federal waiver or State Plan amendment, if required, to implement this paragraph. The Department may adopt any rules, including standards and criteria, necessary to implement this paragraph.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the medical assistance program shall, subject to federal approval, reimburse hospitals for costs associated with a newborn screening test for the presence of metachromatic leukodystrophy, as required under the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act, at a rate not less than the fee charged by the Department of Public Health. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the medical assistance program shall, subject to appropriation and federal approval, also reimburse hospitals for costs associated with all newborn screening tests added on and after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-909) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly to the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act and required to be performed under that Act at a rate not less than the fee charged by the Department of Public Health. The Department shall seek federal approval before the implementation of the newborn screening test fees by the Department of Public Health.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, beginning on January 1, 2024, subject to federal approval, cognitive assessment and care planning services provided to a person who experiences signs or symptoms of cognitive impairment, as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, medically necessary reconstructive services that are intended to restore physical appearance shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this paragraph, "reconstructive services" means treatments performed on structures of the body damaged by trauma to restore physical appearance.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 55, Section 55-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-95, eff. 1-1-22; 102-123, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; 102-655, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1018, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; 102-1038, eff. 1-1-23; 103-102, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 95, Section 95-15, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-368, eff. 1-1-24; 103-593, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-593, Article 90, Section 90-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-808, eff. 1-1-26; 103-909, eff. 8-9-24; 103-1040, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-10-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.01a)

Sec. 5-5.01a. Supportive living facilities program.

(a) The Department shall establish and provide oversight for a program of supportive living facilities that seek to promote resident independence, dignity, respect, and well-being in the most cost-effective manner.

A supportive living facility is (i) a free-standing facility or (ii) a distinct physical and operational entity within a mixed-use building that meets the criteria established in subsection (d). A supportive living facility integrates housing with health, personal care, and supportive services and is a designated setting that offers residents their own separate, private, and distinct living units.

Sites for the operation of the program shall be selected by the Department based upon criteria that may include the need for services in a geographic area, the availability of funding, and the site's ability to meet the standards.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2014, subject to federal approval, the Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities shall be equal to the supportive living facility Medicaid rate effective on June 30, 2014 increased by 8.85%. Once the assessment imposed at Article V-G of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, the Department shall increase the Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2014 by 9.09%. The Department shall apply this increase retroactively to coincide with the imposition of the assessment in Article V-G of this Code in accordance with the approval for federal financial participation by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

The Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2017 must be equal to the rates in effect for supportive living facilities on June 30, 2017 increased by 2.8%.

The Medicaid rates for supportive living facilities effective on July 1, 2018 must be equal to the rates in effect for supportive living facilities on June 30, 2018.

Subject to federal approval, the Medicaid rates for supportive living services on and after July 1, 2019 must be at least 54.3% of the average total nursing facility services per diem for the geographic areas defined by the Department while maintaining the rate differential for dementia care and must be updated whenever the total nursing facility service per diems are updated. Beginning July 1, 2022, upon the implementation of the Patient Driven Payment Model, Medicaid rates for supportive living services must be at least 54.3% of the average total nursing services per diem rate for the geographic areas. For purposes of this provision, the average total nursing services per diem rate shall include all add-ons for nursing facilities for the geographic area provided for in Section 5-5.2. The rate differential for dementia care must be maintained in these rates and the rates shall be updated whenever nursing facility per diem rates are updated.

Subject to federal approval, beginning January 1, 2024, the dementia care rate for supportive living services must be no less than the non-dementia care supportive living services rate multiplied by 1.5.

(b-5) Subject to federal approval, beginning January 1, 2025, Medicaid rates for supportive living services must be at least 54.75% of the average total nursing services per diem rate for the geographic areas defined by the Department and shall include all add-ons for nursing facilities for the geographic area provided for in Section 5-5.2.

(c) The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section. Rules that establish or modify the services, standards, and conditions for participation in the program shall be adopted by the Department in consultation with the Department on Aging, the Department of Rehabilitation Services, and the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (or their successor agencies).

(d) Subject to federal approval by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Department shall accept for consideration of certification under the program any application for a site or building where distinct parts of the site or building are designated for purposes other than the provision of supportive living services, but only if:

(1) those distinct parts of the site or building are not designated for the purpose of providing assisted living services as required under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(2) those distinct parts of the site or building are completely separate from the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services, including separate entrances;

(3) those distinct parts of the site or building do not share any common spaces with the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services; and

(4) those distinct parts of the site or building do not share staffing with the part of the building used for the provision of supportive living program services.

(e) Facilities or distinct parts of facilities which are selected as supportive living facilities and are in good standing with the Department's rules are exempt from the provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act and the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(f) Section 9817 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 (Public Law 117-2) authorizes a 10% enhanced federal medical assistance percentage for supportive living services for a 12-month period from April 1, 2021 through March 31, 2022. Subject to federal approval, including the approval of any necessary waiver amendments or other federally required documents or assurances, for a 12-month period the Department must pay a supplemental $26 per diem rate to all supportive living facilities with the additional federal financial participation funds that result from the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage from April 1, 2021 through March 31, 2022. The Department may issue parameters around how the supplemental payment should be spent, including quality improvement activities. The Department may alter the form, methods, or timeframes concerning the supplemental per diem rate to comply with any subsequent changes to federal law, changes made by guidance issued by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, or other changes necessary to receive the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage.

(g) All applications for the expansion of supportive living dementia care settings involving sites not approved by the Department by January 1, 2024 (Public Act 103-102) may allow new elderly non-dementia units in addition to new dementia care units. The Department may approve such applications only if the application has: (1) no more than one non-dementia care unit for each dementia care unit and (2) the site is not located within 4 miles of an existing supportive living program site in Cook County (including the City of Chicago), not located within 12 miles of an existing supportive living program site in Alexander, Bond, Boone, Calhoun, Champaign, Clinton, DeKalb, DuPage, Fulton, Grundy, Henry, Jackson, Jersey, Johnson, Kane, Kankakee, Kendall, Lake, Macon, Macoupin, Madison, Marshall, McHenry, McLean, Menard, Mercer, Monroe, Peoria, Piatt, Rock Island, Sangamon, Stark, St. Clair, Tazewell, Vermilion, Will, Williamson, Winnebago, or Woodford counties, or not located within 25 miles of an existing supportive living program site in any other county.

(h) Beginning January 1, 2025, subject to federal approval, for a person who is a resident of a supportive living facility under this Section, the monthly personal needs allowance shall be $120 per month.

(i) (h) As stated in the supportive living program home and community-based service waiver approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, and beginning July 1, 2025, the Department must maintain the rate add-on implemented on January 1, 2023 for the provision of 2 meals per day at no less than $6.15 per day.

(j) (f) Subject to federal approval, the Department shall allow a certified medication aide to administer medication in a supportive living facility. For purposes of this subsection, "certified medication aide" means a person who has met the qualifications for certification under Section 79 of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and assists with medication administration while under the supervision of a registered professional nurse as authorized by Section 50-75 of the Nurse Practice Act. The Department may adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; 102-699, eff. 4-19-22; 103-102, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-102, Article 100, Section 100-5, eff. 1-1-24; 103-593, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-593, Article 100, Section 100-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-593, Article 165, Section 165-5, eff. 6-7-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-886, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-8-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.24a)

Sec. 5-5.24a. Remote ultrasounds and remote fetal nonstress tests; reimbursement.

(a) Subject to federal approval, for dates of service beginning on and after January 1, 2025, the Department shall reimburse for remote ultrasound procedures and remote fetal nonstress tests when the patient is in a residence or other off-site location from the patient's provider and the same standard of care is met as would be present during an in-person visit.

(b) Remote ultrasounds and remote fetal nonstress tests are only eligible for reimbursement when the provider uses digital technology:

(1) to collect medical and other forms of health data from a patient and to electronically transmit that information securely to a health care provider in a different location for interpretation and recommendation;

(2) that is compliant with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996; and

(3) that is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

(c) A fetal nonstress test is only eligible for reimbursement with a place of service modifier for at-home monitoring with remote monitoring solutions that are cleared by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for on-label use for monitoring fetal heart rate, maternal heart rate, and uterine activity.

(d) The Department shall issue guidance to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-593, eff. 6-7-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.24b)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5-5.24b 5-5.24a. Coverage for at-home pregnancy tests. Beginning January 1, 2025, the medical assistance program shall provide coverage for at-home, urine-based pregnancy tests that are ordered directly by a clinician or furnished through a standing order for patient use, regardless of whether the tests are otherwise available over the counter. The coverage required under this Section is limited to a multipack, as defined by the Department, of at-home, urine-based pregnancy tests every 30 days.

(Source: P.A. 103-870, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5a.1)

Sec. 5-5a.1. Telehealth services for persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities. The Department shall file an amendment to the Home and Community-Based Services Waiver Program for Adults with Developmental Disabilities authorized under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act to incorporate telehealth services administered by a provider of telehealth services that demonstrates knowledge and experience in providing medical and emergency services for persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities. For dates of service on and after January 1, 2025, the Department shall pay negotiated, agreed upon administrative fees associated with implementing telehealth services for persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities who are receiving Community Integrated Living Arrangement residential services under the Home and Community-Based Services Waiver Program for Adults with Developmental Disabilities. The implementation of telehealth services shall not impede the choice of any individual receiving waiver-funded services through the Home and Community-Based Services Waiver Program for Adults with Developmental Disabilities to receive in-person health care services at any time. The Department shall ensure individuals enrolled in the waiver, or their guardians, request to opt in opt-in to these services. For individuals who opt in, this service shall be included in the individual's person-centered plan. The use of telehealth services shall not be used for the convenience of staff at any time nor shall it replace primary care physician services.

(Source: P.A. 103-102, eff. 7-1-23; 103-593, eff. 6-7-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.64, and 356z.67, and 356z.71, and 356z.75 of the Illinois Insurance Code, (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 356z.44, 356z.49, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and (iii) be subject to the provisions of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act.

The Department, by rule, shall adopt a model similar to the requirements of Section 356z.39 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-703, eff. 1-1-25; 103-758, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1024, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8a)

Sec. 5-16.8a. Rules concerning continuous glucose monitor coverage. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the changes made to Section 356z.59 of the Illinois Insurance Code, as applied to the medical assistance program. The rules shall, at a minimum, provide that:

(1) the ordering provider must be a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or a certified nurse practitioner or physician assistant with a collaborative agreement with the physician; the ordering provider is not required to obtain continuing medical education in order to prescribe a continuous glucose monitor;

(2) continuous glucose monitors are not required to have an alarm when glucose levels are outside the predetermined pre-determined range; the capacity to generate predictive alerts in case of impending hypoglycemia; or the ability to transmit real-time glucose values and alerts to the patient and designated other persons;

(3) the beneficiary is not required to need intensive insulin therapy;

(4) the beneficiary is not required to have a recent history of emergency room visits or hospitalizations related to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, or ketoacidosis;

(5) if the beneficiary has gestational diabetes, the beneficiary is not required to have suboptimal glycemic control that is likely to harm the beneficiary or the fetus;

(6) if a beneficiary has diabetes mellitus and the beneficiary does not meet the coverage requirements or if the beneficiary is in a population in which continuous glucose monitor usage has not been well-studied, requests shall be reviewed, on a case-by-case basis, for medical necessity and approved if appropriate; and

(7) prior authorization is required for a prescription of a continuous glucose monitor; once a continuous glucose monitor is prescribed, the prior authorization shall be approved for a 12-month period.

(Source: P.A. 103-639, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.1)

Sec. 5-30.1. Managed care protections.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Managed care organization" or "MCO" means any entity which contracts with the Department to provide services where payment for medical services is made on a capitated basis.

"Emergency services" means health care items and services, including inpatient and outpatient hospital services, furnished or required to evaluate and stabilize an emergency medical condition. "Emergency services" include inpatient stabilization services furnished during the inpatient stabilization period. "Emergency services" do not include post-stabilization medical services.

"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity, regardless of the final diagnosis given, such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in:

(1) placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy;

(2) serious impairment to bodily functions;

(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part;

(4) inadequately controlled pain; or

(5) with respect to a pregnant woman who is having contractions:

(A) inadequate time to complete a safe transfer to another hospital before delivery; or

(B) a transfer to another hospital may pose a threat to the health or safety of the woman or unborn child.

"Emergency medical screening examination" means a medical screening examination and evaluation by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or, to the extent permitted by applicable laws, by other appropriately licensed personnel under the supervision of or in collaboration with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to determine whether the need for emergency services exists.

"Health care services" mean any medical or behavioral health services covered under the medical assistance program that are subject to review under a service authorization program.

"Inpatient stabilization period" means the initial 72 hours of inpatient stabilization services, beginning from the date and time of the order for inpatient admission to the hospital.

"Inpatient stabilization services" mean emergency services furnished in the inpatient setting at a hospital pursuant to an order for inpatient admission by a physician or other qualified practitioner who has admitting privileges at the hospital, as permitted by State law, to stabilize an emergency medical condition following an emergency medical screening examination.

"Post-stabilization medical services" means health care services provided to an enrollee that are furnished in a hospital by a provider that is qualified to furnish such services and determined to be medically necessary by the provider and directly related to the emergency medical condition following stabilization.

"Provider" means a facility or individual who is actively enrolled in the medical assistance program and licensed or otherwise authorized to order, prescribe, refer, or render health care services in this State.

"Service authorization determination" means a decision made by a service authorization program in advance of, concurrent to, or after the provision of a health care service to approve, change the level of care, partially deny, deny, or otherwise limit coverage and reimbursement for a health care service upon review of a service authorization request.

"Service authorization program" means any utilization review, utilization management, peer review, quality review, or other medical management activity conducted by an MCO, or its contracted utilization review organization, including, but not limited to, prior authorization, prior approval, pre-certification, concurrent review, retrospective review, or certification of admission, of health care services provided in the inpatient or outpatient hospital setting.

"Service authorization request" means a request by a provider to a service authorization program to determine whether a health care service meets the reimbursement eligibility requirements for medically necessary, clinically appropriate care, resulting in the issuance of a service authorization determination.

"Utilization review organization" or "URO" means an MCO's utilization review department or a peer review organization or quality improvement organization that contracts with an MCO to administer a service authorization program and make service authorization determinations.

(b) As provided by Section 5-16.12, managed care organizations are subject to the provisions of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(c) An MCO shall pay any provider of emergency services, including for inpatient stabilization services provided during the inpatient stabilization period, that does not have in effect a contract with the contracted Medicaid MCO. The default rate of reimbursement shall be the rate paid under Illinois Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including but not limited to Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments, and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following requirements apply to MCOs in determining payment for all emergency services, including inpatient stabilization services provided during the inpatient stabilization period:

(1) The MCO shall not impose any service authorization program requirements for emergency services, including, but not limited to, prior authorization, prior approval, pre-certification, certification of admission, concurrent review, or retrospective review.

(A) Notification period: Hospitals shall notify the enrollee's Medicaid MCO within 48 hours of the date and time the order for inpatient admission is written. Notification shall be limited to advising the MCO that the patient has been admitted to a hospital inpatient level of care.

(B) If the admitting hospital complies with the notification provisions of subparagraph (A), the Medicaid MCO may not initiate concurrent review before the end of the inpatient stabilization period. If the admitting hospital does not comply with the notification requirements in subparagraph (A), the Medicaid MCO may initiate concurrent review for the continuation of the stay beginning at the end of the 48-hour notification period.

(C) Coverage for services provided during the 48-hour notification period may not be retrospectively denied.

(2) The MCO shall cover emergency services provided to enrollees who are temporarily away from their residence and outside the contracting area to the extent that the enrollees would be entitled to the emergency services if they still were within the contracting area.

(3) The MCO shall have no obligation to cover emergency services provided on an emergency basis that are not covered services under the contract between the MCO and the Department.

(4) The MCO shall not condition coverage for emergency services on the treating provider notifying the MCO of the enrollee's emergency medical screening examination and treatment within 10 days after presentation for emergency services.

(5) The determination of the attending emergency physician, or the practitioner responsible for the enrollee's care at the hospital, of whether an enrollee requires inpatient stabilization services, can be stabilized in the outpatient setting, or is sufficiently stabilized for discharge or transfer to another setting, shall be binding on the MCO. The MCO shall cover and reimburse providers for emergency services as billed by the provider for all enrollees whether the emergency services are provided by an affiliated or non-affiliated provider, except in cases of fraud. The MCO shall reimburse inpatient stabilization services provided during the inpatient stabilization period and billed as inpatient level of care based on the appropriate inpatient reimbursement methodology.

(6) The MCO's financial responsibility for post-stabilization medical services it has not pre-approved ends when:

(A) a plan physician with privileges at the treating hospital assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care;

(B) a plan physician assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care through transfer;

(C) a contracting entity representative and the treating physician reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care; or

(D) the enrollee is discharged.

(e-5) An MCO shall pay for all post-stabilization medical services as a covered service in any of the following situations:

(1) the MCO or its URO authorized such services;

(2) such services were administered to maintain the enrollee's stabilized condition within one hour after a request to the MCO for authorization of further post-stabilization services;

(3) the MCO or its URO did not respond to a request to authorize such services within one hour;

(4) the MCO or its URO could not be contacted; or

(5) the MCO or its URO and the treating provider, if the treating provider is a non-affiliated provider, could not reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care and an affiliated provider was unavailable for a consultation, in which case the MCO must pay for such services rendered by the treating non-affiliated provider until an affiliated provider was reached and either concurred with the treating non-affiliated provider's plan of care or assumed responsibility for the enrollee's care. Such payment shall be made at the default rate of reimbursement paid under the State's Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including, but not limited to, Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments, and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent that such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(f) Network adequacy and transparency.

(1) The Department shall:

(A) ensure that an adequate provider network is in place, taking into consideration health professional shortage areas and medically underserved areas;

(B) publicly release an explanation of its process for analyzing network adequacy;

(C) periodically ensure that an MCO continues to have an adequate network in place;

(D) require MCOs, including Medicaid Managed Care Entities as defined in Section 5-30.2, to meet provider directory requirements under Section 5-30.3;

(E) require MCOs to ensure that any Medicaid-certified provider under contract with an MCO and previously submitted on a roster on the date of service is paid for any medically necessary, Medicaid-covered, and authorized service rendered to any of the MCO's enrollees, regardless of inclusion on the MCO's published and publicly available directory of available providers; and

(F) require MCOs, including Medicaid Managed Care Entities as defined in Section 5-30.2, to meet each of the requirements under subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act; with necessary exceptions to the MCO's network to ensure that admission and treatment with a provider or at a treatment facility in accordance with the network adequacy standards in paragraph (3) of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is limited to providers or facilities that are Medicaid certified.

(2) Each MCO shall confirm its receipt of information submitted specific to physician or dentist additions or physician or dentist deletions from the MCO's provider network within 3 days after receiving all required information from contracted physicians or dentists, and electronic physician and dental directories must be updated consistent with current rules as published by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or its successor agency.

(g) Timely payment of claims.

(1) The MCO shall pay a claim within 30 days of receiving a claim that contains all the essential information needed to adjudicate the claim.

(2) The MCO shall notify the billing party of its inability to adjudicate a claim within 30 days of receiving that claim.

(3) The MCO shall pay a penalty that is at least equal to the timely payment interest penalty imposed under Section 368a of the Illinois Insurance Code for any claims not timely paid.

(A) When an MCO is required to pay a timely payment interest penalty to a provider, the MCO must calculate and pay the timely payment interest penalty that is due to the provider within 30 days after the payment of the claim. In no event shall a provider be required to request or apply for payment of any owed timely payment interest penalties.

(B) Such payments shall be reported separately from the claim payment for services rendered to the MCO's enrollee and clearly identified as interest payments.

(4)(A) The Department shall require MCOs to expedite payments to providers identified on the Department's expedited provider list, determined in accordance with 89 Ill. Adm. Code 140.71(b), on a schedule at least as frequently as the providers are paid under the Department's fee-for-service expedited provider schedule.

(B) Compliance with the expedited provider requirement may be satisfied by an MCO through the use of a Periodic Interim Payment (PIP) program that has been mutually agreed to and documented between the MCO and the provider, if the PIP program ensures that any expedited provider receives regular and periodic payments based on prior period payment experience from that MCO. Total payments under the PIP program may be reconciled against future PIP payments on a schedule mutually agreed to between the MCO and the provider.

(C) The Department shall share at least monthly its expedited provider list and the frequency with which it pays providers on the expedited list.

(g-5) Recognizing that the rapid transformation of the Illinois Medicaid program may have unintended operational challenges for both payers and providers:

(1) in no instance shall a medically necessary covered service rendered in good faith, based upon eligibility information documented by the provider, be denied coverage or diminished in payment amount if the eligibility or coverage information available at the time the service was rendered is later found to be inaccurate in the assignment of coverage responsibility between MCOs or the fee-for-service system, except for instances when an individual is deemed to have not been eligible for coverage under the Illinois Medicaid program; and

(2) the Department shall, by December 31, 2016, adopt rules establishing policies that shall be included in the Medicaid managed care policy and procedures manual addressing payment resolutions in situations in which a provider renders services based upon information obtained after verifying a patient's eligibility and coverage plan through either the Department's current enrollment system or a system operated by the coverage plan identified by the patient presenting for services:

(A) such medically necessary covered services shall be considered rendered in good faith;

(B) such policies and procedures shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of provider associations representing the majority of providers within the identified provider industry; and

(C) such rules shall be published for a review and comment period of no less than 30 days on the Department's website with final rules remaining available on the Department's website.

The rules on payment resolutions shall include, but not be limited to:

(A) the extension of the timely filing period;

(B) retroactive prior authorizations; and

(C) guaranteed minimum payment rate of no less than the current, as of the date of service, fee-for-service rate, plus all applicable add-ons, when the resulting service relationship is out of network.

The rules shall be applicable for both MCO coverage and fee-for-service coverage.

If the fee-for-service system is ultimately determined to have been responsible for coverage on the date of service, the Department shall provide for an extended period for claims submission outside the standard timely filing requirements.

(g-6) MCO Performance Metrics Report.

(1) The Department shall publish, on at least a quarterly basis, each MCO's operational performance, including, but not limited to, the following categories of metrics:

(A) claims payment, including timeliness and accuracy;

(B) prior authorizations;

(C) grievance and appeals;

(D) utilization statistics;

(E) provider disputes;

(F) provider credentialing; and

(G) member and provider customer service.

(2) The Department shall ensure that the metrics report is accessible to providers online by January 1, 2017.

(3) The metrics shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of associations representing the majority of providers within the identified industry.

(4) Metrics shall be defined and incorporated into the applicable Managed Care Policy Manual issued by the Department.

(g-7) MCO claims processing and performance analysis. In order to monitor MCO payments to hospital providers, pursuant to Public Act 100-580, the Department shall post an analysis of MCO claims processing and payment performance on its website every 6 months. Such analysis shall include a review and evaluation of a representative sample of hospital claims that are rejected and denied for clean and unclean claims and the top 5 reasons for such actions and timeliness of claims adjudication, which identifies the percentage of claims adjudicated within 30, 60, 90, and over 90 days, and the dollar amounts associated with those claims.

(g-8) Dispute resolution process. The Department shall maintain a provider complaint portal through which a provider can submit to the Department unresolved disputes with an MCO. An unresolved dispute means an MCO's decision that denies in whole or in part a claim for reimbursement to a provider for health care services rendered by the provider to an enrollee of the MCO with which the provider disagrees. Disputes shall not be submitted to the portal until the provider has availed itself of the MCO's internal dispute resolution process. Disputes that are submitted to the MCO internal dispute resolution process may be submitted to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' complaint portal no sooner than 30 days after submitting to the MCO's internal process and not later than 30 days after the unsatisfactory resolution of the internal MCO process or 60 days after submitting the dispute to the MCO internal process. Multiple claim disputes involving the same MCO may be submitted in one complaint, regardless of whether the claims are for different enrollees, when the specific reason for non-payment of the claims involves a common question of fact or policy. Within 10 business days of receipt of a complaint, the Department shall present such disputes to the appropriate MCO, which shall then have 30 days to issue its written proposal to resolve the dispute. The Department may grant one 30-day extension of this time frame to one of the parties to resolve the dispute. If the dispute remains unresolved at the end of this time frame or the provider is not satisfied with the MCO's written proposal to resolve the dispute, the provider may, within 30 days, request the Department to review the dispute and make a final determination. Within 30 days of the request for Department review of the dispute, both the provider and the MCO shall present all relevant information to the Department for resolution and make individuals with knowledge of the issues available to the Department for further inquiry if needed. Within 30 days of receiving the relevant information on the dispute, or the lapse of the period for submitting such information, the Department shall issue a written decision on the dispute based on contractual terms between the provider and the MCO, contractual terms between the MCO and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and applicable Medicaid policy. The decision of the Department shall be final. By January 1, 2020, the Department shall establish by rule further details of this dispute resolution process. Disputes between MCOs and providers presented to the Department for resolution are not contested cases, as defined in Section 1-30 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, conferring any right to an administrative hearing.

(g-9)(1) The Department shall publish annually on its website a report on the calculation of each managed care organization's medical loss ratio showing the following:

(A) Premium revenue, with appropriate adjustments.

(B) Benefit expense, setting forth the aggregate amount spent for the following:

(i) Direct paid claims.

(ii) Subcapitation payments.

(iii) Other claim payments.

(iv) Direct reserves.

(v) Gross recoveries.

(vi) Expenses for activities that improve health care quality as allowed by the Department.

(2) The medical loss ratio shall be calculated consistent with federal law and regulation following a claims runout period determined by the Department.

(g-10)(1) "Liability effective date" means the date on which an MCO becomes responsible for payment for medically necessary and covered services rendered by a provider to one of its enrollees in accordance with the contract terms between the MCO and the provider. The liability effective date shall be the later of:

(A) The execution date of a network participation contract agreement.

(B) The date the provider or its representative submits to the MCO the complete and accurate standardized roster form for the provider in the format approved by the Department.

(C) The provider effective date contained within the Department's provider enrollment subsystem within the Illinois Medicaid Program Advanced Cloud Technology (IMPACT) System.

(2) The standardized roster form may be submitted to the MCO at the same time that the provider submits an enrollment application to the Department through IMPACT.

(3) By October 1, 2019, the Department shall require all MCOs to update their provider directory with information for new practitioners of existing contracted providers within 30 days of receipt of a complete and accurate standardized roster template in the format approved by the Department provided that the provider is effective in the Department's provider enrollment subsystem within the IMPACT system. Such provider directory shall be readily accessible for purposes of selecting an approved health care provider and comply with all other federal and State requirements.

(g-11) The Department shall work with relevant stakeholders on the development of operational guidelines to enhance and improve operational performance of Illinois' Medicaid managed care program, including, but not limited to, improving provider billing practices, reducing claim rejections and inappropriate payment denials, and standardizing processes, procedures, definitions, and response timelines, with the goal of reducing provider and MCO administrative burdens and conflict. The Department shall include a report on the progress of these program improvements and other topics in its Fiscal Year 2020 annual report to the General Assembly.

(g-12) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the Department or an MCO requires submission of a claim for payment in a non-electronic format, a provider shall always be afforded a period of no less than 90 business days, as a correction period, following any notification of rejection by either the Department or the MCO to correct errors or omissions in the original submission.

Under no circumstances, either by an MCO or under the State's fee-for-service system, shall a provider be denied payment for failure to comply with any timely submission requirements under this Code or under any existing contract, unless the non-electronic format claim submission occurs after the initial 180 days following the latest date of service on the claim, or after the 90 business days correction period following notification to the provider of rejection or denial of payment.

(g-13) Utilization Review Standardization and Transparency.

(1) To ensure greater standardization and transparency related to service authorization determinations, for all individuals covered under the medical assistance program, including both the fee-for-service and managed care programs, the Department shall, in consultation with the MCOs, a statewide association representing the MCOs, a statewide association representing the majority of Illinois hospitals, a statewide association representing physicians, or any other interested parties deemed appropriate by the Department, adopt administrative rules consistent with this subsection, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(2) Prior to July 1, 2025, the Department shall in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act adopt rules which govern MCO practices for dates of services on and after July 1, 2025, as follows:

(A) guidelines related to the publication of MCO authorization policies;

(B) procedures that, due to medical complexity, must be reimbursed under the applicable inpatient methodology, when provided in the inpatient setting and billed as an inpatient service;

(C) standardization of administrative forms used in the member appeal process;

(D) limitations on second or subsequent medical necessity review of a health care service already authorized by the MCO or URO under a service authorization program;

(E) standardization of peer-to-peer processes and timelines;

(F) defined criteria for urgent and standard post-acute care service authorization requests; and

(G) standardized criteria for service authorization programs for authorization of admission to a long-term acute care hospital.

(3) The Department shall expand the scope of the quality and compliance audits conducted by its contracted external quality review organization to include, but not be limited to:

(A) an analysis of the Medicaid MCO's compliance with nationally recognized clinical decision guidelines;

(B) an analysis that compares and contrasts the Medicaid MCO's service authorization determination outcomes to the outcomes of each other MCO plan and the State's fee-for-service program model to evaluate whether service authorization determinations are being made consistently by all Medicaid MCOs to ensure that all individuals are being treated in accordance with equitable standards of care;

(C) an analysis, for each Medicaid MCO, of the number of service authorization requests, including requests for concurrent review and certification of admissions, received, initially denied, overturned through any post-denial process including, but not limited to, enrollee or provider appeal, peer-to-peer review, or the provider dispute resolution process, denied but approved for a lower or different level of care, and the number denied on final determination; and

(D) provide a written report to the General Assembly, detailing the items listed in this subsection and any other metrics deemed necessary by the Department, by the second April, following June 7, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-593) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, and each April thereafter. The Department shall make this report available within 30 days of delivery to the General Assembly, on its public facing website.

(h) The Department shall not expand mandatory MCO enrollment into new counties beyond those counties already designated by the Department as of June 1, 2014 for the individuals whose eligibility for medical assistance is not the seniors or people with disabilities population until the Department provides an opportunity for accountable care entities and MCOs to participate in such newly designated counties.

(h-5) Leading indicator data sharing. By January 1, 2024, the Department shall obtain input from the Department of Human Services, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Children and Family Services, the State Board of Education, managed care organizations, providers, and clinical experts to identify and analyze key indicators and data elements that can be used in an analysis of lead indicators from assessments and data sets available to the Department that can be shared with managed care organizations and similar care coordination entities contracted with the Department as leading indicators for elevated behavioral health crisis risk for children, including data sets such as the Illinois Medicaid Comprehensive Assessment of Needs and Strengths (IM-CANS), calls made to the State's Crisis and Referral Entry Services (CARES) hotline, health services information from Health and Human Services Innovators, or other data sets that may include key indicators. The workgroup shall complete its recommendations for leading indicator data elements on or before September 1, 2024. To the extent permitted by State and federal law, the identified leading indicators shall be shared with managed care organizations and similar care coordination entities contracted with the Department on or before December 1, 2024 for the purpose of improving care coordination with the early detection of elevated risk. Leading indicators shall be reassessed annually with stakeholder input. The Department shall implement guidance to managed care organizations and similar care coordination entities contracted with the Department, so that the managed care organizations and care coordination entities respond to lead indicators with services and interventions that are designed to help stabilize the child.

(i) The requirements of this Section apply to contracts with accountable care entities and MCOs entered into, amended, or renewed after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651).

(j) Health care information released to managed care organizations. A health care provider shall release to a Medicaid managed care organization, upon request, and subject to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and any other law applicable to the release of health information, the health care information of the MCO's enrollee, if the enrollee has completed and signed a general release form that grants to the health care provider permission to release the recipient's health care information to the recipient's insurance carrier.

(k) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, managed care organizations, a statewide organization representing hospitals, and a statewide organization representing safety-net hospitals shall explore ways to support billing departments in safety-net hospitals.

(l) The requirements of this Section added by Public Act 102-4 shall apply to services provided on or after the first day of the month that begins 60 days after April 27, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-4).

(m) Except where otherwise expressly specified, the requirements of this Section added by Public Act 103-593 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall apply to services provided on or after July 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-454, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; 103-593, eff. 6-7-24; 103-885, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-7-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-52)

Sec. 5-52. Custom prosthetic and orthotic devices; reimbursement rates. Subject to federal approval, for dates of service beginning on and after January 1, 2025, the Department shall increase the current 2024 Medicaid rate by 7% under the medical assistance program for custom prosthetic and orthotic devices.

(Source: P.A. 103-593, eff. 6-7-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-56)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5-56 5-52. Coverage for hormonal therapy to treat menopause. The medical assistance program shall provide coverage for medically necessary hormone therapy treatment to treat menopause that has been induced by a hysterectomy.

(Source: P.A. 103-703, eff. 1-1-26; revised 10-2-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-57)

Sec. 5-57 5-52. Genetic testing and evidence-based screenings for an inherited gene mutation.

(a) In this Section, "genetic testing for an inherited mutation" means germline multi-gene testing for an inherited mutation associated with an increased risk of cancer in accordance with evidence-based, clinical practice guidelines.

(b) Subject to federal approval, the medical assistance program, after January 1, 2026, shall provide coverage for clinical genetic testing for an inherited gene mutation for individuals with a personal or family history of cancer, as recommended by a health care professional in accordance with current evidence-based clinical practice guidelines, including, but not limited to, the current version of the National Comprehensive Cancer Network clinical practice guidelines.

(c) For individuals with a genetic test that is positive for an inherited mutation associated with an increased risk of cancer, coverage required under this Section shall include any evidence-based screenings, as recommended by a health care professional in accordance with current evidence-based clinical practice guidelines, to the extent that the management recommendation is not already covered by the medical assistance program. In this subsection, "evidence-based cancer screenings" means medically recommended evidence-based screening modalities in accordance with current clinical practice guidelines.

(Source: P.A. 103-914, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(305 ILCS 5/14-12)

Sec. 14-12. Hospital rate reform payment system. The hospital payment system pursuant to Section 14-11 of this Article shall be as follows:

(a) Inpatient hospital services. Effective for discharges on and after July 1, 2014, reimbursement for inpatient general acute care services shall utilize the All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Grouping (APR-DRG) software, version 30, distributed by 3M^TM Health Information System.

(1) The Department shall establish Medicaid weighting factors to be used in the reimbursement system established under this subsection. Initial weighting factors shall be the weighting factors as published by 3M Health Information System, associated with Version 30.0 adjusted for the Illinois experience.

(2) The Department shall establish a statewide-standardized amount to be used in the inpatient reimbursement system. The Department shall publish these amounts on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(3) In addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop adjusters to adjust the rate of reimbursement for critical Medicaid providers or services for trauma, transplantation services, perinatal care, and Graduate Medical Education (GME).

(4) The Department shall develop add-on payments to account for exceptionally costly inpatient stays, consistent with Medicare outlier principles. Outlier fixed loss thresholds may be updated to control for excessive growth in outlier payments no more frequently than on an annual basis, but at least once every 4 years. Upon updating the fixed loss thresholds, the Department shall be required to update base rates within 12 months.

(5) The Department shall define those hospitals or distinct parts of hospitals that shall be exempt from the APR-DRG reimbursement system established under this Section. The Department shall publish these hospitals' inpatient rates on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(6) Beginning July 1, 2014 and ending on December 31, 2023, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop an adjustor to adjust the rate of reimbursement for safety-net hospitals defined in Section 5-5e.1 of this Code excluding pediatric hospitals.

(7) Beginning July 1, 2014, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop an adjustor to adjust the rate of reimbursement for Illinois freestanding inpatient psychiatric hospitals that are not designated as children's hospitals by the Department but are primarily treating patients under the age of 21.

(7.5) (Blank).

(8) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall adjust the rate of reimbursement for hospitals designated by the Department of Public Health as a Perinatal Level II or II+ center by applying the same adjustor that is applied to Perinatal and Obstetrical care cases for Perinatal Level III centers, as of December 31, 2017.

(9) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall apply the same adjustor that is applied to trauma cases as of December 31, 2017 to inpatient claims to treat patients with burns, including, but not limited to, APR-DRGs 841, 842, 843, and 844.

(10) Beginning July 1, 2018, the statewide-standardized amount for inpatient general acute care services shall be uniformly increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 40%.

(11) Beginning July 1, 2018, the reimbursement for inpatient rehabilitation services shall be increased by the addition of a $96 per day add-on.

(b) Outpatient hospital services. Effective for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, reimbursement for outpatient services shall utilize the Enhanced Ambulatory Procedure Grouping (EAPG) software, version 3.7 distributed by 3M^TM Health Information System.

(1) The Department shall establish Medicaid weighting factors to be used in the reimbursement system established under this subsection. The initial weighting factors shall be the weighting factors as published by 3M Health Information System, associated with Version 3.7.

(2) The Department shall establish service specific statewide-standardized amounts to be used in the reimbursement system.

(A) The initial statewide standardized amounts, with the labor portion adjusted by the Calendar Year 2013 Medicare Outpatient Prospective Payment System wage index with reclassifications, shall be published by the Department on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(B) The Department shall establish adjustments to the statewide-standardized amounts for each Critical Access Hospital, as designated by the Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F. For outpatient services provided on or before June 30, 2018, the EAPG standardized amounts are determined separately for each critical access hospital such that simulated EAPG payments using outpatient base period paid claim data plus payments under Section 5A-12.4 of this Code net of the associated tax costs are equal to the estimated costs of outpatient base period claims data with a rate year cost inflation factor applied.

(3) In addition to the statewide-standardized amounts, the Department shall develop adjusters to adjust the rate of reimbursement for critical Medicaid hospital outpatient providers or services, including outpatient high volume or safety-net hospitals. Beginning July 1, 2018, the outpatient high volume adjustor shall be increased to increase annual expenditures associated with this adjustor by $79,200,000, based on the State Fiscal Year 2015 base year data and this adjustor shall apply to public hospitals, except for large public hospitals, as defined under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.25(a).

(4) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide standardized amounts, the Department shall make an add-on payment for outpatient expensive devices and drugs. This add-on payment shall at least apply to claim lines that: (i) are assigned with one of the following EAPGs: 490, 1001 to 1020, and coded with one of the following revenue codes: 0274 to 0276, 0278; or (ii) are assigned with one of the following EAPGs: 430 to 441, 443, 444, 460 to 465, 495, 496, 1090. The add-on payment shall be calculated as follows: the claim line's covered charges multiplied by the hospital's total acute cost to charge ratio, less the claim line's EAPG payment plus $1,000, multiplied by 0.8.

(5) Beginning July 1, 2018, the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services shall be increased by a uniform percentage so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to no less than the funds allocated in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection multiplied by 46%.

(6) Effective for dates of service on or after July 1, 2018, the Department shall establish adjustments to the statewide-standardized amounts for each Critical Access Hospital, as designated by the Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F, such that each Critical Access Hospital's standardized amount for outpatient services shall be increased by the applicable uniform percentage determined pursuant to paragraph (5) of this subsection. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the adjustments required under this paragraph (6) by Public Act 100-1181 shall be applied retroactively to claims for dates of service provided on or after July 1, 2018.

(7) Effective for dates of service on or after March 8, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1181), the Department shall recalculate and implement an updated statewide-standardized amount for outpatient services provided by hospitals that are not Critical Access Hospitals to reflect the applicable uniform percentage determined pursuant to paragraph (5).

(1) Any recalculation to the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services provided by hospitals that are not Critical Access Hospitals shall be the amount necessary to achieve the increase in the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services increased by a uniform percentage, so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to no less than the funds allocated in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection, for all hospitals that are not Critical Access Hospitals, multiplied by 46%.

(2) It is the intent of the General Assembly that the recalculations required under this paragraph (7) by Public Act 100-1181 shall be applied prospectively to claims for dates of service provided on or after March 8, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1181) and that no recoupment or repayment by the Department or an MCO of payments attributable to recalculation under this paragraph (7), issued to the hospital for dates of service on or after July 1, 2018 and before March 8, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1181), shall be permitted.

(8) The Department shall ensure that all necessary adjustments to the managed care organization capitation base rates necessitated by the adjustments under subparagraph (6) or (7) of this subsection are completed and applied retroactively in accordance with Section 5-30.8 of this Code within 90 days of March 8, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1181).

(9) Within 60 days after federal approval of the change made to the assessment in Section 5A-2 by Public Act 101-650, the Department shall incorporate into the EAPG system for outpatient services those services performed by hospitals currently billed through the Non-Institutional Provider billing system.

(b-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, beginning with dates of service on and after January 1, 2023, any general acute care hospital with more than 500 outpatient psychiatric Medicaid services to persons under 19 years of age in any calendar year shall be paid the outpatient add-on payment of no less than $113.

(c) In consultation with the hospital community, the Department is authorized to replace 89 Ill. Adm. Code 152.150 as published in 38 Ill. Reg. 4980 through 4986 within 12 months of June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651). If the Department does not replace these rules within 12 months of June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651), the rules in effect for 152.150 as published in 38 Ill. Reg. 4980 through 4986 shall remain in effect until modified by rule by the Department. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to mandate that the Department file a replacement rule.

(d) Transition period. There shall be a transition period to the reimbursement systems authorized under this Section that shall begin on the effective date of these systems and continue until June 30, 2018, unless extended by rule by the Department. To help provide an orderly and predictable transition to the new reimbursement systems and to preserve and enhance access to the hospital services during this transition, the Department shall allocate a transitional hospital access pool of at least $290,000,000 annually so that transitional hospital access payments are made to hospitals.

(1) After the transition period, the Department may begin incorporating the transitional hospital access pool into the base rate structure; however, the transitional hospital access payments in effect on June 30, 2018 shall continue to be paid, if continued under Section 5A-16.

(2) After the transition period, if the Department reduces payments from the transitional hospital access pool, it shall increase base rates, develop new adjustors, adjust current adjustors, develop new hospital access payments based on updated information, or any combination thereof by an amount equal to the decreases proposed in the transitional hospital access pool payments, ensuring that the entire transitional hospital access pool amount shall continue to be used for hospital payments.

(d-5) Hospital and health care transformation program. The Department shall develop a hospital and health care transformation program to provide financial assistance to hospitals in transforming their services and care models to better align with the needs of the communities they serve. The payments authorized in this Section shall be subject to approval by the federal government.

(1) Phase 1. In State fiscal years 2019 through 2020, the Department shall allocate funds from the transitional access hospital pool to create a hospital transformation pool of at least $262,906,870 annually and make hospital transformation payments to hospitals. Subject to Section 5A-16, in State fiscal years 2019 and 2020, an Illinois hospital that received either a transitional hospital access payment under subsection (d) or a supplemental payment under subsection (f) of this Section in State fiscal year 2018, shall receive a hospital transformation payment as follows:

(A) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is equal to or greater than 45%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 100% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(B) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is equal to or greater than 25% but less than 45%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 75% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(C) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is less than 25%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 50% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(2) Phase 2.

(A) The funding amount from phase one shall be incorporated into directed payment and pass-through payment methodologies described in Section 5A-12.7.

(B) Because there are communities in Illinois that experience significant health care disparities due to systemic racism, as recently emphasized by the COVID-19 pandemic, aggravated by social determinants of health and a lack of sufficiently allocated health care healthcare resources, particularly community-based services, preventive care, obstetric care, chronic disease management, and specialty care, the Department shall establish a health care transformation program that shall be supported by the transformation funding pool. It is the intention of the General Assembly that innovative partnerships funded by the pool must be designed to establish or improve integrated health care delivery systems that will provide significant access to the Medicaid and uninsured populations in their communities, as well as improve health care equity. It is also the intention of the General Assembly that partnerships recognize and address the disparities revealed by the COVID-19 pandemic, as well as the need for post-COVID care. During State fiscal years 2021 through 2027, the hospital and health care transformation program shall be supported by an annual transformation funding pool of up to $150,000,000, pending federal matching funds, to be allocated during the specified fiscal years for the purpose of facilitating hospital and health care transformation. No disbursement of moneys for transformation projects from the transformation funding pool described under this Section shall be considered an award, a grant, or an expenditure of grant funds. Funding agreements made in accordance with the transformation program shall be considered purchases of care under the Illinois Procurement Code, and funds shall be expended by the Department in a manner that maximizes federal funding to expend the entire allocated amount.

The Department shall convene, within 30 days after March 12, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-655), a workgroup that includes subject matter experts on health care healthcare disparities and stakeholders from distressed communities, which could be a subcommittee of the Medicaid Advisory Committee, to review and provide recommendations on how Department policy, including health care transformation, can improve health disparities and the impact on communities disproportionately affected by COVID-19. The workgroup shall consider and make recommendations on the following issues: a community safety-net designation of certain hospitals, racial equity, and a regional partnership to bring additional specialty services to communities.

(C) As provided in paragraph (9) of Section 3 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, any hospital participating in the transformation program may be excluded from the requirements of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act for those projects related to the hospital's transformation. To be eligible, the hospital must submit to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board approval from the Department that the project is a part of the hospital's transformation.

(D) As provided in subsection (a-20) of Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, a hospital that received hospital transformation payments under this Section may convert to a freestanding emergency center. To be eligible for such a conversion, the hospital must submit to the Department of Public Health approval from the Department that the project is a part of the hospital's transformation.

(E) Criteria for proposals. To be eligible for funding under this Section, a transformation proposal shall meet all of the following criteria:

(i) the proposal shall be designed based on community needs assessment completed by either a University partner or other qualified entity with significant community input;

(ii) the proposal shall be a collaboration among providers across the care and community spectrum, including preventative care, primary care specialty care, hospital services, mental health and substance abuse services, as well as community-based entities that address the social determinants of health;

(iii) the proposal shall be specifically designed to improve health care healthcare outcomes and reduce health care healthcare disparities, and improve the coordination, effectiveness, and efficiency of care delivery;

(iv) the proposal shall have specific measurable metrics related to disparities that will be tracked by the Department and made public by the Department;

(v) the proposal shall include a commitment to include Business Enterprise Program certified vendors or other entities controlled and managed by minorities or women; and

(vi) the proposal shall specifically increase access to primary, preventive, or specialty care.

(F) Entities eligible to be funded.

(i) Proposals for funding should come from collaborations operating in one of the most distressed communities in Illinois as determined by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's Social Vulnerability Index for Illinois and areas disproportionately impacted by COVID-19 or from rural areas of Illinois.

(ii) The Department shall prioritize partnerships from distressed communities, which include Business Enterprise Program certified vendors or other entities controlled and managed by minorities or women and also include one or more of the following: safety-net hospitals, critical access hospitals, the campuses of hospitals that have closed since January 1, 2018, or other health care healthcare providers designed to address specific health care healthcare disparities, including the impact of COVID-19 on individuals and the community and the need for post-COVID care. All funded proposals must include specific measurable goals and metrics related to improved outcomes and reduced disparities which shall be tracked by the Department.

(iii) The Department should target the funding in the following ways: $30,000,000 of transformation funds to projects that are a collaboration between a safety-net hospital, particularly community safety-net hospitals, and other providers and designed to address specific health care healthcare disparities, $20,000,000 of transformation funds to collaborations between safety-net hospitals and a larger hospital partner that increases specialty care in distressed communities, $30,000,000 of transformation funds to projects that are a collaboration between hospitals and other providers in distressed areas of the State designed to address specific health care healthcare disparities, $15,000,000 to collaborations between critical access hospitals and other providers designed to address specific health care healthcare disparities, and $15,000,000 to cross-provider collaborations designed to address specific health care healthcare disparities, and $5,000,000 to collaborations that focus on workforce development.

(iv) The Department may allocate up to $5,000,000 for planning, racial equity analysis, or consulting resources for the Department or entities without the resources to develop a plan to meet the criteria of this Section. Any contract for consulting services issued by the Department under this subparagraph shall comply with the provisions of Section 5-45 of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Based on availability of federal funding, the Department may directly procure consulting services or provide funding to the collaboration. The provision of resources under this subparagraph is not a guarantee that a project will be approved.

(v) The Department shall take steps to ensure that safety-net hospitals operating in under-resourced communities receive priority access to hospital and health care healthcare transformation funds, including consulting funds, as provided under this Section.

(G) Process for submitting and approving projects for distressed communities. The Department shall issue a template for application. The Department shall post any proposal received on the Department's website for at least 2 weeks for public comment, and any such public comment shall also be considered in the review process. Applicants may request that proprietary financial information be redacted from publicly posted proposals and the Department in its discretion may agree. Proposals for each distressed community must include all of the following:

(i) A detailed description of how the project intends to affect the goals outlined in this subsection, describing new interventions, new technology, new structures, and other changes to the health care healthcare delivery system planned.

(ii) A detailed description of the racial and ethnic makeup of the entities' board and leadership positions and the salaries of the executive staff of entities in the partnership that is seeking to obtain funding under this Section.

(iii) A complete budget, including an overall timeline and a detailed pathway to sustainability within a 5-year period, specifying other sources of funding, such as in-kind, cost-sharing, or private donations, particularly for capital needs. There is an expectation that parties to the transformation project dedicate resources to the extent they are able and that these expectations are delineated separately for each entity in the proposal.

(iv) A description of any new entities formed or other legal relationships between collaborating entities and how funds will be allocated among participants.

(v) A timeline showing the evolution of sites and specific services of the project over a 5-year period, including services available to the community by site.

(vi) Clear milestones indicating progress toward the proposed goals of the proposal as checkpoints along the way to continue receiving funding. The Department is authorized to refine these milestones in agreements, and is authorized to impose reasonable penalties, including repayment of funds, for substantial lack of progress.

(vii) A clear statement of the level of commitment the project will include for minorities and women in contracting opportunities, including as equity partners where applicable, or as subcontractors and suppliers in all phases of the project.

(viii) If the community study utilized is not the study commissioned and published by the Department, the applicant must define the methodology used, including documentation of clear community participation.

(ix) A description of the process used in collaborating with all levels of government in the community served in the development of the project, including, but not limited to, legislators and officials of other units of local government.

(x) Documentation of a community input process in the community served, including links to proposal materials on public websites.

(xi) Verifiable project milestones and quality metrics that will be impacted by transformation. These project milestones and quality metrics must be identified with improvement targets that must be met.

(xii) Data on the number of existing employees by various job categories and wage levels by the zip code of the employees' residence and benchmarks for the continued maintenance and improvement of these levels. The proposal must also describe any retraining or other workforce development planned for the new project.

(xiii) If a new entity is created by the project, a description of how the board will be reflective of the community served by the proposal.

(xiv) An explanation of how the proposal will address the existing disparities that exacerbated the impact of COVID-19 and the need for post-COVID care in the community, if applicable.

(xv) An explanation of how the proposal is designed to increase access to care, including specialty care based upon the community's needs.

(H) The Department shall evaluate proposals for compliance with the criteria listed under subparagraph (G). Proposals meeting all of the criteria may be eligible for funding with the areas of focus prioritized as described in item (ii) of subparagraph (F). Based on the funds available, the Department may negotiate funding agreements with approved applicants to maximize federal funding. Nothing in this subsection requires that an approved project be funded to the level requested. Agreements shall specify the amount of funding anticipated annually, the methodology of payments, the limit on the number of years such funding may be provided, and the milestones and quality metrics that must be met by the projects in order to continue to receive funding during each year of the program. Agreements shall specify the terms and conditions under which a health care facility that receives funds under a purchase of care agreement and closes in violation of the terms of the agreement must pay an early closure fee no greater than 50% of the funds it received under the agreement, prior to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board considering an application for closure of the facility. Any project that is funded shall be required to provide quarterly written progress reports, in a form prescribed by the Department, and at a minimum shall include the progress made in achieving any milestones or metrics or Business Enterprise Program commitments in its plan. The Department may reduce or end payments, as set forth in transformation plans, if milestones or metrics or Business Enterprise Program commitments are not achieved. The Department shall seek to make payments from the transformation fund in a manner that is eligible for federal matching funds.

In reviewing the proposals, the Department shall take into account the needs of the community, data from the study commissioned by the Department from the University of Illinois-Chicago if applicable, feedback from public comment on the Department's website, as well as how the proposal meets the criteria listed under subparagraph (G). Alignment with the Department's overall strategic initiatives shall be an important factor. To the extent that fiscal year funding is not adequate to fund all eligible projects that apply, the Department shall prioritize applications that most comprehensively and effectively address the criteria listed under subparagraph (G).

(3) (Blank).

(4) Hospital Transformation Review Committee. There is created the Hospital Transformation Review Committee. The Committee shall consist of 14 members. No later than 30 days after March 12, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-581), the 4 legislative leaders shall each appoint 3 members; the Governor shall appoint the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or his or her designee, as a member; and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services shall appoint one member. Any vacancy shall be filled by the applicable appointing authority within 15 calendar days. The members of the Committee shall select a Chair and a Vice-Chair from among its members, provided that the Chair and Vice-Chair cannot be appointed by the same appointing authority and must be from different political parties. The Chair shall have the authority to establish a meeting schedule and convene meetings of the Committee, and the Vice-Chair shall have the authority to convene meetings in the absence of the Chair. The Committee may establish its own rules with respect to meeting schedule, notice of meetings, and the disclosure of documents; however, the Committee shall not have the power to subpoena individuals or documents and any rules must be approved by 9 of the 14 members. The Committee shall perform the functions described in this Section and advise and consult with the Director in the administration of this Section. In addition to reviewing and approving the policies, procedures, and rules for the hospital and health care transformation program, the Committee shall consider and make recommendations related to qualifying criteria and payment methodologies related to safety-net hospitals and children's hospitals. Members of the Committee appointed by the legislative leaders shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the Legislative Ethics Commission, not the Executive Ethics Commission, and all requests under the Freedom of Information Act shall be directed to the applicable Freedom of Information officer for the General Assembly. The Department shall provide operational support to the Committee as necessary. The Committee is dissolved on April 1, 2019.

(e) Beginning 36 months after initial implementation, the Department shall update the reimbursement components in subsections (a) and (b), including standardized amounts and weighting factors, and at least once every 4 years and no more frequently than annually thereafter. The Department shall publish these updates on its website no later than 30 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(f) Continuation of supplemental payments. Any supplemental payments authorized under 89 Illinois Administrative Code 148 effective January 1, 2014 and that continue during the period of July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014 shall remain in effect as long as the assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 that is in effect on December 31, 2017 remains in effect.

(g) Notwithstanding subsections (a) through (f) of this Section and notwithstanding the changes authorized under Section 5-5b.1, any updates to the system shall not result in any diminishment of the overall effective rates of reimbursement as of the implementation date of the new system (July 1, 2014). These updates shall not preclude variations in any individual component of the system or hospital rate variations. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Department from increasing the rates of reimbursement or developing payments to ensure access to hospital services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to guarantee a minimum amount of spending in the aggregate or per hospital as spending may be impacted by factors, including, but not limited to, the number of individuals in the medical assistance program and the severity of illness of the individuals.

(h) The Department shall have the authority to modify by rulemaking any changes to the rates or methodologies in this Section as required by the federal government to obtain federal financial participation for expenditures made under this Section.

(i) Except for subsections (g) and (h) of this Section, the Department shall, pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, provide for presentation at the June 2014 hearing of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules (JCAR) additional written notice to JCAR of the following rules in order to commence the second notice period for the following rules: rules published in the Illinois Register, rule dated February 21, 2014 at 38 Ill. Reg. 4559 (Medical Payment), 4628 (Specialized Health Care Delivery Systems), 4640 (Hospital Services), 4932 (Diagnostic Related Grouping (DRG) Prospective Payment System (PPS)), and 4977 (Hospital Reimbursement Changes), and published in the Illinois Register dated March 21, 2014 at 38 Ill. Reg. 6499 (Specialized Health Care Delivery Systems) and 6505 (Hospital Services).

(j) Out-of-state hospitals. Beginning July 1, 2018, for purposes of determining for State fiscal years 2019 and 2020 and subsequent fiscal years the hospitals eligible for the payments authorized under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, the Department shall include out-of-state hospitals that are designated a Level I pediatric trauma center or a Level I trauma center by the Department of Public Health as of December 1, 2017.

(k) The Department shall notify each hospital and managed care organization, in writing, of the impact of the updates under this Section at least 30 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(l) This Section is subject to Section 14-12.5.

(Source: P.A. 102-682, eff. 12-10-21; 102-1037, eff. 6-2-22; 103-102, eff. 6-16-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 905. The Illinois Caregiver Assistance and Resource Portal Act is amended by changing Section 25-1 as follows:

(320 ILCS 70/25-1)

Sec. 25-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Illinois Caregiver Assistance and Resource Portal Act. As used in this Article, "this Act" refers to this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 910. The Department of Early Childhood Act is amended by changing Section 15-5 as follows:

(325 ILCS 3/15-5)

Sec. 15-5. Transition of administrative responsibilities related to home-visiting services. Beginning July 1, 2024, the Department of Early Childhood and the Department of Human Services shall collaborate and plan for the transition of administrative responsibilities related to home-visiting services as prescribed in Section 10-16 of the Department of Human Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 915. The Child Abuse Notice Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(325 ILCS 6/5)

Sec. 5. Posted notice required. Each of the following businesses and other establishments shall, upon the availability of the model notice described in Section 10, post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous place in all restrooms open to the public, or in another conspicuous location in clear view of the public and employees where similar notices are customarily posted:

(1) Hotels and motels.

(2) Entertainment facilities or sporting facilities that are indoor structures with a legal occupancy of at least 5,000 persons.

(3) Tattoo and body piercing establishments.

(4) Primary airports, as defined in Section 47102(16) of Title 49 of the United States Code.

(5) Intercity passenger rail or light rail stations.

(6) Bus stations.

(7) Truck stops. As used in this Act, "truck stop" means a privately owned privately-owned and operated facility that provides food, fuel, shower, or other sanitary facilities, and lawful overnight truck parking.

(8) Emergency rooms within general acute care hospitals, in which case the notice may be posted by electronic means.

(9) Urgent care centers, in which case the notice may be posted by electronic means.

(Source: P.A. 103-813, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

Section 920. The Children's Mental Health Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(405 ILCS 49/5)

Sec. 5. Children's Mental Health Partnership; Children's Mental Health Plan.

(a) The Children's Mental Health Partnership (hereafter referred to as "the Partnership") created under Public Act 93-495 and continued under Public Act 102-899 shall advise State agencies and the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Initiative on designing and implementing short-term and long-term strategies to provide comprehensive and coordinated services for children from birth to age 25 and their families with the goal of addressing children's mental health needs across a full continuum of care, including social determinants of health, prevention, early identification, and treatment. The recommended strategies shall build upon the recommendations in the Children's Mental Health Plan of 2022 and may include, but are not limited to, recommendations regarding the following:

(1) Increasing public awareness on issues connected to children's mental health and wellness to decrease stigma, promote acceptance, and strengthen the ability of children, families, and communities to access supports.

(2) Coordination of programs, services, and policies across child-serving State agencies to best monitor and assess spending, as well as foster innovation of adaptive or new practices.

(3) Funding and resources for children's mental health prevention, early identification, and treatment across child-serving State agencies.

(4) Facilitation of research on best practices and model programs and dissemination of this information to State policymakers, practitioners, and the general public.

(5) Monitoring programs, services, and policies addressing children's mental health and wellness.

(6) Growing, retaining, diversifying, and supporting the child-serving workforce, with special emphasis on professional development around child and family mental health and wellness services.

(7) Supporting the design, implementation, and evaluation of a quality-driven children's mental health system of care across all child services that prevents mental health concerns and mitigates trauma.

(8) Improving the system to more effectively meet the emergency and residential placement needs for all children with severe mental and behavioral challenges.

(b) The Partnership shall have the responsibility of developing and updating the Children's Mental Health Plan and advising the relevant State agencies on implementation of the Plan. The Children's Mental Health Partnership shall be comprised of the following members:

(1) The Governor or his or her designee.

(2) The Attorney General or his or her designee.

(3) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services or his or her designee.

(4) The State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee.

(5) The Director of the Department of Children and Family Services or his or her designee.

(6) The Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee.

(7) The Director of the Department of Public Health or his or her designee.

(8) The Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice or his or her designee.

(9) The Secretary of Early Childhood or his or her designee.

(10) The Director of the Criminal Justice Information Authority or his or her designee.

(11) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Speaker of the House.

(12) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the President of the Senate.

(13) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(14) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Minority Leader of the House.

(15) Up to 25 representatives from the public reflecting a diversity of age, gender identity, race, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, and geographic location, to be appointed by the Governor. Those public members appointed under this paragraph must include, but are not limited to:

(A) a family member or individual with lived experience in the children's mental health system;

(B) a child advocate;

(C) a community mental health expert, practitioner, or provider;

(D) a representative of a statewide association representing a majority of hospitals in the State;

(E) an early childhood expert or practitioner;

(F) a representative from the K-12 school system;

(G) a representative from the health care healthcare sector;

(H) a substance use prevention expert or practitioner, or a representative of a statewide association representing community-based mental health substance use disorder treatment providers in the State;

(I) a violence prevention expert or practitioner;

(J) a representative from the juvenile justice system;

(K) a school social worker; and

(L) a representative of a statewide organization representing pediatricians.

(16) Two co-chairs appointed by the Governor, one being a representative from the public and one being the Director of Public Health.

The members appointed by the Governor shall be appointed for 4 years with one opportunity for reappointment, except as otherwise provided for in this subsection. Members who were appointed by the Governor and are serving on January 1, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-899) shall maintain their appointment until the term of their appointment has expired. For new appointments made pursuant to Public Act 102-899, members shall be appointed for one-year, 2-year, or 4-year terms, as determined by the Governor, with no more than 9 of the Governor's new or existing appointees serving the same term. Those new appointments serving a one-year or 2-year term may be appointed to 2 additional 4-year terms. If a vacancy occurs in the Partnership membership, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment for the remainder of the term.

The Partnership shall be convened no later than January 31, 2023 to discuss the changes in Public Act 102-899.

The members of the Partnership shall serve without compensation but may be entitled to reimbursement for all necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties as members of the Partnership from funds appropriated for that purpose.

The Partnership may convene and appoint special committees or study groups to operate under the direction of the Partnership. Persons appointed to such special committees or study groups shall only receive reimbursement for reasonable expenses.

(b-5) The Partnership shall include an adjunct council comprised of no more than 6 youth aged 14 to 25 and 4 representatives of 4 different community-based organizations that focus on youth mental health. Of the community-based organizations that focus on youth mental health, one of the community-based organizations shall be led by an LGBTQ-identified person, one of the community-based organizations shall be led by a person of color, and one of the community-based organizations shall be led by a woman. Of the representatives appointed to the council from the community-based organizations, at least one representative shall be LGBTQ-identified, at least one representative shall be a person of color, and at least one representative shall be a woman. The council members shall be appointed by the Chair of the Partnership and shall reflect the racial, gender identity, sexual orientation, ability, socioeconomic, ethnic, and geographic diversity of the State, including rural, suburban, and urban appointees. The council shall make recommendations to the Partnership regarding youth mental health, including, but not limited to, identifying barriers to youth feeling supported by and empowered by the system of mental health and treatment providers, barriers perceived by youth in accessing mental health services, gaps in the mental health system, available resources in schools, including youth's perceptions and experiences with outreach personnel, agency websites, and informational materials, methods to destigmatize mental health services, and how to improve State policy concerning student mental health. The mental health system may include services for substance use disorders and addiction. The council shall meet at least 4 times annually.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Illinois Children's Mental Health Partnership has the following powers and duties:

(1) Conducting research assessments to determine the needs and gaps of programs, services, and policies that touch children's mental health.

(2) Developing policy statements for interagency cooperation to cover all aspects of mental health delivery, including social determinants of health, prevention, early identification, and treatment.

(3) Recommending policies and providing information on effective programs for delivery of mental health services.

(4) Using funding from federal, State, or philanthropic partners, to fund pilot programs or research activities to resource innovative practices by organizational partners that will address children's mental health. However, the Partnership may not provide direct services.

(4.1) The Partnership shall work with community networks and the Children's Behavioral Health Transformation Initiative team to implement a community needs assessment, that will raise awareness of gaps in existing community-based services for youth.

(5) Submitting an annual report, on or before December 30 of each year, to the Governor and the General Assembly on the progress of the Plan, any recommendations regarding State policies, laws, or rules necessary to fulfill the purposes of the Act, and any additional recommendations regarding mental or behavioral health that the Partnership deems necessary.

(6) (Blank).

The Partnership may designate a fiscal and administrative agent that can accept funds to carry out its duties as outlined in this Section.

The Department of Public Health shall provide technical and administrative support for the Partnership.

(e) The Partnership may accept monetary gifts or grants from the federal government or any agency thereof, from any charitable foundation or professional association, or from any reputable source for implementation of any program necessary or desirable to carry out the powers and duties as defined under this Section.

(f) On or before January 1, 2027, the Partnership shall submit recommendations to the Governor and General Assembly that includes recommended updates to the Act to reflect the current mental health landscape in this State.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-116, eff. 7-23-21; 102-899, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1034, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-594, eff. 6-25-24; 103-885, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-9-24.)

Section 925. The First Responder Mental Health Grant Program Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(405 ILCS 135/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Behavioral health" means mental health, health relating to substance use, or both.

"Behavioral health care" means services, treatment, medication, and other measures to overcome, mitigate, or prevent a behavioral health issue. These services, treatment, medication, and other measures qualify as "behavioral health care" even if there is no formal diagnosis of a specific condition.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"First responder" means a law enforcement officer, firefighter, emergency medical services personnel as defined in Section 3.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, or public safety telecommunicator as defined in Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone System Systems Act.

"Record" means any record kept by a therapist or by an agency in the course of providing behavioral health care to a first responder concerning the first responder and the services provided. "Record" includes the personal notes of the therapist or agency. "Record" includes all records maintained by a court that have been created in connection with, in preparation for, or as a result of the filing of any petition or certificate under Chapter II, Chapter III, or Chapter IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code and includes the petitions, certificates, dispositional reports, treatment plans, and reports of diagnostic evaluations and of hearings under Article VIII of Chapter III or under Article V of Chapter IV of that Code. "Record" does not include information that has been de-identified in accordance with HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514. "Record" does not include a reference to the receipt of behavioral health care noted during a patient history and physical or other summary of care.

(Source: P.A. 102-911, eff. 1-1-23; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 930. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. Definitions. When used in this Act:

(a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

(c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(e) "De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

(f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health or its designated agents.

(g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges, (v) a licensed dentist, (vi) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vii) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a State state or local public health department.

(j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health information. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

(m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.

(p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related information" does not include information that has been de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.

(q) "Informed consent" means:

(1) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-in testing, a process by which an individual or the individual's their legal representative receives pre-test information, has an opportunity to ask questions, and consents verbally or in writing to the test without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion; or

(2) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-out testing, the individual or the individual's their legal representative has been notified verbally or in writing that the test is planned, has received pre-test information, has been given the opportunity to ask questions and the opportunity to decline testing, and has not declined testing; where such notice is provided, consent for opt-out HIV testing may be incorporated into the patient's general consent for medical care on the same basis as are other screening or diagnostic tests; a separate consent for opt-out HIV testing is not required.

In addition, where the person providing informed consent is a participant in an HIE, informed consent requires a fair explanation that the results of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right under Section 9.6 of this Act.

A health care provider, health care professional, or health facility undertaking an informed consent process for HIV testing under this subsection may combine a form used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other medical test or procedure, provided that the forms make it clear that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing, and clearly explain how the subject may decline HIV testing. Health facility clerical staff or other staff responsible for the consent form for general medical care may obtain consent for HIV testing through a general consent form.

(r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

(s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

(s-1) "Opt-in testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented by offering the test and the patient accepts or declines testing.

(s-3) "Opt-out testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented such that a patient is notified that HIV testing may occur unless the patient declines.

