TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.101 PURPOSE AND SCOPE
Section 721.101 Purpose and
Scope
a) This Part identifies those solid wastes that are subject to
regulation as hazardous wastes under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722
through 728, and that are subject to the notification requirements of Section
3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930). In this Part:
1) Subpart A defines the terms "solid waste" and
"hazardous waste", identifies those wastes that are excluded from
regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 728, and
establishes special management requirements for hazardous waste that is
recycled.
2) Subpart B specifies the criteria used to identify
characteristics of hazardous waste and to list hazardous wastes.
3) Subpart C identifies characteristics of hazardous wastes.
4) Subpart D lists particular hazardous wastes.
b) Limitations on Definition of Solid Waste
1) The definition of solid waste contained in this Part applies
only to wastes that also are hazardous for the regulations implementing
Subtitle C of RCRA. For example, it does not apply to materials (like
non-hazardous scrap, paper, textiles, or rubber) that are not otherwise
hazardous wastes and that are recycled.
2) This Part identifies only some of the materials that are solid
wastes and hazardous wastes under Sections 1004(5), 1004(27) and 7003 of RCRA.
A material that is not defined as a solid waste in this Part, or is not a
hazardous waste identified or listed in this Part, is still a hazardous waste under
those Sections if, in the case of Section 7003 of RCRA, the statutory elements
are established.
c) For Sections 721.102 and 721.106, the following definitions
apply:
1) A "spent material" is any material that has been
used and because of contamination can no longer serve the purpose for which it
was produced without processing.
2) "Sludge" has the same meaning used in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110.
3) A "by-product" is a material that is not one of the
primary products of a production process and is not solely or separately
produced by the production process. Examples are process residues like slags
or distillation column bottoms. The term does not include a co-product that is
produced for the general public's use and is ordinarily used in the form it is
produced by the process.
4) A material is "reclaimed" if it is processed to recover
a usable product, or if it is regenerated. Examples are recovering lead values
from spent batteries and regenerating spent solvents. In addition, for Section
721.104(a)(23) and (a)(24) smelting, melting, and refining furnaces are
considered to be solely engaged in metals reclamation if the metal recovery
from the hazardous secondary materials meets the same requirements as those
specified for metals recovery from hazardous waste in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.200(d)(1) through (d)(3), and if the residuals meet the requirements
specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212.
5) A material is "used or reused" if:
A) It is employed as an ingredient (including use as an
intermediate) in an industrial process to make a product (for example,
distillation bottoms from one process used as feedstock in another process).
However, a material will not meet this condition if distinct components of the
material are recovered as separate end products (as when metals are recovered
from metal-containing secondary materials); or
B) It is employed in a particular function or application as an
effective substitute for a commercial product (for example, spent pickle liquor
used as phosphorus precipitant and sludge conditioner in wastewater treatment).
6) "Scrap metal" is bits and pieces of metal parts
(e.g., bars, turnings, rods, sheets, or wire) or metal pieces that may be
combined with bolts or soldering (e.g., radiators, scrap automobiles, or
railroad box cars) that when worn or superfluous can be recycled.
7) A material is "recycled" if it is used, reused, or
reclaimed.
8) A material is "accumulated speculatively" if it is
accumulated before being recycled. A material is not accumulated
speculatively, however, if the person accumulating it can show that the
material is potentially recyclable and has a feasible means of being recycled;
and that, during the calendar year (commencing on January 1), the amount of
material that is recycled, or transferred to a different site for recycling,
equals at least 75 percent by weight or volume of the amount of that material
accumulated at the beginning of the period. Materials must be placed in a
storage unit with a label indicating the first date that the material began to
be accumulated. If placing a label on the storage unit is not practicable, the
accumulation period must be documented through an inventory log or other
appropriate method. In calculating the percentage of turnover, the 75 percent
requirement is to be applied to each material of the same type (e.g., slags
from a single smelting process) that is recycled in the same way (i.e., from
which the same material is recovered or that is used in the same way).
Materials accumulating in units that would be exempt from regulation under
Section 721.104(c) are not to be included in making the calculation. Materials
that are already defined as solid wastes also are not to be included in making
the calculation. Materials are no longer in this category once they are removed
from accumulation for recycling, however.
BOARD NOTE: Various segments of
this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 use the verbal phrase "accumulated
speculatively" and the noun phrase "speculative accumulation".
Some of those segments rely on this subsection (c)(8) definition of
"speculatively accumulated" for defining "speculative
accumulation". The Board infers that USEPA intends that the verb phrase
define the noun phrase: material that is accumulated speculatively is the
subject of speculative accumulation.
9) "Excluded scrap metal" is processed scrap metal,
unprocessed home scrap metal, and unprocessed prompt scrap metal.
10) "Processed scrap metal" is scrap metal that has
been manually or physically altered to either separate it into distinct
materials to enhance economic value or to improve the handling of materials.
Processed scrap metal includes scrap metal that has been baled, shredded,
sheared, chopped, crushed, flattened, cut, melted, or separated by metal type
(i.e., sorted) and fines, drosses, and related materials that have been
agglomerated. (Note: shredded circuit boards being sent for recycling are not
considered processed scrap metal. They are covered under the exclusion from
the definition of solid waste for shredded circuit boards being recycled
(Section 721.104(a)(14))).
11) "Home scrap metal" is scrap metal as generated by
steel mills, foundries, and refineries, like turnings, cuttings, punchings, and
borings.
12) "Prompt scrap metal" is scrap metal as generated by
the metal working/fabrication industries, and it includes scrap metal like
turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings. Prompt scrap metal is also known
as industrial or new scrap metal.
d) The Agency has inspection authority under Section 3007 of RCRA
and Section 4 of the Act.
e) Electronic
reporting. The filing of any document under any provision of this Part as an
electronic document is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.104.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (e) is
derived from 40 CFR 3, 271.10(b), 271.11(b), and 271.12(h) (2017).
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.102 DEFINITION OF SOLID WASTE
Section 721.102 Definition
of Solid Waste
a) Solid Waste
1) A solid waste is any discarded material that is not excluded pursuant
to Section 721.104(a) or that is not excluded pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.130 and 720.131 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.130 and 720.134.
2) Discarded Material
A) A
discarded material is any material that is described as follows:
i) It is abandoned, as described in subsection (b);
ii) It is recycled, as described in subsection (c);
iii) It is considered inherently waste-like, as described in
subsection (d); or
iv) It is a military munition identified as a solid waste in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.302.
B) This subsection (a)(2)(B) corresponds with 40 CFR
261.2(a)(2)(ii), which USEPA has removed and marked "reserved". This
statement maintains structural consistency with the corresponding federal
regulations.
b) A material is a solid waste if it is abandoned in one of the
following ways:
1) It is disposed of;
2) It is burned or incinerated;
3) It is accumulated, stored, or treated (but not recycled)
before or in lieu of being abandoned by being disposed of, burned, or
incinerated; or
4) Sham recycled, as explained in subsection (g).
c) A material is a solid waste if it is recycled − or
accumulated, stored, or treated before recycling − as specified in
subsections (c)(1) through (c)(4), if one of the following occurs with regard
to the material:
1) The material is used in a manner constituting disposal.
A) A material that is noted with a "yes" in column 1 of
the table in Appendix Z is a solid waste when one of the following occurs :
i) The material is applied to or placed on the land in a manner
that constitutes disposal; or
ii) The material is used to produce products that are applied to
or placed on the land or are otherwise contained in products that are applied
to or placed on the land (in which cases the product itself remains a solid
waste).
B) However, a commercial chemical product that is listed in
Section 721.133 is not a solid waste if it is applied to the land and that is its
ordinary manner of use.
2) The material is burned for energy recovery.
A) A material that is noted with a "yes" in column 2 of
the table in Appendix Z is a solid waste when one of the following occurs:
i) It is burned to recover energy;
ii) It is used to produce a fuel or is otherwise contained in
fuels (in which case the fuel itself remains a solid waste);
iii) It is contained in fuels (in which case the fuel itself
remains a solid waste).
B) However, a commercial chemical product that is listed in
Section 721.133 is not a solid waste if it is itself a fuel.
3) Reclaimed. A material noted with a "No" in column 3
of the table in Appendix Z is not a solid waste when reclaimed (except as
provided under Section 721.104(a)(17)). A material noted with a "Yes"
in column 3 of Appendix Z is a solid waste when reclaimed, unless it meets the
requirements of Section 721.104(a)(17), (a)(23), (a)(24), or (a)(27).
4) Accumulated Speculatively. A material noted with
"yes" in column 4 of the table in Appendix Z is a solid waste when
accumulated speculatively.
d) Inherently Waste-Like Materials. The following materials are
solid wastes when they are recycled in any manner:
1) USEPA hazardous waste numbers F020, F021 (unless used as an
ingredient to make a product at the site of generation), F022, F023, F026, and
F028.
2) A secondary material fed to a halogen acid furnace that exhibits
a characteristic of a hazardous waste or which is listed as a hazardous waste,
as defined in Subpart C or D, except for brominated material that meets the
following criteria:
A) The material must contain a bromine concentration of at least
45 percent;
B) The material must contain less than a total of one percent of
toxic organic compounds listed in Appendix H; and
C) The material is processed continually on-site in the halogen
acid furnace via direct conveyance (hard piping).
3) The following criteria are used to add wastes to the list:
A) Disposal Method or Toxicity
i) The material is ordinarily disposed of, burned, or
incinerated; or
ii) The material contains toxic constituents listed in Appendix H
and these constituents are not ordinarily found in raw materials or products
for which the material substitutes (or are found in raw materials or products
in smaller concentrations) and is not used or reused during the recycling
process; and
B) The material may pose a substantial hazard to human health and
the environment when recycled.
e) Materials That Are Not Solid Waste When Recycled
1) A material is not a solid waste when it can be shown to be
recycled by fulfilling one of the following conditions:
A) It is used or reused as an ingredient in an industrial process
to make a product, provided the material is not being reclaimed; or
B) It is used or reused as effective substitutes for commercial
products; or
C) It is returned to the original process from which it is generated,
without first being reclaimed or land disposed. The material must be returned
as a substitute for feedstock materials. In cases where the original process
to which the material is returned is a secondary process, the material must be
managed in such a manner that there is no placement on the land. In cases where
the material is generated and reclaimed within the primary mineral processing
industry, the conditions of the exclusion found at Section 721.104(a)(17) apply
rather than this provision.
2) The following materials are solid wastes, even if the
recycling involves use, reuse, or return to the original process (described in
subsections (e)(1)(A) through (e)(1)(C)):
A) A material used in a manner constituting disposal or used to
produce a product that is applied to the land; or
B) A material burned for energy recovery, used to produce a fuel,
or contained in fuels; or
C) A material accumulated speculatively; or
D) A material listed in subsections (d)(1) and (d)(2).
f) Documentation
of Claims That a material is Not a Solid Waste or is Conditionally Exempt from Regulation.
A respondent in an action to enforce regulations implementing Subtitle C of
RCRA or Section 21 of the Environmental Protection Act that raises a claim that
a certain material is not a solid waste or that the material is conditionally
exempt from regulation must demonstrate that there is a known market or
disposition for the material and that the material meets the terms of the
exclusion or exemption. In doing so, the person must provide appropriate
documentation (such as contracts showing that a second person uses the material
as an ingredient in a production process) to demonstrate that the material is
not a waste or that the material is exempt from regulation. In addition, an
owner or operator of a facility claiming that it actually is recycling a material
must show that it has the necessary equipment to recycle that material.
g) Sham Recycling.
A hazardous secondary material found to be sham recycled is considered
discarded and a solid waste. Sham recycling is recycling that is not
legitimate recycling, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.143.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.103 DEFINITION OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.103 Definition
of Hazardous Waste
a) A solid waste, as defined in Section 721.102, is a hazardous
waste if the following is true of the waste:
1) It is not excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste pursuant
to Section 721.104(b); and
2) It meets any of the following criteria:
A) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste
identified in Subpart C. However, any mixture of a waste from the extraction,
beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals excluded pursuant to Section
721.104(b)(7) and any other solid waste exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous
waste pursuant to Subpart C is a hazardous waste only if it exhibits a characteristic
that would not have been exhibited by the excluded waste alone if such mixture
had not occurred, or if the mixture continues to exhibit any of the
characteristics exhibited by the non-excluded wastes prior to mixture.
Further, for the purposes of applying the toxicity characteristic to such
mixtures, the mixture is also a hazardous waste if it exceeds the maximum
concentration for any contaminant listed in Section 721.124 that would not have
been exceeded by the excluded waste alone if the mixture had not occurred or if
it continues to exceed the maximum concentration for any contaminant exceeded
by the nonexempt waste prior to mixture.
B) It is listed in Subpart D and has not been excluded from the
lists in Subpart D pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and 720.122.
C) This subsection (a)(2)(B) corresponds with 40 CFR
261.3(a)(2)(iii), which USEPA removed and marked as "reserved" at 66
Fed. Reg. 27266 (May 16, 2001). This statement maintains structural
consistency with the federal regulations.
D) It is a mixture of solid waste and one or more hazardous wastes
listed in Subpart D and has not been excluded from this subsection (a)(2) pursuant
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and 720.122 or subsection (g) or (h); however, the
following mixtures of solid wastes and hazardous wastes listed in Subpart D are
not hazardous wastes (except by application of subsection (a)(2)(A) or
(a)(2)(B)) if the generator demonstrates that the mixture consists of
wastewater the discharge of which is subject to regulation under either 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 309 or 310 (including wastewater at facilities that have eliminated
the discharge of wastewater) and the following is true of the waste:
i) It
is one or more of the following solvents listed in Section 721.131: benzene, carbon
tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene or the scrubber waters
derived from the combustion of these spent solvents, provided that the maximum
total weekly usage of these solvents (other than the amounts that can be
demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater) divided by the average weekly
flow of wastewater into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or
pretreatment system does not exceed 1 part per million, or the total measured
concentration of these solvents entering the headworks of the facility's
wastewater treatment system (at a facility that is subject to regulation under
the federal Clean Air Act new source performance standards or national emission
standards for hazardous air pollutants of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 or at a facility
that is subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that
minimizes fugitive emissions) does not exceed 1 part per million on an average
weekly basis. Any facility that uses benzene as a solvent and claims this exemption
must use an aerated biological wastewater treatment system and must use only
lined surface impoundments or tanks prior to secondary clarification in the
wastewater treatment system. A facility that chooses to measure concentration
levels must file a copy of its sampling and analysis plan with the Agency. A
facility must file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the
initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations.
The sampling and analysis plan must include the monitoring point location
(headworks), the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents
to be monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once it
receives confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by
the Agency. The Agency must reject the sampling and analysis plan if it determines
that the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the information required
by this subsection (a)(2)(D)(i) or that the plan parameters would not enable
the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals
accurately. If the Agency rejects the sampling and analysis plan, or if the
Agency determines that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis
plan, the Agency must notify the facility to cease the use of the direct
monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected;
ii) It is one or more of the following spent solvents listed in
Section 721.131: methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene,
o-dichlorobenzene, cresols, cresylic acid, nitrobenzene, toluene, methyl ethyl
ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, spent chlorofluorocarbon
solvents, 2-ethoxyethanol, or the scrubber waters derived-from the combustion
of these spent solvents, provided that the maximum total weekly usage of these
solvents (other than the amounts that can be demonstrated not to be discharged
to wastewater) divided by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the
headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment system does
not exceed 25 parts per million, or the total measured concentration of these
solvents entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system
(at a facility that is subject to regulation under the federal Clean Air Act
new source performance standards or national emission standards for hazardous
air pollutants of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 or at a facility that is subject to an
enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive
emissions) does not exceed 25 parts per million on an average weekly basis. A
facility that chooses to measure concentration levels must file a copy of its
sampling and analysis plan with the Agency. A facility must file a copy of a
revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered
inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis
plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling
frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A
facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once it receives
confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the
Agency. The Agency must reject the sampling and analysis plan if it determines
that the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the information required
by this subsection (a)(2)(D)(ii) or that the plan parameters would not enable
the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals
accurately. If the Agency rejects the sampling and analysis plan, or if the
Agency determines that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis
plan, the Agency must notify the facility to cease the use of the direct
monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected;
iii) It is one of the following wastes listed in Section 721.132,
provided that the wastes are discharged to the refinery oil recovery sewer
before primary oil/water/solids separation: heat exchanger bundle cleaning
sludge from the petroleum refining industry (USEPA hazardous waste number
K050), crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations
(USEPA hazardous waste number K169), clarified slurry oil tank sediment or
in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations (USEPA
hazardous waste number K170), spent hydrotreating catalyst (USEPA hazardous
waste number K171), and spent hydrorefining catalyst (USEPA hazardous waste
number K172);
iv) It is a discarded hazardous waste, commercial chemical product
or chemical intermediate listed in Section 721.121, 721.132, or 721.133 arising
from de minimis losses of these materials. For purposes of this subsection
(a)(2)(D)(iv), "de minimis" losses are inadvertent releases to a
wastewater treatment system, including those from normal material handling
operations (e.g., spills from the unloading or transfer of materials from bins
or other containers, leaks from pipes, valves, or other devices used to
transfer materials); minor leaks of process equipment, storage tanks, or
containers; leaks from well-maintained pump packings and seals; sample purgings;
relief device discharges; discharges from safety showers and rinsing and
cleaning of personal safety equipment; and rinsate from empty containers or
from containers that are rendered empty by that rinsing. Any manufacturing
facility that claims an exemption for de minimis quantities of a waste listed in Section
721.131 or 721.132, or any nonmanufacturing facility that claims an exemption
for de minimis quantities
of wastes listed in Subpart D, must either have eliminated the discharge of
wastewaters or have included in its federal Clean Water Act (33 USC 1251 et
seq.) permit application or wastewater pretreatment submission to the Agency or
the wastewater pretreatment Control Authority pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 307
of the constituents for which each waste was listed (in Appendix G); and the
constituents in Table T to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 for which each waste has a
treatment standard (i.e.,
land disposal restriction constituents). A facility is eligible to claim the
exemption once the Agency or Control Authority has been notified of possible de
minimis releases
via the Clean Water Act permit application or the wastewater pretreatment
submission. A copy of the Clean Water Act permit application or the wastewater
pretreatment submission must be placed in the facility's on-site files;
v) It is wastewater resulting from laboratory operations
containing toxic (T) wastes listed in Subpart D, provided that the annualized
average flow of laboratory wastewater does not exceed one percent of total
wastewater flow into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or
pretreatment system or provided that the wastes' combined annualized average
concentration does not exceed one part per million in the headworks of the
facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment facility. Toxic (T) wastes
used in laboratories that are demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater
are not to be included in this calculation;
vi) It is one or more of the following wastes listed in Section
721.132: wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes
(USEPA hazardous waste number K157), provided that the maximum weekly usage of
formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine (including
all amounts that cannot be demonstrated to be reacted in the process, destroyed
through treatment, or recovered, i.e., what is discharged or volatilized)
divided by the average weekly flow of process wastewater prior to any dilutions
into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system does not
exceed a total of 5 parts per million by weight, or the total measured
concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's
wastewater treatment system (at a facility that is subject to regulation under
the federal Clean Air Act new source performance standards or national emission
standards for hazardous air pollutants of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 or at a facility
that is subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that
minimizes fugitive emissions) does not exceed 5 parts per million on an average
weekly basis. A facility that chooses to measure concentration levels must
file a copy of its sampling and analysis plan with the Agency. A facility must
file a copy of a revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is
rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and
analysis plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the
sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be
monitored. A facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once it receives
confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the
Agency. The Agency must reject the sampling and analysis plan if it determines
that the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the information required
by this subsection (a)(2)(D)(vi) or that the plan parameters would not enable
the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals
accurately. If the Agency rejects the sampling and analysis plan, or if the
Agency determines that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis
plan, the Agency must notify the facility to cease the use of the direct
monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected; or
vii) It is wastewater derived from the treatment of one or more of
the following wastes listed in Section 721.132: organic waste (including heavy
ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates)
from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (USEPA hazardous waste
number K156), provided that the maximum concentration of formaldehyde, methyl
chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine prior to any dilutions into the
headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system does not exceed a total
of 5 milligrams per liter, or the total measured concentration of these
chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system
(at a facility that is subject to regulation under the federal Clean Air Act
new source performance standards or national emission standards for hazardous
air pollutants of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 or at a facility that is subject to an
enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minimizes fugitive
emissions) does not exceed 5 milligrams per liter on an average weekly basis.
A facility that chooses to measure concentration levels must file a copy of its
sampling and analysis plan with the Agency. A facility must file a copy of a
revised sampling and analysis plan only if the initial plan is rendered
inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis
plan must include the monitoring point location (headworks), the sampling
frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A
facility is eligible for the direct monitoring option once it receives
confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the
Agency. The Agency must reject the sampling and analysis plan if it determines
that the sampling and analysis plan fails to include the information required
by this subsection (a)(2)(D)(vii) or that the plan parameters would not enable
the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals
accurately. If the Agency rejects the sampling and analysis plan, or if the
Agency determines that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis
plan, the Agency must notify the facility to cease the use of the direct
monitoring option until such time as the bases for rejection are corrected.
E) Rebuttable presumption for used oil. Used oil containing more
than 1,000 ppm total halogens is presumed to be a hazardous waste because it
has been mixed with halogenated hazardous waste listed in Subpart D. Persons
may rebut this presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain
hazardous waste (for example, to show that the used oil does not contain
significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents listed in
Appendix H).
i) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to a metalworking oil
or fluid containing chlorinated paraffins if it is processed through a tolling
arrangement, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739.124(c), to reclaim
metalworking oils or fluids. The presumption does apply to a metalworking oil or
fluid if such an oil or fluid is recycled in any other manner, or disposed of.
ii) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to a used oil contaminated
with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed from refrigeration units where the CFCs
are destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to a used oil
contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed with used oil from a source other
than a refrigeration unit.
b) A solid waste that is not excluded from regulation pursuant to
subsection (a)(1) becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events
occur:
1) In the case of a waste listed in Subpart D, when the waste
first meets the listing description set forth in Subpart D.
2) In the case of a mixture of solid waste and one or more listed
hazardous wastes, when a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D is first added to
the solid waste.
3) In the case of any other waste (including a waste mixture),
when the waste exhibits any of the characteristics identified in Subpart C.
c) Unless and until it meets the criteria of subsection (e), a
hazardous waste will remain a hazardous waste.
BOARD NOTE: This subsection (c) corresponds with 40 CFR
261.3(c)(1) (2017). The Board has codified 40 CFR 261.3(c)(2) at subsection
(e).
d) Any solid waste described in subsection (e) is not a hazardous
waste if it meets the following criteria:
1) In the case of any solid waste, it does not exhibit any of the
characteristics of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C. (However, wastes
that exhibit a characteristic at the point of generation may still be subject
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, even if they no longer exhibit a characteristic at
the point of land disposal.)
2) In the case of a waste that is a listed waste pursuant to
Subpart D , a waste that contains a waste listed pursuant to Subpart D, or a
waste that is derived from a waste listed in Subpart D, it also has been
excluded from subsection (e) pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and 720.122.
e) Specific Inclusions and Exclusions
1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e)(2), (g), or
(h), any solid waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a
hazardous waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash, emission control
dust, or leachate (but not including precipitation run-off), is a hazardous
waste. (However, materials that are reclaimed from solid wastes and that are
used beneficially are not solid wastes and hence are not hazardous wastes under
this provision unless the reclaimed material is burned for energy recovery or
used in a manner constituting disposal.)
2) The following solid wastes are not hazardous even though they
are generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste,
unless they exhibit one or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste:
A) Waste pickle liquor sludge generated by lime stabilization of
spent pickle liquor from the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332).
B) Wastes from burning any of the materials exempted from
regulation by Section 721.106(a)(3)(C) and (a)(3)(D).
C) Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, resulting from high
temperature metal recovery (HTMR) processing of K061, K062, or F006 waste in
the units identified in this subsection (e)(2) that are disposed of in
non-hazardous waste units, provided that these residues meet the generic
exclusion levels identified in the tables in this subsection (e)(2)(C) for all
constituents and the residues exhibit no characteristics of hazardous waste.
The types of units identified are rotary kilns, flame reactors, electric furnaces,
plasma arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth furnace/electric furnace
combinations, or the following types of industrial furnaces (as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110): blast furnaces; smelting, melting, and refining
furnaces (including pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, reverberator
furnaces, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry furnaces); and other
furnaces designated by the Agency pursuant to that definition.
i) Testing requirements must be incorporated in a facility's waste
analysis plan or a generator's self-implementing waste analysis plan; at a
minimum, composite samples of residues must be collected and analyzed quarterly
and when the process or operation generating the waste changes.
ii) Persons claiming this exclusion in an enforcement action will
have the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the material
meets all of the exclusion requirements. The generic exclusion levels are the
following:
|
Generic exclusion levels for
K061 and K062 nonwastewater HTMR residues:
|
|
Constituent
|
Maximum
for any single composite sample (mg/ℓ)
|
|
Antimony
|
0.10
|
|
Arsenic
|
0.50
|
|
Barium
|
7.6
|
|
Beryllium
|
0.010
|
|
Cadmium
|
0.050
|
|
Chromium (total)
|
0.33
|
|
Lead
|
0.15
|
|
Mercury
|
0.009
|
|
Nickel
|
1.0
|
|
Selenium
|
0.16
|
|
Silver
|
0.30
|
|
Thallium
|
0.020
|
|
Vanadium
|
1.26
|
|
Zinc
|
70
|
|
Generic exclusion levels for
F006 nonwastewater HTMR residues:
|
|
Constituent
|
Maximum
for any single composite sample (mg/ℓ)
|
|
|
|
|
Antimony
|
0.10
|
|
Arsenic
|
0.50
|
|
Barium
|
7.6
|
|
Beryllium
|
0.010
|
|
Cadmium
|
0.050
|
|
Chromium (total)
|
0.33
|
|
Cyanide (total) (mg/kg)
|
1.8
|
|
Lead
|
0.15
|
|
Mercury
|
0.009
|
|
Nickel
|
1.0
|
|
Selenium
|
0.16
|
|
Silver
|
0.30
|
|
Thallium
|
0.020
|
|
Zinc
|
70
|
iii) A one-time notification and certification must be placed in
the facility's files and sent to the Agency (or, for out-of-State shipments, to
the appropriate Regional Administrator of USEPA or the state agency authorized
to implement federal 40 CFR 268 requirements) for K061, K062, or F006 HTMR
residues that meet the generic exclusion levels for all constituents, which do
not exhibit any characteristics, and which are sent to RCRA Subtitle D
(municipal solid waste landfill) units. The notification and certification
that is placed in the generator's or treater's files must be updated if the
process or operation generating the waste changes or if the RCRA Subtitle D
unit receiving the waste changes. However, the generator or treater need only
notify the Agency on an annual basis if such changes occur. Such notification
and certification should be sent to the Agency by the end of the calendar year,
but no later than December 31. The notification must include the following
information: the name and address of the non-hazardous waste management unit
receiving the waste shipment; the USEPA hazardous waste number and treatability
group at the initial point of generation; and the treatment standards
applicable to the waste at the initial point of generation. The certification
must be signed by an authorized representative and must state as follows:
"I certify under penalty of law that the generic exclusion levels
for all constituents have been met without impermissible dilution and that no
characteristic of hazardous waste is exhibited. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment."
D) Biological treatment sludge from the treatment of one of the
following wastes listed in Section 721.132: organic waste (including heavy
ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates)
from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (USEPA hazardous waste
number K156) and wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl
oximes (USEPA hazardous waste number K157).
E) Catalyst inert support media separated from one of the
following wastes listed in Section 721.132: spent hydrotreating catalyst (USEPA
hazardous waste number K171) and spent hydrorefining catalyst (USEPA hazardous
waste number K172).
BOARD NOTE:
This subsection (e) would normally correspond with 40 CFR 261.3(e), a
subsection that has been deleted and marked "reserved" by USEPA.
Rather, this subsection (e) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.3(c)(2), which the
Board codified here to comport with codification requirements and to enhance
clarity.
f) Notwithstanding subsections (a) through (e) and provided the
debris, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102, does not exhibit a
characteristic identified at Subpart C, the following materials are not subject
to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 720, 721 to 726, or 728:
1) Hazardous debris as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102 that
has been treated using one of the required extraction or destruction
technologies specified in Table F to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728; persons claiming
this exclusion in an enforcement action will have the burden of proving by
clear and convincing evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion
requirements; or
2) Debris, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102, that the
Agency, considering the extent of contamination, has determined is no longer
contaminated with hazardous waste.
g) Exclusion of certain wastes listed in Subpart D solely because
they exhibit a characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
1) A hazardous waste that is listed in Subpart D solely because
it exhibits one or more characteristics of ignitability, as defined under
Section 721.121; corrosivity, as defined under Section 721.122; or reactivity,
as defined under Section 721.123 is not a hazardous waste if the waste no
longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C.
2) The exclusion described in subsection (g)(1) also pertains to
the following:
A) Any mixture of a solid waste and a hazardous waste listed in
Subpart D solely because it exhibits the characteristics of ignitability,
corrosivity, or reactivity, as regulated under subsection (a)(2)(D); and
B) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing
of a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D solely because it exhibits the
characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity, as regulated under
subsection (e)(1).
3) Wastes
excluded pursuant to this subsection (g) are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
(as applicable), even if they no longer exhibit a characteristic at the point
of land disposal.
4) Any
mixture of a solid waste excluded from regulation in Section 721.104(b)(7) and
a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D solely because the listed hazardous waste
exhibits one or more of the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or
reactivity, as regulated under subsection (a)(2)(D), is not a hazardous waste
if the mixture no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste
identified in Subpart C for which USEPA listed the hazardous waste listed in
Subpart D.
h) Eligible Radioactive Mixed Waste
1) Hazardous waste containing radioactive waste is no longer a
hazardous waste when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of Subpart
N of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726 (i.e., it is "eligible radioactive mixed
waste").
2) The exemption described in subsection (h)(1) also pertains to
the following:
A) Any mixture of a solid waste and an eligible radioactive mixed
waste; and
B) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing
of an eligible radioactive mixed waste.
3) Waste exempted pursuant to this subsection (h) must meet the
eligibility criteria and specified conditions in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.325 and
726.330 (for storage and treatment) and in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.410 and
726.415 (for transportation and disposal). Waste that fails to satisfy these
eligibility criteria and conditions is regulated as hazardous waste.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.104 EXCLUSIONS
Section 721.104 Exclusions
a) Materials That Are Not Solid Wastes. The following materials
are not solid wastes for this Part:
1) Sewage.
A) Domestic sewage (untreated sanitary wastes that pass through a
sewer system); and
B) Any mixture of domestic sewage and other waste that passes
through a sewer system to publicly-owned treatment works for treatment, except
as prohibited by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.605 and 40 CFR 403.5(b), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source
discharges with NPDES permits issued by the Agency under Section 12(f) of the
Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309.
BOARD NOTE:
This exclusion applies only to the actual point source discharge. It does not
exclude industrial wastewaters while they are being collected, stored, or
treated before discharge, nor does it exclude sludges that are generated by
industrial wastewater treatment.
3) Irrigation return flows.
4) Source, by-product, or special nuclear material, as defined by
Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 USC 2014),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
5) Materials subjected to in-situ mining techniques that are not
removed from the ground as part of the extraction process.
6) Pulping liquors (i.e., black liquors) that are reclaimed in a
pulping liquor recovery furnace and then reused in the pulping process, unless
it is accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c).
7) Spent sulfuric acid used to produce virgin sulfuric acid, provided
it is not accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c).
8) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the
original process or processes in which they were generated, if they are reused
in the production process, provided that the following is true:
A) Only tank storage is involved, and the entire process through completing
reclamation is closed by being entirely connected with pipes or other
comparable enclosed means of conveyance;
B) Reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion (like
that occurring in boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators);
C) The secondary materials are never accumulated in tanks for over
12 months without being reclaimed; and
D) The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel or used to
produce products that are used in a manner constituting disposal.
9) Wood preserving wastes.
A) Spent wood preserving solutions that have been used and that
are reclaimed and reused for their original intended purpose;
B) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process that have been
reclaimed and that are reused to treat wood; and
C) Prior to reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood
preserving solutions described in subsections (a)(9)(A) and (a)(9)(B), so long
as they meet the following conditions:
i) The wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving
solutions are reused on-site at water-borne plants in the production process
for their original intended purpose;
ii) Prior to reuse, the wastewaters and spent wood preserving
solutions are managed to prevent release to either land or groundwater or both;
iii) Any unit used to manage wastewaters or spent wood preserving
solutions prior to reuse can be visually or otherwise determined to prevent
such releases;
iv) Any drip pad used to manage the wastewaters or spent wood
preserving solutions prior to reuse complies with the standards in Subpart W of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, regardless of whether the plant generates a total of
less than 100 kg/month of hazardous waste; and
v) Prior to operating under this exclusion, the plant owner or
operator prepares a one-time notification to the Agency stating that the plant
intends to claim the exclusion, giving the date on which the plant intends to
begin operating under the exclusion, and containing the following language:
"I have read the applicable regulation establishing an exclusion for wood
preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions and understand it
requires me to comply at all times with the conditions set out in the
regulation." The plant must maintain a copy of that document in its
on-site records until closure of the facility. The exclusion applies only so
long as the plant meets the conditions under subsection (a)(9)(C). If the
plant does not comply with any condition, it may apply to the Agency for
reinstatement of the exclusion. The Agency must reinstate the exclusion in
writing if it finds that the plant has returned to complying with all
conditions and that the violations are not likely to recur. If the Agency
denies an application, it must transmit to the applicant specific, detailed
statements in writing as to the reasons it denied the application. The
applicant under this subsection (a)(9)(C)(v) may appeal the Agency's
determination to deny the reinstatement, grant the reinstatement with
conditions, or terminate a reinstatement before the Board under Section 40 of
the Act.
10) USEPA hazardous waste numbers K060, K087, K141, K142, K143,
K144, K145, K147, and K148, and any wastes from the coke by-products processes
that are hazardous only because they exhibit the toxicity characteristic
specified in Section 721.124, when subsequent to generation these materials are
recycled to coke ovens, to the tar recovery process as a feedstock to produce
coal tar, or are mixed with coal tar prior to the tar's sale or refining. This
exclusion is conditioned on there being no land disposal of the waste from the
point it is generated to the point it is recycled to coke ovens, to tar
recovery, to the tar refining processes, or prior to when it is mixed with
coal.
11) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment
of USEPA hazardous waste number K061 in high temperature metals recovery units,
provided it is shipped in drums (if shipped) and not land disposed before
recovery.
12) Certain oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials and recovered
oil, as follows:
A) Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials (i.e., sludges,
by-products, or spent materials) that are generated at a petroleum refinery
(standard industrial classification (SIC) code 2911) and are inserted into the
petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911: including, distillation, catalytic
cracking, fractionation, or thermal cracking units (i.e., cokers)), unless the
material is placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being so
recycled. Materials inserted into thermal cracking units are excluded under
this subsection (a)(12), if the coke product also does not exhibit a
characteristic of hazardous waste. Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials
may be inserted into the same petroleum refinery where they are generated or
sent directly to another petroleum refinery and still be excluded under this
provision. Except as provided in subsection (a)(12)(B), oil-bearing hazardous
secondary materials generated elsewhere in the petroleum industry (i.e., from
sources other than petroleum refineries) are not excluded under this Section.
Residuals generated from processing or recycling materials excluded under this
subsection (a)(12)(A), if the materials as generated would have otherwise met a
listing under Subpart D, are designated as USEPA hazardous waste number F037
listed wastes when disposed of or intended for disposal.
B) Recovered oil that is recycled in the same manner and with the
same conditions as described in subsection (a)(12)(A). Recovered oil is oil
that has been reclaimed from secondary materials (including wastewater)
generated from normal petroleum industry practices, including refining,
exploration and production, bulk storage, and transportation incident (SIC
codes 1311, 1321, 1381, 1382, 1389, 2911, 4612, 4613, 4922, 4923, 4789, 5171,
and 5172). Recovered oil does not include oil-bearing hazardous wastes listed
in Subpart D; however, oil recovered from such wastes may be considered recovered
oil. Recovered oil does not include used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
739.100.
13) Excluded scrap metal (processed scrap metal, unprocessed home
scrap metal, and unprocessed prompt scrap metal) being recycled.