(t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

(v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

(w-5) "Pre-test information" means:

(1) a reasonable explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a reasonable explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the availability of a qualified person to answer questions, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, or by video, electronic, or other means and may be provided as designated by the supervising health care professional or the health facility.

For the purposes of this definition, a qualified person to answer questions is a health care professional or, when acting under the supervision of a health care professional, a registered nurse, medical assistant, or other person determined to be sufficiently knowledgeable about HIV testing, its purpose, potential uses, limitations, the meaning of the test results, and the testing procedures in the professional judgment of a supervising health care professional or as designated by a health care facility.

(x) "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.

(aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 935. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 513/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

"Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local government, and any board, commission, department, institution, or school district, any party to a public contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee within the State, and every other person employing employees within the State.

"Employment agency" means both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

"Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the individual, including a child who is born to or placed for adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) of this definition.

"Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the workplace.

"Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. "Genetic testing" includes direct-to-consumer commercial genetic testing.

"Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor, or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by a state or local public health department.

"Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

"Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that exchanges health information electronically. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

"Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a managed care plan.

"Labor organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

"Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a license or certificate of registration.

"Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

"Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that have entered into agreements with the plan to provide health care services to enrollees where the plan has the ultimate and direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for the provision of or pay for services through:

(1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution; or

(2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers and procedures covered by the plan.

A managed care plan may be established or operated by any entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited health service organization, preferred provider organization, third party administrator, or an employer or employee organization.

"Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

"Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the individual whom the information concerns.

"Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

"Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

"Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103.

"Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons.

"Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 940. The Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act is amended by changing Section 3.22 as follows:

(410 ILCS 620/3.22) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 503.22)

Sec. 3.22. (a) Whoever knowingly distributes, or possesses with intent to distribute, human growth hormone for any use in humans other than the treatment of a disease or other recognized medical condition, where the use has been authorized by the Secretary of Health and Human Services and under the order of a physician, is guilty of a Class 3 felony, and may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000. As used in this Section, the term "human growth hormone" means somatrem, somatropin, or an analog analogue of either of them.

(b) Whoever distributes, or possesses with intent to distribute, a synthetic drug product or a drug that is misbranded under this Act is guilty of a Class 2 felony and may be fined an amount not to exceed $100,000. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, the fine for which shall not exceed $250,000.

(c) Whoever falsely advertises a synthetic drug product is guilty of a Class 3 felony and may be fined an amount not to exceed $100,000.

(d) Whoever commits any offense set forth in this Section and the offense involves an individual under 18 years of age is punishable by not more than 10 years imprisonment, and twice the fine authorized above. Any conviction for a violation of this Section shall be considered a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act for the purposes of forfeiture under Section 505 of such Act.

(e) Any person convicted under this Section is subject to the forfeiture provisions set forth in subsections (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), and (i) of Section 3.23 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-872, eff. 7-31-12; revised 7-19-24.)

Section 945. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 625/4)

Sec. 4. Cottage food operation.

(a) For the purpose of this Section:

A food is "acidified" if: (i) acid or acid ingredients are added to it to produce a final equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below and a water activity greater than 0.85; or (ii) it is fermented to produce a final equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below.

"Canned food" means food that has been heat processed sufficiently under United States Department of Agriculture guidelines to enable storing the food at normal home temperatures.

"Cottage food operation" means an operation conducted by a person who produces or packages food or drink, other than foods and drinks listed as prohibited in paragraph (1.5) of subsection (b) of this Section, in a kitchen located in that person's primary domestic residence or another appropriately designed and equipped kitchen on a farm for direct sale by the owner, a family member, or an employee.

"Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. "Cut leafy greens" does not mean cut-to-harvest leafy greens.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Employee" means a person who is employed by and receives monetary compensation from a cottage food operator.

"Equilibrium pH" means the final potential of hydrogen measured in an acidified food after all the components of the food have achieved the same acidity.

"Farmers' market" means a common facility or area where farmers gather to sell a variety of fresh fruits and vegetables and other locally produced farm and food products directly to consumers.

"Leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce; romaine lettuce; leaf lettuce; butter lettuce; baby leaf lettuce, such as immature lettuce or leafy greens; escarole; endive; spring mix; spinach; cabbage; kale; arugula; and chard. "Leafy greens" does not include microgreens or herbs such as cilantro or parsley.

"Local health department" means a State-certified health department of a unit of local government in which a cottage food operation is located or, if the cottage food operation is located in a county that does not have a local health department, is registered.

"Local public health department association" means an association solely representing 2 or more State-certified local health departments.

"Low-acid canned food" means any canned food with a finished equilibrium pH greater than 4.6 and a water activity greater than 0.85.

"Microgreen" means an edible plant seedling grown in soil or substrate and harvested above the soil or substrate line.

"Mobile farmers markets" means a farmers market that is operated from a movable motor drive or propelled vehicle or trailer that can change location, including a farmers market that is owned and operated by a farmer or a third party selling products on behalf of farmers or cottage food operations with the intent of a direct sale to an end consumer.

"Sprout" means any seedling intended for human consumption that was produced in a manner that does not meet the definition of microgreen.

"Time/temperature control for safety food" means a food that is stored under time or temperature control for food safety according to the Department's administrative rules.

(b) A cottage food operation may produce homemade food and drink provided that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) (Blank).

(1.3) A cottage food operation must register with the local health department for the unit of local government in which it is located, but may sell products outside of the unit of local government where the cottage food operation is located. If a county does not have a local health department, the county shall enter into an agreement or contract with a local health department in an adjacent county to register cottage food operations in the jurisdiction of the county that does not have a health department. The adjacent local health department where the cottage food operation registers has the powers described in subsection (d). A copy of the certificate of registration must be available upon request by any local health department.

(1.5) A cottage food operation shall not sell or offer to sell the following food items or processed foods containing the following food items, except as indicated:

(A) meat, poultry, fish, seafood, or shellfish;

(B) dairy, except as an ingredient in a baked good or candy that is not a time/temperature control for safety food, such as caramel, subject to paragraph (4), or as an ingredient in a baked good frosting, such as buttercream;

(C) eggs, except as an ingredient in a food that is not a time/temperature control for safety food, including dry noodles, or as an ingredient in a baked good frosting, such as buttercream, if the eggs are not raw;

(D) pumpkin pies, sweet potato pies, cheesecakes, custard pies, creme pies, and pastries with time/temperature control for safety foods that are fillings or toppings;

(E) garlic in oil or oil infused with garlic, except if the garlic oil is acidified;

(F) low-acid canned foods;

(G) sprouts;

(H) cut leafy greens, except for cut leafy greens that are dehydrated, acidified, or blanched and frozen;

(I) cut or pureed fresh tomato or melon;

(J) dehydrated tomato or melon;

(K) frozen cut melon;

(L) wild-harvested, non-cultivated mushrooms;

(M) alcoholic beverages; or

(N) kombucha.

(1.6) In order to sell canned tomatoes or a canned product containing tomatoes, a cottage food operator shall either:

(A) follow exactly a recipe that has been tested by the United States Department of Agriculture or by a state cooperative extension located in this State or any other state in the United States; or

(B) submit the recipe, at the cottage food operator's expense, to a commercial laboratory according to the commercial laboratory's directions to test that the product has been adequately acidified; use only the varietal or proportionate varietals of tomato included in the tested recipe for all subsequent batches of such recipe; and provide documentation of the annual test results of the recipe submitted under this subparagraph upon registration and to an inspector upon request during any inspection authorized by subsection (d).

(2) In order to sell a fermented or acidified food, a cottage food operation shall either:

(A) submit a recipe that has been tested by the United States Department of Agriculture or a cooperative extension system located in this State or any other state in the United States; or

(B) submit a written food safety plan for each category of products for which the cottage food operator uses the same procedures, such as pickles, kimchi, or hot sauce, and a pH test for a single product that is representative of that category; the written food safety plan shall be submitted annually upon registration and each pH test shall be submitted every 3 years; the food safety plan shall adhere to guidelines developed by the Department.

(3) A fermented or acidified food shall be packaged according to one of the following standards:

(A) A fermented or acidified food that is canned must be processed in a boiling water bath in a Mason-style jar or glass container with a tight-fitting lid.

(B) A fermented or acidified food that is not canned shall be sold in any container that is new, clean, and seals properly and must be stored, transported, and sold at or below 41 degrees.

(4) In order to sell a baked good with cheese, a local health department may require a cottage food operation to submit a recipe, at the cottage food operator's expense, to a commercial laboratory to verify that it is not a time/temperature time-or-temperature control for safety food before allowing the cottage food operation to sell the baked good as a cottage food.

(5) For a cottage food operation that does not utilize a municipal water supply, such as an operation using a private well, a local health department may require a water sample test to verify that the water source being used meets public safety standards related to E. coli coliform. If a test is requested, it must be conducted at the cottage food operator's expense.

(6) A person preparing or packaging a product as part of a cottage food operation must be a Department-approved certified food protection manager.

(7) Food packaging must conform with the labeling requirements of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. A cottage food product shall be prepackaged and the food packaging shall be affixed with a prominent label that includes the following:

(A) the name of the cottage food operation and unit of local government in which the cottage food operation is located;

(B) the identifying registration number provided by the local health department on the certificate of registration and the name of the municipality or county in which the registration was filed;

(C) the common or usual name of the food product;

(D) all ingredients of the food product, including any color, artificial flavor, and preservative, listed in descending order by predominance of weight shown with the common or usual names;

(E) the following phrase in prominent lettering: "This product was produced in a home kitchen not inspected by a health department that may also process common food allergens. If you have safety concerns, contact your local health department.";

(F) the date the product was processed; and

(G) allergen labeling as specified under federal labeling requirements.

(8) Food packaging may include the designation "Illinois-grown", "Illinois-sourced", or "Illinois farm product" if the packaged product is a local farm or food product as that term is defined in Section 5 of the Local Food, Farms, and Jobs Act.

(9) In the case of a product that is difficult to properly label or package, or for other reasons, the local health department of the location where the product is sold may grant permission to sell products that are not prepackaged, in which case other prominent written notice shall be provided to the purchaser.

(10) At the point of sale, notice must be provided in a prominent location that states the following: "This product was produced in a home kitchen not inspected by a health department that may also process common food allergens." At a physical display, notice shall be a placard. Online, notice shall be a message on the cottage food operation's online sales interface at the point of sale.

(11) Food and drink produced by a cottage food operation shall be sold directly to consumers for their own consumption and not for resale. Sales directly to consumers include, but are not limited to, sales at or through:

(A) farmers' markets;

(B) fairs, festivals, public events, or online;

(C) pickup from the private home or farm of the cottage food operator, if the pickup is not prohibited by any law of the unit of local government that applies equally to all cottage food operations; in a municipality with a population of 1,000,000 or more, a cottage food operator shall comply with any law of the municipality that applies equally to all home-based businesses;

(D) delivery to the customer;

(E) pickup from a third-party private property with the consent of the third-party property holder; and

(F) mobile farmers markets.

(12) Only food that is not a time/temperature time-or-temperature control for safety food may be shipped. A cottage food product shall not be shipped out of State. Each cottage food product that is shipped must be sealed in a manner that reveals tampering, including, but not limited to, a sticker or pop top.

(13) Alcohol may be used to make extracts, such as vanilla extract, or may be used as an ingredient in baked goods as long as the created product is not intended for use as a beverage.

(14) Time/temperature control for safety foods shall be maintained and transported at holding temperatures as set in the Department's administrative rules to ensure the food's safety and limit microorganism growth or toxin formation.

(15) A product assessment of pH and water activity may be used to show that a product is non-time or temperature controlled for food safety and does not require temperature control.

(c) A local health department shall register any eligible cottage food operation that meets the requirements of this Section and shall issue a certificate of registration with an identifying registration number to each registered cottage food operation. A local health department may establish a self-certification program for cottage food operators to affirm compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations. Registration shall be completed annually and the local health department may impose a fee not to exceed $50.

(d) In the event of a consumer complaint or foodborne illness outbreak, upon notice from a different local health department, or if the Department or a local health department has reason to believe that an imminent health hazard exists or that a cottage food operation's product has been found to be misbranded, adulterated, or not in compliance with the conditions for cottage food operations set forth in this Section, the Department or the local health department may:

(1) inspect the premises of the cottage food operation in question;

(2) set a reasonable fee for the inspection; and

(3) invoke penalties and the cessation of the sale of cottage food products until it deems that the situation has been addressed to the satisfaction of the Department or local health department; if the situation is not amenable to being addressed, the local health department may revoke the cottage food operation's registration following a process outlined by the local health department.

(e) A local health department that receives a consumer complaint or a report of foodborne illness related to a cottage food operator in another jurisdiction shall refer the complaint or report to the local health department where the cottage food operator is registered.

(f) By January 1, 2022, the Department, in collaboration with local public health department associations and other stakeholder groups, shall write and issue administrative guidance to local health departments on the following:

(1) development of a standard registration form, including, if applicable, a written food safety plan;

(2) development of a Home-Certification Self Checklist Form;

(3) development of a standard inspection form and inspection procedures; and

(4) procedures for cottage food operation workspaces that include, but are not limited to, cleaning products, general sanitation, and requirements for functional equipment.

(g) A person who produces or packages a baked good that is not a time/temperature control for safety food for sale by a religious, charitable, or nonprofit organization for fundraising purposes is exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(h) A home rule unit may not regulate cottage food operations in a manner inconsistent with the regulation by the State of cottage food operations under this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(i) The Department may adopt rules as may be necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-633, eff. 1-1-22; 103-903, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-25-24.)

Section 950. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 7-30, 10-45, 15-20, 15-36, 15-70, and 20-15 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/7-30)

Sec. 7-30. Reporting. By January 1, 2021, and on January 1 of every year thereafter, or upon request by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer, each cannabis business establishment licensed under this Act and the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act shall report to the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer, on a form to be provided by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer, information that will allow it to assess the extent of diversity in the medical and adult use cannabis industry and methods for reducing or eliminating any identified barriers to entry, including access to capital. Failure of a cannabis business establishment to respond to the request of the Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to complete the form, report, and any other request for information may be grounds for disciplinary action by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture. The information to be collected shall be designed to identify the following:

(1) the number and percentage of licenses provided to Social Equity Applicants and to businesses owned by minorities, women, veterans, and people with disabilities;

(2) the total number and percentage of employees in the cannabis industry who meet the criteria in item (3)(i) or (3)(ii) in the definition of Social Equity Applicant or who are minorities, women, veterans, or people with disabilities;

(3) the total number and percentage of contractors and subcontractors in the cannabis industry that meet the definition of a Social Equity Applicant or who are owned by minorities, women, veterans, or people with disabilities, if known to the cannabis business establishment; and

(4) recommendations on reducing or eliminating any identified barriers to entry, including access to capital, in the cannabis industry.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; revised 7-19-24.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-45)

Sec. 10-45. Cannabis Equity Commission.

(a) The Cannabis Equity Commission is created and shall reflect the diversity of the State of Illinois, including geographic, racial, and ethnic diversity. The Cannabis Equity Commission shall be responsible for the following:

(1) Ensuring that equity goals in the Illinois cannabis industry, as stated in Section 10-40, are met.

(2) Tracking and analyzing minorities in the marketplace.

(3) Ensuring that revenue is being invested properly into R3 areas under Section 10-40.

(4) Recommending changes to make the law more equitable to communities harmed the most by the war on drugs.

(5) Create standards to protect true social equity applicants from predatory businesses.

(b) The Cannabis Equity Commission's ex officio members shall, within 4 months after March 23, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-658) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, convene the Commission to appoint a full Cannabis Equity Commission and oversee, provide guidance to, and develop an administrative structure for the Cannabis Equity Commission. The ex officio members are:

(1) The Governor, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair.

(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee.

(3) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee.

(4) The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee.

(5) The Director of Corrections, or his or her designee.

(6) The Secretary Director of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee.

(7) The Director of Agriculture, or his or her designee.

(8) The Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, or his or her designee.

(9) The Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee.

(10) A member of the Senate, designated by the President of the Senate.

(11) A member of the House of Representatives, designated by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(12) A member of the Senate, designated by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(13) A member of the House of Representatives, designated by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(c) Within 90 days after the ex officio members convene, the following members shall be appointed to the Commission by the chair:

(1) Four community-based providers or community development organization representatives who provide services to treat violence and address the social determinants of health, or promote community investment, including, but not limited to, services such as job placement and training, educational services, workforce development programming, and wealth building. No more than 2 community-based organization representatives shall work primarily in Cook County. At least one of the community-based providers shall have expertise in providing services to an immigrant population.

(2) Two experts in the field of violence reduction.

(3) One male who has previously been incarcerated and is over the age of 24 at the time of appointment.

(4) One female who has previously been incarcerated and is over the age of 24 at the time of appointment.

(5) Two individuals who have previously been incarcerated and are between the ages of 17 and 24 at the time of appointment.

As used in this subsection (c), "an individual who has been previously incarcerated" has the same meaning as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 10-40.

(Source: P.A. 101-658, eff. 3-23-21; revised 7-19-24.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-20)

Sec. 15-20. Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License; secondary site.

(a) Any medical cannabis dispensing organization holding a valid registration under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department for an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to operate a dispensing organization to serve purchasers at a secondary site not within 1,500 feet of another medical cannabis dispensing organization or adult use dispensing organization. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization secondary site shall be within any BLS Region that shares territory with the dispensing organization district to which the medical cannabis dispensing organization is assigned under the administrative rules for dispensing organizations under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(a-5) If, within 360 days of the effective date of this Act, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Regions prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section in which to operate an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site because no jurisdiction within the prescribed area allows the operation of an Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may waive the geographic restrictions of subsection (a) of this Section and specify another BLS Region into which the dispensary may be placed.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A medical cannabis dispensing organization seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to serve purchasers at a secondary site as prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. The application must meet or include the following qualifications:

(1) a payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $30,000;

(2) proof of registration as a medical cannabis dispensing organization that is in good standing;

(3) submission of the application by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis dispensing organization registration;

(4) the legal name of the medical cannabis dispensing organization;

(5) the physical address of the medical cannabis dispensing organization and the proposed physical address of the secondary site;

(6) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance Sections relevant to dispensary operations and documentation of the approval, the conditional approval or the status of a request for zoning approval from the local zoning office that the proposed dispensary location is in compliance with the local zoning rules;

(7) a plot plan of the dispensary drawn to scale. The applicant shall submit general specifications of the building exterior and interior layout;

(8) a statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(9) for the building or land to be used as the proposed dispensary:

(A) if the property is not owned by the applicant, a written statement from the property owner and landlord, if any, certifying consent that the applicant may operate a dispensary on the premises; or

(B) if the property is owned by the applicant, confirmation of ownership;

(10) a copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(11) a copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) a description of services to be offered; and

(B) a description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(12) a copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) a description of the delivery process by which cannabis will be received from a transporting organization, including receipt of manifests and protocols that will be used to avoid diversion, theft, or loss at the dispensary acceptance point; and

(B) the process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, patients, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(C) the process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(13) a proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(14) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) a nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to $200,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(16) a commitment to completing one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans in subsection (d).

(d) Before receiving an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, a dispensing organization shall indicate the Social Equity Inclusion Plan that the applicant plans to achieve before the expiration of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License from the list below:

(1) make a contribution of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by paragraph (16) of subsection (c) of this Section;

(2) make a grant of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(3) make a donation of $100,000 or more to a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(4) participate as a host in a cannabis business establishment incubator program approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant. In this paragraph (4), "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued under this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder fails to find a business to incubate in order to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection before the expiration of its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to avoid a penalty; or

(5) participate in a sponsorship program for at least 2 years approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide an interest-free loan of at least $200,000 to a Social Equity Applicant. The sponsor shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving sponsorship services to comply with this subsection.

(e) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(f) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (c) of this Section, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified. Principal officers shall not be required to submit to the fingerprint and background check requirements of Section 5-20.

(g) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in subsection (c), the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(h) Once all required information and documents have been submitted, the Department will review the application. The Department may request revisions and retains final approval over dispensary features. Once the application is complete and meets the Department's approval, the Department shall conditionally approve the license. Final approval is contingent on the build-out and Department inspection.

(i) Upon submission of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site application, the applicant shall request an inspection and the Department may inspect the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization's secondary site to confirm compliance with the application and this Act.

(j) The Department shall only issue an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site after the completion of a successful inspection.

(k) If an applicant passes the inspection under this Section, the Department shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 10 business days unless:

(1) the The licensee, any principal officer or board member of the licensee, or any person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois; or

(2) the The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation determines there is reason, based on documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at its secondary site.

(l) Once the Department has issued a license, the dispensing organization shall notify the Department of the proposed opening date.

(m) A registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site may begin selling cannabis, cannabis-infused products, paraphernalia, and related items to purchasers under the rules of this Act no sooner than January 1, 2020.

(n) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products, a dispensing organization holding both a dispensing organization license under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and this Article shall prioritize serving qualifying patients and caregivers before serving purchasers.

(o) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site is valid until March 31, 2021. A dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and inform the license holder that it may renew its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site. The Department shall renew an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 60 days of submission of the renewal application being deemed complete if:

(1) the dispensing organization submits an application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $30,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department has not suspended or permanently revoked the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license held by the same person or entity for violating this Act or rules adopted under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or rules adopted under that Act; and

(3) the dispensing organization has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided by paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (d) of this Section or has made substantial progress toward completing a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided by paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(p) The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licensee at a secondary site renewed pursuant to subsection (o) shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant has meet all of the criteria in Section 15-36.

(q) If a dispensing organization fails to submit an application for renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License before the expiration dates provided in subsections (o) and (p) of this Section, the dispensing organization shall cease serving purchasers until it receives a renewal or an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(r) A dispensing organization agent who holds a valid dispensing organization agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the dispensing organization licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a dispensing organization agent.

(s) If the Department suspends, permanently revokes, or otherwise disciplines the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension, permanent revocation, or other discipline as grounds to take disciplinary action against the medical cannabis dispensing organization.

(t) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, unless otherwise specified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; revised 7-19-24.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-36)

Sec. 15-36. Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(a) A person is only eligible to receive an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License if the person has been awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to this Act or has renewed its license pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 15-15 or subsection (p) of Section 15-20.

(b) The Department shall not issue an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License until:

(1) the Department has inspected the dispensary site and proposed operations and verified that they are in compliance with this Act and local zoning laws;

(2) the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder has paid a license fee of $60,000 or a prorated amount accounting for the difference of time between when the Adult Use Dispensing Organization License is issued and March 31 of the next even-numbered year; and

(3) the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder has met all the requirements in this Act and rules.

(c) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 10 dispensing organizations licensed under this Article. Further, no person or entity that is:

(1) employed by, is an agent of, or participates in the management of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization;

(2) a principal officer of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization; or

(3) an entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization; shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a dispensing organization that would result in such person or entity owning or participating in the management of more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses at a secondary site, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses. For the purpose of this subsection, participating in management may include, without limitation, controlling decisions regarding staffing, pricing, purchasing, marketing, store design, hiring, and website design.

(d) The Department shall deny an application if granting that application would result in a person or entity obtaining direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or any combination thereof. If a person or entity is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that would cause the person or entity to be in violation of this subsection, he, she, or it shall choose which license application it wants to abandon and such licenses shall become available to the next qualified applicant in the region in which the abandoned license was awarded.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; revised 7-19-24.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-70)

Sec. 15-70. Operational requirements; prohibitions.

(a) A dispensing organization shall operate in accordance with the representations made in its application and license materials. It shall be in compliance with this Act and rules.

(b) A dispensing organization must include the legal name of the dispensary on the packaging of any cannabis product it sells.

(c) All cannabis, cannabis-infused products, and cannabis seeds must be obtained from an Illinois registered adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or another dispensary.

(d) Dispensing organizations are prohibited from selling any product containing alcohol except tinctures, which must be limited to containers that are no larger than 100 milliliters.

(e) A dispensing organization shall inspect and count product received from a transporting organization, adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, or other dispensing organization before dispensing it.

(f) A dispensing organization may only accept cannabis deliveries into a restricted access area. Deliveries may not be accepted through the public or limited access areas unless otherwise approved by the Department.

(g) A dispensing organization shall maintain compliance with State and local building, fire, and zoning requirements or regulations.

(h) A dispensing organization shall submit a list to the Department of the names of all service professionals that will work at the dispensary. The list shall include a description of the type of business or service provided. Changes to the service professional list shall be promptly provided. No service professional shall work in the dispensary until the name is provided to the Department on the service professional list.

(i) A dispensing organization's license allows for a dispensary to be operated only at a single location.

(j) A dispensary may operate between 6 a.m. and 10 p.m. local time.

(k) A dispensing organization must keep all lighting outside and inside the dispensary in good working order and wattage sufficient for security cameras.

(l) A dispensing organization must keep all air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors in good working order.

(m) A dispensing organization must contract with a private security contractor that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 to provide on-site security at all hours of the dispensary's operation.

(n) A dispensing organization shall ensure that any building or equipment used by a dispensing organization for the storage or sale of cannabis is maintained in a clean and sanitary condition.

(o) The dispensary shall be free from infestation by insects, rodents, or pests.

(p) A dispensing organization shall not:

(1) Produce or manufacture cannabis;

(2) Accept a cannabis product from an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, dispensing organization, or transporting organization unless it is pre-packaged and labeled in accordance with this Act and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act;

(3) Obtain cannabis or cannabis-infused products from outside the State of Illinois;

(4) Sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a purchaser unless the dispensing organization is licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, and the individual is registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program or the purchaser has been verified to be 21 years of age or older;

(5) Enter into an exclusive agreement with any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser. Dispensaries shall provide consumers an assortment of products from various cannabis business establishment licensees such that the inventory available for sale at any dispensary from any single cultivation center, craft grower, processor, transporter, or infuser entity shall not be more than 40% of the total inventory available for sale. For the purpose of this subsection, a cultivation center, craft grower, processor, or infuser shall be considered part of the same entity if the licensees share at least one principal officer. The Department may request that a dispensary diversify its products as needed or otherwise discipline a dispensing organization for violating this requirement;

(6) Refuse to conduct business with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, transporting organization, or infuser that has the ability to properly deliver the product and is permitted by the Department of Agriculture, on the same terms as other adult use cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, or transporters with whom it is dealing;

(7) Operate drive-through windows;

(8) Allow for the dispensing of cannabis or cannabis-infused products in vending machines;

(9) Transport cannabis to residences or other locations where purchasers may be for delivery;

(10) Enter into agreements to allow persons who are not dispensing organization agents to deliver cannabis or to transport cannabis to purchasers;

(11) Operate a dispensary if its video surveillance equipment is inoperative;

(12) Operate a dispensary if the point-of-sale equipment is inoperative;

(13) Operate a dispensary if the State's cannabis electronic verification system is inoperative;

(14) Have fewer than 2 people working at the dispensary at any time while the dispensary is open;

(15) Be located within 1,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20;

(16) Sell clones or any other live plant material;

(17) Sell cannabis, cannabis concentrate, or cannabis-infused products in combination or bundled with each other or any other items for one price, and each item of cannabis, concentrate, or cannabis-infused product must be separately identified by quantity and price on the receipt;

(18) Violate any other requirements or prohibitions set by Department rules.

(q) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of such licensee to accept, receive, or borrow money or anything else of value or accept or receive credit (other than merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for a period not to exceed 30 days) directly or indirectly from any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization in exchange for preferential placement on the dispensing organization's shelves, display cases, or website. This includes anything received or borrowed or from any stockholders, officers, agents, or persons connected with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization.

(r) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program to enter into any contract with any person licensed to cultivate, process, or transport cannabis whereby such dispensing organization agrees not to sell any cannabis cultivated, processed, transported, manufactured, or distributed by any other cultivator, transporter, or infuser, and any provision in any contract violative of this Section shall render the whole of such contract void and no action shall be brought thereon in any court.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; revised 7-23-24.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center application.

(a) If the Department of Agriculture makes available additional cultivation center licenses pursuant to Section 20-5, applicants for a Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License shall electronically submit the following in such form as the Department of Agriculture may direct:

(1) the nonrefundable application fee set by rule by the Department of Agriculture, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the legal name of the cultivation center;

(3) the proposed physical address of the cultivation center;

(4) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the cultivation center; each principal officer and board member shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) the details of any administrative or judicial proceeding in which any of the principal officers or board members of the cultivation center (i) pled guilty, were convicted, were fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked, or (ii) managed or served on the board of a business or non-profit organization that pled guilty, was convicted, was fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked;

(6) proposed operating bylaws that include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, including the development and implementation of a plant monitoring system, accurate recordkeeping, staffing plan, and security plan approved by the Illinois State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued by the Department of Agriculture under this Act. A physical inventory shall be performed of all plants and cannabis on a weekly basis by the cultivation center;

(7) verification from the Illinois State Police that all background checks of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the cannabis business establishment have been conducted;

(8) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance or permit and verification that the proposed cultivation center is in compliance with the local zoning rules and distance limitations established by the local jurisdiction;

(9) proposed employment practices, in which the applicant must demonstrate a plan of action to inform, hire, and educate minorities, women, veterans, and persons with disabilities, engage in fair labor practices, and provide worker protections;

(10) whether an applicant can demonstrate experience in or business practices that promote economic empowerment in Disproportionately Impacted Areas;

(11) experience with the cultivation of agricultural or horticultural products, operating an agriculturally related business, or operating a horticultural business;

(12) a description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be grown, harvested, manufactured, processed, packaged, or otherwise prepared for distribution to a dispensing organization;

(13) a survey of the enclosed, locked facility, including the space used for cultivation;

(14) cultivation, processing, inventory, and packaging plans;

(15) a description of the applicant's experience with agricultural cultivation techniques and industry standards;

(16) a list of any academic degrees, certifications, or relevant experience of all prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the related business;

(17) the identity of every person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the cultivation center operation with respect to which the license is sought, whether a trust, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or sole proprietorship, including the name and address of each person;

(18) a plan describing how the cultivation center will address each of the following:

(i) energy needs, including estimates of monthly electricity and gas usage, to what extent it will procure energy from a local utility or from on-site generation, and if it has or will adopt a sustainable energy use and energy conservation policy;

(ii) water needs, including estimated water draw and if it has or will adopt a sustainable water use and water conservation policy; and

(iii) waste management, including if it has or will adopt a waste reduction policy;

(19) a diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity;

(20) any other information required by rule;

(21) a recycling plan:

(A) Purchaser packaging, including cartridges, shall be accepted by the applicant and recycled.

(B) Any recyclable waste generated by the cannabis cultivation facility shall be recycled per applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules.

(C) Any cannabis waste, liquid waste, or hazardous waste shall be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460, except, to the greatest extent feasible, all cannabis plant waste will be rendered unusable by grinding and incorporating the cannabis plant waste with compostable mixed waste to be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460(g)(1);

(22) commitment to comply with local waste provisions: a cultivation facility must remain in compliance with applicable State and federal environmental requirements, including, but not limited to:

(A) storing, securing, and managing all recyclables and waste, including organic waste composed of or containing finished cannabis and cannabis products, in accordance with applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules; and

(B) disposing liquid waste containing cannabis or byproducts of cannabis processing in compliance with all applicable State and federal requirements, including, but not limited to, the cannabis cultivation facility's permits under Title X of the Environmental Protection Act; and

(23) a commitment to a technology standard for resource efficiency of the cultivation center facility.

(A) A cannabis cultivation facility commits to use resources efficiently, including energy and water. For the following, a cannabis cultivation facility commits to meet or exceed the technology standard identified in items (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), which may be modified by rule:

(i) lighting systems, including light bulbs;

(ii) HVAC system;

(iii) water application system to the crop; and

(iv) filtration system for removing contaminants from wastewater.

(B) Lighting. The Lighting Power Densities (LPD) for cultivation space commits to not exceed an average of 36 watts per gross square foot of active and growing space canopy, or all installed lighting technology shall meet a photosynthetic photon efficacy (PPE) of no less than 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture and shall be featured on the DesignLights Consortium (DLC) Horticultural Specification Qualified Products List (QPL). In the event that DLC requirement for minimum efficacy exceeds 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture, that PPE shall become the new standard.

(C) HVAC.

(i) For cannabis grow operations with less than 6,000 square feet of canopy, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be high-efficiency ductless split HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(ii) For cannabis grow operations with 6,000 square feet of canopy or more, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be variable refrigerant flow HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(D) Water application.

(i) The cannabis cultivation facility commits to use automated watering systems, including, but not limited to, drip irrigation and flood tables, to irrigate cannabis crop.

(ii) The cannabis cultivation facility commits to measure runoff from watering events and report this volume in its water usage plan, and that on average, watering events shall have no more than 20% of runoff of water.

(E) Filtration. The cultivator commits that HVAC condensate, dehumidification water, excess runoff, and other wastewater produced by the cannabis cultivation facility shall be captured and filtered to the best of the facility's ability to achieve the quality needed to be reused in subsequent watering rounds.

(F) Reporting energy use and efficiency as required by rule.

(b) Applicants must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 20-10, to the Department of Agriculture. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(c) If the Department of Agriculture receives an application with missing information, the Department of Agriculture may issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A cultivation center that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License pursuant to the criteria in Section 20-20 shall not grow, purchase, possess, or sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the person has received an Adult Use Cultivation Center License issued by the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 20-21 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 955. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 9.2, 12, 12.7, 39.5, 57.4, 57.5, 57.8, 57.9, 59.1, 59.9, and 59.10 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 22.23e as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/9.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1009.2)

Sec. 9.2. Sulfur dioxide emission standards.

(a) (Blank.)

(b) In granting any alternative emission standard or variance relating to sulfur dioxide emissions from a coal-burning stationary source, the Board may require the use of Illinois coal as a condition of such alternative standard or variance, provided that the Board determines that Illinois coal of the proper quality is available and competitive in price; such determination shall include consideration of the cost of pollution control equipment and the economic impact on the Illinois coal mining industry.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 9-26-02; revised 7-24-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1012)

Sec. 12. Actions prohibited. No person shall:

(a) Cause or threaten or allow the discharge of any contaminants into the environment in any State so as to cause or tend to cause water pollution in Illinois, either alone or in combination with matter from other sources, or so as to violate regulations or standards adopted by the Pollution Control Board under this Act. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, compliance with the terms and conditions of a permit issued under Section 39(b) of this the Act for a permit that authorizes reuse of wastewater for irrigation shall be deemed compliance with this subsection.

(b) Construct, install, or operate any equipment, facility, vessel, or aircraft capable of causing or contributing to water pollution, or designed to prevent water pollution, of any type designated by Board regulations, without a permit granted by the Agency, or in violation of any conditions imposed by such permit.

(c) Increase the quantity or strength of any discharge of contaminants into the waters, or construct or install any sewer or sewage treatment facility or any new outlet for contaminants into the waters of this State, without a permit granted by the Agency.

(d) Deposit any contaminants upon the land in such place and manner so as to create a water pollution hazard.

(e) Sell, offer, or use any article in any area in which the Board has by regulation forbidden its sale, offer, or use for reasons of water pollution control.

(f) Cause, threaten, or allow the discharge of any contaminant into the waters of the State, as defined herein, including, but not limited to, waters to any sewage works, or into any well or from any point source within the State, without an NPDES permit for point source discharges issued by the Agency under Section 39(b) of this Act, or in violation of any term or condition imposed by such permit, or in violation of any NPDES permit filing requirement established under Section 39(b), or in violation of any regulations adopted by the Board or of any order adopted by the Board with respect to the NPDES program.

No permit shall be required under this subsection and under Section 39(b) of this Act for any discharge for which a permit is not required under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

For all purposes of this Act, a permit issued by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency under Section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall be deemed to be a permit issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 39(b) of this Act. However, this shall not apply to the exclusion from the requirement of an operating permit provided under Section 13(b)(i).

Compliance with the terms and conditions of any permit issued under Section 39(b) of this Act shall be deemed compliance with this subsection except that it shall not be deemed compliance with any standard or effluent limitation imposed for a toxic pollutant injurious to human health.

In any case where a permit has been timely applied for pursuant to Section 39(b) of this Act but final administrative disposition of such application has not been made, it shall not be a violation of this subsection to discharge without such permit unless the complainant proves that final administrative disposition has not been made because of the failure of the applicant to furnish information reasonably required or requested in order to process the application.

(g) Cause, threaten, or allow the underground injection of contaminants without a UIC permit issued by the Agency under Section 39(d) of this Act, or in violation of any term or condition imposed by such permit, or in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board or of any order adopted by the Board with respect to the UIC program.

No permit shall be required under this subsection and under Section 39(d) of this Act for any underground injection of contaminants for which a permit is not required under Part C of the Safe Drinking Water Act (P.L. 93-523), as amended, unless a permit is authorized or required under regulations adopted by the Board pursuant to Section 13 of this Act.

(h) Introduce contaminants into a sewage works from any nondomestic source except in compliance with the regulations and standards adopted by the Board under this Act.

(i) Beginning January 1, 2013 or 6 months after the date of issuance of a general NPDES permit for surface discharging private sewage disposal systems by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, whichever is later, construct or install a surface discharging private sewage disposal system that discharges into the waters of the United States, as that term is used in the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, unless he or she has a coverage letter under a NPDES permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or by the United States Environmental Protection Agency or he or she is constructing or installing the surface discharging private sewage disposal system in a jurisdiction in which the local public health department has a general NPDES permit issued by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or by the United States Environmental Protection Agency and the surface discharging private sewage disposal system is covered under the general NPDES permit.

(Source: P.A. 103-801, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-25-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/12.7)

Sec. 12.7. Wastewater reuse. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the use of treated municipal wastewater from a publicly owned treatment works is authorized for irrigation when conducted in accordance with a permit issued under Section 39(b) of this the Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-801, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.23e)

Sec. 22.23e. Paint and paint-related wastes.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Paint" means a pigmented or unpigmented powder coating, or a pigmented or unpigmented mixture of binder and suitable liquid, that forms an adherent coating when applied to a surface. Powder coating is a surface coating that is applied as a dry powder and is fused into a continuous coating film through the use of heat. "Paint" includes architectural paint as defined in the Paint Stewardship Act.

"Paint-related waste" is (i) material contaminated with paint that results from the packaging of paint, wholesale and retail operations, paint manufacturing, and paint application or removal activities or (ii) material derived from the reclamation of paint-related wastes that is recycled in a manner other than burning for energy recovery or used in a manner constituting disposal.

(b)(1) Paint and paint-related waste that are hazardous waste are hereby designated as a category of universal waste subject to the streamlined hazardous waste rules set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733. Within 60 days after January 1, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-887) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, the Agency shall propose, and within 180 days after receipt of the Agency's proposal the Board shall adopt, rules that reflect this designation and that prescribe procedures and standards for the management of hazardous waste paint and paint-related waste as a universal waste consistent with the provisions set forth within this Section.

(2) If the United States Environmental Protection Agency adopts streamlined hazardous waste regulations pertaining to the management of hazardous waste paint or paint-related waste, or otherwise exempts such paint or paint-related waste from regulation as hazardous waste, the Board shall adopt an equivalent rule in accordance with Section 7.2 of this Act within 180 days of adoption of the federal regulation. The equivalent Board rule may serve as an alternative to the rules adopted under paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

(c) Until the Board adopts rules pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (b) that prescribe procedures and standards for the management of hazardous waste paint and paint-related waste by small quantity handlers of universal waste, the following requirements shall apply to small quantity handlers of universal waste managing hazardous waste paint and paint-related waste as a universal waste:

(1) Waste Management. A small quantity handler of universal waste shall manage universal waste paint and paint-related waste in a way that prevents releases of any universal waste or any component of universal waste to the environment, including, but not limited to, in accordance with the following requirements:

(A) The small quantity handler of universal waste shall collect and store universal waste paint and paint-related waste in containers that are structurally sound, leakproof, and compatible with the universal waste paint and paint-related waste.

(B) The small quantity handler of universal waste shall ensure that containers in which the universal waste paint and paint-related waste are contained do not leak and remain closed, except when wastes are being added to or removed from the container.

(C) The small quantity handler of universal waste, upon detection of a release of universal waste paint and paint-related waste, shall do the following:

(i) Stop the release.

(ii) Contain the released universal waste paint and paint-related waste.

(iii) Clean up and properly manage the released universal waste paint and paint-related waste and other materials generated from the cleanup.

(iv) Remove any leaking container from service by transferring the contents to another container.

(v) Repair any leaking container before returning it to service.

(D) A small quantity handler of universal waste shall manage universal waste paint and paint-related waste that is ignitable or reactive in accordance with local fire codes.

(E) A small quantity handler of universal waste shall manage universal waste paint and paint-related waste that are incompatible in separate containers.

(F) A small quantity handler of universal waste shall design, maintain, and operate areas of its facility where universal waste paints and paint-related wastes are collected and stored to minimize the possibility of a fire, explosion, or unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of universal waste or hazardous constituents to air, soil, or surface water which could threaten human health or the environment.

(2) Labeling or marking. Each container in which universal waste paint and paint-related waste is accumulated shall be labeled to identify the contents of the container.

(3) Accumulation time limits.

(A) A small quantity handler of universal waste may accumulate universal waste paint and paint-related waste for no longer than one year from the date the universal waste is generated. However, handlers may accumulate universal waste for longer than one year if the activity is solely for the purpose of accumulating quantities to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or disposal. The handler bears the burden of proving that this activity is solely for the purpose of accumulation of the quantities of universal waste necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or disposal.

(B) A small quantity handler of universal waste who accumulates universal waste must be able to demonstrate the length of time that the universal waste has been accumulated. The handler may make this demonstration by any of the following methods:

(i) placing the universal waste paint and paint-related waste in a container and marking or labeling the container with the earliest date that universal waste paint or paint-related waste in the container became a waste or was received;

(ii) marking or labeling each individual item of universal waste paint and paint-related waste with the date the universal waste paint and paint-related waste became a waste or was received;

(iii) maintaining an inventory system on-site that identifies the date each unit of universal waste paint and paint-related waste became a waste or was received;

(iv) placing universal waste paint and paint-related waste in a specific accumulation area and identifying the earliest date that any of the universal waste paint and paint-related waste in the area became a waste or was received; or

(v) any other method that clearly demonstrates the length of time the universal waste paint and paint-related waste have been accumulated from the date they become a waste or are received.

(4) Employee training. A small quantity handler of universal waste shall inform all employees who handle or have responsibility for managing universal waste paint and paint-related waste. The information shall describe proper handling and emergency procedures appropriate to the universal waste paint and paint-related waste.

(5) Response to releases.

(A) A small quantity handler of universal waste must immediately contain all releases of universal waste paint and paint-related waste and other residues from universal waste paint and paint-related waste.

(B) A small quantity handler of universal waste must determine whether any material resulting from the release is hazardous waste and, if so, must manage the hazardous waste in compliance with all applicable hazardous waste requirements of this Act and rules adopted under this Act. The handler is considered the generator of the material resulting from the release and must manage the material in compliance with this Act and rules adopted under this Act.

(6) Off-site shipments.

(A) A small quantity handler of universal waste is prohibited from sending or taking universal waste paint and paint-related waste to a place other than another universal waste handler, a destination facility, or a foreign destination.

(B) If a small quantity handler of universal waste self-transports universal waste paint and paint-related waste off-site offsite, the handler becomes a universal waste transporter for those self-transportation activities and shall comply with the Board's existing rules for universal waste transporters.

(C) If universal waste paint and paint-related waste being offered for off-site transportation meets the definition of hazardous materials under 49 CFR Parts 171 to 180, a small quantity handler of universal waste shall package, label, mark and placard the shipment, and prepare the proper shipping papers in accordance with the applicable United States Department of Transportation regulations under 49 CFR Parts 172 to 180.

(D) Prior to sending a shipment of universal waste paint and paint-related waste to another universal waste handler, the originating handler shall ensure that the receiving handler agrees to receive the shipment.

(E) If a small quantity handler of universal waste sends a shipment of universal waste paint and paint-related waste to another handler or to a destination facility and if the shipment is rejected by the receiving handler or destination facility, the originating handler shall either:

(i) receive the universal waste paint and paint-related waste back when notified that the shipment has been rejected; or

(ii) agree with the receiving handler on a destination facility to which the shipment will be sent.

(F) A small quantity handler of universal waste may reject a shipment containing universal waste paint and paint-related waste, or a portion of a shipment containing universal waste paint and paint-related waste, received from another handler. If a handler rejects a shipment or a portion of a shipment, the rejecting handler shall contact the originating handler to notify the originating handler of the rejection and to discuss reshipment of the load. The receiving handler shall:

(i) send the shipment back to the originating handler; or

(ii) if agreed to by both the originating and receiving handler, send the shipment to a destination facility.

(G) If a small quantity handler of universal waste receives a shipment of nonhazardous, non-universal waste, the handler may manage the waste in any way that is in compliance with applicable law.

(d) Until the Board adopts rules pursuant to subsection (b), the following additional requirements shall apply:

(1) Paints and paint-related wastes that are exempt household wastes or very small quantity generator wastes under existing Board rules remain exempt from the hazardous waste rules but may be managed as universal wastes under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.108.

(2) Universal waste transporters that transport paints or paint-related wastes that are universal wastes are subject to the existing Board rules for universal waste transporters.

(3) Universal waste destination facilities that manage paints or paint-related wastes that are universal wastes are subject to the existing Board rules for universal waste destination facilities.

(Source: P.A. 103-887, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.23f)

Sec. 22.23f 22.23e. End-of-life electric vehicle and battery electric storage system batteries.

(a) In this Section:

"Battery energy storage solution facility" or "BESS" means a facility that stores and distributes energy in the form of electricity and that stores electricity using battery devices and other means. "Battery energy storage solution" or "BESS" includes any permanent structures associated with the battery energy storage facility and all associated transmission lines, substations, and other equipment related to the storage and transmission of electric power.

"Battery storage site" means a site where used batteries are stored.

"Electric vehicle" or "EV" has the same meaning as defined in Section 11-1308 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

"Electric vehicle battery" or "EV battery" means a rechargeable battery that is used to power the electric motors that propel an electric vehicle. "Electric vehicle battery" includes, but is not limited to, lithium-ion batteries and nickel-metal hydride batteries.

"Used battery" means an EV battery that is sold, given, or otherwise conveyed to a battery storage site.

"Storage" means any accumulation of used batteries that does not constitute disposal.

(b) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a battery storage site at which 5,000 kilograms or more of used batteries are stored at any one time unless:

(1) the battery storage site is registered with the Agency in accordance with this Section;

(2) the owner or operator of the battery storage site maintains records documenting the following:

(A) the weight or volume of whole or partial used batteries received at the battery storage site each week;

(B) the weight or volume of whole or partial used batteries leaving the battery storage site each week; and

(C) the weight or volume of whole or partial used batteries remaining at the battery storage site at the end of each week; and

(3) the owner or operator of the battery storage site is an automotive parts recycler as defined in Section 1-105.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and licensed under Section 5-301 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The records required under this Section shall be made available for inspection and copying by the Agency during the normal business hours.

(c) The owner or operator of each battery storage site in operation prior to February 1, 2026, at which 5,000 kilograms or more of used batteries are stored at any one time, must register with the Agency prior to February 1, 2026 and each February 1 thereafter. Any owners or operators of a battery storage site that comes into operation after February 1, 2026 shall register with the Agency prior to commencing operation. Registration must be on forms and in a format prescribed by the Agency. Agency registration forms shall include, at a minimum, information regarding the following:

(1) the name and address of the owner and operator of the battery storage site;

(2) A description of the operations conducted at the battery storage site;

(3) the weight or volume of whole or partial used batteries received at the battery storage site over the past calendar year; and

(4) the weight or volume of whole or partial used batteries at the battery storage site at the end of the calendar year.

(d) No later than January 1, 2026 (one 1 year after the effective date of Public Act 103-1006) this amendatory Act, the Agency shall propose to the Board, and no later than one year after receipt of the Agency's proposal, the Board shall adopt, rules for the operation of battery storage sites. Such rules shall include, but not be limited to: requirements for end-of-life battery receipt, handling, storage, and transfer; standards for fire prevention; requirements for contingency planning and emergency response; recordkeeping; reporting; and financial assurance.

(Source: P.A. 103-1006, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/39.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1039.5)

Sec. 39.5. Clean Air Act Permit Program.

1. Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Administrative permit amendment" means a permit revision subject to subsection 13 of this Section.

"Affected source for acid deposition" means a source that includes one or more affected units under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

"Affected States" for purposes of formal distribution of a draft CAAPP permit to other States for comments prior to issuance, means all States:

(1) Whose air quality may be affected by the source covered by the draft permit and that are contiguous to Illinois; or

(2) That are within 50 miles of the source.

"Affected unit for acid deposition" shall have the meaning given to the term "affected unit" in the regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

"Applicable Clean Air Act requirement" means all of the following as they apply to emissions units in a source (including regulations that have been promulgated or approved by USEPA pursuant to the Clean Air Act which directly impose requirements upon a source and other such federal requirements which have been adopted by the Board. These may include requirements and regulations which have future effective compliance dates. Requirements and regulations will be exempt if USEPA determines that such requirements need not be contained in a Title V permit):

(1) Any standard or other requirement provided for in the applicable state implementation plan approved or promulgated by USEPA under Title I of the Clean Air Act that implements the relevant requirements of the Clean Air Act, including any revisions to the state Implementation Plan promulgated in 40 CFR Part 52, Subparts A and O and other subparts applicable to Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph (1) of this definition, "any standard or other requirement" means only such standards or requirements directly enforceable against an individual source under the Clean Air Act.

(2)(i) Any term or condition of any preconstruction permits issued pursuant to regulations approved or promulgated by USEPA under Title I of the Clean Air Act, including Part C or D of the Clean Air Act.

(ii) Any term or condition as required pursuant to this Section 39.5 of any federally enforceable State operating permit issued pursuant to regulations approved or promulgated by USEPA under Title I of the Clean Air Act, including Part C or D of the Clean Air Act.

(3) Any standard or other requirement under Section 111 of the Clean Air Act, including Section 111(d).

(4) Any standard or other requirement under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act, including any requirement concerning accident prevention under Section 112(r)(7) of the Clean Air Act.

(5) Any standard or other requirement of the acid rain program under Title IV of the Clean Air Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder.

(6) Any requirements established pursuant to Section 504(b) or Section 114(a)(3) of the Clean Air Act.

(7) Any standard or other requirement governing solid waste incineration, under Section 129 of the Clean Air Act.

(8) Any standard or other requirement for consumer and commercial products, under Section 183(e) of the Clean Air Act.

(9) Any standard or other requirement for tank vessels, under Section 183(f) of the Clean Air Act.

(10) Any standard or other requirement of the program to control air pollution from Outer Continental Shelf sources, under Section 328 of the Clean Air Act.

(11) Any standard or other requirement of the regulations promulgated to protect stratospheric ozone under Title VI of the Clean Air Act, unless USEPA has determined that such requirements need not be contained in a Title V permit.

(12) Any national ambient air quality standard or increment or visibility requirement under Part C of Title I of the Clean Air Act, but only as it would apply to temporary sources permitted pursuant to Section 504(e) of the Clean Air Act.

"Applicable requirement" means all applicable Clean Air Act requirements and any other standard, limitation, or other requirement contained in this Act or regulations promulgated under this Act as applicable to sources of air contaminants (including requirements that have future effective compliance dates).

"CAAPP" means the Clean Air Act Permit Program, developed pursuant to Title V of the Clean Air Act.

"CAAPP application" means an application for a CAAPP permit.

"CAAPP Permit" or "permit" (unless the context suggests otherwise) means any permit issued, renewed, amended, modified, or revised pursuant to Title V of the Clean Air Act.

"CAAPP source" means any source for which the owner or operator is required to obtain a CAAPP permit pursuant to subsection 2 of this Section.

"Clean Air Act" means the Clean Air Act, as now and hereafter amended, 42 U.S.C. 7401, et seq.

"Designated representative" has the meaning given to it in Section 402(26) of the Clean Air Act and the regulations promulgated thereunder, which state that the term "designated representative" means a responsible person or official authorized by the owner or operator of a unit to represent the owner or operator in all matters pertaining to the holding, transfer, or disposition of allowances allocated to a unit, and the submission of and compliance with permits, permit applications, and compliance plans for the unit.

"Draft CAAPP permit" means the version of a CAAPP permit for which public notice and an opportunity for public comment and hearing is offered by the Agency.

"Effective date of the CAAPP" means the date that USEPA approves Illinois' CAAPP.

"Emission unit" means any part or activity of a stationary source that emits or has the potential to emit any air pollutant. This term is not meant to alter or affect the definition of the term "unit" for purposes of Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

"Federally enforceable" means enforceable by USEPA.

"Final permit action" means the Agency's granting with conditions, refusal to grant, renewal of, or revision of a CAAPP permit, the Agency's determination of incompleteness of a submitted CAAPP application, or the Agency's failure to act on an application for a permit, permit renewal, or permit revision within the time specified in subsection 13, subsection 14, or paragraph (j) of subsection 5 of this Section.

"General permit" means a permit issued to cover numerous similar sources in accordance with subsection 11 of this Section.

"Major source" means a source for which emissions of one or more air pollutants meet the criteria for major status pursuant to paragraph (c) of subsection 2 of this Section.

"Maximum achievable control technology" or "MACT" means the maximum degree of reductions in emissions deemed achievable under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act.

"Owner or operator" means any person who owns, leases, operates, controls, or supervises a stationary source.

"Permit modification" means a revision to a CAAPP permit that cannot be accomplished under the provisions for administrative permit amendments under subsection 13 of this Section.

"Permit revision" means a permit modification or administrative permit amendment.

"Phase II" means the period of the national acid rain program, established under Title IV of the Clean Air Act, beginning January 1, 2000, and continuing thereafter.

"Phase II acid rain permit" means the portion of a CAAPP permit issued, renewed, modified, or revised by the Agency during Phase II for an affected source for acid deposition.

"Potential to emit" means the maximum capacity of a stationary source to emit any air pollutant under its physical and operational design. Any physical or operational limitation on the capacity of a source to emit an air pollutant, including air pollution control equipment and restrictions on hours of operation or on the type or amount of material combusted, stored, or processed, shall be treated as part of its design if the limitation is enforceable by USEPA. This definition does not alter or affect the use of this term for any other purposes under the Clean Air Act, or the term "capacity factor" as used in Title IV of the Clean Air Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Preconstruction Permit" or "Construction Permit" means a permit which is to be obtained prior to commencing or beginning actual construction or modification of a source or emissions unit.

"Proposed CAAPP permit" means the version of a CAAPP permit that the Agency proposes to issue and forwards to USEPA for review in compliance with applicable requirements of the Act and regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Regulated air pollutant" means the following:

(1) Nitrogen oxides (NOx) or any volatile organic compound.

(2) Any pollutant for which a national ambient air quality standard has been promulgated.

(3) Any pollutant that is subject to any standard promulgated under Section 111 of the Clean Air Act.

(4) Any Class I or II substance subject to a standard promulgated under or established by Title VI of the Clean Air Act.

(5) Any pollutant subject to a standard promulgated under Section 112 or other requirements established under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act, including Sections 112(g), (j), and (r).

(i) Any pollutant subject to requirements under Section 112(j) of the Clean Air Act. Any pollutant listed under Section 112(b) for which the subject source would be major shall be considered to be regulated 18 months after the date on which USEPA was required to promulgate an applicable standard pursuant to Section 112(e) of the Clean Air Act, if USEPA fails to promulgate such standard.

(ii) Any pollutant for which the requirements of Section 112(g)(2) of the Clean Air Act have been met, but only with respect to the individual source subject to Section 112(g)(2) requirement.

(6) Greenhouse gases.

"Renewal" means the process by which a permit is reissued at the end of its term.

"Responsible official" means one of the following:

(1) For a corporation: a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy or decision-making functions for the corporation, or a duly authorized representative of such person if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit and either (i) the facilities employ more than 250 persons or have gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second quarter 1980 dollars), or (ii) the delegation of authority to such representative is approved in advance by the Agency.

(2) For a partnership or sole proprietorship: a general partner or the proprietor, respectively, or in the case of a partnership in which all of the partners are corporations, a duly authorized representative of the partnership if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit and either (i) the facilities employ more than 250 persons or have gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second quarter 1980 dollars), or (ii) the delegation of authority to such representative is approved in advance by the Agency.

(3) For a municipality, State, federal Federal, or other public agency: either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For the purposes of this part, a principal executive officer of a federal Federal agency includes the chief executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency (e.g., a Regional Administrator of USEPA).

(4) For affected sources for acid deposition:

(i) The designated representative shall be the "responsible official" in so far as actions, standards, requirements, or prohibitions under Title IV of the Clean Air Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder are concerned.

(ii) The designated representative may also be the "responsible official" for any other purposes with respect to air pollution control.

"Section 502(b)(10) changes" means changes that contravene express permit terms. "Section 502(b)(10) changes" do not include changes that would violate applicable requirements or contravene federally enforceable permit terms or conditions that are monitoring (including test methods), recordkeeping, reporting, or compliance certification requirements.

"Solid waste incineration unit" means a distinct operating unit of any facility which combusts any solid waste material from commercial or industrial establishments or the general public (including single and multiple residences, hotels, and motels). The term does not include incinerators or other units required to have a permit under Section 3005 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act. The term also does not include (A) materials recovery facilities (including primary or secondary smelters) which combust waste for the primary purpose of recovering metals, (B) qualifying small power production facilities, as defined in Section 3(17)(C) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 769(17)(C)), or qualifying cogeneration facilities, as defined in Section 3(18)(B) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 796(18)(B)), which burn homogeneous waste (such as units which burn tires or used oil, but not including refuse-derived fuel) for the production of electric energy or in the case of qualifying cogeneration facilities which burn homogeneous waste for the production of electric energy and steam or forms of useful energy (such as heat) which are used for industrial, commercial, heating, or cooling purposes, or (C) air curtain incinerators provided that such incinerators only burn wood wastes, yard waste, and clean lumber and that such air curtain incinerators comply with opacity limitations to be established by the USEPA by rule.

"Source" means any stationary source (or any group of stationary sources) that is located on one or more contiguous or adjacent properties that are under common control of the same person (or persons under common control) and that belongs to a single major industrial grouping. For the purposes of defining "source," a stationary source or group of stationary sources shall be considered part of a single major industrial grouping if all of the pollutant emitting activities at such source or group of sources located on contiguous or adjacent properties and under common control belong to the same Major Group (i.e., all have the same two-digit code) as described in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, 1987, or such pollutant emitting activities at a stationary source (or group of stationary sources) located on contiguous or adjacent properties and under common control constitute a support facility. The determination as to whether any group of stationary sources is located on contiguous or adjacent properties, and/or is under common control, and/or whether the pollutant emitting activities at such group of stationary sources constitute a support facility shall be made on a case-by-case case by case basis.

"Stationary source" means any building, structure, facility, or installation that emits or may emit any regulated air pollutant or any pollutant listed under Section 112(b) of the Clean Air Act, except those emissions resulting directly from an internal combustion engine for transportation purposes or from a nonroad engine or nonroad vehicle as defined in Section 216 of the Clean Air Act.

"Subject to regulation" has the meaning given to it in 40 CFR 70.2, as now or hereafter amended.

"Support facility" means any stationary source (or group of stationary sources) that conveys, stores, or otherwise assists to a significant extent in the production of a principal product at another stationary source (or group of stationary sources). A support facility shall be considered to be part of the same source as the stationary source (or group of stationary sources) that it supports regardless of the 2-digit Standard Industrial Classification code for the support facility.

"USEPA" means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA) or a person designated by the Administrator.

1.1. Exclusion From the CAAPP.

a. An owner or operator of a source which determines that the source could be excluded from the CAAPP may seek such exclusion prior to the date that the CAAPP application for the source is due but in no case later than 9 months after the effective date of the CAAPP through the imposition of federally enforceable conditions limiting the "potential to emit" of the source to a level below the major source threshold for that source as described in paragraph (c) of subsection 2 of this Section, within a State operating permit issued pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act. After such date, an exclusion from the CAAPP may be sought under paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section.

b. An owner or operator of a source seeking exclusion from the CAAPP pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection must submit a permit application consistent with the existing State permit program which specifically requests such exclusion through the imposition of such federally enforceable conditions.

c. Upon such request, if the Agency determines that the owner or operator of a source has met the requirements for exclusion pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection and other applicable requirements for permit issuance under subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act, the Agency shall issue a State operating permit for such source under subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act, as amended, and regulations promulgated thereunder with federally enforceable conditions limiting the "potential to emit" of the source to a level below the major source threshold for that source as described in paragraph (c) of subsection 2 of this Section.

d. The Agency shall provide an owner or operator of a source which may be excluded from the CAAPP pursuant to this subsection with reasonable notice that the owner or operator may seek such exclusion.

e. The Agency shall provide such sources with the necessary permit application forms.

2. Applicability.

a. Sources subject to this Section shall include:

i. Any major source as defined in paragraph (c) of this subsection.

ii. Any source subject to a standard or other requirements promulgated under Section 111 (New Source Performance Standards) or Section 112 (Hazardous Air Pollutants) of the Clean Air Act, except that a source is not required to obtain a permit solely because it is subject to regulations or requirements under Section 112(r) of the Clean Air Act.

iii. Any affected source for acid deposition, as defined in subsection 1 of this Section.

iv. Any other source subject to this Section under the Clean Air Act or regulations promulgated thereunder, or applicable Board regulations.

b. Sources exempted from this Section shall include:

i. All sources listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection that are not major sources, affected sources for acid deposition or solid waste incineration units required to obtain a permit pursuant to Section 129(e) of the Clean Air Act, until the source is required to obtain a CAAPP permit pursuant to the Clean Air Act or regulations promulgated thereunder.

ii. Nonmajor sources subject to a standard or other requirements subsequently promulgated by USEPA under Section 111 or 112 of the Clean Air Act that are determined by USEPA to be exempt at the time a new standard is promulgated.

iii. All sources and source categories that would be required to obtain a permit solely because they are subject to Part 60, Subpart AAA - Standards of Performance for New Residential Wood Heaters (40 CFR Part 60).

iv. All sources and source categories that would be required to obtain a permit solely because they are subject to Part 61, Subpart M - National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Asbestos, Section 61.145 (40 CFR Part 61).

v. Any other source categories exempted by USEPA regulations pursuant to Section 502(a) of the Clean Air Act.

vi. Major sources of greenhouse gas emissions required to obtain a CAAPP permit under this Section if any of the following occurs:

(A) enactment of federal legislation depriving the Administrator of the USEPA of authority to regulate greenhouse gases under the Clean Air Act;

(B) the issuance of any opinion, ruling, judgment, order, or decree by a federal court depriving the Administrator of the USEPA of authority to regulate greenhouse gases under the Clean Air Act; or

(C) action by the President of the United States or the President's authorized agent, including the Administrator of the USEPA, to repeal or withdraw the Greenhouse Gas Tailoring Rule (75 Fed. Reg. 31514, June 3, 2010).

If any event listed in this subparagraph (vi) occurs, CAAPP permits issued after such event shall not impose permit terms or conditions addressing greenhouse gases during the effectiveness of any event listed in subparagraph (vi). If any event listed in this subparagraph (vi) occurs, any owner or operator with a CAAPP permit that includes terms or conditions addressing greenhouse gases may elect to submit an application to the Agency to address a revision or repeal of such terms or conditions. If any owner or operator submits such an application, the Agency shall expeditiously process the permit application in accordance with applicable laws and regulations. Nothing in this subparagraph (vi) shall relieve an owner or operator of a source from the requirement to obtain a CAAPP permit for its emissions of regulated air pollutants other than greenhouse gases, as required by this Section.

c. For purposes of this Section the term "major source" means any source that is:

i. A major source under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act, which is defined as:

A. For pollutants other than radionuclides, any stationary source or group of stationary sources located within a contiguous area and under common control that emits or has the potential to emit, in the aggregate, 10 tons per year (tpy) or more of any hazardous air pollutant which has been listed pursuant to Section 112(b) of the Clean Air Act, 25 tpy or more of any combination of such hazardous air pollutants, or such lesser quantity as USEPA may establish by rule. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, emissions from any oil or gas exploration or production well (with its associated equipment) and emissions from any pipeline compressor or pump station shall not be aggregated with emissions from other similar units, whether or not such units are in a contiguous area or under common control, to determine whether such stations are major sources.

B. For radionuclides, "major source" shall have the meaning specified by the USEPA by rule.

ii. A major stationary source of air pollutants, as defined in Section 302 of the Clean Air Act, that directly emits or has the potential to emit, 100 tpy or more of any air pollutant subject to regulation (including any major source of fugitive emissions of any such pollutant, as determined by rule by USEPA). For purposes of this subsection, "fugitive emissions" means those emissions which could not reasonably pass through a stack, chimney, vent, or other functionally equivalent functionally-equivalent opening. The fugitive emissions of a stationary source shall not be considered in determining whether it is a major stationary source for the purposes of Section 302(j) of the Clean Air Act, unless the source belongs to one of the following categories of stationary source:

A. Coal cleaning plants (with thermal dryers).

B. Kraft pulp mills.

C. Portland cement plants.

D. Primary zinc smelters.

E. Iron and steel mills.

F. Primary aluminum ore reduction plants.

G. Primary copper smelters.

H. Municipal incinerators capable of charging more than 250 tons of refuse per day.

I. Hydrofluoric, sulfuric, or nitric acid plants.

J. Petroleum refineries.

K. Lime plants.

L. Phosphate rock processing plants.

M. Coke oven batteries.

N. Sulfur recovery plants.

O. Carbon black plants (furnace process).

P. Primary lead smelters.

Q. Fuel conversion plants.

R. Sintering plants.

S. Secondary metal production plants.

T. Chemical process plants.

U. Fossil-fuel boilers (or combination thereof) totaling more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input.

V. Petroleum storage and transfer units with a total storage capacity exceeding 300,000 barrels.

W. Taconite ore processing plants.

X. Glass fiber processing plants.

Y. Charcoal production plants.

Z. Fossil fuel-fired steam electric plants of more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input.

AA. All other stationary source categories, which as of August 7, 1980 are being regulated by a standard promulgated under Section 111 or 112 of the Clean Air Act.

BB. Any other stationary source category designated by USEPA by rule.

iii. A major stationary source as defined in part D of Title I of the Clean Air Act including:

A. For ozone nonattainment areas, sources with the potential to emit 100 tons or more per year of volatile organic compounds or oxides of nitrogen in areas classified as "marginal" or "moderate", 50 tons or more per year in areas classified as "serious", 25 tons or more per year in areas classified as "severe", and 10 tons or more per year in areas classified as "extreme"; except that the references in this clause to 100, 50, 25, and 10 tons per year of nitrogen oxides shall not apply with respect to any source for which USEPA has made a finding, under Section 182(f)(1) or (2) of the Clean Air Act, that requirements otherwise applicable to such source under Section 182(f) of the Clean Air Act do not apply. Such sources shall remain subject to the major source criteria of subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (c) of this subsection.

B. For ozone transport regions established pursuant to Section 184 of the Clean Air Act, sources with the potential to emit 50 tons or more per year of volatile organic compounds (VOCs).

C. For carbon monoxide nonattainment areas (1) that are classified as "serious", and (2) in which stationary sources contribute significantly to carbon monoxide levels as determined under rules issued by USEPA, sources with the potential to emit 50 tons or more per year of carbon monoxide.

D. For particulate matter (PM-10) nonattainment areas classified as "serious", sources with the potential to emit 70 tons or more per year of PM-10.

3. Agency Authority To Issue CAAPP Permits and Federally Enforceable State Operating Permits.

a. The Agency shall issue CAAPP permits under this Section consistent with the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder and this Act and regulations promulgated thereunder.

b. The Agency shall issue CAAPP permits for fixed terms of 5 years, except CAAPP permits issued for solid waste incineration units combusting municipal waste which shall be issued for fixed terms of 12 years and except CAAPP permits for affected sources for acid deposition which shall be issued for initial terms to expire on December 31, 1999, and for fixed terms of 5 years thereafter.

c. The Agency shall have the authority to issue a State operating permit for a source under subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act, as amended, and regulations promulgated thereunder, which includes federally enforceable conditions limiting the "potential to emit" of the source to a level below the major source threshold for that source as described in paragraph (c) of subsection 2 of this Section, thereby excluding the source from the CAAPP, when requested by the applicant pursuant to paragraph (u) of subsection 5 of this Section. The public notice requirements of this Section applicable to CAAPP permits shall also apply to the initial issuance of permits under this paragraph.

d. For purposes of this Act, a permit issued by USEPA under Section 505 of the Clean Air Act, as now and hereafter amended, shall be deemed to be a permit issued by the Agency pursuant to this Section 39.5 of this Act.

4. Transition.

a. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall not be required to renew an existing State operating permit for any emission unit at such CAAPP source once a CAAPP application timely submitted prior to expiration of the State operating permit has been deemed complete. For purposes other than permit renewal, the obligation upon the owner or operator of a CAAPP source to obtain a State operating permit is not removed upon submittal of the complete CAAPP permit application. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source seeking to make a modification to a source prior to the issuance of its CAAPP permit shall be required to obtain a construction permit, operating permit, or both as required for such modification in accordance with the State permit program under subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act, as amended, and regulations promulgated thereunder. The application for such construction permit, operating permit, or both shall be considered an amendment to the CAAPP application submitted for such source.

b. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall continue to operate in accordance with the terms and conditions of its applicable State operating permit notwithstanding the expiration of the State operating permit until the source's CAAPP permit has been issued.

c. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall submit its initial CAAPP application to the Agency no later than 12 months after the effective date of the CAAPP. The Agency may request submittal of initial CAAPP applications during this 12-month period according to a schedule set forth within Agency procedures, however, in no event shall the Agency require such submittal earlier than 3 months after such effective date of the CAAPP. An owner or operator may voluntarily submit its initial CAAPP application prior to the date required within this paragraph or applicable procedures, if any, subsequent to the date the Agency submits the CAAPP to USEPA for approval.

d. The Agency shall act on initial CAAPP applications in accordance with paragraph (j) of subsection 5 of this Section.

e. For purposes of this Section, the term "initial CAAPP application" shall mean the first CAAPP application submitted for a source existing as of the effective date of the CAAPP.

f. The Agency shall provide owners or operators of CAAPP sources with at least 3 months advance notice of the date on which their applications are required to be submitted. In determining which sources shall be subject to early submittal, the Agency shall include among its considerations the complexity of the permit application, and the burden that such early submittal will have on the source.

g. The CAAPP permit shall upon becoming effective supersede the State operating permit.

h. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

5. Applications and Completeness.

a. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall submit its complete CAAPP application consistent with the Act and applicable regulations.

b. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall submit a single complete CAAPP application covering all emission units at that source.

c. To be deemed complete, a CAAPP application must provide all information, as requested in Agency application forms, sufficient to evaluate the subject source and its application and to determine all applicable requirements, pursuant to the Clean Air Act, and regulations thereunder, this Act and regulations thereunder. Such Agency application forms shall be finalized and made available prior to the date on which any CAAPP application is required.

d. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall submit, as part of its complete CAAPP application, a compliance plan, including a schedule of compliance, describing how each emission unit will comply with all applicable requirements. Any such schedule of compliance shall be supplemental to, and shall not sanction noncompliance with, the applicable requirements on which it is based.

e. Each submitted CAAPP application shall be certified for truth, accuracy, and completeness by a responsible official in accordance with applicable regulations.

f. The Agency shall provide notice to a CAAPP applicant as to whether a submitted CAAPP application is complete. Unless the Agency notifies the applicant of incompleteness, within 60 days after receipt of the CAAPP application, the application shall be deemed complete. The Agency may request additional information as needed to make the completeness determination. The Agency may to the extent practicable provide the applicant with a reasonable opportunity to correct deficiencies prior to a final determination of completeness.

g. If after the determination of completeness the Agency finds that additional information is necessary to evaluate or take final action on the CAAPP application, the Agency may request in writing such information from the source with a reasonable deadline for response.

h. If the owner or operator of a CAAPP source submits a timely and complete CAAPP application, the source's failure to have a CAAPP permit shall not be a violation of this Section until the Agency takes final action on the submitted CAAPP application, provided, however, where the applicant fails to submit the requested information under paragraph (g) of this subsection 5 within the time frame specified by the Agency, this protection shall cease to apply.

i. Any applicant who fails to submit any relevant facts necessary to evaluate the subject source and its CAAPP application or who has submitted incorrect information in a CAAPP application shall, upon becoming aware of such failure or incorrect submittal, submit supplementary facts or correct information to the Agency. In addition, an applicant shall provide to the Agency additional information as necessary to address any requirements which become applicable to the source subsequent to the date the applicant submitted its complete CAAPP application but prior to release of the draft CAAPP permit.

j. The Agency shall issue or deny the CAAPP permit within 18 months after the date of receipt of the complete CAAPP application, with the following exceptions: (i) permits for affected sources for acid deposition shall be issued or denied within 6 months after receipt of a complete application in accordance with subsection 17 of this Section; (ii) the Agency shall act on initial CAAPP applications within 24 months after the date of receipt of the complete CAAPP application; (iii) the Agency shall act on complete applications containing early reduction demonstrations under Section 112(i)(5) of the Clean Air Act within 9 months of receipt of the complete CAAPP application.

Where the Agency does not take final action on the permit within the required time period, the permit shall not be deemed issued; rather, the failure to act shall be treated as a final permit action for purposes of judicial review pursuant to Sections 40.2 and 41 of this Act.

k. The submittal of a complete CAAPP application shall not affect the requirement that any source have a preconstruction permit under Title I of the Clean Air Act.

l. Unless a timely and complete renewal application has been submitted consistent with this subsection, a CAAPP source operating upon the expiration of its CAAPP permit shall be deemed to be operating without a CAAPP permit. Such operation is prohibited under this Act.

m. Permits being renewed shall be subject to the same procedural requirements, including those for public participation and federal review and objection, that apply to original permit issuance.

n. For purposes of permit renewal, a timely application is one that is submitted no less than 9 months prior to the date of permit expiration.

o. The terms and conditions of a CAAPP permit shall remain in effect until the issuance of a CAAPP renewal permit provided a timely and complete CAAPP application has been submitted.

p. The owner or operator of a CAAPP source seeking a permit shield pursuant to paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall request such permit shield in the CAAPP application regarding that source.

q. The Agency shall make available to the public all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency, including each CAAPP application, compliance plan (including the schedule of compliance), and emissions or compliance monitoring report, with the exception of information entitled to confidential treatment pursuant to Section 7 of this Act.

r. The Agency shall use the standardized forms required under Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder for affected sources for acid deposition.

s. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source may include within its CAAPP application a request for permission to operate during a startup, malfunction, or breakdown consistent with applicable Board regulations.

t. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source, in order to utilize the operational flexibility provided under paragraph (l) of subsection 7 of this Section, must request such use and provide the necessary information within its CAAPP application.

u. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source which seeks exclusion from the CAAPP through the imposition of federally enforceable conditions, pursuant to paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section, must request such exclusion within a CAAPP application submitted consistent with this subsection on or after the date that the CAAPP application for the source is due. Prior to such date, but in no case later than 9 months after the effective date of the CAAPP, such owner or operator may request the imposition of federally enforceable conditions pursuant to paragraph (b) of subsection 1.1 of this Section.

v. CAAPP applications shall contain accurate information on allowable emissions to implement the fee provisions of subsection 18 of this Section.

w. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall submit within its CAAPP application emissions information regarding all regulated air pollutants emitted at that source consistent with applicable Agency procedures. Emissions information regarding insignificant activities or emission levels, as determined by the Agency pursuant to Board regulations, may be submitted as a list within the CAAPP application. The Agency shall propose regulations to the Board defining insignificant activities or emission levels, consistent with federal regulations, if any, no later than 18 months after the effective date of Public Act 87-1213 this amendatory Act of 1992, consistent with Section 112(n)(1) of the Clean Air Act. The Board shall adopt final regulations defining insignificant activities or emission levels no later than 9 months after the date of the Agency's proposal.

x. The owner or operator of a new CAAPP source shall submit its complete CAAPP application consistent with this subsection within 12 months after commencing operation of such source. The owner or operator of an existing source that has been excluded from the provisions of this Section under subsection 1.1 or paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section and that becomes subject to the CAAPP solely due to a change in operation at the source shall submit its complete CAAPP application consistent with this subsection at least 180 days before commencing operation in accordance with the change in operation.

y. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary to implement this subsection.

6. Prohibitions.

a. It shall be unlawful for any person to violate any terms or conditions of a permit issued under this Section, to operate any CAAPP source except in compliance with a permit issued by the Agency under this Section or to violate any other applicable requirements. All terms and conditions of a permit issued under this Section are enforceable by USEPA and citizens under the Clean Air Act, except those, if any, that are specifically designated as not being federally enforceable in the permit pursuant to paragraph (m) of subsection 7 of this Section.

b. After the applicable CAAPP permit or renewal application submittal date, as specified in subsection 5 of this Section, no person shall operate a CAAPP source without a CAAPP permit unless the complete CAAPP permit or renewal application for such source has been timely submitted to the Agency.

c. No owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall cause or threaten or allow the continued operation of an emission source during malfunction or breakdown of the emission source or related air pollution control equipment if such operation would cause a violation of the standards or limitations applicable to the source, unless the CAAPP permit granted to the source provides for such operation consistent with this Act and applicable Board regulations.

7. Permit Content.

a. All CAAPP permits shall contain emission limitations and standards and other enforceable terms and conditions, including, but not limited to, operational requirements, and schedules for achieving compliance at the earliest reasonable date, which are or will be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act and to assure compliance with all applicable requirements.

b. The Agency shall include among such conditions applicable monitoring, reporting, recordkeeping, record keeping and compliance certification requirements, as authorized by paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this subsection, that the Agency deems necessary to assure compliance with the Clean Air Act, the regulations promulgated thereunder, this Act, and applicable Board regulations. When monitoring, reporting, recordkeeping record keeping, and compliance certification requirements are specified within the Clean Air Act, regulations promulgated thereunder, this Act, or applicable regulations, such requirements shall be included within the CAAPP permit. The Board shall have authority to promulgate additional regulations where necessary to accomplish the purposes of the Clean Air Act, this Act, and regulations promulgated thereunder.

c. The Agency shall assure, within such conditions, the use of terms, test methods, units, averaging periods, and other statistical conventions consistent with the applicable emission limitations, standards, and other requirements contained in the permit.

d. To meet the requirements of this subsection with respect to monitoring, the permit shall:

i. Incorporate and identify all applicable emissions monitoring and analysis procedures or test methods required under the Clean Air Act, regulations promulgated thereunder, this Act, and applicable Board regulations, including any procedures and methods promulgated by USEPA pursuant to Section 504(b) or Section 114 (a)(3) of the Clean Air Act.

ii. Where the applicable requirement does not require periodic testing or instrumental or noninstrumental monitoring (which may consist of recordkeeping designed to serve as monitoring), require periodic monitoring sufficient to yield reliable data from the relevant time period that is representative of the source's compliance with the permit, as reported pursuant to paragraph (f) of this subsection. The Agency may determine that recordkeeping requirements are sufficient to meet the requirements of this subparagraph.

iii. As necessary, specify requirements concerning the use, maintenance, and when appropriate, installation of monitoring equipment or methods.

e. To meet the requirements of this subsection with respect to recordkeeping record keeping, the permit shall incorporate and identify all applicable recordkeeping requirements and require, where applicable, the following:

i. Records of required monitoring information that include the following:

A. The date, place and time of sampling or measurements.

B. The date(s) analyses were performed.

C. The company or entity that performed the analyses.

D. The analytical techniques or methods used.

E. The results of such analyses.

F. The operating conditions as existing at the time of sampling or measurement.

ii. Retention of records of all monitoring data and support information for a period of at least 5 years from the date of the monitoring sample, measurement, report, or application. Support information includes all calibration and maintenance records, original strip-chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, and copies of all reports required by the permit.

f. To meet the requirements of this subsection with respect to reporting, the permit shall incorporate and identify all applicable reporting requirements and require the following:

i. Submittal of reports of any required monitoring every 6 months. More frequent submittals may be requested by the Agency if such submittals are necessary to assure compliance with this Act or regulations promulgated by the Board thereunder. All instances of deviations from permit requirements must be clearly identified in such reports. All required reports must be certified by a responsible official consistent with subsection 5 of this Section.

ii. Prompt reporting of deviations from permit requirements, including those attributable to upset conditions as defined in the permit, the probable cause of such deviations, and any corrective actions or preventive measures taken.

g. Each CAAPP permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section shall include a condition prohibiting emissions exceeding any allowances that the source lawfully holds under Title IV of the Clean Air Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder, consistent with subsection 17 of this Section and applicable regulations, if any.

h. All CAAPP permits shall state that, where another applicable requirement of the Clean Air Act is more stringent than any applicable requirement of regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act, both provisions shall be incorporated into the permit and shall be State and federally enforceable.

i. Each CAAPP permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section shall include a severability clause to ensure the continued validity of the various permit requirements in the event of a challenge to any portions of the permit.

j. The following shall apply with respect to owners or operators requesting a permit shield:

i. The Agency shall include in a CAAPP permit, when requested by an applicant pursuant to paragraph (p) of subsection 5 of this Section, a provision stating that compliance with the conditions of the permit shall be deemed compliance with applicable requirements which are applicable as of the date of release of the proposed permit, provided that:

A. The applicable requirement is specifically identified within the permit; or

B. The Agency in acting on the CAAPP application or revision determines in writing that other requirements specifically identified are not applicable to the source, and the permit includes that determination or a concise summary thereof.

ii. The permit shall identify the requirements for which the source is shielded. The shield shall not extend to applicable requirements which are promulgated after the date of release of the proposed permit unless the permit has been modified to reflect such new requirements.

iii. A CAAPP permit which does not expressly indicate the existence of a permit shield shall not provide such a shield.

iv. Nothing in this paragraph or in a CAAPP permit shall alter or affect the following:

A. The provisions of Section 303 (emergency powers) of the Clean Air Act, including USEPA's authority under that section.

B. The liability of an owner or operator of a source for any violation of applicable requirements prior to or at the time of permit issuance.

C. The applicable requirements of the acid rain program consistent with Section 408(a) of the Clean Air Act.

D. The ability of USEPA to obtain information from a source pursuant to Section 114 (inspections, monitoring, and entry) of the Clean Air Act.

k. Each CAAPP permit shall include an emergency provision providing an affirmative defense of emergency to an action brought for noncompliance with technology-based emission limitations under a CAAPP permit if the following conditions are met through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence:

i. An emergency occurred and the permittee can identify the cause(s) of the emergency.

ii. The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated.

iii. The permittee submitted notice of the emergency to the Agency within 2 working days after the time when emission limitations were exceeded due to the emergency. This notice must contain a detailed description of the emergency, any steps taken to mitigate emissions, and corrective actions taken.

iv. During the period of the emergency the permittee took all reasonable steps to minimize levels of emissions that exceeded the emission limitations, standards, or requirements in the permit.

For purposes of this subsection, "emergency" means any situation arising from sudden and reasonably unforeseeable events beyond the control of the source, such as an act of God, that requires immediate corrective action to restore normal operation, and that causes the source to exceed a technology-based emission limitation under the permit, due to unavoidable increases in emissions attributable to the emergency. An emergency shall not include noncompliance to the extent caused by improperly designed equipment, lack of preventative maintenance, careless or improper operation, or operation error.

In any enforcement proceeding, the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an emergency has the burden of proof. This provision is in addition to any emergency or upset provision contained in any applicable requirement. This provision does not relieve a permittee of any reporting obligations under existing federal or state laws or regulations.

l. The Agency shall include in each permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section:

i. Terms and conditions for reasonably anticipated operating scenarios identified by the source in its application. The permit terms and conditions for each such operating scenario shall meet all applicable requirements and the requirements of this Section.

A. Under this subparagraph, the source must record in a log at the permitted facility a record of the scenario under which it is operating contemporaneously with making a change from one operating scenario to another.

B. The permit shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall extend to all terms and conditions under each such operating scenario.

ii. Where requested by an applicant, all terms and conditions allowing for trading of emissions increases and decreases between different emission units at the CAAPP source, to the extent that the applicable requirements provide for trading of such emissions increases and decreases without a case-by-case approval of each emissions trade. Such terms and conditions:

A. Shall include all terms required under this subsection to determine compliance;

B. Must meet all applicable requirements;

C. Shall extend the permit shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section to all terms and conditions that allow such increases and decreases in emissions.

m. The Agency shall specifically designate as not being federally enforceable under the Clean Air Act any terms and conditions included in the permit that are not specifically required under the Clean Air Act or federal regulations promulgated thereunder. Terms or conditions so designated shall be subject to all applicable State requirements, except the requirements of subsection 7 (other than this paragraph, paragraph q of subsection 7, subsections 8 through 11, and subsections 13 through 16 of this Section). The Agency shall, however, include such terms and conditions in the CAAPP permit issued to the source.

n. Each CAAPP permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section shall specify and reference the origin of and authority for each term or condition, and identify any difference in form as compared to the applicable requirement upon which the term or condition is based.

o. Each CAAPP permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section shall include provisions stating the following:

i. Duty to comply. The permittee must comply with all terms and conditions of the CAAPP permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the Clean Air Act and the Act, and is grounds for any or all of the following: enforcement action; permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or modification; or denial of a permit renewal application.

ii. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.

iii. Permit actions. The permit may be modified, revoked, reopened, and reissued, or terminated for cause in accordance with the applicable subsections of this Section 39.5 of this Act. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or of a notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.

iv. Property rights. The permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.

v. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the Agency within a reasonable time specified by the Agency any information that the Agency may request in writing to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating the permit or to determine compliance with the permit. Upon request, the permittee shall also furnish to the Agency copies of records required to be kept by the permit or, for information claimed to be confidential, the permittee may furnish such records directly to USEPA along with a claim of confidentiality.

vi. Duty to pay fees. The permittee must pay fees to the Agency consistent with the fee schedule approved pursuant to subsection 18 of this Section, and submit any information relevant thereto.

vii. Emissions trading. No permit revision shall be required for increases in emissions allowed under any approved economic incentives, marketable permits, emissions trading, and other similar programs or processes for changes that are provided for in the permit and that are authorized by the applicable requirement.

p. Each CAAPP permit issued under subsection 10 of this Section shall contain the following elements with respect to compliance:

i. Compliance certification, testing, monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping record keeping requirements sufficient to assure compliance with the terms and conditions of the permit. Any document (including reports) required by a CAAPP permit shall contain a certification by a responsible official that meets the requirements of subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations.

ii. Inspection and entry requirements that necessitate that, upon presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law and in accordance with constitutional limitations, the permittee shall allow the Agency, or an authorized representative to perform the following:

A. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a CAAPP source is located or emissions-related activity is conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of the permit.

B. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of the permit.

C. Inspect at reasonable times any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and air pollution control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under the permit.

D. Sample or monitor any substances or parameters at any location:

1. As authorized by the Clean Air Act, at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring compliance with the CAAPP permit or applicable requirements; or

2. As otherwise authorized by this Act.

iii. A schedule of compliance consistent with subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations.

iv. Progress reports consistent with an applicable schedule of compliance pursuant to paragraph (d) of subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations to be submitted semiannually, or more frequently if the Agency determines that such more frequent submittals are necessary for compliance with the Act or regulations promulgated by the Board thereunder. Such progress reports shall contain the following:

A. Required dates for achieving the activities, milestones, or compliance required by the schedule of compliance and dates when such activities, milestones, or compliance were achieved.

B. An explanation of why any dates in the schedule of compliance were not or will not be met, and any preventive or corrective measures adopted.

v. Requirements for compliance certification with terms and conditions contained in the permit, including emission limitations, standards, or work practices. Permits shall include each of the following:

A. The frequency (annually or more frequently as specified in any applicable requirement or by the Agency pursuant to written procedures) of submissions of compliance certifications.

B. A means for assessing or monitoring the compliance of the source with its emissions limitations, standards, and work practices.

C. A requirement that the compliance certification include the following:

1. The identification of each term or condition contained in the permit that is the basis of the certification.

2. The compliance status.

3. Whether compliance was continuous or intermittent.

4. The method(s) used for determining the compliance status of the source, both currently and over the reporting period consistent with subsection 7 of this Section.

D. A requirement that all compliance certifications be submitted to the Agency.

E. Additional requirements as may be specified pursuant to Sections 114(a)(3) and 504(b) of the Clean Air Act.

F. Other provisions as the Agency may require.

q. If the owner or operator of CAAPP source can demonstrate in its CAAPP application, including an application for a significant modification, that an alternative emission limit would be equivalent to that contained in the applicable Board regulations, the Agency shall include the alternative emission limit in the CAAPP permit, which shall supersede the emission limit set forth in the applicable Board regulations, and shall include conditions that insure that the resulting emission limit is quantifiable, accountable, enforceable, and based on replicable procedures.

8. Public Notice; Affected State Review.

a. The Agency shall provide notice to the public, including an opportunity for public comment and a hearing, on each draft CAAPP permit for issuance, renewal, or significant modification, subject to Section 7.1 and subsection (a) of Section 7 of this Act.

b. The Agency shall prepare a draft CAAPP permit and a statement that sets forth the legal and factual basis for the draft CAAPP permit conditions, including references to the applicable statutory or regulatory provisions. The Agency shall provide this statement to any person who requests it.

c. The Agency shall give notice of each draft CAAPP permit to the applicant and to any affected State on or before the time that the Agency has provided notice to the public, except as otherwise provided in this Act.

d. The Agency, as part of its submittal of a proposed permit to USEPA (or as soon as possible after the submittal for minor permit modification procedures allowed under subsection 14 of this Section), shall notify USEPA and any affected State in writing of any refusal of the Agency to accept all of the recommendations for the proposed permit that an affected State submitted during the public or affected State review period. The notice shall include the Agency's reasons for not accepting the recommendations. The Agency is not required to accept recommendations that are not based on applicable requirements or the requirements of this Section.

e. The Agency shall make available to the public any CAAPP permit application, compliance plan (including the schedule of compliance), CAAPP permit, and emissions or compliance monitoring report. If an owner or operator of a CAAPP source is required to submit information entitled to protection from disclosure under Section 7.1 and subsection (a) of Section 7 of this Act, the owner or operator shall submit such information separately. The requirements of Section 7.1 and subsection (a) of Section 7 of this Act shall apply to such information, which shall not be included in a CAAPP permit unless required by law. The contents of a CAAPP permit shall not be entitled to protection under Section 7.1 and subsection (a) of Section 7 of this Act.

f. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

g. If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the draft CAAPP permit prior to any public review period. If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the final CAAPP permit prior to issuance of the CAAPP permit.

9. USEPA Notice and Objection.

a. The Agency shall provide to USEPA for its review a copy of each CAAPP application (including any application for permit modification), statement of basis as provided in paragraph (b) of subsection 8 of this Section, proposed CAAPP permit, CAAPP permit, and, if the Agency does not incorporate any affected State's recommendations on a proposed CAAPP permit, a written statement of this decision and its reasons for not accepting the recommendations, except as otherwise provided in this Act or by agreement with USEPA. To the extent practicable, the preceding information shall be provided in computer readable format compatible with USEPA's national database management system.

b. The Agency shall not issue the proposed CAAPP permit if USEPA objects in writing within 45 days after receipt of the proposed CAAPP permit and all necessary supporting information.

c. If USEPA objects in writing to the issuance of the proposed CAAPP permit within the 45-day period, the Agency shall respond in writing and may revise and resubmit the proposed CAAPP permit in response to the stated objection, to the extent supported by the record, within 90 days after the date of the objection. Prior to submitting a revised permit to USEPA, the Agency shall provide the applicant and any person who participated in the public comment process, pursuant to subsection 8 of this Section, with a 10-day period to comment on any revision which the Agency is proposing to make to the permit in response to USEPA's objection in accordance with Agency procedures.

d. Any USEPA objection under this subsection, according to the Clean Air Act, will include a statement of reasons for the objection and a description of the terms and conditions that must be in the permit, in order to adequately respond to the objections. Grounds for a USEPA objection include the failure of the Agency to: (1) submit the items and notices required under this subsection; (2) submit any other information necessary to adequately review the proposed CAAPP permit; or (3) process the permit under subsection 8 of this Section except for minor permit modifications.

e. If USEPA does not object in writing to issuance of a permit under this subsection, any person may petition USEPA within 60 days after expiration of the 45-day review period to make such objection.

f. If the permit has not yet been issued and USEPA objects to the permit as a result of a petition, the Agency shall not issue the permit until USEPA's objection has been resolved. The Agency shall provide a 10-day comment period in accordance with paragraph c of this subsection. A petition does not, however, stay the effectiveness of a permit or its requirements if the permit was issued after expiration of the 45-day review period and prior to a USEPA objection.

g. If the Agency has issued a permit after expiration of the 45-day review period and prior to receipt of a USEPA objection under this subsection in response to a petition submitted pursuant to paragraph e of this subsection, the Agency may, upon receipt of an objection from USEPA, revise and resubmit the permit to USEPA pursuant to this subsection after providing a 10-day comment period in accordance with paragraph c of this subsection. If the Agency fails to submit a revised permit in response to the objection, USEPA shall modify, terminate, or revoke the permit. In any case, the source will not be in violation of the requirement to have submitted a timely and complete application.

h. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

10. Final Agency Action.

a. The Agency shall issue a CAAPP permit, permit modification, or permit renewal if all of the following conditions are met:

i. The applicant has submitted a complete and certified application for a permit, permit modification, or permit renewal consistent with subsections 5 and 14 of this Section, as applicable, and applicable regulations.

ii. The applicant has submitted with its complete application an approvable compliance plan, including a schedule for achieving compliance, consistent with subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations.

iii. The applicant has timely paid the fees required pursuant to subsection 18 of this Section and applicable regulations.

iv. The Agency has received a complete CAAPP application and, if necessary, has requested and received additional information from the applicant consistent with subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations.

v. The Agency has complied with all applicable provisions regarding public notice and affected State review consistent with subsection 8 of this Section and applicable regulations.

vi. The Agency has provided a copy of each CAAPP application, or summary thereof, pursuant to agreement with USEPA and proposed CAAPP permit required under subsection 9 of this Section to USEPA, and USEPA has not objected to the issuance of the permit in accordance with the Clean Air Act and 40 CFR Part 70.

b. The Agency shall have the authority to deny a CAAPP permit, permit modification, or permit renewal if the applicant has not complied with the requirements of subparagraphs (i) through (iv) of paragraph (a) of this subsection or if USEPA objects to its issuance.

c. i. Prior to denial of a CAAPP permit, permit modification, or permit renewal under this Section, the Agency shall notify the applicant of the possible denial and the reasons for the denial.

ii. Within such notice, the Agency shall specify an appropriate date by which the applicant shall adequately respond to the Agency's notice. Such date shall not exceed 15 days from the date the notification is received by the applicant. The Agency may grant a reasonable extension for good cause shown.

iii. Failure by the applicant to adequately respond by the date specified in the notification or by any granted extension date shall be grounds for denial of the permit.

For purposes of obtaining judicial review under Sections 40.2 and 41 of this Act, the Agency shall provide to USEPA and each applicant, and, upon request, to affected States, any person who participated in the public comment process, and any other person who could obtain judicial review under Sections 40.2 and 41 of this Act, a copy of each CAAPP permit or notification of denial pertaining to that party.

d. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

11. General Permits.

a. The Agency may issue a general permit covering numerous similar sources, except for affected sources for acid deposition unless otherwise provided in regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

b. The Agency shall identify, in any general permit, criteria by which sources may qualify for the general permit.

c. CAAPP sources that would qualify for a general permit must apply for coverage under the terms of the general permit or must apply for a CAAPP permit consistent with subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations.

d. The Agency shall comply with the public comment and hearing provisions of this Section as well as the USEPA and affected State review procedures prior to issuance of a general permit.

e. When granting a subsequent request by a qualifying CAAPP source for coverage under the terms of a general permit, the Agency shall not be required to repeat the public notice and comment procedures. The granting of such request shall not be considered a final permit action for purposes of judicial review.

f. The Agency may not issue a general permit to cover any discrete emission unit at a CAAPP source if another CAAPP permit covers emission units at the source.

g. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

12. Operational Flexibility.

a. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source may make changes at the CAAPP source without requiring a prior permit revision, consistent with subparagraphs (i) through (iii) of paragraph (a) of this subsection, so long as the changes are not modifications under any provision of Title I of the Clean Air Act and they do not exceed the emissions allowable under the permit (whether expressed therein as a rate of emissions or in terms of total emissions), provided that the owner or operator of the CAAPP source provides USEPA and the Agency with written notification as required below in advance of the proposed changes, which shall be a minimum of 7 days, unless otherwise provided by the Agency in applicable regulations regarding emergencies. The owner or operator of a CAAPP source and the Agency shall each attach such notice to their copy of the relevant permit.

i. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source may make Section 502 (b) (10) changes without a permit revision, if the changes are not modifications under any provision of Title I of the Clean Air Act and the changes do not exceed the emissions allowable under the permit (whether expressed therein as a rate of emissions or in terms of total emissions).

A. For each such change, the written notification required above shall include a brief description of the change within the source, the date on which the change will occur, any change in emissions, and any permit term or condition that is no longer applicable as a result of the change.

B. The permit shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall not apply to any change made pursuant to this subparagraph.

ii. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source may trade increases and decreases in emissions in the CAAPP source, where the applicable implementation plan provides for such emission trades without requiring a permit revision. This provision is available in those cases where the permit does not already provide for such emissions trading.

A. Under this subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (a) of this subsection, the written notification required above shall include such information as may be required by the provision in the applicable implementation plan authorizing the emissions trade, including, at a minimum, when the proposed changes will occur, a description of each such change, any change in emissions, the permit requirements with which the source will comply using the emissions trading provisions of the applicable implementation plan, and the pollutants emitted subject to the emissions trade. The notice shall also refer to the provisions in the applicable implementation plan with which the source will comply and provide for the emissions trade.

B. The permit shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall not apply to any change made pursuant to subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (a) of this subsection. Compliance with the permit requirements that the source will meet using the emissions trade shall be determined according to the requirements of the applicable implementation plan authorizing the emissions trade.

iii. If requested within a CAAPP application, the Agency shall issue a CAAPP permit which contains terms and conditions, including all terms required under subsection 7 of this Section to determine compliance, allowing for the trading of emissions increases and decreases at the CAAPP source solely for the purpose of complying with a federally enforceable federally-enforceable emissions cap that is established in the permit independent of otherwise applicable requirements. The owner or operator of a CAAPP source shall include in its CAAPP application proposed replicable procedures and permit terms that ensure the emissions trades are quantifiable and enforceable. The permit shall also require compliance with all applicable requirements.

A. Under this subparagraph (iii) of paragraph (a), the written notification required above shall state when the change will occur and shall describe the changes in emissions that will result and how these increases and decreases in emissions will comply with the terms and conditions of the permit.

B. The permit shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall extend to terms and conditions that allow such increases and decreases in emissions.

b. An owner or operator of a CAAPP source may make changes that are not addressed or prohibited by the permit, other than those which are subject to any requirements under Title IV of the Clean Air Act or are modifications under any provisions of Title I of the Clean Air Act, without a permit revision, in accordance with the following requirements:

(i) Each such change shall meet all applicable requirements and shall not violate any existing permit term or condition;

(ii) Sources must provide contemporaneous written notice to the Agency and USEPA of each such change, except for changes that qualify as insignificant under provisions adopted by the Agency or the Board. Such written notice shall describe each such change, including the date, any change in emissions, pollutants emitted, and any applicable requirement that would apply as a result of the change;

(iii) The change shall not qualify for the shield described in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section; and

(iv) The permittee shall keep a record describing changes made at the source that result in emissions of a regulated air pollutant subject to an applicable Clean Air Act requirement, but not otherwise regulated under the permit, and the emissions resulting from those changes.

c. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary to implement this subsection.

13. Administrative Permit Amendments.

a. The Agency shall take final action on a request for an administrative permit amendment within 60 days after receipt of the request. Neither notice nor an opportunity for public and affected State comment shall be required for the Agency to incorporate such revisions, provided it designates the permit revisions as having been made pursuant to this subsection.

b. The Agency shall submit a copy of the revised permit to USEPA.

c. For purposes of this Section the term "administrative permit amendment" shall be defined as a permit revision that can accomplish one or more of the changes described below:

i. Corrects typographical errors;

ii. Identifies a change in the name, address, or phone number of any person identified in the permit, or provides a similar minor administrative change at the source;

iii. Requires more frequent monitoring or reporting by the permittee;

iv. Allows for a change in ownership or operational control of a source where the Agency determines that no other change in the permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between the current and new permittees has been submitted to the Agency;

v. Incorporates into the CAAPP permit the requirements from preconstruction review permits authorized under a USEPA-approved program, provided the program meets procedural and compliance requirements substantially equivalent to those contained in this Section;

vi. (Blank); or

vii. Any other type of change which USEPA has determined as part of the approved CAAPP permit program to be similar to those included in this subsection.

d. The Agency shall, upon taking final action granting a request for an administrative permit amendment, allow coverage by the permit shield in paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section for administrative permit amendments made pursuant to subparagraph (v) of paragraph (c) of this subsection which meet the relevant requirements for significant permit modifications.

e. Permit revisions and modifications, including administrative amendments and automatic amendments (pursuant to Sections 408(b) and 403(d) of the Clean Air Act or regulations promulgated thereunder), for purposes of the acid rain portion of the permit shall be governed by the regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act. Owners or operators of affected sources for acid deposition shall have the flexibility to amend their compliance plans as provided in the regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

f. The CAAPP source may implement the changes addressed in the request for an administrative permit amendment immediately upon submittal of the request.

g. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

14. Permit Modifications.

a. Minor permit modification procedures.

i. The Agency shall review a permit modification using the "minor permit" modification procedures only for those permit modifications that:

A. Do not violate any applicable requirement;

B. Do not involve significant changes to existing monitoring, reporting, or recordkeeping requirements in the permit;

C. Do not require a case-by-case determination of an emission limitation or other standard, or a source-specific determination of ambient impacts, or a visibility or increment analysis;

D. Do not seek to establish or change a permit term or condition for which there is no corresponding underlying requirement and which avoids an applicable requirement to which the source would otherwise be subject. Such terms and conditions include:

1. A federally enforceable emissions cap assumed to avoid classification as a modification under any provision of Title I of the Clean Air Act; and

2. An alternative emissions limit approved pursuant to regulations promulgated under Section 112(i)(5) of the Clean Air Act;

E. Are not modifications under any provision of Title I of the Clean Air Act; and

F. Are not required to be processed as a significant modification.

ii. Notwithstanding subparagraph (i) of paragraph (a) and subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b) of this subsection, minor permit modification procedures may be used for permit modifications involving the use of economic incentives, marketable permits, emissions trading, and other similar approaches, to the extent that such minor permit modification procedures are explicitly provided for in an applicable implementation plan or in applicable requirements promulgated by USEPA.

iii. An applicant requesting the use of minor permit modification procedures shall meet the requirements of subsection 5 of this Section and shall include the following in its application:

A. A description of the change, the emissions resulting from the change, and any new applicable requirements that will apply if the change occurs;

B. The source's suggested draft permit;

C. Certification by a responsible official, consistent with paragraph (e) of subsection 5 of this Section and applicable regulations, that the proposed modification meets the criteria for use of minor permit modification procedures and a request that such procedures be used; and

D. Completed forms for the Agency to use to notify USEPA and affected States as required under subsections 8 and 9 of this Section.

iv. Within 5 working days after receipt of a complete permit modification application, the Agency shall notify USEPA and affected States of the requested permit modification in accordance with subsections 8 and 9 of this Section. The Agency promptly shall send any notice required under paragraph (d) of subsection 8 of this Section to USEPA.

v. The Agency may not issue a final permit modification until after the 45-day review period for USEPA or until USEPA has notified the Agency that USEPA will not object to the issuance of the permit modification, whichever comes first, although the Agency can approve the permit modification prior to that time. Within 90 days after the Agency's receipt of an application under the minor permit modification procedures or 15 days after the end of USEPA's 45-day review period under subsection 9 of this Section, whichever is later, the Agency shall:

A. Issue the permit modification as proposed;

B. Deny the permit modification application;

C. Determine that the requested modification does not meet the minor permit modification criteria and should be reviewed under the significant modification procedures; or

D. Revise the draft permit modification and transmit to USEPA the new proposed permit modification as required by subsection 9 of this Section.

vi. Any CAAPP source may make the change proposed in its minor permit modification application immediately after it files such application. After the CAAPP source makes the change allowed by the preceding sentence, and until the Agency takes any of the actions specified in items (A) through (C) of subparagraph (v) of paragraph (a) of this subsection, the source must comply with both the applicable requirements governing the change and the proposed permit terms and conditions. During this time period, the source need not comply with the existing permit terms and conditions it seeks to modify. If the source fails to comply with its proposed permit terms and conditions during this time period, the existing permit terms and conditions which it seeks to modify may be enforced against it.

vii. The permit shield under paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section may not extend to minor permit modifications.

viii. If a construction permit is required, pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act and regulations thereunder, for a change for which the minor permit modification procedures are applicable, the source may request that the processing of the construction permit application be consolidated with the processing of the application for the minor permit modification. In such cases, the provisions of this Section, including those within subsections 5, 8, and 9, shall apply and the Agency shall act on such applications pursuant to subparagraph (v) of paragraph (a) of subsection 14 of this Section. The source may make the proposed change immediately after filing its application for the minor permit modification. Nothing in this subparagraph shall otherwise affect the requirements and procedures applicable to construction permits.

b. Group Processing of Minor Permit Modifications.

i. Where requested by an applicant within its application, the Agency shall process groups of a source's applications for certain modifications eligible for minor permit modification processing in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph (b).

ii. Permit modifications may be processed in accordance with the procedures for group processing, for those modifications:

A. Which meet the criteria for minor permit modification procedures under subparagraph (i) of paragraph (a) of subsection 14 of this Section; and

B. That collectively are below 10 percent of the emissions allowed by the permit for the emissions unit for which change is requested, 20 percent of the applicable definition of major source set forth in subsection 2 of this Section, or 5 tons per year, whichever is least.

iii. An applicant requesting the use of group processing procedures shall meet the requirements of subsection 5 of this Section and shall include the following in its application:

A. A description of the change, the emissions resulting from the change, and any new applicable requirements that will apply if the change occurs.

B. The source's suggested draft permit.

C. Certification by a responsible official consistent with paragraph (e) of subsection 5 of this Section, that the proposed modification meets the criteria for use of group processing procedures and a request that such procedures be used.

D. A list of the source's other pending applications awaiting group processing, and a determination of whether the requested modification, aggregated with these other applications, equals or exceeds the threshold set under item (B) of subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b) of this subsection.

E. Certification, consistent with paragraph (e) of subsection 5 of this Section, that the source has notified USEPA of the proposed modification. Such notification need only contain a brief description of the requested modification.

F. Completed forms for the Agency to use to notify USEPA and affected states as required under subsections 8 and 9 of this Section.

iv. On a quarterly basis or within 5 business days after receipt of an application demonstrating that the aggregate of a source's pending applications equals or exceeds the threshold level set forth within item (B) of subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b) of this subsection, whichever is earlier, the Agency shall promptly notify USEPA and affected States of the requested permit modifications in accordance with subsections 8 and 9 of this Section. The Agency shall send any notice required under paragraph (d) of subsection 8 of this Section to USEPA.

v. The provisions of subparagraph (v) of paragraph (a) of this subsection shall apply to modifications eligible for group processing, except that the Agency shall take one of the actions specified in items (A) through (D) of subparagraph (v) of paragraph (a) of this subsection within 180 days after receipt of the application or 15 days after the end of USEPA's 45-day review period under subsection 9 of this Section, whichever is later.

vi. The provisions of subparagraph (vi) of paragraph (a) of this subsection shall apply to modifications for group processing.

vii. The provisions of paragraph (j) of subsection 7 of this Section shall not apply to modifications eligible for group processing.

c. Significant Permit Modifications.

i. Significant modification procedures shall be used for applications requesting significant permit modifications and for those applications that do not qualify as either minor permit modifications or as administrative permit amendments.

ii. Every significant change in existing monitoring permit terms or conditions and every relaxation of reporting or recordkeeping requirements shall be considered significant. A modification shall also be considered significant if in the judgment of the Agency action on an application for modification would require decisions to be made on technically complex issues. Nothing herein shall be construed to preclude the permittee from making changes consistent with this Section that would render existing permit compliance terms and conditions irrelevant.

iii. Significant permit modifications must meet all the requirements of this Section, including those for applications (including completeness review), public participation, review by affected States, and review by USEPA applicable to initial permit issuance and permit renewal. The Agency shall take final action on significant permit modifications within 9 months after receipt of a complete application.

d. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

15. Reopenings for Cause by the Agency.

a. Each issued CAAPP permit shall include provisions specifying the conditions under which the permit will be reopened prior to the expiration of the permit. Such revisions shall be made as expeditiously as practicable. A CAAPP permit shall be reopened and revised under any of the following circumstances, in accordance with procedures adopted by the Agency:

i. Additional requirements under the Clean Air Act become applicable to a major CAAPP source for which 3 or more years remain on the original term of the permit. Such a reopening shall be completed not later than 18 months after the promulgation of the applicable requirement. No such revision is required if the effective date of the requirement is later than the date on which the permit is due to expire.

ii. Additional requirements (including excess emissions requirements) become applicable to an affected source for acid deposition under the acid rain program. Excess emissions offset plans shall be deemed to be incorporated into the permit upon approval by USEPA.

iii. The Agency or USEPA determines that the permit contains a material mistake or that inaccurate statements were made in establishing the emissions standards, limitations, or other terms or conditions of the permit.

iv. The Agency or USEPA determines that the permit must be revised or revoked to assure compliance with the applicable requirements.

b. In the event that the Agency determines that there are grounds for revoking a CAAPP permit, for cause, consistent with paragraph a of this subsection, it shall file a petition before the Board setting forth the basis for such revocation. In any such proceeding, the Agency shall have the burden of establishing that the permit should be revoked under the standards set forth in this Act and the Clean Air Act. Any such proceeding shall be conducted pursuant to the Board's procedures for adjudicatory hearings and the Board shall render its decision within 120 days of the filing of the petition. The Agency shall take final action to revoke and reissue a CAAPP permit consistent with the Board's order.

c. Proceedings regarding a reopened CAAPP permit shall follow the same procedures as apply to initial permit issuance and shall affect only those parts of the permit for which cause to reopen exists.

d. Reopenings under paragraph (a) of this subsection shall not be initiated before a notice of such intent is provided to the CAAPP source by the Agency at least 30 days in advance of the date that the permit is to be reopened, except that the Agency may provide a shorter time period in the case of an emergency.

e. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

16. Reopenings for Cause by USEPA.

a. When USEPA finds that cause exists to terminate, modify, or revoke and reissue a CAAPP permit pursuant to subsection 15 of this Section, and thereafter notifies the Agency and the permittee of such finding in writing, the Agency shall forward to USEPA and the permittee a proposed determination of termination, modification, or revocation and reissuance as appropriate, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this subsection. The Agency's proposed determination shall be in accordance with the record, the Clean Air Act, regulations promulgated thereunder, this Act and regulations promulgated thereunder. Such proposed determination shall not affect the permit or constitute a final permit action for purposes of this Act or the Administrative Review Law. The Agency shall forward to USEPA such proposed determination within 90 days after receipt of the notification from USEPA. If additional time is necessary to submit the proposed determination, the Agency shall request a 90-day extension from USEPA and shall submit the proposed determination within 180 days after receipt of notification from USEPA.

b. i. Prior to the Agency's submittal to USEPA of a proposed determination to terminate or revoke and reissue the permit, the Agency shall file a petition before the Board setting forth USEPA's objection, the permit record, the Agency's proposed determination, and the justification for its proposed determination. The Board shall conduct a hearing pursuant to the rules prescribed by Section 32 of this Act, and the burden of proof shall be on the Agency.

ii. After due consideration of the written and oral statements, the testimony and arguments that shall be submitted at hearing, the Board shall issue and enter an interim order for the proposed determination, which shall set forth all changes, if any, required in the Agency's proposed determination. The interim order shall comply with the requirements for final orders as set forth in Section 33 of this Act. Issuance of an interim order by the Board under this paragraph, however, shall not affect the permit status and does not constitute a final action for purposes of this Act or the Administrative Review Law.

iii. The Board shall cause a copy of its interim order to be served upon all parties to the proceeding as well as upon USEPA. The Agency shall submit the proposed determination to USEPA in accordance with the Board's Interim Order within 180 days after receipt of the notification from USEPA.

c. USEPA shall review the proposed determination to terminate, modify, or revoke and reissue the permit within 90 days after receipt.

i. When USEPA reviews the proposed determination to terminate or revoke and reissue and does not object, the Board shall, within 7 days after receipt of USEPA's final approval, enter the interim order as a final order. The final order may be appealed as provided by Title XI of this Act. The Agency shall take final action in accordance with the Board's final order.

ii. When USEPA reviews such proposed determination to terminate or revoke and reissue and objects, the Agency shall submit USEPA's objection and the Agency's comments and recommendation on the objection to the Board and permittee. The Board shall review its interim order in response to USEPA's objection and the Agency's comments and recommendation and issue a final order in accordance with Sections 32 and 33 of this Act. The Agency shall, within 90 days after receipt of such objection, respond to USEPA's objection in accordance with the Board's final order.

iii. When USEPA reviews such proposed determination to modify and objects, the Agency shall, within 90 days after receipt of the objection, resolve the objection and modify the permit in accordance with USEPA's objection, based upon the record, the Clean Air Act, regulations promulgated thereunder, this Act, and regulations promulgated thereunder.

d. If the Agency fails to submit the proposed determination pursuant to paragraph a of this subsection or fails to resolve any USEPA objection pursuant to paragraph c of this subsection, USEPA will terminate, modify, or revoke and reissue the permit.

e. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

17. Title IV; Acid Rain Provisions.

a. The Agency shall act on initial CAAPP applications for affected sources for acid deposition in accordance with this Section and Title V of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, except as modified by Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder. The Agency shall issue initial CAAPP permits to the affected sources for acid deposition which shall become effective no earlier than January 1, 1995, and which shall terminate on December 31, 1999, in accordance with this Section. Subsequent CAAPP permits issued to affected sources for acid deposition shall be issued for a fixed term of 5 years. Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, including, but not limited to, 40 CFR C.F.R. Part 72, as now or hereafter amended, are applicable to and enforceable under this Act.

b. A designated representative of an affected source for acid deposition shall submit a timely and complete Phase II acid rain permit application and compliance plan to the Agency, not later than January 1, 1996, that meets the requirements of Titles IV and V of the Clean Air Act and regulations. The Agency shall act on the Phase II acid rain permit application and compliance plan in accordance with this Section and Title V of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, except as modified by Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder. The Agency shall issue the Phase II acid rain permit to an affected source for acid deposition no later than December 31, 1997, which shall become effective on January 1, 2000, in accordance with this Section, except as modified by Title IV and regulations promulgated thereunder; provided that the designated representative of the source submitted a timely and complete Phase II permit application and compliance plan to the Agency that meets the requirements of Title IV and V of the Clean Air Act and regulations.

c. Each Phase II acid rain permit issued in accordance with this subsection shall have a fixed term of 5 years. Except as provided in paragraph b above, the Agency shall issue or deny a Phase II acid rain permit within 18 months of receiving a complete Phase II permit application and compliance plan.

d. A designated representative of a new unit, as defined in Section 402 of the Clean Air Act, shall submit a timely and complete Phase II acid rain permit application and compliance plan that meets the requirements of Titles IV and V of the Clean Air Act and its regulations. The Agency shall act on the new unit's Phase II acid rain permit application and compliance plan in accordance with this Section and Title V of the Clean Air Act and its regulations, except as modified by Title IV of the Clean Air Act and its regulations. The Agency shall reopen the new unit's CAAPP permit for cause to incorporate the approved Phase II acid rain permit in accordance with this Section. The Phase II acid rain permit for the new unit shall become effective no later than the date required under Title IV of the Clean Air Act and its regulations.

e. A designated representative of an affected source for acid deposition shall submit a timely and complete Title IV NOx permit application to the Agency, not later than January 1, 1998, that meets the requirements of Titles IV and V of the Clean Air Act and its regulations. The Agency shall reopen the Phase II acid rain permit for cause and incorporate the approved NOx provisions into the Phase II acid rain permit not later than January 1, 1999, in accordance with this Section, except as modified by Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder. Such reopening shall not affect the term of the Phase II acid rain permit.

f. The designated representative of the affected source for acid deposition shall renew the initial CAAPP permit and Phase II acid rain permit in accordance with this Section and Title V of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, except as modified by Title IV of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder.

g. In the case of an affected source for acid deposition for which a complete Phase II acid rain permit application and compliance plan are timely received under this subsection, the complete permit application and compliance plan, including amendments thereto, shall be binding on the owner, operator and designated representative, all affected units for acid deposition at the affected source, and any other unit, as defined in Section 402 of the Clean Air Act, governed by the Phase II acid rain permit application and shall be enforceable as an acid rain permit for purposes of Titles IV and V of the Clean Air Act, from the date of submission of the acid rain permit application until a Phase II acid rain permit is issued or denied by the Agency.

h. The Agency shall not include or implement any measure which would interfere with or modify the requirements of Title IV of the Clean Air Act or regulations promulgated thereunder.

i. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting allowances or USEPA's decision regarding an excess emissions offset plan, as set forth in Title IV of the Clean Air Act or regulations promulgated thereunder.

i. No permit revision shall be required for increases in emissions that are authorized by allowances acquired pursuant to the acid rain program, provided that such increases do not require a permit revision under any other applicable requirement.

ii. No limit shall be placed on the number of allowances held by the source. The source may not, however, use allowances as a defense to noncompliance with any other applicable requirement.

iii. Any such allowance shall be accounted for according to the procedures established in regulations promulgated under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

j. To the extent that the federal regulations promulgated under Title IV, including, but not limited to, 40 CFR C.F.R. Part 72, as now or hereafter amended, are inconsistent with the federal regulations promulgated under Title V, the federal regulations promulgated under Title IV shall take precedence.

k. The USEPA may intervene as a matter of right in any permit appeal involving a Phase II acid rain permit provision or denial of a Phase II acid rain permit.

l. It is unlawful for any owner or operator to violate any terms or conditions of a Phase II acid rain permit issued under this subsection, to operate any affected source for acid deposition except in compliance with a Phase II acid rain permit issued by the Agency under this subsection, or to violate any other applicable requirements.

m. The designated representative of an affected source for acid deposition shall submit to the Agency the data and information submitted quarterly to USEPA, pursuant to 40 CFR 75.64, concurrently with the submission to USEPA. The submission shall be in the same electronic format as specified by USEPA.

n. The Agency shall act on any petition for exemption of a new unit or retired unit, as those terms are defined in Section 402 of the Clean Air Act, from the requirements of the acid rain program in accordance with Title IV of the Clean Air Act and its regulations.

o. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary to implement this subsection.

18. Fee Provisions.

a. A source subject to this Section or excluded under subsection 1.1 or paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section, shall pay a fee as provided in this paragraph (a) of subsection 18. However, a source that has been excluded from the provisions of this Section under subsection 1.1 or under paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section because the source emits less than 25 tons per year of any combination of regulated air pollutants, except greenhouse gases, shall pay fees in accordance with paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 9.6.

i. The fee for a source allowed to emit less than 100 tons per year of any combination of regulated air pollutants, except greenhouse gases, shall be $1,800 per year, and that fee shall increase, beginning January 1, 2012, to $2,150 per year.

ii. The fee for a source allowed to emit 100 tons or more per year of any combination of regulated air pollutants, except greenhouse gases and those regulated air pollutants excluded in paragraph (f) of this subsection 18, shall be as follows:

A. The Agency shall assess a fee of $18 per ton, per year for the allowable emissions of regulated air pollutants subject to this subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (a) of subsection 18, and that fee shall increase, beginning January 1, 2012, to $21.50 per ton, per year. These fees shall be used by the Agency and the Board to fund the activities required by Title V of the Clean Air Act including such activities as may be carried out by other State or local agencies pursuant to paragraph (d) of this subsection. The amount of such fee shall be based on the information supplied by the applicant in its complete CAAPP permit application or in the CAAPP permit if the permit has been granted and shall be determined by the amount of emissions that the source is allowed to emit annually, provided however, that the maximum fee for a CAAPP permit under this subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (a) of subsection 18 is $250,000, and increases, beginning January 1, 2012, to $294,000. Beginning January 1, 2012, the maximum fee under this subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (a) of subsection 18 for a source that has been excluded under subsection 1.1 of this Section or under paragraph (c) of subsection 3 of this Section is $4,112. The Agency shall provide as part of the permit application form required under subsection 5 of this Section a separate fee calculation form which will allow the applicant to identify the allowable emissions and calculate the fee. In no event shall the Agency raise the amount of allowable emissions requested by the applicant unless such increases are required to demonstrate compliance with terms of a CAAPP permit.

Notwithstanding the above, any applicant may seek a change in its permit which would result in increases in allowable emissions due to an increase in the hours of operation or production rates of an emission unit or units and such a change shall be consistent with the construction permit requirements of the existing State permit program, under subsection (a) of Section 39 of this Act and applicable provisions of this Section. Where a construction permit is required, the Agency shall expeditiously grant such construction permit and shall, if necessary, modify the CAAPP permit based on the same application.

B. The applicant or permittee may pay the fee annually or semiannually for those fees greater than $5,000. However, any applicant paying a fee equal to or greater than $100,000 shall pay the full amount on July 1, for the subsequent fiscal year, or pay 50% of the fee on July 1 and the remaining 50% by the next January 1. The Agency may change any annual billing date upon reasonable notice, but shall prorate the new bill so that the permittee or applicant does not pay more than its required fees for the fee period for which payment is made.

b. (Blank).

c. (Blank).

d. There is hereby created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Clean Air Act Permit Fund (formerly known as the CAA Permit Fund). All Funds collected by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Fund. The General Assembly shall appropriate monies from this Fund to the Agency and to the Board to carry out their obligations under this Section. The General Assembly may also authorize monies to be granted by the Agency from this Fund to other State and local agencies which perform duties related to the CAAPP. Interest generated on the monies deposited in this Fund shall be returned to the Fund.

e. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary to implement this subsection.

f. For purposes of this subsection, the term "regulated air pollutant" shall have the meaning given to it under subsection 1 of this Section but shall exclude the following:

i. carbon monoxide;

ii. any Class I or II substance which is a regulated air pollutant solely because it is listed pursuant to Section 602 of the Clean Air Act; and

iii. any pollutant that is a regulated air pollutant solely because it is subject to a standard or regulation under Section 112(r) of the Clean Air Act based on the emissions allowed in the permit effective in that calendar year, at the time the applicable bill is generated.

19. Air Toxics Provisions.

a. In the event that the USEPA fails to promulgate in a timely manner a standard pursuant to Section 112(d) of the Clean Air Act, the Agency shall have the authority to issue permits, pursuant to Section 112(j) of the Clean Air Act and regulations promulgated thereunder, which contain emission limitations which are equivalent to the emission limitations that would apply to a source if an emission standard had been promulgated in a timely manner by USEPA pursuant to Section 112(d). Provided, however, that the owner or operator of a source shall have the opportunity to submit to the Agency a proposed emission limitation which it determines to be equivalent to the emission limitations that would apply to such source if an emission standard had been promulgated in a timely manner by USEPA. If the Agency refuses to include the emission limitation proposed by the owner or operator in a CAAPP permit, the owner or operator may petition the Board to establish whether the emission limitation proposal submitted by the owner or operator provides for emission limitations which are equivalent to the emission limitations that would apply to the source if the emission standard had been promulgated by USEPA in a timely manner. The Board shall determine whether the emission limitation proposed by the owner or operator or an alternative emission limitation proposed by the Agency provides for the level of control required under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act, or shall otherwise establish an appropriate emission limitation, pursuant to Section 112 of the Clean Air Act.

b. Any Board proceeding brought under paragraph (a) or (e) of this subsection shall be conducted according to the Board's procedures for adjudicatory hearings and the Board shall render its decision within 120 days of the filing of the petition. Any such decision shall be subject to review pursuant to Section 41 of this Act. Where USEPA promulgates an applicable emission standard prior to the issuance of the CAAPP permit, the Agency shall include in the permit the promulgated standard, provided that the source shall have the compliance period provided under Section 112(i) of the Clean Air Act. Where USEPA promulgates an applicable standard subsequent to the issuance of the CAAPP permit, the Agency shall revise such permit upon the next renewal to reflect the promulgated standard, providing a reasonable time for the applicable source to comply with the standard, but no longer than 8 years after the date on which the source is first required to comply with the emissions limitation established under this subsection.

c. The Agency shall have the authority to implement and enforce complete or partial emission standards promulgated by USEPA pursuant to Section 112(d), and standards promulgated by USEPA pursuant to Sections 112(f), 112(h), 112(m), and 112(n), and may accept delegation of authority from USEPA to implement and enforce Section 112(l) and requirements for the prevention and detection of accidental releases pursuant to Section 112(r) of the Clean Air Act.

d. The Agency shall have the authority to issue permits pursuant to Section 112(i)(5) of the Clean Air Act.

e. The Agency has the authority to implement Section 112(g) of the Clean Air Act consistent with the Clean Air Act and federal regulations promulgated thereunder. If the Agency refuses to include the emission limitations proposed in an application submitted by an owner or operator for a case-by-case maximum achievable control technology (MACT) determination, the owner or operator may petition the Board to determine whether the emission limitation proposed by the owner or operator or an alternative emission limitation proposed by the Agency provides for a level of control required by Section 112 of the Clean Air Act, or to otherwise establish an appropriate emission limitation under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act.

20. Small Business.

a. For purposes of this subsection:

"Program" is the Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Program created within this State pursuant to Section 507 of the Clean Air Act and guidance promulgated thereunder, to provide technical assistance and compliance information to small business stationary sources;

"Small Business Assistance Program" is a component of the Program responsible for providing sufficient communications with small businesses through the collection and dissemination of information to small business stationary sources; and

"Small Business Stationary Source" means a stationary source that:

1. is owned or operated by a person that employs 100 or fewer individuals;

2. is a small business concern as defined in the "Small Business Act";

3. is not a major source as that term is defined in subsection 2 of this Section;

4. does not emit 50 tons or more per year of any regulated air pollutant, except greenhouse gases; and

5. emits less than 75 tons per year of all regulated pollutants, except greenhouse gases.

b. The Agency shall adopt and submit to USEPA, after reasonable notice and opportunity for public comment, as a revision to the Illinois state implementation plan, plans for establishing the Program.

c. The Agency shall have the authority to enter into such contracts and agreements as the Agency deems necessary to carry out the purposes of this subsection.

d. The Agency may establish such procedures as it may deem necessary for the purposes of implementing and executing its responsibilities under this subsection.

e. There shall be appointed a Small Business Ombudsman (hereinafter in this subsection referred to as "Ombudsman") to monitor the Small Business Assistance Program. The Ombudsman shall be a nonpartisan designated official, with the ability to independently assess whether the goals of the Program are being met.

f. The State Ombudsman Office shall be located in an existing Ombudsman office within the State or in any State Department.

g. There is hereby created a State Compliance Advisory Panel (hereinafter in this subsection referred to as "Panel") for determining the overall effectiveness of the Small Business Assistance Program within this State.

h. The selection of Panel members shall be by the following method:

1. The Governor shall select two members who are not owners or representatives of owners of small business stationary sources to represent the general public;

2. The Director of the Agency shall select one member to represent the Agency; and

3. The State Legislature shall select four members who are owners or representatives of owners of small business stationary sources. Both the majority and minority leadership in both Houses of the Legislature shall appoint one member of the panel.

i. Panel members should serve without compensation but will receive full reimbursement for expenses including travel and per diem as authorized within this State.

j. The Panel shall select its own Chair by a majority vote. The Chair may meet and consult with the Ombudsman and the head of the Small Business Assistance Program in planning the activities for the Panel.

21. Temporary Sources.

a. The Agency may issue a single permit authorizing emissions from similar operations by the same source owner or operator at multiple temporary locations, except for sources which are affected sources for acid deposition under Title IV of the Clean Air Act.

b. The applicant must demonstrate that the operation is temporary and will involve at least one change of location during the term of the permit.

c. Any such permit shall meet all applicable requirements of this Section and applicable regulations, and include conditions assuring compliance with all applicable requirements at all authorized locations and requirements that the owner or operator notify the Agency at least 10 days in advance of each change in location.

22. Solid Waste Incineration Units.

a. A CAAPP permit for a solid waste incineration unit combusting municipal waste subject to standards promulgated under Section 129(e) of the Clean Air Act shall be issued for a period of 12 years and shall be reviewed every 5 years, unless the Agency requires more frequent review through Agency procedures.

b. During the review in paragraph (a) of this subsection, the Agency shall fully review the previously submitted CAAPP permit application and corresponding reports subsequently submitted to determine whether the source is in compliance with all applicable requirements.

c. If the Agency determines that the source is not in compliance with all applicable requirements it shall revise the CAAPP permit as appropriate.

d. The Agency shall have the authority to adopt procedural rules, in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as the Agency deems necessary, to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 99-380, eff. 8-17-15; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-103, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-23-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.4)

Sec. 57.4. State agencies Agencies. The Office of the State Fire Marshal and the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency shall administer the Leaking Underground Storage Tank Program in accordance with the terms of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 88-496; revised 7-29-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.5)

Sec. 57.5. Underground Storage Tanks; removal; repair; abandonment.

(a) Notwithstanding the eligibility or the level of deductibility of an owner or operator under the Underground Storage Tank Fund, any owner or operator of an Underground Storage Tank may seek to remove or abandon such tank under the provisions of this Title. In order to be reimbursed under Section 57.8, the owner or operator must comply with the provisions of this Title. In no event will an owner or operator be reimbursed for any costs which exceed the minimum requirements necessary to comply with this Title.

(b) Removal or abandonment of an Underground Storage Tank must be carried out in accordance with regulations adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(c) The Office of the State Fire Marshal or a designated agent shall have an inspector on site at the time of removal, abandonment, or such other times the Office of State Fire Marshal deems appropriate. At such time, the inspector shall, upon preliminary excavation of the tank site, render an opinion as to whether a release of petroleum has occurred and, if so, the owner or operator shall report the known or suspected release to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency. The owner or operator shall determine whether or not a release has occurred in conformance with the regulations adopted by the Board and the Office of the State Fire Marshal. Except that if the opinion of the Office of the State Fire Marshal inspector is that a release of petroleum has occurred and the owner or operator has reported the release to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency within 24 hours of removal of the tank, no such determination is required under this subsection. In the event the owner or operator confirms the presence of a release of petroleum, the owner or operator shall comply with Section 57.6. The inspector shall provide the owner or operator, or a designated agent, with an "Eligibility and Deductibility Determination" form. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall provide on-site assistance to the owner or operator or a designated agent with regard to the eligibility and deductibility procedures as provided in Section 57.9. If the Office of the State Fire Marshal is not on site, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall provide the owner or operator with an "Eligibility and Deductibility Determination" form within 15 days after receiving notice that the confirmed release was reported by the owner or operator.

(d) In the event that a release of petroleum is confirmed under subsection (c) of this Section, the owner or operator may elect to backfill the preliminary excavation and proceed under Section 57.6.

(e) In the event that an Underground Storage Tank is found to be ineligible for payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund, the owner or operator shall proceed under Sections 57.6 and 57.7.

(f) In the event that no release of petroleum is confirmed, the owner or operator shall proceed to complete the removal of the underground storage tank, and when appropriate, dispose of the tank and backfill the excavation or, in the alternate, abandon the underground storage tank in place. Either option shall be in accordance with regulations adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The owner or operator shall certify to the Office of the State Fire Marshal that the tank removal or abandonment was conducted in accordance with all applicable rules and regulations, and the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall then issue a certificate of removal or abandonment to the owner or operator. If the Office of the State Fire Marshal fails to issue a certificate of removal or abandonment within 30 days of receipt of the certification, the certification shall be considered rejected by operation of law and a final action appealable to the Board. Nothing in this Title shall prohibit the Office of the State Fire Marshal from making an independent inspection of the site and challenging the veracity of the owner or operator certification.

(g) The owner or operator of an underground storage tank taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, or an underground storage tank used exclusively to store heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where stored and which serves other than a farm or residential unit shall not be required to remove or abandon in place such underground storage tank except in the case in which the Office of the State Fire Marshal has determined that a release from the underground storage tank poses a current or potential threat to human health and the environment. In that case, and upon receipt of an order from the Office of the State Fire Marshal, the owner or operator of such underground storage tank shall conduct removal and, if necessary, site investigation and corrective action in accordance with this Title and regulations promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and the Board.

(h) In the event that a release of petroleum occurred between September 13, 1993, and August 1, 1994, for which the Office of the State Fire Marshal issued a certificate of removal or abandonment based on its determination of "no release" or "minor release," and the Office of the State Fire Marshal subsequently has rescinded that determination and required a report of a confirmed release to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, the owner or operator may be eligible for reimbursement for the costs of site investigation and corrective action incurred on or after the date of the release but prior to the notification of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency. The date of the release shall be the date of the initial inspection by the Office of the State Fire Marshal as recorded in its inspection log. Eligibility and deductibility shall be determined in accordance with this Title, the owner or operator must comply with the provisions of this Act and its rules, and in no case shall the owner or operator be reimbursed for costs exceeding the minimum requirements of this Act and its rules.

(Source: P.A. 92-554, eff. 6-24-02; revised 7-30-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.8)

Sec. 57.8. Underground Storage Tank Fund; payment; options for State payment; deferred correction election to commence corrective action upon availability of funds. If an owner or operator is eligible to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of the State Fire Marshal eligibility/deductible final determination letter issued in accordance with Section 57.9, the owner or operator may submit a complete application for final or partial payment to the Agency for activities taken in response to a confirmed release. An owner or operator may submit a request for partial or final payment regarding a site no more frequently than once every 90 days.

(a) Payment after completion of corrective action measures. The owner or operator may submit an application for payment for activities performed at a site after completion of the requirements of Sections 57.6 and 57.7, or after completion of any other required activities at the underground storage tank site.

(1) In the case of any approved plan and budget for which payment is being sought, the Agency shall make a payment determination within 120 days of receipt of the application. Such determination shall be considered a final decision. The Agency's review shall be limited to generally accepted auditing and accounting practices. In no case shall the Agency conduct additional review of any plan which was completed within the budget, beyond auditing for adherence to the corrective action measures in the proposal. If the Agency fails to approve the payment application within 120 days, such application shall be deemed approved by operation of law and the Agency shall proceed to reimburse the owner or operator the amount requested in the payment application. However, in no event shall the Agency reimburse the owner or operator an amount greater than the amount approved in the plan.

(2) If sufficient funds are available in the Underground Storage Tank Fund, the Agency shall, within 60 days, forward to the Office of the State Comptroller a voucher in the amount approved under the payment application.