14) Shredded circuit boards being recycled if they meet the
following conditions:
A) The circuit boards are stored in containers sufficient to
prevent a release to the environment prior to recovery; and
B) The circuit boards are free of mercury switches, mercury
relays, nickel-cadmium batteries, and lithium batteries.
15) Condensates derived from the overhead gases from kraft mill
steam strippers that are used to comply with federal Clean Air Act regulation
40 CFR 63.446(e). The exemption applies only to combustion at the mill
generating the condensates.
16) This subsection (a)(16) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(a)(16),
marked "reserved" by USEPA. This statement maintains structural
consistency with the federal regulations.
17) Spent materials (as defined in Section 721.101) (other than
hazardous wastes listed in Subpart D) generated within the primary mineral
processing industry from which minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or other values
are recovered by mineral processing or by beneficiation, if:
A) The spent material is legitimately recycled to recover
minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or other values;
B) The spent material is not accumulated speculatively;
C) Except as provided in subsection (a)(17)(D), the spent material
is stored in tanks, containers, or buildings that meet the following minimum
integrity standards: a building must be an engineered structure with a floor,
walls, and a roof that are made of non-earthen materials providing structural
support (except that smelter buildings may have partially earthen floors if the
spent material is stored on the non-earthen portion), and have a roof suitable
for diverting rainwater away from the foundation; a tank must be free standing,
not be a surface impoundment (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110), and be
manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents; a
container must be free standing and be manufactured of a material suitable for
containment of its contents. If a tank or container contains any particulate
that may be subject to wind dispersal, the owner or operator must operate the
unit in a manner that controls fugitive dust. A tank, container, or building
must be designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases to
the environment of these materials.
D) The Agency must allow by permit in writing that solid mineral
processing spent materials only may be placed on pads, rather than in tanks,
containers, or buildings if the facility owner or operator can demonstrate the
following: the solid mineral processing secondary materials do not contain any
free liquid; the pads are designed, constructed, and operated to prevent
significant releases of the spent material into the environment; and the pads
provide the same degree of containment afforded by the non-RCRA tanks,
containers, and buildings eligible for exclusion.
i) The Agency must also consider whether storage on pads poses
the potential for significant releases via groundwater, surface water, and air
exposure pathways. Factors to be considered for assessing the groundwater,
surface water, and air exposure pathways must include the following: the
volume and physical and chemical properties of the spent material, including
its potential for migration off the pad; the potential for human or
environmental exposure to hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each
exposure pathway; and the possibility and extent of harm to human and
environmental receptors via each exposure pathway.
ii) Pads must meet the following minimum standards: they must be
designed of non-earthen material that is compatible with the chemical nature of
the mineral processing spent material; they must be capable of withstanding
physical stresses associated with placement and removal; they must have run-on
and run-off controls; they must be operated in a manner that controls fugitive
dust; and they must have integrity assurance through inspections and
maintenance programs.
iii) Before making a determination under this subsection
(a)(17)(D), the Agency must provide notice and the opportunity for comment to
all persons potentially interested in the determination. This can be
accomplished by placing notice of this action in major local newspapers, or
broadcasting notice over local radio stations.
BOARD NOTE: See Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 for the RCRA Subtitle
C permit public notice requirements.
E) The owner or operator provides a notice to the Agency,
providing the following information: the types of materials to be recycled,
the type and location of the storage units and recycling processes, and the
annual quantities expected to be placed in land-based units. This notification
must be updated when there is a change in the type of materials recycled or the
location of the recycling process.
F) For subsection (b)(7), mineral processing spent materials must
be the result of mineral processing and may not include any listed hazardous
wastes. Listed hazardous wastes and characteristic hazardous wastes generated
by non-mineral processing industries are not eligible for the conditional
exclusion from the definition of solid waste.
18) Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical
manufacturing facility, if the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum
refining process (SIC code 2911) along with normal petroleum refinery process
streams, if:
A) The oil is hazardous only because it exhibits the
characteristic of ignitability (as defined in Section 721.121) or toxicity for
benzene (Section 721.124, USEPA hazardous waste number D018); and
B) The oil generated by the organic chemical manufacturing
facility is not placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being
recycled into the petroleum refining process. An "associated organic
chemical manufacturing facility" is a facility for which the: primary SIC
code is 2869, but its operations may also include SIC codes 2821, 2822, and
2865; it is physically co-located with a petroleum refinery; and the petroleum
refinery to which the oil being recycled is returned also provides hydrocarbon
feedstocks to the organic chemical manufacturing facility. "Petrochemical
recovered oil" is oil that has been reclaimed from secondary materials
(i.e., sludges, by-products, or spent materials, including wastewater) from
normal organic chemical manufacturing operations, as well as oil recovered from
organic chemical manufacturing processes.
19) Spent caustic solutions from petroleum refining liquid treating
processes used as a feedstock to produce cresylic or naphthenic acid, unless
the material is placed on the land or accumulated speculatively, as defined in
Section 721.101(c).
20) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, if
that the following conditions are met:
A) Hazardous
secondary materials used to make zinc micronutrient fertilizers must not be
accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c)(8).
B) A
generator or intermediate handler of zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials
that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers must:
i) Submit
a one-time notice to the Agency that contains the name, address, and USEPA
identification number of the generator or intermediate handler facility, that
provides a brief description of the secondary material that will be subject to
the exclusion, and that identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin
managing excluded zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the
conditions specified in this subsection (a)(20).
ii) Store
the excluded secondary material in tanks, containers, or buildings that are constructed
and maintained in a way that prevents releases of the secondary materials into
the environment. At a minimum, any building used for this purpose must be an
engineered structure made of non-earthen materials that provide structural
support, and it must have a floor, walls, and a roof that prevent wind
dispersal and contact with rainwater. A tank used for this purpose must be
structurally sound and, if outdoors, it must have a roof or cover that prevents
contact with wind and rain. A container used for this purpose must be kept
closed, except when it is necessary to add or remove material, and it must be
in sound condition. Containers that are stored outdoors must be managed within
storage areas that meet the conditions of subsection (a)(20)(F).
iii) With
each off-site shipment of excluded hazardous secondary materials, provide
written notice to the receiving facility that the material is subject to the
conditions of this subsection (a)(20).
iv) Maintain
records at the generator's or intermediate handler's facility, for at least
three years, of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. For
each shipment these records must, at a minimum, contain the information
specified in subsection (a)(20)(G).
C) A
manufacturer of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients made from
excluded hazardous secondary materials must:
i) Store
excluded hazardous secondary materials in compliance with the storage
requirements for generators and intermediate handlers, as specified in
subsection (a)(20)(B)(ii).
ii) Submit
a one-time notification to the Agency that, at a minimum, specifies the name,
address, and USEPA identification number of the manufacturing facility and that
identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded zinc-bearing
hazardous secondary materials under the conditions specified in this subsection
(a)(20).
iii) Maintain
for a minimum of three years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous
secondary materials received by the manufacturer, which must at a minimum
identify for each shipment the name and address of the generating facility, the
name of transporter, and the date on which the materials were received, the
quantity received, and a brief description of the industrial process that
generated the material.
iv) Submit
an annual report to the Agency that identifies the total quantities of all
excluded hazardous secondary materials that were used to manufacture zinc
fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients in the previous year, the name and
address of each generating facility, and the industrial processes from which
the hazardous secondary materials were generated.
D) Nothing
in this Section preempts, overrides, or otherwise negates the provision in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.111 that requires any person who generates a solid waste to
determine if that waste is a hazardous waste.
E) Interim
status and permitted storage units that have been used to store only
zinc-bearing hazardous wastes prior to submitting the one-time notice described
in subsection (a)(20)(B)(i), and that afterward will be used only to store
hazardous secondary materials excluded under this subsection (a)(20), are not
subject to the closure requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725.
F) Storage
areas where containers are stored outdoors under subsection (a)(20)(B)(ii),
must:
i) Have
containment structures or systems sufficiently impervious to contain leaks,
spills, and accumulated precipitation;
ii) Provide
for effective drainage and removal of leaks, spills, and accumulated
precipitation; and
iii) Prevent
run-on into the containment system.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections
(a)(20)(F)(i) through (a)(20)(F)(iii) are derived from 40 CFR
261.4(a)(20)(ii)(B)(1) through (a)(20)(ii)(B)(3). The Board
added the preamble to these federal paragraphs as subsection (a)(20)(F) to
comport with Illinois Administrative Code codification requirements.
G) Required
records of shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials under subsection
(a)(20)(B)(iv) must, at a minimum, contain the following information:
i) The
name of the transporter and date of the shipment;
ii) The
name and address of the facility that received the excluded material, along
with documentation confirming receipt of the shipment; and
iii) The
type and quantity of excluded secondary material in each shipment.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections
(a)(20)(G)(i) through (a)(20)(G)(iii) are derived from 40 CFR 261.4(a)(20)(ii)(D)(1)
through (a)(20)(ii)(D)(3). The Board added the preamble to these
federal paragraphs as subsection (a)(20)(G) to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code codification requirements.
21) Zinc
fertilizers made from hazardous wastes or hazardous secondary materials that
are excluded under subsection (a)(20), if:
A) The
fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits:
i) For
metal contaminants:
|
Constituent
|
Maximum Allowable Total Concentration in Fertilizer, per
Unit (1%) of Zinc (ppm)
|
|
Arsenic
|
0.3
|
|
Cadmium
|
1.4
|
|
Chromium
|
0.6
|
|
Lead
|
2.8
|
|
Mercury
|
0.3
|
ii) For
dioxin contaminants, the fertilizer must contain no more than eight parts per
trillion of dioxin, measured as toxic equivalent (TEQ).
B) The
manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer product to
determine compliance with the contaminant limits for metals at least once every
six months, and for dioxins at least once every 12 months. Testing must also
be performed whenever changes occur to manufacturing processes or ingredients
that could significantly affect the amounts of contaminants in the fertilizer
product. The manufacturer may use any reliable analytical method to
demonstrate that a constituent of concern is not present in the product at
concentrations above the applicable limits. It is the responsibility of the
manufacturer to ensure that the sampling and analysis are unbiased, precise,
and representative of the products introduced into commerce.
C) The
manufacturer maintains, for at least three years, records of all sampling and
analyses performed for determining compliance with subsection (a)(21)(B). The
records must at a minimum include the following:
i) The
dates and times product samples were taken, and the dates the samples were
analyzed;
ii) The
names and qualifications of the persons taking the samples;
iii) A
description of the methods and equipment used to take the samples;
iv) The
name and address of the laboratory facility at which analyses of the samples
were performed;
v) A
description of the analytical methods used, including any cleanup and sample
preparation methods; and
vi) All
laboratory analytical results used to determine compliance with the contaminant
limits specified in this subsection (a)(21).
22) Used
CRTs
A) Used,
intact CRTs, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not solid waste
within the United States, unless they are disposed of or speculatively
accumulated, as defined in Section 721.101(c)(8), by a CRT collector or glass
processor.
B) Used,
intact CRTs, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not solid waste when
exported for recycling if they comply with Section 721.140.
C) Used,
broken CRTs, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not solid waste if
they comply with the requirements of Section 721.139.
D) Glass removed from CRTs is not a solid waste if it complies
with the requirements of Section 721.139(c).
23) Hazardous
Secondary Materials Reclaimed under the Control of the Generator. Hazardous
secondary material generated and legitimately reclaimed within the United
States or its territories and under the control of the generator, if the
material complies with subsections (a)(23)(A) and (a)(23)(B):
A) Excluded Hazardous Secondary
Materials
i) The
hazardous secondary material is generated and reclaimed at the generating
facility. (For this subsection (a)(23)(A)(i), "generating facility"
means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the hazardous
secondary material generator.);
ii) The
hazardous secondary material is generated and reclaimed at different
facilities, if the reclaiming facility is controlled by the generator or if
both the generating facility and the reclaiming facility are controlled by a
person as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, and if the generator provides
one of the following certifications:
"On behalf of [insert
generator facility name], I certify that this facility will send the indicated
hazardous secondary material to [insert reclaimer facility name], which is
controlled by [insert generator facility name] and that [insert name of either
facility] has acknowledged full responsibility for the safe management of the
hazardous secondary material."
or
"On behalf of [insert
generator facility name], I certify that this facility will send the indicated
hazardous secondary material to [insert reclaimer facility name], that both
facilities are under common control, and that [insert name of either facility]
has acknowledged full responsibility for the safe management of the hazardous
secondary material."
For subsection (a)(23)(A)(ii), "control"
means the power to direct the policies of the facility, whether by the
ownership of stock, voting rights, or otherwise, except that contractors who
operate facilities on behalf of a different person, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110, cannot be deemed to "control" such facilities. The
generating and receiving facilities must both maintain at their facilities, for
no less than three years, records of hazardous secondary materials sent or
received under this exclusion. In both cases, the records must contain the
name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, and the type and quantity of
the hazardous secondary material shipped or received under the exclusion.
These requirements may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g.,
financial records, bills of lading, copies of USDOT shipping papers, or
electronic confirmations); or
iii) The
hazardous secondary material is generated under a written contract between a
tolling contractor and a toll manufacturer and is reclaimed by the tolling
contractor, if the tolling contractor certifies as follows:
"On behalf of [insert tolling
contractor name], I certify that [insert tolling contractor name] has a written
contract with [insert toll manufacturer name] to manufacture [insert name of
product or intermediate] which is made from specified unused materials, and
that [insert tolling contractor name] will reclaim the hazardous secondary
materials generated during this manufacture. On behalf of [insert tolling
contractor name], I also certify that [insert tolling contractor name] retains
ownership of, and responsibility for, the hazardous secondary materials that
are generated during the course of the manufacture, including any releases of
hazardous secondary materials that occur during the manufacturing process."
The tolling contractor must
maintain at its facility, for at least three years, records of hazardous
secondary materials received under its written contract with the tolling
manufacturer, and the tolling manufacturer must maintain at its facility, for
no less than three years, records of hazardous secondary materials shipped under
its written contract with the tolling contractor. In both cases, the records
must contain the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, and the
type and quantity of the hazardous secondary material shipped or received under
the written contract. These requirements may be satisfied by routine business
records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of USDOT shipping
papers, or electronic confirmations). For this subsection (a)(23)(A)(ii), "tolling
contractor" means a person who arranges for producing a product or
intermediate made from specified unused materials through a written contract
with a toll manufacturer. "Toll manufacturer" means a person who
produces a product or intermediate made from specified unused materials under a
written contract with a tolling contractor.
B) Management
of Hazardous Secondary Materials
i) The hazardous
secondary material is contained, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110. A
hazardous secondary material released to the environment is discarded material
and a solid waste unless it is immediately recovered for reclamation.
Hazardous secondary material managed in a unit with leaks or other continuing
or intermittent unpermitted releases is discarded material and a solid waste;
ii) The hazardous
secondary material is not speculatively accumulated, as defined in Section
721.101(c)(8);
iii) Notice
is provided, as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142;
iv) The hazardous
secondary material is not otherwise subject to material-specific management
conditions under subsection (a) when reclaimed, and it is not a spent lead acid
battery (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.180 and 733.102);
v) Persons
performing the recycling of hazardous secondary materials under this exclusion
must maintain documentation of their legitimacy determination on-site.
Documentation must be a written description of how the recycling meets all three
factors in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.143(a) and how the factor in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.143(b) was considered. Documentation must be maintained for three
years after the recycling operation has ceased; and
vi) The
emergency preparedness and response requirements found in Subpart M are met.
24) Hazardous
Secondary Materials Transferred for Off-Site Reclamation. Hazardous secondary
material that is generated and then transferred to another person for
reclamation is not a solid waste if the management of the material meets the
conditions of subsections (a)(24)(A) through (a)(24)(G):
A) The
hazardous secondary material must not be speculatively accumulated, as defined
in Section 721.101(c)(8).
B) No
person or facility other than the hazardous secondary material generator, the
transporter, an intermediate facility, or a reclaimer manages the material; the
hazardous secondary material must not be stored for more than ten days at a
transfer facility, as defined in Section 721.110; and the hazardous secondary material
must be packaged according to applicable USDOT regulations codified as 49 CFR
173, 178, and 179, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
while in transport.
C) The
hazardous secondary material must not otherwise be subject to material-specific
management conditions under other provisions of this subsection (a) when
reclaimed, and the hazardous secondary material must not be a spent lead-acid
battery (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.180 and 733.102).
D) Reclaiming
the hazardous secondary material must be legitimate, as determined under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.143.
E) The
hazardous secondary material generator must meet each of the following
conditions:
i) The
hazardous secondary material must be contained as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110. A hazardous secondary material released to the environment is
discarded and a solid waste unless it is immediately recovered for recycling.
Hazardous secondary material managed in a unit that leaks or that otherwise
continuously releases hazardous secondary material is discarded material and a
solid waste.
ii) Prior
to arranging for transport of hazardous secondary materials to a reclamation
facility where the hazardous secondary material is managed in a unit that is
not subject to a RCRA permit or interim status standards, the hazardous
secondary material generator must make reasonable efforts to ensure that each
reclaimer intends to properly and legitimately reclaim the hazardous secondary
material and not discard it, and that each reclaimer will manage the hazardous
secondary material in a manner that is protective of human health and the
environment. If the hazardous secondary material will pass through an
intermediate facility where the hazardous secondary materials is managed at
that facility in a unit that is not subject to a RCRA permit or interim status
standards, the hazardous secondary material generator must make contractual
arrangements with the intermediate facility to ensure that the hazardous secondary
material is sent to the reclamation facility identified by the hazardous
secondary material generator, and the hazardous secondary material generator
must perform reasonable efforts to ensure that the intermediate facility will
manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is protective of human
health and the environment. Reasonable efforts must be repeated at a minimum
of every three years for the hazardous secondary material generator to claim
the exclusion and to send the hazardous secondary materials to each reclaimer
and any intermediate facility. In making these reasonable efforts, the
generator may use any credible evidence available, including information
gathered by the hazardous secondary material generator, provided by the reclaimer
or intermediate facility, or provided by a third party. The hazardous
secondary material generator must affirmatively answer the questions in
subsection (a)(24)(H) for each reclamation facility and any intermediate
facility.