(3) In the case of insufficient funds, the Agency shall form a priority list for payment and shall notify persons in such priority list monthly of the availability of funds and when payment shall be made. Payment shall be made to the owner or operator at such time as sufficient funds become available for the costs associated with site investigation and corrective action and costs expended for activities performed where no proposal is required, if applicable. Such priority list shall be available to any owner or operator upon request. Priority for payment shall be determined by the date the Agency receives a complete request for partial or final payment. Upon receipt of notification from the Agency that the requirements of this Title have been met, the Comptroller shall make payment to the owner or operator of the amount approved by the Agency, if sufficient money exists in the Fund. If there is insufficient money in the Fund, then payment shall not be made. If the owner or operator appeals a final Agency payment determination and it is determined that the owner or operator is eligible for payment or additional payment, the priority date for the payment or additional payment shall be the same as the priority date assigned to the original request for partial or final payment.

(4) Any deductible, as determined pursuant to the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility final determination in accordance with Section 57.9, shall be subtracted from any payment invoice paid to an eligible owner or operator. Only one deductible shall apply per underground storage tank site.

(5) In the event that costs are or will be incurred in addition to those approved by the Agency, or after payment, the owner or operator may submit successive plans containing amended budgets. The requirements of Section 57.7 shall apply to any amended plans.

(6) For purposes of this Section, a complete application shall consist of:

(A) A certification from a Licensed Professional Engineer or Licensed Professional Geologist as required under this Title and acknowledged by the owner or operator.

(B) A statement of the amounts approved in the budget and the amounts actually sought for payment along with a certified statement by the owner or operator that the amounts so sought were expended in conformance with the approved budget.

(C) A copy of the Office of the State Fire Marshal's eligibility and deductibility determination.

(D) Proof that approval of the payment requested will not result in the limitations set forth in subsection (g) of this Section being exceeded.

(E) A federal taxpayer identification number and legal status disclosure certification on a form prescribed and provided by the Agency.

(F) If the Agency determined under subsection (c)(3) of Section 57.7 of this Act that corrective action must include a project labor agreement, a certification from the owner or operator that the corrective action was (i) performed under a project labor agreement that meets the requirements of Section 25 of the Project Labor Agreements Act and (ii) implemented in a manner consistent with the terms and conditions of the Project Labor Agreements Act and in full compliance with all statutes, regulations, and Executive Orders as required under that Act and the Prevailing Wage Act.

(b) Commencement of site investigation or corrective action upon availability of funds. The Board shall adopt regulations setting forth procedures based on risk to human health or the environment under which the owner or operator who has received approval for any budget plan submitted pursuant to Section 57.7, and who is eligible for payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to an Office of the State Fire Marshal eligibility and deductibility determination, may elect to defer site investigation or corrective action activities until funds are available in an amount equal to the amount approved in the budget. The regulations shall establish criteria based on risk to human health or the environment to be used for determining on a site-by-site basis whether deferral is appropriate. The regulations also shall establish the minimum investigatory requirements for determining whether the risk based criteria are present at a site considering deferral and procedures for the notification of owners or operators of insufficient funds, Agency review of request for deferral, notification of Agency final decisions, returning deferred sites to active status, and earmarking of funds for payment.

(c) When the owner or operator requests indemnification for payment of costs incurred as a result of a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank, if the owner or operator has satisfied the requirements of subsection (a) of this Section, the Agency shall forward a copy of the request to the Attorney General. The Attorney General shall review and approve the request for indemnification if:

(1) there is a legally enforceable judgment entered against the owner or operator and such judgment was entered due to harm caused by a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank and such judgment was not entered as a result of fraud; or

(2) a settlement with a third party due to a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank is reasonable.

(d) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the Agency shall not approve payment to an owner or operator from the Fund for costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred during a calendar year in excess of the following aggregate amounts based on the number of petroleum underground storage tanks owned or operated by such owner or operator in Illinois.

Amount Number of Tanks

$2,000,000........................fewer than 101

$3,000,000................................101 or more

(2) (1) Costs incurred in excess of the aggregate amounts set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not be eligible for payment in subsequent years.

(3) (2) For purposes of this subsection, requests submitted by any of the agencies, departments, boards, committees, or commissions of the State of Illinois shall be acted upon as claims from a single owner or operator.

(4) (3) For purposes of this subsection, owner or operator includes (i) any subsidiary, parent, or joint stock company of the owner or operator and (ii) any company owned by any parent, subsidiary, or joint stock company of the owner or operator.

(e) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator which have been paid to an owner or operator under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order are not eligible for payment under this Section. An owner or operator who receives payment under a policy of insurance, another written agreement, or a court order shall reimburse the State to the extent such payment covers costs for which payment was received from the Fund. Any monies received by the State under this subsection (e) shall be deposited into the Fund.

(f) (Blank.).

(g) The Agency shall not approve any payment from the Fund to pay an owner or operator:

(1) for costs of corrective action incurred by such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence; and

(2) for costs of indemnification of such owner or operator in an amount in excess of $1,500,000 per occurrence.

(h) Payment of any amount from the Fund for corrective action or indemnification shall be subject to the State acquiring by subrogation the rights of any owner, operator, or other person to recover the costs of corrective action or indemnification for which the Fund has compensated such owner, operator, or person from the person responsible or liable for the release.

(i) If the Agency refuses to pay or authorizes only a partial payment, the affected owner or operator may petition the Board for a hearing in the manner provided for the review of permit decisions in Section 40 of this Act.

(j) Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred by an owner or operator prior to July 28, 1989, shall not be eligible for payment or reimbursement under this Section.

(k) The Agency shall not pay costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred before providing notification of the release of petroleum in accordance with the provisions of this Title.

(l) Corrective action does not include legal defense costs. Legal defense costs include legal costs for seeking payment under this Title unless the owner or operator prevails before the Board in which case the Board may authorize payment of legal fees.

(m) The Agency may apportion payment of costs for plans submitted under Section 57.7 if:

(1) the owner or operator was deemed eligible to access the Fund for payment of corrective action costs for some, but not all, of the underground storage tanks at the site; and

(2) the owner or operator failed to justify all costs attributable to each underground storage tank at the site.

(n) The Agency shall not pay costs associated with a corrective action plan incurred after the Agency provides notification to the owner or operator pursuant to item (7) of subsection (b) of Section 57.7 that a revised corrective action plan is required. Costs associated with any subsequently approved corrective action plan shall be eligible for reimbursement if they meet the requirements of this Title.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 7-30-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/57.9)

Sec. 57.9. Underground Storage Tank Fund; eligibility and deductibility.

(a) The Underground Storage Tank Fund shall be accessible by owners and operators who have a confirmed release from an underground storage tank or related tank system of a substance listed in this Section. The owner or operator is eligible to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund if the eligibility requirements of this Title are satisfied and:

(1) Neither the owner nor the operator is the United States Government.

(2) The tank does not contain fuel which is exempt from the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

(3) The costs were incurred as a result of a confirmed release of any of the following substances:

(A) "Fuel", as defined in Section 1.19 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

(B) Aviation fuel.

(C) Heating oil.

(D) Kerosene.

(E) Used oil which has been refined from crude oil used in a motor vehicle, as defined in Section 1.3 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

(4) The owner or operator registered the tank and paid all fees in accordance with the statutory and regulatory requirements of the Gasoline Storage Act.

(5) The owner or operator notified the Illinois Emergency Management Agency of a confirmed release, the costs were incurred after the notification and the costs were a result of a release of a substance listed in this Section. Costs of corrective action or indemnification incurred before providing that notification shall not be eligible for payment.

(6) The costs have not already been paid to the owner or operator under a private insurance policy, other written agreement, or court order.

(7) The costs were associated with "corrective action" of this Act.

If the underground storage tank which experienced a release of a substance listed in this Section was installed after July 28, 1989, the owner or operator is eligible to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund if it is demonstrated to the Office of the State Fire Marshal the tank was installed and operated in accordance with Office of the State Fire Marshal regulatory requirements. Office of the State Fire Marshal certification is prima facie evidence the tank was installed pursuant to the Office of the State Fire Marshal regulatory requirements.

(b) For releases reported prior to June 8, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-908) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, an owner or operator may access the Underground Storage Tank Fund for costs associated with an Agency approved plan and the Agency shall approve the payment of costs associated with corrective action after the application of a $10,000 deductible, except in the following situations:

(1) A deductible of $100,000 shall apply when none of the underground storage tanks were registered prior to July 28, 1989, except in the case of underground storage tanks used exclusively to store heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where stored and which serve other than farms or residential units, a deductible of $100,000 shall apply when none of these tanks were registered prior to July 1, 1992.

(2) A deductible of $50,000 shall apply if any of the underground storage tanks were registered prior to July 28, 1989, and the State received notice of the confirmed release prior to July 28, 1989.

(3) A deductible of $15,000 shall apply when one or more, but not all, of the underground storage tanks were registered prior to July 28, 1989, and the State received notice of the confirmed release on or after July 28, 1989.

For releases reported on or after June 8, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-908) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, an owner or operator may access the Underground Storage Tank Fund for costs associated with an Agency approved plan, and the Agency shall approve the payment of costs associated with corrective action after the application of a $5,000 deductible.

A deductible shall apply annually for each site at which costs were incurred under a claim submitted pursuant to this Title, except that if corrective action in response to an occurrence takes place over a period of more than one year, in subsequent years, no deductible shall apply for costs incurred in response to such occurrence.

(c) Eligibility and deductibility determinations shall be made by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(1) When an owner or operator reports a confirmed release of a regulated substance, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall provide the owner or operator with an "Eligibility and Deductibility Determination" form. The form shall either be provided on-site or within 15 days of the Office of the State Fire Marshal receipt of notice indicating a confirmed release. The form shall request sufficient information to enable the Office of the State Fire Marshal to make a final determination as to owner or operator eligibility to access the Underground Storage Tank Fund pursuant to this Title and the appropriate deductible. The form shall be promulgated as a rule or regulation pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act by the Office of the State Fire Marshal. Until such form is promulgated, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall use a form which generally conforms with this Act.

(2) Within 60 days of receipt of the "Eligibility and Deductibility Determination" form, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall issue one letter enunciating the final eligibility and deductibility determination, and such determination or failure to act within the time prescribed shall be a final decision appealable to the Illinois Pollution Control Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-908, eff. 6-8-10; revised 7-30-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/59.1)

Sec. 59.1. Carbon capture permit requirements. For air construction permit applications for carbon dioxide capture projects at existing sources submitted on or after July 18, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-651) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, no permit may be issued unless all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The permit applicant demonstrates that there will be no net increase in the individual allowable potential annual criteria pollutant emissions at the source. If the Agency determines that it is technically infeasible for an applicant to demonstrate that there will be no net increase in the individual allowable potential annual criteria pollutant emissions at the source, the Agency shall allow an alternative demonstration.

(2) The Agency has complied with the public participation requirements under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 252.

(3) The permit applicant submits to the Agency in its permit application, a Greenhouse Gas Inventory Analysis, as set forth in guidance from the United States Environmental Protection Agency, that includes all emissions at the stack or emissions source from which carbon dioxide is captured and a demonstration that the total greenhouse gas emissions associated with capture, including, but not limited to, (i) the emissions at the stack or emissions source from which the carbon dioxide is captured, (ii) the additional emissions associated with additional electricity generated, whether on-site or off-site, used to power any capture equipment, and (iii) any increased emissions necessary for the operation of the capture facility as compared to before the installation and operation of the capture equipment at the facility, do not exceed the total amount of greenhouse gas emissions captured. This comparison shall be made on an annual basis, projected across the proposed life span of the capture project.

(4) The permit applicant provides a water impact assessment report. The report must have been submitted to the Department of Natural Resources and to the Soil and Water Conservation District in the county in which the project will be constructed. The report shall identify the following:

(A) each water source to be used by the project;

(B) the pumping method to be used by the project;

(C) the maximum and expected average daily pumping rates for the pumps used by the project;

(D) the impacts to each water source used by the project, such as aquifer drawdown or river reductions; and

(E) a detailed assessment of the impact on water users near the area of impact.

The water impact assessment shall consider the water impacts (i) immediately following the project's initial operations, (ii) at the end of the project's expected operational life, and (iii) during a drought or other similar event.

The permit applicant shall submit a certification to the Agency that the applicant has submitted its initial water use impact study and the applicant's ongoing water usage to the Department of Natural Resources. This requirement may be satisfied by submitting to the Agency copies of documents provided to the United States Environmental Protection Agency in accordance with 40 CFR 146.82 if the applicant satisfies the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 10-24-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/59.9)

Sec. 59.9. Closure. The owner or operator of a carbon sequestration activity permitted in accordance with this Act shall monitor the site during the post-injection site care period, which shall be no less than 30 years after the last date of injection, as well as following certification of closure by United States Environmental Protection Agency Act to show the position of the carbon dioxide and pressure front to ensure it does not pose an endangerment to groundwater, as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 620, or to human health or the environment, unless and until the Agency certifies that a carbon sequestration facility is closed. Air and soil gas monitoring required by a carbon sequestration activity permit issued by the Agency must continue until the Agency certifies the carbon sequestration facility as closed. The Agency shall certify a carbon sequestration facility as closed if:

(1) the owner or operator submits to the Agency a copy of a closure certification issued for the carbon sequestration facility in accordance with 40 CFR 146.93; and

(2) the owner or operator demonstrates to the Agency that no additional air or soil gas monitoring is needed to ensure the carbon sequestration facility does not pose an endangerment to groundwater, as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 620, or to human health or the environment.

This demonstration must include location-specific monitoring data. The certification of closure does not relieve an operator of any liabilities from the carbon sequestration activity or carbon sequestration facility.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 10-23-24.)

(415 ILCS 5/59.10)

Sec. 59.10. Financial assurance.

(a) The owner or operator of a sequestration activity permitted in accordance with this Act shall maintain financial assurance in an amount equal to or greater than the cost estimate calculated in accordance with paragraph (11) of Section 59.6.

(b) The owner or operator of the sequestration activity must use one or a combination of the following mechanisms as financial assurance:

(1) a fully funded trust fund;

(2) a surety bond guaranteeing payment;

(3) a surety bond guaranteeing performance; or

(4) an irrevocable letter of credit.

(c) The financial assurance mechanism must identify the Agency as the sole beneficiary.

(d) The financial assurance mechanism shall be on forms adopted by the Agency. The Agency must adopt these forms within 90 days of the date of July 18, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-651) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(e) The Agency shall release a trustee, surety, or other financial institution holding a financial assurance mechanism when:

(1) the owner or operator of a carbon sequestration activity substitutes alternative financial assurance such that the total financial assurance for the site is equal to or greater than the current cost estimate, without counting the amounts to be released; or

(2) the Agency determines that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain a permit.

(f) The Agency may enter into contracts and agreements it deems necessary to carry out the purposes of this Section, including, but not limited to, interagency agreements with the Illinois State Geological Survey, the Department of Natural Resources, or other agencies of the State. Neither the State nor any State employee shall be liable for any damages or injuries arising out of or resulting from any action taken under paragraph (11) of Section 59.6.

(g) The Agency may order that a permit holder modify the financial assurance or order that proceeds from financial assurance be applied to the remedial action at or closure of an injection site. The Agency may pursue legal action in any court of competent jurisdiction to enforce its rights under financial instruments used to provide the financial assurance required under Section 59.10.

(h) An owner or operator of a carbon sequestration activity permitted in accordance with this Act that has a closure plan approved by the United States Environmental Protection Agency in accordance with 40 CFR 146.93 may satisfy the financial assurance requirements for any portion of the cost estimates for closure costs required by the Agency by submitting to the Agency true copies of the financial assurance mechanism required by 40 CFR 146.85, if those mechanisms are compliant with Section 59.10.

(Source: P.A. 103-651, eff. 7-18-24; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 960. The Pesticide Application on Rights-of-Way Notification Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(415 ILCS 61/1)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the the Pesticide Application on Rights-of-Way Notification Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-976, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-4-24.)

Section 965. The Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act is amended by changing Section 5a as follows:

(415 ILCS 65/5a)

Sec. 5a. Fertilizer; application restrictions.

(a) No applicator for hire shall:

(1) Apply phosphorus-containing fertilizer to a lawn, except as demonstrated to be necessary by a soil test that establishes that the soil is lacking in phosphorus phosphorous when compared against the standard established by the University of Illinois. The soil test required under this paragraph (1) shall be conducted no more than 36 months before the intended application of the fertilizer and by a soil testing laboratory that has been identified by the University of Illinois as an acceptable laboratory for soil testing. However, a soil test shall not be required under this paragraph (1) if the fertilizer to be applied is a 0% phosphate fertilizer or the fertilizer is being applied to establish a lawn in the first 2 growing seasons.

(2) Apply fertilizer to an impervious surface, except where the application is inadvertent and fertilizer is swept or blown back into the target area or returned to either its original or another appropriate container for reuse.

(3) Apply fertilizer using a spray, drop, or rotary spreader with a deflector within a 3 foot buffer of any water body, except that when this equipment is not used, fertilizer may not be applied within a 15 foot buffer of any water body.

(4) Apply fertilizer at any time when the lawn is frozen or saturated. For the purposes of this paragraph (4), a lawn is frozen when its root system is frozen (typically 3 or 4 inches down), and a lawn is saturated when it bears ample evidence of being or having been inundated by standing water.

(b) This Section does not apply to the application of fertilizer on property used in the operation of a commercial farm, lands classified as agricultural lands, or golf courses.

(c) This Section does not apply to the application of lawn repair products.

(d) Paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to the application of animal or vegetable manure that is ground, pelletized, mechanically dried, packaged, or supplemented with plant nutrients or other substances other than phosphorus.

(Source: P.A. 96-1005, eff. 7-6-10; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 970. The Illinois Low-Level Radioactive Waste Management Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(420 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 241-3)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Agency" or "IEMA-OHS" means the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security, or its successor agency.

"Broker" means any person who takes possession of low-level waste for purposes of consolidation and shipment.

"Compact" means the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact.

"Decommissioning" means the measures taken at the end of a facility's operating life to assure the continued protection of the public from any residual radioactivity or other potential hazards present at a facility.

"Director" means the Director of the Agency.

"Disposal" means the isolation of waste from the biosphere in a permanent facility designed for that purpose.

"Facility" means a parcel of land or site, together with structures, equipment and improvements on or appurtenant to the land or site, which is used or is being developed for the treatment, storage or disposal of low-level radioactive waste. "Facility" does not include lands, sites, structures, or equipment used by a generator in the generation of low-level radioactive wastes.

"Generator" means any person who produces or possesses low-level radioactive waste in the course of or incident to manufacturing, power generation, processing, medical diagnosis and treatment, research, education, or other activity.

"Hazardous waste" means a waste, or combination of wastes, which because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious, irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness; or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed, and which has been identified, by characteristics or listing, as hazardous under Section 3001 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, P.L. 94-580 or under regulations of the Pollution Control Board.

"High-level radioactive waste" means:

(1) the highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from the liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations; and

(2) the highly radioactive material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined, on July 21, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-1133) this Amendatory Act of 1988, to be high-level radioactive waste requiring permanent isolation.

"Low-level radioactive waste" or "waste" means radioactive waste not classified as (1) high-level radioactive waste, (2) transuranic waste, (3) spent nuclear fuel, or (4) byproduct material as defined in Sections 11e(2), 11e(3), and 11e(4) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014). This definition shall apply notwithstanding any declaration by the federal government, a state, or any regulatory agency that any radioactive material is exempt from any regulatory control.

"Mixed waste" means waste that is both "hazardous waste" and "low-level radioactive waste" as defined in this Act.

"Nuclear facilities" means nuclear power plants, facilities housing nuclear test and research reactors, facilities for the chemical conversion of uranium, and facilities for the storage of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste.

"Nuclear power plant" or "nuclear steam-generating facility" means a thermal power plant in which the energy (heat) released by the fissioning of nuclear fuel is used to boil water to produce steam.

"Nuclear power reactor" means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, business enterprise, or other legal entity either public or private and any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of that individual, corporation, business enterprise, or legal entity.

"Post-closure care" means the continued monitoring of the regional disposal facility after closure for the purposes of detecting a need for maintenance, ensuring environmental safety, and determining compliance with applicable licensure and regulatory requirements, and includes undertaking any remedial actions necessary to protect public health and the environment from radioactive releases from the facility.

"Regional disposal facility" or "disposal facility" means the facility established by the State of Illinois under this Act for disposal away from the point of generation of waste generated in the region of the Compact.

"Release" means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment of low-level radioactive waste.

"Remedial action" means those actions taken in the event of a release or threatened release of low-level radioactive waste into the environment, to prevent or minimize the release of the waste so that it does not migrate to cause substantial danger to present or future public health or welfare or the environment. The term includes, but is not limited to, actions at the location of the release such as storage, confinement, perimeter protection using dikes, trenches or ditches, clay cover, neutralization, cleanup of released low-level radioactive wastes, recycling or reuse, dredging or excavations, repair or replacement of leaking containers, collection of leachate and runoff, onsite treatment or incineration, provision of alternative water supplies, and any monitoring reasonably required to assure that these actions protect human health and the environment.

"Scientific Surveys" means, collectively, the Illinois State Geological Survey and the Illinois State Water Survey of the University of Illinois.

"Shallow land burial" means a land disposal facility in which radioactive waste is disposed of in or within the upper 30 meters of the earth's surface. However, this definition shall not include an enclosed, engineered, structurally re-enforced and solidified bunker that extends below the earth's surface.

"Small modular reactor" or "SMR" means an advanced nuclear reactor: (1) with a rated nameplate capacity of 300 electrical megawatts or less; and (2) that may be constructed and operated in combination with similar reactors at a single site.

"Storage" means the temporary holding of waste for treatment or disposal for a period determined by Agency regulations.

"Treatment" means any method, technique, or process, including storage for radioactive decay, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or composition of any waste in order to render the waste safer for transport, storage, or disposal, amenable to recovery, convertible to another usable material, or reduced in volume.

"Waste management" means the storage, transportation, treatment, or disposal of waste.

(Source: P.A. 103-306, eff. 7-28-23; 103-569, eff. 6-1-24; revised 7-30-24.)

Section 975. The Radioactive Waste Tracking and Permitting Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(420 ILCS 37/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Agency" or "IEMA-OHS" means the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and Office of Homeland Security, or its successor agency.

(b) "Director" means the Director of the Agency.

(c) "Disposal" means the isolation of waste from the biosphere in a permanent facility designed for that purpose.

(d) "Facility" means a parcel of land or a site, together with structures, equipment, and improvements on or appurtenant to the land or site, that is used or is being developed for the treatment, storage, or disposal of low-level radioactive waste.

(e) "Low-level radioactive waste" or "waste" means radioactive waste not classified as (1) high-level radioactive waste, (2) transuranic waste, (3) spent nuclear fuel, or (4) byproduct material as defined in Sections 11e(2), 11e(3), and 11e(4) of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2014). This definition shall apply notwithstanding any declaration by the federal government, a state, or any regulatory agency that any radioactive material is exempt from any regulatory control.

(e-5) "Nuclear facilities" means nuclear power plants, facilities housing nuclear test and research reactors, facilities for the chemical conversion of uranium, and facilities for the storage of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste.

(e-10) "Nuclear power plant" or "nuclear steam-generating facility" means a thermal power plant in which the energy (heat) released by the fissioning of nuclear fuel is used to boil water to produce steam.

(e-15) "Nuclear power reactor" means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction.

(e-20) "Small modular reactor" or "SMR" means an advanced nuclear reactor: (1) with a rated nameplate capacity of 300 electrical megawatts or less; and (2) that may be constructed and operated in combination with similar reactors at a single site.

(f) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business enterprise, or other legal entity, public or private, or any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of that individual, corporation, business enterprise, or legal entity.

(g) "Regional facility" or "disposal facility" means a facility that is located in Illinois and established by Illinois, under designation of Illinois as a host state by the Commission for disposal of waste.

(h) "Storage" means the temporary holding of waste for treatment or disposal for a period determined by Agency regulations.

(i) "Treatment" means any method, technique, or process, including storage for radioactive decay, that is designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or composition of any waste in order to render the waste safer for transport, storage, or disposal, amenable to recovery, convertible to another usable material, or reduced in volume.

(Source: P.A. 103-306, eff. 7-28-23; 103-569, eff. 6-1-24; revised 7-31-24.)

Section 980. The Radiation Protection Act of 1990 is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(420 ILCS 40/14) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-14)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 14. Radiation Protection Advisory Council. There shall be created a Radiation Protection Advisory Council consisting of 7 members to be appointed by the Governor on the basis of demonstrated interest in and capacity to further the purposes of this Act and who shall broadly reflect the varied interests in and aspects of atomic energy and ionizing radiation within the State. The Director of the Department of Labor and the Chairman of the Commerce Commission or their representatives shall be ex-officio members of the Council.

Each member of the Council shall be appointed for a 4 year term and shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed. The Chairman of the Council shall be selected by and from the Council membership. The Council members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in line of duty. The Council shall meet as often as the Chairman deems necessary, but upon request of 4 or more members it shall be the duty of the Chairman to call a meeting of the Council.

It shall be the duty of the Council to assist in the formulation of and to review the policies and program of the Agency as developed under authority of this Act and to make recommendations thereon and to provide the Agency with such technical advice and assistance as may be requested. The Council may employ such professional, technical, clerical, and other assistants, without regard to the civil service laws or the "Personnel Code" of this State, as it deems necessary to carry out its duties.

Individuals who serve on advisory boards of the Department of Nuclear Safety or its successor agency, the Agency, shall be defended by the Attorney General and indemnified for all actions alleging a violation of any duty arising within the scope of their service on such board. Nothing contained herein shall be deemed to afford defense or indemnification for any willful or wanton violation of law. Such defense and indemnification shall be afforded in accordance with the terms and provisions of the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-569, eff. 6-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 985. The Space Heating Safety Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(425 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 703)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Integral Reservoir" means the container for the supply of fuel held within the heating unit.

(b) "Self-supporting heater" means any heater with an integral reservoir for fuel.

(c) "Portable Kerosene Fueled Heater" means any nonflue-connected, self-contained, self-supporting, kerosene fueled, heating appliance equipped with an integral reservoir, designed to be carried from one location to another, but excluding any heater designed to be used solely in buildings under construction, or for agricultural purposes.

(d) "Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory" means any of the following testing or inspection agencies: Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., Canadian Standards Association, Factory Mutual System, and Applied Research Laboratories of Florida, Inc.

(e) "Listed heater" means any portable oil fueled heater which has been evaluated with respect to reasonably foreseeable hazards to life and property by a nationally recognized testing laboratory, and which is certified to comply with minimum standards of design and performance required by Underwriter's Laboratory Subject 647 (1984), and which has been authorized by the Office of the State Fire Marshal as being reasonably safe for its specific purpose and shown in a list published by such agency and bears the mark of such agency as an indication that it has been so authorized. Any evaluation shall include, but not be limited to, evaluation of the design and labeling requirements hereinafter set forth in Section 4 of this Act and shall further include certain quality control procedures that must be implemented in the manufacturing process.

(f) "Approved heater" means any listed heater is an approved heater.

(g) "Structure" means any building.

(h) "Multifamily Dwelling" means a dwelling which is either rented, leased, let or hired out to be occupied, or is occupied as the residence or home of 3 or more families or persons living independently of each other.

(i) "Residential Use" means any use in a single family dwelling, apartment house, or multiple family dwelling.

(j) "Owner" means the owner of the freehold of any real property or of a lesser estate therein, a mortgagee or vendee in possession, assignee of rents, receiver, executor, trustee, lessee, agent, or any other person, firm, or corporation directly or indirectly in control of real property.

(Source: P.A. 84-834; revised 8-7-24.)

Section 990. The Gasoline Storage Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 6 as follows:

(430 ILCS 15/4) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 156)

Sec. 4. Underground Storage Tank Program; administration.

(a) In cooperation with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall administer the Illinois Underground Storage Tank Program in accordance with this Section and Section 22.12 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(b) (1)(A) The owner of an underground storage tank that was not taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, and that at any time between January 1, 1974, and September 24, 1987, contained petroleum or petroleum products or hazardous substances, with the exception of hazardous wastes, shall register the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal. No underground storage tank taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, may be registered under this Act. No underground storage tank otherwise required to be registered under this subparagraph (A) may be registered under this Act if that tank was removed before September 24, 1987.

(B) The owner of a heating oil underground storage tank having a capacity of greater than 1,100 1100 gallons that was not taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, and that at any time between January 1, 1974, and July 11, 1990, contained heating oil shall register the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal. No heating oil underground storage tank taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, may be registered under this Act. No heating oil underground storage tank otherwise required to be registered under this subparagraph (B) may be registered under this Act if that tank was removed before July 11, 1990.

(C) The owner of a heating oil underground storage tank having a capacity of 1,100 gallons or less that was not taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, and that any time between January 1, 1974, and September 6, 1991, contained heating oil shall register the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal. No heating oil underground storage tank taken out of operation before January 2, 1974, may be registered under this Act. No heating oil underground storage tank otherwise required to be registered under this subparagraph (C) may be registered under this Act if that tank was removed before September 6, 1991.

(D) "Operation", as used in this subsection (b), means that the tank must have had input or output of petroleum, petroleum products, or hazardous substances, with the exception of hazardous wastes, during the regular course of its usage. "Operation" does not include (i) compliance with leak detection requirements as prescribed by rules and regulations of the Office of the State Fire Marshal or (ii) the mere containment or storage of petroleum, petroleum products, or hazardous substances, with the exception of hazardous wastes.

(2) The owner of an underground storage tank who registered the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal under Section 4 of the State Fire Marshal Act prior to September 24, 1987 shall be deemed to have registered the tank under paragraph (1).

(3)(A) Each person required to register an underground storage tank, other than a heating oil underground storage tank, under paragraph (1) shall pay the Office of the State Fire Marshal a registration fee of $500 for each tank registered, to be deposited in the Underground Storage Tank Fund.

(B) Each person required to register a heating oil underground storage tank shall pay to the Office of the State Fire Marshal a registration fee of $100 for each tank registered before July 2, 1992, and $500 for each tank registered after July 1, 1992, to be deposited into the Underground Storage Tank Fund.

(C) No registration fee shall be due under this paragraph (3) for underground storage tanks deemed registered pursuant to paragraph (2).

(4) The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall establish procedures relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this subsection. Such procedures shall include, but need not be limited to, the time and manner of payment to the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(5) The State Fire Marshal is authorized to enter into such contracts and agreements as may be necessary, and as expeditiously as necessary, to carry out the Office of the State Fire Marshal's duties under this subsection.

(6)(A) The owner of an underground storage tank, other than a heating oil underground storage tank, which is installed or replaced after September 24, 1987, and which contained, contains, or may contain petroleum or petroleum products or hazardous substances, with the exception of hazardous wastes, shall register the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal prior to the installation or replacement.

(B) The owner of a heating oil underground storage tank installed or replaced after July 11, 1990, and which contained or may contain heating oil shall register the tank with the Office of the State Fire Marshal before the installation or replacement.

(7) Any person required to register an underground storage tank under paragraph (1) or paragraph (6) of this subsection shall register the tank on forms provided by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), a person who is the owner of an underground storage tank containing petroleum, or petroleum products, or hazardous substances, except hazardous waste, registered under subsection (b) shall notify the Office of the State Fire Marshal of any change in the information required under this Section or of the removal of an underground storage tank from service.

(d) A person who is the owner of an underground storage tank containing petroleum, or petroleum products, or hazardous substances, except hazardous waste, the contents of which are changed routinely, shall indicate all the materials which are stored in the tank on the registration form. A person providing the information described in this subsection is not required to notify the Office of the State Fire Marshal of changes in the contents of the tank unless the material to be stored in the tank differs from the information provided on the registration form.

(e) For purposes of this Act:

The terms "petroleum" and "underground storage tank" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), except that "underground storage tank" shall include heating oil underground storage tanks; however, no release detection shall be required of heating oil tanks, in existence as of July 11, 1990, prior to December 22, 1998. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall have the authority to determine the criteria for classification of an underground storage tank as being either a petroleum underground storage tank or a hazardous substance underground storage tank.

When used in connection with, or when otherwise relating to underground storage tanks, the terms "operator", "owner", and "facility" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Subtitle I of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (P.L. 98-616) of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580).

"Bodily injury" means bodily injury, sickness, or disease sustained by a person, including death at any time, resulting from a release of petroleum from an underground storage tank.

"Property damage" means physical injury to, destruction of, or contamination of tangible property, including all resulting loss of use of that property; or loss of use of tangible property that is not physically injured, destroyed, or contaminated, but has been evacuated, withdrawn from use, or rendered inaccessible because of an occurrence.

"Occurrence" means an accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, which results in a release of petroleum into the environment from an underground storage tank.

"Heating oil" means petroleum that is No. 1, No. 2, No. 4 light, No. 4 heavy, No. 5 light, No. 5 heavy, or No. 6 technical grades of fuel oil; or other residual fuel oils including Navy Special Fuel Oil and Bunker C.

"Heating oil underground storage tank" means an underground storage tank serving other than farms or residential units that is used exclusively to store heating oil for consumptive use on the premises where stored.

(Source: P.A. 87-323; 87-1088; 88-496; revised 7-31-24.)

(430 ILCS 15/6) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 158)

Sec. 6. (a) If necessary or appropriate to assure that the public health or safety is not threatened, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall have authority to:

(1)(A) provide notice to the owner or operator, or both, of an underground storage tank whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of petroleum or regulated substances from such tank. Such notice shall include the identified emergency action and an opportunity for the owner or operator, or both, to perform the emergency action; or

(B) undertake emergency action whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of petroleum or regulated substances from an underground storage tank.

(2) If notice has been provided under clause (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Office shall have the authority to require the owner or operator, or both, of an underground storage tank to undertake emergency action whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of petroleum or regulated substances from such tank.

(3) The emergency action undertaken or required under this Section shall be such as may be necessary or appropriate to assure that the public health or safety is not threatened.

(b) In accordance with constitutional limitations, the Office shall have authority to enter at all reasonable times upon any private or public property for the purpose of taking emergency action whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of petroleum or regulated substances from an underground storage tank.

(c) The Office shall require emergency action under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) through issuance of an administrative order Administrative Order. Such an order shall be served by registered or certified mail or in person and may order emergency action. Any person served with such an order may appeal such order by submitting in writing any such appeal to the Office within 10 days of the date of receipt of such order. The Office shall conduct an administrative hearing governed by the The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and enter an order to sustain, modify, or revoke such order. Any appeal from such order shall be to the circuit court of the county in which the violation took place and shall be governed by the Administrative Review Law.

(d) Neither the State, the State Fire Marshal, nor any State employee shall be liable for any damages or injury arising out of or resulting from any action taken under this Section 6.

(Source: P.A. 85-1325; revised 8-8-24.)

Section 995. The Herptiles-Herps Act is amended by changing Sections 90-10 and 105-65 as follows:

(510 ILCS 68/90-10)

Sec. 90-10. Commercial purposes; offenses.

(a) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, any person who for profit or commercial purposes knowingly captures, kills, possesses, offers for sale, sells, offers to barter, barters, offers to purchase, purchases, delivers for shipment, ships, exports, imports, causes to be shipped, exported, or imported, delivers for transportation, transports, or causes to be transported, carries or causes to be carried, or receives for shipment, transportation, carriage, or export any herptile taxa, in whole or in part, protected under this Act and the financial value of that herptile, in whole or in part, is valued:

(1) at or in excess of a total of $300 as calculated according to the applicable provisions under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (a) of in Section 105-95 of this Act is guilty of a Class 3 felony; or

(2) less than the total of $300 as calculated according to the applicable provisions under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (a) of in Section 105-95 of this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(b) The possession of any herptile, in whole or in part, captured or killed in violation of this Act that is valued at or in excess of $600 under the provisions of in subsection (b) of Section 105-95 of this Act shall be considered prima facie evidence of possession for profit or commercial purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-315, eff. 1-1-22; revised 8-9-24.)

(510 ILCS 68/105-65)

Sec. 105-65. Accessory to violation; accountability.

(a) Any person who aids in or contributes in any way to a violation of this Act, including administrative rules, is individually liable, as a separate offense under this Act, for the penalties imposed against the person who committed the violation.

(b) Accountability for any person who aids or contributes in any way to a misdemeanor or felony violation of this Act shall be determined according to the provisions of under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-315, eff. 1-1-22; revised 8-9-24.)

Section 1000. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 2.26 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.26) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.26)

Sec. 2.26. Deer hunting permits. Any person attempting to take deer shall first obtain a "Deer Hunting Permit" issued by the Department in accordance with its administrative rules. Those rules must provide for the issuance of the following types of resident deer archery permits: (i) a combination permit, consisting of one either-sex permit and one antlerless-only permit, (ii) a single antlerless-only permit, and (iii) a single either-sex permit. The fee for a Deer Hunting Permit to take deer with either bow and arrow or gun shall not exceed $25 for residents of the State. The Department may by administrative rule provide for non-resident deer hunting permits for which the fee will not exceed $300 in 2005, $350 in 2006, and $400 in 2007 and thereafter except as provided below for non-resident landowners and non-resident archery hunters. The Department may by administrative rule provide for a non-resident archery deer permit consisting of not more than 2 harvest tags at a total cost not to exceed $325 in 2005, $375 in 2006, and $425 in 2007 and thereafter. The fees for a youth resident and non-resident archery deer permit shall be the same.

The Department shall create a pilot program during the special 3-day, youth-only deer hunting season to allow for youth deer hunting permits that are valid statewide, excluding those counties or portions of counties closed to firearm deer hunting. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the pilot program. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit the Department from issuing Special Hunt Area Permits for the youth-only deer hunting season or establishing, through administrative rule, additional requirements pertaining to the youth-only deer hunting season on Department-owned or Department-managed sites, including site-specific quotas or drawings. The provisions of this paragraph are inoperative on and after January 1, 2023.

The standards and specifications for use of guns and bow and arrow for deer hunting shall be established by administrative rule.

No person may have in his or her possession any firearm not authorized by administrative rule for a specific hunting season when taking deer unless in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

Persons having a firearm deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of shotgun, handgun, rifle, or muzzle loading rifle.

Persons having an archery deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of bow and arrow.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer by use of dogs, horses, automobiles, aircraft, or other vehicles, or by the use or aid of bait or baiting of any kind. For the purposes of this Section, "bait" means any material, whether liquid or solid, including food, salt, minerals, and other products, except pure water, that can be ingested, placed, or scattered in such a manner as to attract or lure white-tailed deer. "Baiting" means the placement or scattering of bait to attract deer. An area is considered as baited during the presence of and for 10 consecutive days following the removal of bait. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the use of a dog to track wounded deer. Any person using a dog for tracking wounded deer must maintain physical control of the dog at all times by means of a maximum 50-foot 50 foot lead attached to the dog's collar or harness. Tracking wounded deer is permissible at night, but at no time outside of legal deer hunting hours or seasons shall any person handling or accompanying a dog being used for tracking wounded deer be in possession of any firearm or archery device. Persons tracking wounded deer with a dog during the firearm deer seasons shall wear blaze orange or solid blaze pink color as required. Dog handlers tracking wounded deer with a dog are exempt from hunting license and deer permit requirements so long as they are accompanied by the licensed deer hunter who wounded the deer.

It shall be unlawful to possess or transport any wild deer which has been injured or killed in any manner upon a public highway or public right-of-way of this State unless exempted by administrative rule.

Persons hunting deer must have the gun unloaded and no bow and arrow device shall be carried with the arrow in the nocked position during hours when deer hunting is unlawful.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by gun, to further participate with a gun in any deer hunting party.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by bow and arrow, to further participate with bow and arrow in any deer hunting party.

The Department may prohibit upland game hunting during the gun deer season by administrative rule.

The Department shall not limit the number of non-resident, either-sex archery deer hunting permits to less than 20,000.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Section, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

For the purposes of calculating acreage under this Section, the Department shall, after determining the total acreage of the applicable tract or tracts of land, round remaining fractional portions of an acre greater than or equal to half of an acre up to the next whole acre.

For the purposes of taking white-tailed deer, nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the manipulation, including mowing or cutting, of standing crops as a normal agricultural or soil stabilization practice, food plots, or normal agricultural practices, including planting, harvesting, and maintenance such as cultivating or the use of products designed for scent only and not capable of ingestion, solid or liquid, placed or scattered, in such a manner as to attract or lure deer. Such manipulation for the purpose of taking white-tailed deer may be further modified by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-444, eff. 6-1-20; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-932, eff. 1-1-23; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1005. The Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(520 ILCS 10/11) (from Ch. 8, par. 341)

Sec. 11. Conservation program; public policy; rules.

(a) The Department, with the advice of the Board, shall actively plan and implement a program for the conservation of endangered and threatened species, by means which should include published data search, research, management, cooperative agreements with other agencies, identification, protection and acquisition of essential habitat, support of beneficial legislation, issuance of grants from appropriated funds, and education of the public.

(b) It is the public policy of all agencies of State and local governments to utilize their authorities in furtherance of the purposes of this Act by evaluating through a consultation process with the Department whether actions authorized, funded, or carried out by them are likely to jeopardize the continued existence of Illinois listed endangered and threatened species or are likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of the designated essential habitat of such species, which policy shall be enforceable only by writ of mandamus; and where a State or local agency does so consult in furtherance of this public policy, such State or local agency shall be deemed to have complied with its obligations under the "Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act", provided the agency action shall not result in the killing or injuring of any Illinois listed animal species, or provided that authorization for taking a listed species has been issued under Section 4, 5, or 5.5 of this Act. This paragraph (b) shall not apply to any project of a State agency on which a biological opinion has been issued (in accordance with Section 7 of the federal Federal Endangered Species Act of 1973) prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985 stating that the action proposed by said project will not jeopardize the continued existence of any federal listed endangered or threatened species.

(c) The Department shall have the authority to adopt such rules as are reasonable and necessary to implement the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-556, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1010. The Youth and Young Adult Conservation Education Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(525 ILCS 60/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2029)

Sec. 25. Youth and Young Adult Conservation and Education Pilot Program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall administer the Program. The Program may consist of any of the following:

(1) allocation of grants to units of local government or non-profit entities to provide conservation education and employment opportunities for youth and young adults of this State;

(2) development and implementation of conservation education or job training programs; and

(3) internship opportunities with the Department for youth and young adults of this State.

(b) The Program's education and employment opportunities shall be limited to citizens of this State who at the time of enrollment in the Program are 15 through 25 years of age. Grants under this Act are limited to units of local government and non-profit entities that are located in the State of Illinois and that provide conservation education and employment opportunities for youth and young adults of this State.

(c) The Department shall designate suitable grant opportunities, projects, internships, and educational curriculum for the purposes of this Act.

Grants, projects, internships, and curriculum so designated by the Department shall be for the purpose of: (1) development, enhancement, and maintenance of the natural resources of the State of Illinois, and offering related educational opportunities; (2) environmental stewardship and civic responsibility; (3) enhancement of public lands owned or leased by the Department or developing and enhancing projects or initiatives undertaken in whole or part by the Department; or (4) any combination of the purposes described in items (1) through (3). Such projects, internships, and curriculum shall include improving the habitat of fauna and flora; improving utilization of conservation or recreation facilities and lands by the public; improving water quality; and any other project deemed by the Department to improve the environmental, economic, and recreational quality of the State's natural resources.

All projects and internships designated by the Department shall be within a reasonable commuting time for each participant. In no circumstance shall interns be required to spend more than 1 1/2 hours of commuting time to a project or a designated area, but an intern may agree to spend more than 1 1/2 hours of commuting time to a project or a designated area.

(c-5) (c) Interns shall receive at least the standard minimum wage as set by the State of Illinois, when applicable, and shall work normal working hours as determined by the Department. The interns shall not be classified as employees of the State for purposes of contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois or any other public employment retirement system of the State.

(d) The Department may enter into contracts, intergovernmental agreements, grants, cooperative agreements, memoranda of understanding, or other instruments as necessary to implement the Program.

(e) The Department shall adopt administrative rules pertaining to implementation, standards, criteria, and administration of the Program.

(Source: P.A. 103-788, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1015. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Sections 5-101.11, 6-513, 6-901, 6-907, and 10-303 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/5-101.11) (from Ch. 121, par. 5-101.11)

Sec. 5-101.11. Whenever it considers such purchase or lease advisable, to purchase or lease highway construction and maintenance equipment under contracts providing for payment in installments over a period of time of not more than 10 years with interest on the unpaid balance owing not to exceed the amount permitted pursuant to the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 85-293; revised 8-13-24.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-513) (from Ch. 121, par. 6-513)

Sec. 6-513. The county board, in any county having the commission form of government in which a county unit road district is established, may issue bonds of the county in an amount not exceeding 2.875% of the value, as equalized and assessed by the Department of Revenue, of the property in such county or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the county's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, for the purpose of constructing county unit district roads. However, the question of issuing such county bonds shall first be submitted to the legal voters of such county at an election. The county board shall adopt a resolution to submit the question of issuing such bonds to a vote, specifying therein the particular roads or bridges to be constructed, the type of construction to be made on each section of such roads or on such bridges, and the proposed widths of the roadway, together with an estimate of the cost of such construction. The county board shall certify the resolution to the proper election officials, who shall submit at an election such proposition in accordance with the general election law. Notice of the referendum shall be given and the referendum shall be held in accordance with the general election law of the State. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

----------------------------

Shall county bonds for county YES unit district roads be issued to the ------------------------

amount of $....? NO -------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the voters voting on such question vote in favor of the proposition, the county board may at once issue the bonds and take the necessary steps to construct the roads provided for. Such bonds shall be issued to mature within 20 years from the date of issue, shall be upon such terms and conditions and shall bear such rate of interest not in excess of the amount permitted pursuant to the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, as shall be fixed by the county board. Such bonds shall be sold upon competitive bids; and the county board may, if it is of the opinion that the bids are unsatisfactory, reject the same and re-advertise and solicit other bids. At the time or before issuing any such bonds, the county board shall adopt a resolution fixing the details of such bonds and providing for the levy of a direct annual tax to pay the principal and interest on such bonds as the same become due. A register of all bonds so issued shall be kept in the office of the county clerk, and it shall be the duty of the county clerk to annually extend a tax upon all the taxable property of the county sufficient to pay the interest and principal on such bonds, as the same shall become due. Such tax shall not be subject to any limitation as to rate or amount. However, if it has been certified to the county clerk that funds from other sources have been allocated and set aside for the purpose of paying the principal or interest, or both, of such bonds, the county clerk shall, in extending the tax and fixing the rate of tax under this Section make proper allowance and reduction in such extension of tax and tax rate to the extent of the funds so certified to be available for the payment of such principal or interest, or both.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 8-13-24.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 121, par. 6-901)

Sec. 6-901. Annually, the General Assembly shall appropriate to the Department of Transportation from the Road Fund, the General Revenue Fund, or any other State funds, or a combination of those funds, $60,000,000 for apportionment to counties for the use of road districts for the construction of bridges 20 feet or more in length, as provided in Sections 6-902 through 6-907.

The Department of Transportation shall apportion among the several counties of this State for the use of road districts the amounts appropriated under this Section. The amount apportioned to a county shall be in the proportion which the total mileage of township or district roads in the county bears to the total mileage of all township and district roads in the State. Each county shall allocate to the several road districts in the county the funds so apportioned to the county. The allocation to road districts shall be made in the same manner and be subject to the same conditions and qualifications as are provided by Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law with respect to the allocation to road districts of the amount allotted from the Motor Fuel Tax Fund for apportionment to counties for the use of road districts, but no allocation shall be made to any road district that has not levied taxes for road and bridge purposes in such a manner that is eligible for allotment of Motor Fuel Tax funding pursuant to Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law., "Road district" and "township or district road" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in this Act.

Road districts in counties in which a property tax extension limitation is imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law that are made ineligible for receipt of this appropriation due to the imposition of a property tax extension limitation may become eligible if, at the time the property tax extension limitation was imposed, the road district was levying at the required rate and continues to levy the maximum allowable amount after the imposition of the property tax extension limitation. The road district also becomes eligible if it levies at or above the rate required for eligibility by Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

The amounts apportioned under this Section for allocation to road districts may be used only for bridge construction as provided in this Division. So much of those amounts as are not obligated under Sections 6-902 through 6-904 and for which local funds have not been committed under Section 6-905 within 48 months of the date when such apportionment is made lapses and shall not be paid to the county treasurer for distribution to road districts.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-853, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-7-24.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-907)

Sec. 6-907. Lapsed funds; use. Lapsed funds under Section 6-906 shall be used to provide additional monetary assistance to townships and road districts that have insufficient funding for construction of bridges that are 20 feet or more in length under 6-901 of this Code. The Department shall adopt rules rule to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-853, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(605 ILCS 5/10-303) (from Ch. 121, par. 10-303)

Sec. 10-303. For the purpose of acquiring by purchase or otherwise or the constructing of any such bridge, the county board of each such county is authorized to borrow money and in evidence thereof to issue the bonds of such county, and to refund the same from time to time, payable solely from the revenues derived from the operation of such bridge. Such bonds may be issued as serial or term bonds, shall mature in not to exceed 40 years from the date thereof, and may be made redeemable, prior to maturity, with or without premium. Such bonds may be issued in such amounts as may be necessary to provide sufficient funds to pay the cost of acquiring or constructing such bridge and the approaches thereto, including all property real or personal, necessary or incidental in the acquisition or construction of such bridge and its approaches, including reasonable legal and engineering, traffic survey, and architectural fees, costs of financing, and interest during construction and for not less than 12 months thereafter. Such bonds shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as amended, payable semi-annually. Bonds issued under the provisions of this Division of this Article have the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments under the laws of the State of Illinois, shall be executed in the name of the county by the chairman of the county board and the county clerk of such county, and shall be sealed with the corporate seal of the county, and the interest coupons attached to such bonds shall be executed by the facsimile signatures of such chairman and county clerk, and such officials by the execution of such bonds shall adopt as and for their own proper signatures their respective facsimile signatures appearing on such coupons. In case any officer whose signature appears on any such bonds or coupons ceases to be such officer before delivery of such bonds, such signatures shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as if such officer had remained in office until such delivery.

Such bonds may be registered as to principal at any time prior to maturity in the name of the holder on the books of the county in the office of the county treasurer, such registration to be noted on the reverse side of the bonds by the county treasurer, and thereafter the principal of such registered bonds shall be payable only to the registered holder, his legal representatives or assigns. Such registered bonds shall be transferable to another registered holder, or back to bearer, only upon presentation to the county treasurer with the legal assignment duly acknowledged or approved. Registration of any such bonds shall not affect negotiability of the coupons thereto attached, but such coupons shall be transferable by delivery merely.

All such bonds issued by any such county shall be sold in such manner and at such time as the governing body shall determine. Whenever the governing body of any such county determines to issue bonds as provided for in this Division of this Article, it shall adopt an ordinance describing in a general way the bridge to be acquired or constructed and its general location. Such ordinance shall set out the aggregate amount of the estimated cost of the acquisition or construction of such bridge, as prepared by the engineers employed for that purpose, determine the period of usefulness thereof and fix the amount of revenue bonds to be issued, the maturity or maturities, redemption privileges, the interest rate, sinking fund, and all other details in connection with such bonds, including such reserve accounts as the county board of such county may deem necessary. Such ordinance may contain such covenants and restrictions upon the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of the payment of the bonds thereby authorized. Revenue bonds issued under the provisions of this Division of this Article shall be payable solely from the revenue derived from such bridge, and such bonds shall not, in any event constitute or be deemed an indebtedness of such county within the meaning of any constitutional provisions or statutory limitation as to debt, and it shall be plainly stated on the face of each bond that it does not constitute an indebtedness within any constitutional or statutory limitation. Such ordinance shall be published within 30 days after its passage in a newspaper, published and having a general circulation in such county, and shall not become effective until 10 days after its publication.

(Source: P.A. 83-225; revised 8-13-24.)

Section 1020. The Bikeway Act is amended by changing Section 4.1 as follows:

(605 ILCS 30/4.1)

Sec. 4.1. Local bicycle transportation plan.

(a) In this Section, "bikeway" means all facilities that provide primarily for, and promote, bicycle travel. For purposes of this Section, bikeways shall be categorized as follows:

(1) Bike paths or shared use paths, also referred to as Class I bikeways, which provide a completely separated right-of-way designated for the exclusive use of bicycles and pedestrians with crossflows by motorists minimized.

(2) Bike lanes, also referred to as Class II bikeways, which provide a restricted right-of-way designated for the exclusive or semi-exclusive use of bicycles with through travel by motor vehicles or pedestrians prohibited, but with vehicle parking and crossflows by pedestrians and motorists permitted.

(3) Bike routes, also referred to as Class III bikeways, which provide a right-of-way on-street or off-street, designated by signs or permanent markings and shared with pedestrians and motorists.

(4) Cycle tracks or separated bikeways, also referred to as Class IV bikeways, which promote active transportation and provide a right-of-way designated exclusively for bicycle travel adjacent to a roadway and which are separated from vehicular traffic. Types of separation include, but are not limited to, grade separation, flexible posts, inflexible physical barriers, or on-street parking.

(b) A municipality or county may prepare a bicycle transportation plan, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following elements:

(1) The estimated number of existing bicycle commuters in the plan area and the estimated increase in the number of bicycle commuters resulting from implementation of the plan.

(2) A map and description of existing and proposed land use and settlement patterns that shall include, but not be limited to, locations of residential neighborhoods, schools, shopping centers, public buildings, and major employment centers.

(3) A map and description of existing and proposed bikeways.

(4) A map and description of existing and proposed end-of-trip bicycle parking facilities. These shall include, but not be limited to, parking at schools, shopping centers, public buildings, and major employment centers.

(5) A map and description of existing and proposed bicycle transport and parking facilities for connections with and use of other transportation modes. These shall include, but not be limited to, parking facilities at transit stops, rail and transit terminals, ferry docks and landings, park and ride lots, and provisions for transporting bicyclists and bicycles on transit or rail vehicles or ferry vessels.

(6) A map and description of existing and proposed facilities for changing and storing clothes and equipment. These shall include, but not be limited to, locker, restroom, and shower facilities near bicycle parking facilities.

(7) A description of bicycle safety and education programs conducted in the area included within the plan, efforts by the law enforcement agency having primary traffic law enforcement responsibility in the area to enforce provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code pertaining to bicycle operation, and the resulting effect on accidents involving bicyclists.

(8) A description of the extent of citizen and community involvement in development of the plan, including, but not limited to, letters of support.

(9) A description of how the bicycle transportation plan has been coordinated and is consistent with other local or regional transportation, air quality, or energy conservation plans, including, but not limited to, programs that provide incentives for bicycle commuting.

(10) A description of the projects proposed in the plan and a listing of their priorities for implementation.

(11) A description of past expenditures for bicycle facilities and future financial needs for projects that improve safety and convenience for bicycle commuters in the plan area.

(Source: P.A. 103-950, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1025. The Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act is amended by changing Section 18k as follows:

(615 ILCS 5/18k)

Sec. 18k. National Flood Insurance Program State agency requirements.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.

"Development" and "developed" mean any man-made change to real estate, including, but not limited to:

(1) demolition, construction, reconstruction, repair, placement of a building, or any structural alteration to a building;

(2) substantial improvement of an existing building;

(3) installation of a manufactured home on a site, preparing a site for a manufactured home, or installing a travel trailer on a site for more than 180 days per year;

(4) installation of utilities, construction of roads, bridges, culverts, or similar projects;

(5) redevelopment of a site, or clearing of land as an adjunct of construction, or construction or erection of levees, dams, walls, or fences;

(6) drilling, mining, filling, dredging, grading, excavation, paving, or other alterations of the ground surface;

(7) storage of materials, including the placement of gas or liquid storage tanks, and channel modifications or any other activity that might change the direction, height, or velocity of flood or surface waters.

"Development" and "developed" do not include resurfacing of pavement when there is no increase in elevation; construction of farm fencing; or gardening, plowing, and similar practices that do not involve filling, grading, or construction of levees.

"Special flood hazard area" means an area having special flood, mudflow or flood-related erosion hazards and shown on a Federal Emergency Management Agency Flood Hazard Boundary Map or Flood Insurance Rate Map as Zone A, AO, A1-A-30, AE, A99, AH, AR, AR/A, AR/AE, AR/AH, AR/AO, AR/A1-A30, V1-V30, VE, or V.

"State agencies" means any department, commission, board, or agency under the jurisdiction of the Governor, any board, commission, agency, or authority which has a majority of its members appointed by the Governor, and the Governor's Office.

(b) The Department shall ensure that State agencies comply with National Flood Insurance Program requirements set forth in this Section.

(c) All State agencies shall obtain a special flood hazard area development permit before undertaking development activity on State-owned property that is located in a special flood hazard area. The Department shall adopt an administrative rule setting forth a State special flood hazard area development program to ensure the following via the issuance of permits prior to any State agency development within a special flood hazard area:

(1) Review of all proposed new development in a special flood hazard area to ensure compliance with the standards set forth in the administrative rule.

(2) Monitoring and inspecting developments currently under construction in a special flood hazard area to ensure compliance with the standards set forth in the administrative rule.

(3) Correction, to the extent reasonably practical in the sole determination of the Department, of all previous development in a special flood hazard area found not to be in compliance with the standards set forth in the administrative rule.

(4) The standards set forth in the administrative rule shall, at a minimum, be as stringent as the federal regulations adopted by the Federal Emergency Management Agency to implement the National Flood Insurance Act (42 U.S.C. 4001 et seq.) that are published in 44 CFR 59 through 60.

(d) State agencies that administer grants or loans for financing a development within a special flood hazard area shall cooperate with the Department to ensure that participants in their programs are informed of the existence and location of special flood hazard areas and of any State or local floodplain requirements that are in effect in such areas.

(e) State agencies that are responsible for regulating or permitting a development within a special flood hazard area shall cooperate with the Department to ensure that participants in their programs are informed of the existence and location of special flood hazard areas and of any State or local floodplain requirements that are in effect in such areas.

(f) State agencies that are engaged in planning programs or promoting a program for the development shall cooperate with the Department to ensure that participants in their programs are informed of the existence and location of special flood hazard areas and of any State or local floodplain requirements in effect in such areas.

(g) The Department shall provide available special flood hazard area information to assist State agencies in complying with the requirements established by this Section. The Department may enter into a memorandum of understanding with a State agency to outline procedures and processes to review proposed development activity on State-owned property located in a special flood hazard area. Such a memorandum of understanding may allow for alternative approvals for the issuance of permits. If the Department enters into a memorandum of understanding with a State agency to allow an alternative permit process any permits or work completed under those alternatives is subject to audit and review by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 103-905, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1030. The County Airports Act is amended by changing Sections 60 and 61 as follows:

(620 ILCS 50/60) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 164)

Sec. 60. If a majority of all votes cast upon the question shall be for the issuing of bonds and the levying of an additional tax to pay the interest and principal of such bond, the county board shall issue and sell such amounts of said bonds as the Commission shall determine and certify, from time to time as being necessary to provide the means for accomplishing the purposes for which said bonds were voted. Such bonds shall be issued in conformity to the requirements and provisions of the resolution adopted for the purpose of calling said election, provided however the aggregate amounts of outstanding bonds issued under the provisions of this Act, shall at no time exceed 1% of the total value of all of the taxable property of the county as determined by the last assessment roll on which county general taxes was extended. The principal of such bonds shall be discharged within twenty years after the date of said election. Such bonds shall bear interest, payable semi-annually, at a rate that does not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. The proceeds from the sale of each issue of bonds shall be deposited in the county treasury and identified as "County Airports Bond Fund No. ....." Such proceeds shall be used only for the purposes stated in the resolution calling the election authorizing the issuing of said bonds, and as specified in the certificate of the Commission as in this Section section provided.

(Source: P.A. 82-902; revised 8-19-24.)

(620 ILCS 50/61) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 165)

Sec. 61. If the resolution adopted by the county board or by petition, provides for the issuance of revenue bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, the retirement of the principal thereof and the interest thereon, to be accomplished from sources other than direct county taxes, the county board shall issue and sell such amounts of such bonds or other evidences of indebtedness as the Commission shall determine and certify, from time to time as being necessary to provide the means for accomplishing the purposes for which such bonds or other evidences of indebtedness are to be issued as set forth in said resolution. Such bonds or other evidence of indebtedness shall be issued in conformity to the requirements and provisions of the said resolution authorizing such issuance. The principal of such bonds or other evidences of indebtedness shall be discharged within thirty years after the date of the adoption of said resolution. Such bonds or other evidences of indebtedness shall bear interest, payable semi-annually, at a rate not to exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. The proceeds from the sale of each issue of bonds shall be deposited in the county treasury and identified as "County Airports Revenue Bond Fund No. ....." Such proceeds shall be used only for the purposes stated in the said resolution and as specified in the certificate of the Commission as in this Section section provided. All such revenue bonds and other evidences of indebtedness shall not, in any event, constitute or be deemed an indebtedness of the county within the meaning of any constitutional provisions or statutory limitations as to debt, and it shall be so stated plainly on the face of each such bond or other evidence of indebtedness.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 8-19-24.)

Section 1035. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-115.01, 3-402, 3-506, 3-699.14, 3-802, 3-804, 4-203, 5-102, 6-110, 6-118, 6-209.1, 11-907, and 13-101 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 3-699.22 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-115.01)

Sec. 1-115.01. Detached catalytic converter. "Detached catalytic converter" means a catalytic converter, as defined in Section 1-110.05 of this the Code, that was previously installed on a motor vehicle and subsequently removed.

(Source: P.A. 103-677, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-402) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-402)

Sec. 3-402. Vehicles subject to registration; exceptions.

A. Exemptions and Policy. Every motor vehicle, trailer, semitrailer and pole trailer when driven or moved upon a highway shall be subject to the registration and certificate of title provisions of this Chapter except:

(1) Any such vehicle driven or moved upon a highway in conformance with the provisions of this Chapter relating to manufacturers, transporters, dealers, lienholders or nonresidents or under a temporary registration permit issued by the Secretary of State;

(2) Any implement of husbandry whether of a type otherwise subject to registration hereunder or not which is only incidentally operated or moved upon a highway, which shall include a not-for-hire movement for the purpose of delivering farm commodities to a place of first processing or sale, or to a place of storage;

(3) Any special mobile equipment as herein defined;

(4) Any vehicle which is propelled exclusively by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires though not operated upon rails;

(5) Any vehicle which is equipped and used exclusively as a pumper, ladder truck, rescue vehicle, searchlight truck, or other fire apparatus, but not a vehicle of a type which would otherwise be subject to registration as a vehicle of the first division;

(6) Any vehicle which is owned and operated by the federal government and externally displays evidence of federal ownership. It is the policy of the State of Illinois to promote and encourage the fullest use of its highways and to enhance the flow of commerce thus contributing to the economic, agricultural, industrial and social growth and development of this State, by authorizing the Secretary of State to negotiate and enter into reciprocal or proportional agreements or arrangements with other States, or to issue declarations setting forth reciprocal exemptions, benefits and privileges with respect to vehicles operated interstate which are properly registered in this and other States, assuring nevertheless proper registration of vehicles in Illinois as may be required by this Code;

(7) Any converter dolly or tow dolly which merely serves as substitute wheels for another legally licensed vehicle. A title may be issued on a voluntary basis to a tow dolly upon receipt of the manufacturer's certificate of origin or the bill of sale;

(8) Any house trailer found to be an abandoned mobile home under the Abandoned Mobile Home Act;

(9) Any vehicle that is not properly registered or does not have registration plates or digital registration plates issued to the owner or operator affixed thereto, or that does have registration plates or digital registration plates issued to the owner or operator affixed thereto but the plates are not appropriate for the weight of the vehicle, provided that this exemption shall apply only while the vehicle is being transported or operated by a towing service and has a third tow plate affixed to it;

(10) Low-speed electric scooters.

B. Reciprocity. Any motor vehicle, trailer, semitrailer or pole trailer need not be registered under this Code provided the same is operated interstate and in accordance with the following provisions and any rules and regulations promulgated pursuant thereto:

(1) A nonresident owner, except as otherwise provided in this Section, owning any foreign registered vehicle of a type otherwise subject to registration hereunder, may operate or permit the operation of such vehicle within this State in interstate commerce without registering such vehicle in, or paying any fees to, this State subject to the condition that such vehicle at all times when operated in this State is operated pursuant to a reciprocity agreement, arrangement or declaration by this State, and further subject to the condition that such vehicle at all times when operated in this State is duly registered in, and displays upon it, a valid registration card and registration plate or plates or digital registration plate or plates issued for such vehicle in the place of residence of such owner and is issued and maintains in such vehicle a valid Illinois reciprocity permit as required by the Secretary of State, and provided like privileges are afforded to residents of this State by the State of residence of such owner.

Every nonresident including any foreign corporation carrying on business within this State and owning and regularly operating in such business any motor vehicle, trailer or semitrailer within this State in intrastate commerce, shall be required to register each such vehicle and pay the same fees therefor as is required with reference to like vehicles owned by residents of this State.

(2) Any motor vehicle, trailer, semitrailer and pole trailer operated interstate need not be registered in this State, provided:

(a) that the vehicle is properly registered in another State pursuant to law or to a reciprocity agreement, arrangement or declaration; or

(b) that such vehicle is part of a fleet of vehicles owned or operated by the same person who registers such fleet of vehicles pro rata among the various States in which such fleet operates; or

(c) that such vehicle is part of a fleet of vehicles, a portion of which are registered with the Secretary of State of Illinois in accordance with an agreement or arrangement concurred in by the Secretary of State of Illinois based on one or more of the following factors: ratio of miles in Illinois as against total miles in all jurisdictions; situs or base of a vehicle, or where it is principally garaged, or from whence it is principally dispatched or where the movements of such vehicle usually originate; situs of the residence of the owner or operator thereof, or of his principal office or offices, or of his places of business; the routes traversed and whether regular or irregular routes are traversed, and the jurisdictions traversed and served; and such other factors as may be deemed material by the Secretary and the motor vehicle administrators of the other jurisdictions involved in such apportionment. Such vehicles shall maintain therein any reciprocity permit which may be required by the Secretary of State pursuant to rules and regulations which the Secretary of State may promulgate in the administration of this Code, in the public interest.

(3)(a) In order to effectuate the purposes of this Code, the Secretary of State of Illinois is empowered to negotiate and execute written reciprocal agreements or arrangements with the duly authorized representatives of other jurisdictions, including States, districts, territories and possessions of the United States, and foreign states, provinces, or countries, granting to owners or operators of vehicles duly registered or licensed in such other jurisdictions and for which evidence of compliance is supplied, benefits, privileges and exemption from the payment, wholly or partially, of any taxes, fees or other charges imposed with respect to the ownership or operation of such vehicles by the laws of this State except the tax imposed by the Motor Fuel Tax Law, approved March 25, 1929, as amended, and the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act, approved July 14, 1955, as amended.

The Secretary of State may negotiate agreements or arrangements as are in the best interests of this State and the residents of this State pursuant to the policies expressed in this Section taking into consideration the reciprocal exemptions, benefits and privileges available and accruing to residents of this State and vehicles registered in this State.

(b) Such reciprocal agreements or arrangements shall provide that vehicles duly registered or licensed in this State when operated upon the highways of such other jurisdictions, shall receive exemptions, benefits and privileges of a similar kind or to a similar degree as extended to vehicles from such jurisdictions in this State.