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved the required generator inquiries of 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(v)(B)(1) through (a)(24)(v)(B)(5) to
subsection (a)(24)(H) to comply with codification requirements.
iii) The
hazardous secondary material generator must maintain for a minimum of three
years documentation and certification that reasonable efforts were made for
each reclamation facility and, if applicable, intermediate facility where the facility manages the hazardous secondary
materials in a unit that is not subject to a RCRA permit or interim status
standards prior to transferring hazardous secondary material.
Documentation and certification must be made available upon request by USEPA or
the Agency within 72 hours, or within a longer period as specified by USEPA or
the Agency. The certification statement must include the printed name and
official title of an authorized representative of the hazardous secondary
material generator company, the authorized representative's signature, and the
date signed. The certification statement must also incorporate the following
language:
"I hereby certify in good
faith and to the best of my knowledge that, prior to arranging for transport of
excluded hazardous secondary materials to [insert name(s) of reclamation
facility and any intermediate facility], reasonable efforts were made in compliance
with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(a)(24)(E)(ii) to ensure that the hazardous
secondary materials would be recycled legitimately, and otherwise managed in a
manner that is protective of human health and the environment, and that such
efforts were based on current and accurate information."
BOARD NOTE: The Board combined
the documentation, certification, and records retention requirements of
corresponding 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(v)(C)(1)
through (a)(24)(v)(C)(3) into subsection (a)(24)(E)(iii) to comply
with codification requirements.
iv) The
hazardous secondary material generator must maintain certain records at the
generating facility for a minimum of three years that document every off-site
shipment of hazardous secondary materials. The documentation for each shipment
must, at a minimum, include the following information about the shipment: the
name of the transporter and date of the shipment; the name and address of each
reclaimer and intermediate facility to which the hazardous secondary material
was sent; and the type and quantity of hazardous secondary material in the
shipment.
BOARD NOTE: The Board combined
and moved the shipping documentation and records retention requirements of
corresponding 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(v)(C) and (a)(24)(v)(C)(1) through (a)(24)(v)(C)(3)
to this single subsection (a)(24)(E)(iv). This combination allowed complying
with codification requirements relating to the maximum permissible indent
level.
v) The
hazardous secondary material generator must maintain at the generating facility,
for a minimum of three years, for every off-site shipment of hazardous
secondary materials, confirmations of receipt from each reclaimer and
intermediate facility to which its hazardous secondary materials were sent.
Each confirmation of receipt must include the name and address of the reclaimer
(or intermediate facility), the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary
materials received, and the date on which the facility received the hazardous
secondary materials. The generator may meet this requirement using routine
business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of USDOT
shipping papers, or electronic confirmations of receipt).
vi) The
hazardous secondary material generator must comply with the emergency preparedness
and response conditions in Subpart M.
BOARD NOTE: The Board intends
that "RCRA permit" in subsections (a)(24)(E)(ii) and (a)(24)(E)(iii)
include a permit issued by USEPA or a sister state under section 3005 of RCRA
(42 USC 6925).
F) The
reclaimer of hazardous secondary material or any intermediate facility, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, that manages material that is excluded
from regulation under this subsection (a)(24) must meet the following
conditions:
i) The
owner or operator of a reclamation or intermediate facility must maintain at
its facility for a minimum of three years records of every shipment of
hazardous secondary material that the facility received and, if applicable, for
every shipment of hazardous secondary material that the facility received and
subsequently sent off-site from the facility for further reclamation. For each
shipment, these records must, at a minimum, contain the following information:
the name of the transporter and date of the shipment; the name and address of
the hazardous secondary material generator and, if applicable, the name and
address of the reclaimer or intermediate facility from which the facility
received the hazardous secondary materials; the type and quantity of hazardous
secondary material in the shipment; and, for hazardous secondary materials that
the facility subsequently transferred off-site for further reclamation after
receiving it, the name and address of the (subsequent) reclaimer and any
intermediate facility to which the facility sent the hazardous secondary
material.
BOARD NOTE: The Board combined
the provisions from 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(A) and (a)(24)(vi)(A)(1) through
(a)(24)(vi)(A)(3) that enumerate the required information into this single
subsection (a)(24)(F)(i). This combination allowed complying with codification
requirements relating to the maximum permissible indent level.
ii) The
intermediate facility must send the hazardous secondary material to the
reclaimers designated by the generator of the hazardous secondary materials.
iii) The
reclaimer or intermediate facility that receives a shipment of hazardous
secondary material must send a confirmation of receipt to the hazardous
secondary material generator for each off-site shipment of hazardous secondary
materials. A confirmation of receipt must include the name and address of the
reclaimer (or intermediate facility), the type and quantity of the hazardous
secondary materials received, and the date on which the facility received the
hazardous secondary materials. The reclaimer or intermediate facility may meet
this requirement using routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills
of lading, copies of USDOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations of
receipt).
iv) The
reclaimer or intermediate facility must manage the hazardous secondary material
in a manner that is at least as protective of human health and the environment
as that employed for analogous raw material, and the material must be
contained. An "analogous raw material" is a raw material for which
the hazardous secondary material substitutes and that serves the same function
and has similar physical and chemical properties as the hazardous secondary
material.
v) A
reclaimer of hazardous secondary materials must manage any residuals that are
generated from its reclamation processes in a manner that is protective of
human health and the environment. If any residuals of the reclamation process
exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste, as defined in Subpart C, or if the
residuals themselves are specifically listed as hazardous waste in Subpart D,
those residuals are hazardous waste. The reclaimer and any subsequent persons
must manage that hazardous waste in compliance with the applicable requirements
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code: Subtitle G or similar regulations authorized by USEPA as
equivalent to 40 CFR 260 through 272.
vi) The
reclaimer and intermediate facility must have financial assurance that complies
with Subpart H.
G) In
addition, any person claiming the exclusion for recycled hazardous secondary
material under this subsection (a)(24) must provide notification as required by
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142.
H) For the reasonable inquiries required by subsection
(a)(24)(E)(ii), the hazardous secondary material
generator must affirmatively answer the following questions for each
reclamation facility and any intermediate facility:
i) Does
the available information indicate that the reclamation process is legitimate under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.143? In answering this question, the hazardous secondary
material generator can rely on its existing knowledge of the physical and
chemical properties of the hazardous secondary material, as well as information
from other sources (e.g., the reclamation facility, audit reports, etc.) about the
reclamation process.
ii) Does
the publicly available information indicate that the reclamation facility and
any intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material
generator notified the appropriate authorities of hazardous secondary materials
reclamation activities under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142, and have they notified
the appropriate authorities that the financial assurance condition is satisfied
per subsection (a)(24)(F)(vi)? In answering these questions, the hazardous
secondary material generator can rely on the available information documenting
the reclamation facility's and any intermediate facility's complying with the
notification requirements per 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142, including the
requirement in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142(a)(5) to notify USEPA or the Agency
whether the reclaimer or intermediate facility has financial assurance.
iii) Does
publicly available information indicate that the reclamation facility or any
intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material
generator has not had any formal enforcement actions taken against the facility
in the previous three years for violations of the RCRA hazardous waste
regulations and has not been classified as a significant noncomplier with RCRA
Subtitle C? In answering this question, the hazardous secondary material
generator can rely on the publicly available information from USEPA or the
state. If the reclamation facility or any intermediate facility that is used
by the hazardous secondary material generator has had a formal enforcement
action taken against the facility in the previous three years for violations of
the RCRA hazardous waste regulations and has been classified as a significant
non-complier with RCRA Subtitle C, does the hazardous secondary material
generator have credible evidence that the facility will manage the hazardous
secondary materials properly? In answering this question, the hazardous
secondary material generator can obtain additional information from USEPA, the
state, or the facility itself that the facility has addressed the violations,
taken remedial steps to address the violations and prevent future violations,
or that the violations are not relevant to the proper management of the
hazardous secondary materials.
iv) Does
the available information indicate that the reclamation facility and any
intermediate facility that is used by the hazardous secondary material
generator have the equipment and trained personnel to safely recycle the
hazardous secondary material? In answering this question, the generator may
rely on a description by the reclamation facility or by an independent third
party of the equipment and trained personnel to be used to recycle the
generator's hazardous secondary material.
v) If
residuals are generated from reclaiming the excluded hazardous secondary
materials, does the reclamation facility have the permits required (if any) to
manage the residuals? If not, does the reclamation facility have a contract
with an appropriately permitted facility to dispose of the residuals? If not,
does the hazardous secondary material generator have credible evidence that the
residuals will be managed in a manner that is protective of human health and
the environment? In answering these questions, the hazardous secondary material
generator can rely on publicly available information from USEPA or the state,
or information provided by the facility itself.
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved the
required generator inquiries into a reclamation or intermediate facility of 40
CFR 261.4(a)(24)(v)(B) and (a)(24)(v)(B)(1) through (a)(24)(v)(B)(5) to this
subsection (a)(24)(H) to comply with codification requirements.
25) Hazardous
secondary material that is exported from the United States and reclaimed at a
reclamation facility located in a foreign country is not a solid waste,
provided that the hazardous secondary material generator complies with the
applicable requirements of subsections (a)(24)(A) through (a)(24)(E) and
(a)(24)(H) (excepting subsection (a)(24)(H)(ii) for foreign reclaimers and
foreign intermediate facilities), and that the hazardous secondary material
generator also complies with the following requirements:
A) The
generator must notify USEPA of an intended export before the hazardous
secondary material is scheduled to leave the United States. The generator must
submit a complete notification at least 60 days before the initial shipment is
intended to be shipped off-site. This notification may cover export activities
extending over a 12-month or lesser period. The notification
must be in writing, signed by the hazardous secondary material generator, and
include the following information:
i) The
name, mailing address, telephone number and USEPA identification number (if
applicable) of the hazardous secondary material generator;
ii) A
description of the hazardous secondary material and the USEPA hazardous waste
number that would apply if the hazardous secondary material were managed as
hazardous waste and the USDOT proper shipping name, hazard class and
identification number (UN or NA) for each hazardous secondary material as
identified in the hazardous materials table in 49 CFR 172.101, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
iii) The
estimated frequency or rate at which the hazardous secondary material is to be
exported and the period over which the hazardous secondary material is to be
exported;
iv) The
estimated total quantity of hazardous secondary material;
v) All
points of entry to and departure from each foreign country through which the
hazardous secondary material will pass;
vi) A
description of the means by which each shipment of the hazardous secondary
material will be transported (e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air,
highway, rail, water, etc.), types of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.),
etc.);
vii) A
description of how the hazardous secondary material will be reclaimed in the
country of import;
viii) The
name and address of the reclaimer, any intermediate facility, and any alternate
reclaimer and intermediate facilities; and
ix) The
name of any countries of transit through which the hazardous secondary material
will be sent and a description of the approximate length of time it will remain
in such countries and the nature of its handling while there (for this Section,
the terms "USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent", "country of import",
and "country of transit" are used as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.181 with the exception that the terms in this Section refer to hazardous
secondary materials, rather than hazardous waste).
B) The
generator must submit notifications electronically using USEPA's Waste Import
Export Tracking System (WIETS).
C) Except
for changes to the telephone number required in subsection (a)(25)(A)(i) and
decreases in the quantity of hazardous secondary material indicated under subsection
(a)(25)(A)(iv), when the conditions specified on the original notification
change (including any exceedance of the estimate of the quantity of hazardous
secondary material specified in the original notification), the hazardous
secondary material generator must provide USEPA with a written renotification
of the change. The shipment must not occur until consent of the country of
import to the changes (except for changes to subsection (a)(25)(A)(ix) and in
the ports of entry to and departure from countries of transit under subsection
(a)(25)(A)(v)) has been obtained and the hazardous secondary material generator
receives from USEPA a USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent reflecting the country of
import's consent to the changes.
D) Upon
request by USEPA, the hazardous secondary material generator must furnish to
USEPA any additional information that a country of import requests to respond
to a notification.
E) USEPA
will provide a complete notification to the country of import and any countries
of transit. A notification is complete when USEPA receives a notification that
USEPA determines complies with subsection (a)(25)(A). When a claim of
confidentiality is asserted with respect to any notification information
required by subsection (a)(25)(A), USEPA may find the notification not complete
until any such claim is resolved in compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.102.
F) The
export of hazardous secondary material under this subsection (a)(25) is
prohibited unless the hazardous secondary material generator receives from
USEPA an USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent documenting the consent of the country
of import to the receipt of hazardous secondary material. When the country of
import objects to receipt of the hazardous secondary material or withdraws a
prior consent, USEPA will notify the hazardous secondary material generator in
writing. USEPA will also notify the hazardous secondary material generator of
any responses from countries of transit.
G) For
exports to OECD member countries, the receiving country may respond to the
notification using tacit consent. If no objection has been lodged by any
country of import or countries of transit to a notification provided under subsection
(a)(25)(A) within 30 days after the date of issuance of the acknowledgement of
receipt of notification by the competent authority of the country of import,
the transboundary movement may commence. In such cases, USEPA will send a USEPA
Acknowledgment of Consent to inform the hazardous secondary material generator
that the country of import and any relevant countries of transit have not
objected to the shipment and are thus presumed to have consented tacitly.
Tacit consent expires one calendar year after the close of the 30-day period;
renotification and renewal of all consents is required for exports after that
date.
H) A copy
of the USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent must accompany the shipment. The
shipment must conform to the terms of the USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent.
I) If the
shipment cannot be delivered for any reason to the reclaimer, intermediate
facility or the alternate reclaimer or alternate intermediate facility, the
hazardous secondary material generator must re-notify USEPA of a change in the
conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a new reclaimer in
compliance with subsection (a)(25)(C) and obtain another USEPA Acknowledgment
of Consent.
J) Hazardous
secondary material generators must keep a copy of each notification of intent
to export and each USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent for a period of three years
following receipt of the USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent. They may meet this
recordkeeping requirement by retaining electronically submitted notifications
or electronically generated Acknowledgements in their account on USEPA's WIETS,
provided that such copies are readily available for viewing and production if
requested by any USEPA or Agency inspector. No hazardous secondary material
generator may be held liable for the inability to produce a notification or
Acknowledgement for inspection under this Section if it can demonstrate that
the inability to produce such copies is due exclusively to technical difficulty
with USEPA's WIETS for which the hazardous secondary material generator bears
no responsibility.
K) Hazardous
secondary material generators must file with USEPA, no later than March 1 of
each year, a report summarizing the types, quantities, frequency, and ultimate
destination of all hazardous secondary materials exported during the previous
calendar year. Annual reports must be submitted electronically using USEPA's
WIETS. Such reports must include the following information:
i) Name,
mailing and site address, and USEPA identification number (if applicable) of
the hazardous secondary material generator;
ii) The
calendar year covered by the report;
iii) The
name and site address of each reclaimer and intermediate facility;
iv) By
reclaimer and intermediate facility, for each hazardous secondary material
exported, a description of the hazardous secondary material and the USEPA
hazardous waste number that would apply if the hazardous secondary material were
managed as hazardous waste; the USDOT hazard class, incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; the name and USEPA identification number (if
applicable) for each transporter used, the consent number(s) under which the
hazardous secondary material was shipped and for each consent number(s) the
total amount of hazardous secondary material shipped, and the number of
shipments during the calender year covered by the report; and
v) A
certification signed by the hazardous secondary material generator that states
as follows:
"I certify under penalty of
law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information
submitted in this and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of
those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I
believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information,
including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
L) Any
person claiming an exclusion under this subsection (a)(25) must provide
notification as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142.
26) Solvent-contaminated
wipes that are sent for cleaning and reuse are not solid wastes from the point
of generation if the following conditions are met:
A) The
solvent-contaminated wipes, when accumulated, stored, and transported, are
contained in non-leaking, closed containers that are labeled "Excluded
Solvent-Contaminated Wipes". The containers must be able to contain free
liquids, should free liquids occur. During accumulation, a container is
considered closed when there is complete contact between the fitted lid and the
rim, except when it is necessary to add or remove solvent-contaminated wipes.
When the container is full, when the solvent-contaminated wipes are no longer
being accumulated, or when the container is being transported, the container
must be sealed with all lids properly and securely affixed to the container and
all openings tightly bound or closed sufficiently to prevent leaks and
emissions;
B) The
solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180
days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent
for cleaning;
C) At the
point of being sent for cleaning on-site or at the point of being transported
off-site for cleaning, the solvent-contaminated wipes must contain no free
liquids, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
D) Free
liquids removed from the solvent-contaminated wipes or from the container
holding the wipes must be managed according to the applicable regulations found
in this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720, 722 through 728, and 733;
E) Generators
must maintain at their site the following documentation:
i) The
name and address of the laundry or dry cleaner that is receiving the
solvent-contaminated wipes;
ii) The
documentation that the 180-day accumulation time limit in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.104(a)(26)(B) is being met; and
iii) A
description of the process the generator is using to ensure that the
solvent-contaminated wipes contain no free liquids at the point of being
laundered or dry cleaned on-site or at the point of being transported off-site
for laundering or dry cleaning; and
F) The
solvent-contaminated wipes are sent to a laundry or dry cleaner whose
discharge, if any, is regulated under sections 301 and 402 or section 307 of
the federal Clean Water Act (33 USC 1311 and 1341 or 33 USC 1317) or equivalent
Illinois or sister-state requirements approved by USEPA under 33 USC 1311 through
1346 and 1370.
27) Hazardous
secondary material that is generated and then transferred to another person for
remanufacturing is not a solid waste, provided that the following conditions
are met:
BOARD NOTE: The North American
Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes used in this subsection (a)(27)
are defined in the NAICS Manual, available from the Office of Management and
Budget and incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
A) The
hazardous secondary material consists of one or more of the following spent
solvents: toluene, xylenes, ethylbenzene, 1,2,4-trimethylbenzene,
chlorobenzene, n-hexane, cyclohexane, methyl tert-butyl ether, acetonitrile,
chloroform, chloromethane, dichloromethane, methyl isobutyl ketone,
N,N-dimethylformamide, tetrahydrofuran, n-butyl alcohol, ethanol, or methanol.
B) The
hazardous secondary material originated from using one or more of the solvents
listed in subsection (a)(27)(A) in a commercial grade for reacting, extracting,
purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines
associated with these functions) in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS
325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and
resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), or the paints and coatings manufacturing
sectors (NAICS 325510).
C) The
hazardous secondary material generator sends the hazardous secondary material
spent solvents listed in subsection (a)(27)(A) to a remanufacturer in the
pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing
(NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), or the paints
and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510).