(c) Such agreements or arrangements may also authorize the apportionment of registration or licensing of fleets of vehicles operated interstate, based on any or all of the following factors: ratio of miles in Illinois as against total miles in all jurisdictions; situs or base of a vehicle, or where it is principally garaged or from whence it is principally dispatched or where the movements of such vehicle usually originate; situs of the residence of the owner or operator thereof, or of his principal office or offices, or of his places of business; the routes traversed and whether regular or irregular routes are traversed, and the jurisdictions traversed and served; and such other factors as may be deemed material by the Secretary and the motor vehicle administrators of the other jurisdictions involved in such apportionment, and such vehicles shall likewise be entitled to reciprocal exemptions, benefits and privileges.

(d) Such agreements or arrangements shall also provide that vehicles being operated in intrastate commerce in Illinois shall comply with the registration and licensing laws of this State, except that vehicles which are part of an apportioned fleet may conduct an intrastate operation incidental to their interstate operations. Any motor vehicle properly registered and qualified under any reciprocal agreement or arrangement under this Code and not having a situs or base within Illinois may complete the inbound movement of a trailer or semitrailer to an Illinois destination that was brought into Illinois by a motor vehicle also properly registered and qualified under this Code and not having a situs or base within Illinois, or may complete an outbound movement of a trailer or semitrailer to an out-of-state destination that was originated in Illinois by a motor vehicle also properly registered and qualified under this Code and not having a situs or base in Illinois, only if the operator thereof did not break bulk of the cargo laden in such inbound or outbound trailer or semitrailer. Adding or unloading intrastate cargo on such inbound or outbound trailer or semitrailer shall be deemed as breaking bulk.

(e) Such agreements or arrangements may also provide for the determination of the proper State in which leased vehicles shall be registered based on the factors set out in subsection (c) above and for apportionment of registration of fleets of leased vehicles by the lessee or by the lessor who leases such vehicles to persons who are not fleet operators.

(f) Such agreements or arrangements may also include reciprocal exemptions, benefits or privileges accruing under The Illinois Driver Licensing Law or The Driver License Compact.

(4) The Secretary of State is further authorized to examine the laws and requirements of other jurisdictions, and, in the absence of a written agreement or arrangement, to issue a written declaration of the extent and nature of the exemptions, benefits and privileges accorded to vehicles of this State by such other jurisdictions, and the extent and nature of reciprocal exemptions, benefits and privileges thereby accorded by this State to the vehicles of such other jurisdictions. A declaration by the Secretary of State may include any, part or all reciprocal exemptions, benefits and privileges or provisions as may be included within an agreement or arrangement.

(5) All agreements, arrangements, declarations and amendments thereto, shall be in writing and become effective when signed by the Secretary of State, and copies of all such documents shall be available to the public upon request.

(6) The Secretary of State is further authorized to require the display by foreign registered trucks, truck-tractors and buses, entitled to reciprocal benefits, exemptions or privileges hereunder, a reciprocity permit for external display before any such reciprocal benefits, exemptions or privileges are granted. The Secretary of State shall provide suitable application forms for such permit and shall promulgate and publish reasonable rules and regulations for the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this Code including a provision for revocation of such permit as to any vehicle operated wilfully in violation of the terms of any reciprocal agreement, arrangement or declaration or in violation of the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, as amended.

(7)(a) Upon the suspension, revocation or denial of one or more of all reciprocal benefits, privileges and exemptions existing pursuant to the terms and provisions of this Code or by virtue of a reciprocal agreement or arrangement or declaration thereunder; or, upon the suspension, revocation or denial of a reciprocity permit; or, upon any action or inaction of the Secretary in the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this Code, any person, resident or nonresident, so aggrieved, may serve upon the Secretary, a petition in writing and under oath, setting forth the grievance of the petitioner, the grounds and basis for the relief sought, and all necessary facts and particulars, and request an administrative hearing thereon. Within 20 days, the Secretary shall set a hearing date as early as practical. The Secretary may, in his discretion, supply forms for such a petition. The Secretary may require the payment of a fee of not more than $50 for the filing of any petition, motion, or request for hearing conducted pursuant to this Section. These fees must be deposited into the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund, a special fund that is hereby created in the State treasury, and, subject to appropriation and as directed by the Secretary of State, shall be used to fund the operation of the hearings department of the Office of the Secretary of State and for no other purpose. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(b) The Secretary may likewise, in his discretion and upon his own petition, order a hearing, when in his best judgment, any person is not entitled to the reciprocal benefits, privileges and exemptions existing pursuant to the terms and provisions of this Code or under a reciprocal agreement or arrangement or declaration thereunder or that a vehicle owned or operated by such person is improperly registered or licensed, or that an Illinois resident has improperly registered or licensed a vehicle in another jurisdiction for the purposes of violating or avoiding the registration laws of this State.

(c) The Secretary shall notify a petitioner or any other person involved of such a hearing, by giving at least 10 days notice, in writing, by U.S. Mail, Registered or Certified, or by personal service, at the last known address of such petitioner or person, specifying the time and place of such hearing. Such hearing shall be held before the Secretary, or any person as he may designate, and unless the parties mutually agree to some other county in Illinois, the hearing shall be held in the County of Sangamon or the County of Cook. Appropriate records of the hearing shall be kept, and the Secretary shall issue or cause to be issued, his decision on the case, within 30 days after the close of such hearing or within 30 days after receipt of the transcript thereof, and a copy shall likewise be served or mailed to the petitioner or person involved.

(d) The actions or inactions or determinations, or findings and decisions upon an administrative hearing, of the Secretary, shall be subject to judicial review in the Circuit Court of the County of Sangamon or the County of Cook, and the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof and rules adopted pursuant thereto, apply to and govern all such reviewable matters.

Any reciprocal agreements or arrangements entered into by the Secretary of State or any declarations issued by the Secretary of State pursuant to any law in effect prior to the effective date of this Code are not hereby abrogated, and such shall continue in force and effect until amended pursuant to the provisions of this Code or expire pursuant to the terms or provisions thereof.

C. Vehicles purchased out-of-state. A resident of this State who purchases a vehicle in another state and transports the vehicle to Illinois shall apply for registration and certificate of title as soon as practicable, but in no event more than 45 days after the purchase of the vehicle. If an Illinois motorist who purchased a vehicle from an out-of-state licensed dealer is unable to meet the 45-day deadline due to a delay in paperwork from the seller, that motorist may obtain an Illinois temporary registration plate with: (i) proof of purchase; (ii) proof of meeting the Illinois driver's license or identification card requirement; and (iii) proof that Illinois title and registration fees have been paid. If fees have not been paid, the motorist may pay the fees in order to obtain the temporary registration plate. The owner of such a vehicle shall display any temporary permit or registration issued in accordance with Section 3-407.

(Source: P.A. 103-209, eff. 1-1-24; 103-899, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-7-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-506)

Sec. 3-506. Transfer of plates to spouses of military service members. Upon the death of a military service member who has been issued a special plate under Section 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, 3-699.12, 3-699.15, 3-699.16, 3-699.17, 3-699.19, 3-699.20, or 3-699.25 3-699.22 of this Code, the surviving spouse of that service member may retain the plate so long as that spouse is a resident of Illinois and transfers the registration to his or her name within 180 days of the death of the service member.

For the purposes of this Section, "service member" means any individual who is serving or has served in any branch of the United States Armed Forces, including the National Guard or other reserve components of the Armed Forces, and has been issued a special plate listed in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-154, eff. 1-1-22; 103-660, eff. 1-1-25; revised 9-25-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.14)

Sec. 3-699.14. Universal special license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue Universal special license plates to residents of Illinois on behalf of organizations that have been authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. Authorized organizations shall be designated by amendment to this Section. When applying for a Universal special license plate the applicant shall inform the Secretary of the name of the authorized organization from which the applicant will obtain a decal to place on the plate. The Secretary shall make a record of that organization and that organization shall remain affiliated with that plate until the plate is surrendered, revoked, or otherwise cancelled. The authorized organization may charge a fee to offset the cost of producing and distributing the decal, but that fee shall be retained by the authorized organization and shall be separate and distinct from any registration fees charged by the Secretary. No decal, sticker, or other material may be affixed to a Universal special license plate other than a decal authorized by the General Assembly in this Section or a registration renewal sticker. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles and autocycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure under Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the Universal special license plate shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Universal special license plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The design shall allow for the application of a decal to the plate. Organizations authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates shall comply with rules adopted by the Secretary governing the requirements for and approval of Universal special license plate decals. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow Universal special license plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles and autocycles.

(c) When authorizing a Universal special license plate, the General Assembly shall set forth whether an additional fee is to be charged for the plate and, if a fee is to be charged, the amount of the fee and how the fee is to be distributed. When necessary, the authorizing language shall create a special fund in the State treasury into which fees may be deposited for an authorized Universal special license plate. Additional fees may only be charged if the fee is to be paid over to a State agency or to a charitable entity that is in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act. Any charitable entity receiving fees for the sale of Universal special license plates shall annually provide the Secretary of State a letter of compliance issued by the Attorney General verifying that the entity is in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(d) Upon original issuance and for each registration renewal period, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable, the Secretary shall collect any additional fees, if required, for issuance of Universal special license plates. The fees shall be collected on behalf of the organization designated by the applicant when applying for the plate. All fees collected shall be transferred to the State agency on whose behalf the fees were collected, or paid into the special fund designated in the law authorizing the organization to issue decals for Universal special license plates. All money in the designated fund shall be distributed by the Secretary subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(e) The following organizations may issue decals for Universal special license plates with the original and renewal fees and fee distribution as follows:

(1) The Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(2) Illinois Veterans' Homes.

(A) Original issuance: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(B) Renewal: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(3) The Illinois Department of Human Services for volunteerism decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(4) The Illinois Department of Public Health.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(5) Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(6) K9s for Veterans, NFP.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(7) The International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $20 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 going to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(8) Local Lodge 701 of the International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $10 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $10 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $30; with $13 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $15 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(9) Illinois Department of Human Services.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(10) The Illinois Department of Human Services for developmental disabilities awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(11) The Illinois Department of Human Services for pediatric cancer awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(12) The Department of Veterans' Affairs for Fold of Honor decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(13) The Illinois chapters of the Experimental Aircraft Association for aviation enthusiast decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(14) The Illinois Department of Human Services for Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(15) The Illinois Department of Public Health for health care worker decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(16) The Department of Agriculture for Future Farmers of America decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Future Farmers of America Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Future Farmers of America Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(17) The Illinois Department of Public Health for autism awareness decals that are designed with input from autism advocacy organizations.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Autism Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Autism Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(18) The Department of Natural Resources for Lyme disease research decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(19) The IBEW Thank a Line Worker decal.

(A) Original issuance: $15, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $2, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(20) An Illinois chapter of the Navy Club for Navy Club decals.

(A) Original issuance: $5; which shall be deposited into the Navy Club Fund.

(B) Renewal: $18; which shall be deposited into the Navy Club Fund.

(21) (20) An Illinois chapter of the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers for International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers decal.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(22) (20) The 100 Club of Illinois decal.

(A) Original issuance: $45; with $30 to the 100 Club of Illinois Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $27; with $25 to the 100 Club of Illinois Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(23) (20) The Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation decal.

(A) Original issuance: $40; with $25 to the Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $40; with $38 to the Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(24) (20) The Sons of the American Legion decal.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Sons of the American Legion Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Sons of the American Legion Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(f) The following funds are created as special funds in the State treasury:

(1) The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund. All money in the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Natural Resources to fund roadside monarch and other pollinator habitat development, enhancement, and restoration projects in this State.

(2) The Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Prostate Cancer Foundation of Chicago.

(3) The Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund. All money in the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund shall be paid as grants to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(4) The Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund. All money in the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to K9s for Veterans, NFP for support, education, and awareness of veterans with post-traumatic stress disorder.

(5) The Guide Dogs of America Fund. All money in the Guide Dogs of America Fund shall be paid as grants to the International Guiding Eyes, Inc., doing business as Guide Dogs of America.

(6) The Mechanics Training Fund. All money in the Mechanics Training Fund shall be paid as grants to the Mechanics Local 701 Training Fund.

(7) The Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund. All money in the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund shall be paid to the Illinois CancerCare Foundation for the purpose of furthering pancreatic cancer research.

(8) The Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund. All money in the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Human Services to fund legal aid groups to assist with guardianship fees for private citizens willing to become guardians for individuals with developmental disabilities but who are unable to pay the legal fees associated with becoming a guardian.

(9) The Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Cancer Center at Illinois for pediatric cancer treatment and research.

(10) The Folds of Honor Foundation Fund. All money in the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund shall be paid as grants to the Folds of Honor Foundation to aid in providing educational scholarships to military families.

(11) The Experimental Aircraft Association Fund. All money in the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to promote recreational aviation.

(12) The Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund. All money in the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund shall be paid as grants to benefit the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities.

(13) The Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund. All money in the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund shall be paid as grants to the Trinity Health Foundation for the benefit of health care workers, doctors, nurses, and others who work in the health care industry in this State.

(14) The Future Farmers of America Fund. All money in the Future Farmers of America Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Association of Future Farmers of America.

(15) The Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund. All money in the Tick Research, Education, and Evaluation Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Lyme Association.

(16) The Navy Club Fund. All money in the Navy Club Fund shall be paid as grants to any local chapter of the Navy Club that is located in this State.

(17) (16) The International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers Fund. All money in the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers Fund shall be paid as grants to any local chapter of the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers that is located in this State.

(18) (16) The 100 Club of Illinois Fund. All money in the 100 Club of Illinois Fund shall be paid as grants to the 100 Club of Illinois for the purpose of giving financial support to children and spouses of first responders killed in the line of duty and mental health resources for active duty first responders.

(19) (16) The Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation Fund. All money in the Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation Fund shall be paid as grants to Illinois USTA/Midwest Youth Tennis Foundation to aid USTA/Midwest districts in the State with exposing youth to the game of tennis.

(20) (16) The Sons of the American Legion Fund. All money in the Sons of the American Legion Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Detachment of the Sons of the American Legion.

(Source: P.A. 102-383, eff. 1-1-22; 102-422, eff. 8-20-21; 102-423, eff. 8-20-21; 102-515, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-809, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-112, eff. 1-1-24; 103-163, eff. 1-1-24; 103-349, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-664, eff. 1-1-25; 103-665, eff. 1-1-25; 103-855, eff. 1-1-25; 103-911, eff. 1-1-25; 103-933, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.22)

Sec. 3-699.22. United States Submarine Veterans plates.

(a) The Secretary of State, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as United States Submarine Veterans plates to each resident of this State who served in the United States Navy as a submariner. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1.

(b) The plates shall display the United States Submarine Veterans logo and the phrase "Silent Service". In all other respects, the design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary, in the Secretary's discretion, may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(Source: P.A. 103-130, eff. 1-1-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.25)

Sec. 3-699.25 3-699.22. Air Force Combat Action Medal license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue Air Force Combat Action Medal license plates to residents of this State who have been awarded the Air Force Combat Action Medal. The special Air Force Combat Action Medal plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1.

(b) The plates shall display the Air Force Combat Action Medal. In all other respects, the design, color, and format of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may, in the Secretary's own discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in the Secretary's own discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(Source: P.A. 103-660, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-802) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-802)

Sec. 3-802. Reclassifications and upgrades.

(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, the following words shall have the meanings ascribed to them as follows:

"Reclassification" means changing the registration of a vehicle from one plate category to another.

"Upgrade" means increasing the registered weight of a vehicle within the same plate category.

(b) When reclassing the registration of a vehicle from one plate category to another, the owner shall receive credit for the unused portion of the present plate and be charged the current portion fees for the new plate. In addition, the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees shall be assessed.

(b-5) Any individual who has a registration issued under either Section 3-405 or 3-405.1 that qualifies for a special license plate under Section 3-609, 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-664, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, 3-699.12, 3-699.15, 3-699.16, 3-699.17, 3-699.19, 3-699.20, or 3-699.25 3-699.22 may reclass his or her registration upon acquiring a special license plate listed in this subsection (b-5) without a replacement plate or digital plate fee or registration sticker or digital registration sticker cost.

(b-10) Any individual who has a special license plate issued under Section 3-609, 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-664, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, 3-699.12, 3-699.17, or 3-699.25 3-699.22 may reclass his or her special license plate upon acquiring a new registration under Section 3-405 or 3-405.1 without a replacement plate or digital plate fee or registration sticker or digital registration sticker cost.

(c) When upgrading the weight of a registration within the same plate category, the owner shall pay the difference in current period fees between the 2 plates. In addition, the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees shall be assessed. In the event new plates are not required, the corrected registration card fee shall be assessed.

(d) In the event the owner of the vehicle desires to change the registered weight and change the plate category, the owner shall receive credit for the unused portion of the registration fee of the current plate and pay the current portion of the registration fee for the new plate, and in addition, pay the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees.

(e) Reclassing from one plate category to another plate category can be done only once within any registration period.

(f) No refunds shall be made in any of the circumstances found in subsection (b), subsection (c), or subsection (d); however, when reclassing from a flat weight plate to an apportioned plate, a refund may be issued if the credit amounts to an overpayment.

(g) In the event the registration of a vehicle registered under the mileage tax option is revoked, the owner shall be required to pay the annual registration fee in the new plate category and shall not receive any credit for the mileage plate fees.

(h) Certain special interest plates may be displayed on first division vehicles, second division vehicles weighing 8,000 pounds or less, and recreational vehicles. Those plates can be transferred within those vehicle groups.

(i) Plates displayed on second division vehicles weighing 8,000 pounds or less and passenger vehicle plates may be reclassed from one division to the other.

(j) Other than in subsection (i), reclassing from one division to the other division is prohibited. In addition, a reclass from a motor vehicle to a trailer or a trailer to a motor vehicle is prohibited.

(Source: P.A. 102-154, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-660, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-25-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-804) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-804)

Sec. 3-804. Antique vehicles.

(a) The owner of an antique vehicle may register such vehicle for a fee not to exceed $13 for a 2-year antique plate. The application for registration must be accompanied by an affirmation of the owner that such vehicle will be driven on the highway only for the purpose of going to and returning from an antique auto show or an exhibition, or for servicing or demonstration and also affirming that the mechanical condition, physical condition, brakes, lights, glass, and appearance of such vehicle is the same or as safe as originally equipped. The Secretary may, in his discretion, prescribe that antique vehicle plates be issued for a definite or an indefinite term, such term to correspond to the term of registration plates issued generally, as provided in Section 3-414.1. In no event may the registration fee for antique vehicles exceed $6 per registration year. Any person requesting antique plates under this Section may also apply to have vanity or personalized plates as provided under Section 3-405.1.

(b) Any person who is the registered owner of an antique vehicle may display a historical Illinois-issued license plate that represents the model year of the vehicle, furnished by such person, in lieu of the current and valid Illinois antique vehicle plates issued thereto, provided that valid and current Illinois antique vehicle plates and registration card issued to such antique vehicle are simultaneously carried within such vehicle and are available for inspection.

(Source: P.A. 103-706, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-24-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-203)

Sec. 4-203. Removal of motor vehicles or other vehicles; towing or hauling away.

(a) When a vehicle is abandoned, or left unattended, on a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway for 2 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(b) When a vehicle is abandoned on a highway in an urban district for 10 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(c) When a vehicle is abandoned or left unattended on a highway other than a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway, outside of an urban district for 24 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(d) When an abandoned, unattended, wrecked, burned, or partially dismantled vehicle is creating a traffic hazard because of its position in relation to the highway or its physical appearance is causing the impeding of traffic, its immediate removal from the highway or private property adjacent to the highway by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(e) Whenever a peace officer reasonably believes that a person under arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance is likely, upon release, to commit a subsequent violation of Section 11-501, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the arresting officer shall have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of 12 hours after the time of arrest. However, such vehicle may be released by the arresting law enforcement agency prior to the end of the impoundment period if:

(1) the vehicle was not owned by the person under arrest, and the lawful owner requesting such release possesses a valid operator's license, proof of ownership, and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner, or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code; or

(2) the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest, and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate such vehicle, provided however, that the other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(e-5) Whenever a registered owner of a vehicle is taken into custody for operating the vehicle in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code, a law enforcement officer may have the vehicle immediately impounded for a period not less than:

(1) 24 hours for a second violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses; or

(2) 48 hours for a third violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses.

The vehicle may be released sooner if the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate the vehicle and that other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or would otherwise, by operating the motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(f) Except as provided in Chapter 18a of this Code, the owner or lessor of privately owned real property within this State, or any person authorized by such owner or lessor, or any law enforcement agency in the case of publicly owned real property may cause any motor vehicle abandoned or left unattended upon such property without permission to be removed by a towing service without liability for the costs of removal, transportation, or storage, or damage caused by such removal, transportation, or storage. The towing or removal of any vehicle from private property without the consent of the registered owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle is subject to compliance with the following conditions and restrictions:

1. Any towed or removed vehicle must be stored at the site of the towing service's place of business. The site must be open during business hours, and for the purpose of redemption of vehicles, during the time that the person or firm towing such vehicle is open for towing purposes.

2. The towing service shall within 30 minutes of completion of such towing or removal, notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of such towing or removal, and the make, model, color, and license plate number of the vehicle, and shall obtain and record the name of the person at the law enforcement agency to whom such information was reported.

3. If the registered owner or legally authorized person entitled to possession of the vehicle shall arrive at the scene prior to actual removal or towing of the vehicle, the vehicle shall be disconnected from the tow truck and that person shall be allowed to remove the vehicle without interference, upon the payment of a reasonable service fee of not more than one-half the posted rate of the towing service as provided in paragraph 6 of this subsection, for which a receipt shall be given.

4. The rebate or payment of money or any other valuable consideration from the towing service or its owners, managers, or employees to the owners or operators of the premises from which the vehicles are towed or removed, for the privilege of removing or towing those vehicles, is prohibited. Any individual who violates this paragraph shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

5. Except for property appurtenant to and obviously a part of a single family residence, and except for instances where notice is personally given to the owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle that the area in which that vehicle is parked is reserved or otherwise unavailable to unauthorized vehicles and they are subject to being removed at the owner or operator's expense, any property owner or lessor, prior to towing or removing any vehicle from private property without the consent of the owner or other legally authorized person in control of that vehicle, must post a notice meeting the following requirements:

a. Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph a.1 of this paragraph 5 of this subsection subdivision (f)5, the notice must be prominently placed at each driveway access or curb cut allowing vehicular access to the property within 5 feet from the public right-of-way line. If there are no curbs or access barriers, the sign must be posted not less than one sign each 100 feet of lot frontage.

a.1. In a municipality with a population of less than 250,000, as an alternative to the requirement of subparagraph a of this paragraph 5 of this subsection subdivision (f)5, the notice for a parking lot contained within property used solely for a 2-family, 3-family, or 4-family residence may be prominently placed at the perimeter of the parking lot, in a position where the notice is visible to the occupants of vehicles entering the lot.

b. The notice must indicate clearly, in not less than 2 inch high light-reflective letters on a contrasting background, that unauthorized vehicles will be towed away at the owner's expense.

c. The notice must also provide the name and current telephone number of the towing service towing or removing the vehicle.

d. The sign structure containing the required notices must be permanently installed with the bottom of the sign not less than 4 feet above ground level, and must be continuously maintained on the property for not less than 24 hours prior to the towing or removing of any vehicle.

6. Any towing service that tows or removes vehicles and proposes to require the owner, operator, or person in control of the vehicle to pay the costs of towing and storage prior to redemption of the vehicle must file and keep on record with the local law enforcement agency a complete copy of the current rates to be charged for such services, and post at the storage site an identical rate schedule and any written contracts with property owners, lessors, or persons in control of property which authorize them to remove vehicles as provided in this Section. The towing and storage charges, however, shall not exceed the maximum allowed by the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 18a-200.

7. No person shall engage in the removal of vehicles from private property as described in this Section without filing a notice of intent in each community where he intends to do such removal, and such notice shall be filed at least 7 days before commencing such towing.

8. No removal of a vehicle from private property shall be done except upon express written instructions of the owners or persons in charge of the private property upon which the vehicle is said to be trespassing.

9. Vehicle entry for the purpose of removal shall be allowed with reasonable care on the part of the person or firm towing the vehicle. Such person or firm shall be liable for any damages occasioned to the vehicle if such entry is not in accordance with the standards of reasonable care.

9.5. Except as authorized by a law enforcement officer, no towing service shall engage in the removal of a commercial motor vehicle that requires a commercial driver's license to operate by operating the vehicle under its own power on a highway.

10. When a vehicle has been towed or removed pursuant to this Section, it must be released to its owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder within one-half hour after requested, if such request is made during business hours. Any vehicle owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder shall have the right to inspect the vehicle before accepting its return, and no release or waiver of any kind which would release the towing service from liability for damages incurred during the towing and storage may be required from any vehicle owner or other legally authorized person as a condition of release of the vehicle. A detailed, signed receipt showing the legal name of the towing service must be given to the person paying towing or storage charges at the time of payment, whether requested or not.

This Section shall not apply to law enforcement, firefighting, rescue, ambulance, or other emergency vehicles which are marked as such or to property owned by any governmental entity.

When an authorized person improperly causes a motor vehicle to be removed, such person shall be liable to the owner or lessee of the vehicle for the cost of removal, transportation and storage, any damages resulting from the removal, transportation and storage, attorney's fee, and court costs.

Any towing or storage charges accrued shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

11. Towing companies shall also provide insurance coverage for areas where vehicles towed under the provisions of this Chapter will be impounded or otherwise stored, and shall adequately cover loss by fire, theft, or other risks.

Any person who fails to comply with the conditions and restrictions of this subsection shall be guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $100 nor more than $500.

(g)(1) When a vehicle is determined to be a hazardous dilapidated motor vehicle pursuant to Section 11-40-3.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or Section 5-12002.1 of the Counties Code, its removal and impoundment by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency with appropriate jurisdiction.

(2) When a vehicle removal from either public or private property is authorized by a law enforcement agency, the owner of the vehicle shall be responsible for all towing and storage charges.

(3) Vehicles removed from public or private property and stored by a commercial vehicle relocator or any other towing service authorized by a law enforcement agency in compliance with this Section and Sections 4-201 and 4-202 of this Code, or at the request of the vehicle owner or operator, shall be subject to a possessor lien for services pursuant to the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act. The provisions of Section 1 of that Act relating to notice and implied consent shall be deemed satisfied by compliance with Section 18a-302 and subsection (6) of Section 18a-300. In no event shall such lien be greater than the rate or rates established in accordance with subsection (6) of Section 18a-200 of this Code. In no event shall such lien be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code. Every such lien shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

(4) Any personal property belonging to the vehicle owner in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) shall likewise be subject to that lien, excepting only: child restraint systems as defined in Section 4 of the Child Passenger Protection Act and other child booster seats; eyeglasses; food; medicine; personal medical and health care devices, including hearing instruments; perishable property; any operator's licenses; any cash, credit cards, or checks or checkbooks; any wallet, purse, or other property containing any operator's licenses, social security cards, or other identifying documents or materials, cash, credit cards, checks, checkbooks, or passbooks; higher education textbooks and study materials; and any personal property belonging to a person other than the vehicle owner if that person provides adequate proof that the personal property belongs to that person. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property excepted under this paragraph (4) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner.

(5) This paragraph (5) applies only in the case of a vehicle that is towed as a result of being involved in a crash. In addition to the personal property excepted under paragraph (4), all other personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) is exempt from that lien and may be claimed by the vehicle owner if the vehicle owner provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner and proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The regulation of liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in a crash are exclusive powers and functions of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in a crash. This paragraph (5) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(6) No lien under this subsection (g) shall: exceed $2,000 in its total amount; or be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code.

(h) Whenever a peace officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), or (b-5) of Section 11-506 of this Code or for a violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of this Code, the arresting officer may have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of 5 days after the time of arrest. An impounding agency shall release a motor vehicle impounded under this subsection (h) to the registered owner of the vehicle under any of the following circumstances:

(1) if the vehicle is a stolen vehicle; or

(2) if the person ticketed for a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), or (b-5) of Section 11-506 or paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of this Code was not authorized by the registered owner of the vehicle to operate the vehicle at the time of the violation; or

(3) if the registered owner of the vehicle was neither the driver nor a passenger in the vehicle at the time of the violation or was unaware that the driver was using the vehicle to engage in street racing, street sideshow, or reckless driving; or

(4) if the legal owner or registered owner of the vehicle is a rental car agency; or

(5) if, prior to the expiration of the impoundment period specified above, the citation is dismissed or the defendant is found not guilty of the offense.

(i) Except for vehicles exempted under subsection (b) of Section 7-601 of this Code, whenever a law enforcement officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code, and the driver has a prior conviction for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code in the past 12 months, the arresting officer shall authorize the removal and impoundment of the vehicle by a towing service.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a person has indicated in a timely filed report to the appropriate law enforcement agency that a vehicle towed pursuant to this Section has been stolen or hijacked then:

(1) the person shall not be liable for any governmentally imposed fees, fines, or penalties; and

(2) if a vehicle towed pursuant to this Section is registered in Illinois and the name and address of the registered owner of the vehicle is provided or made available to the towing service at the time of the tow, then the towing service must provide written notice of the tow to the registered owner within 2 business days after the vehicle is towed by certified mail, return receipt requested. No storage charges shall accrue if the vehicle is reclaimed by paying recovery and towing charges at the posted rates of the towing service as provided by paragraph 6 of subsection (f) within 7 days after such notice is mailed. If the vehicle is registered in a state other than Illinois, then no storage charges shall accrue if the vehicle is reclaimed by paying recovery and towing charges at the posted rates of the towing service as provided by paragraph 6 of subsection (f) within 7 days after a request for registered owner information is mailed by the towing service, certified mail, return receipt requested, to the applicable administrative agency or office in that state.

The towing service shall enjoy a lien to secure payment of charges accrued in compliance with this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-706, eff. 1-1-25; 103-756, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-102)

Sec. 5-102. Used vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person, other than a licensed new vehicle dealer, shall engage in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, 5 or more used vehicles of any make during the year (except house trailers as authorized by paragraph (j) of this Section and rebuilt salvage vehicles sold by their rebuilders to persons licensed under this Chapter), or act as an intermediary, agent, or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser (other than as a salesperson) or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a 10% ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager.

3. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue. However, this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that the Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

4. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a used vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, 2 two or more persons in any one crash, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one crash, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one crash, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a used vehicle dealer's automobile, the used vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 4, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 4, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a used vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 4, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

5. An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(A) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; however, if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (A) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(B) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. For a license renewal application, the fee shall be based on the amount of automobiles sold in the past year according to the following formula:

(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or fewer less automobiles;

(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but fewer less than 200 automobiles;

(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more automobiles but fewer less than 300 automobiles; and

(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more automobiles.

License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

6. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) Article I of Chapter 4 of this Code The Anti-Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) Article I of Chapter 3 of this Code The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) Article VII of Chapter 3 of this Code The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) Chapter 5 of this Code The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

7. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

7.5. A statement that, within 10 years of application, each officer, director, shareholder having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principal in the business of the applicant has not committed, as determined in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding, in any calendar year one or more forcible felonies under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of either or both Article 16 or 17 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a violation of either or both Article 16 or 17 of the Criminal Code of 2012, Article 29B of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar out-of-state offense. For the purposes of this paragraph, "forcible felony" has the meaning provided in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

8. A bond or Certificate of Deposit in the amount of $50,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a used vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a used vehicle dealer.

9. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

10. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

11. A copy of the certification from the prelicensing education program.

12. The full name, address, and contact information of each of the dealer's agents or legal representatives who is an Illinois resident and liable for the performance of the dealership.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of each change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter to the contrary notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed as a used vehicle dealer unless such person maintains an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section. Unless the Secretary makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform to this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, he must grant the applicant an original used vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager;

3. In case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains;

5. The full name, address, and contact information of each of the dealer's agents or legal representatives who is an Illinois resident and liable for the performance of the dealership.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept posted, conspicuously, in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this Section, all used vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A used vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage by an approved bond under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application for renewal is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a used vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. A certificate of title properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 of this Chapter;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) A real estate broker holding a valid certificate of registration issued pursuant to "The Real Estate Brokers and Salesmen License Act" may engage in the business of selling or dealing in house trailers not his own without being licensed as a used vehicle dealer under this Section; however such broker shall maintain a record of the transaction including the following:

(1) the name and address of the buyer and seller,

(2) the date of sale,

(3) a description of the mobile home, including the vehicle identification number, make, model, and year, and

(4) the Illinois certificate of title number.

The foregoing records shall be available for inspection by any officer of the Secretary of State's Office at any reasonable hour.

(k) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a used vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the used vehicle dealer makes a color photocopy or electronic scan of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The used vehicle dealer must retain the photocopy or scan for 30 days.

A used vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (k) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (k) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the used vehicle dealer's license.

(l) Used vehicle dealers licensed under this Section shall provide the Secretary of State a register for the sale at auction of each salvage or junk certificate vehicle. Each register shall include the following information:

1. The year, make, model, style, and color of the vehicle;

2. The vehicle's manufacturer's identification number or, if applicable, the Secretary of State or Illinois State Police identification number;

3. The date of acquisition of the vehicle;

4. The name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired;

5. The name and address of the person to whom any vehicle was disposed, the person's Illinois license number, or, if the person is an out-of-state salvage vehicle buyer, the license number from the state or jurisdiction where the buyer is licensed; and

6. The purchase price of the vehicle.

The register shall be submitted to the Secretary of State via written or electronic means within 10 calendar days from the date of the auction.

(m) If a licensee under this Section voluntarily surrenders a license to the Illinois Secretary of State Police or a representative of the Secretary of State Vehicle Services Department due to the licensee's inability to adhere to recordkeeping provisions, or the inability to properly issue certificates of title or registrations under this Code, or the Secretary revokes a license under this Section, then the licensee and the licensee's agent, designee, or legal representative, if applicable, may not be named on a new application for a licensee under this Section or under this Chapter, nor is the licensee or the licensee's agent, designee, or legal representative permitted to work for another licensee under this Chapter in a recordkeeping, management, or financial position or as an employee who handles certificate of title and registration documents and applications.

(Source: P.A. 101-505, eff. 1-1-20; 102-154, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; revised 10-23-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-110)

Sec. 6-110. Licenses issued to drivers.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue to every qualifying applicant a driver's license as applied for, which license shall bear a distinguishing number assigned to the licensee, the legal name, signature, zip code, date of birth, residence address, and a brief description of the licensee.

Licenses issued shall also indicate the classification and the restrictions under Section 6-104 of this Code. The Secretary may adopt rules to establish informational restrictions that can be placed on the driver's license regarding specific conditions of the licensee.

A driver's license issued may, in the discretion of the Secretary, include a suitable photograph of a type prescribed by the Secretary.

(a-1) If the licensee is less than 18 years of age, unless one of the exceptions in subsection (a-2) apply, the license shall, as a matter of law, be invalid for the operation of any motor vehicle during the following times:

(A) Between 11:00 p.m. Friday and 6:00 a.m. Saturday;

(B) Between 11:00 p.m. Saturday and 6:00 a.m. on Sunday; and

(C) Between 10:00 p.m. on Sunday to Thursday, inclusive, and 6:00 a.m. on the following day.

(a-2) The driver's license of a person under the age of 18 shall not be invalid as described in subsection (a-1) of this Section if the licensee under the age of 18 was:

(1) accompanied by the licensee's parent or guardian or other person in custody or control of the minor;

(2) on an errand at the direction of the minor's parent or guardian, without any detour or stop;

(3) in a motor vehicle involved in interstate travel;

(4) going to or returning home from an employment activity, without any detour or stop;

(5) involved in an emergency;

(6) going to or returning home from, without any detour or stop, an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the licensee, without any detour or stop;

(7) exercising First Amendment rights protected by the United States Constitution, such as the free exercise of religion, freedom of speech, and the right of assembly; or

(8) married or had been married or is an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

(a-2.5) The driver's license of a person who is 17 years of age and has been licensed for at least 12 months is not invalid as described in subsection (a-1) of this Section while the licensee is participating as an assigned driver in a Safe Rides program that meets the following criteria:

(1) the program is sponsored by the Boy Scouts of America or another national public service organization; and

(2) the sponsoring organization carries liability insurance covering the program.

(a-3) If a graduated driver's license holder over the age of 18 committed an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code in the 6 months prior to the graduated driver's license holder's 18th birthday, and was subsequently convicted of the offense, the provisions of subsection (a-1) shall continue to apply until such time as a period of 6 consecutive months has elapsed without an additional violation and subsequent conviction of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of this Code.

(a-4) If an applicant for a driver's license or instruction permit has a current identification card issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-5) If an applicant for a driver's license is an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services with a job title of "Child Protection Specialist Trainee", "Child Protection Specialist", "Child Protection Advanced Specialist", "Child Welfare Specialist Trainee", "Child Welfare Specialist", or "Child Welfare Advanced Specialist" or a judicial officer or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the license instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (a-5). For the purposes of this subsection (a-5), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b) Until the Secretary of State establishes a First Person Consent organ and tissue donor registry under Section 6-117 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall provide a format on the reverse of each driver's license issued which the licensee may use to execute a document of gift conforming to the provisions of the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act. The format shall allow the licensee to indicate the gift intended, whether specific organs, any organ, or the entire body, and shall accommodate the signatures of the donor and 2 witnesses. The Secretary shall also inform each applicant or licensee of this format, describe the procedure for its execution, and may offer the necessary witnesses; provided that in so doing, the Secretary shall advise the applicant or licensee that he or she is under no compulsion to execute a document of gift. A brochure explaining this method of executing an anatomical gift document shall be given to each applicant or licensee. The brochure shall advise the applicant or licensee that he or she is under no compulsion to execute a document of gift, and that he or she may wish to consult with family, friends, or clergy before doing so. The Secretary of State may undertake additional efforts, including education and awareness activities, to promote organ and tissue donation.

(c) The Secretary of State shall designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may place a sticker or decal of the uniform size as the Secretary may specify, which sticker or decal may indicate in appropriate language that the owner of the license carries an Emergency Medical Information Card.

The sticker may be provided by any person, hospital, school, medical group, or association interested in assisting in implementing the Emergency Medical Information Card, but shall meet the specifications as the Secretary may by rule or regulation require.

(d) The Secretary of State shall designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may indicate his blood type and RH factor.

(e) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee under 21 years of age shall be of a distinct nature from those driver's licenses issued to individuals 21 years of age and older. The color designated for driver's licenses for licensees under 21 years of age shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(e-1) The Secretary shall provide that each driver's license issued to a person under the age of 21 displays the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(e-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including health care healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue drivers' licenses with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the licenses. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other driver's license which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the license holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the driver's license.

(e-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal driver's license where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (e) of Section 6-106 of this Code who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(e-7) Upon providing the required documentation, at the request of the applicant, the driver's license may reflect Gold Star Family designation. The Secretary shall designate a space on each original or renewal driver's license for such designation. This designation shall be available to a person eligible for Gold Star license plates under subsection (f) of Section 6-106 of this Code.

(f) The Secretary of State shall inform all Illinois licensed commercial motor vehicle operators of the requirements of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, and shall make provisions to insure that all drivers, seeking to obtain a commercial driver's license, be afforded an opportunity prior to April 1, 1992, to obtain the license. The Secretary is authorized to extend driver's license expiration dates, and assign specific times, dates and locations where these commercial driver's tests shall be conducted. Any applicant, regardless of the current expiration date of the applicant's driver's license, may be subject to any assignment by the Secretary. Failure to comply with the Secretary's assignment may result in the applicant's forfeiture of an opportunity to receive a commercial driver's license prior to April 1, 1992.

(g) The Secretary of State shall designate on a driver's license issued, a space where the licensee may indicate that he or she has drafted a living will in accordance with the Illinois Living Will Act or a durable power of attorney for health care in accordance with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

(g-1) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each driver's license issued a space where the licensee may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the owner of the license has renewed his or her driver's license.

(h) A person who acts in good faith in accordance with the terms of this Section is not liable for damages in any civil action or subject to prosecution in any criminal proceeding for his or her act.

(i) The Secretary shall designate a space on each original or renewal of a driver's license, at the request of the applicant, for a designation as a Gold Star Family. This designation shall be available to a person eligible for Gold Star license plates under subsection (f) of Section 6-106 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-888, eff. 8-9-24; 103-933, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fees for licenses and permits under this Article are as follows:

Original 4-year driver's license......................$30

Original 8-year driver's license issued under

subsection (a-3) of Section 6-115.................$60

Original driver's license issued

to 18, 19, and 20 year olds....................... $5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80............................. $5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86............................. $2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older....................................$0

Renewal 4-year driver's license (except for

applicants, age 69 and older).....................$30

Renewal 8-year driver's license issued under

subsection (a-3) of Section 6-115 (except

for applicants age 69 and older)..................$60

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license................................. $20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal................. $5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older.................................. $5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois...................................... $10

Restricted driving permit............................. $8

Monitoring device driving permit..................... $8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit......................................... $5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit.................................... $5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit............................. $5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member.................................. $0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................ $5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to prorate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

The fee for a restricted driving permit under this subsection (a) shall be imposed annually until the expiration of the permit.

(a-5) The fee for a driver's record or data contained therein is $20 and shall be disbursed as set forth in subsection (k) of Section 2-123 of this Code.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Illinois Safety and Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Suspension under Section 11-1431....................$100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of Section 2-119 of this Code, except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Drivers Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) one-sixth of the fee for an original driver's license;

(C) one-sixth of the fee for a renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Illinois Safety and Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 or a suspension under Section 11-501.9;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

8. Fees collected under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) and subsection (h) of Section 6-205 of this Code; subparagraph (C) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code; and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-206.1 of this Code, shall be paid into the funds set forth in those Sections.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-38 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law. The additional fees imposed by Public Act 103-8 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall become effective July 1, 2023 and shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 103-8, eff. 7-1-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-872, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-209.1)

Sec. 6-209.1. Restoration of driving privileges; revocation; suspension; cancellation.

(a) The Secretary shall rescind the suspension or cancellation of a person's driver's license that has been suspended or canceled before July 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-623) due to:

(1) the person being convicted of theft of motor fuel under Section 16-25 or 16K-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) the person, since the issuance of the driver's license, being adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

(3) a violation of Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(4) the person being convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the person presents a certified copy of a court order that includes a finding that the person was not an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation;

(5) the person receiving a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the person presents a certified copy of a court order that includes a finding that the person was not an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation;

(6) the person failing to pay any fine or penalty due or owing as a result of 10 or more violations of a municipality's or county's vehicular standing, parking, or compliance regulations established by ordinance under Section 11-208.3 of this Code;

(7) the person failing to satisfy any fine or penalty resulting from a final order issued by the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority relating directly or indirectly to 5 or more toll violations, toll evasions, or both;

(8) the person being convicted of a violation of Section 4-102 of this Code, if the person presents a certified copy of a court order that includes a finding that the person did not exercise actual physical control of the vehicle at the time of the violation; or

(9) the person being convicted of criminal trespass to vehicles under Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if the person presents a certified copy of a court order that includes a finding that the person did not exercise actual physical control of the vehicle at the time of the violation.

(b) As soon as practicable and no later than July 1, 2021, the Secretary shall rescind the suspension, cancellation, or prohibition of renewal of a person's driver's license that has been suspended, canceled, or whose renewal has been prohibited before July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly due to the person having failed to pay any fine or penalty for traffic violations, automated traffic law enforcement system violations as defined in Sections 11-208.6, and 11-208.8, 11-208.9, and 11-1201.1, or abandoned vehicle fees.

(Source: P.A. 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 8-19-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-907)

Sec. 11-907. Operation of vehicles and streetcars on approach of authorized emergency vehicles.

(a) Upon the immediate approach of an authorized emergency vehicle making use of audible and visual signals meeting the requirements of this Code or a police vehicle properly and lawfully making use of an audible or visual signal:

(1) the driver of every other vehicle shall yield the right-of-way and shall immediately drive to a position parallel to, and as close as possible to, the right-hand edge or curb of the highway clear of any intersection and shall, if necessary to permit the safe passage of the emergency vehicle, stop and remain in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer; and

(2) the operator of every streetcar shall immediately stop such car clear of any intersection and keep it in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer.

(b) This Section shall not operate to relieve the driver of an authorized emergency vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway.

(c) Upon approaching a stationary authorized emergency vehicle or emergency scene, when the stationary authorized emergency vehicle is giving a visual signal by displaying oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights as authorized under Section 12-215 of this Code, a person who drives an approaching vehicle shall:

(1) proceeding with due caution, yield the right-of-way by making a lane change into a lane not adjacent to that of the authorized emergency vehicle, if possible with due regard to safety and traffic conditions, if on a highway having at least 4 lanes with not less than 2 lanes proceeding in the same direction as the approaching vehicle and reduce the speed of the vehicle to a speed that is reasonable and proper with regard to traffic conditions and the use of the highway to avoid a collision and leaving a safe distance until safely past the stationary emergency vehicle; or

(2) if changing lanes would be impossible or unsafe, proceeding with due caution, reduce the speed of the vehicle to a speed that is reasonable and proper with regard to traffic conditions and the use of the highway to avoid a collision, maintaining a safe speed for road conditions and leaving a safe distance until safely past the stationary emergency vehicles.

The visual signal specified under this subsection (c) given by a stationary authorized emergency vehicle is an indication to drivers of approaching vehicles that a hazardous condition is present when circumstances are not immediately clear. Drivers of vehicles approaching a stationary authorized emergency vehicle in any lane shall heed the warning of the signal, reduce the speed of the vehicle, proceed with due caution, maintain a safe speed for road conditions, be prepared to stop, and leave a safe distance until safely passed the stationary emergency vehicle.

As used in this subsection (c), "authorized emergency vehicle" includes any vehicle authorized by law to be equipped with oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights under Section 12-215 of this Code, while the owner or operator of the vehicle is engaged in his or her official duties. As used in this subsection (c), "emergency scene" means a location where a stationary authorized emergency vehicle as defined by herein is present and has activated its oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(d) A person who violates subsection (c) of this Section commits a business offense punishable by a fine of not less than $250 or more than $10,000 for a first violation, and a fine of not less than $750 or more than $10,000 for a second or subsequent violation. It is a factor in aggravation if the person committed the offense while in violation of Section 11-501, 12-610.1, or 12-610.2 of this Code. Imposition of the penalties authorized by this subsection (d) for a violation of subsection (c) of this Section that results in the death of another person does not preclude imposition of appropriate additional civil or criminal penalties. A person who violates subsection (c) and the violation results in damage to another vehicle commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person who violates subsection (c) and the violation results in the injury or death of another person commits a Class 4 felony.

(e) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in damage to the property of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 90 days and not more than one year.

(f) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in injury to another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 180 days and not more than 2 years.

(g) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in the death of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 2 years.

(h) The Secretary of State shall, upon receiving a record of a judgment entered against a person under subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) suspend the person's driving privileges for the mandatory period; or

(2) extend the period of an existing suspension by the appropriate mandatory period.

(i) The Scott's Law Fund shall be a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Director, the Director of the State Police shall use all moneys in the Scott's Law Fund in the Department's discretion to fund the production of materials to educate drivers on approaching stationary authorized emergency vehicles, to hire off-duty Illinois State Police for enforcement of this Section, and for other law enforcement purposes the Director deems necessary in these efforts.

(j) For violations of this Section issued by a county or municipal police officer, the assessment shall be deposited into the county's or municipality's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund. The county shall use the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to hire off-duty county police officers to monitor construction or maintenance zones in that county on highways other than interstate highways. The county, in its discretion, may also use a portion of the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to purchase equipment for county law enforcement and fund the production of materials to educate drivers on construction zone safe driving habits and approaching stationary authorized emergency vehicles.

(k) In addition to other penalties imposed by this Section, the court may order a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) to perform community service as determined by the court.

(Source: P.A. 102-336, eff. 1-1-22; 102-338, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-667, eff. 1-1-25; 103-711, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(625 ILCS 5/13-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 13-101)

Sec. 13-101. Submission to safety test; certificate of safety. To promote the safety of the general public, every owner of a second division vehicle, medical transport vehicle, tow truck, first division vehicle including a taxi which is used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, motor vehicle used for driver education training, or contract carrier transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State in a vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers shall, before operating the vehicle upon the highways of Illinois, submit it to a "safety test" and secure a certificate of safety furnished by the Department as set forth in Section 13-109. Each second division motor vehicle that pulls or draws a trailer, semitrailer or pole trailer, with a gross weight of 10,001 lbs or more or is registered for a gross weight of 10,001 lbs or more, motor bus, religious organization bus, school bus, senior citizen transportation vehicle, and limousine shall be subject to inspection by the Department and the Department is authorized to establish rules and regulations for the implementation of such inspections.

The owners of each salvage vehicle shall submit it to a "safety test" and secure a certificate of safety furnished by the Department prior to its salvage vehicle inspection pursuant to Section 3-308 of this Code. In implementing and enforcing the provisions of this Section, the Department and other authorized State agencies shall do so in a manner that is not inconsistent with any applicable federal law or regulation so that no federal funding or support is jeopardized by the enactment or application of these provisions.

However, none of the provisions of Chapter 13 requiring safety tests or a certificate of safety shall apply to:

(a) farm tractors, machinery and implements, wagons, wagon-trailers or like farm vehicles used primarily in agricultural pursuits;

(b) vehicles other than school buses, tow trucks, and medical transport vehicles owned or operated by a municipal corporation or political subdivision having a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants and which are subject to safety tests imposed by local ordinance or resolution;

(c) a semitrailer or trailer having a gross weight of 5,000 pounds or less including vehicle weight and maximum load;

(d) recreational vehicles;

(e) vehicles registered as and displaying Illinois antique vehicle plates and vehicles registered as expanded-use antique vehicles and displaying expanded-use antique vehicle plates;

(f) house trailers equipped and used for living quarters;

(g) vehicles registered as and displaying Illinois permanently mounted equipment plates or similar vehicles eligible therefor but registered as governmental vehicles provided that if said vehicle is reclassified from a permanently mounted equipment plate so as to lose the exemption of not requiring a certificate of safety, such vehicle must be safety tested within 30 days of the reclassification;

(h) vehicles owned or operated by a manufacturer, dealer, or transporter displaying a special plate or plates as described in Chapter 3 of this Code while such vehicle is being delivered from the manufacturing or assembly plant directly to the purchasing dealership or distributor, or being temporarily road driven for quality control testing, or from one dealer or distributor to another, or are being moved by the most direct route from one location to another for the purpose of installing special bodies or equipment, or driven for purposes of demonstration by a prospective buyer with the dealer or his agent present in the cab of the vehicle during the demonstration;

(i) pole trailers and auxiliary axles;

(j) special mobile equipment;

(k) vehicles properly registered in another State pursuant to law and displaying a valid registration plate or digital registration plate, except vehicles of contract carriers transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State in a vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers are only exempted to the extent that the safety testing requirements applicable to such vehicles in the state of registration are no less stringent than the safety testing requirements applicable to contract carriers that are lawfully registered in Illinois;

(l) water-well boring apparatuses or rigs;

(m) any vehicle which is owned and operated by the federal government and externally displays evidence of such ownership; and

(n) second division vehicles registered for a gross weight of 10,000 pounds or less, except when such second division motor vehicles pull or draw a trailer, semi-trailer, or pole trailer having a gross weight of or registered for a gross weight of more than 10,000 pounds; motor buses; religious organization buses; school buses; senior citizen transportation vehicles; medical transport vehicles; tow trucks; and any property carrying vehicles being operated in commerce that are registered for a gross weight of more than 8,000 lbs but less than 10,001 lbs.

The safety test shall include the testing and inspection of brakes, lights, horns, reflectors, rear vision mirrors, mufflers, safety chains, windshields and windshield wipers, warning flags and flares, frame, axle, cab and body, or cab or body, wheels, steering apparatus, and other safety devices and appliances required by this Code and such other safety tests as the Department may by rule or regulation require, for second division vehicles, school buses, medical transport vehicles, tow trucks, first division vehicles including taxis which are used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, motor vehicles used for driver education training, vehicles designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers operated by a contract carrier transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State, trailers, and semitrailers subject to inspection.

For tow trucks, the safety test and inspection shall also include the inspection of winch mountings, body panels, body mounts, wheel lift swivel points, and sling straps, and other tests and inspections the Department by rule requires for tow trucks.

For driver education vehicles used by public high schools, the vehicle must also be equipped with dual control brakes, a mirror on each side of the vehicle so located as to reflect to the driver a view of the highway for a distance of at least 200 feet to the rear, and a sign visible from the front and the rear identifying the vehicle as a driver education car.

For trucks, truck tractors, trailers, semi-trailers, buses engaged in interstate commerce as defined in Section 1-133 of this Code, and first division vehicles including taxis which are used for a purpose that requires a school bus driver permit, the safety test shall be conducted in accordance with the Minimum Periodic Inspection Standards promulgated by the Federal Highway Administration of the U.S. Department of Transportation and contained in Appendix G to Subchapter B of Chapter III of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Those standards, as now in effect, are made a part of this Code, in the same manner as though they were set out in full in this Code.

The passing of the safety test shall not be a bar at any time to prosecution for operating a second division vehicle, medical transport vehicle, motor vehicle used for driver education training, or vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers operated by a contract carrier as provided in this Section that is unsafe, as determined by the standards prescribed in this Code.

(Source: P.A. 103-476, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-19-24.)

Section 1040. The O'Hare Driver Safety Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(625 ILCS 80/10)

Sec. 10. No stopping or standing within one-half mile of O'Hare International Airport. Except where permitted, a person operating a motor vehicle shall not stop or stand the person's vehicle on a shoulder of a highway along traffic routes within a one-half mile radius of: (1) the eastern entrance to O'Hare International Airport; and (2) the intersection of Interstate 90 and Interstate 294.

No person who is the lessor of a motor vehicle under a written lease agreement shall be liable for an automated traffic safety system violation involving such motor vehicle during the period of the lease, unless, upon the request of the appropriate authority received within 120 days after the violation occurred, the lessor provides within 60 days after such receipt the name and address of the lessee.

Upon the provision of information by the lessor under this Section, the Authority may issue the violation to the lessee of the vehicle in the same manner as it would issue a violation to a registered owner of a vehicle, and the lessee may be held liable for the violation.

This Section shall not apply to vehicles that are stopped or standing in a restricted area if:

(1) a person is yielding to an emergency vehicle;

(2) the vehicle malfunctions;

(3) a person was directed to stop the person's vehicle by a law enforcement officer;

(4) the vehicle was stolen prior to violation and not controlled by the registered owner of the vehicle; or

(5) the driver of the vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer at the time of the violation for the same offense.

(Source: P.A. 103-861, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1045. The Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(630 ILCS 5/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Approved proposal" means the proposal that is approved by the responsible public entity pursuant to subsection (j) of Section 20 of this Act.

"Approved proposer" means the private entity whose proposal is the approved proposal.

"Authority" means the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority.

"Contractor" means a private entity that has entered into a public-private agreement with the responsible public entity to provide services to or on behalf of the responsible public entity.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Transportation.

"Design-build agreement" means the agreement between the selected private entity and the responsible public entity under which the selected private entity agrees to furnish design, construction, and related services for a transportation facility under this Act.

"Develop" or "development" means to do one or more of the following: plan, design, develop, lease, acquire, install, construct, reconstruct, rehabilitate, extend, or expand.

"Maintain" or "maintenance" includes ordinary maintenance, repair, rehabilitation, capital maintenance, maintenance replacement, and any other categories of maintenance that may be designated by the responsible public entity.

"Operate" or "operation" means to do one or more of the following: maintain, improve, equip, modify, or otherwise operate.

"Private entity" means any combination of one or more individuals, corporations, general partnerships, limited liability companies, limited partnerships, joint ventures, business trusts, nonprofit entities, or other business entities that are parties to a proposal for a transportation project or an agreement related to a transportation project. A public agency may provide services to a contractor as a subcontractor or subconsultant without affecting the private status of the private entity and the ability to enter into a public-private agreement. A transportation agency is not a private entity.

"Proposal" means all materials and documents prepared by or on behalf of a private entity relating to the proposed development, financing, or operation of a transportation facility as a transportation project.

"Proposer" means a private entity that has submitted an unsolicited proposal for a public-private agreement to a responsible public entity under this Act or a proposal or statement of qualifications for a public-private agreement in response to a request for proposals or a request for qualifications issued by a responsible public entity under this Act.

"Public-private agreement" means the public-private agreement between the contractor and the responsible public entity relating to one or more of the development, financing, or operation of a transportation project that is entered into under this Act.

"Request for information" means all materials and documents prepared by or on behalf of the responsible public entity to solicit information from private entities with respect to transportation projects.

"Request for proposals" means all materials and documents prepared by or on behalf of the responsible public entity to solicit proposals from private entities to enter into a public-private agreement.

"Request for qualifications" means all materials and documents prepared by or on behalf of the responsible public entity to solicit statements of qualification from private entities to enter into a public-private agreement.

"Responsible public entity" means the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, and the 5 most populous counties of Illinois, as of the most recent publicly available decennial census.

"Revenues" means all revenues, including any combination of: income; earnings and interest; user fees; lease payments; allocations; federal, State, and local appropriations, grants, loans, lines of credit, and credit guarantees; bond proceeds; equity investments; service payments; or other receipts; arising out of or in connection with a transportation project, including the development, financing, and operation of a transportation project. The term includes money received as grants, loans, lines of credit, credit guarantees, or otherwise in aid of a transportation project from the federal government, the State, a unit of local government, or any agency or instrumentality of the federal government, the State, or a unit of local government.

"Shortlist" means the process by which a responsible public entity will review, evaluate, and rank statements of qualifications submitted in response to a request for qualifications and then identify the proposers who are eligible to submit a detailed proposal in response to a request for proposals. The identified proposers constitute the shortlist for the transportation project to which the request for proposals relates.

"Transportation agency" means (i) the Department or (ii) the Authority.

"Transportation facility" means any new or existing road, highway, toll highway, bridge, tunnel, intermodal facility, intercity or high-speed passenger rail, or other transportation facility or infrastructure, including the South Suburban Airport but excluding all other airports, under the jurisdiction of a responsible public entity, except those facilities for the Illiana Expressway. The term "transportation facility" may refer to one or more transportation facilities that are proposed to be developed or operated as part of a single transportation project.

"Transportation project" or "project" means any or the combination of the design, development, construction, financing, or operation with respect to all or a portion of any transportation facility under the jurisdiction of the responsible public entity, except those facilities for the Illiana Expressway, undertaken pursuant to this Act.

"Unit of local government" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Article VII, Section 1 of the Constitution of the State of Illinois and also means any unit designated as a municipal corporation.

"Unsolicited proposal" means a written proposal that is submitted to a transportation agency on the initiative of the private sector entity or entities for the purpose of developing a partnership, and that is not in response to a formal or informal request issued by a transportation agency.

"User fees" or "tolls" means the rates, tolls, fees, or other charges imposed by the contractor for use of all or a portion of a transportation project under a public-private agreement.

(Source: P.A. 103-570, eff. 1-1-24; 103-864, eff. 8-9-24; 103-865, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-9-24.)

Section 1050. The Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act is amended by changing Sections 15-52 and 15-70 as follows:

(705 ILCS 135/15-52)

Sec. 15-52. SCHEDULE 10.5; truck weight and load offenses.

SCHEDULE 10.5: For an offense offenses under subsection (d) of Section 3-401 or , Section 15-111 of the Illinois Vehicle Code , or an offense punishable by fine under Section 15-113.1, 15-113.2, or 15-113.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the Clerk of the Circuit Court shall collect $260 and remit as follows:

(1) As the county's portion, $168 to the county treasurer, who shall deposit the money as follows:

(A) $20 into the Court Automation Fund;

(B) $20 into the Court Document Storage Fund;

(C) $5 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund;

(D) $8 into the Circuit Court Clerk Electronic Citation Fund; and

(E) $115 into the county's General Fund.

(2) As the State's portion, $92 to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit the money as follows:

(A) $31 into the State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund, regardless of the type of overweight citation or arresting law enforcement agency;

(B) $31 into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund; and

(C) $30 to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; 100-1161, eff. 7-1-19; revised 7-24-24.)

(705 ILCS 135/15-70)

Sec. 15-70. Conditional assessments. In addition to payments under one of the Schedule of Assessments 1 through 13 of this Act, the court shall also order payment of any of the following conditional assessment amounts for each sentenced violation in the case to which a conditional assessment is applicable, which shall be collected and remitted by the Clerk of the Circuit Court as provided in this Section:

(1) arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson, $500 per conviction to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Fire Prevention Fund;

(2) child pornography under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $500 per conviction, unless more than one agency is responsible for the arrest in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally:

(A) if the arresting agency is an agency of a unit of local government, $500 to the treasurer of the unit of local government for deposit into the unit of local government's General Fund, except that if the Illinois State Police provides digital or electronic forensic examination assistance, or both, to the arresting agency then $100 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund; or

(B) if the arresting agency is the Illinois State Police, $500 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund;

(3) crime laboratory drug analysis for a drug-related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, $100 reimbursement for laboratory analysis, as set forth in subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) DNA analysis, $250 on each conviction in which it was used to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund as set forth in Section 5-9-1.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(5) DUI analysis, $150 on each sentenced violation in which it was used as set forth in subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(6) drug-related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance, other than methamphetamine, as defined in the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an amount not less than the full street value of the cannabis or controlled substance seized for each conviction to be disbursed as follows:

(A) 12.5% of the street value assessment shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, to be used by the Department of Human Services for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services;

(B) 37.5% to the county in which the charge was prosecuted, to be deposited into the county General Fund;

(C) 50% to the treasurer of the arresting law enforcement agency of the municipality or county, or to the State Treasurer if the arresting agency was a state agency, to be deposited as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5;

(D) if the arrest was made in combination with multiple law enforcement agencies, the clerk shall equitably allocate the portion in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (6) among the law enforcement agencies involved in the arrest;

(6.5) Kane County or Will County, in felony, misdemeanor, local or county ordinance, traffic, or conservation cases, up to $30 as set by the county board under Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code upon the entry of a judgment of conviction, an order of supervision, or a sentence of probation without entry of judgment under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act; except in local or county ordinance, traffic, and conservation cases, if fines are paid in full without a court appearance, then the assessment shall not be imposed or collected. Distribution of assessments collected under this paragraph (6.5) shall be as provided in Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code;

(7) methamphetamine-related offense involving possession or delivery of methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or possession of a methamphetamine manufacturing material as set forth in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to manufacture a substance containing methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine, an amount not less than the full street value of the methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized for each conviction to be disbursed as follows:

(A) 12.5% of the street value assessment shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, to be used by the Department of Human Services for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services;

(B) 37.5% to the county in which the charge was prosecuted, to be deposited into the county General Fund;

(C) 50% to the treasurer of the arresting law enforcement agency of the municipality or county, or to the State Treasurer if the arresting agency was a state agency, to be deposited as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5;

(D) if the arrest was made in combination with multiple law enforcement agencies, the clerk shall equitably allocate the portion in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (6) among the law enforcement agencies involved in the arrest;

(8) order of protection violation under Section 12-3.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, $200 for each conviction to the county treasurer for deposit into the Probation and Court Services Fund for implementation of a domestic violence surveillance program and any other assessments or fees imposed under Section 5-9-1.16 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(9) order of protection violation, $25 for each violation to the State Treasurer, for deposit into the Domestic Violence Abuser Services Fund;

(10) prosecution by the State's Attorney of a:

(A) petty or business offense, $4 to the county treasurer of which $2 deposited into the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund and $2 into the Public Defender Records Automation Fund;

(B) conservation or traffic offense, $2 to the county treasurer for deposit into the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund;

(11) speeding in a construction zone violation, $250 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund, unless (i) the violation occurred on a highway other than an interstate highway and (ii) a county police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case to the county treasurer for deposit into that county's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund;

(12) supervision disposition on an offense under the Illinois Vehicle Code or similar provision of a local ordinance, 50 cents, unless waived by the court, into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund;

(13) victim and offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 and offender pleads guilty or no contest to or is convicted of murder, voluntary manslaughter, involuntary manslaughter, burglary, residential burglary, criminal trespass to residence, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to land, criminal damage to property, telephone harassment, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, forcible detention, child abduction, indecent solicitation of a child, sexual relations between siblings, exploitation of a child, child pornography, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, heinous battery, aggravated battery of a child, domestic battery, reckless conduct, intimidation, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, violation of an order of protection, disorderly conduct, endangering the life or health of a child, child abandonment, contributing to dependency or neglect of child, or cruelty to children and others, $200 for each sentenced violation to the State Treasurer for deposit as follows: (i) for sexual assault, as defined in Section 5-9-1.7 of the Unified Code of Corrections, when the offender and victim are family members, one-half to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund, and one-half to the Sexual Assault Services Fund; (ii) for the remaining offenses to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund;

(14) violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, $1,000 maximum to the public agency that provided an emergency response related to the person's violation, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(15) violation of Section 401, 407, or 407.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act that proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate drug-related emergency response, $1,000 as reimbursement for the emergency response to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(16) violation of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, or driving 26 miles per hour or more in excess of the speed limit that triggered an emergency response, $1,000 maximum reimbursement for the emergency response to be distributed in its entirety to a public agency that provided an emergency response related to the person's violation, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(17) violation based upon each plea of guilty, stipulation of facts, or finding of guilt resulting in a judgment of conviction or order of supervision for an offense under Section 10-9, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, or 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that results in the imposition of a fine, to be distributed as follows:

(A) $50 to the county treasurer for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to cover the costs in administering this paragraph (17);

(B) $300 to the State Treasurer who shall deposit the portion as follows:

(i) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Illinois State Police, into the State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund;

(ii) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Department of Natural Resources, into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund;

(iii) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Secretary of State, into the Secretary of State Police Services Fund;

(iv) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Illinois Commerce Commission, into the Transportation Regulatory Fund; or

(v) if more than one of the State agencies in this subparagraph (B) is the arresting or investigating agency, then equal shares with the shares deposited as provided in the applicable items (i) through (iv) of this subparagraph (B); and

(C) the remainder for deposit into the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund;

(18) weapons violation under Section 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $100 for each conviction to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund; and

(19) violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, $250 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Scott's Law Fund, unless a county or municipal police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case to the county treasurer for deposit into that county's or municipality's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to be used as provided in subsection (j) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and .

(20) violation of Section 15-109.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, $150 to be distributed as follows:

(A) 50% to the county treasurer for deposit into the county general fund; and

(B) 50% to the treasurer of the arresting law enforcement agency of the municipality or county or to the State Treasurer, if the arresting agency was a State agency, to be deposited as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5.

Except for traffic violations, fines, and assessments, such as fees or administrative costs authorized in this Section, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor subject to Article III, IV, or V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or a minor under the age of 18 transferred to adult court or excluded from juvenile court jurisdiction under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; 103-730, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-23-24.)

Section 1055. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 4-6 and 5-915 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/4-6) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-6)

Sec. 4-6. Temporary custody. "Temporary custody" means the temporary placement of the minor out of the custody of the minor's guardian or parent.

(a) "Temporary protective custody" means custody within a hospital or other medical facility or a place previously designated for such custody by the Department, subject to review by the court Court, including a licensed foster home, group home, or other institution; but such place shall not be a jail or other place for the detention of criminal or juvenile offenders.

(b) "Shelter care" means a physically unrestrictive facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency or other suitable place designated by the court for a minor who requires care away from the minor's home.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; revised 7-22-24.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-915)

Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records.

(0.05) (Blank).