D) After
remanufacturing one or more of the solvents listed in subsection (a)(27)(A),
the use of the remanufactured solvent must be limited to reacting, extracting,
purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines
associated with these functions) in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS
325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and
resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and the paints and coatings manufacturing
sectors (NAICS 325510) or to using them as ingredients in a product. These
allowed uses correspond to chemical functional uses enumerated in 40 CFR
711.15(b)(4)(i)(C) (Reporting Information to EPA), incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, including Industrial Function Category Codes U015
(solvents consumed in a reaction to produce other chemicals) and U030 (solvents
that become part of the mixture).
BOARD NOTE: The Board observes
that the citation to Toxic Substances Control Act function categories and use
of the word "including" to preface specific example Industrial
Function Category Codes does not expand the range of permissible uses beyond
the express limitations recited in the first segment of this subsection
(a)(27)(D) and subsection (a)(27)(E).
E) After
remanufacturing one or more of the solvents listed in subsection (a)(27)(i),
the use of the remanufactured solvent does not involve cleaning or degreasing
oil, grease, or similar material from textiles, glassware, metal surfaces, or
other articles. (These disallowed continuing uses correspond to chemical
functional uses in Industrial Function Category Code U029 (solvents (for
cleaning and degreasing)) in 40 CFR 711.15(b)(4)(i)(C), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
F) Both
the hazardous secondary material generator and the remanufacturer must meet the
following requirements:
i) The
generator and remanufacturer must notify USEPA Region 5 and the Agency, and
update the notification every two years per 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.142;
ii) The
generator and remanufacturer must develop and maintain an up-to-date
remanufacturing plan that identifies the information enumerated in subsection
(a)(27)(G);
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved
corresponding 40 CFR 261.4(a)(27)(vi)(B)(1) through (a)(27)(vi)(B)(1) to appear
as subsections (a)(27)(G)(i) through (a)(27)(G)(v) to comport with codification
requirements.
iii) The
generator and remanufacturer must maintain records of shipments and
confirmations of receipts for a period of three years from the dates of the
shipments;
iv) The
generator and remanufacturer must, prior to remanufacturing, store the
hazardous spent solvents in tanks or containers that meet technical standards
found in Subparts I and J, with the tanks and containers being labeled or
otherwise having an immediately available record of the material being stored;
v) The
generator and remanufacturer must, during remanufacturing, and during storage
of the hazardous secondary materials prior to remanufacturing, the
remanufacturer certifies that the remanufacturing equipment, vents, and tanks
are equipped with and are operating air emission controls complying with the
applicable Clean Air Act regulations of 40 CFR 60, 61 and 63, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; or, absent such Clean Air Act standards
for the particular operation or piece of equipment covered by the
remanufacturing exclusion, are complying with the appropriate standards in Subparts
AA (vents), BB (equipment) and CC (tank storage); and
vi) The
generator and remanufacturer must meet the requirements prohibiting speculative
accumulation in Section 721.101(c)(8).
G) The
following information items are required elements for a remanufacturing plan.
i) The
name, address and USEPA ID number of the generators and the remanufacturers;
ii) The
types and estimated annual volumes of spent solvents to be remanufactured;
iii) The
processes and industry sectors that generate the spent solvents;
iv) The
specific uses and industry sectors for the remanufactured solvents; and
v) A
certification from the remanufacturer stating as follows:
"On behalf of [insert
remanufacturer facility name], I certify that this facility is a remanufacturer
under pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical
manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211),
and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510), and will
accept the spent solvent(s) solely for remanufacturing into commercial-grade
solvent(s) that will be used for reacting, extracting, purifying, or blending
chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines associated with these
functions) or for use as product ingredient(s). I also certify that the
remanufacturing equipment, vents, and tanks are equipped with and are operating
air emission controls complying with the appropriate Clean Air Act regulations
under 40 CFR 60, 61 or 63, or, absent such Clean Air Act standards for the
particular operation or piece of equipment covered by the remanufacturing
exclusion, comply with the appropriate standards in Subparts AA (vents), BB
(equipment) and CC (tank storage)."
BOARD NOTE: Subsections
(a)(27)(G)(i) through (a)(27)(G)(v) correspond with 40 CFR 261.4(a)(27)(vi)(B)(1)
through (a)(27)(vi)(B)(1), moved to this subsection (a)(27)(G) to
comport with codification requirements.
b) Solid Wastes That Are Not Hazardous Wastes. The following
solid wastes are not hazardous wastes:
1) Household waste, including household waste that has been
collected, transported, stored, treated, disposed of, recovered (e.g.,
refuse-derived fuel), or reused. "Household waste" means any waste
material (including garbage, trash, and sanitary wastes in septic tanks)
derived from households (including single and multiple residences, hotels, and
motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds,
and day-use recreation areas). A resource recovery facility managing municipal
solid waste must not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or
otherwise managing hazardous wastes for regulation under this Part, if the
following describe the facility:
A) The facility receives and burns only the following waste:
i) Household waste (from single and multiple dwellings, hotels,
motels, and other residential sources); or
ii) Solid waste from commercial or industrial sources that does
not contain hazardous waste; and
B) The facility does not accept hazardous waste and the owner or
operator of such facility has established contractual requirements or other
appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure that hazardous
wastes are not received at or burned in such facility.
BOARD NOTE:
The U.S. Supreme Court determined, in City of Chicago v. Environmental Defense
Fund, Inc., 511 U.S. 328, 114 S. Ct. 1588, 128 L. Ed. 2d 302 (1994), that this
exclusion and RCRA section 3001(i) (42 USC 6921(i)) do not exclude the ash from
facilities covered by this subsection (b)(1) from regulation as a hazardous
waste. At 59 Fed. Reg. 29372 (June 7, 1994), USEPA granted facilities managing
ash from such facilities that is determined a hazardous waste under Subpart C
until December 7, 1994 to file a RCRA Part A permit application under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.181. At 60 Fed. Reg. 6666 (Feb. 3, 1995), USEPA stated that it
interpreted that the point at which ash becomes subject to RCRA Subtitle C
regulation is when that material leaves the combustion building (including
connected air pollution control equipment).
2) Solid wastes generated by any of the following that are
returned to the soil as fertilizers:
A) The growing and harvesting of agricultural crops; or
B) The raising of animals, including animal manures.
3) Mining overburden returned to the mine site.
4) Coal and Fossil Fuel Combustion Waste
A) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas
emission control waste generated primarily from combusting coal or other fossil
fuels, except as provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for facilities that burn
or process hazardous waste.
B) The
following wastes generated primarily from processes that support combusting
coal or other fossil fuels that are co-disposed with the wastes in subsection
(b)(4)(A), except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.112 for facilities that
burn or process hazardous waste:
i) Coal
Pile Run-Off. For this subsection (b)(4), "coal pile run-off" means
any precipitation that drains off coal piles.
ii) Boiler
Cleaning Solutions. For this subsection (b)(4), "boiler cleaning
solutions" means water solutions and chemical solutions used to clean the
fire-side and waterside of the boiler.
iii) Boiler
Blowdown. For this subsection (b)(4), "boiler blowdown" means water
purged from boilers used to generate steam.
iv) Process
Water Treatment and Demineralizer Regeneration Wastes. For this subsection
(b)(4), "process water treatment and demineralizer regeneration wastes"
means sludges, rinses, and spent resins generated from processes to remove
dissolved gases, suspended solids, and dissolved chemical salts from combustion
system process water.
v) Cooling
Tower Blowdown. For this subsection (b)(4), "cooling tower blowdown"
means water purged from a closed cycle cooling system. Closed cycle cooling
systems include cooling towers, cooling ponds, or spray canals.
vi) Air Heater
and Precipitator Washes. For this subsection (b)(4), "air heater and
precipitator washes" means wastes from cleaning air preheaters and
electrostatic precipitators.
vii) Effluents
from Floor and Yard Drains and Sumps. For this subsection (b)(4), "effluents
from floor and yard drains and sumps" means wastewaters, such as wash
water, collected by or from floor drains, equipment drains, and sumps located
inside the power plant building; and wastewaters, such as rain run-off,
collected by yard drains and sumps located outside the power plant building.
viii) Wastewater
Treatment Sludges. For this subsection (b)(4), "wastewater treatment
sludges" refers to sludges generated from the treatment of wastewaters
specified in subsections (b)(4)(B)(i) through (b)(4)(B)(vi).
5) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated
with the exploring, developing, or producing crude oil, natural gas, or
geothermal energy.
6) Chromium Wastes
A) Wastes that fail the test for the toxicity characteristic
(Section 721.124 and Appendix B) because chromium is present or that are listed
in Subpart D due to the presence of chromium, that do not fail the test for the
toxicity characteristic for any other constituent or that are not listed due to
the presence of any other constituent, and that do not fail the test for any
other characteristic, if the waste generator shows the following:
i) The chromium in the waste is exclusively (or nearly
exclusively) trivalent chromium;
ii) The waste is generated from an industrial process that uses
trivalent chromium exclusively (or nearly exclusively) and the process does not
generate hexavalent chromium; and
iii) The waste is typically and frequently managed in non-oxidizing
environments.
B) The following are specific wastes that meet the standard in
subsection (b)(6)(A) (so long as they do not fail the test for the toxicity
characteristic for any other constituent and do not exhibit any other
characteristic):
i) Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish,
no beamhouse, through-the-blue, and shearling;
ii) Chrome (blue) shavings generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish,
no beamhouse, through-the-blue, and shearling;
iii) Buffing dust generated by the following subcategories of the
leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue;
iv) Sewer screenings generated by the following subcategories of
the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet
finish, hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue, and shearling;
v) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish,
no beamhouse, through-the-blue, and shearling;
vi) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, and
through-the-blue;
vii) Waste scrap leather from the leather tanning industry, the
shoe manufacturing industry, and other leather product manufacturing
industries; and
viii) Wastewater treatment sludges from producing titanium dioxide
pigment using chromium-bearing ores by the chloride process.
7) Solid waste from extracting, beneficiating, and processing of
ores and minerals (including coal, phosphate rock, and overburden from the
mining of uranium ore), except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for
facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
A) For this subsection (b)(7), beneficiating ores and minerals is
restricted to the following activities: crushing; grinding; washing;
dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting; sizing; drying; sintering;
pelletizing; briquetting; calcining to remove water or carbon dioxide;
roasting; autoclaving or chlorination in preparation for leaching (except if
the roasting (or autoclaving or chlorination) and leaching sequence produces a
final or intermediate product that does not undergo further beneficiation or
processing); gravity concentration; magnetic separation; electrostatic
separation; floatation; ion exchange; solvent extraction; electrowinning;
precipitation; amalgamation; and heap, dump, vat tank, and in situ leaching.
B) For the this subsection (b)(7), solid waste from the processing
of ores and minerals includes only the following wastes as generated:
i) Slag from primary copper processing;
ii) Slag from primary lead processing;
iii) Red and brown muds from bauxite refining;
iv) Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid production;
v) Slag from elemental phosphorus production;
vi) Gasifier ash from coal gasification;
vii) Process wastewater from coal gasification;
viii) Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant sludge from primary
copper processing;
ix) Slag tailings from primary copper processing;
x) Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid production;
xi) Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid production;
xii) Air pollution control dust or sludge from iron blast furnaces;
xiii) Iron blast furnace slag;
xiv) Treated residue from roasting and leaching of chrome ore;
xv) Process wastewater from primary magnesium processing by the
anhydrous process;
xvi) Process wastewater from phosphoric acid production;
xvii) Basic oxygen furnace and open-hearth furnace air pollution
control dust or sludge from carbon steel production;
xviii) Basic oxygen furnace and open-hearth furnace slag from carbon
steel production;
xix) Chloride processing waste solids from titanium tetrachloride
production; and
xx) Slag from primary zinc production.
C) A residue derived from co-processing mineral processing
secondary materials with normal beneficiation raw materials or with normal
mineral processing raw materials remains excluded under this subsection (b) if
the following conditions are met:
i) The owner or operator processes at least 50 percent by weight
normal beneficiation raw materials or normal mineral processing raw materials;
and
ii) The owner or operator legitimately reclaims the secondary
mineral processing materials.
8) Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.212 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
9) Solid waste that consists of discarded arsenical-treated wood
or wood products that fails the test for the toxicity characteristic for USEPA hazardous
waste numbers D004 through D017 and that is not a hazardous waste for any other
reason if the waste is generated by persons that utilize the arsenical-treated
wood and wood products for these materials' intended end use.
10) Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail the test for
the toxicity characteristic of Section 721.124 (USEPA hazardous waste numbers D018
through D043 only) and that are subject to corrective action regulations under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 731.
11) This subsection (b)(11) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(b)(11),
which expired by its own terms on January 25, 1993. This statement maintains
structural parity with USEPA regulations.
12) Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally enclosed heat
transfer equipment, including mobile air conditioning systems, mobile
refrigeration, and commercial and industrial air conditioning and refrigeration
systems, that use chlorofluorocarbons as the heat transfer fluid in a
refrigeration cycle, provided the refrigerant is reclaimed for further use.
13) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with
wastes listed in Subpart D, if these oil filters have been gravity hot-drained
using one of the following methods:
A) Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve or the filter dome
end and hot-draining;
B) Hot-draining and crushing;
C) Dismantling and hot-draining; or
D) Any other equivalent hot-draining method that will remove used
oil.
14) Used oil re-refining distillation bottoms that are used as
feedstock to manufacture asphalt products.
15) Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where
certain solid wastes have been disposed of, under the following circumstances:
A) The following conditions must be met:
i) The solid wastes disposed of would meet one or more of the
listing descriptions for the following USEPA hazardous waste numbers that are
generated after the effective date listed for the waste:
|
USEPA Hazardous
Waste Numbers
|
Listing Effective Date
|
|
K169, K170, K171, and K172
|
February 8, 1999
|
|
K174 and K175
|
May 7, 2001
|
|
K176, K177, and K178
|
May 20, 2002
|
|
K181
|
August 23, 2005
|
ii) The solid wastes described in subsection (b)(15)(A)(i) were
disposed of prior to the effective date of the listing (as provided in that
subsection);
iii) The leachate or gas condensate does not exhibit any
characteristic of hazardous waste nor is derived from any other listed
hazardous waste; and
iv) Discharge of the leachate or gas condensate, including
leachate or gas condensate transferred from the landfill to a POTW by truck,
rail, or dedicated pipe, is subject to regulation under section 307(b) or 402
of the federal Clean Water Act (33 USC 1317(b) or 1342).
B) Leachate or gas condensate derived from K169, K170, K171, K172,
K176, K177, K178, or K181 waste will no longer be exempt if it is stored or
managed in a surface impoundment prior to discharge. There is one exception:
if the surface impoundment is used to temporarily store leachate or gas
condensate in response to an emergency situation (e.g., shutdown of wastewater
treatment system), provided the impoundment has a double liner, and provided
the leachate or gas condensate is removed from the impoundment and continues to
be managed complying with the conditions of this subsection (b)(15) after the
emergency ends.
16) This
subsection (b)(16) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(b)(16), which USEPA has marked
"reserved". This statement maintains structural parity with USEPA
regulations.
17) This
subsection (b)(17) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(b)(17), which pertains
exclusively to waste generated by a specific facility outside Illinois.
This statement maintains structural parity with USEPA regulations.
18) Solvent-contaminated
wipes, except for wipes that are hazardous waste due to the presence of
trichloroethylene, that are sent for disposal are not hazardous wastes from the
point of generation if the following conditions are met:
A) The
solvent-contaminated wipes, when accumulated, stored, and transported, are
contained in non-leaking, closed containers that are labeled "Excluded
Solvent-Contaminated Wipes". The containers must be able to contain free
liquids, should free liquids occur. During accumulation, a container is
considered closed when there is complete contact between the fitted lid and the
rim, except when it is necessary to add or remove solvent-contaminated wipes.
When the container is full, when the solvent-contaminated wipes are no longer
being accumulated, or when the container is being transported, the container
must be sealed with all lids properly and securely affixed to the container and
all openings tightly bound or closed sufficiently to prevent leaks and
emissions;
B) The
solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180
days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent
for disposal;
C) At the
point of being transported for disposal, the solvent-contaminated wipes must
contain no free liquids, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
D) Free
liquids removed from the solvent-contaminated wipes or from the container
holding the wipes must be managed according to the applicable regulations found
in this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720, 722 through 728, and 733;
E) Generators
must maintain at their site the following documentation:
i) The
name and address of the landfill or combustor that is receiving the
solvent-contaminated wipes;
ii) The
documentation that the 180-day accumulation time limit in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.104(b)(18)(B) is being met; and
iii) A description
of the process the generator is using to ensure that the solvent-contaminated
wipes contain no free liquids at the point of being transported for disposal;
and
F) The
solvent-contaminated wipes are sent for disposal at one of the following facilities:
i) A
municipal solid waste landfill regulated under RCRA Subtitle D regulations: 35
Ill. Adm. Code 810 through 815, including the landfill design criteria of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 811.303 through 811.309, 811.315 through 811.317, and Subpart E
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 811 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 814.302 and 814.402; 40 CFR 258,
including the landfill design criteria of 40 CFR 258.40; or equivalent
regulations of a sister state that USEPA has approved under 42 USC 6943 and
6947; or
ii) A
hazardous waste landfill regulated under RCRA Subtitle C regulations: 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 or 725; 40 CFR 264 or 265; or equivalent regulations of a sister
state that USEPA has approved under 42 USC 6926; or
iii) A
municipal waste combustor or other combustion facility regulated under section
129 of the Clean Air Act (42 USC 7429) or equivalent Illinois or sister-state
regulations approved by USEPA under 42 USC 7429; or
iv) A
hazardous waste combustor, boiler, or industrial furnace regulated under RCRA
Subtitle C regulations: 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725 or Subpart H of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726; 40 CFR 264 or 265 or subpart H of 40 CFR 266; or equivalent
regulations of a sister state that USEPA has approved under 42 USC 6926.
c) Hazardous wastes that are exempted from certain regulations. A
hazardous waste that is generated in a product or raw material storage tank, a
product or raw material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw material
pipeline, or in a manufacturing process unit, or an associated
non-waste-treatment manufacturing unit, is not subject to regulation under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 728 or to the notification
requirements of section 3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930) until it exits the unit in
which it was generated, unless the unit is a surface impoundment, or unless the
hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days after the unit ceases to
be operated for manufacturing or for storage or transporting product or raw
materials.
d) Samples
1) Except as provided in subsections (d)(2) and (d)(4), a sample
of solid waste or a sample of water, soil, or air that is collected solely for
testing to determine its characteristics or composition is not subject to any
requirements of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 728.
The sample qualifies when it meets one of the following conditions:
A) The sample is being transported to a laboratory for testing;
B) The sample is being transported back to the sample collector
after testing;
C) The sample is being stored by the sample collector before
transport to a laboratory for testing;
D) The sample is being stored in a laboratory before testing;
E) The sample is being stored in a laboratory for testing but
before it is returned to the sample collector; or
F) The sample is being stored temporarily in the laboratory after
testing for a specific purpose (for example, until conclusion of a court case or
enforcement action if further testing of the sample may be necessary).
2) To qualify for the exemption in subsection (d)(1)(A) or
(d)(1)(B), a sample collector shipping samples to a laboratory and a laboratory
returning samples to a sample collector must do the following:
A) Comply with USDOT, U.S. Postal Service (USPS), or any other
applicable shipping requirements; or
B) Comply with the following requirements if the sample collector
determines that USDOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the
shipment of the sample:
i) Assure that the following information accompanies the
sample: The sample collector's name, mailing address, and telephone number;
the laboratory's name, mailing address, and telephone number; the quantity of
the sample; the date of the shipment; and a description of the sample; and
ii) Package the sample so that it does not leak, spill, or
vaporize from its packaging.
3) This exemption does not apply if the laboratory determines
that the waste is hazardous, but the laboratory is no longer meeting any of the
conditions stated in subsection (d)(1).
4) To qualify for the exemption in subsections (d)(1)(A) and
(d)(1)(B), the mass of a sample that will be exported to a foreign laboratory
or that will be imported to a U.S. laboratory from a foreign source must
additionally not exceed 25 kg.
e) Treatability Study Samples
1) Except as provided in subsections (e)(2) and (e)(4), a person
that generates or collects samples for conducting treatability studies, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not subject to any requirement of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 through 723 or to the notification requirements of section
3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930). Nor are such samples included in the quantity
determinations of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.114 and 722.116 when:
A) The sample is being collected and prepared for transportation
by the generator or sample collector;
B) The sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or
sample collector prior to transportation to a laboratory or testing facility;
or
C) The sample is being transported to the laboratory or testing
facility for conducting a treatability study.
2) The exemption in subsection (e)(1) is applicable to samples of
hazardous waste being collected and shipped for conducting treatability studies
provided that the following conditions are met:
A) The generator or sample collector uses (in "treatability
studies") no more than 10,000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute
hazardous waste, 1,000 kg of non-acute hazardous waste other than contaminated
media, 1 kg of acute hazardous waste, or 2,500 kg of media contaminated with
acute hazardous waste for each process being evaluated for each generated waste
stream;
B) The mass of each shipment does not exceed 10,000 kg; the 10,000
kg quantity may be all media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, or
may include 2,500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste, 1,000 kg
of hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste;
C) The sample must be packaged so that it does not leak, spill, or
vaporize from its packaging during shipment and subsection (e)(2)(C)(i) or
(e)(2)(C)(ii) are met.
i) Transporting each sample shipment complies with USDOT, USPS,
or any other applicable shipping requirements; or
ii) If the USDOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do not
apply to the shipment of the sample, the following information must accompany
the sample: The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the originator
of the sample; the name, address, and telephone number of the facility that
will perform the treatability study; the quantity of the sample; the date of
the shipment; and, a description of the sample, including its USEPA hazardous
waste number;
D) The sample is shipped to a laboratory or testing facility that
is exempt under subsection (f), or has an appropriate RCRA permit or interim
status;
E) The generator or sample collector maintains the following
records for a period ending three years after completing the treatability
study:
i) Copies of the shipping documents;
ii) A copy of the contract with the facility conducting the
treatability study; and
iii) Documentation showing the following: The amount of waste
shipped under this exemption; the name, address, and USEPA identification
number of the laboratory or testing facility that received the waste; the date
the shipment was made; and whether or not unused samples and residues were
returned to the generator; and
F) The generator reports the information required in subsection
(e)(2)(E)(iii) in its report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.141.
3) The Agency may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up
to an additional two years for treatability studies involving bioremediation.
The Agency may grant requests, on a case-by-case basis, for quantity limits in
excess of those specified in subsections (e)(2)(A), (e)(2)(B), and (f)(4), for
up to an additional 5,000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous
waste, 500 kg of non-acute hazardous waste, 2,500 kg of media contaminated with
acute hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste under the
circumstances in either subsection (e)(3)(A) or (e)(3)(B), subject to the
limitations of subsection (e)(3)(C):
A) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store, and
conduct further treatability studies on additional quantities in advance of
commencing treatability studies. Factors to be considered in reviewing such
requests include the nature of the technology, the type of process (e.g.,
batch versus continuous), the size of the unit undergoing testing (particularly
in relation to scale-up considerations), the time or quantity of material
required to reach steady-state operating conditions, or test design
considerations, such as mass balance calculations.
B) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store, and
conduct treatability studies on additional quantities after initiating or completing
initial treatability studies when the following occurs: There has been an
equipment or mechanical failure during the conduct of the treatability study,
there is need to verify the results of a previously-conducted treatability
study, there is a need to study and analyze alternative techniques within a
previously-evaluated treatment process, or there is a need to do further evaluating
an ongoing treatability study to determine final specifications for treatment.
C) The additional quantities and timeframes allowed in subsections
(e)(3)(A) and (e)(3)(B) are subject to all the provisions in subsections (e)(1)
and (e)(2)(B) through (e)(2)(F). The generator or sample collector must apply
to the Agency and provide in writing the following information:
i) The reason why the generator or sample collector requires
additional time or quantity of sample for the treatability study evaluation and
the additional time or quantity needed;
ii) Documentation accounting for all samples of hazardous waste
from the waste stream that have been sent for or undergone treatability
studies, including the date each previous sample from the waste stream was
shipped, the quantity of each previous shipment, the laboratory or testing
facility to which it was shipped, what treatability study processes were
conducted on each sample shipped, and the available results of each
treatability study;
iii) A description of the technical modifications or change in
specifications that will be evaluated and the expected results;
iv) If such further study is being required due to equipment or
mechanical failure, the applicant must include information regarding the reason
for the failure or breakdown and also include what procedures or equipment
improvements have been made to protect against further breakdowns; and
v) Such other information as the Agency determines is necessary.
4) To qualify for the exemption in subsection (e)(1)(A), the mass
of a sample that will be exported to a foreign laboratory or testing facility,
or that will be imported to a U.S. laboratory or testing facility from a
foreign source must additionally not exceed 25 kg.
5) Final Agency determinations under this subsection (e) may be
appealed to the Board.
f) Samples undergoing treatability studies at laboratories or
testing facilities. Samples undergoing treatability studies and the laboratory
or testing facility conducting such treatability studies (to the extent such
facilities are not otherwise subject to RCRA requirements) are not subject to
any requirement of this Part, or of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through
726, and 728 or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA (42
USC 6930), provided that the owner or operator complies with subsections (f)(1)
through (f)(11). A mobile treatment unit may qualify as a testing facility
subject to subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11). Where a group of mobile
treatment units are located at the same site, the limitations specified in
subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11) apply to the entire group of mobile
treatment units collectively as if the group were one mobile treatment unit.
1) No less than 45 days before conducting treatability studies,
the facility notifies the Agency in writing that it intends to conduct
treatability studies under this subsection (f).
2) The laboratory or testing facility conducting the treatability
study has a USEPA identification number.
3) No more than a total of 10,000 kg of "as received"
media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 2,500 kg of media
contaminated with acute hazardous waste, or 250 kg of other "as
received" hazardous waste is subject to initiating treatment in all
treatability studies in any single day. "As received" waste refers
to the waste as received in the shipment from the generator or sample
collector.
4) The quantity of "as received" hazardous waste stored
at the facility for evaluation in treatability studies does not exceed 10,000
kg, the total of which can include 10,000 kg of media contaminated with
non-acute hazardous waste, 2,500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous
waste, 1,000 kg of non-acute hazardous wastes other than contaminated media,
and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste. This quantity limitation does not include
treatment materials (including non-hazardous solid waste) added to "as
received" hazardous waste.
5) No more than 90 days have elapsed since the treatability study
for the sample was completed, or no more than one year (two years for
treatability studies involving bioremediation) has elapsed since the generator
or sample collector shipped the sample to the laboratory or testing facility,
whichever date first occurs. Up to 500 kg of treated material from a particular
waste stream from treatability studies may be archived for future evaluation up
to five years from the date of initial receipt. Quantities of materials
archived are counted against the total storage limit for the facility.
6) The treatability study does not involve the placement of
hazardous waste on the land or open burning of hazardous waste.
7) The facility maintains records for three years following completing
each study that show complying with the treatment rate limits and the storage
time and quantity limits. The following specific information must be included
for each treatability study conducted:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of the
generator or sample collector of each waste sample;
B) The date the shipment was received;
C) The quantity of waste accepted;
D) The quantity of "as received" waste in storage each
day;
E) The date the treatment study was initiated and the amount of
"as received" waste introduced to treatment each day;
F) The date the treatability study was concluded;
G) The date any unused sample or residues generated from the
treatability study were returned to the generator or sample collector or, if
sent to a designated facility, the name of the facility and the USEPA
identification number.
8) The facility keeps, on-site, a copy of the treatability study
contract and all shipping papers associated with the transport of treatability
study samples to and from the facility for a period ending three years from the
completion date of each treatability study.
9) The facility prepares and submits a report to the Agency, by
March 15 of each year, that includes the following information for the previous
calendar year:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of the
facility conducting the treatability studies;
B) The types (by process) of treatability studies conducted;
C) The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been
conducted (including their USEPA identification numbers);
D) The total quantity of waste in storage each day;
E) The quantity and types of waste subjected to treatability
studies;
F) When each treatability study was conducted; and
G) The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each
treatability study.
10) The facility determines whether any unused sample or residues
generated by the treatability study are hazardous waste under Section 721.103
and, if so, are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 721 through 728,
unless the residues and unused samples are returned to the sample originator
under the exemption of subsection (e).
11) The facility notifies the Agency by letter when the facility is
no longer planning to conduct any treatability studies at the site.
g) Dredged Material That Is Not a Hazardous Waste. Dredged
material that is subject to a permit that has been issued under section 404 of
the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 USC 1344) is not a hazardous
waste. For this subsection (g), the following definitions apply:
"Dredged
material" has the meaning ascribed it in 40 CFR 232.2 (Definitions),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
"Permit"
means any of the following:
A permit
issued by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Army Corps) under section 404 of
the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 USC 1344);
A permit
issued by the Army Corps under section 103 of the Marine Protection, Research,
and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 USC 1413); or
In the case of
Army Corps civil works projects, the administrative equivalent of the permits
referred to in the preceding two paragraphs of this definition, as provided for
in Army Corps regulations (for example, see 33 CFR 336.1, 336.2, and 337.6).
h) Carbon
Dioxide Stream Injected for Geologic Sequestration. Carbon dioxide streams
that are captured and transported for injecting into an underground injection
well subject to the requirements for Class VI carbon sequestration injection
wells, including the requirements in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704 and 730, are not a
hazardous waste, if the following conditions are met:
1) Transporting
the carbon dioxide stream must comply with U.S. Department of Transportation
requirements, including the pipeline safety laws (chapter 601 of subtitle VIII
of 49 USC, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111) and
regulations (49 CFR 190 through 199, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111) of the U.S. Department of Transportation, and pipeline safety
regulations adopted and administered by a state authority under a certification
under 49 USC 60105, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, and
49 CFR 171 through 180, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
as applicable;
BOARD NOTE: The parenthetical
language relating to pipeline transportation does not preclude transportation
by air, water, highway, or rail that complies with U.S. Department of
Transportation regulations at 49 CFR 171 through 180. For this reason, the
Board has added citations of those regulations.
2) Injecting
the carbon dioxide stream must comply with the applicable requirements for
Class VI carbon sequestration injection wells, including the applicable
requirements in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704 and 730;
3) No
hazardous wastes may be mixed with, or otherwise co-injected with, the carbon
dioxide stream; and
4) Required
Certifications
A) Any
generator of a carbon dioxide stream, that claims that a carbon dioxide stream
is excluded under this subsection (h), must have an authorized representative
(as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110) sign a certification statement worded
as follows:
"I certify under penalty of
law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(h) has not been mixed with hazardous wastes, and I have
transported the carbon dioxide stream complying with (or have contracted with a
pipeline operator or transporter to transport the carbon dioxide stream complying
with) U.S. Department of Transportation requirements, including the pipeline
safety laws (49 USC 60101 et seq.) and regulations (49 CFR Parts 190 through
199) of the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the pipeline safety
regulations adopted and administered by a state authority pursuant to a
certification under 49 USC 60105, as applicable, for injection into a well
subject to the requirements for the Class VI Underground Injection Control
Program of the federal Safe Drinking Water Act (42 USC 300f et seq.)."
B) Any
Class VI carbon sequestration injection well owner or operator, who claims that
a carbon dioxide stream is excluded under this subsection (h), must have an
authorized representative (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110) sign a
certification statement worded as follows:
"I certify under penalty of
law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(h) has not been mixed with, or otherwise co-injected
with, hazardous waste at the UIC Class VI permitted facility, and that injecting
the carbon dioxide stream complies with the applicable requirements for UIC
Class VI wells, including the applicable requirements in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704
and 730."
C) The
signed certification statement must be kept on-site, for no less than three
years, and must be made available within 72 hours after a written request from
the Agency or USEPA, or their designee. The signed certification statement
must be renewed every year that the exclusion is claimed, by having an
authorized representative (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110) annually
prepare and sign a new copy of the certification statement within one year
after the date of the previous statement. The signed certification statement
must also be readily accessible on the facility's publicly available website
(if such website exists) as a public notification with the title of
"Carbon Dioxide Stream Certification" at the time the exclusion is
claimed.
i) This
subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(i), which USEPA marked "Reserved".
This statement maintains structural consistency with the federal regulation.
j) Airbag
Waste
1) At
the airbag waste handler or during transport to an airbag waste collection
facility or designated facility, airbag waste is not subject to regulation
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 728 and is not subject to the
notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA provided that the airbag
waste handler or transporter meets the following conditions:
A) The airbag waste handler or transporter accumulates the
airbag waste in a quantity of no more than 250 airbag modules or airbag
inflators for no longer than 180 days;
B) The
airbag waste handler or transporter packages the airbag waste in a container
designed to address the risk posed by the airbag waste and labeled "Airbag
Waste – Do Not Reuse";
C) The
airbag waste handler or transporter sends the airbag waste directly to either
of the following facilities:
i) An
airbag waste collection facility in the United States that is under the control
of a vehicle manufacturer or its authorized representative or that is under the
control of a person authorized to administer a remedy
program in response to a vehicle safety recall under 49 USC 30120; or
ii) A
designated facility, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
D) The
transport of the airbag waste complies with all applicable USDOT regulations in
49 CFR 171 through 180 during transit; and
E) The
airbag waste handler maintains at the handler facility, for at least three
years, records of each off-site shipment of airbag waste and each confirmation
of receipt from the receiving facility. For each shipment, these records must,
at a minimum, contain the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment,
the name and address of the receiving facility, and the type and quantity of
airbag waste (i.e., airbag modules or airbag inflators) in the shipment. A
confirmation of receipt must include the name and address of the receiving
facility, the type and quantity of the airbag waste (i.e., airbag modules and
airbag inflators) received, and the date when the airbag waste collection
facility received the airbag waste. The airbag waste handler must make
shipping records and confirmations of receipt available for inspection and may meet
this requirement using routine business records (e.g., electronic or paper
financial records, bills of lading, copies of USDOT shipping papers, electronic
confirmations of receipt, etc.).
2) Once
the airbag waste arrives at an airbag waste collection facility or designated
facility, it becomes subject to all applicable hazardous waste regulations.
The facility receiving airbag waste is considered the hazardous waste generator
for the hazardous waste regulations and must comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.
3) Reuse
in vehicles of defective airbag modules or defective airbag inflators that are
subject to a recall under 49 USC 30120 is
considered sham recycling and prohibited under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102(g).
BOARD NOTE: This precludes any
possibility that reuse qualifies for recycling-based exclusion from the
definition of solid waste. Federal law prohibits
selling defective recalled motor vehicle equipment if it may reasonably be used
for its original purpose. (See 42 USC 30120(j).)
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.105 SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR HAZARDOUS WASTE GENERATED BY SMALL QUANTITY GENERATORS (REPEALED)
Section 721.105 Special
Requirements for Hazardous Waste Generated by Small Quantity Generators (Repealed)
(Source: Repealed at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.106 REQUIREMENTS FOR RECYCLABLE MATERIALS
Section 721.106 Requirements for Recyclable Materials
a) Recyclable Materials
1) Hazardous
wastes that are recycled are subject to the requirements for generators,
transporters, and storage facilities of subsections (b) and (c), except for the
materials listed in subsections (a)(2) and (a)(3). Hazardous wastes that are
recycled will be known as "recyclable materials".
2) The
following recyclable materials are not subject to this Section but are
regulated under Subparts C through H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726 and all
applicable provisions in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 728.
A) Recyclable
materials used in a manner constituting disposal (see Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726);
B) Hazardous
wastes burned (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.200(a)) in boilers and
industrial furnaces that are not regulated under Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724 or Subpart O (see Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726);
C) Recyclable
materials from which precious metals are reclaimed (see Subpart F of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726); and
D) Spent
lead-acid batteries that are being reclaimed (see Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726).
3) The
following recyclable materials are not subject to regulation under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722 through 728, or 702 and 703 and are not subject to the
notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930):
A) Industrial
ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed except that exports and imports of these
recyclable material must comply with 40 CFR 262, subpart H.
B) Scrap
metal that is not excluded under Section 721.104(a)(13);
C) Fuels
produced from the refining of oil-bearing hazardous wastes along with normal
process streams at a petroleum refining facility if these wastes result from
normal petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices (this
exemption does not apply to fuels produced from oil recovered from oil-bearing
hazardous waste if the recovered oil is already excluded under Section
721.104(a)(12));
D) Petroleum Refining Wastes
i) Hazardous
waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining,
production, or transportation practices or produced from oil reclaimed from the
hazardous wastes, if these hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a process
that does not use distillation or does not produce products from crude oil, so
long as the resulting fuel meets the used oil specification under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 739.111 and so long as no other hazardous wastes are used to produce the
hazardous waste fuel;
ii) Hazardous
waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous waste from petroleum refining
production, and transportation practices, if the hazardous wastes are
reintroduced into a refining process after a point at which contaminants are
removed, so long as the fuel meets the used oil fuel specification under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 739.111; and
iii) Oil
reclaimed from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining,
production, and transportation practices, which reclaimed oil is burned as a
fuel without reintroduction to a refining process, so long as the reclaimed oil
meets the used oil fuel specification under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739.111.