(0.1)(a) The Illinois State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 of each year, except as described in paragraph (c) of this subsection (0.1), all juvenile law enforcement records relating to events occurring before an individual's 18th birthday if:

(1) one year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records;

(2) no petition for delinquency or criminal charges were filed with the clerk of the circuit court relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(3) 6 months have elapsed since the date of the arrest without an additional subsequent arrest or filing of a petition for delinquency or criminal charges whether related or not to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records.

(b) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of conditions (2) and (3) of this subsection (0.1), records that satisfy condition (1) of this subsection (0.1) shall be automatically expunged if the records relate to an offense that if committed by an adult would not be an offense classified as a Class 2 felony or higher, an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012, or an offense under Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) If the juvenile law enforcement record was received through a public submission to a statewide student confidential reporting system administered by the Illinois State Police, the record will be maintained for a period of 5 years according to all other provisions in this subsection (0.1).

(0.15) If a juvenile law enforcement record meets paragraph (a) of subsection (0.1) of this Section, a juvenile law enforcement record created:

(1) prior to January 1, 2018, but on or after January 1, 2013 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2020;

(2) prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023; and

(3) prior to January 1, 2000 shall not be subject to the automatic expungement provisions of this Act.

Nothing in this subsection (0.15) shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have the person's juvenile law enforcement records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act.

(0.2)(a) Upon dismissal of a petition alleging delinquency or upon a finding of not delinquent, the successful termination of an order of supervision, or the successful termination of an adjudication for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult, the court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court records and juvenile law enforcement records. The clerk shall deliver a certified copy of the expungement order to the Illinois State Police and the arresting agency. Upon request, the State's Attorney shall furnish the name of the arresting agency. The expungement shall be completed within 60 business days after the receipt of the expungement order.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained until the statute of limitations for the felony has run. If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed with respect to an internal investigation of any law enforcement office, that information and information identifying the juvenile may be retained within an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or the disciplinary action, including appeals, has been completed, whichever is later. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of a juvenile's record from immediate automatic expungement.

(0.3)(a) Upon an adjudication of delinquency based on any offense except a disqualified offense, the juvenile court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court and law enforcement records 2 years after the juvenile's case was closed if no delinquency or criminal proceeding is pending and the person has had no subsequent delinquency adjudication or criminal conviction. On the date that the minor's sentence ends or the date that the court enters an order committing the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the juvenile court judge shall schedule a date to enter the automatic expungement order. The minor must be notified but shall not be required to be present for the scheduled court date when automatic expungement is to be ordered. If the minor is not yet eligible on the originally scheduled date, the court shall schedule a subsequent date to enter the automatic expungement order. The clerk shall deliver a certified copy of the expungement order to the Illinois State Police and the arresting agency. Upon request, the State's Attorney shall furnish the name of the arresting agency. The expungement shall be completed within 60 business days after the receipt of the expungement order. In this subsection (0.3), "disqualified offense" means any of the following offenses: Section 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.3, 12-4.4a, 12-5.02, 12-6.2, 12-6.5, 12-7.1, 12-7.5, 12-20.5, 12-32, 12-33, 12-34, 12-34.5, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-3, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 24-3A, 24-3B, 24-3.2, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 29D-14.9, 29D-20, 30-1, 31-1a, 32-4a, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (b) of Section 8-1, paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.4, subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 12-6, subsection (a-3) or (a-5) of Section 12-7.3, paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.4, subparagraph (i) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-9, subparagraph (H) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6, paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 25-1, or subsection (a-7) of Section 31-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained in an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or for one additional year, whichever is sooner. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's juvenile law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of a juvenile's record from immediate automatic expungement.

(0.4) Automatic expungement for the purposes of this Section shall not require law enforcement agencies to obliterate or otherwise destroy juvenile law enforcement records that would otherwise need to be automatically expunged under this Act, except after 2 years following the subject arrest for purposes of use in civil litigation against a governmental entity or its law enforcement agency or personnel which created, maintained, or used the records. However, these juvenile law enforcement records shall be considered expunged for all other purposes during this period and the offense, which the records or files concern, shall be treated as if it never occurred as required under Section 5-923.

(0.5) Subsection (0.1) or (0.2) of this Section does not apply to violations of traffic, boating, fish and game laws, or county or municipal ordinances.

(0.6) Juvenile law enforcement records of a plaintiff who has filed civil litigation against the governmental entity or its law enforcement agency or personnel that created, maintained, or used the records, or juvenile law enforcement records that contain information related to the allegations set forth in the civil litigation may not be expunged until after 2 years have elapsed after the conclusion of the lawsuit, including any appeal.

(0.7) Officer-worn body camera recordings shall not be automatically expunged except as otherwise authorized by the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act.

(1) Whenever a person has been arrested, charged, or adjudicated delinquent for an incident occurring before a person's 18th birthday that if committed by an adult would be an offense, and that person's juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3), the person may petition the court at any time at no cost to the person for expungement of juvenile law enforcement records and juvenile court records relating to the incident and, upon termination of all juvenile court proceedings relating to that incident, the court shall order the expungement of all records in the possession of the Illinois State Police, the clerk of the circuit court, and law enforcement agencies relating to the incident, but only in any of the following circumstances:

(a) the minor was arrested and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court;

(a-5) the minor was charged with an offense and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency;

(b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found not delinquent of that offense;

(c) the minor was placed under supervision under Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been successfully terminated; or

(d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult.

(1.5) At no cost to the person, the Illinois State Police shall allow a person to use the Access and Review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that the person's juvenile law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before the person's 18th birthday eligible under this Act have been expunged.

(1.6) (Blank).

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) (Blank).

(2) Any person whose delinquency adjudications are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection (0.3) of this Section may petition the court at no cost to the person to expunge all juvenile law enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before the person's 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act at the time the person petitions the court for expungement; provided that 2 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to the person have been terminated and the person's commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this Act has been terminated.

(2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court at the time the minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if applicable, or other designated person from the arresting agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or the minor's parents or guardians that the minor shall have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information packet, information regarding this State's expungement laws including a petition to expunge juvenile law enforcement and juvenile court records obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.

(2.6) If a minor is referred to court, then, at the time of sentencing, dismissal of the case, or successful completion of supervision, the judge shall inform the delinquent minor of the minor's rights regarding expungement and the clerk of the circuit court shall provide an expungement information packet to the minor, written in plain language, including information regarding this State's expungement laws and a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed petition, expungement instructions that shall include information informing the minor that (i) once the case is expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) the minor shall not be charged a fee to petition for expungement, (iii) once the minor obtains an expungement, the minor may not be required to disclose that the minor had a juvenile law enforcement or juvenile court record, and (iv) if petitioning the minor may file the petition on the minor's own or with the assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform the delinquent minor of the minor's right to petition for expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an adjudication of delinquency; (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an appeal.

(2.6-1) A trafficking victim, as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, may petition for vacation and expungement or immediate sealing of his or her juvenile court records and juvenile law enforcement records relating to events that resulted in the victim's adjudication of delinquency for an offense if committed by an adult would be a violation of the criminal laws occurring before the victim's 18th birthday upon the completion of his or her juvenile court sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(2.7) (Blank).

(2.8) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(3.1) (Blank).

(3.2) (Blank).

(3.3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(5.5) Whether or not expunged, records eligible for automatic expungement under subdivision (0.1)(a), (0.2)(a), or (0.3)(a) may be treated as expunged by the individual subject to the records.

(6) (Blank).

(6.5) The Illinois State Police or any employee of the Illinois State Police shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for failure to expunge any records of arrest that are subject to expungement under this Section because of inability to verify a record. Nothing in this Section shall create Illinois State Police liability or responsibility for the expungement of juvenile law enforcement records it does not possess.

(7) (Blank).

(7.5) (Blank).

(8) The expungement of juvenile law enforcement or juvenile court records under subsection (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3) of this Section shall be funded by appropriation by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-752, eff. 1-1-23; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; 103-717, eff. 1-1-25; 103-787, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 1060. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 11-23.7, 17-11.2, and 24-2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/11-23.7)

Sec. 11-23.7. Non-consensual dissemination of sexually explicit digitized depictions.

(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Intimate parts" means the fully unclothed, partially unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, anus, or if the person is female, a partially or fully exposed nipple, including exposure through transparent clothing.

"Personal identifying information" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1.

"Sexual activity" means:

(1) any knowing touching or fondling of the victim or another person or animal, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, anus, or breast of the victim or another person or animal for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal;

(2) any transfer or transmission of semen upon any part of the clothed or unclothed body of the victim, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the victim or another;

(3) an act of urination within a sexual context;

(4) any bondage, fetter, or sadism masochism; or

(5) sadomasochism abuse in any sexual context.

"Sexually explicit digitized depiction" means any image, photograph, film, video, digital recording, or other depiction or portrayal that has been created, altered, or otherwise modified to realistically depict either:

(1) the intimate parts of another human being as the intimate parts of the depicted individual or computer-generated intimate parts as the intimate parts of the depicted individual; or

(2) the depicted individual engaging in sexual activity in which the depicted individual did not engage.

(b) A person commits non-consensual dissemination of sexually explicit digitized depictions when the person:

(1) intentionally disseminates a sexually explicit digitized depiction of another person who is identifiable from the image itself, or whose personal identifying information is displayed or disseminated in connection with the image, or whose identity identify is known to the person who disseminates the image; and

(2) knows or should have known that the person in the image has not consented to the dissemination.

(c) The following activities are exempt from the provisions of this Section:

(1) The intentional dissemination of an image of another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination is made for the purpose of a criminal investigation that is otherwise lawful.

(2) The intentional dissemination of an image of another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination is for the purpose of, or in connection with, the reporting of unlawful conduct.

(3) The intentional dissemination of an image of another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the images involve voluntary exposure in public or commercial settings.

(4) The intentional dissemination of an image of another identifiable person who is engaged in a sexual act or whose intimate parts are exposed when the dissemination serves a lawful public purpose.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose liability upon the following entities solely as a result of content or information provided by another person:

(1) an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 230(f)(2);

(2) a provider of public mobile services or private radio services, as defined in Section 13-214 of the Public Utilities Act; or

(3) a telecommunications network or broadband provider.

(e) A person convicted under this Section is subject to the forfeiture provisions in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(f) Sentence. Non-consensual dissemination of sexually explicit digitized depictions is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 103-825, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-24-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-11.2)

Sec. 17-11.2. Airbag fraud.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

"Airbag" means a motor vehicle inflatable occupant restraint system device that is part of a vehicle's supplemental restraint system.

"Counterfeit supplemental restraint system component" means a replacement supplemental restraint system component, including, but not limited to, an airbag, that displays a mark identical to, or substantially similar to, the genuine mark of a motor vehicle manufacturer or a supplier of parts to the manufacturer of a motor vehicle without authorization from that manufacturer or supplier, respectively.

"Non-functional airbag" means a replacement airbag that meets any of the following criteria:

(1) the airbag was previously deployed or damaged;

(2) the airbag has an electric fault that is detected by the vehicle's diagnostic system when the installation procedure is completed and the vehicle is returned to the customer who requested the work to be performed or when ownership is intended to be transferred;

(3) the airbag includes a part or object, including a supplemental restraint system component, that is installed in a motor vehicle to mislead the owner or operator of the motor vehicle into believing that a functional airbag has been installed; or

(4) the airbag is subject to the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 30120(j).

"Supplemental restraint system" means a passive inflatable motor vehicle occupant crash protection system designed for use in conjunction with a seat belt assembly as defined in 49 CFR 571.209. "Supplemental restraint system" includes one or more airbags and all components required to ensure that an airbag air bag works as designed by the vehicle manufacturer, including both of the following:

(1) the airbag operates as designed in the event of a crash; and

(2) the airbag is designed to meet federal motor vehicle safety standards for the specific make, model, and year of the vehicle in which it is or will be installed.

(b) A person commits airbag fraud when he or she, for consideration, knowingly:

(1) imports, manufactures, sells, offers for sale, installs, or reinstalls in a vehicle a counterfeit supplemental restraint system component, a non-functional airbag, or an object that does not comply with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the vehicle in which it is or will be installed;

(2) sells, offers for sale, installs, or reinstalls in any motor vehicle a device that causes a motor vehicle's diagnostic system to inaccurately indicate that the motor vehicle is equipped with a properly functioning airbag; or

(3) sells, leases, trades, or transfers a motor vehicle if the person knows that a counterfeit supplemental restraint system component, a non-functional airbag, or an object that does not comply with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the vehicle as part of a vehicle inflatable restraint system.

(c) This Section does not apply to an owner or employee of a motor vehicle dealership or the owner of a vehicle, who, before the sale of the vehicle, does not have knowledge that the vehicle's airbag, or another component of the vehicle's supplemental restraint system, is counterfeit or non-functioning.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 103-900, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a security guard for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department; provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have received weapons training according to requirements of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.

(13) Court security officers Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the sheriff Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.

(a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement officer or a current or retired deputy, county correctional officer, or correctional officer of the Department of Corrections qualified under the laws of this State or under the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers, or fishermen while engaged in lawful hunting, trapping, or fishing under the provisions of the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer, or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns, or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons, or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons, or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager, or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordnance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly, or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) (Blank).

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negate negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22; 102-779, eff. 1-1-23; 102-837, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1065. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Section 410 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/410)

Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any felony offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of a controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of Section 402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, may sentence him or her to probation. A sentence under this Section shall not be considered a conviction under Illinois law unless and until judgment is entered under subsection (e) of this Section.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him or her.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, a sentence under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime unless and until judgment is entered.

(h) A person may not have more than one discharge and dismissal under this Section within a 4-year period.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully completing a sentence of probation under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a substance use disorder that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section, but shall be considered for the drug court program.

(Source: P.A. 103-702, eff. 1-1-25; 103-881, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 1070. The Drug Paraphernalia Control Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 600/2) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 2102)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) The term "cannabis" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act, as if that definition were incorporated herein.

(b) The term "controlled substance" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as if that definition were incorporated herein.

(c) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of possession, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(d) "Drug paraphernalia" means all equipment, products, and materials of any kind, other than methamphetamine manufacturing materials as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and cannabis paraphernalia as defined in Section 1-10 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, which are intended to be used unlawfully in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance in violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a synthetic drug product or misbranded drug in violation of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. It includes, but is not limited to:

(1) kits intended to be used unlawfully in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing a controlled substance;

(2) isomerization devices intended to be used unlawfully in increasing the potency of any species of plant which is a controlled substance;

(3) testing equipment intended to be used unlawfully in a private home for identifying or in analyzing the strength, effectiveness, or purity of controlled substances;

(4) diluents and adulterants intended to be used unlawfully for cutting a controlled substance by private persons;

(5) objects intended to be used unlawfully in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing cocaine or a synthetic drug product or misbranded drug in violation of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act into the human body including, where applicable, the following items:

(A) water pipes;

(B) carburetion tubes and devices;

(C) smoking and carburetion masks;

(D) miniature cocaine spoons and cocaine vials;

(E) carburetor pipes;

(F) electric pipes;

(G) air-driven pipes;

(H) chillums;

(I) bongs;

(J) ice pipes or chillers;

(6) any item whose purpose, as announced or described by the seller, is for use in violation of this Act.

"Drug paraphernalia" does not include equipment, products, or materials to analyze or test for the presence of fentanyl, a fentanyl analog analogue, or a drug adulterant within a controlled substance.

(Source: P.A. 103-336, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1075. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Section 110-6.1 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.1)

Sec. 110-6.1. Denial of pretrial release.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing and may deny a defendant pretrial release only if:

(1) the defendant is charged with a felony offense other than a forcible felony for which, based on the charge or the defendant's criminal history, a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment, or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(1.5) the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant is charged with a forcible felony, which as used in this Section, means treason, first degree murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated robbery, robbery, burglary where there is use of force against another person, residential burglary, home invasion, vehicular invasion, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, or any other felony which involves the threat of or infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement;

(2) the defendant is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, and it is alleged that the defendant's pre-trial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of a victim of the alleged offense, and denial of release is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

(3) the defendant is charged with a violation of an order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, a stalking no contact order under Section 80 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or of a civil no contact order under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(4) the defendant is charged with domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 or 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(5) the defendant is charged with any offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except for Sections 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-18, 11-20, 11-30, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or similar provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(6) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm);

(B) Section 24-1.2-5 24-2.5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used use for silencing the report of a firearm);

(C) Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm);

(D) Section 24-1.7 (unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender);

(E) Section 24-2.2 (manufacture, sale, or transfer of bullets or shells represented to be armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells);

(F) Section 24-3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms);

(G) Section 24-3.3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school);

(H) Section 24-34 (unlawful sale of firearms by liquor license);

(I) Section 24-3.5 (unlawful purchase of a firearm);

(J) Section 24-3A (gunrunning);

(K) Section 24-3B (firearms trafficking);

(L) Section 10-9 (b) (involuntary servitude);

(M) Section 10-9 (c) (involuntary sexual servitude of a minor);

(N) Section 10-9(d) (trafficking in persons);

(O) Non-probationable violations: (i) unlawful possession of weapons by felons or persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections facilities (Section 24-1.1), (ii) aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon (Section 24-1.6), or (iii) aggravated possession of a stolen firearm (Section 24-3.9);

(P) Section 9-3 (reckless homicide and involuntary manslaughter);

(Q) Section 19-3 (residential burglary);

(R) Section 10-5 (child abduction);

(S) Felony violations of Section 12C-5 (child endangerment);

(T) Section 12-7.1 (hate crime);

(U) Section 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint);

(V) Section 12-9 (threatening a public official);

(W) Subdivision (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery with a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm);

(6.5) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Felony violations of Sections 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act (cruel treatment, aggravated cruelty, and animal torture);

(B) Subdivision (d)(1)(B) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence while operating a school bus with passengers);

(C) Subdivision (d)(1)(C) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence causing great bodily harm);

(D) Subdivision (d)(1)(D) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence after a previous reckless homicide conviction);

(E) Subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence leading to death); or

(F) Subdivision (d)(1)(J) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence that resulted in bodily harm to a child under the age of 16);

(7) the defendant is charged with an attempt to commit any charge listed in paragraphs (1) through (6.5), and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case; or

(8) the person has a high likelihood of willful flight to avoid prosecution and is charged with:

(A) Any felony described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this Section; or

(B) A felony offense other than a Class 4 offense.

(b) If the charged offense is a felony, as part of the detention hearing, the court shall determine whether there is probable cause the defendant has committed an offense, unless a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of this Code has already been held or a grand jury has returned a true bill of indictment against the defendant. If there is a finding of no probable cause, the defendant shall be released. No such finding is necessary if the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor.

(c) Timing of petition.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within the 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while such petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) Upon filing, the court shall immediately hold a hearing on the petition unless a continuance is requested. If a continuance is requested and granted, the hearing shall be held within 48 hours of the defendant's first appearance if the defendant is charged with first degree murder or a Class X, Class 1, Class 2, or Class 3 felony, and within 24 hours if the defendant is charged with a Class 4 or misdemeanor offense. The Court may deny or grant the request for continuance. If the court decides to grant the continuance, the Court retains the discretion to detain or release the defendant in the time between the filing of the petition and the hearing.

(d) Contents of petition.

(1) The petition shall be verified by the State and shall state the grounds upon which it contends the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts or flight risk, as appropriate.

(2) If the State seeks to file a second or subsequent petition under this Section, the State shall be required to present a verified application setting forth in detail any new facts not known or obtainable at the time of the filing of the previous petition.

(e) Eligibility: All defendants shall be presumed eligible for pretrial release, and the State shall bear the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed an offense listed in subsection (a), and

(2) for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, by conduct which may include, but is not limited to, a forcible felony, the obstruction of justice, intimidation, injury, or abuse as defined by paragraph (1) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, and

(3) no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate (i) the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), or (ii) the defendant's willful flight for offenses listed in paragraph (8) of subsection (a), and

(4) for offenses under subsection (b) of Section 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act that are subject to paragraph (1) of subsection (a), no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant poses a serious risk to not appear in court as required.

(f) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) Prior to the hearing, the State shall tender to the defendant copies of the defendant's criminal history available, any written or recorded statements, and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State in its petition, and any police reports in the prosecutor's possession at the time of the hearing.

(2) The State or defendant may present evidence at the hearing by way of proffer based upon reliable information.

(3) The defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he or she is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him or her. The defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses on his or her own behalf, and to cross-examine any witnesses that are called by the State. Defense counsel shall be given adequate opportunity to confer with the defendant before any hearing at which conditions of release or the detention of the defendant are to be considered, with an accommodation for a physical condition made to facilitate attorney/client consultation. If defense counsel needs to confer or consult with the defendant during any hearing conducted via a 2-way two-way audio-visual communication system, such consultation shall not be recorded and shall be undertaken consistent with constitutional protections.

(3.5) A hearing at which pretrial release may be denied must be conducted in person (and not by way of 2-way two-way audio visual communication) unless the accused waives the right to be present physically in court, the court determines that the physical health and safety of any person necessary to the proceedings would be endangered by appearing in court, or the chief judge of the circuit orders use of that system due to operational challenges in conducting the hearing in person. Such operational challenges must be documented and approved by the chief judge of the circuit, and a plan to address the challenges through reasonable efforts must be presented and approved by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts every 6 months.

(4) If the defense seeks to compel the complaining witness to testify as a witness in its favor, it shall petition the court for permission. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness only on the issue of the defendant's pretrial detention. In making a determination under this Section, the court shall state on the record the reason for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness, and only grant the request if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant will be materially prejudiced if the complaining witness does not appear. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pre-trial detention hearing is not to be used for purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies, if any, of the defendant's criminal history, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if in the State's Attorney's possession at the time of the hearing.

(5) The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case-in-chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(6) The defendant may not move to suppress evidence or a confession, however, evidence that proof of the charged crime may have been the result of an unlawful search or seizure, or both, or through improper interrogation, is relevant in assessing the weight of the evidence against the defendant.

(7) Decisions regarding release, conditions of release, and detention prior to trial must be individualized, and no single factor or standard may be used exclusively to order detention. Risk assessment tools may not be used as the sole basis to deny pretrial release.

(g) Factors to be considered in making a determination of dangerousness. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, consider, but shall not be limited to, evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of any offense charged, including whether the offense is a crime of violence, involving a weapon, or a sex offense.

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior. Such evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations, or other proceedings.

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history which tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The identity of any person or persons to whose safety the defendant is believed to pose a threat, and the nature of the threat.

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them.

(5) The age and physical condition of the defendant.

(6) The age and physical condition of any victim or complaining witness.

(7) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons.

(8) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal, or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or State state law.

(9) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Article deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior.

(h) Detention order. The court shall, in any order for detention:

(1) make a written finding summarizing the court's reasons for concluding that the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including why less restrictive conditions would not avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his or her choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(i) Detention. If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90-day period required by the preceding sentence, he shall not be denied pretrial release. In computing the 90-day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant and any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the State with good cause shown pursuant to Section 103-5.

(i-5) At each subsequent appearance of the defendant before the court, the judge must find that continued detention is necessary to avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or to prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution.

(j) Rights of the defendant. The defendant shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying his or her pretrial release.

(k) Appeal. The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of pretrial release.

(l) Presumption of innocence. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(m) Interest of victims.

(1) Crime victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain a protective order.

(2) If the defendant is denied pretrial release, the court may impose a no contact provision with the victim or other interested party that shall be enforced while the defendant remains in custody.

(Source: P.A. 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1080. The Pretrial Success Act is amended by changing Sections 2-1, 2-20, and 2-45 as follows:

(725 ILCS 187/2-1)

Sec. 2-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Pretrial Success Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-19-24.)

(725 ILCS 187/2-20)

Sec. 2-20. Grant-making Grant making authority.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall have grant-making, operational, and procurement authority to distribute funds to local government health and human services agencies, community-based organizations, and other entities necessary to execute the functions established in this Act.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall issue grants to local governmental agencies and community-based organizations to maximize pretrial success each year. Grants shall be awarded no later than January 1, 2025. Grants in subsequent years shall be issued on or before September 1 of the relevant fiscal year and shall allow for pre-award expenditures beginning July 1 of the relevant fiscal year.

(c) Beginning in fiscal year 2028 and subject to appropriation, grants shall be awarded for a project period of 3 years, contingent on Department requirements for reporting and successful performance.

(d) The Department shall ensure that grants awarded under this Act do not duplicate or supplant grants awarded under the Reimagine Public Safety Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-22-24.)

(725 ILCS 187/2-45)

Sec. 2-45. Evaluation.

(a) The Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly no later than January 1 of each year beginning at least 12 months after grants are first issued under this Act. The report shall cover the previous fiscal year and identify gaps in community-based pretrial supports and services in each service area, explain the investments that are being made to maximize pretrial success, and make further recommendations on how to build community-based capacity for community-based pretrial supports and services including mental health and substance use disorder treatment.

(b) Beginning with the first report issued at least 24 months after grants are first issued under this Act, the annual report shall include an evaluation of the effectiveness of grants under this Act in maximizing pretrial success. The Department shall use community-based participatory research methods and ensure that the evaluation incorporates input from individuals and organizations affected by this the Act, including, but not limited to, individuals with personal experience with being charged with a felony offense in Illinois, individuals with personal experience with a family member being charged with a felony offense in Illinois, local government health and human services agencies, community-based organizations, and court stakeholders. The evaluation should be conducted with input from outside expert evaluators when possible.

(c) The Department shall consider findings from annual reports and evaluations in developing subsequent years' grant-making grantmaking processes, monitoring progress toward local advisory councils' goals, and ensuring equity in the grant-making grantmaking process.

(Source: P.A. 103-588, eff. 6-5-24; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1085. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-7-2, 3-13-4, 5-5-3.2, 5-6-3.6, 5-6-3.8, and 5-8-1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-7-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-7-2)

Sec. 3-7-2. Facilities.

(a) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide every committed person with access to toilet facilities, barber facilities, bathing facilities at least once each week, a library of legal materials and published materials including newspapers and magazines approved by the Director. A committed person may not receive any materials that the Director deems pornographic.

(b) (Blank).

(c) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide facilities for every committed person to leave his cell for at least one hour each day unless the chief administrative officer determines that it would be harmful or dangerous to the security or safety of the institution or facility.

(d) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide every committed person with a wholesome and nutritional diet at regularly scheduled hours, drinking water, clothing adequate for the season, including underwear, bedding, soap, and towels, and medical and dental care. Underwear provided to each committed person in all institutions and facilities of the Department shall be free of charge and shall be provided at any time upon request, including multiple requests, of the committed person or as needed by the committed person.

(e) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit every committed person to send and receive an unlimited number of uncensored letters, provided, however, that the Director may order that mail be inspected and read for reasons of the security, safety, or morale of the institution or facility.

(f) All of the institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit every committed person to receive in-person visitors and video contact, if available, except in case of abuse of the visiting privilege or when the chief administrative officer determines that such visiting would be harmful or dangerous to the security, safety or morale of the institution or facility. Each committed person is entitled to 7 visits per month. Every committed person may submit a list of at least 30 persons to the Department that are authorized to visit the committed person. The list shall be kept in an electronic format by the Department beginning on August 1, 2019, as well as available in paper form for Department employees. The chief administrative officer shall have the right to restrict visitation to non-contact visits, video, or other forms of non-contact visits for reasons of safety, security, and order, including, but not limited to, restricting contact visits for committed persons engaged in gang activity. No committed person in a super maximum security facility or on disciplinary segregation is allowed contact visits. Any committed person found in possession of illegal drugs or who fails a drug test shall not be permitted contact visits for a period of at least 6 months. Any committed person involved in gang activities or found guilty of assault committed against a Department employee shall not be permitted contact visits for a period of at least 6 months. The Department shall offer every visitor appropriate written information concerning HIV and AIDS, including information concerning how to contact the Illinois Department of Public Health for counseling information. The Department shall develop the written materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. The Department shall ensure that all such information and materials are culturally sensitive and reflect cultural diversity as appropriate. Implementation of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-629 is subject to appropriation. The Department shall seek the lowest possible cost to provide video calling and shall charge to the extent of recovering any demonstrated costs of providing video calling. The Department shall not make a commission or profit from video calling services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to permit video calling instead of in-person visitation.

(f-5) (Blank).

(f-10) The Department may not restrict or limit in-person visits to committed persons due to the availability of interactive video conferences.

(f-15)(1) The Department shall issue a standard written policy for each institution and facility of the Department that provides for:

(A) the number of in-person visits each committed person is entitled to per week and per month including the requirements of subsection (f) of this Section;

(B) the hours of in-person visits;

(C) the type of identification required for visitors at least 18 years of age; and

(D) the type of identification, if any, required for visitors under 18 years of age.

(2) This policy shall be posted on the Department website and at each facility.

(3) The Department shall post on its website daily any restrictions or denials of visitation for that day and the succeeding 5 calendar days, including those based on a lockdown of the facility, to inform family members and other visitors.

(g) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit religious ministrations and sacraments to be available to every committed person, but attendance at religious services shall not be required. This subsection (g) is subject to the provisions of the Faith Behind Bars Act.

(h) Within 90 days after December 31, 1996, the Department shall prohibit the use of curtains, cell-coverings, or any other matter or object that obstructs or otherwise impairs the line of vision into a committed person's cell.

(i) A point of contact person appointed under subsection (u-6) of Section 3-2-2 of this Code shall promptly and efficiently review suggestions, complaints, and other requests made by visitors to institutions and facilities of the Department and by other members of the public. Based on the nature of the submission, the point of contact person shall communicate with the appropriate division of the Department, disseminate the concern or complaint, and act as liaison between the parties to reach a resolution.

(1) The point of contact person shall maintain information about the subject matter of each correspondence, including, but not limited to, information about the following subjects:

(A) the parties making the submission;

(B) any commissary-related concerns;

(C) any concerns about the institution or facility's COVID-19 COVID protocols and mitigations;

(D) any concerns about mail, video, or electronic messages or other communications with incarcerated persons;

(E) any concerns about the institution or facility;

(F) any discipline-related concerns;

(G) any concerns about earned sentencing credits;

(H) any concerns about educational opportunities for incarcerated persons;

(I) any concerns about health-related matters;

(J) any mental health concerns;

(K) any concerns about personal property;

(L) any concerns about the records of the incarcerated person;

(M) any concerns about recreational opportunities for incarcerated persons;

(N) any staffing-related concerns;

(O) any concerns about the transfer of individuals in custody;

(P) any concerns about visitation; and

(Q) any concerns about work opportunities for incarcerated persons.

The information shall be maintained in accordance with standards set by the Department of Corrections, and shall be made available to the Department's Planning and Research Division. The point of contact person shall provide a summary of the results of the review, including any resolution or recommendations made as a result of correspondence with the Planning and Research Division of the Department.

(2) The Department shall provide an annual written report to the General Assembly and the Governor, with the first report due no later than January 1, 2023, and publish the report on its website within 48 hours after the report is transmitted to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall include a summary of activities undertaken and completed as a result of submissions to the point of contact person. The Department of Corrections shall collect and report the following aggregated and disaggregated data for each institution and facility and describe:

(A) the work of the point of contact person;

(B) the general nature of suggestions, complaints, and other requests submitted to the point of contact person;

(C) the volume of emails, calls, letters, and other correspondence received by the point of contact person;

(D) the resolutions reached or recommendations made as a result of the point of contact person's review;

(E) whether, if an investigation is recommended, a report of the complaint was forwarded to the Chief Inspector of the Department or other Department employee, and the resolution of the complaint, and if the investigation has not concluded, a detailed status report on the complaint; and

(F) any recommendations that the point of contact person has relating to systemic issues in the Department of Corrections, and any other matters for consideration by the General Assembly and the Governor.

The name, address, or other personally identifiable information of a person who files a complaint, suggestion, or other request with the point of contact person, and confidential records shall be redacted from the annual report and are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall disclose the records only if required by a court order on a showing of good cause.

(3) The Department must post in a conspicuous place in the waiting area of every facility or institution a sign that contains in bold, black type the following:

(A) a short statement notifying visitors of the point of contact person and that person's duty to receive suggestions, complaints, or other requests; and

(B) information on how to submit suggestions, complaints, or other requests to the point of contact person.

(j) Menstrual hygiene products shall be available, as needed, free of charge, at all institutions and facilities of the Department for all committed persons who menstruate. In this subsection (j), "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(Source: P.A. 102-1082, eff. 6-10-22; 102-1111, eff. 6-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-331, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-22-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-13-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-13-4)

Sec. 3-13-4. Rules and sanctions.)

(a) The Department shall establish rules governing release status and shall provide written copies of such rules to both the committed person on work or day release and to the employer or other person responsible for the individual. Such employer or other responsible person shall agree to abide by such rules, notify the Department of any violation thereof by the individual on release status, and notify the Department of the discharge of the person from work or other programs.

(b) If a committed person violates any rule, the Department may impose sanctions appropriate to the violation. The Department shall provide sanctions for unauthorized absences which shall include prosecution for escape under Section 3-6-4.

(c) An order certified by the Director, Assistant Director, or the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or a person duly designated by him or her, with the seal of the Department of Corrections attached and directed to all sheriffs, coroners, police officers, or to any particular persons named in the order shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named therein to arrest and deliver the violator to the proper correctional official. Such order shall be executed the same as criminal processes.

In the event that a work-releasee is arrested for another crime, the sheriff or police officer shall hold the releasee in custody until he notifies the nearest Office of Field Services or any of the above-named persons designated in this Section to certify the particular process or warrant.

(d) Not less than 3 days prior to any person being placed in a work release facility, the Department of Corrections shall provide to the State's Attorney and Sheriff of the county in which the work release center is located, relevant identifying information concerning the person to be placed in the work release facility. Such information shall include, but not be limited to, such identifying information as name, age, physical description, photograph, the offense, and the sentence for which the person is serving time in the Department of Corrections, and like information. The Department of Corrections shall, in addition, give written notice not less than 3 days prior to the placement to the State's Attorney of the county from which the offender was originally sentenced. The notification requirements of this subsection (d) may be electronic notification for individuals required to be housed outside the penitentiary system pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 5-8-6.

(e) For those individuals required to be housed outside the penitentiary system as outlined in subsection (a) of Section 5-8-6, the Department as soon as reasonably practicable shall provide the State's Attorney and Sheriff of the county in which the work release center is located, relevant identifying information concerning the person to be placed in the work release facility. Such information shall include, but is not limited to, such identifying information as name, age, physical description, photograph, the offense, and the sentence for which the person is serving time in the custody of the Department of Corrections, and similar information. The Department of Corrections shall, in addition, give electronic notice as soon as reasonably practicable to the State's Attorney of the county from which the individual was originally sentenced.

(Source: P.A. 103-358, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-22-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in aggravation and extended-term sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who has a physical disability or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was on pretrial release or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly or infirm or who was a person with a disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly or infirm person or person with a disability;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(26.5) the defendant committed the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child, specifically including paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit;

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service;

(29) the defendant committed the offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse against a victim with an intellectual disability, and the defendant holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim;

(30) the defendant committed the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution, patronizing a prostitute, or patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution and at the time of the commission of the offense knew that the prostitute or minor engaged in prostitution was in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(31) the defendant (i) committed the offense of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof in violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) the defendant during the commission of the offense was driving his or her vehicle upon a roadway designated for one-way traffic in the opposite direction of the direction indicated by official traffic control devices;

(32) the defendant committed the offense of reckless homicide while committing a violation of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(33) the defendant was found guilty of an administrative infraction related to an act or acts of public indecency or sexual misconduct in the penal institution. In this paragraph (33), "penal institution" has the same meaning as in Section 2-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(34) the defendant committed the offense of leaving the scene of a crash in violation of subsection (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the crash resulted in the death of a person and at the time of the offense, the defendant was: (i) driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined by Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (ii) operating the motor vehicle while using an electronic communication device as defined in Section 12-610.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

"Traffic control devices" means all signs, signals, markings, and devices that conform to the Illinois Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, placed or erected by authority of a public body or official having jurisdiction, for the purpose of regulating, warning, or guiding traffic.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person who had a physical disability at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful possession of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; 103-825, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.6)

Sec. 5-6-3.6. First Time Weapon Offense Program.

(a) The General Assembly has sought to promote public safety, reduce recidivism, and conserve valuable resources of the criminal justice system through the creation of diversion programs for non-violent offenders. Public Act 103-370 This amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly establishes a program for first-time, non-violent offenders charged with certain weapons possession offenses. The General Assembly recognizes some persons, particularly in areas of high crime or poverty, may have experienced trauma that contributes to poor decision making skills, and the creation of a diversionary program poses a greater benefit to the community and the person than incarceration. Under this program, a court, with the consent of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may sentence a defendant charged with an unlawful possession of weapons offense under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon offense under Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if punishable as a Class 4 felony or lower, to a First Time Weapon Offense Program.

(b) A defendant is not eligible for this Program if:

(1) the offense was committed during the commission of a violent offense as defined in subsection (h) of this Section;

(2) he or she has previously been convicted or placed on probation or conditional discharge for any violent offense under the laws of this State, the laws of any other state, or the laws of the United States;

(3) he or she had a prior successful completion of the First Time Weapon Offense Program under this Section;

(4) he or she has previously been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a violent offense;

(5) (blank); or

(6) he or she has an existing order of protection issued against him or her.

(b-5) In considering whether a defendant shall be sentenced to the First Time Weapon Offense Program, the court shall consider the following:

(1) the age, immaturity, or limited mental capacity of the defendant;

(2) the nature and circumstances of the offense;

(3) whether participation in the Program is in the interest of the defendant's rehabilitation, including any employment or involvement in community, educational, training, or vocational programs;

(4) whether the defendant suffers from trauma, as supported by documentation or evaluation by a licensed professional; and

(5) the potential risk to public safety.

(c) For an offense committed on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3) whenever an eligible person pleads guilty to an unlawful possession of weapons offense under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon offense under Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012, which is punishable as a Class 4 felony or lower, the court, with the consent of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may, without entering a judgment, sentence the defendant to complete the First Time Weapon Offense Program. When a defendant is placed in the Program, the court shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of the Program. A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal; , however, a sentence under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime unless and until judgment is entered. Upon violation of a term or condition of the Program, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided by law. Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of the Program, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(d) The Program shall be at least 6 months and not to exceed 24 months, as determined by the court at the recommendation of the Program administrator and the State's Attorney. The Program administrator may be appointed by the Chief Judge of each Judicial Circuit.

(e) The conditions of the Program shall be that the defendant:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or any other jurisdiction;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) (blank);

(4) (blank);

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) attend and participate in any Program activities deemed required by the Program administrator, such as: counseling sessions, in-person and over the phone check-ins, and educational classes; and

(8) (blank).

(f) The Program may, in addition to other conditions, require that the defendant:

(1) obtain or attempt to obtain employment;

(2) attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program;

(3) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(4) perform community service;

(5) pay all fines, assessments, fees, and costs; and

(6) comply with such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose.

(g) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section. If a person is convicted of any offense which occurred within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "violent offense" means any offense in which bodily harm was inflicted or force was used against any person or threatened against any person; any offense involving the possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon; any offense involving sexual conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation; violation of an order of protection, stalking, hate crime, domestic battery, or any offense of domestic violence.

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-245, eff. 8-3-21; 102-1109, eff. 12-21-22; 103-370, eff. 7-28-23; 103-702, eff. 1-1-25; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.8)

Sec. 5-6-3.8. Eligibility for programs restricted by felony background. Any conviction entered prior to July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly for:

(1) felony possession of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance, in a total amount equal to or less than the amounts listed in subsection (a-5) of Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(2) felony possession of methamphetamine, or possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, in an amount less than 3 grams; or any adjudication of delinquency under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for acts that would have constituted those felonies if committed by an adult; , shall be treated as a Class A misdemeanor for the purposes of evaluating a defendant's eligibility for programs of qualified probation, impact incarceration, or any other diversion, deflection, probation, or other program for which felony background or delinquency background is a factor in determining eligibility.".

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 1-15-25.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, subject to Section 5-4.5-115 of this Code, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subparagraph (b-5) are present, the court may sentence the defendant, subject to Section 5-4.5-105, to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(b-5) a A defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment if:

(1) the murdered individual was an inmate at an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof;

(2) the murdered individual was killed as a result of the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus, or other public conveyance;

(3) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a contract, agreement, or understanding by which he or she was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value;

(4) the murdered individual was killed in the course of another felony if:

(A) the murdered individual:

(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or

(ii) received physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and (B) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of clause (A) of this clause (4), the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his or her acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(B) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of clause (A) of this clause (4), the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his or her acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(C) the other felony was an inherently violent crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this clause (C), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion;

(5) the defendant committed the murder with intent to prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this clause (5), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors;

(6) the defendant, while committing an offense punishable under Section 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407, or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual;

(7) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual;

(8) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme, or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom;

(9) the defendant was a principal administrator, organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person;

(10) the murder was intentional and involved the infliction of torture. For the purpose of this clause (10), torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim;

(11) the murder was committed as a result of the intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle;

(12) the murdered individual was a person with a disability and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a person with a disability. For purposes of this clause (12), "person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care;

(13) the murdered individual was subject to an order of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(14) the murdered individual was known by the defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(15) the murder was committed by the defendant in connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code;

(16) the murdered individual was a member of a congregation engaged in prayer or other religious activities at a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship; or

(17)(i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse;

(ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment if the defendant, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 18, and:

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) (blank), or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", and "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d)(i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or before December 12, 2005, 3 years;

(1.5) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, 18 months;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, 12 months;

(3) except as provided in paragraph (4), (6), or (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 6 months; no later than 45 days after the onset of the term of mandatory supervised release, the Prisoner Review Board shall conduct a discretionary discharge review pursuant to the provisions of Section 3-3-8, which shall include the results of a standardized risk and needs assessment tool administered by the Department of Corrections; the changes to this paragraph (3) made by Public Act 102-1104 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly apply to all individuals released on mandatory supervised release on or after December 6, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1104) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, including those individuals whose sentences were imposed prior to December 6, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1104) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715), or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, or who commit the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or who commit the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic monitoring or home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years;

(7) for any felony described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii), (a)(2)(iii), (a)(2)(iv), (a)(2)(vi), (a)(2.1), (a)(2.3), (a)(2.4), (a)(2.5), or (a)(2.6) of Article 5, Section 3-6-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections requiring an inmate to serve a minimum of 85% of their court-imposed sentence, except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and except as provided in paragraph (4) or paragraph (6) of this subsection (d), the term of mandatory supervised release shall be as follows:

(A) Class X felony, 3 years;

(B) Class 1 or Class 2 felonies, 2 years;

(C) Class 3 or Class 4 felonies, 1 year.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and of Public Act 101-652: (i) the provisions of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2022 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and (ii) the provisions of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2021 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-687, eff. 12-17-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-1104, eff. 12-6-22; 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; 103-825, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 1090. The Probation and Probation Officers Act is amended by changing Section 16.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 110/16.1)

Sec. 16.1. Redeploy Illinois Program.

(a) The purpose of this Section is to encourage the deinstitutionalization of juvenile offenders by establishing projects in counties or groups of counties that reallocate State funds from juvenile correctional confinement to local jurisdictions, which will establish a continuum of local, community-based sanctions and treatment alternatives for juvenile offenders who would be incarcerated if those local services and sanctions did not exist. It is also intended to offer alternatives, when appropriate, to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice, to direct child welfare services for minors charged with a criminal offense or adjudicated delinquent under Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act. The allotment of funds will be based on a formula that rewards local jurisdictions for the establishment or expansion of local alternatives to incarceration, and requires them to pay for utilization of incarceration as a sanction. In addition, there shall be an allocation of resources (amount to be determined annually by the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board) set aside at the beginning of each fiscal year to be made available for any county or groups of counties which need resources only occasionally for services to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a limited number of youth. This redeployment of funds shall be made in a manner consistent with the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the following purposes and policies:

(1) The juvenile justice system should protect the community, impose accountability to victims and communities for violations of law, and equip juvenile offenders with competencies to live responsibly and productively.

(2) Juveniles should be treated in the least restrictive manner possible while maintaining the safety of the community.

(3) A continuum of services and sanctions from least restrictive to most restrictive should be available in every community.

(4) There should be local responsibility and authority for planning, organizing, and coordinating service resources in the community. People in the community can best choose a range of services which reflect community values and meet the needs of their own youth.

(5) Juveniles who pose a threat to the community or themselves need special care, including secure settings. Such services as detention, long-term incarceration, or residential treatment are too costly to provide in each community and should be coordinated and provided on a regional or Statewide basis.

(6) The roles of State and local government in creating and maintaining services to youth in the juvenile justice system should be clearly defined. The role of the State is to fund services, set standards of care, train service providers, and monitor the integration and coordination of services. The role of local government should be to oversee the provision of services.

(b) Each county or circuit participating in the Redeploy Illinois program must create a local plan demonstrating how it will reduce the county or circuit's utilization of secure confinement of juvenile offenders in the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or county detention centers by the creation or expansion of individualized services or programs that may include but are not limited to the following:

(1) Assessment and evaluation services to provide the juvenile justice system with accurate individualized case information on each juvenile offender, including mental health, substance abuse, educational, and family information;

(2) Direct services to individual juvenile offenders, including educational, vocational, mental health, substance abuse, supervision, and service coordination; and

(3) Programs that seek to restore the offender to the community, such as victim offender panels, teen courts, competency building, enhanced accountability measures, restitution, and community service. The local plan must be directed in such a manner as to emphasize an individualized approach to providing services to juvenile offenders in an integrated community based system including probation as the broker of services. The plan must also detail the reduction in utilization of secure confinement. The local plan shall be limited to services and shall not include costs for:

(i) capital expenditures;

(ii) renovations or remodeling;

(iii) personnel costs for probation.

The local plan shall be submitted to the Department of Human Services.

(c) A county or group of counties may develop an agreement with the Department of Human Services to reduce their number of commitments of juvenile offenders, excluding minors sentenced based upon a finding of guilt of first degree murder or an offense which is a Class X forcible felony as defined in the Criminal Code of 2012, to the Department of Juvenile Justice, and then use the savings to develop local programming for youth who would otherwise have been committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice. A county or group of counties shall agree to limit their commitments to 75% of the level of commitments from the average number of juvenile commitments for the past 3 years, and will receive the savings to redeploy for local programming for juveniles who would otherwise be held in confinement. For any county or group of counties with a decrease of juvenile commitments of at least 25%, based on the average reductions of the prior 3 years, which are chosen to participate or continue as sites, the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board has the authority to reduce the required percentage of future commitments to achieve the purpose of this Section. The agreement shall set forth the following:

(1) a statement Statement of the number and type of juvenile offenders from the county who were held in secure confinement by the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or in county detention the previous year, and an explanation of which, and how many, of these offenders might be served through the proposed Redeploy Illinois Program for which the funds shall be used;

(2) a statement Statement of the service needs of currently confined juveniles;

(3) a statement Statement of the type of services and programs to provide for the individual needs of the juvenile offenders, and the research or evidence base that qualifies those services and programs as proven or promising practices;

(4) a budget indicating the costs of each service or program to be funded under the plan;

(5) a summary of contracts and service agreements indicating the treatment goals and number of juvenile offenders to be served by each service provider; and

(6) a statement Statement indicating that the Redeploy Illinois Program will not duplicate existing services and programs. Funds for this plan shall not supplant existing county funded programs.

In a county with a population exceeding 2,000,000, the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board may authorize the Department of Human Services to enter into an agreement with that county to reduce the number of commitments by the same percentage as is required by this Section of other counties, and with all of the same requirements of this Act, including reporting and evaluation, except that the agreement may encompass a clearly identifiable geographical subdivision of that county. The geographical subdivision may include, but is not limited to, a police district or group of police districts, a geographical area making up a court calendar or group of court calendars, a municipal district or group of municipal districts, or a municipality or group of municipalities.

(d) (Blank).

(d-5) A county or group of counties that does not have an approved Redeploy Illinois program, as described in subsection (b), and that has committed fewer than 10 Redeploy eligible youth to the Department of Juvenile Justice on average over the previous 3 years, may develop an individualized agreement with the Department of Human Services through the Redeploy Illinois program to provide services to youth to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice. The agreement shall set forth the following:

(1) a statement of the number and type of juvenile offenders from the county who were at risk under any of the categories listed above during the 3 previous years, and an explanation of which of these offenders would be served through the proposed Redeploy Illinois program for which the funds shall be used, or through individualized contracts with existing Redeploy programs in neighboring counties;

(2) a statement of the service needs;

(3) a statement of the type of services and programs to provide for the individual needs of the juvenile offenders, and the research or evidence that qualifies those services and programs as proven or promising practices;

(4) a budget indicating the costs of each service or program to be funded under the plan;

(5) a summary of contracts and service agreements indicating the treatment goals and number of juvenile offenders to be served by each service provider; and

(6) a statement indicating that the Redeploy Illinois program will not duplicate existing services and programs. Funds for this plan shall not supplant existing county funded programs.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall be responsible for the following:

(1) Reviewing each Redeploy Illinois Program plan for compliance with standards established for such plans. A plan may be approved as submitted, approved with modifications, or rejected. No plan shall be considered for approval if the circuit or county is not in full compliance with all regulations, standards, and guidelines pertaining to the delivery of basic probation services as established by the Supreme Court.

(2) Monitoring on a continual basis and evaluating annually both the program and its fiscal activities in all counties receiving an allocation under the Redeploy Illinois Program. Any program or service that has not met the goals and objectives of its contract or service agreement shall be subject to denial for funding in subsequent years. The Department of Human Services shall evaluate the effectiveness of the Redeploy Illinois Program in each circuit or county. In determining the future funding for the Redeploy Illinois Program under this Act, the evaluation shall include, as a primary indicator of success, a decreased number of confinement days for the county's juvenile offenders.

(f) Any Redeploy Illinois Program allocations not applied for and approved by the Department of Human Services shall be available for redistribution to approved plans for the remainder of that fiscal year. Any county that invests local moneys in the Redeploy Illinois Program shall be given first consideration for any redistribution of allocations. Jurisdictions participating in Redeploy Illinois that exceed their agreed upon level of commitments to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall reimburse the Department of Corrections for each commitment above the agreed upon level.

(g) Implementation of Redeploy Illinois.

(1) Oversight of Redeploy Illinois.

(i) Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board. The Department of Human Services shall convene an oversight board to oversee the Redeploy Illinois Program. The Board shall include, but not be limited to, designees from the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, the Illinois Juvenile Justice Commission, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Department of Children and Family Services, the State Board of Education, the Cook County State's Attorney, and a State's Attorney selected by the President of the Illinois State's Attorney's Association, the Cook County Public Defender, a representative of the defense bar appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court, a representative of probation appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court, and judicial representation appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court. Up to an additional 9 members may be appointed by the Secretary of Human Services from recommendations by the Oversight Board; these appointees shall possess a knowledge of juvenile justice issues and reflect the collaborative public/private relationship of Redeploy programs.

(ii) Responsibilities of the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board. The Oversight Board shall:

(A) Identify jurisdictions to be included in the program of Redeploy Illinois.

(B) Develop a formula for reimbursement of local jurisdictions for local and community-based services utilized in lieu of commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice, as well as for any charges for local jurisdictions for commitments above the agreed upon limit in the approved plan.

(C) Identify resources sufficient to support the administration and evaluation of Redeploy Illinois.

(D) Develop a process and identify resources to support on-going monitoring and evaluation of Redeploy Illinois.

(E) Develop a process and identify resources to support training on Redeploy Illinois.

(E-5) Review proposed individualized agreements and approve where appropriate the distribution of resources.

(F) Report to the Governor and the General Assembly on an annual basis on the progress of Redeploy Illinois.

(iii) Length of Planning Phase. The planning phase may last up to, but may in no event last longer than, July 1, 2004.

(2) (Blank).

(3) There shall be created the Redeploy County Review Committee composed of the designees of the Secretary of Human Services and the Directors of Juvenile Justice, of Children and Family Services, and of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget who shall constitute a subcommittee of the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board.

(h) Responsibilities of the County Review Committee. The County Review Committee shall:

(1) Review individualized agreements from counties requesting resources on an occasional basis for services for youth described in subsection (d-5).

(2) Report its decisions to the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board at regularly scheduled meetings.

(3) Monitor the effectiveness of the resources in meeting the mandates of the Redeploy Illinois program set forth in this Section so these results might be included in the Report described in clause (g)(1)(ii)(F).

(4) During the third quarter, assess the amount of remaining funds available and necessary to complete the fiscal year so that any unused funds may be distributed as defined in subsection (f).

(5) Ensure that the number of youth from any applicant county receiving individualized resources will not exceed the previous 3-year three-year average of Redeploy eligible recipients and that counties are in conformity with all other elements of this law.

(i) Implementation of this Section is subject to appropriation.

(j) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of and procedures and rules implementing the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-60, eff. 1-1-14; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1095. The Veterans and Servicemembers Court Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(730 ILCS 167/40)

Sec. 40. Education for judges. A judge assigned to preside over a veteran and servicemembers court shall have experience, training, and continuing education in topics including, but not limited to:

(1) criminal law;

(2) behavioral health;

(3) confidentiality confidently;

(4) ethics;

(5) evidence-based practices;

(6) substance use disorders;

(7) mental illness;

(8) co-occurring disorders; and

(9) presiding over various types of problem-solving courts.

(Source: P.A. 102-1041, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1100. The Mental Health Court Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 41 as follows:

(730 ILCS 168/41)

Sec. 41. Education seminars for judges. A judge assigned to preside over a mental health court shall have experience, training, and continuing education in topics including, but not limited to:

(1) criminal law;

(2) behavioral health;

(3) confidentiality confidently;

(4) ethics;

(5) evidence-based practices;

(6) substance use disorders;

(7) mental illness;

(8) co-occurring disorders; and

(9) presiding over various types of problem-solving courts.

(Source: P.A. 102-1041, eff. 6-2-22; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1105. The Higher Education in Prison Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 225/5)

Sec. 5. Higher education in prison programs.

(a) In this Section, "higher education" means post-secondary academic education at the undergraduate or graduate level in a community college or university setting.

(b) On or before September 1 of the year following the effective date of this Act and each subsequent September 1, the Department of Corrections shall release a report, to be published on the Department of Corrections's Internet website, detailing the following information pertaining to higher education within Department institutions and facilities:

(1) the number of unique individuals involved in adult basic education, high school equivalency, and credit and non-credit bearing higher education programs over the course of the fiscal year;

(2) the racial, ethnic, age, and gender breakdown of committed persons participating in higher education programs;

(3) the length of sentence and length of remaining sentence of persons enrolled in higher education programs;

(4) the number of committed persons who are on waiting lists for participation in all educational programs, including adult basic education, high school equivalency, and higher education, and the average length of time spent on each waiting list, including a breakdown by length of remaining sentence;

(5) the total amount of earned program sentence credit awarded to committed persons for participating in higher education programs and the percentage of committed persons participating in higher education programs that are awarded earned program sentence credit;

(6) the number, category, and ultimate resolution of grievances related to higher education programs;

(7) a financial statement that includes annual and monthly expenditures of Department of Corrections institutions and facilities on adult basic education, high school equivalency, and higher education programs; and

(8) an explanation of how participation in adult basic education, high school equivalency, and higher education programs is factored into a committed persons' risk assessment score.

Personal, identifiable information shall be redacted to protect privacy.

The report must be filed with the Governor and General Assembly.

(c) The data provided in the report under subsection (b) shall include an aggregate chart at the Department level and individual reports by each correctional institution or facility of the Department of Corrections.

(d) To facilitate the collection of information on higher education in prison (HEP) programs, each 4-year public or private institution of higher education with HEP degree or certificate programs shall provide the Board of Higher Education with student-level information as part of its regular agency data-collection processes. Each public community college with HEP degree or certificate programs shall provide the Illinois Community College Board with student-level information as part of its regular agency data-collection processes. Upon request, the student-level information shall include the correctional facility in which the HEP program is being offered. The information provided to the Board of Higher Education and the Illinois Community College Board shall include HEP enrollment and completion data disaggregated by variables, including, but not limited to, race, ethnicity, gender, age, and type of degree or certificate. The Board of Higher Education and the Illinois Community College Board shall annually make HEP program data publicly available on their Internet websites.

(Source: P.A. 103-541, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-22-24.)

Section 1110. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by renumbering and changing Section 804.5 and by changing Section 15-1603 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-804.5)

Sec. 8-804.5 804.5. Parties to a restorative justice practice.

(a) This Section is intended to encourage the use of restorative justice practices by providing a privilege for participation in such practices and ensuring that anything said or done during the practice, or in anticipation of or as a follow-up to the practice, is privileged and may not be used in any future proceeding unless the privilege is waived by the informed consent of the party or parties covered by the privilege. The General Assembly affords this privilege in recognition of restorative justice as a powerful tool in addressing the needs of victims, offenders, and the larger community in the process of repairing the fabric of community peace. The General Assembly encourages residents of this State to employ restorative justice practices, not only in justiciable matters, but in all aspects of life and law.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Circle" means a versatile restorative practice that can be used proactively, to develop relationships and build community, or reactively, to respond to wrongdoing, conflicts, and problems.

"Conference" means a structured meeting between offenders, victims, and both parties' family and friends, in which they deal with the consequences of a crime or wrongdoing and decide how best to repair the harm.

"Facilitator" means a person who is trained to facilitate a restorative justice practice.

"Party" means a person, including a facilitator, an individual who has caused harm, an individual who has been harmed, a community member, and any other participant, who voluntarily consents to participate with others who have agreed to participate in a restorative justice practice.

"Proceeding" means any legal action subject to this Code, including, but not limited to, civil, criminal, juvenile, or administrative hearings.

"Restorative justice practice" or "practice" means a gathering, such as a conference or circle, in which parties who have caused harm or who have been harmed and community stakeholders collectively gather to identify and repair harm to the extent possible, address trauma, reduce the likelihood of further harm, and strengthen community ties by focusing on the needs and obligations of all parties involved through a participatory process.

(c) Anything said or done during or in preparation for a restorative justice practice or as a follow-up to that practice, or the fact that the practice has been planned or convened, is privileged and cannot be referred to, used, or admitted in any civil, criminal, juvenile, or administrative proceeding unless the privilege is waived, during the proceeding or in writing, by the party or parties protected by the privilege. Privileged information is not subject to discovery or disclosure in any judicial or extrajudicial proceedings.

Any waiver of privilege is limited to the participation and communication of the waiving party only, and the participation or communications of any other participant remain privileged unless waived by the other participant.

(d) Evidence that is otherwise admissible or subject to discovery does not become inadmissible or protected from discovery solely because it was discussed or used in a restorative justice practice.

(e) The legitimacy of a restorative justice practice, if challenged in any civil, juvenile, criminal, or administrative proceeding, shall be determined by a judge. In a hearing conducted pursuant to this subsection, the judge may consider information that would otherwise be privileged to the extent that the information is probative of the issue.

(f) The privilege afforded by this Section does not apply if:

(1) disclosure is necessary to prevent death, great bodily harm, or the commission of a crime;

(2) necessary to comply with another law; or

(3) a court, tribunal, or administrative body requires a report on a restorative justice practice, but such report shall be limited to the fact that a practice has taken place, an opinion regarding the success of the practice, and whether further restorative justice practices are expected.

(g) This Section applies to all restorative justice practices that are convened on or after July 15, 2021 (the effective date of 102-100) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-100, eff. 7-15-21; revised 7-23-24.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1603) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1603)

Sec. 15-1603. Redemption.

(a) Owner of Redemption. Except as provided in subsection (b) of Section 15-1402, only an owner of redemption may redeem from the foreclosure, and such owner of redemption may redeem only during the redemption period specified in subsection (b) of this Section 15-1603 and only if the right of redemption has not been validly waived.

(b) Redemption Period.

(1) In the foreclosure of a mortgage of real estate which is residential real estate at the time the foreclosure is commenced, the redemption period shall end on the later of (i) the date 7 months from the date the mortgagor or, if more than one, all the mortgagors (A) have been served with summons or by publication or (B) have otherwise submitted to the jurisdiction of the court, or (ii) the date 3 months from the date of entry of a judgment of foreclosure.

(2) In all other foreclosures, the redemption period shall end on the later of (i) the date 6 months from the date the mortgagor or, if more than one, all the mortgagors (A) have been served with summons or by publication or (B) have otherwise submitted to the jurisdiction of the court, or (ii) the date 3 months from the date of entry of a judgment of foreclosure.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), the redemption period shall end at the later of the expiration of any reinstatement period provided for in Section 15-1602 or the date 60 days after the date the judgment of foreclosure is entered, if the court finds that (i) the value of the mortgaged real estate as of the date of the judgment is less than 90% of the amount specified pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section 15-1603 and (ii) the mortgagee waives any and all rights to a personal judgment for a deficiency against the mortgagor and against all other persons liable for the indebtedness or other obligations secured by the mortgage.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), the redemption period shall end on the date 30 days after the date the judgment of foreclosure is entered if the court finds that the mortgaged real estate has been abandoned. In cases where the redemption period is shortened on account of abandonment, the reinstatement period shall not extend beyond the redemption period as shortened.

(c) Extension of Redemption Period.

(1) Once expired, the right of redemption provided for in this Section Sections 15-1603 or Section 15-1604 shall not be revived. The period within which the right of redemption provided for in this Section Sections 15-1603 or Section 15-1604 may be exercised runs independently of any action by any person to enforce the judgment of foreclosure or effect a sale pursuant thereto. Neither the initiation of any legal proceeding nor the order of any court staying the enforcement of a judgment of foreclosure or the sale pursuant to a judgment or the confirmation of the sale, shall have the effect of tolling the running of the redemption period.

(2) If a court has the authority to stay, and does stay, the running of the redemption period, or if the redemption period is extended by any statute of the United States, the redemption period shall be extended until the expiration of the same number of days after the expiration of the stay order as the number of days remaining in the redemption period at the time the stay order became effective, or, if later, until the expiration of 30 days after the stay order terminates. If the stay order terminates more than 30 days prior to the expiration of the redemption period, the redemption period shall not be extended.

(d) Amount Required to Redeem. The amount required to redeem shall be the sum of:

(1) The amount specified in the judgment of foreclosure, which shall consist of (i) all principal and accrued interest secured by the mortgage and due as of the date of the judgment, (ii) all costs allowed by law, (iii) costs and expenses approved by the court, (iv) to the extent provided for in the mortgage and approved by the court, additional costs, expenses, and reasonable attorney's attorneys' fees incurred by the mortgagee, (v) all amounts paid pursuant to Section 15-1505, and (vi) per diem interest from the date of judgment to the date of redemption calculated at the mortgage rate of interest applicable as if no default had occurred; and

(2) The amount of other expenses authorized by the court which the mortgagee reasonably incurs between the date of judgment and the date of redemption, which shall be the amount certified by the mortgagee in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section 15-1603.

(e) Notice of Intent to Redeem. An owner of redemption who intends to redeem shall give written notice of such intent to redeem to the mortgagee's attorney of record specifying the date designated for redemption and the current address of the owner of redemption for purposes of receiving notice. Such owner of redemption shall file with the clerk of the court a certification of the giving of such notice. The notice of intent to redeem must be received by the mortgagee's attorney at least 15 days (other than Saturday, Sunday, or court holiday) prior to the date designated for redemption. The mortgagee shall thereupon file with the clerk of the court and shall give written notice to the owner of redemption at least three days (other than Saturday, Sunday, or court holiday) before the date designated for redemption a certification, accompanied by copies of paid receipts or appropriate affidavits, of any expenses authorized in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section 15-1603. If the mortgagee fails to serve such certification within the time specified herein, then the owner of redemption intending to redeem may redeem on the date designated for redemption in the notice of intent to redeem, and the mortgagee shall not be entitled to payment of any expenses authorized in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section 15-1603.

(f) Procedure for Redemption.

(1) An owner of redemption may redeem the real estate from the foreclosure by paying the amount specified in subsection (d) of this Section 15-1603 to the mortgagee or the mortgagee's attorney of record on or before the date designated for redemption pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section 15-1603.

(2) If the mortgagee refuses to accept payment or if the owner of redemption redeeming from the foreclosure objects to the reasonableness of the additional expenses authorized in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section 15-1603 and certified in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section 15-1603, the owner of redemption shall pay the certified amount to the clerk of the court on or before the date designated for redemption, together with a written statement specifying the expenses to which objection is made. In such case the clerk shall pay to the mortgagee the amount tendered minus the amount to which the objection pertains.

(3) Upon payment to the clerk, whether or not the owner of redemption files an objection at the time of payment, the clerk shall give a receipt of payment to the person redeeming from the foreclosure, and shall file a copy of that receipt in the foreclosure record. Upon receipt of the amounts specified to be paid to the mortgagee pursuant to this Section, the mortgagee shall promptly furnish the mortgagor with a release of the mortgage or satisfaction of the judgment, as appropriate, and the evidence of all indebtedness secured by the mortgage shall be cancelled.

(g) Procedure Upon Objection. If an objection is filed by an owner of redemption in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section 15-1603, the clerk shall hold the amount to which the objection pertains until the court orders distribution of those funds. The court shall hold a hearing promptly to determine the distribution of any funds held by the clerk pursuant to such objection. Each party shall pay its own costs and expenses in connection with any objection, including attorney's attorneys' fees, subject to Section 2-611 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(h) Failure to Redeem. Unless the real estate being foreclosed is redeemed from the foreclosure, it shall be sold as provided in this Article.

(Source: P.A. 86-974; revised 10-16-24.)