4) Used
oil that is recycled and is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a
hazardous characteristic is not subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 728,
but it is regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739. Used oil that is recycled
includes any used oil that is reused for any purpose following its original use
(including the purpose for which the oil was originally used). This term
includes oil that is re-refined, reclaimed, burned for energy recovery, or
reprocessed.
5) Hazardous
waste that is exported or imported for recovery is subject to Subpart H of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.
b) Generators
and transporters of recyclable materials are subject to the applicable
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 and 723 and the notification requirements
under section 3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930), except as provided in subsection (a).
c) Storage and Recycling
1) Owners
or operators of facilities that store recyclable materials before they are
recycled are regulated under all applicable provisions of Subparts A through L,
AA through DD of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
705, 726, 727, and 728; and the notification requirement under section 3010 of RCRA
(42 USC 6930), except as provided in subsection (a). (The recycling process
itself is exempt from regulation, except as provided in subsection (d).)
2) Owners
or operators of facilities that recycle recyclable materials without storing
them before they are recycled are subject to the following requirements, except
as provided in subsection (a):
A) Notification
requirements under section 3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930);
B) 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.171 and 725.172 (dealing with the use of the manifest and
manifest discrepancies);
C) Subsection
(d); and
D) 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.175 (annual reporting requirements).
d) Owners
or operators of facilities required to have a RCRA permit under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 703 with hazardous waste management units that recycle hazardous wastes
are subject to Subparts AA and BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725 or 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 267.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.107 RESIDUES OF HAZARDOUS WASTE IN EMPTY CONTAINERS
Section 721.107 Residues of
Hazardous Waste in Empty Containers
a) Applicability of rules.
1) Any hazardous waste remaining in either an empty container or
an inner liner removed from an empty container, as defined in subsection (b),
is not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, or 721 through
728, or to the notification requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act.
2) Any hazardous waste in either a container that is not empty or
an inner liner that is removed from a container that is not empty, as defined
in subsection (b), is subject to regulations under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
721 through 728 and to the notification requirements of Section 3010 of the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
b) Definition of "empty":
1) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that
has held any hazardous waste, except a waste that is a compressed gas or that
is identified as an acute hazardous waste listed in Section 721.131 or
721.133(e), is empty if the conditions of subsections (b)(1)(A) and (b)(1)(B)
exist, subject to the limitations of subsection (b)(1)(C):
A) All wastes have been removed that can be removed using the
practices commonly employed to remove materials from that type of container,
e.g., pouring, pumping, and aspirating, and
B) No more than 2.5 centimeters (one inch) of residue remain on
the bottom of the container or inner liner, or
C) Weight Limits
i) No more than three percent by weight of the total capacity of
the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is less
than or equal to 119 gallons (450 liters) in size; or
ii) No more than 0.3 percent by weight of the total capacity of
the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is
greater than 119 gallons (450 liters) in size.
2) A container that has held a hazardous waste that is a
compressed gas is empty when the pressure in the container approaches ambient atmospheric
pressure.
3) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that
has held an acute hazardous waste listed in Section 721.131 or 721.133(e) is
empty if any of the following occurs:
A) The container or inner liner has been triple rinsed using a solvent
capable of removing the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical
intermediate;
B) The container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method
that has been shown in the scientific literature, or by tests conducted by the
generator, to achieve equivalent removal; or
C) In the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented
contact of the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical
intermediate with the container has been removed.
c) A container that held hazardous waste pharmaceuticals is
determined empty under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.607, in lieu of under this Section,
except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.607(c) and (d).
(Source: Amended at 44 Ill.
Reg. 15142, effective September 3, 2020)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.108 PCB WASTES REGULATED UNDER TSCA
Section 721.108 PCB Wastes
Regulated under TSCA
Polychlorinatedbiphenyl-(PCB-)containing
dielectric fluid and electric equipment containing such fluid are exempt from
regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 721 through 728, and from the
notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA (42 USC 6930) if the
following conditions are fulfilled with regard to the fluid:
a) The fluid is authorized for
use and regulated pursuant to federal 40 CFR 761; and
b) The
fluid is hazardous only because it fails the test for toxicity characteristic
(hazardous waste numbers D018 through D043 only).
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
ADMINISTRATIVE CODE TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS PART 721 IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE SECTION 721.109 REQUIREMENTS FOR UNIVERSAL WASTE
Section 721.109 Requirements
for Universal Waste
The wastes listed in this
Section are exempt from regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722
through 726, and 728, except as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733, and are
therefore not fully regulated as hazardous waste. The following wastes are
subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733:
a) Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.102;
b) Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.103;
c) Mercury-containing equipment, as described in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733.104;
d) Lamps, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.105;
e) Aerosol
cans, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.106; and
f) Paint
and paint-related wastes, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.107.
(Source: Amended at 49 Ill.
Reg. 11375, effective August 27, 2025)
| SUBPART B: CRITERIA FOR IDENTIFYING THE CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE AND FOR LISTING HAZARDOUS WASTES
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.110 CRITERIA FOR IDENTIFYING THE CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.110 Criteria for
Identifying the Characteristics of Hazardous Waste
a) USEPA stated in corresponding federal 40 CFR 261.10 that it identifies
and defines a characteristic of hazardous waste in Subpart C only upon
determining the following:
1) That a solid waste that exhibits the characteristic may do
either of the following:
A) It could cause, or significantly contribute to, an increase in
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible,
illness; or
B) It could pose a substantial present or potential hazard to
human health or the environment when it is improperly treated, stored,
transported, disposed of or otherwise managed; and
2) That the characteristic can be as follows:
A) It can be measured by an available standardized test method that
is reasonable within the capability of generators of solid waste or private
sector laboratories that are available to serve generators of solid waste; or
B) It can reasonably be detected by generators of solid waste
through their knowledge of their waste.
b) Delisting procedures are contained in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.122.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.111 CRITERIA FOR LISTING HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.111 Criteria for
Listing Hazardous Waste
a) USEPA stated in corresponding federal 40 CFR 261.11 that it lists
a solid waste as a hazardous waste only upon determining that the solid waste
meets one of the following criteria:
1) The solid waste exhibits any of the characteristics of
hazardous waste identified in Subpart C; or
2) Acute hazardous waste. The solid waste has been found to be
fatal to humans in low doses or, in the absence of data on human toxicity, it
has been shown in studies to have an oral LD 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 50
mg/kg, an inhalation LC 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 2 mg/ℓ, or a
dermal LD 50 toxicity (rabbit) of less than 200 mg/kg or is otherwise capable
of causing or significantly contributing to an increase in serious irreversible
or incapacitating reversible, illness.
BOARD NOTE:
Waste listed under subsection (a)(2) are designated Acute Hazardous Waste.
3) Toxic Waste. The solid waste contains any of the toxic
constituents listed in Appendix H and, after considering the following factors,
USEPA concludes that the waste is capable of posing a substantial present or
potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated,
stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed:
BOARD NOTE:
Substances are listed in Appendix H only if they have been shown in scientific
studies to have toxic, carcinogenic, mutagenic, or teratogenic effects on
humans or other life forms.
A) The nature of the toxicity presented by the constituent;
B) The concentration of the constituent in the waste;
C) The potential of the constituent or any toxic degradation
product of the constituent to migrate from the waste into the environment under
the types of improper management considered in subsection (a)(3)(G);
D) The persistence of the constituent or any toxic degradation
product of the constituent;
E) The potential for the constituent or any toxic degradation
product of the constituent to degrade into nonharmful constituents and the rate
of degradation;
F) The degree to which the constituent or any degradation product
of the constituent bioaccumulates in ecosystems;
G) The plausible types of improper management to which the waste
could be subjected;
H) The quantities of the waste generated at individual generator
sites or on a regional or national basis;
I) The nature and severity of the human health and environmental
damage that has occurred because of the improper management of the wastes
containing the constituent;
J) Action taken by other governmental agencies or regulatory
programs based on the health or environmental hazard posed by the waste or
waste constituent; and
K) Other factors as may be appropriate.
BOARD NOTE:
Wastes listed under subsection (a)(3) are designated toxic wastes.
b) USEPA stated in corresponding federal 40 CFR 261.11(b) that it
may list classes or types of solid waste as hazardous waste if USEPA has reason
to believe that individual wastes, within the class or type of waste, typically
or frequently are hazardous under the definition of hazardous waste found in section
1004(5) of RCRA (42 USC 6904(5)).
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
SUBPART C: CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.120 GENERAL
Section 721.120 General
a) A solid waste, as defined in Section 721.102, that is not
excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste under Section 721.104(b), is a
hazardous waste if it exhibits any of the characteristics identified in this
Subpart C.
BOARD NOTE:
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111 states the generator's responsibility to determine
whether the generator's waste exhibits one or more characteristics identified
in this Subpart C.
b) A hazardous waste that is identified by a characteristic in
this Subpart C is assigned every USEPA hazardous waste number that is
applicable as specified in this Subpart C. This number must be used in
complying with the notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA (42 U.S.C.
6930) and all applicable recordkeeping and reporting requirements under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 728.
c) For this Subpart C, a sample obtained using any of the
applicable sampling methods specified in Appendix A is a representative sample
within the meaning of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.
BOARD NOTE:
Since the Appendix A sampling methods are not being formally adopted, a person
who desires to employ an alternative sampling method is not required to
demonstrate the equivalency of the person's method under the procedures set
forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.121.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 9827, effective June 20, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.121 CHARACTERISTIC OF IGNITABILITY
Section 721.121
Characteristic of Ignitability
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability if a
representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
1) It is a liquid, other than a solution containing less than 24
percent alcohol by volume, and at least 50 percent water by weight, that has a
flash point less than 60°C (140°F), as determined by one of the following ASTM
standards: D 93-79, D 93-80, D 3278-78, D 8174-18, or D 8175-18, each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), as specified in SW-846
Test Methods 1010B or 1020C, each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
2) It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard temperature
and pressure, of causing fire through friction, absorbing moisture, or
spontaneous chemical changes and, when ignited, burns so vigorously and
persistently that it creates a hazard.
3) It is an ignitable compressed gas.
A) The
term "compressed gas" designates any material or mixture having in
the container an absolute pressure exceeding 40 p.s.i. at 70 °F or, regardless
of the pressure at 70 °F, having an absolute pressure exceeding 104 p.s.i. at
130 °F. Alternatively, the term "compressed gas" designates any
liquid flammable material having a vapor pressure exceeding 40 p.s.i. absolute
at 100 °F, as determined by ASTM D 323.
B) A
compressed gas is characterized as ignitable if any one of the following
occurs:
i) Either
a mixture of 13 percent or less (by volume) with air forms a flammable mixture
or the flammable range with air is wider than 12 percent regardless of the
lower limit. These limits must be determined at atmospheric temperature and
pressure. The method of sampling and test procedure must be ASTM E 681-85,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or other equivalent
methods approved by the Associate Administrator, Pipeline and Hazardous
Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation.
ii) It
is determined to be flammable or extremely flammable using 49 CFR 173.115(l),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
4) It is an oxidizer, as defined in 49 CFR 173.127 (Class 5,
Division 5.1 Definition and Assignment of Packaging Groups), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
A) An
organic compound containing the bivalent -O-O- structure and which may be
considered a derivative of hydrogen peroxide where one or more of the hydrogen
atoms have been replaced by organic radicals must be classed as an organic
peroxide unless:
i) The
material is a Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosive, as defined in 40 CFR §
261.23(a)(8), in which case it must be classed as an explosive;
ii) Offering
the material for transportation is forbidden under 49 CFR 172.101 and 49 CFR
173.21;
iii) The predominant
hazard of the material containing an organic peroxide is other than that of an
organic peroxide; or
iv) According
to data on file with the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
in the U.S. Department of Transportation, it has been determined that the
material does not present a hazard in transportation.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability
has the USEPA hazardous waste number of D001.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 9827, effective June 20, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.122 CHARACTERISTIC OF CORROSIVITY
Section 721.122
Characteristic of Corrosivity
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity if a
representative sample of the waste has either of the following properties:
1) It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater
than or equal to 12.5, as determined by a pH meter using Method 9040C (pH Electrometric
Measurement) in "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods", USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
2) It is a liquid and corrodes steel (SAE 1020) at a rate greater
than 6.35 mm (0.250 inch) per year at a test temperature of 55 °C (130 °F), as
determined by Method 1110A (Corrosivity Toward Steel) in "Test Methods for
the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods", USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
BOARD NOTE:
The corrosivity characteristic determination currently does not apply to
non-liquid wastes, as discussed by USEPA at 45 Fed. Reg. 33109, May 19, 1980
and at 55 Fed. Reg. 22549, June 1, 1990.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity
has the USEPA hazardous waste number of D002.
(Source: Amended at 44 Ill. Reg. 15142, effective September 3, 2020)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.123 CHARACTERISTIC OF REACTIVITY
Section 721.123
Characteristic of Reactivity
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity if a
representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
1) It is normally unstable and readily undergoes violent change
without detonating.
2) It reacts violently with water.
3) It forms potentially explosive mixtures with water.
4) When mixed with water, it generates toxic gases, vapors, or
fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the
environment.
5) It is a cyanide or sulfide bearing waste which, when exposed
to pH conditions between 2 and 12.5 can generate toxic gases, vapors, or fumes
in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the
environment.
6) It is capable of detonation or explosive reaction if it is
subjected to a strong initiating source or if heated under confinement.
7) It is readily capable of detonation or explosive decomposition
or reaction at standard temperature and pressure.
8) It is a forbidden explosive, as defined in federal 49 CFR 173.54
(Forbidden Explosives) or a Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosive, as defined in
49 CFR 173.50 (Class 1 − Definitions), each incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
BOARD NOTE:
Corresponding 40 CFR 261.23 cites to 49 CFR 173.53 (Provisions for Using Old
Classifications of Explosives). That citation aids bridging obsolete USDOT
rules to the current version. The Board has not included citation to 49 CFR
173.53 because it imposes no substantive requirements.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity
has the USEPA hazardous waste number of D003.
(Source: Amended at 35 Ill.
Reg. 17734, effective October 14, 2011)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.124 TOXICITY CHARACTERISTIC
Section 721.124 Toxicity
Characteristic
a) A solid waste (except manufactured gas plant waste) exhibits
the characteristic of toxicity if, using Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods", USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846, as
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), the extract from a
representative sample of the waste contains any of the contaminants listed in
the table in subsection (b) at a concentration equal to or greater than the
respective value given in that table. If the waste contains less than 0.5
percent filterable solids, the waste itself, after filtering using the
methodology outlined in Method 1311, is the extract for this Section.
BOARD NOTE:
The reference to the "EP toxicity test" in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
808.410(b)(4) is to be understood as referencing the test required by this
Section.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of toxicity has
the USEPA hazardous waste number specified in the following table that
corresponds to the toxic contaminant causing it to be hazardous.
MAXIMUM CONCENTRATION OF CONTAMINANTS
FOR THE TOXICITY CHARACTERISTIC
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Contaminant
|
CAS Number
|
Note
|
Regulatory Level (mg/ℓ)
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
D004
|
Arsenic
|
7440-38-2
|
|
5.0
|
|
D005
|
Barium
|
7440-39-3
|
|
100.0
|
|
D018
|
Benzene
|
71-43-2
|
|
0.5
|
|
D006
|
Cadmium
|
7440-43-9
|
|
1.0
|
|
D019
|
Carbon tetrachloride
|
56-23-5
|
|
0.5
|
|
D020
|
Chlordane
|
57-74-9
|
|
0.03
|
|
D021
|
Chlorobenzene
|
108-90-7
|
|
100.0
|
|
D022
|
Chloroform
|
67-66-3
|
|
6.0
|
|
D007
|
Chromium
|
7440-47-3
|
|
5.0
|
|
D023
|
o-Cresol
|
95-48-7
|
2
|
200.0
|
|
D024
|
m-Cresol
|
108-39-4
|
2
|
200.0
|
|
D025
|
p-Cresol
|
106-44-5
|
2
|
200.0
|
|
D026
|
Cresol
|
|
2
|
200.0
|
|
D016
|
2,4-D
|
94-75-7
|
|
10.0
|
|
D027
|
1,4-Dichlorobenzene
|
106-46-7
|
|
7.5
|
|
D028
|
1,2-Dichloroethane
|
107-06-2
|
|
0.5
|
|
D029
|
1,1-Dichloroethylene
|
75-35-4
|
|
0.7
|
|
D030
|
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
|
121-14-2
|
1
|
0.13
|
|
D012
|
Endrin
|
72-20-8
|
|
0.02
|
|
D031
|
Heptachlor (and its epoxide)
|
76-44-8
|
|
0.008
|
|
D032
|
Hexachlorobenzene
|
118-74-1
|
1
|
0.13
|
|
D033
|
Hexachlorobutadiene
|
87-68-3
|
|
0.5
|
|
D034
|
Hexachloroethane
|
67-72-1
|
|
3.0
|
|
D008
|
Lead
|
7439-92-1
|
|
5.0
|
|
D013
|
Lindane
|
58-89-9
|
|
0.4
|
|
D009
|
Mercury
|
7439-97-6
|
|
0.2
|
|
D014
|
Methoxychlor
|
72-43-5
|
|
10.0
|
|
D035
|
Methyl ethyl ketone
|
78-93-3
|
|
200.0
|
|
D036
|
Nitrobenzene
|
98-95-3
|
|
2.0
|
|
D037
|
Pentachlorophenol
|
87-86-5
|
|
100.0
|
|
D038
|
Pyridine
|
110-86-1
|
1
|
5.0
|
|
D010
|
Selenium
|
7782-49-2
|
|
1.0
|
|
D011
|
Silver
|
7440-22-4
|
|
5.0
|
|
D039
|
Tetrachloroethylene
|
127-18-4
|
|
0.7
|
|
D015
|
Toxaphene
|
8001-35-2
|
|
0.5
|
|
D040
|
Trichloroethylene
|
79-01-6
|
|
0.5
|
|
D041
|
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
|
95-95-4
|
|
400.0
|
|
D042
|
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
|
88-06-2
|
|
2.0
|
|
D017
|
2,4,5-TP (Silvex)
|
93-72-1
|
|
1.0
|
|
D043
|
Vinyl chloride
|
75-01-4
|
|
0.2
|
Notes to Table:
1 Quantitation limit is greater than the calculated regulatory
level. The quantitation limit therefore becomes the regulatory level.