Section 1115. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-5-130 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-130)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 19, 2027)

Sec. 25-5-130. Quick-take; City of Elmhurst; North York Road.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of 2 years after July 19, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-698) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly by the City of Elmhurst for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of road construction: Route: North York Road Section: 17-00188-00-SW Job No.: C-91-186-20 County: DuPage Parcel: 0002 Owner: NXE Properties, LLC Pin No.: 03-35-406-048 That part of Lot 1 in County Clerk's Assessment Division of Lots 1 and 2 of North Elmhurst Third Addition to the Village of Elmhurst, being a subdivision in the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 35, Township 40 North, Range 11 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded April 8, 1927 as document R233179, described as follows: Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence South 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates System, NAD83, East Zone), being the northerly line of said Lot 1, a distance of 194.85 feet to the Point of Beginning; Thence continuing South 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds East, along said northerly line, 53.14 feet to a point 10.00 feet west of the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence South 04 degrees 00 minutes 07 seconds East, along a line that commences at the southeast corner of said Lot 1 and ends at a point 10.00 feet west of the northeast corner of said Lot 1, said line herein after referred to as Line "A", a distance of 40.63 feet; thence South 85 degrees 59 minutes 53 seconds West, perpendicular to the last course, 5.00 feet to a point on a line 5.00 feet west of and parallel with Line "A"; thence North 04 degrees 00 minutes 07 seconds West, along said parallel line, 33.40 feet; thence northwesterly 9.30 feet, along the arc of a non-tangent circle to the left, having a radius of 39.00 feet and whose chord bears North 52 degrees 45 minutes 22 seconds West, 9.28 feet to a point of tangency; thence North 59 degrees 35 minutes 15 seconds West, 7.04 feet to a point on a line 7.00 feet southerly of the northerly line of said Lot 1; thence North 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds West, along said parallel line, 36.54 feet; thence North 28 degrees 00 minutes 53 seconds East, perpendicular to the last course, 7.00 feet to the Point of Beginning, situated in the County of DuPage and the State of Illinois. Said Parcel Containing 565 square feet or 0.013 acres, more or less. Dated: February 6, 2024

Route: North York Road Section: 17-00188-00-SW Job No: C-91-186-20 County: DuPage Parcel: 0002TE Owner: NXE Properties, LLC Pin No.: 03-35-406-048 That part of Lot 1 in County Clerk's Assessment Division of Lots 1 and 2 of North Elmhurst Third Addition to the Village of Elmhurst, being a subdivision in the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 35, Township 40 North, Range 11 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded April 8, 1927 as document R233179, described as follows: Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence South 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates System, NAD83, East Zone), being the northerly line of said Lot 1, a distance of 194.85 feet; thence South 28 degrees 00 minutes 53 seconds West, perpendicular to the last course, 7.00 feet to a point on a line 7.00 feet southerly of the northerly line of said Lot 1, said point also being the Point of Beginning; Thence South 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds East, along said parallel line, 36.54 feet; thence South 59 degrees 35 minutes 15 seconds East, 7.04 feet to a point of curvature; thence southeasterly 9.30 feet, along the arc of a tangent circle to the left, having a radius of 39.00 feet and whose chord bears South 52 degrees 45 minutes 22 seconds East, 9.28 feet to a point on a line 5.00 feet west of and parallel with Line "A"; Line "A" is defined as a line that commences at the southeast corner of said Lot 1 and ends at a point 10.00 feet west of the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence South 04 degrees 00 minutes 07 seconds East, along said parallel line, 16.42 feet; thence South 85 degrees 59 minutes 53 seconds West, perpendicular to the last course, 5.00 feet to a point on a line 10.00 feet west of and parallel with Line "A"; thence North 04 degrees 00 minutes 07 seconds West, along said parallel line, 14.43 feet; thence northwesterly 6.25 feet, along the arc of a non-tangent circle to the left, having a radius of 34.00 feet and whose chord bears North 54 degrees 19 minutes 23 seconds West, 6.24 feet to a point of tangency; thence North 59 degrees 35 minutes 15 seconds West, 6.94 feet to a point on a line 12.00 feet southerly of the northerly line of said Lot 1; thence North 61 degrees 59 minutes 07 seconds West, along said parallel line, 36.43 feet; thence North 28 degrees 00 minutes 53 seconds East, perpendicular to the last course, 5.00 feet to the Point of Beginning, situated in the County of DuPage and the State of Illinois. Said Parcel Containing 333 square feet or 0.008 acres, more or less. Dated: February 6, 2024

(b) This Section is repealed July 19, 2027 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 103-698) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-698, eff. 7-19-24; revised 10-3-24.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-135)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 9, 2027)

Sec. 25-5-135 25-5-130. Quick-take; City of Marengo; Interstate 90-Illinois Route 23 Corridor.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of 2 years after August 9, 2024 (the effective date of Public Act 103-892) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly by the City of Marengo for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of extending water and sanitary sewer services for the Interstate 90-Illinois Route 23 Corridor: 11-34-200-020, 22116 W Grant Highway PART OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 34, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 5, 1999 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 1999R0017561 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 33.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, SAID POINT BEING A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 134.97 FEET TO THE POINT OF INTERSECTION WITH THE EASTERLY LINE OF RIVER RANCH ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 20 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID EASTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 134.98 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID EAST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 4,049 SQUARE FEET OR 0.093 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-34-200-020.

11-34-426-003, 6105 Meyer Road PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 34, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 317.23 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 2,353.46 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 2,351.83 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 70,579 SQUARE FEET OR 1.620 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-34-426-003.

11-34-426-004, Meyer Road PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER AND NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 34, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 38 MINUTES 54 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 321.91 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 280.45 FEET; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 500.03 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 01 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 219.58 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 15,001 SQUARE FEET OR 0.344 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-34-426-004.

11-34-426-005, 22219 Route 20 PART OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 34, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 5, 1999 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 1999R0017561 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 20 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID DEED EXTENDED SOUTHERLY, A DISTANCE OF 33.05 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 101.98 FEET TO THE POINT BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 266.66 FEET; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREE 30 MINUTES 01 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 266.67 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 8,000 SQUARE FEET OR 0.184 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-34-426-005.

11-35-100-031, 21804 W Grant Highway PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 35, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MAY 18, 2018 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2018R0018036 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 12 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 33.07 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 12 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.07 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 220.12 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 23 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID EAST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.07 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 220.12 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 6,604 SQUARE FEET OR 0.152 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-35-100-031.

11-35-100-032, 21714 W Grant Highway PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 35, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED DECEMBER 23, 1993 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 1993R0080441 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 14 MINUTES 43 SECONDS EAST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 20.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 12 MINUTES 06 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 200.18 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WEST LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 23 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 20.00 FEET TO THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID DEED; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 12 MINUTES 06 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE NORTHERLY LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 200.22 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 4,004 SQUARE FEET OR 0.092 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-35-100-032. and PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 35, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED DECEMBER 23, 1993 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 1993R0080441 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 23 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 33.07 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 0 DEGREES 20 MINUTES 23 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.07 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 200.02 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 14 MINUTES 43 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID EAST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.07 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 199.97 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 6,000 SQUARE FEET OR 0.138 ACRES, MORE OR LESS, BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-35-100-032.

11-35-100-070, 21970 Grant Highway PART OF THE SOUTH HALF OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 35, TOWNSHIP 44 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED JUNE 25, 2021 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2021R0034676 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 03 MINUTES 53 SECONDS EAST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 33.06 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 0 DEGREES 03 MINUTES 53 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 222.32 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 39 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID EAST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.06 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTHERLY LINE OF U.S. ROUTE 20 (WEST GRANT HIGHWAY) AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 86 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 24 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 222.37 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 6,671 SQUARE FEET OR 0.153 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 11-35-100-070.

16-03-201-001, 6113 Meyer Road PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 3, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 302.62 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 1,384.77 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 13 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 1,199.96 FEET; THENCE NORTH 25 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 44.80 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 16 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.49 FEET; THENCE NORTH 25 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 54 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 42.98 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 11 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 95.54 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 40,607 SQUARE FEET OR 0.932 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-03-201-001.

16-03-251-002, Meyer Road PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 3, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 17 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 315.94 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 89 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 17 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 06 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 1,322.74 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 13 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 06 MINUTES 42 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 1,322.72 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 39,681 SQUARE FEET OR 0.911 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-03-251-002.

16-03-400-004, 6715 Meyer Road PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 3, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED JULY 31, 2001 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2001R0054424 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 55.20 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 900.35 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 15 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 900.34 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 27,010 SQUARE FEET OR 0.620 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-03-400-004.

16-03-400-007, Meyer Road PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 3, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED JULY 31, 2001 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2001R0054424 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 55.20 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 89 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 97.52 FEET; THENCE NORTH 58 DEGREES 47 MINUTES 16 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 305.97 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 06 MINUTES 42 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 16.55 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 17 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 58 DEGREES 47 MINUTES 16 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 305.99 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 114.08 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING. ALSO: PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 3, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED JULY 31, 2001 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2001R0054424 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 15 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 59.77 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, SAID POINT BEING A POINT ON THE WESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF MEYER ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 11 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 1035.86 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 18 MINUTES 22 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 325.21 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 2 DEGREES 21 MINUTES 21 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 168.26 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 20 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.64 FEET; THENCE NORTH 12 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 3.61 FEET; THENCE NORTH 2 DEGREES 21 MINUTES 21 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 164.97 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 18 MINUTES 22 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 324.51 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 11 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 1035.73 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 15 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 58,473 SQUARE FEET OR 1.342 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-03-400-007.

16-10-200-002, Meyer Road/Pleasant Grove Road PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 10, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 20 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 73.30 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, SAID POINT BEING A POINT ON THE WESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF MEYER ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 12 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 355.46 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTHEASTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE NORTH 40 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 09 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHEASTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 37.56 FEET; THENCE NORTH 12 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 326.65 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 20 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.64 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 10,232 SQUARE FEET OR 0.235 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-10-200-002.

16-11-100-024, Grant Highway PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 05 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 564.87 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 40 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 09 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 556.01 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 45 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 31 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 25.64 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, SAID POINT BEING A POINT ON THE SOUTHWESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 41 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 10 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 41.98 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 41 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 446.59 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 43 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 36 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.15 FEET; THENCE NORTH 41 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 449.51 FEET; THENCE NORTH 41 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 10 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 40.41 FEET; THENCE NORTH 45 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 31 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.04 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 14,677 SQUARE FEET OR 0.337 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-100-024.

16-11-100-026, Grant Highway PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHERLY CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2018R0043328 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 43 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 53 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTHWESTERLY LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 26.98 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 43 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 53 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 46 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 315.94 FEET; THENCE NORTH 39 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 38 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 330.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 41 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 55 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 14.95 FEET; THENCE NORTH 43 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 36 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.15 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 41 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 55 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 18.41 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 39 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 38 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 328.55 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 46 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 56 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE 313.89 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 19,826 SQUARE FEET OR 0.455 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-100-026.

16-11-100-027, Grant Highway PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 05 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 614.24 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, SAID POINT BEING A POINT ON THE SOUTHWESTERLY RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 41 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 10 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID RIGHT-OF-WAY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 520.24 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 45 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 31 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.04 FEET; THENCE NORTH 41 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 10 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 487.82 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WEST LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 05 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WEST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 45.26 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 15,121 SQUARE FEET OR 0.347 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-100-027.

16-11-100-034, 21813 Pleasant Grove Road PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHERLY CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2018R0043328 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 43 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 53 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTHWESTERLY LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 26.98 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 46 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 174.82 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHEASTERLY LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 24 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTHEASTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 31.41 FEET; THENCE NORTH 46 DEGREES 35 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 165.36 FEET TO A POINT ON SAID NORTHWESTERLY LINE; THENCE NORTH 43 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 53 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 5,103 SQUARE FEET OR 0.117 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-100-034.

16-11-300-011, 7515 S IL Route 23 PART OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 18, 2021 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2021R0014864 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 59 MINUTES 16 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 89 DEGREES 59 MINUTES 16 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 10 MINUTES 11 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 315.35 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF A DEED RECORDED AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2021R0058501 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.05 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 41 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 315.21 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 9,466 SQUARE FEET OR 0.217 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-300-011.

16-11-300-018, 7905 S IL Route 23 PART OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: BEGINNING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2021R0058501 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 33.05 FEET; THENCE NORTH 2 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 51 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 131.76 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 27 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 35.98 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 30 MINUTES 22 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 27 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 PER COURT CASE NO. 92-ED-79, A DISTANCE OF 34.93 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 2 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 51 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 132.68 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 5,030 SQUARE FEET OR 0.115 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-300-018.

16-11-300-019, Grant Highway PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER AND THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEASTERLY CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 27, 2017 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2017R0010605 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 83 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 50 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 35.09 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 45 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 14 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 146.50 FEET TO A POINT OF CURVATURE; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, SAID LINE BEING A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2080.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 6.65 FEET TO A POINT OF NONTANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 6.65 FEET AND A BEARING OF SOUTH 46 DEGREES 04 MINUTES 24 SECONDS EAST; THENCE SOUTH 44 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 12 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTHWESTERLY ALONG A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2110.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 28.11 FEET TO A POINT OF TANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 28.11 FEET AND A BEARING OF NORTH 45 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST; THENCE NORTH 45 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 149.74 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID DEED; THENCE NORTH 83 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 50 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE 39.36 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING. ALSO: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEASTERLY CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 27, 2017 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2017R0010605 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 83 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 50 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 35.09 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 45 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 14 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 146.50 FEET TO A POINT OF CURVATURE; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, SAID LINE BEING A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2080.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 34.63 FEET TO A POINT THE POINT OF BEGINNING, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 34.62 FEET AND A BEARING OF SOUTH 46 DEGREES 27 MINUTES 31 SECONDS EAST; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, SAID LINE BEING A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2080.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 357.75 FEET TO A POINT OF NONTANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 357.31 FEET AND A BEARING OF SOUTH 51 DEGREES 51 MINUTES 46 SECONDS EAST; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 25 MINUTES 58 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 35.92 FEET; THENCE NORTHWESTERLY ALONG A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2110.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 383.41 FEET TO A POINT OF NONTANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 382.89 FEET AND A BEARING OF NORTH 52 DEGREES 07 MINUTES 29 SECONDS WEST; THENCE NORTH 44 DEGREES 13 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 30.01 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 16,128 SQUARE FEET OR 0.370 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-300-019.

16-11-300-020, Grant Highway PART OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER AND PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 11, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED OCTOBER 13, 1987 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 87R005793 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 59 MINUTES 15 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID DEED, A DISTANCE OF 37.10 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 89 DEGREES 59 MINUTES 15 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 03 MINUTES 06 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 197.90 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 59 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 288.75 FEET TO A POINT OF CURVATURE; THENCE NORTHEASTERLY ALONG A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE SOUTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 1115.46 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 409.62 FEET TO A POINT OF NONTANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 407.32 FEET AND A BEARING OF NORTH 10 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 58 SECONDS EAST; THENCE NORTH 5 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 39 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 5.66 FEET; THENCE NORTH 60 DEGREES 06 MINUTES 59 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 57.88 FEET; THENCE NORTH 60 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 31 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 93.02 FEET; THENCE NORTH 61 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 43 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 117.56 FEET; THENCE NORTH 60 DEGREES 38 MINUTES 16 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 181.47 FEET TO A POINT OF CURVATURE; THENCE NORTHWESTERLY ALONG A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2110.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 101.69 FEET TO A POINT OF NONTANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 101.68 FEET AND A BEARING OF NORTH 58 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 39 SECONDS WEST; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 25 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 35.92 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHWESTERLY LINE OF PLEASANT GROVE ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTHEASTERLY ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, SAID LINE BEING A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE NORTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 2080.04 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 121.43 FEET TO A POINT OF TANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 121.42 FEET AND A BEARING OF SOUTH 58 DEGREES 27 MINUTES 44 SECONDS EAST; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 38 MINUTES 16 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 179.36 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 61 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 43 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 117.59 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 31 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 93.42 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 60 DEGREES 06 MINUTES 59 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHWESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 73.46 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 PER THE PLAT OF HIGHWAYS RECORDED APRIL 8TH 1993 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 93R018532 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 5 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 39 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 28.23 FEET; THENCE SOUTHWESTERLY ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, SAID LINE BEING A CURVE CONCAVE TO THE SOUTHEAST, HAVING A RADIUS OF 1085.46 FEET AND A LENGTH OF 405.65 FEET TO A POINT OF TANGENCY, THE CHORD OF SAID ARC HAVING A LENGTH OF 403.30 FEET AND A BEARING OF SOUTH 10 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 08 SECONDS WEST; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 58 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 289.29 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 03 MINUTES 06 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 197.87 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 44,404 SQUARE FEET OR 1.019 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-11-300-020.

16-14-300-004, 8605 S IL Route 23 PART OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 14, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 44 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 39.20 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 56 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 170.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 44 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 170.00 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 44 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 5,100 SQUARE FEET OR 0.117 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-14-300-004.

16-23-100-011, 9809 S IL Route 23 PART OF THE SOUTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 23, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 46 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID NORTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 27.11 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING NORTH 89 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 46 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 50.32 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 76 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 52 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID SOUTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.83 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 AS USED AND MONUMENTED; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 58 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID WESTERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 43.28 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 1,404 SQUARE FEET OR 0.032 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-23-100-011.

16-23-300-004, 9809 S IL Route 23 PART OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 23, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 46 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 27.11 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 58 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE WESTERLY LINE OF ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 23 AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 1629.12 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF A PARCEL OF LAND DESCRIBED IN A DEED RECORDED MARCH 06, 2019 AS DOCUMENT NUMBER 2019R0005925 IN THE RECORDERS OFFICE OF MCHENRY COUNTY; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 53 MINUTES 53 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID NORTHERLY LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 1629.19 FEET TO A POINT ON THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 57 MINUTES 46 SECONDS EAST ALONG SAID NORTH LINE, A DISTANCE OF 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 48,875 SQUARE FEET OR 1.122 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-23-300-004.

16-24-300-003, 20805 Anthony Road PART OF THE WEST HALF OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 24, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID WEST HALF; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID WEST HALF, A DISTANCE OF 28.82 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST ALONG SAID EAST LINE, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 164.32 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 58 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 31 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 164.36 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 1643 SQUARE FEET OR 0.038 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-24-300-003.

16-24-300-008, Anthony Road PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 24, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 44 SECONDS EAST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 199.94 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 00 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 27.97 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 965.54 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 08 MINUTES 58 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 36 MINUTES 03 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 965.50 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 00 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 9655 SQUARE FEET OR 0.222 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-24-300-008.

16-24-300-013, Anthony Road PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 24, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 44 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 665.01 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 28.29 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 0 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 157.79 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 33 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 153.50 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 49 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 353.78 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 05 MINUTES 32 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 26 MINUTES 49 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 353.69 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 43 MINUTES 33 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 153.49 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 157.87 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 6651 SQUARE FEET OR 0.153 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-24-300-013.

16-24-300-019, Anthony Road PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE SOUTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 24, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 5 EAST OF THE 3RD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS: COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 32 MINUTES 44 SECONDS WEST (BEARINGS BASED ON ILLINOIS STATE PLANE COORDINATES EAST ZONE 1983 DATUM) ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHWEST QUARTER, A DISTANCE OF 575.06 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 40 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 28.06 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 0 DEGREES 02 MINUTES 40 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 57 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 90.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 0 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET; THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 23 MINUTES 57 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF ANTHONY ROAD AS USED AND MONUMENTED, A DISTANCE OF 89.98 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, CONTAINING 900 SQUARE FEET OR 0.021 ACRES, MORE OR LESS. BEING PART OF PARCEL 16-24-300-019.

(b) This Section is repealed August 9, 2027 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 103-892) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 103-892, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-3-24.)

Section 1120. The Lawful Health Care Activity Act is amended by changing Sections 28-10 and 28-11 as follows:

(735 ILCS 40/28-10)

Sec. 28-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Lawful health care" means:

(1) reproductive health care that is not unlawful under the laws of this State, including on any theory of vicarious, joint, several, or conspiracy liability; or

(2) the treatment of gender dysphoria or the affirmation of an individual's gender identity or gender expression, including, but not limited to, all supplies, care, and services of a medical, behavioral health, mental health, surgical, psychiatric, therapeutic, diagnostic, preventative, rehabilitative, or supportive nature that is not unlawful under the laws of this State, including on any theory of vicarious, joint, several, or conspiracy liability.

"Lawful health care activity" means seeking, providing, receiving, assisting in seeking, providing, or receiving, providing material support for, or traveling to obtain lawful health care.

"Health records related to lawful health care" means records that identify a person who has sought or received lawful health care healthcare, including, but not limited to, information regarding an individual's medical history, mental or physical condition, or medical treatment or diagnosis by a health care healthcare professional, and insurance and billing records for medical care.

"Location information related to lawful health care" means precise location information that could be reasonably used to identify a person's attempt to acquire or receive lawful health care, including, but not limited to, records of the location of a person's license plate, records of the location of a cell phone or other device that tracks location, or records of observations of a person's location when the location is near a provider of lawful health care.

"Reproductive health care" shall have the same meaning as Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

"State" has the meaning given in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; revised 10-21-24.)

(735 ILCS 40/28-11)

Sec. 28-11. Prohibited State actions.

(a) Unless otherwise necessary to comply with Illinois or federal law, the State shall not provide any information or expend or use any time, money, facilities, property, equipment, personnel, or other resources to assist any individual, or out-of-state officer, official, agency, entity, or department seeking to impose civil or criminal liability upon a person or entity for lawful health care healthcare activity.

(b) Location information related to lawful health care and health records related to lawful health care are confidential and exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) This Section does not apply if an individual or out-of-state officer, official, agency, entity, or department is investigating conduct that would be subject to civil or criminal liability under the laws of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 103-786, eff. 8-7-24; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1125. The Illinois Antitrust Act is amended by changing Section 7.2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 10/7.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 60-7.2)

Sec. 7.2. (1) Whenever it appears to the Attorney General that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is about to engage in any act or practice prohibited by this Act, or that any person has assisted or participated in any agreement or combination of the nature described herein, he may, in his discretion, conduct an investigation as he deems necessary in connection with the matter and has the authority prior to the commencement of any civil or criminal action as provided for in the Act to subpoena witnesses, and pursuant to a subpoena (i) compel their attendance for the purpose of examining them under oath, (ii) require the production of any books, documents, records, writings, or tangible things hereafter referred to as "documentary material" which the Attorney General deems relevant or material to his investigation, for inspection, reproducing, or copying under such terms and conditions as hereafter set forth, (iii) require written answers under oath to written interrogatories, or (iv) require compliance with a combination of the foregoing. Any subpoena issued by the Attorney General shall contain the following information:

(a) The statute and section thereof, the alleged violation of which is under investigation and the general subject matter of the investigation.

(b) The date and place at which time the person is required to appear or produce documentary material in his possession, custody, or control or submit answers to interrogatories in the office of the Attorney General located in Springfield or Chicago. Said date shall not be less than 10 days from date of service of the subpoena.

(c) Where documentary material is required to be produced, the same shall be described by class so as to clearly indicate the material demanded.

The Attorney General is hereby authorized, and may so elect, to require the production, pursuant to this Section section, of documentary material or interrogatory answers prior to the taking of any testimony of the person subpoenaed. Said documentary material shall be made available for inspection and copying during normal business hours at the principal place of business of the person served, or at such other time and place, as may be agreed upon by the person served and the Attorney General. When documentary material is demanded by subpoena, said subpoena shall not:

(i) contain any requirement which would be unreasonable or improper if contained in a subpoena duces tecum issued by a court of this State; or

(ii) require the disclosure of any documentary material which would be privileged, or which for any other reason would not be required by a subpoena duces tecum issued by a court of this State.

(2) The production of documentary material in response to a subpoena served pursuant to this Section shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates, by the person, if a natural person, to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by a person or persons having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian. Answers to interrogatories shall be accompanied by a statement under oath attesting to the accuracy of the answers.

While in the possession of the Attorney General and under such reasonable terms and conditions as the Attorney General shall prescribe: (A) documentary material shall be available for examination by the person who produced such material or by any duly authorized representative of such person, (B) transcript of oral testimony shall be available for examination by the person who produced such testimony, or his or her counsel, and (C) answers to interrogatories shall be available for examination by the person who swore to their accuracy.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no documentary material, transcripts of oral testimony, or answers to interrogatories, or copies thereof, in the possession of the Attorney General shall be available for examination by any individual other than an authorized employee of the Attorney General or other law enforcement officials, federal, State, or local, without the consent of the person who produced such material, transcripts, or interrogatory answers. Such documentary material, transcripts of oral testimony, or answers to interrogatories, or copies thereof, may be used by the Attorney General in any administrative or judicial action or proceeding.

For purposes of this Section, all documentary materials, transcripts of oral testimony, answers to interrogatories obtained by the Attorney General from other law enforcement officials, information voluntarily produced to the Attorney General for purposes of any investigation conducted under subsection (1), or information provided to the Attorney General pursuant to the notice requirement of Section 7.2a shall be treated as if produced pursuant to a subpoena served pursuant to this Section for purposes of maintaining the confidentiality of such information.

The changes made by Public Act 103-526 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly are inoperative on and after January 1, 2027.

(3) No person shall, with intent to avoid, evade, prevent, or obstruct compliance in whole or in part by any person with any duly served subpoena of the Attorney General under this Act, knowingly remove from any place, conceal, withhold, destroy, mutilate, alter, or by any other means falsify any documentary material that is the subject of such subpoena. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. The Attorney General, with such assistance as he may from time to time require of the State's Attorneys in the several counties, shall investigate suspected violations of this subsection and shall commence and try all prosecutions under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 103-526, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1130. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 9.6 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/9.6)

Sec. 9.6. Participants of any HIE, as defined under Section 2, shall allow each recipient whose record is accessible through the health information exchange the reasonable opportunity to expressly decline the further disclosure of the record by the health information exchange to third parties, except to the extent permitted by law such as for purposes of public health reporting. The HIE participants shall permit a recipient to revoke a prior decision to opt out opt-out or a decision not to opt out opt-out. These rules, standards, or contractual obligations shall provide for written notice of a recipient's right to opt out opt-out which directs the recipient to a health information exchange website containing (i) an explanation of the purposes of the health information exchange; and (ii) audio, visual, and written instructions on how to opt out opt-out of participation in whole or in part to the extent possible. The process for effectuating an opt-out shall be reviewed by the HIE participants annually and updated as the technical options develop. The recipient shall be provided meaningful disclosure regarding the health information exchange, and the recipient's decision whether to opt out opt-out should be obtained without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion. To the extent that HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.508(b)(4), prohibits a covered entity from conditioning the provision of its services upon an individual's provision of an authorization, an HIE participant shall not condition the provision of its services upon a recipient's decision to opt out opt-out of further disclosure of the record by an HIE to third parties. The HIE participants shall also give annual consideration to enable a recipient to expressly decline the further disclosure by an HIE to third parties of selected portions of the recipient's record while permitting disclosure of the recipient's remaining patient health information. In giving effect to recipient disclosure preferences, the HIE participants may consider the extent to which relevant health information technologies reasonably available to therapists and HIEs in this State reasonably enable the effective segmentation of specific information within a recipient's electronic medical record and reasonably enable the effective exclusion of specific information from disclosure by an HIE to third parties, as well as the availability of sufficient authoritative clinical guidance to enable the practical application of such technologies to effect recipient disclosure preferences. The provisions of this Section 9.6 shall not apply to the secure electronic transmission of data which is point-to-point communication directed by the data custodian.

(Source: P.A. 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1135. The Whistleblower Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(740 ILCS 174/15)

Sec. 15. Retaliation for certain disclosures prohibited.

(a) An employer may not take retaliatory action against an employee who discloses or threatens to disclose to a public body conducting an investigation, or in a court, an administrative hearing, or any other proceeding initiated by a public body, information related to an activity, policy, or practice of the employer, where the employee has a good faith belief that the activity, policy, or practice (i) violates a State or federal law, rule, or regulation or (ii) poses a substantial and specific danger to employees, public health, or safety.

(b) An employer may not take retaliatory action against an employee for disclosing or threatening to disclose information to a government or law enforcement agency information related to an activity, policy, or practice of the employer, where the employee has a good faith belief that the activity, policy, or practice of the employer (i) violates a State or federal law, rule, or regulation or (ii) poses a substantial and specific danger to employees, public health, or safety.

(c) An employer may not take retaliatory action against an employee for disclosing or threatening to disclose to any supervisor, principal officer, board member, or supervisor in an organization that has a contractual relationship with the employer who makes the employer aware of the disclosure, information related to an activity, policy, or practice of the employer if the employee has a good faith belief that the activity, policy, or practice (i) violates a State or federal law, rule, or regulation or (ii) poses a substantial and specific danger to employees, public health, or safety.

(Source: P.A. 103-867, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1140. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 2 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/1)

Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

A. (1) "Child" means a person under legal age subject to adoption under this Act.

A-5. (2) "Adult", when referring to a person who is the subject of a petition for adoption under Section 3 of this Act, means a person who is 18 years old or older.

B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the following relationships to the child by blood, marriage, adoption, or civil union: parent, grand-parent, great-grandparent, brother, sister, step-parent, step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt, great-uncle, great-aunt, first cousin, or second cousin. A person is related to the child as a first cousin or second cousin if they are both related to the same ancestor as either grandchild or great-grandchild. A child whose parent has executed a consent to adoption, a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act or whose parent has signed a denial of paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of this Act, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless (1) the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10 of this Act; or (2) the parent of the child executed a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of Section 10 of this Act and a court of competent jurisdiction finds that such consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental rights of the parent is vacated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following, except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:

(a) Abandonment of the child.

(a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

(a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to relinquish his or her parental rights.

(b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern, or responsibility as to the child's welfare.

(c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.

(d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or repeated.

(d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated, of any child residing in the household which resulted in the death of that child.

(e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.

(f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a parent is unfit if:

(1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the matter to be supported by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) The parent has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or finding resulted from the death of any child by physical abuse; or

(3) There is a finding of physical child abuse resulting from the death of any child under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this paragraph item (f).

(g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within his environment injurious to the child's welfare.

(h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child; provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any previous finding, order or judgment affecting or determining the rights of the parents toward the child sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act, or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conviction of second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (5) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (6) heinous battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (8) any violation of Section 11-1.20 or Section 12-13 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (9) any violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 or Section 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (10) any violation of Section 11-9.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (11) any violation of Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or (12) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the enumerated offenses in this paragraph subsection (i).

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any United States territory; and at least one of these convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of either first or second degree murder of any person as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental rights.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this paragraph item (i).

(j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness proceeding.

(l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of interest, concern, or responsibility as to the welfare of a new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.

(m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (ii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent and if those services were available, then, for purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent" includes the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care during any 9-month period following the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of subparagraph item (ii) of this paragraph subsection (m), the petitioner shall file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be treated as incorporated into the petition or motion. Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an admission that the allegations are true.

(m-1) (Blank).

(n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court, (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with the child or agency, although able to do so and not prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of the child or, after being so informed where the child is not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii) to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child, the court to consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both parents; provided that the ground for termination provided in this item (ii) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph (n) subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be available where the petition is brought by the mother or the husband of the mother.

Contact or communication by a parent with his or her child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does not constitute reasonable contact and planning under this paragraph subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain contact, pay expenses, and plan for the future shall be presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not preclude a determination that the parent has intended to forgo his or her parental rights. In making this determination, the court may consider but shall not require a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in this paragraph subdivision (n).

It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation under subparagraph paragraph (2) of this paragraph (n) subsection that the father's failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to impediments created by the mother or any other person having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents, although physically and financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.

(p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist, licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist of mental impairment, mental illness, or an intellectual disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this paragraph subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental impairment.

(q) (Blank).

(r) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, prior to incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the child or provided little or no support for the child, and the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.

(s) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child.

(t) (Blank).

E. "Parent" means a person who is the legal mother or legal father of the child as defined in subsection X or Y of this Section. For the purpose of this Act, a parent who has executed a consent to adoption, a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act, who has signed a Denial of Paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of this Act, or whose parental rights have been terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the subject of the consent, surrender, waiver, or denial unless (1) the consent is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10 of this Act; or (2) the person executed a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of Section 10 of this Act and a court of competent jurisdiction finds that the consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental rights of the person is vacated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:

(a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter consented;

(b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of this Act;

(c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend to adopt him through placement made by his parents;

(c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;

(d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in Section 3 of this Act; or

(e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

A person who would otherwise be available for adoption shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason of his or her death.

G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the context of this Act may require.

H. (Blank).

I. "Habitual residence" has the meaning ascribed to it in the federal Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000 and regulations promulgated thereunder.

J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the parents of the biological parents, and the siblings of the biological parents.

K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child from a country other than the United States is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of the United States, or the child is a habitual resident of the United States who is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of a country other than the United States.

L. (Blank).

M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a law enacted by all states and certain territories for the purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care facilities.

N. (Blank).

O. "Preadoption requirements" means any conditions or standards established by the laws or administrative rules of this State that must be met by a prospective adoptive parent prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.

P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to the child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon the child; or

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.

Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing, and shelter; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate, delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by law.

R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child. The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age. "Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent consents to custody and termination of parental rights to become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.

T. (Blank).

T-5. "Biological parent", "birth parent", or "natural parent" of a child are interchangeable terms that mean a person who is biologically or genetically related to that child as a parent.

U. "Interstate adoption" means the placement of a minor child with a prospective adoptive parent for the purpose of pursuing an adoption for that child that is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.

V. (Blank).

W. (Blank).

X. "Legal father" of a child means a man who is recognized as or presumed to be that child's father:

(1) because of his marriage to or civil union with the child's parent at the time of the child's birth or within 300 days prior to that child's birth, unless he signed a denial of paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act; or

(2) because his paternity of the child has been established pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(3) because he is listed as the child's father or parent on the child's birth certificate, unless he is otherwise determined by an administrative or judicial proceeding not to be the parent of the child or unless he rescinds his acknowledgment of paternity pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984; or

(4) because his paternity or adoption of the child has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction.

The definition in this subsection X shall not be construed to provide greater or lesser rights as to the number of parents who can be named on a final judgment order of adoption or Illinois birth certificate that otherwise exist under Illinois law.

Y. "Legal mother" of a child means a woman who is recognized as or presumed to be that child's mother:

(1) because she gave birth to the child except as provided in the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(2) because her maternity of the child has been established pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(3) because her maternity or adoption of the child has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(4) because of her marriage to or civil union with the child's other parent at the time of the child's birth or within 300 days prior to the time of birth; or

(5) because she is listed as the child's mother or parent on the child's birth certificate unless she is otherwise determined by an administrative or judicial proceeding not to be the parent of the child.

The definition in this subsection Y shall not be construed to provide greater or lesser rights as to the number of parents who can be named on a final judgment order of adoption or Illinois birth certificate that otherwise exist under Illinois law.

Z. "Department" means the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

AA. "Placement disruption" means a circumstance where the child is removed from an adoptive placement before the adoption is finalized.

BB. "Secondary placement" means a placement, including, but not limited to, the placement of a youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, that occurs after a placement disruption or an adoption dissolution. "Secondary placement" does not mean secondary placements arising due to the death of the adoptive parent of the child.

CC. "Adoption dissolution" means a circumstance where the child is removed from an adoptive placement after the adoption is finalized.

DD. "Unregulated placement" means the secondary placement of a child that occurs without the oversight of the courts, the Department, or a licensed child welfare agency.

EE. "Post-placement and post-adoption support services" means support services for placed or adopted children and families that include, but are not limited to, mental health treatment, including counseling and other support services for emotional, behavioral, or developmental needs, and treatment for substance abuse.

FF. "Youth in care" has the meaning provided in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act.

The changes made by Public Act 103-941 this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly apply to a petition that is filed on or after January 1, 2025.

(Source: P.A. 102-139, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-696, eff. 1-1-25; 103-941, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

(750 ILCS 50/2) (from Ch. 40, par. 1502)

Sec. 2. Who may adopt a child.

A. Any of the following persons, who is under no legal disability (except the minority specified in sub-paragraph (b)) and who has resided in the State of Illinois continuously for a period of at least 6 months immediately preceding the commencement of an adoption proceeding, or any member of the armed forces of the United States who has been domiciled in the State of Illinois for 90 days, may institute such proceeding:

(a) A reputable person of legal age and of either sex, provided that if such person is married or in a civil union and has not been living separate and apart from his or her spouse or civil union partner for 12 months or longer, his or her spouse or civil union partner shall be a party to the adoption proceeding, including a spouse or civil union partner desiring to adopt a child of the other spouse or civil union partner, in all of which cases the adoption shall be by both spouses or civil union partners jointly;

(b) A minor, by leave of court upon good cause shown; .

(c) Notwithstanding sub-paragraph (a) of this subsection, a spouse or civil union partner is not required to join in a petition for adoption for the adoption of an adult if a petitioner is a former stepparent of that adult, or to re-adopt a child after an intercountry adoption if the spouse or civil union partner did not previously adopt the child as set forth in subsections (c) and (e) of Section 4.1 of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "former stepparent" means a person who was married to, or in a civil union with, the legal parent of the adult seeking to be adopted, and the marriage or civil union has ended.

B. The residence requirement specified in paragraph A of this Section shall not apply to:

(a) an adoption of a related child;

(a-1) an adoption of a child previously adopted in a foreign country by the petitioner;

(b) an adoption of a child placed by an Illinois-licensed child welfare agency performing adoption services;

(c) an adoption of an adult by a former stepparent; or

(d) an adoption of a child born in this State who has resided continuously in this State since birth, or a child who has continuously resided in this State for at least 6 months immediately preceding the commencement of the adoption proceeding, if:

(1) an Illinois-licensed child welfare agency performing adoption services has acknowledged a consent or surrender of one or both of the biological or legal parents of the child under this Act and the Child Care Act of 1969; or

(2) an authorized person under Section 10 has acknowledged a consent of one or both of the biological or legal parents of the child and an Illinois-licensed child welfare agency performing adoption services has counseled the biological or legal parent or parents of the child as to the birth parent rights and responsibilities under the Child Care Act of 1969 and the rules adopted thereunder.

C. Nothing in this Section overrides the requirements contained in Public Act 94-586.

(Source: P.A. 102-139, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1145. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 11a-15 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-15) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-15)

Sec. 11a-15. Successor guardian.) Upon the death, incapacity, resignation, or removal of a guardian of the estate or person of a living ward, the court shall appoint a successor guardian or terminate the adjudication of disability. The powers and duties of the successor guardian shall be the same as those of the predecessor guardian unless otherwise modified.

Notice of the time and place of the hearing on a petition for the appointment of a successor guardian shall be given not less than 3 days before the hearing for a successor to a temporary guardian and not less than 14 days before the hearing for a successor to a limited or plenary guardian. The notice shall be by mail or in person to the alleged person with a disability, to the proposed successor guardian, and to those persons whose names and addresses are listed in the petition for adjudication of disability and appointment of a guardian under Section 11a-8. The court, upon a finding of good cause, may waive the notice requirement under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 103-740, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 1150. The Real Property Transfer on Death Instrument Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(755 ILCS 27/90)

Sec. 90. Limitations and bona fide transfers.

(a) An action to set aside or contest the validity of a transfer on death instrument shall be commenced within the earlier of 2 years after the date of the owner's death or 6 months from the date letters of office are issued pursuant to the Probate Act of 1975.

(b) A bona fide purchaser or mortgagee for value shall take the real property free and clear of any action, claim, liability, or contest if the transfer to the bona fide purchaser or mortgagee for value occurs prior to the recording of a lis pendens under Section 2-1901 of the Code of Civil Procedure or prior to the filing of the a notice of renunciation pursuant to Section 66 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-68, eff. 1-1-22; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1155. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 40/10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 851-10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Adult" means a person who is (i) 18 years of age or older or (ii) an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

"Artificial nutrition and hydration" means supplying food and water through a conduit, such as a tube or intravenous line, where the recipient is not required to chew or swallow voluntarily, including, but not limited to, nasogastric tubes, gastrostomies, jejunostomies, and intravenous infusions. "Artificial nutrition and hydration" does not include assisted feeding, such as spoon or bottle feeding.

"Available" means that a person is not "unavailable". A person is unavailable if (i) the person's existence is not known, (ii) the person has not been able to be contacted by telephone or mail, or (iii) the person lacks decisional capacity, refuses to accept the office of surrogate, or is unwilling to respond in a manner that indicates a choice among the treatment matters at issue.

"Attending physician" means the physician selected by or assigned to the patient who has primary responsibility for treatment and care of the patient and who is a licensed physician in Illinois or a physician licensed in the state where the patient is being treated. If more than one physician shares that responsibility, any of those physicians may act as the attending physician under this Act.

"Close friend" means any person 18 years of age or older who has exhibited special care and concern for the patient and who presents an affidavit to the attending physician stating that he or she (i) is a close friend of the patient, (ii) is willing and able to become involved in the patient's health care, and (iii) has maintained such regular contact with the patient as to be familiar with the patient's activities, health, and religious and moral beliefs. The affidavit must also state facts and circumstances that demonstrate that familiarity.

"Death" means when, according to accepted medical standards, there is (i) an irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions or (ii) an irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem.

"Decisional capacity" means the ability to understand and appreciate the nature and consequences of a decision regarding medical treatment or forgoing life-sustaining treatment and the ability to reach and communicate an informed decision in the matter as determined by the attending physician.

"Forgo life-sustaining treatment" means to withhold, withdraw, or terminate all or any portion of life-sustaining treatment with knowledge that the patient's death is likely to result.

"Guardian" means a court appointed guardian of the person who serves as a representative of a minor or as a representative of a person under legal disability.

"Health care facility" means a type of health care provider commonly known by a wide variety of titles, including, but not limited to, hospitals, medical centers, nursing homes, rehabilitation centers, long term or tertiary care facilities, and other facilities established to administer health care and provide overnight stays in their ordinary course of business or practice.

"Health care provider" means a person that is licensed, certified, or otherwise authorized or permitted by the law of this State or licensed in the state where the patient is being treated to administer health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession, including, but not limited to, physicians, nurses, health care facilities, and any employee, officer, director, agent, or person under contract with such a person.

"Imminent" (as in "death is imminent") means a determination made by the attending physician according to accepted medical standards that death will occur in a relatively short period of time, even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued.

"Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical treatment, procedure, or intervention that, in the judgment of the attending physician, when applied to a patient with a qualifying condition, would not be effective to remove the qualifying condition or would serve only to prolong the dying process. Those procedures can include, but are not limited to, assisted ventilation, renal dialysis, surgical procedures, blood transfusions, and the administration of drugs, antibiotics, and artificial nutrition and hydration.

"Minor" means an individual who is not an adult as defined in this Act.

"Parent" means a person who is the natural or adoptive mother or father of the child and whose parental rights have not been terminated by a court of law.

"Patient" means an adult or minor individual, unless otherwise specified, under the care or treatment of a licensed physician or other health care provider.

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a business trust, a trust, a partnership, an association, a government, a governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal entity.

"Qualifying condition" means the existence of one or more of the following conditions in a patient certified in writing in the patient's medical record by the attending physician and by at least one other qualified health care practitioner:

(1) "Terminal condition" means an illness or injury for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, death is imminent, and the application of life-sustaining treatment would only prolong the dying process.

(2) "Permanent unconsciousness" means a condition that, to a high degree of medical certainty, (i) will last permanently, without improvement, (ii) in which thought, sensation, purposeful action, social interaction, and awareness of self and environment are absent, and (iii) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

(3) "Incurable or irreversible condition" means an illness or injury (i) for which there is no reasonable prospect of cure or recovery, (ii) that ultimately will cause the patient's death even if life-sustaining treatment is initiated or continued, (iii) that imposes severe pain or otherwise imposes an inhumane burden on the patient, and (iv) for which initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment, in light of the patient's medical condition, provides only minimal medical benefit.

The determination that a patient has a qualifying condition creates no presumption regarding the application or non-application of life-sustaining treatment. It is only after a determination by the attending physician that the patient has a qualifying condition that the surrogate decision maker may consider whether or not to forgo life-sustaining treatment. In making this decision, the surrogate shall weigh the burdens on the patient of initiating or continuing life-sustaining treatment against the benefits of that treatment.

"Qualified health care practitioner" means an individual who has personally examined the patient and who is licensed in Illinois or in the state where the patient is being treated and who is a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or resident with at least one year of graduate or specialty training who holds a temporary license to practice medicine and is enrolled in a residency program accredited by the Liaison Committee on Graduate Medical Education or the Bureau of Professional Education of the American Osteopathic Association.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in this State or in the state where the patient is being treated.

"Surrogate decision maker" means an adult individual or individuals who (i) have decisional capacity, (ii) are available upon reasonable inquiry, (iii) are willing to make medical treatment decisions on behalf of a patient who lacks decisional capacity, and (iv) are identified by the attending physician in accordance with the provisions of this Act as the person or persons who are to make those decisions in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-140, eff. 1-1-22; 102-182, eff. 7-30-21; 102-744, eff. 5-6-22; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1160. The Landlord and Tenant Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25 as follows:

(765 ILCS 705/25)

Sec. 25. Disclosure of potential flooding in rental and lease agreements.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Flood" and "flooding" mean a general or temporary condition of partial or complete inundation of a dwelling or property caused by:

(1) the overflow of inland or tidal waves;

(2) the unusual and rapid accumulation of runoff or surface waters from any established water source such as a river, stream, or drainage ditch; or

(3) rainfall.

"Lower-level unit" means any garden level unit, basement level unit, or first floor level unit.

(b) Every landlord shall clearly disclose to each of the landlord's tenants in writing prior to signing the lease for the rental property that a rental property is located in the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) Special Flood Hazard Area ("100-year floodplain") and if the landlord has actual knowledge that the rental property or any portion of the parking areas of the real property containing the rental property has been subjected to flooding and the frequency of such flooding. Such disclosure shall also be included in the written lease or the written renewal lease and shall be signed by both parties.

(c) Every landlord who leases a lower-level unit shall clearly disclose to each of the landlord's lower-level unit tenants in writing prior to the signing of the lease for the lower-level unit if the lower-level unit or any portion of the real property containing the lower-level unit has experienced flooding in the last 10 years and shall disclose the frequency of such flooding. Such disclosure shall also be included in the written lease or the written renewal lease and shall be signed by both parties.

(d) The written disclosure shall look substantially similar to the following:

"(Landlord) [ ] is or [ ] is not aware that the rental property is located in a FEMA Special Flood Hazard Area ("100-year floodplain"). The property has experienced flooding [ ] times in the last 10 years. Even if the rental property is not in a Special Flood Hazard Area ("100-year floodplain"), the dwelling may still be susceptible to flooding. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) maintains a flood map on its Internet website that is searchable by address, at no cost, to determine if a dwelling is located in a flood hazard area.

(Landlord) [ ] is or [ ] is not aware that the rental property you are renting has flooded at least once in the last 10 years. The rental property has flooded [ ] times in the last 10 years. Even if the dwelling has not flooded in the last 10 years, the dwelling may still be susceptible to flooding.

Most tenant insurance policies do not cover damage or loss incurred in a flood. You are encouraged to examine your policy to determine whether you are covered. If you are not, flood insurance may be available through FEMA's National Flood Insurance Program to cover your personal property in the event of a flood. Information regarding flood risks can be found at the dnr.illinois.gov (Illinois Department of Natural Resources), fema.gov (FEMA), and ready.gov/flood (U.S. National public service).

Landlords are required to disclose the above information pursuant to Section 25 of the Landlord and Tenant Act. A landlord's failure to comply with Section 25 of the Landlord and Tenant Act shall entitle the tenant to remedies as defined in that Section.

..........................

(Tenant Signature) (Date)

..........................

(Landlord Signature) (Date)"

(e) If a landlord fails to comply with subsection (b), and the tenant subsequently becomes aware that the property is located in the FEMA Special Flood Hazard Area ("100-year floodplain") the tenant may terminate the lease by giving written notice of termination to the landlord no later than the 30th day after a tenant becomes aware of the landlord's failure to comply with subsection (b), and the landlord shall return all rent and fees paid in advance no later than the 15th day after the tenant gave notice.

If a landlord fails to comply with subsection (b) or subsection (c) and flooding occurs that results in damage to the tenant's personal property, affects the habitability of the leased property, or affects the tenant's access to the leased property, the tenant may:

(1) terminate the lease by giving written notice to the landlord no later than the 30th day after the flood occurred and the landlord shall return all rent and fees paid in advance no later than the 15th day after the tenant gave notice; and

(2) bring an action against the landlord of the property to recover damages for personal property lost or damaged as a result of flooding.

(e) Exemptions. This Section does not apply to farm leases, concession leases, and rental properties owned or managed by the Department of Natural Resources.

(f) This Section may not be interpreted to permit the renting, leasing, or subleasing of lower-level units in a municipality if the municipality does not permit the renting, leasing, or subleasing of such units.

(Source: P.A. 103-754, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(765 ILCS 705/30)

Sec. 30 25. Reusable tenant screening report.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

"Application screening fee" means a request by a landlord for a fee to cover the costs of obtaining information about a prospective tenant.

"Consumer report" has the same meaning as defined in Section 1681a of Title 15 of the United States Code.

"Consumer credit reporting agency" means a person which, for monetary fees, dues, or on a cooperative nonprofit basis, regularly engages in whole or in part in the practice of assembling or evaluating consumer credit information or other information on consumers for the purpose of furnishing consumer reports to third parties and that uses any means or facility of interstate commerce for the purpose of preparing or furnishing consumer reports.

"Reusable tenant screening report" means a written report, prepared by a consumer credit reporting agency, that prominently states the date through which the information contained in the report is current and includes, but is not limited to, all of the following information regarding a prospective tenant:

(A) the name of the prospective tenant;

(B) the contact information for the prospective tenant;

(C) a verification of source of income of the prospective tenant;

(D) the last known address of the prospective tenant; and

(E) the results of an eviction history check of the prospective tenant in a manner and for a period of time consistent with applicable law related to the consideration of eviction history in housing.

(b) Providing a reusable tenant screening report.

(1) If a prospective tenant provides a reusable tenant screening report that meets the following criteria, the landlord may not charge the prospective tenant a fee to access the report or an application screening fee. Those criteria include the following:

(A) the report was prepared within the previous 30 days by a consumer credit reporting agency at the request and expense of a prospective tenant;

(B) the report is made directly available to a landlord for use in the rental application process or is provided through a third-party website that regularly engages in the business of providing a reusable tenant screening report and complies with all State and federal laws pertaining to use and disclosure of information contained in a consumer report by a consumer credit reporting agency;

(C) the report is available to the landlord at no cost to access or use; and

(D) the report includes all of the criteria consistently being used by the landlord in the screening of prospective tenants.

(2) A landlord may require an applicant to state that there has not been a material change to the information in the reusable tenant screening report.

(c) If an ordinance, resolution, regulation, administrative action, initiative, or other policy adopted by a unit of local government or county conflicts with this Act, the policy that provides greater protections to prospective tenants applies.

(d) Nothing in this Section prohibits a landlord from collecting and processing an application in addition to the report provided, as long as the prospective tenant is not charged an application screening fee for this additional report.

(Source: P.A. 103-840, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-3-24.)

Section 1165. The Landlord Retaliation Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(765 ILCS 721/20)

Sec. 20. Rebuttable presumption. In an action by or against the tenant, if within one year before the alleged act of retaliation there is evidence that the retaliation was against the tenant's conduct that is protected under this Act, that evidence creates a rebuttable presumption that the landlord's conduct was retaliatory. The presumption does not arise if the protected tenant activity was initiated after the alleged act of retaliation.

(Source: P.A. 103-831, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1170. The Mobile Home Landlord and Tenant Rights Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(765 ILCS 745/17) (from Ch. 80, par. 217)

Sec. 17. Notice required by Law. The following notice shall be printed verbatim in a clear and conspicuous manner in each lease or rental agreement of a mobile home or lot:

"IMPORTANT NOTICE REQUIRED BY LAW:

The rules set forth below govern the terms of your lease of occupancy arrangement with this mobile home park. The law requires all of these rules and regulations to be fair and reasonable, and if not, such rules and regulations cannot be enforced against you.

As required by law, the park must be licensed to operate a mobile home park either by either the State of Illinois Department of Public Health or applicable home rule jurisdiction. Pursuant to the Mobile Home Park Act, this license shall expire April 30 of each year, and a new license shall be issued upon proper application and payment of the annual license fee.

You may continue to reside in the park as long as you pay your rent and abide by the rules and regulations of the park. You may only be evicted for non-payment of rent, violation of laws, or for violation of the rules and regulations of the park and the terms of the lease.

If this park requires you to deal exclusively with a certain fuel dealer or other merchant for goods or service in connection with the use or occupancy of your mobile home or on your mobile home lot, the price you pay for such goods or services may not be more than the prevailing price in this locality for similar goods and services.

You may not be evicted for reporting any violations of law or health and building codes to boards of health, building commissioners, the Office department of the Attorney General, or any other appropriate government agency.".

(Source: P.A. 103-630, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-24-24.)

Section 1175. The Right of Publicity Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1075/20)

Sec. 20. Enforcement of rights and remedies.

(a) The rights and remedies set forth in this Act may be exercised and enforced by:

(1) an individual or his or her authorized representative;

(2) a person to whom the recognized rights have been transferred by written transfer under Section 15 of this Act; or

(3) after the death of an individual who has not transferred the recognized rights by written transfer under this Act, any person or persons that possess who possesses an interest in those rights.

(a-5) In addition to the enforcement of rights and remedies in subsection (a), the rights and remedies set forth in this Act may, in the case of an individual who is a recording artist, be enforced by:

(1) the individual who is the recording artist; or

(2) a person who has entered into a contract for the individual's exclusive personal services as a recording artist or who has entered into a contract for an exclusive license to distribute sound recordings that capture the recording artist's audio performances.

(b) Each person described in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) shall make a proportional accounting to, and shall act at all times in good faith with respect to, any other person in whom the rights being enforced have vested.

(Source: P.A. 103-836, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1180. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 2-101, 2-102, 2-108, and 3-106 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/2-101)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-804)

Sec. 2-101. Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article.

(A) Employee.

(1) "Employee" includes:

(a) Any individual performing services for remuneration within this State for an employer;

(b) An apprentice;

(c) An applicant for any apprenticeship.

For purposes of subsection (D) of Section 2-102 of this Act, "employee" also includes an unpaid intern. An unpaid intern is a person who performs work for an employer under the following circumstances:

(i) the employer is not committed to hiring the person performing the work at the conclusion of the intern's tenure;

(ii) the employer and the person performing the work agree that the person is not entitled to wages for the work performed; and

(iii) the work performed:

(I) supplements training given in an educational environment that may enhance the employability of the intern;

(II) provides experience for the benefit of the person performing the work;

(III) does not displace regular employees;

(IV) is performed under the close supervision of existing staff; and

(V) provides no immediate advantage to the employer providing the training and may occasionally impede the operations of the employer.

(2) "Employee" does not include:

(a) (Blank);

(b) Individuals employed by persons who are not "employers" as defined by this Act;

(c) Elected public officials or the members of their immediate personal staffs;

(d) Principal administrative officers of the State or of any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency;

(e) A person in a vocational rehabilitation facility certified under federal law who has been designated an evaluee, trainee, or work activity client.

(B) Employer.

(1) "Employer" includes:

(a) Any person employing one or more employees within Illinois during 20 or more calendar weeks within the calendar year of or preceding the alleged violation;

(b) Any person employing one or more employees when a complainant alleges civil rights violation due to unlawful discrimination based upon his or her physical or mental disability unrelated to ability, pregnancy, or sexual harassment;

(c) The State and any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency, without regard to the number of employees;

(d) Any party to a public contract without regard to the number of employees;

(e) A joint apprenticeship or training committee without regard to the number of employees.

(2) "Employer" does not include any place of worship, religious corporation, association, educational institution, society, or nonprofit non-profit nursing institution conducted by and for those who rely upon treatment by prayer through spiritual means in accordance with the tenets of a recognized church or religious denomination with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by such place of worship, corporation, association, educational institution, society, or nonprofit non-profit nursing institution of its activities.

(C) Employment Agency. "Employment Agency" includes both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

(D) Labor Organization. "Labor Organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor which is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

(E) Sexual Harassment. "Sexual harassment" means any unwelcome sexual advances or requests for sexual favors or any conduct of a sexual nature when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

For purposes of this definition, the phrase "working environment" is not limited to a physical location an employee is assigned to perform his or her duties.

(E-1) Harassment. "Harassment" means any unwelcome conduct on the basis of an individual's actual or perceived race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, unfavorable discharge from military service, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities that has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with the individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. For purposes of this definition, the phrase "working environment" is not limited to a physical location an employee is assigned to perform his or her duties.

(F) Religion. "Religion" with respect to employers includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, unless an employer demonstrates that he is unable to reasonably accommodate an employee's or prospective employee's religious observance or practice without undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.

(G) Public Employer. "Public employer" means the State, an agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(H) Public Employee. "Public employee" means an employee of the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision. "Public employee" does not include public officers or employees of the General Assembly or agencies thereof.

(I) Public Officer. "Public officer" means a person who is elected to office pursuant to the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, or who is appointed to an office which is established, and the qualifications and duties of which are prescribed, by the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, to discharge a public duty for the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(J) Eligible Bidder. "Eligible bidder" means a person who, prior to contract award or prior to bid opening for State contracts for construction or construction-related services, has filed with the Department a properly completed, sworn and currently valid employer report form, pursuant to the Department's regulations. The provisions of this Article relating to eligible bidders apply only to bids on contracts with the State and its departments, agencies, boards, and commissions, and the provisions do not apply to bids on contracts with units of local government or school districts.

(K) Citizenship Status. "Citizenship status" means the status of being:

(1) a born U.S. citizen;

(2) a naturalized U.S. citizen;

(3) a U.S. national; or

(4) a person born outside the United States and not a U.S. citizen who is lawfully present and who is protected from discrimination under the provisions of Section 1324b of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(L) Work Authorization Status. "Work authorization status" means the status of being a person born outside of the United States, and not a U.S. citizen, who is authorized by the federal government to work in the United States.

(M) Family Responsibilities. "Family responsibilities" means an employee's actual or perceived provision of personal care to a family member. As used in this definition:

(1) "Personal care" has the meaning given to that term in the Employee Sick Leave Act.

(2) "Family member" has the meaning given to the term "covered family member" in the Employee Sick Leave Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-233, eff. 8-2-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-797, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-7-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-804)

Sec. 2-101. Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article.

(A) Employee.

(1) "Employee" includes:

(a) Any individual performing services for remuneration within this State for an employer;

(b) An apprentice;

(c) An applicant for any apprenticeship.

For purposes of subsection (D) of Section 2-102 of this Act, "employee" also includes an unpaid intern. An unpaid intern is a person who performs work for an employer under the following circumstances:

(i) the employer is not committed to hiring the person performing the work at the conclusion of the intern's tenure;

(ii) the employer and the person performing the work agree that the person is not entitled to wages for the work performed; and

(iii) the work performed:

(I) supplements training given in an educational environment that may enhance the employability of the intern;

(II) provides experience for the benefit of the person performing the work;

(III) does not displace regular employees;

(IV) is performed under the close supervision of existing staff; and

(V) provides no immediate advantage to the employer providing the training and may occasionally impede the operations of the employer.

(2) "Employee" does not include:

(a) (Blank);

(b) Individuals employed by persons who are not "employers" as defined by this Act;

(c) Elected public officials or the members of their immediate personal staffs;

(d) Principal administrative officers of the State or of any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency;

(e) A person in a vocational rehabilitation facility certified under federal law who has been designated an evaluee, trainee, or work activity client.

(B) Employer.

(1) "Employer" includes:

(a) Any person employing one or more employees within Illinois during 20 or more calendar weeks within the calendar year of or preceding the alleged violation;

(b) Any person employing one or more employees when a complainant alleges civil rights violation due to unlawful discrimination based upon his or her physical or mental disability unrelated to ability, pregnancy, or sexual harassment;

(c) The State and any political subdivision, municipal corporation or other governmental unit or agency, without regard to the number of employees;

(d) Any party to a public contract without regard to the number of employees;

(e) A joint apprenticeship or training committee without regard to the number of employees.

(2) "Employer" does not include any place of worship, religious corporation, association, educational institution, society, or nonprofit non-profit nursing institution conducted by and for those who rely upon treatment by prayer through spiritual means in accordance with the tenets of a recognized church or religious denomination with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by such place of worship, corporation, association, educational institution, society, or nonprofit non-profit nursing institution of its activities.

(C) Employment Agency. "Employment Agency" includes both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

(D) Labor Organization. "Labor Organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor which is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

(E) Sexual Harassment. "Sexual harassment" means any unwelcome sexual advances or requests for sexual favors or any conduct of a sexual nature when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

For purposes of this definition, the phrase "working environment" is not limited to a physical location an employee is assigned to perform his or her duties.

(E-1) Harassment. "Harassment" means any unwelcome conduct on the basis of an individual's actual or perceived race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, unfavorable discharge from military service, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities that has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with the individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. For purposes of this definition, the phrase "working environment" is not limited to a physical location an employee is assigned to perform his or her duties.

(F) Religion. "Religion" with respect to employers includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, unless an employer demonstrates that he is unable to reasonably accommodate an employee's or prospective employee's religious observance or practice without undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.

(G) Public Employer. "Public employer" means the State, an agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(H) Public Employee. "Public employee" means an employee of the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision. "Public employee" does not include public officers or employees of the General Assembly or agencies thereof.

(I) Public Officer. "Public officer" means a person who is elected to office pursuant to the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, or who is appointed to an office which is established, and the qualifications and duties of which are prescribed, by the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, to discharge a public duty for the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school district, instrumentality or political subdivision.

(J) Eligible Bidder. "Eligible bidder" means a person who, prior to contract award or prior to bid opening for State contracts for construction or construction-related services, has filed with the Department a properly completed, sworn and currently valid employer report form, pursuant to the Department's regulations. The provisions of this Article relating to eligible bidders apply only to bids on contracts with the State and its departments, agencies, boards, and commissions, and the provisions do not apply to bids on contracts with units of local government or school districts.

(K) Citizenship Status. "Citizenship status" means the status of being:

(1) a born U.S. citizen;

(2) a naturalized U.S. citizen;

(3) a U.S. national; or

(4) a person born outside the United States and not a U.S. citizen who is lawfully present and who is protected from discrimination under the provisions of Section 1324b of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(L) Work Authorization Status. "Work authorization status" means the status of being a person born outside of the United States, and not a U.S. citizen, who is authorized by the federal government to work in the United States.

(M) Family Responsibilities. "Family responsibilities" means an employee's actual or perceived provision of personal care to a family member. As used in this definition:

(1) "Personal care" has the meaning given to that term in the Employee Sick Leave Act.

(2) "Family member" has the meaning given to the term "covered family member" in the Employee Sick Leave Act.

(N) (M) Artificial Intelligence. "Artificial intelligence" means a machine-based system that, for explicit or implicit objectives, infers, from the input it receives, how to generate outputs such as predictions, content, recommendations, or decisions that can influence physical or virtual environments. "Artificial intelligence" includes generative artificial intelligence.

(O) (N) Generative Artificial Intelligence. "Generative artificial intelligence" means an automated computing system that, when prompted with human prompts, descriptions, or queries, can produce outputs that simulate human-produced content, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) textual outputs, such as short answers, essays, poetry, or longer compositions or answers; (2) image outputs, such as fine art, photographs, conceptual art, diagrams, and other images; (3) multimedia outputs, such as audio or video in the form of compositions, songs, or short-form or long-form audio or video; and (4) other content that would be otherwise produced by human means.

(Source: P.A. 102-233, eff. 8-2-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-797, eff. 1-1-25; 103-804, eff. 1-1-26; revised 11-26-24.)

(775 ILCS 5/2-102)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-804)

Sec. 2-102. Civil rights violations; employment violations - employment. It is a civil rights violation:

(A) Employers. For any employer to refuse to hire, to segregate, to engage in harassment as defined in subsection (E-1) of Section 2-101, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities. An employer is responsible for harassment by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures.

(A-5) Language. For an employer to impose a restriction that has the effect of prohibiting a language from being spoken by an employee in communications that are unrelated to the employee's duties.

For the purposes of this subdivision (A-5), "language" means a person's native tongue, such as Polish, Spanish, or Chinese. "Language" does not include such things as slang, jargon, profanity, or vulgarity.

(A-10) Harassment of nonemployees. For any employer, employment agency, or labor organization to engage in harassment of nonemployees in the workplace. An employer is responsible for harassment of nonemployees by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures. For the purposes of this subdivision (A-10), "nonemployee" means a person who is not otherwise an employee of the employer and is directly performing services for the employer pursuant to a contract with that employer. "Nonemployee" includes contractors and consultants. This subdivision applies to harassment occurring on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-221) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(B) Employment agency. For any employment agency to fail or refuse to classify properly, accept applications and register for employment referral or apprenticeship referral, refer for employment, or refer for apprenticeship on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities or to accept from any person any job order, requisition or request for referral of applicants for employment or apprenticeship which makes or has the effect of making unlawful discrimination or discrimination on the basis of citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities a condition of referral.

(C) Labor organization. For any labor organization to limit, segregate or classify its membership, or to limit employment opportunities, selection and training for apprenticeship in any trade or craft, or otherwise to take, or fail to take, any action which affects adversely any person's status as an employee or as an applicant for employment or as an apprentice, or as an applicant for apprenticeships, or wages, tenure, hours of employment or apprenticeship conditions on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities.

(D) Sexual harassment. For any employer, employee, agent of any employer, employment agency or labor organization to engage in sexual harassment; provided, that an employer shall be responsible for sexual harassment of the employer's employees by nonemployees or nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures.

(D-5) Sexual harassment of nonemployees. For any employer, employee, agent of any employer, employment agency, or labor organization to engage in sexual harassment of nonemployees in the workplace. An employer is responsible for sexual harassment of nonemployees by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures. For the purposes of this subdivision (D-5), "nonemployee" means a person who is not otherwise an employee of the employer and is directly performing services for the employer pursuant to a contract with that employer. "Nonemployee" includes contractors and consultants. This subdivision applies to sexual harassment occurring on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-221) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(E) Public employers. For any public employer to refuse to permit a public employee under its jurisdiction who takes time off from work in order to practice his or her religious beliefs to engage in work, during hours other than such employee's regular working hours, consistent with the operational needs of the employer and in order to compensate for work time lost for such religious reasons. Any employee who elects such deferred work shall be compensated at the wage rate which he or she would have earned during the originally scheduled work period. The employer may require that an employee who plans to take time off from work in order to practice his or her religious beliefs provide the employer with a notice of his or her intention to be absent from work not exceeding 5 days prior to the date of absence.

(E-5) Religious discrimination. For any employer to impose upon a person as a condition of obtaining or retaining employment, including opportunities for promotion, advancement, or transfer, any terms or conditions that would require such person to violate or forgo a sincerely held practice of his or her religion including, but not limited to, the wearing of any attire, clothing, or facial hair in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion, unless, after engaging in a bona fide effort, the employer demonstrates that it is unable to reasonably accommodate the employee's or prospective employee's sincerely held religious belief, practice, or observance without undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.

Nothing in this Section prohibits an employer from enacting a dress code or grooming policy that may include restrictions on attire, clothing, or facial hair to maintain workplace safety or food sanitation.

(F) Training and apprenticeship programs. For any employer, employment agency or labor organization to discriminate against a person on the basis of age in the selection, referral for or conduct of apprenticeship or training programs.

(G) Immigration-related practices.

(1) for an employer to request for purposes of satisfying the requirements of Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now or hereafter amended, more or different documents than are required under such Section or to refuse to honor documents tendered that on their face reasonably appear to be genuine or to refuse to honor work authorization based upon the specific status or term of status that accompanies the authorization to work; or

(2) for an employer participating in the E-Verify Program, as authorized by 8 U.S.C. 1324a, Notes, Pilot Programs for Employment Eligibility Confirmation (enacted by PL 104-208, div. C title IV, subtitle A) to refuse to hire, to segregate, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment without following the procedures under the E-Verify Program.

(H) (Blank).

(I) Pregnancy. For an employer to refuse to hire, to segregate, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth. Women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth shall be treated the same for all employment-related purposes, including receipt of benefits under fringe benefit programs, as other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or inability to work, regardless of the source of the inability to work or employment classification or status.

(J) Pregnancy; reasonable accommodations.

(1) If after a job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, requests a reasonable accommodation, for an employer to not make reasonable accommodations for any medical or common condition of a job applicant or employee related to pregnancy or childbirth, unless the employer can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the ordinary operation of the business of the employer. The employer may request documentation from the employee's health care provider concerning the need for the requested reasonable accommodation or accommodations to the same extent documentation is requested for conditions related to disability if the employer's request for documentation is job-related and consistent with business necessity. The employer may require only the medical justification for the requested accommodation or accommodations, a description of the reasonable accommodation or accommodations medically advisable, the date the reasonable accommodation or accommodations became medically advisable, and the probable duration of the reasonable accommodation or accommodations. It is the duty of the individual seeking a reasonable accommodation or accommodations to submit to the employer any documentation that is requested in accordance with this paragraph. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph, the employer may require documentation by the employee's health care provider to determine compliance with other laws. The employee and employer shall engage in a timely, good faith, and meaningful exchange to determine effective reasonable accommodations.

(2) For an employer to deny employment opportunities or benefits to or take adverse action against an otherwise qualified job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, if the denial or adverse action is based on the need of the employer to make reasonable accommodations to the known medical or common conditions related to the pregnancy or childbirth of the applicant or employee.

(3) For an employer to require a job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to accept an accommodation when the applicant or employee did not request an accommodation and the applicant or employee chooses not to accept the employer's accommodation.

(4) For an employer to require an employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, to take leave under any leave law or policy of the employer if another reasonable accommodation can be provided to the known medical or common conditions related to the pregnancy or childbirth of an employee. No employer shall fail or refuse to reinstate the employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to her original job or to an equivalent position with equivalent pay and accumulated seniority, retirement, fringe benefits, and other applicable service credits upon her signifying her intent to return or when her need for reasonable accommodation ceases, unless the employer can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the ordinary operation of the business of the employer.

For the purposes of this subdivision (J), "reasonable accommodations" means reasonable modifications or adjustments to the job application process or work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position desired or held is customarily performed, that enable an applicant or employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to be considered for the position the applicant desires or to perform the essential functions of that position, and may include, but is not limited to: more frequent or longer bathroom breaks, breaks for increased water intake, and breaks for periodic rest; private non-bathroom space for expressing breast milk and breastfeeding; seating; assistance with manual labor; light duty; temporary transfer to a less strenuous or hazardous position; the provision of an accessible worksite; acquisition or modification of equipment; job restructuring; a part-time or modified work schedule; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials, or policies; reassignment to a vacant position; time off to recover from conditions related to childbirth; and leave necessitated by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions resulting from pregnancy or childbirth.

For the purposes of this subdivision (J), "undue hardship" means an action that is prohibitively expensive or disruptive when considered in light of the following factors: (i) the nature and cost of the accommodation needed; (ii) the overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at the facility, the effect on expenses and resources, or the impact otherwise of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility; (iii) the overall financial resources of the employer, the overall size of the business of the employer with respect to the number of its employees, and the number, type, and location of its facilities; and (iv) the type of operation or operations of the employer, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of the employer, the geographic separateness, administrative, or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the employer. The employer has the burden of proving undue hardship. The fact that the employer provides or would be required to provide a similar accommodation to similarly situated employees creates a rebuttable presumption that the accommodation does not impose an undue hardship on the employer.

No employer is required by this subdivision (J) to create additional employment that the employer would not otherwise have created, unless the employer does so or would do so for other classes of employees who need accommodation. The employer is not required to discharge any employee, transfer any employee with more seniority, or promote any employee who is not qualified to perform the job, unless the employer does so or would do so to accommodate other classes of employees who need it.

(K) Notice.

(1) For an employer to fail to post or keep posted in a conspicuous location on the premises of the employer where notices to employees are customarily posted, or fail to include in any employee handbook information concerning an employee's rights under this Article, a notice, to be prepared or approved by the Department, summarizing the requirements of this Article and information pertaining to the filing of a charge, including the right to be free from unlawful discrimination, the right to be free from sexual harassment, and the right to certain reasonable accommodations. The Department shall make the documents required under this paragraph available for retrieval from the Department's website.

(2) Upon notification of a violation of paragraph (1) of this subdivision (K), the Department may launch a preliminary investigation. If the Department finds a violation, the Department may issue a notice to show cause giving the employer 30 days to correct the violation. If the violation is not corrected, the Department may initiate a charge of a civil rights violation.

(Source: P.A. 102-233, eff. 8-2-21; 103-797, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-7-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-804)

Sec. 2-102. Civil rights violations; employment violations - employment. It is a civil rights violation:

(A) Employers. For any employer to refuse to hire, to segregate, to engage in harassment as defined in subsection (E-1) of Section 2-101, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities. An employer is responsible for harassment by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures.

(A-5) Language. For an employer to impose a restriction that has the effect of prohibiting a language from being spoken by an employee in communications that are unrelated to the employee's duties.

For the purposes of this subdivision (A-5), "language" means a person's native tongue, such as Polish, Spanish, or Chinese. "Language" does not include such things as slang, jargon, profanity, or vulgarity.

(A-10) Harassment of nonemployees. For any employer, employment agency, or labor organization to engage in harassment of nonemployees in the workplace. An employer is responsible for harassment of nonemployees by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures. For the purposes of this subdivision (A-10), "nonemployee" means a person who is not otherwise an employee of the employer and is directly performing services for the employer pursuant to a contract with that employer. "Nonemployee" includes contractors and consultants. This subdivision applies to harassment occurring on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-221) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(B) Employment agency. For any employment agency to fail or refuse to classify properly, accept applications and register for employment referral or apprenticeship referral, refer for employment, or refer for apprenticeship on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities or to accept from any person any job order, requisition or request for referral of applicants for employment or apprenticeship which makes or has the effect of making unlawful discrimination or discrimination on the basis of citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities a condition of referral.

(C) Labor organization. For any labor organization to limit, segregate or classify its membership, or to limit employment opportunities, selection and training for apprenticeship in any trade or craft, or otherwise to take, or fail to take, any action which affects adversely any person's status as an employee or as an applicant for employment or as an apprentice, or as an applicant for apprenticeships, or wages, tenure, hours of employment or apprenticeship conditions on the basis of unlawful discrimination, citizenship status, work authorization status, or family responsibilities.

(D) Sexual harassment. For any employer, employee, agent of any employer, employment agency or labor organization to engage in sexual harassment; provided, that an employer shall be responsible for sexual harassment of the employer's employees by nonemployees or nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures.

(D-5) Sexual harassment of nonemployees. For any employer, employee, agent of any employer, employment agency, or labor organization to engage in sexual harassment of nonemployees in the workplace. An employer is responsible for sexual harassment of nonemployees by the employer's nonmanagerial and nonsupervisory employees only if the employer becomes aware of the conduct and fails to take reasonable corrective measures. For the purposes of this subdivision (D-5), "nonemployee" means a person who is not otherwise an employee of the employer and is directly performing services for the employer pursuant to a contract with that employer. "Nonemployee" includes contractors and consultants. This subdivision applies to sexual harassment occurring on or after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-221) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(E) Public employers. For any public employer to refuse to permit a public employee under its jurisdiction who takes time off from work in order to practice his or her religious beliefs to engage in work, during hours other than such employee's regular working hours, consistent with the operational needs of the employer and in order to compensate for work time lost for such religious reasons. Any employee who elects such deferred work shall be compensated at the wage rate which he or she would have earned during the originally scheduled work period. The employer may require that an employee who plans to take time off from work in order to practice his or her religious beliefs provide the employer with a notice of his or her intention to be absent from work not exceeding 5 days prior to the date of absence.

(E-5) Religious discrimination. For any employer to impose upon a person as a condition of obtaining or retaining employment, including opportunities for promotion, advancement, or transfer, any terms or conditions that would require such person to violate or forgo a sincerely held practice of his or her religion including, but not limited to, the wearing of any attire, clothing, or facial hair in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion, unless, after engaging in a bona fide effort, the employer demonstrates that it is unable to reasonably accommodate the employee's or prospective employee's sincerely held religious belief, practice, or observance without undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.

Nothing in this Section prohibits an employer from enacting a dress code or grooming policy that may include restrictions on attire, clothing, or facial hair to maintain workplace safety or food sanitation.

(F) Training and apprenticeship programs. For any employer, employment agency or labor organization to discriminate against a person on the basis of age in the selection, referral for or conduct of apprenticeship or training programs.

(G) Immigration-related practices.

(1) for an employer to request for purposes of satisfying the requirements of Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now or hereafter amended, more or different documents than are required under such Section or to refuse to honor documents tendered that on their face reasonably appear to be genuine or to refuse to honor work authorization based upon the specific status or term of status that accompanies the authorization to work; or

(2) for an employer participating in the E-Verify Program, as authorized by 8 U.S.C. 1324a, Notes, Pilot Programs for Employment Eligibility Confirmation (enacted by PL 104-208, div. C title IV, subtitle A) to refuse to hire, to segregate, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment without following the procedures under the E-Verify Program.

(H) (Blank).

(I) Pregnancy. For an employer to refuse to hire, to segregate, or to act with respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure or terms, privileges or conditions of employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth. Women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth shall be treated the same for all employment-related purposes, including receipt of benefits under fringe benefit programs, as other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or inability to work, regardless of the source of the inability to work or employment classification or status.

(J) Pregnancy; reasonable accommodations.

(1) If after a job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, requests a reasonable accommodation, for an employer to not make reasonable accommodations for any medical or common condition of a job applicant or employee related to pregnancy or childbirth, unless the employer can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the ordinary operation of the business of the employer. The employer may request documentation from the employee's health care provider concerning the need for the requested reasonable accommodation or accommodations to the same extent documentation is requested for conditions related to disability if the employer's request for documentation is job-related and consistent with business necessity. The employer may require only the medical justification for the requested accommodation or accommodations, a description of the reasonable accommodation or accommodations medically advisable, the date the reasonable accommodation or accommodations became medically advisable, and the probable duration of the reasonable accommodation or accommodations. It is the duty of the individual seeking a reasonable accommodation or accommodations to submit to the employer any documentation that is requested in accordance with this paragraph. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph, the employer may require documentation by the employee's health care provider to determine compliance with other laws. The employee and employer shall engage in a timely, good faith, and meaningful exchange to determine effective reasonable accommodations.

(2) For an employer to deny employment opportunities or benefits to or take adverse action against an otherwise qualified job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, if the denial or adverse action is based on the need of the employer to make reasonable accommodations to the known medical or common conditions related to the pregnancy or childbirth of the applicant or employee.

(3) For an employer to require a job applicant or employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to accept an accommodation when the applicant or employee did not request an accommodation and the applicant or employee chooses not to accept the employer's accommodation.

(4) For an employer to require an employee, including a part-time, full-time, or probationary employee, to take leave under any leave law or policy of the employer if another reasonable accommodation can be provided to the known medical or common conditions related to the pregnancy or childbirth of an employee. No employer shall fail or refuse to reinstate the employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to her original job or to an equivalent position with equivalent pay and accumulated seniority, retirement, fringe benefits, and other applicable service credits upon her signifying her intent to return or when her need for reasonable accommodation ceases, unless the employer can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the ordinary operation of the business of the employer.

For the purposes of this subdivision (J), "reasonable accommodations" means reasonable modifications or adjustments to the job application process or work environment, or to the manner or circumstances under which the position desired or held is customarily performed, that enable an applicant or employee affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth to be considered for the position the applicant desires or to perform the essential functions of that position, and may include, but is not limited to: more frequent or longer bathroom breaks, breaks for increased water intake, and breaks for periodic rest; private non-bathroom space for expressing breast milk and breastfeeding; seating; assistance with manual labor; light duty; temporary transfer to a less strenuous or hazardous position; the provision of an accessible worksite; acquisition or modification of equipment; job restructuring; a part-time or modified work schedule; appropriate adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials, or policies; reassignment to a vacant position; time off to recover from conditions related to childbirth; and leave necessitated by pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions resulting from pregnancy or childbirth.

For the purposes of this subdivision (J), "undue hardship" means an action that is prohibitively expensive or disruptive when considered in light of the following factors: (i) the nature and cost of the accommodation needed; (ii) the overall financial resources of the facility or facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodation, the number of persons employed at the facility, the effect on expenses and resources, or the impact otherwise of the accommodation upon the operation of the facility; (iii) the overall financial resources of the employer, the overall size of the business of the employer with respect to the number of its employees, and the number, type, and location of its facilities; and (iv) the type of operation or operations of the employer, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of the employer, the geographic separateness, administrative, or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities in question to the employer. The employer has the burden of proving undue hardship. The fact that the employer provides or would be required to provide a similar accommodation to similarly situated employees creates a rebuttable presumption that the accommodation does not impose an undue hardship on the employer.

No employer is required by this subdivision (J) to create additional employment that the employer would not otherwise have created, unless the employer does so or would do so for other classes of employees who need accommodation. The employer is not required to discharge any employee, transfer any employee with more seniority, or promote any employee who is not qualified to perform the job, unless the employer does so or would do so to accommodate other classes of employees who need it.

(K) Notice.

(1) For an employer to fail to post or keep posted in a conspicuous location on the premises of the employer where notices to employees are customarily posted, or fail to include in any employee handbook information concerning an employee's rights under this Article, a notice, to be prepared or approved by the Department, summarizing the requirements of this Article and information pertaining to the filing of a charge, including the right to be free from unlawful discrimination, the right to be free from sexual harassment, and the right to certain reasonable accommodations. The Department shall make the documents required under this paragraph available for retrieval from the Department's website.

(2) Upon notification of a violation of paragraph (1) of this subdivision (K), the Department may launch a preliminary investigation. If the Department finds a violation, the Department may issue a notice to show cause giving the employer 30 days to correct the violation. If the violation is not corrected, the Department may initiate a charge of a civil rights violation.

(L) Use of artificial intelligence.

(1) With respect to recruitment, hiring, promotion, renewal of employment, selection for training or apprenticeship, discharge, discipline, tenure, or the terms, privileges, or conditions of employment, for an employer to use artificial intelligence that has the effect of subjecting employees to discrimination on the basis of protected classes under this Article or to use zip codes as a proxy for protected classes under this Article.

(2) For an employer to fail to provide notice to an employee that the employer is using artificial intelligence for the purposes described in paragraph (1).

The Department shall adopt any rules necessary for the implementation and enforcement of this subdivision, including, but not limited to, rules on the circumstances and conditions that require notice, the time period for providing notice, and the means for providing notice.

(Source: P.A. 102-233, eff. 8-2-21; 103-797, eff. 1-1-25; 103-804, eff. 1-1-26; revised 11-26-24.)

(775 ILCS 5/2-108)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2030)

Sec. 2-108. Employer disclosure requirements.

(A) Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly to this Section:

(1) "Employer" means:

(a) any person employing one or more employees within this State;

(b) a labor organization; or

(c) the State and any political subdivision, municipal corporation, or other governmental unit or agency, without regard to the number of employees.

(2) "Settlement" means any written commitment or written agreement, including any agreed judgment, stipulation, decree, agreement to settle, assurance of discontinuance, or otherwise between an employee, as defined by subsection (A) of Section 2-101, or a nonemployee to whom an employer owes a duty under this Act pursuant to subsection (A-10) or (D-5) of Section 2-102, and an employer under which the employer directly or indirectly provides to an individual compensation or other consideration due to an allegation that the individual has been a victim of sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination under this Act.

(3) "Adverse judgment or administrative ruling" means any final and non-appealable adverse judgment or final and non-appealable administrative ruling entered in favor of an employee as defined by subsection (A) of Section 2-101 or a nonemployee to whom an employer owes a duty under this Act pursuant to subsection (A-10) or (D-5) of Section 2-102, and against the employer during the preceding year in which there was a finding of sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination brought under this Act, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, or any other federal, State, or local law prohibiting sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination.

(B) Required disclosures. Beginning July 1, 2020, and by each July 1 thereafter, each employer that had an adverse judgment or administrative ruling against it in the preceding calendar year, as provided in this Section, shall disclose annually to the Department of Human Rights the following information:

(1) the total number of adverse judgments or administrative rulings during the preceding year;

(2) whether any equitable relief was ordered against the employer in any adverse judgment or administrative ruling described in paragraph (1);

(3) how many adverse judgments or administrative rulings described in paragraph (1) are in each of the following categories:

(a) sexual harassment;

(b) discrimination or harassment on the basis of sex;

(c) discrimination or harassment on the basis of race, color, or national origin;

(d) discrimination or harassment on the basis of religion;

(e) discrimination or harassment on the basis of age;

(f) discrimination or harassment on the basis of disability;

(g) discrimination or harassment on the basis of military status or unfavorable discharge from military status;

(h) discrimination or harassment on the basis of sexual orientation or gender identity; and

(i) discrimination or harassment on the basis of any other characteristic protected under this Act.

(C) Settlements. If the Department is investigating a charge filed pursuant to this Act, the Department may request the employer responding to the charge to submit the total number of settlements entered into during the preceding 5 years, or less at the direction of the Department, that relate to any alleged act of sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination that:

(1) occurred in the workplace of the employer; or

(2) involved the behavior of an employee of the employer or a corporate executive of the employer, without regard to whether that behavior occurred in the workplace of the employer.

The total number of settlements entered into during the requested period shall be reported along with how many settlements are in each of the following categories, when requested by the Department pursuant to this subsection:

(a) sexual harassment;

(b) discrimination or harassment on the basis of sex;

(c) discrimination or harassment on the basis of race, color, or national origin;

(d) discrimination or harassment on the basis of religion;

(e) discrimination or harassment on the basis of age;

(f) discrimination or harassment on the basis of disability;

(g) discrimination or harassment on the basis of military status or unfavorable discharge from military status;

(h) discrimination or harassment on the basis of sexual orientation or gender identity; and

(i) discrimination or harassment on the basis of any other characteristic protected under this Act. ;

The Department shall not rely on the existence of any settlement agreement to support a finding of substantial evidence under this Act.

(D) Prohibited disclosures. An employer may not disclose the name of a victim of an act of alleged sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination in any disclosures required under this Section.

(E) Annual report. The Department shall publish an annual report aggregating the information reported by employers under subsection (B) of this Section such that no individual employer data is available to the public. The report shall include the number of adverse judgments or administrative rulings filed during the preceding calendar year based on each of the protected classes identified by this Act.

The report shall be filed with the General Assembly and made available to the public by December 31 of each reporting year. Data submitted by an employer to comply with this Section is confidential and exempt from the Freedom of Information Act.

(F) Failure to report and penalties. If an employer fails to make any disclosures required under this Section, the Department shall issue a notice to show cause giving the employer 30 days to disclose the required information. If the employer does not make the required disclosures within 30 days, the Department shall petition the Illinois Human Rights Commission for entry of an order imposing a civil penalty against the employer pursuant to Section 8-109.1. The civil penalty shall be paid into the Department of Human Rights' Training and Development Fund.

(G) Rules. The Department shall adopt any rules it deems necessary for implementation of this Section.

(H) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2030.

(Source: P.A. 101-221, eff. 1-1-20; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 7-24-24.)

(775 ILCS 5/3-106) (from Ch. 68, par. 3-106)

Sec. 3-106. Exemptions. Nothing contained in Section 3-102 shall prohibit:

(A) Private Sales of Single Family Homes.

(1) Any sale of a single family home by its owner so long as the following criteria are met:

(a) The owner does not own or have a beneficial interest in more than 3 single family homes at the time of the sale;

(b) The owner or a member of the owner's family was the last current resident of the home;

(c) The home is sold without the use in any manner of the sales or rental facilities or services of any real estate broker or salesman, or of any employee or agent of any real estate broker or salesman;

(d) The home is sold without the publication, posting or mailing, after notice, of any advertisement or written notice in violation of paragraph (F) of Section 3-102.

(2) This exemption does not apply to paragraph (F) of Section 3-102.

(B) Apartments. Rental of a housing accommodation in a building which contains housing accommodations for not more than 4 families living independently of each other, if the owner resides in one of the housing accommodations. This exemption does not apply to paragraph (F) of Section 3-102.

(C) Private Rooms. Rental of a room or rooms in a private home by an owner if the owner or a member of the owner's family resides therein or, while absent for a period of not more than 12 months, if the owner or a member of the owner's family intends to return to reside therein. This exemption does not apply to paragraph (F) of Section 3-102.

(D) Reasonable local, State, or federal Federal restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy a dwelling.

(E) Religious Organizations. A religious organization, association, or society, or any nonprofit institution or organization operated, supervised, or controlled by or in conjunction with a religious organization, association, or society, from limiting the sale, rental, or occupancy of a dwelling which it owns or operates for other than a commercial purpose to persons of the same religion, or from giving preference to such persons, unless membership in such religion is restricted on account of race, color, or national origin.

(F) Sex. Restricting the rental of rooms in a housing accommodation to persons of one sex.

(G) Persons Convicted of Drug-Related Offenses. Conduct against a person because such person has been convicted by any court of competent jurisdiction of the illegal manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).

(H) Persons engaged in the business of furnishing appraisals of real property from taking into consideration factors other than those based on unlawful discrimination or familial status or source of income in furnishing appraisals.

(H-1) The owner of an owner-occupied residential building with 4 or fewer units (including the unit in which the owner resides) from making decisions regarding whether to rent to a person based upon that person's sexual orientation.

(I) Housing for Older Persons. No provision in this Article regarding familial status shall apply with respect to housing for older persons.

(1) As used in this Section, "housing for older persons" means housing:

(a) provided under any State or federal Federal program that the Department determines is specifically designed and operated to assist elderly persons (as defined in the State or federal Federal program); or

(b) intended for, and solely occupied by, persons 62 years of age or older; or

(c) intended and operated for occupancy by persons 55 years of age or older and:

(i) at least 80% of the occupied units are occupied by at least one person who is 55 years of age or older;

(ii) the housing facility or community publishes and adheres to policies and procedures that demonstrate the intent required under this subparagraph subdivision (c); and

(iii) the housing facility or community complies with rules adopted by the Department for verification of occupancy, which shall:

(aa) provide for verification by reliable surveys and affidavits; and

(bb) include examples of the types of policies and procedures relevant to a determination of compliance with the requirement of clause (ii).

These surveys and affidavits shall be admissible in administrative and judicial proceedings for the purposes of such verification.

(2) Housing shall not fail to meet the requirements for housing for older persons by reason of:

(a) persons residing in such housing as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989 who do not meet the age requirements of subparagraph subsections (1)(b) or (c); provided, that new occupants of such housing meet the age requirements of subparagraph subsections (1)(b) or (c) of this subsection; or

(b) unoccupied units; provided, that such units are reserved for occupancy by persons who meet the age requirements of subparagraph subsections (1)(b) or (c) of this subsection.

(3)(a) A person shall not be held personally liable for monetary damages for a violation of this Article if the person reasonably relied, in good faith, on the application of the exemption under this subsection (I) relating to housing for older persons.

(b) For the purposes of this paragraph item (3), a person may show good faith reliance on the application of the exemption only by showing that:

(i) the person has no actual knowledge that the facility or community is not, or will not be, eligible for the exemption; and

(ii) the facility or community has stated formally, in writing, that the facility or community complies with the requirements for the exemption.

(J) Child Sex Offender Refusal to Rent. Refusal of a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to rent any residential unit within the same building in which the child sex offender resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age.

(K) Arrest Records. Inquiry into or the use of an arrest record if the inquiry or use is otherwise authorized by State or federal law.

(L) Financial Institutions. A financial institution as defined in Article 4 from considering source of income or immigration status in a real estate transaction in compliance with State or federal law.

(M) Immigration Status. Inquiry into or the use of immigration status if the inquiry or use is in compliance with State or federal law.

(Source: P.A. 102-896, eff. 1-1-23; 103-232, eff. 1-1-24; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1185. The Consumer Legal Funding Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 121/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Advertise" means publishing or disseminating any written, electronic, or printed communication, or any communication by means of recorded telephone messages or transmitted on radio, television, the Internet, or similar communications media, including film strips, motion pictures, and videos, published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public, directly or indirectly, for the purpose of inducing a consumer to enter into a consumer legal funding.

"Charges" means the fees, as set forth in Section 25, to be paid to the consumer legal funding company by or on behalf of the consumer above the funded amount provided by or on behalf of the company to an Illinois consumer pursuant to this Act.

"Consumer" means a natural person who has a pending legal claim and who resides or is domiciled in Illinois.

"Consumer legal funding" or "funding" means a nonrecourse transaction in which a company purchases and a consumer transfers to the company an unvested, contingent future interest in the potential net proceeds of a settlement or judgment obtained from the consumer's legal claim; and in which, if no proceeds are obtained from the consumer's legal claim, the consumer is not required to repay the company the consumer legal funding amount or charges.

"Consumer legal funding company" or "company" means a person or entity that enters into, purchases, or services a consumer legal funding transaction with an Illinois consumer. "Consumer legal funding company" does not include:

(1) an immediate family member of the consumer;

(2) a bank, lender, financing entity, or other special purpose entity:

(A) that provides financing to a consumer legal funding company; or

(B) to which a consumer legal funding company grants a security interest or transfers any rights or interest in a consumer legal funding; or

(3) an attorney or accountant who provides services to a consumer.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Funded amount" means the amount of moneys provided to, or on behalf of, the consumer in the consumer legal funding. "Funded amount" does not include charges except for charges that are deducted from the funded amount.

"Funding date" means the date on which the funded amount is transferred to the consumer by the consumer legal funding company either by personal delivery; via wire, ACH, or other electronic means; or mailed by insured, certified, or registered United States mail.

"Immediate family member" means a parent; sibling; child by blood, adoption, or marriage; spouse; grandparent; or grandchild.

"Legal claim" means a bona fide civil claim or cause of action.

"Resolution amount" means the funded amount plus the agreed-upon charges that are delivered to the consumer legal funding company on the resolution date.

"Resolution date" means the date the resolution amount is delivered to the consumer legal funding company.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Secretary's designee.

(Source: P.A. 102-987, eff. 5-27-22; 103-974, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1190. The Interchange Fee Prohibition Act is amended by changing Section 150-1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 151/150-1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 150-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the Interchange Fee Prohibition Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 103-592, eff. 7-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1195. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2BBBB and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2EEEE as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2BBBB)

Sec. 2BBBB. Deceptive practices related to limited services pregnancy centers.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of an individual known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

"Affiliates" has the meaning given to the term "hospital affiliate" as defined in subsection (b) of Section 10.8 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Emergency contraception" means one or more prescription drugs (i) used separately or in combination for the purpose of preventing pregnancy, (ii) administered to or self-administered by a patient within a medically recommended amount of time after sexual intercourse, and (iii) dispensed for such purpose in accordance with professional standards of practice.

"Limited services pregnancy center" means an organization or facility, including a mobile facility, that:

(1) does not directly provide abortions or provide or prescribe emergency contraception, or provide referrals for abortions or emergency contraception, and has no affiliation with any organization or provider who provides abortions or provides or prescribes emergency contraception; and

(2) has a primary purpose to offer or provide pregnancy-related services to an individual who is or has reason to believe the individual may be pregnant, whether or not a fee is charged for such services. "Limited services pregnancy center" does not include:

(1) a health care professional licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation;

(2) a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and its affiliates; or

(3) a hospital licensed under the University of Illinois Hospital Act and its affiliates. "Limited services pregnancy center" includes an organization or facility that has employees, volunteers, or agents who are health care professionals licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Pregnancy-related services" means any medical service, or health counseling service, related to the prevention, preservation, or termination of pregnancy, including, but not limited to, contraception and contraceptive counseling, pregnancy testing, pregnancy diagnosis, pregnancy options counseling, limited obstetric ultrasound, obstetric ultrasound, obstetric sonogram, sexually transmitted infections testing, and prenatal care.

(b) A limited services pregnancy center shall not engage in unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive acts or practices, including the use or employment of any deception, fraud, false pretense, false promise, or misrepresentation, or the concealment, suppression, or omission of any material fact, with the intent that others rely upon the concealment, suppression, or omission of such material fact:

(1) to interfere with or prevent an individual from seeking to gain entry or access to a provider of abortion or emergency contraception;

(2) to induce an individual to enter or access the limited services pregnancy center;

(3) in advertising, soliciting, or otherwise offering pregnancy-related services; or

(4) in conducting, providing, or performing pregnancy-related services.

(c) A violation of this Section constitutes a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-270, eff. 7-27-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(815 ILCS 505/2EEEE)

Sec. 2EEEE. Credit reporting; medical debt.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Collection action" means any referral of a bill to a collection agency or law firm to collect payment for services from a consumer for health care services.

"Collection agency" means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate, co-operative, association, government or government subdivision, agency, or other entity that either purchases medical debt or collects medical debt on behalf of another entity.

"Consumer report" and or "credit report" have the meaning ascribed to the term "consumer report" under 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to that term in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).

"Medical debt" means a debt arising from the receipt of health care services, products, or devices.

"Medical debt" does not include debt charged to a credit card or an open-end or close-end extension of credit made by a financial institution to a borrower unless the open-end or close-end extension of credit may be used by the borrower solely for the purpose of the purchase of health care services.

(b) It is an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act for a consumer reporting agency:

(1) to make, create, or furnish any consumer report or credit report containing, incorporating, or reflecting any adverse information that the consumer reporting agency knows or should know relates to medical debt incurred by the consumer or a collection action against the consumer to collect medical debt; and

(2) to maintain in the file on a consumer any information relating to medical debt incurred by a consumer or a collection action against the consumer to collect medical debt.

(Source: P.A. 103-648, eff. 1-1-25.)

(815 ILCS 505/2FFFF)

Sec. 2FFFF 2BBBB. Violations of the Pawnbroker Regulation Act of 2023. Any person who violates Article 15 of the Pawnbroker Regulation Act of 2023 commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-585, eff. 3-22-24; revised 9-25-24.)

(815 ILCS 505/2GGGG)

Sec. 2GGGG 2EEEE. Violations concerning teledentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. Any person who violates Section 17.2 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-902, eff. 8-9-24; revised 9-25-24.)

Section 1200. The Digital Voice and Likeness Protection Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 550/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Artificial intelligence" means a machine-based system that, for explicit or implicit objectives, infers, from the input it receives, how to generate outputs such as predictions, content, recommendations, or decisions that can influence physical or virtual environments. "Artificial intelligence" includes generative artificial intelligence.

"Digital replica" means a newly created, electronic representation of the identity of an actual individual created using a computer, algorithm, software, tool, artificial intelligence, or other technology that is fixed in a sound recording or audiovisual work in which that individual did not actually perform or appear and that is so realistic that a reasonable observer would believe it is a performance by the individual being portrayed and no other individual.

"Generative artificial intelligence" means an automated computing system that, when prompted with human prompts, descriptions, or queries, can produce outputs that simulate human-produced content, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) textual outputs, such as short answers, essays, poetry, or longer compositions or answers;

(2) image outputs, such as fine art, photographs, conceptual art, diagrams, and other images;

(3) multimedia outputs, such as audio or video in the form of compositions, songs, or short-form or long-form audio or video; and

(4) other content that would be otherwise produced by human means.

(Source: P.A. 103-830, eff. 8-9-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1205. The Worker Freedom of Speech Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(820 ILCS 57/35)

Sec. 35. Exceptions. Nothing in this Act:

(1) prohibits communications of information that the employer is required by law to communicate, but only to the extent of the lawful requirement;

(2) limits the rights of an employer or its agent, representative, or designee to conduct meetings involving religious matters or political matters, so long as attendance is voluntary, or to engage in communications, so long as receipt or listening is voluntary;

(3) limits the rights of an employer or its agent, representative, or designee from communicating to its employees any information that is necessary for the employees to perform their required job duties;

(4) prohibits prohibit an employer or its agent, representative, or designee from requiring its employees to attend any training intended to foster a civil and collaborative workplace or reduce or prevent workplace harassment or discrimination;

(5) prohibits an institution of higher education, or any agent, representative, or designee of the institution, from conducting meetings or participating in any communications with its employees concerning any coursework, symposia, research, publication, or an academic program at the institution;

(6) prohibits a political organization, a political party organization, a caucus organization, a candidate's political organization, or a not-for-profit organization that is exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(4), 501(c)(5), or 501(c)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code from requiring its staff or employees to attend an employer-sponsored meeting or participate in any communication with the employer or the employer's agent, representative or designee for the purpose of communicating the employer's political tenets or purposes;

(7) prohibits the General Assembly or a State or local legislative or regulatory body from requiring its their employees to attend an employer-sponsored meeting or participate in any communication with the employer or the employer's agent, representative, or designee for the purpose of communicating the employer's proposals to change legislation, proposals to change regulations, or proposals to change public policy; or

(8) prohibits a religious organization from requiring its employees to attend an employer-sponsored meeting or participate in any communication with the employer or the employer's agent, representative, or designee for the purpose of communicating the employer's religious beliefs, practices, or tenets.

(Source: P.A. 103-722, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1210. The Illinois Freedom to Work Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 90/10)

Sec. 10. Prohibiting covenants not to compete and covenants not to solicit.

(a) No employer shall enter into a covenant not to compete with any employee unless the employee's actual or expected annualized rate of earnings exceeds $75,000 per year. This amount shall increase to $80,000 per year beginning on January 1, 2027, $85,000 per year beginning on January 1, 2032, and $90,000 per year beginning on January 1, 2037. A covenant not to compete entered into in violation of this subsection is void and unenforceable.

(b) No employer shall enter into a covenant not to solicit with any employee unless the employee's actual or expected annualized rate of earnings exceeds $45,000 per year. This amount shall increase to $47,500 per year beginning on January 1, 2027, $50,000 per year beginning on January 1, 2032, and $52,500 per year beginning on January 1, 2037. A covenant not to solicit entered into in violation of this subsection is void and unenforceable.

(c) No employer shall enter into a covenant not to compete or a covenant not to solicit with any employee who an employer terminates or furloughs or lays off as the result of business circumstances or governmental orders related to the COVID-19 pandemic or under circumstances that are similar to the COVID-19 pandemic, unless enforcement of the covenant not to compete includes compensation equivalent to the employee's base salary at the time of termination for the period of enforcement minus compensation earned through subsequent employment during the period of enforcement. A covenant not to compete or a covenant not to solicit entered into in violation of this subsection is void and unenforceable.

(d) A covenant not to compete is void and illegal with respect to individuals covered by a collective bargaining agreement under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(e) A covenant not to compete or a covenant not to solicit is void and illegal with respect to individuals employed in construction, regardless of whether an individual is covered by a collective bargaining agreement. This subsection (e) does not apply to construction employees who primarily perform management, engineering or architectural, design, or sales functions for the employer or who are shareholders, partners, or owners in any capacity of the employer.

(f) (e) Any covenant not to compete or covenant not to solicit entered into after January 1, 2025 (the effective date of Public Act 103-915) this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall not be enforceable with respect to the provision of mental health services to veterans and first responders by any licensed mental health professional in this State if the enforcement of the covenant not to compete or covenant not to solicit is likely to result in an increase in cost or difficulty for any veteran or first responder seeking mental health services.

For the purpose of this subsection:

"First responders" means emergency medical services personnel, as defined in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, firefighters, and law enforcement officers.

"Licensed mental health professional" means a person licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Nurse Practice Act, or the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-358, eff. 1-1-22; 103-915, eff. 1-1-25; 103-921, eff. 1-1-25; revised 11-26-24.)

Section 1215. The Victims' Economic Security and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(820 ILCS 180/35)

Sec. 35. Enforcement.

(a) Department of Labor.

(1) The Director or his or her authorized representative shall administer and enforce the provisions of this Act. Any employee or a representative of employees who believes his or her rights under this Act have been violated may, within 3 years after the alleged violation occurs, file a complaint with the Department requesting a review of the alleged violation. A copy of the complaint shall be sent to the person who allegedly committed the violation, who shall be the respondent. Upon receipt of a complaint, the Director shall cause such investigation to be made as he or she deems appropriate. The investigation shall provide an opportunity for a public hearing at the request of any party to the review to enable the parties to present information relating to the alleged violation allegation. The parties shall be given written notice of the time and place of the hearing at least 7 days before the hearing. Upon receiving the report of the investigation, the Director shall make findings of fact. If the Director finds that a violation did occur, he or she shall issue a decision incorporating his or her findings and requiring the party committing the violation to take such affirmative action to abate the violation as the Director deems appropriate, including:

(A) damages equal to the amount of wages, salary, employment benefits, public assistance, or other compensation denied or lost to such individual by reason of the violation, and the interest on that amount calculated at the prevailing rate;

(B) such equitable relief as may be appropriate, including, but not limited to, hiring, reinstatement, promotion, and reasonable accommodations; and

(C) reasonable attorney's fees, reasonable expert witness fees, and other costs of the action to be paid by the respondent to a prevailing employee.

If the Director finds that there was no violation, he or she shall issue an order denying the complaint. An order issued by the Director under this Section shall be final and subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(2) The Director shall adopt rules necessary to administer and enforce this Act in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Director shall have the powers and the parties shall have the rights provided in the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for contested cases, including, but not limited to, provisions for depositions, subpoena power and procedures, and discovery and protective order procedures.

(3) Intervention. The Attorney General of Illinois may intervene on behalf of the Department if the Department certifies that the case is of general public importance. Upon such intervention the court may award such relief as is authorized to be granted to an employee who has filed a complaint or whose representative has filed a complaint under this Section.

(b) Refusal to pay damages. Any employer who has been ordered by the Director of Labor or the court to pay damages under this Section and who fails to do so within 30 days after the order is entered is liable to pay a penalty of 1% per calendar day to the employee for each day of delay in paying the damages to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 93-591, eff. 8-25-03; revised 7-23-24.)

Section 1220. The Paid Leave for All Workers Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(820 ILCS 192/15)

Sec. 15. Provision of paid leave.

(a) An employee who works in Illinois is entitled to earn and use up to a minimum of 40 hours of paid leave during a 12-month period or a pro rata number of hours of paid leave under the provisions of subsection (b). The paid leave may be used by the employee for any purpose as long as the paid leave is taken in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(b) Paid leave under this Act shall accrue at the rate of one hour of paid leave for every 40 hours worked up to a minimum of 40 hours of paid leave or such greater amount if the employer provides more than 40 hours. Employees who are exempt from the overtime requirements of the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 213(a)(1)) shall be deemed to work 40 hours in each workweek for purposes of paid leave accrual unless their regular workweek is less than 40 hours, in which case paid leave accrues based on that regular workweek. Employees shall determine how much paid leave they need to use; , however, employers may set a reasonable minimum increment for the use of paid leave not to exceed 2 hours per day. If an employee's scheduled workday is less than 2 hours per day, the employee's scheduled workday shall be used to determine the amount of paid leave.

(c) An employer may make available the minimum number of hours of paid leave, subject to pro rata requirements provided in subsection (b), to an employee on the first day of employment or the first day of the 12-month period. Employers that provide the minimum number of hours of paid leave to an employee on the first day of employment or the first day of the 12-month period are not required to carry over carryover paid leave from 12-month period to 12-month period and may require employees to use all paid leave prior to the end of the benefit period or forfeit the unused paid leave. However, under no circumstances shall an employee be credited with paid leave that is less than what the employee would have accrued under subsections (a) and (g) of this Section.

(d) The 12-month period may be any consecutive 12-month period designated by the employer in writing at the time of hire. Changes to the 12-month period may be made by the employer if notice is given to employees in writing prior to the change and the change does not reduce the eligible accrual rate and paid leave available to the employee. If the employer changes the designated 12-month period, the employer shall provide the employee with documentation of the balance of hours worked, paid leave accrued and taken, and the remaining paid leave balance.

(e) Paid leave under this Act may be taken by an employee for any reason of the employee's choosing. An employee is not required to provide an employer a reason for the leave and may not be required to provide documentation or certification as proof or in support of the leave. An employee may choose whether to use paid leave provided under this Act prior to using any other leave provided by the employer or State law.

(f) Employees shall be paid their hourly rate of pay for paid leave. However, employees engaged in an occupation in which gratuities or commissions have customarily and usually constituted and have been recognized as part of the remuneration for hire purposes shall be paid by their employer at least the full minimum wage in the jurisdiction in which they are employed when paid leave is taken. This wage shall be treated as the employee's regular rate of pay for purposes of this Act.

(g) Paid leave under this Act shall begin to accrue at the commencement of employment or on the effective date of this Act, whichever is later. Employees shall be entitled to begin using paid leave 90 days following commencement of their employment or 90 days following the effective date of this Act, whichever is later.

(h) Paid leave under this Act shall be provided upon the oral or written request of an employee in accordance with the employer's reasonable paid leave policy notification requirements which may include the following:

(1) If use of paid leave under this Act is foreseeable, the employer may require the employee to provide 7 calendar days' notice before the date the leave is to begin.

(2) If paid leave under this Act is not foreseeable, the employee shall provide such notice as soon as is practicable after the employee is aware of the necessity of the leave. An employer that requires notice of paid leave under this Act when the leave is not foreseeable shall provide a written policy that contains procedures for the employee to provide notice.

(3) Employers shall provide employees with written notice of the paid leave policy notification requirements in this Section in the manner provided in Section 20 for notice and posting and within 5 calendar days of any change to the employer's reasonable paid leave policy notification requirements.

(4) An employer may not require, as a condition of providing paid leave under this Act, that the employee search for or find a replacement worker to cover the hours during which the employee takes paid leave.

(i) Except as provided in subsection (c), paid leave under this Act shall carry over annually to the extent not used by the employee, provided that nothing in this Act shall be construed to require an employer to provide more than 40 hours of paid leave for an employee in the 12-month period unless the employer agrees to do so.

(j) Nothing in this Section or any other Illinois law or rule shall be construed as requiring financial or other payment to an employee from an employer upon the employee's termination, resignation, retirement, or other separation from employment for paid leave accrued under this Act that has not been used. Nothing in this Section or any other Illinois law or rule shall be construed as requiring financial or other reimbursements to an employee from an employer for unused paid leave under this Act at the end of the benefit year or any other time.

(k) If an employee is transferred to a separate division, entity, or location, but remains employed by the same employer, the employee is entitled to all paid leave accrued at the prior division, entity, or location and is entitled to use all paid leave as provided in this Section. If there is a separation from employment and the employee is rehired within 12 months of separation by the same employer, previously accrued paid leave that had not been used by the employee shall be reinstated. The employee shall be entitled to use accrued paid leave at the commencement of employment following a separation from employment of 12 months or less.

(l) Paid leave under this Act shall not be charged or otherwise credited to an employee's paid time off bank or employee account unless the employer's policy permits such a credit. If the paid leave under this Act is credited to an employee's paid time off bank or employee vacation account then any unused paid leave shall be paid to the employee upon the employee's termination, resignation, retirement, or other separation to the same extent as vacation time under existing Illinois law or rule. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to waive or otherwise limit an employee's right to final compensation for promised and earned, but unpaid vacation time or paid time off, as provided under the Illinois Wage Payment and Collection Act and rules. Employers shall provide employees with written notice of changes to the employer's vacation time, paid time off, or other paid leave policies that affect an employee's right to final compensation for such leave.

(m) During any period an employee takes leave under this Act, the employer shall maintain coverage for the employee and any family member under any group health plan for the duration of such leave at no less than the level and conditions of coverage that would have been provided if the employee had not taken the leave. The employer shall notify the employee that the employee is still responsible for paying the employee's share of the cost of the health care coverage, if any.

(n) Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to interfere with, impede, or in any way diminish the right of employees to bargain collectively with their employers through representatives of their own choosing in order to establish wages or other conditions of work in excess of the applicable minimum standards established in this Act. The paid leave requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms.

Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to affect the validity or change the terms of bona fide collective bargaining agreements in effect on January 1, 2024. After that date, requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms.

In no event shall this Act apply to any employee working in the construction industry who is covered by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, nor shall this Act apply to any employee who is covered by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement with an employer that provides services nationally and internationally of delivery, pickup, and transportation of parcels, documents, and freight.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, nothing in this Act shall be deemed to affect the validity or change the terms of a bona fide collective bargaining agreement applying to an employee who is employed by a State agency that is in effect on July 1, 2024. After that date, requirements of this Act may be waived in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement, but only if the waiver is set forth explicitly in such agreement in clear and unambiguous terms. As used in this subsection, "State agency" has the same meaning as set forth in Section 4 of the Forms Notice Act.

(o) An agreement by an employee to waive his or her rights under this Act is void as against public policy.

(p) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to any employer that is covered by a municipal or county ordinance that is in effect on the effective date of this Act that requires employers to give any form of paid leave to their employees, including paid sick leave or paid leave. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, any employer that is not required to provide paid leave to its employees, including paid sick leave or paid leave, under a municipal or county ordinance that is in effect on the effective date of this Act shall be subject to the provisions of this Act if the employer would be required to provide paid leave under this Act to its employees.

Any local ordinance that provides paid leave, including paid sick leave or paid leave, enacted or amended after the effective date of this Act must comply with the requirements of this Act or provide benefits, rights, and remedies that are greater than or equal to the benefits, rights, and remedies afforded under this Act.

An employer in a municipality or county that enacts or amends a local ordinance that provides paid leave, including paid sick leave or paid leave, after the effective date of this Act shall only comply with the local ordinance or ordinances so long as the benefits, rights, and remedies are greater than or equal to the benefits, rights, and remedies afforded under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-1143, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24; revised 10-23-24.)

Section 1225. The Child Labor Law of 2024 is amended by changing Sections 35 and 55 as follows:

(820 ILCS 206/35)

Sec. 35. Employer requirements.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person to employ, allow, or permit any minor to work unless the minor obtains an employment certificate authorizing the minor to work for that person. Any person seeking to employ, allow, or permit any minor to work shall provide that minor with a notice of intention to employ to be submitted by the minor to the minor's school issuing officer with the minor's application for an employment certificate.

(b) Every employer of one or more minors shall maintain, on the premises where the work is being done, records that include the name, date of birth, and place of residence of every minor who works for that employer, notice of intention to employ the minor, and the minor's employment certificate. Authorized officers and employees of the Department, truant officers, and other school officials charged with the enforcement of school attendance requirements described in Section 26-1 of the School Code may inspect the records without notice at any time.

(c) Every employer of minors shall ensure that all minors are supervised by an adult 21 years of age or older, on site, at all times while the minor is working.

(d) No person shall employ, allow, or permit any minor to work for more than 5 hours continuously without an interval of at least 30 minutes for a meal period. No period of less than 30 minutes shall be deemed to interrupt a continuous period of work.

(e) Every employer who employs one or more minors shall post in a conspicuous place where minors are employed, allowed, or permitted to work, a notice summarizing the requirements of this Act, including a list of the occupations prohibited to minors and the Department's toll free telephone number described in Section 85. An employer with employees who do not regularly report to a physical workplace, such as employees who work remotely or travel for work, shall also provide the summary and notice by email to its employees or conspicuous posting on the employer's website or intranet site, if the site is regularly used by the employer to communicate work-related information to employees and is able to be regularly accessed by all employees, freely and without interference. The notice shall be furnished by the Department.

(f) Every employer, during the period of employment of a minor and for 3 years thereafter, shall keep on file, at the place of employment, a copy of the employment certificate issued for the minor. An employment certificate shall be valid only for the employer for whom it was issued and a new certificate shall not be issued for the employment of a minor except on the presentation of a new statement of intention to employ the minor. The failure of any employer to produce for inspection the employment certificate for each minor in the employer's establishment shall be a violation of this Act. The Department may specify any other record keeping requirements by rule.

(g) In the event of the work-related death of a minor engaged in work subject to this Act, the employer shall, within 24 hours, report the death to the Department and to the school official who issued the minor's work certificate for that employer. In the event of a work-related injury or illness of a minor that requires the employer to file a report with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under Section 6 of the Workers' Compensation Act or Section 6 of the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, the employer shall submit a copy of the report to the Department and to the school official who issued the minor's work certificate for that employer within 72 hours of the deadline by which the employer must file the report to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission. The report shall be subject to the confidentiality provisions of Section 6 of the Workers' Compensation Act or Section 6 of the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-721, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-1-24.)

(820 ILCS 206/55)

Sec. 55. Employment certificates.

(a) Any employer who employs, allows, or permits a minor to work shall ensure that the minor holds a valid employment certificate issued by a school issuing officer.

(b) An application for an employment certificate must be submitted by the minor and the minor's parent or legal guardian to the minor's school issuing officer as follows.

(1) The application shall be signed by the applicant's parent or legal guardian.

(2) The application shall be submitted in person by the minor desiring employment, unless the school issuing officer determines that the minor may utilize a remote application process.

(3) The minor shall be accompanied by his or her parent, guardian, or custodian, whether applying in person or remotely.

(4) The following papers shall be submitted with the application:

(A) A statement of intention to employ signed by the prospective employer, or by someone duly authorized by the prospective employer, setting forth the specific nature of the occupation in which the prospective employer intends to employ the minor and the exact hours of the day and number of hours per day and days per week during which the minor shall be employed.

(B) Evidence of age showing that the minor is of the age required by this Act, which evidence shall be documentary, and shall be required in the order designated, as follows:

(i) a birth certificate; or

(ii) if a birth certificate is unavailable, the parent or legal guardian may present other reliable proof of the minor's identity and age that is supported by a sworn statement explaining why the birth certificate is not available. Other reliable proof of the minor's identity and age includes a passport, visa, or other governmental documentation of the minor's identity. If the student was not born in the United States, the school issuing officer must accept birth certificates or other reliable proof from a foreign government.

(C) A statement on a form approved by the Department and signed by the school issuing officer, showing the minor's name, address, grade last completed, the hours the minor's school is in session, and other relevant information, as determined by the school issuing officer, about the minor's school schedule, and the names of the minor's parent or legal guardian. If any of the information required to be on the work permit changes, the issuing officer must update the work permit and provide an updated copy to the Department, the minor's employer, and the minor's parent or legal guardian. If the minor does not have a permanent home address or is otherwise eligible for services under the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, the lack of a birth certificate or permanent home address alone shall not be a barrier to receiving an employment certificate.

(D) A statement of physical fitness signed by a health care professional who has examined the minor, certifying that the minor is physically fit to be employed in all legal occupations or to be employed in legal occupations under limitations specified, or, at the discretion of the school issuing officer, the minor's most recent school physical. If the statement of physical fitness is limited, the employment certificate issued thereon shall state clearly the limitations upon its use, and shall be valid only when used under the limitations so stated. In any case where the health care professional deems it advisable that he or she may issue a certificate of physical fitness for a specified period of time, at the expiration of which the person for whom it was issued shall appear and be re-examined before being permitted to continue work. Examinations shall be made in accordance with the standards and procedures prescribed by the Director, in consultation with the Director of the Department of Public Health and the State Superintendent of Education, and shall be recorded on a form furnished by the Department. When made by public health or public school physicians, the examination shall be made without charge to the minor. If a public health or public school health care professional is not available, a statement from a private health care professional who has examined the minor may be accepted, provided that the examination is made in accordance with the standards and procedures established by the Department. For purposes of this paragraph, "health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant.

(5) The school issuing officer shall have authority to verify the representations provided in the employment certificate application as required by Section 55. A school issuing officer shall not charge a fee for the consideration of an employment certificate application.

(6) It shall be the duty of the school board or local school authority to designate a place or places where certificates shall be issued and recorded, and physical examinations made without fee, and to establish and maintain the necessary records and clerical services for carrying out the provisions of this Act.

(c) Upon receipt of an application for an employment certificate, a school issuing officer shall issue an employment certificate only after examining and approving the written application and other papers required under this Section, and determining that the employment shall not be detrimental to the minor's health, welfare, and education. The school issuing officer shall consider any report of death, injury, or illness of a minor at that workplace, received under the requirements of Section 35, in the prior 2 years in determining whether the employment shall be detrimental to the minor's health, welfare, and education. Upon issuing an employment certificate to a minor, the school issuing officer shall notify the principal of the school attended by the minor, and provide copies to the Department, the minor's employer, and the minor's parent or legal guardian. The employment certificate shall be valid for a period of one year from the date of issuance, unless suspended or revoked.

(d) If the school issuing officer refuses to issue a certificate to a minor, the school issuing officer shall send to the principal of the school attended by the minor a notice of the refusal, including the name and address of the minor and of the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the reason for the refusal to issue the certificate.

(e) If a minor from another state seeks to obtain an Illinois employment certificate, the Department shall work with the State Superintendent of Education, or his or her duly authorized agents, to issue the certificate if the State Superintendent of Education deems that all requirements for issuance have been met.

(f) Upon request, the school issuing officer shall issue a certificate of age to any person between 16 and 20 years of age upon presentation of the same proof of age as is required for the issuance of employment certificates under this Act.

(g) Any certificate duly issued in accordance with this Act shall be prima facie evidence of the age of the minor for whom it was issued in any proceeding involving the employment of the minor under this Act, as to any act occurring subsequent to its issuance, or until revoked.

(h) The Department may suspend any certificate as an emergency action imperatively required for the health, safety, welfare, or education of the minor if:

(1) the parent or legal guardian of a minor, the school issuing officer, or the principal of the school attended by the minor for whom an employment certificate has been issued has asked for the revocation of the certificate by petition to the Department in writing, stating the reasons he or she believes that the employment is interfering with the health, safety, welfare, or education of the minor; or

(2) in the judgment of the Director, the employment certificate was improperly issued or if the minor is illegally employed.

If the certificate is suspended, the Department shall notify the employer of the minor, the parent or guardian of the minor, the minor's school principal, and the school issuing officer of the suspension in writing and shall schedule an administrative hearing to take place within 21 days after the date of any suspension. The minor shall not thereafter be employed, allowed, or permitted to work unless and until his or her employment certificate has been reinstated. After the hearing, an administrative law judge shall issue a final order either reinstating or revoking the employment certificate. If the certificate is revoked, the employer shall not thereafter employ, permit, or allow the minor to work until the minor has obtained a new employment certificate authorizing the minor's employment by that employer.

(Source: P.A. 103-721, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-21-24.)

Section 1230. The Underground Sewer Employee Safety Act is amended by changing Section 0.05 as follows:

(820 ILCS 250/0.05)

Sec. 0.05. Federal regulations; operation of Act.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), Sections 1 through 6 of this Act are inoperative on and after June 10, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1071) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(b) If at any time the Occupational Safety and Health standards at 29 CFR 1910.120 and , 29 CFR 1910.146 or the Safety and Health Regulations for Construction standards 29 CFR 1926.1201 through 29 CFR 1926.1213 are repealed or revoked, the Director of Labor shall adopt a rule setting forth a determination that this Act should be reviewed and reinstated, in whole or in part, in order to protect the health and safety of Illinois' workers. On the date such a rule is adopted, this Act shall again become operative.

(Source: P.A. 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; revised 7-24-24.)

Section 1235. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/7)

Sec. 7. The amount of compensation which shall be paid for an accidental injury to the employee resulting in death is:

(a) If the employee leaves surviving a widow, widower, child or children, the applicable weekly compensation rate computed in accordance with subparagraph 2 of paragraph (b) of Section 8, shall be payable during the life of the widow or widower and if any surviving child or children shall not be physically or mentally incapacitated then until the death of the widow or widower or until the youngest child shall reach the age of 18, whichever shall come later; provided that if such child or children shall be enrolled as a full-time full time student in any accredited educational institution, the payments shall continue until such child has attained the age of 25. In the event any surviving child or children shall be physically or mentally incapacitated, the payments shall continue for the duration of such incapacity.

The term "child" means a child whom the deceased employee left surviving, including a posthumous child, a child legally adopted, a child whom the deceased employee was legally obligated to support or a child to whom the deceased employee stood in loco parentis. The term "children" means the plural of "child".

The term "physically or mentally incapacitated child or children" means a child or children incapable of engaging in regular and substantial gainful employment.

In the event of the remarriage of a widow or widower, where the decedent did not leave surviving any child or children who, at the time of such remarriage, are entitled to compensation benefits under this Act, the surviving spouse shall be paid a lump sum equal to 2 years compensation benefits and all further rights of such widow or widower shall be extinguished.

If the employee leaves surviving any child or children under 18 years of age who at the time of death shall be entitled to compensation under this paragraph (a) of this Section, the weekly compensation payments herein provided for such child or children shall in any event continue for a period of not less than 6 years.

Any beneficiary entitled to compensation under this paragraph (a) of this Section shall receive from the special fund provided in paragraph (f) of this Section, in addition to the compensation herein provided, supplemental benefits in accordance with paragraph (g) of Section 8.

(b) If no compensation is payable under paragraph (a) of this Section and the employee leaves surviving a parent or parents who at the time of the accident were totally dependent upon the earnings of the employee then weekly payments equal to the compensation rate payable in the case where the employee leaves surviving a widow or widower, shall be paid to such parent or parents for the duration of their lives, and in the event of the death of either, for the life of the survivor.

(c) If no compensation is payable under paragraph paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Section and the employee leaves surviving any child or children who are not entitled to compensation under the foregoing paragraph (a) but who at the time of the accident were nevertheless in any manner dependent upon the earnings of the employee, or leaves surviving a parent or parents who at the time of the accident were partially dependent upon the earnings of the employee, then there shall be paid to such dependent or dependents for a period of 8 years weekly compensation payments at such proportion of the applicable rate if the employee had left surviving a widow or widower as such dependency bears to total dependency. In the event of the death of any such beneficiary the share of such beneficiary shall be divided equally among the surviving beneficiaries and in the event of the death of the last such beneficiary all the rights under this paragraph shall be extinguished.

(d) If no compensation is payable under paragraph paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this Section and the employee leaves surviving any grandparent, grandparents, grandchild or grandchildren or collateral heirs dependent upon the employee's earnings to the extent of 50% or more of total dependency, then there shall be paid to such dependent or dependents for a period of 5 years weekly compensation payments at such proportion of the applicable rate if the employee had left surviving a widow or widower as such dependency bears to total dependency. In the event of the death of any such beneficiary the share of such beneficiary shall be divided equally among the surviving beneficiaries and in the event of the death of the last such beneficiary all rights hereunder shall be extinguished.

(e) The compensation to be paid for accidental injury which results in death, as provided in this Section, shall be paid to the persons who form the basis for determining the amount of compensation to be paid by the employer, the respective shares to be in the proportion of their respective dependency at the time of the accident on the earnings of the deceased. The Commission or an Arbitrator thereof may, in its or his discretion, order or award the payment to the parent or grandparent of a child for the latter's support the amount of compensation which but for such order or award would have been paid to such child as its share of the compensation payable, which order or award may be modified from time to time by the Commission in its discretion with respect to the person to whom shall be paid the amount of the order or award remaining unpaid at the time of the modification.

The payments of compensation by the employer in accordance with the order or award of the Commission discharges such employer from all further obligation as to such compensation.

(f) The sum of $8,000 for burial expenses shall be paid by the employer to the widow or widower, other dependent, next of kin or to the person or persons incurring the expense of burial.

In the event the employer failed to provide necessary first aid, medical, surgical or hospital service, he shall pay the cost thereof to the person or persons entitled to compensation under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this Section, or to the person or persons incurring the obligation therefore, or providing the same.

On January 15 and July 15, 1981, and on January 15 and July 15 of each year thereafter the employer shall within 60 days pay a sum equal to 1/8 of 1% of all compensation payments made by him after July 1, 1980, either under this Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, whether by lump sum settlement or weekly compensation payments, but not including hospital, surgical or rehabilitation payments, made during the first 6 months and during the second 6 months respectively of the fiscal year next preceding the date of the payments, into a special fund which shall be designated the "Second Injury Fund", of which the State Treasurer is ex officio ex-officio custodian, such special fund to be held and disbursed for the purposes hereinafter stated in paragraphs (f) and (g) of Section 8, either upon the order of the Commission or of a competent court. Said special fund shall be deposited the same as are State funds and any interest accruing thereon shall be added thereto every 6 months. It is subject to audit the same as State funds and accounts and is protected by the General bond given by the State Treasurer. It is considered always appropriated for the purposes of disbursements as provided in paragraph (f) of Section 8, paragraph (f), of this Act, and shall be paid out and disbursed as therein provided and shall not at any time be appropriated or diverted to any other use or purpose.

On January 15, 1991, the employer shall further pay a sum equal to one half of 1% of all compensation payments made by him from January 1, 1990 through June 30, 1990 either under this Act or under the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act, whether by lump sum settlement or weekly compensation payments, but not including hospital, surgical or rehabilitation payments, into an additional Special Fund which shall be designated as the "Rate Adjustment Fund". On March 15, 1991, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to one half of 1% of all such compensation payments made from July 1, 1990 through December 31, 1990. Within 60 days after July 15, 1991, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to one half of 1% of all such compensation payments made from January 1, 1991 through June 30, 1991. Within 60 days after January 15 of 1992 and each subsequent year through 1996, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to one half of 1% of all such compensation payments made in the last 6 months of the preceding calendar year. Within 60 days after July 15 of 1992 and each subsequent year through 1995, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to one half of 1% of all such compensation payments made in the first 6 months of the same calendar year. Within 60 days after January 15 of 1997 and each subsequent year through 2005, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to three-fourths of 1% of all such compensation payments made in the last 6 months of the preceding calendar year. Within 60 days after July 15 of 1996 and each subsequent year through 2004, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to three-fourths of 1% of all such compensation payments made in the first 6 months of the same calendar year. Within 60 days after July 15 of 2005, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to 1% of such compensation payments made in the first 6 months of the same calendar year. Within 60 days after January 15 of 2006 and each subsequent year through 2024, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to 1.25% of such compensation payments made in the last 6 months of the preceding calendar year. Within 60 days after July 15 of 2006 and each subsequent year through 2023, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to 1.25% of such compensation payments made in the first 6 months of the same calendar year. Within 60 days after July 15 of 2024 and each subsequent year thereafter, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to 1.375% of such compensation payments made in the first 6 months of the same calendar year. Within 60 days after January 15 of 2025 and each subsequent year thereafter, the employer shall pay into the Rate Adjustment Fund a sum equal to 1.375% of such compensation payments made in the last 6 months of the preceding calendar year. The administrative costs of collecting assessments from employers for the Rate Adjustment Fund shall be paid from the Rate Adjustment Fund. The cost of an actuarial audit of the Fund shall be paid from the Rate Adjustment Fund. The State Treasurer is ex officio custodian of such Special Fund and the same shall be held and disbursed for the purposes hereinafter stated in paragraphs (f) and (g) of Section 8 upon the order of the Commission or of a competent court. The Rate Adjustment Fund shall be deposited the same as are State funds and any interest accruing thereon shall be added thereto every 6 months. It shall be subject to audit the same as State funds and accounts and shall be protected by the general bond given by the State Treasurer. It is considered always appropriated for the purposes of disbursements as provided in paragraphs (f) and (g) of Section 8 of this Act and shall be paid out and disbursed as therein provided and shall not at any time be appropriated or diverted to any other use or purpose. Within 5 days after December 7, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-1448) this amendatory Act of 1990, the Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall transfer $1,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Rate Adjustment Fund. By February 15, 1991, the Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall transfer $1,000,000 from the Rate Adjustment Fund to the General Revenue Fund. The Comptroller and Treasurer are authorized to make transfers at the request of the Chairman up to a total of $19,000,000 from the Second Injury Fund, the General Revenue Fund, and the Workers' Compensation Benefit Trust Fund to the Rate Adjustment Fund to the extent that there is insufficient money in the Rate Adjustment Fund to pay claims and obligations. Amounts may be transferred from the General Revenue Fund only if the funds in the Second Injury Fund or the Workers' Compensation Benefit Trust Fund are insufficient to pay claims and obligations of the Rate Adjustment Fund. All amounts transferred from the Second Injury Fund, the General Revenue Fund, and the Workers' Compensation Benefit Trust Fund shall be repaid from the Rate Adjustment Fund within 270 days of a transfer, together with interest at the rate earned by moneys on deposit in the Fund or Funds from which the moneys were transferred.

Upon a finding by the Commission, after reasonable notice and hearing, that any employer has willfully and knowingly failed to pay the proper amounts into the Second Injury Fund or the Rate Adjustment Fund required by this Section or if such payments are not made within the time periods prescribed by this Section, the employer shall, in addition to such payments, pay a penalty of 20% of the amount required to be paid or $2,500, whichever is greater, for each year or part thereof of such failure to pay. This penalty shall only apply to obligations of an employer to the Second Injury Fund or the Rate Adjustment Fund accruing after December 18, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-998) this amendatory Act of 1989. All or part of such a penalty may be waived by the Commission for good cause shown.

Any obligations of an employer to the Second Injury Fund and Rate Adjustment Fund accruing prior to December 18, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-998) this amendatory Act of 1989 shall be paid in full by such employer within 5 years of December 18, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-998) this amendatory Act of 1989, with at least one-fifth of such obligation to be paid during each year following December 18, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-998) this amendatory Act of 1989. If the Commission finds, following reasonable notice and hearing, that an employer has failed to make timely payment of any obligation accruing under the preceding sentence, the employer shall, in addition to all other payments required by this Section, be liable for a penalty equal to 20% of the overdue obligation or $2,500, whichever is greater, for each year or part thereof that obligation is overdue. All or part of such a penalty may be waived by the Commission for good cause shown.

The Chairman of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission shall, annually, furnish to the Director of the Department of Insurance a list of the amounts paid into the Second Injury Fund and the Rate Adjustment Fund by each insurance company on behalf of their insured employers. The Director shall verify to the Chairman that the amounts paid by each insurance company are accurate as best as the Director can determine from the records available to the Director. The Chairman shall verify that the amounts paid by each self-insurer are accurate as best as the Chairman can determine from records available to the Chairman. The Chairman may require each self-insurer to provide information concerning the total compensation payments made upon which contributions to the Second Injury Fund and the Rate Adjustment Fund are predicated and any additional information establishing that such payments have been made into these funds. Any deficiencies in payments noted by the Director or Chairman shall be subject to the penalty provisions of this Act.

The State Treasurer, or his duly authorized representative, shall be named as a party to all proceedings in all cases involving claim for the loss of, or the permanent and complete loss of the use of one eye, one foot, one leg, one arm or one hand.

The State Treasurer or his duly authorized agent shall have the same rights as any other party to the proceeding, including the right to petition for review of any award. The reasonable expenses of litigation, such as medical examinations, testimony, and transcript of evidence, incurred by the State Treasurer or his duly authorized representative, shall be borne by the Second Injury Fund.

If the award is not paid within 30 days after the date the award has become final, the Commission shall proceed to take judgment thereon in its own name as is provided for other awards by paragraph (g) of Section 19 of this Act and take the necessary steps to collect the award.

Any person, corporation or organization who has paid or become liable for the payment of burial expenses of the deceased employee may in his or its own name institute proceedings before the Commission for the collection thereof.

For the purpose of administration, receipts and disbursements, the Special Fund provided for in paragraph (f) of this Section shall be administered jointly with the Special Fund provided for in paragraph (f) of Section 7, paragraph (f) of the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act.

(g) All compensation, except for burial expenses provided in this Section to be paid in case accident results in death, shall be paid in installments equal to the percentage of the average earnings as provided for in paragraph (b) of Section 8, paragraph (b) of this Act, at the same intervals at which the wages or earnings of the employees were paid. If this is not feasible, then the installments shall be paid weekly. Such compensation may be paid in a lump sum upon petition as provided in Section 9 of this Act. However, in addition to the benefits provided by Section 9 of this Act where compensation for death is payable to the deceased's widow, widower or to the deceased's widow, widower and one or more children, and where a partial lump sum is applied for by such beneficiary or beneficiaries within 18 months after the deceased's death, the Commission may, in its discretion, grant a partial lump sum of not to exceed 100 weeks of the compensation capitalized at their present value upon the basis of interest calculated at 3% per annum with annual rests, upon a showing that such partial lump sum is for the best interest of such beneficiary or beneficiaries.

(h) In case the injured employee is under 16 years of age at the time of the accident and is illegally employed, the amount of compensation payable under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), and (f) of this Section shall be increased 50%.

Nothing herein contained repeals or amends the provisions of the Child Labor Law of 2024 relating to the employment of minors under the age of 16 years.

However, where an employer has on file an employment certificate issued pursuant to the Child Labor Law of 2024 or work permit issued pursuant to the Federal Fair Labor Standards Act, as amended, or a birth certificate properly and duly issued, such certificate, permit or birth certificate is conclusive evidence as to the age of the injured minor employee for the purposes of this Section only.

(i) Whenever the dependents of a deceased employee are noncitizens not residing in the United States, Mexico or Canada, the amount of compensation payable is limited to the beneficiaries described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this Section and is 50% of the compensation provided in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, except as otherwise provided by treaty.

In a case where any of the persons who would be entitled to compensation is living at any place outside of the United States, then payment shall be made to the personal representative of the deceased employee. The distribution by such personal representative to the persons entitled shall be made to such persons and in such manner as the Commission orders.

(Source: P.A. 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-590, eff. 6-5-24; 103-721, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-10-24.)

Section 9995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 9996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 9999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.