2 If o-, m-, p-cresol concentrations cannot be differentiated,
the total cresol (D026) concentration is used. The regulatory level of total
cresol is 200.0 mg/ℓ.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 9827, effective June 20, 2024)
SUBPART D: LISTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.130 GENERAL
Section 721.130 General
a) A solid waste is a hazardous waste if it is listed in this
Subpart D unless it has been excluded from this list under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.120 and 720.122.
b) The basis for listing the classes or types of wastes listed in
this Subpart D is indicated by employing one or more of the following hazard
codes:
1) Hazard Codes.
|
A)
|
Ignitable waste
|
(I)
|
|
|
|
B)
|
Corrosive waste
|
(C)
|
|
|
|
C)
|
Reactive waste
|
(R)
|
|
|
|
D)
|
Toxicity Characteristic waste
|
(E)
|
|
|
|
E)
|
Acute hazardous waste
|
(H)
|
|
|
|
F)
|
Toxic waste
|
(T)
|
2) Appendix G identifies the constituent that caused USEPA to
list the waste as a toxicity characteristic waste (E) or toxic waste (T) in
Sections 721.131 and 721.132.
c) Each hazardous waste listed in this Subpart D is assigned a USEPA
hazardous waste number that precedes the name of the waste. This number must
be used in complying with the federal notification requirements of section 3010
of RCRA (42 USC 6930) and certain recordkeeping and reporting requirements
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 722 through 725, 727, and 728.
d) The following hazardous wastes listed in Section 721.131 or
721.132 are subject to the generator category limits for acute hazardous wastes
established in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.113(g): hazardous wastes numbers F020,
F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.131 HAZARDOUS WASTES FROM NONSPECIFIC SOURCES
Section 721.131 Hazardous
Wastes from Nonspecific Sources
a) The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from
non-specific sources, unless they are excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120
and 720.122 and listed in Appendix I.
|
USEPA
Hazardous Waste No.
|
Industry and Hazardous Waste
|
Hazard Code
|
|
|
|
|
|
F001
|
The
following spent halogenated solvents used in degreasing: tetrachloroethylene,
trichloroethylene, methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon
tetrachloride, and chlorinated fluorocarbons; all spent solvent mixtures and
blends used in degreasing containing, before use, a total of ten percent or
more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those
solvents listed in F002, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery
of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures.
|
(T)
|
|
F002
|
The
following spent halogenated solvents: tetrachloroethylene, methylene
chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene,
1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, orthodichlorobenzene,
trichlorofluoromethane, and 1,1,2-trichloroethane; all spent solvent mixtures
and blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume)
of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in
F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents
and spent solvent mixtures.
|
(T)
|
|
F003
|
The
following spent non-halogenated solvents: xylene, acetone, ethyl acetate,
ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl isobutyl ketone, n-butyl alcohol,
cyclohexanone, and methanol; all spent solvent mixtures and blends
containing, before use, only the above spent non-halogenated solvents; and
all spent solvent mixtures and blends containing, before use, one or more of
the above non-halogenated solvents and a total of ten percent or more (by
volume) of one or more of those solvents listed in F001, F002, F004, or F005;
and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent
mixtures.
|
(I)
|
|
F004
|
The
following spent non-halogenated solvents: cresols and cresylic acid and
nitrobenzene; all spent solvent mixtures and blends containing, before use, a
total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above
non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F005; and
still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent
mixtures.
|
(T)
|
|
F005
|
The
following spent non-halogenated solvents: toluene, methyl ethyl ketone,
carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, and
2-nitropropane; all spent solvent mixtures and blends, containing, before
use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above
non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and
still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent
mixtures.
|
(I, T)
|
|
F006
|
Wastewater
treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following
processes: (1) sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating on
carbon steel; (3) zinc plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4)
aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating on carbon steel; (5) cleaning/stripping
associated with tin, zinc, and aluminum plating on carbon steel; and (6)
chemical etching and milling of aluminum.
|
(T)
|
|
F007
|
Spent
cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations.
|
(R, T)
|
|
F008
|
Plating
bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations
where cyanides are used in the process.
|
(R, T)
|
|
F009
|
Spent
stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where
cyanides are used in the process.
|
(R, T)
|
|
F010
|
Quenching
bath residues from oil baths from metal heat-treating operations where
cyanides are used in the process.
|
(R, T)
|
|
F011
|
Spent
cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat-treating
operations.
|
(R, T)
|
|
F012
|
Quenching
wastewater treatment sludges from metal heat-treating operations where
cyanides are used in the process.
|
(T)
|
|
F019
|
Wastewater
treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum except
from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing when such phosphating is
an exclusive conversion coating process.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process
will not be subject to this listing at the point of generation if the waste
is not placed outside on the land prior to shipment to a landfill for
disposal and it is disposed of in a regulated landfill that fulfills either
of the following conditions:
|
|
|
|
It is located in Illinois, and
it is one of the following types of landfills:
|
|
|
|
It is a landfill that is a
hazardous waste management unit, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
|
|
|
|
It is a municipal solid waste
landfill, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810.103; or
|
|
|
|
It is a putrescible or chemical
waste landfill that is subject to the requirements of Subpart C of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 811.
|
|
|
|
It is located outside
Illinois, and it is one of the following types of landfills:
|
|
|
|
It is a RCRA Subtitle D
municipal solid waste or industrial solid waste landfill unit that is
equipped with a single clay liner and which is permitted, licensed or
otherwise authorized by the state; or
|
|
|
|
It is a landfill unit that is
subject to or which otherwise meets the landfill requirements in 40 CFR
258.40, 264.301 or 265.301.
|
|
|
|
For the purposes of this
hazardous waste listing, "motor vehicle manufacturing" is defined
in subsection (b)(4)(A), and subsection (b)(4)(B) describes the recordkeeping
requirements for motor vehicle manufacturing facilities.
|
|
|
F020
|
Wastes (except wastewater and
spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or
manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate or component in a
formulating process) of tri- or tetrachlorophenol or of intermediates used to
produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes
from the production of hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.)
|
(H)
|
|
F021
|
Wastes (except wastewater and
spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or
manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate or component in a
formulating process) of pentachlorophenol or of intermediates used to produce
its derivatives.
|
(H)
|
|
F022
|
Wastes (except wastewater and
spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use
(as a reactant, chemical intermediate or component in a formulating process)
of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions.
|
(H)
|
|
F023
|
Wastes (except wastewater and
spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of
materials on equipment previously used for the production or manufacturing
use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate or component in a formulating
process) of tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include
wastes from equipment used only for the production or use of hexachlorophene
from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.)
|
(H)
|
|
F024
|
Process wastes, including but
not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor cleanout
wastes, from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by
free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are
those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five,
with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. (This listing
does not include wastewaters, wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts,
and wastes listed in this Section or in Section 721.132.)
|
(T)
|
|
F025
|
Condensed light ends, spent
filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from the production of
certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed
processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon
chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts
and positions of chlorine substitution.
|
(T)
|
|
F026
|
Wastes (except wastewater and
spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of
materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a
reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of
tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzene under alkaline conditions.
|
(H)
|
|
F027
|
Discarded unused formulations
containing tri-, tetra- or pentachlorophenol or discarded unused formulations
containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does
not include formulations containing hexachlorophene synthesized from prepurified
2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.)
|
(H)
|
|
F028
|
Residues resulting from the
incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with hazardous waste
numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027.
|
(T)
|
|
F032
|
Wastewaters (except those that
have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals,
preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes
generated at plants that currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic
formulations (except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the
F032 hazardous waste number deleted in accordance with Section 721.135 and
where the generator does not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic
formulations). This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge
from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use
creosote or pentachlorophenol.
|
(T)
|
|
F034
|
Wastewaters (except those that
have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals,
preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes
generated at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not
include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from
wood preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
|
(T)
|
|
F035
|
Wastewaters, (except those that
have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals,
preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes
generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or
chromium. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the
treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote or
pentachlorophenol.
|
(T)
|
|
F037
|
Petroleum refinery primary
oil/water/solids separation sludge – any sludge generated from the
gravitational separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment
of process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum
refineries. Such sludges include, but are not limited to, those generated
in: oil/water/solids separators; tanks and impoundments; ditches and other
conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. Sludge
generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludge
generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for
treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludge generated in
aggressive biological treatment units as defined in subsection (b)(2)
(including sludge generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters
have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units), and K051 wastes
are not included in this listing. This listing does include residuals
generated from processing or recycling oil-bearing hazardous secondary
materials excluded under Section 721.104(a)(12)(A) if those residuals are to
be disposed of.
|
(T)
|
|
F038
|
Petroleum refinery secondary
(emulsified) oil/water/solids separation sludge − any sludge or float
generated from the physical or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in
process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries.
Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats generated
in the following types of units: induced air floatation (IAF) units, tanks
and impoundments, and all sludges generated in dissolved air flotation (DAF)
units. Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather
flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters
segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges
and floats generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in
subsection (b)(2) (including sludges and floats generated in one or more
additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological
treatment units), F037, K048, and K051 wastes are not included in this
listing.
|
(T)
|
|
F039
|
Multi-source leachate resulting
from the disposal of more than one restricted waste classified as hazardous
under this Subpart D. For purposes of this hazardous waste listing,
"leachate" means liquids that have percolated through land-disposed
wastes. (This multi-source leachate listing does not apply to leachate resulting
from the disposal of more than one of the following USEPA hazardous wastes where
the disposal of no other hazardous waste is involved: F020, F021, F022,
F026, F027, and F028. Leachate from disposal of any combination of these
hazardous wastes is considered single-source leachate, and that leachate retains
the USEPA hazardous waste numbers of the wastes from which the leachate
derived, and the leachate must meet the treatment standards for the
underlying hazardous waste numbers.)
BOARD NOTE: Derived from the
listing for F039 at 40 CFR 261.31(a) (2017) and the discussion at 55 Fed.
Reg. 22520, 22619-22623 (June 1, 1990).
|
(T)
|
BOARD NOTE:
The primary hazardous properties of these materials have been indicated by the
letters T (Toxicity), R (Reactivity), I (Ignitability), and C (Corrosivity).
The letter H indicates Acute Hazardous Waste. "(I, T)" should be
used to specify mixtures that are ignitable and contain toxic constituents.
b) Listing-Specific Definitions
1) For the purpose of the F037 and F038 listings, "oil/water/solids"
is defined as oil or water or solids.
2) For the purposes of the F037 and F038 listings, the following
apply:
A) "Aggressive biological treatment units" are defined
as units that employ one of the following four treatment methods: activated
sludge, trickling filter, rotating biological contactor for the continuous accelerated
biological oxidation of wastewaters, or high-rate aeration. "High-rate
aeration" is a system of surface impoundments or tanks in which intense
mechanical aeration is used to completely mix the wastes, enhance biological
activity, and the following is true:
i) The units employ a minimum of six horsepower per million
gallons of treatment volume; and either
ii) The hydraulic retention time of the unit is no longer than
five days; or
iii) The hydraulic retention time is no longer than 30 days and
the unit does not generate a sludge that is a hazardous waste by the toxicity
characteristic.
B) Generators and treatment, storage, or disposal (TSD) facilities
have the burden of proving that their sludges are exempt from listing as F037
or F038 wastes under this definition. Generators and TSD facilities must
maintain, in their operating or other on site records, documents and data sufficient
to prove the following:
i) The unit is an aggressive biological treatment unit, as
defined in this subsection; and
ii) The sludges sought to be exempted from F037 or F038 were
actually generated in the aggressive biological treatment unit.
3) Time of Generation. For the purposes of the designated waste,
the "time of generation" is defined as follows:
A) For the F037 listing, sludges are considered to be generated at
the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is defined as at least a
temporary cessation of lateral particle movement.
B) For the F038 listing:
i) Sludges are considered to be generated at the moment of
deposition in the unit, where deposition is defined as at least a temporary
cessation of lateral particle movement; and
ii) Floats are considered to be generated at the moment they are
formed in the top of the unit.
4) For
the purposes of the F019 hazardous waste listing, the following apply to
wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a
zinc phosphating process:
A) "Motor
vehicle manufacturing" is defined to include the manufacture of
automobiles and light trucks or utility vehicles (including light duty vans,
pick-up trucks, minivans, and sport utility vehicles). A facility owner or
operator must be engaged in manufacturing complete vehicles (body and chassis
or unibody) or chassis only; and
B) The
generator must maintain documentation and information in its on-site records that
is sufficient to prove that the wastewater treatment sludge to be exempted from
the F019 listing meets the conditions of the listing. These records must
include the following information: the volumes of waste generated and disposed
of off site; documentation showing when the waste volumes were generated and
sent off site; the name and address of the receiving facility; and
documentation confirming receipt of the waste by the receiving facility. The
generator must maintain these documents on site for no less than three years.
The retention period for the documentation is automatically extended during the
pendency of any enforcement action or as requested by USEPA or by the Agency in
writing.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.132 HAZARDOUS WASTE FROM SPECIFIC SOURCES
Section 721.132 Hazardous
Waste from Specific Sources
a) The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from
specific sources unless they are excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and
720.122 and listed in Appendix I.
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Industry
and Hazardous Waste
|
Hazard Code
|
|
|
Wood
Preservation Process Wastes:
|
|
|
K001
|
Bottom sediment sludge from the
treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use creosote or
pentachlorophenol.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Inorganic Pigments
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K002
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
K003
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of molybdate orange pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
K004
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of zinc yellow pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
K005
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of chrome green pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
K006
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated).
|
(T)
|
|
K007
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of iron blue pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
K008
|
Oven residue from the
production of chrome oxide green pigments.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Organic Chemicals
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K009
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of acetaldehyde from ethylene.
|
(T)
|
|
K010
|
Distillation side cuts from the
production of acetaldehyde from ethylene.
|
(T)
|
|
K011
|
Bottom stream from the
wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile.
|
(R, T)
|
|
K013
|
Bottom stream from the
acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile.
|
(R, T)
|
|
K014
|
Bottoms from the acetonitrile
purification column in the production of acrylonitrile.
|
(T)
|
|
K015
|
Still bottoms from the
distillation of benzyl chloride.
|
(T)
|
|
K016
|
Heavy ends or distillation
residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride.
|
(T)
|
|
K017
|
Heavy ends (still bottoms) from
the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin.
|
(T)
|
|
K018
|
Heavy ends from the
fractionation column in ethyl chloride production.
|
(T)
|
|
K019
|
Heavy ends from the
distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production.
|
(T)
|
|
K020
|
Heavy ends from the
distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production.
|
(T)
|
|
K021
|
Aqueous spent antimony catalyst
waste from fluoromethanes production.
|
(T)
|
|
K022
|
Distillation bottom tars from
the production of phenol/acetone from cumene.
|
(T)
|
|
K023
|
Distillation light ends from
the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
|
(T)
|
|
K024
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
|
(T)
|
|
K093
|
Distillation light ends from the
production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
|
(T)
|
|
K094
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
|
(T)
|
|
K025
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene.
|
(T)
|
|
K026
|
Stripping still tails from the
production of methyl ethyl pyridines.
|
(T)
|
|
K027
|
Centrifuge and distillation
residues from toluene diisocyanate production.
|
(R, T)
|
|
K028
|
Spent catalyst from the
hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
|
(T)
|
|
K029
|
Waste from the product stream
stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
|
(T)
|
|
K095
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
|
(T)
|
|
K096
|
Heavy ends from the heavy ends
column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
|
(T)
|
|
K030
|
Column bottoms or heavy ends
from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene.
|
(T)
|
|
K083
|
Distillation bottoms from
aniline production.
|
(T)
|
|
K103
|
Process residues from aniline extraction
from the production of aniline.
|
(T)
|
|
K104
|
Combined wastewater streams
generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production.
|
(T)
|
|
K085
|
Distillation or fractionation
column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes.
|
(T)
|
|
K105
|
Separated aqueous stream from
the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes.
|
(T)
|
|
K107
|
Column bottoms from product
separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from
carboxylic acid hydrazides.
|
(C, T)
|
|
K108
|
Condensed column overheads from
product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of
1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
|
(I, T)
|
|
K109
|
Spent filter cartridges from
the product purification from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH)
from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
|
(T)
|
|
K110
|
Condensed column overheads from
intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH)
from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
|
(T)
|
|
K111
|
Product washwaters from the
production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene.
|
(C, T)
|
|
K112
|
Reaction by-product water from
the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of
dinitrotoluene.
|
(T)
|
|
K113
|
Condensed liquid light ends
from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine
via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
|
(T)
|
|
K114
|
Vicinals from the purification
of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of
dinitrotoluene.
|
(T)
|
|
K115
|
Heavy ends from the
purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via
hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
|
(T)
|
|
K116
|
Organic condensate from the
solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via
phosgenation of toluenediamine.
|
(T)
|
|
K117
|
Wastewater from the reactor
vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of
ethene.
|
(T)
|
|
K118
|
Spent adsorbent solids from
purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide
via bromination of ethene.
|
(T)
|
|
K136
|
Still bottoms from the
purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide
via bromination of ethene.
|
(T)
|
|
K156
|
Organic waste (including heavy
ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates)
from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does
not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl
n-butylcarbamate.)
|
(T)
|
|
K157
|
Wastewaters (including scrubber
waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters) from the
production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply
to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl
n-butylcarbamate.)
|
(T)
|
|
K158
|
Baghouse dusts and
filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl
oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture
of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.)
|
(T)
|
|
K159
|
Organics from the treatment of
thiocarbamate wastes.
|
(T)
|
|
K161
|
Purification solids (including
filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids), bag house dust, and
floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts.
(This listing does not include K125 or K126.)
|
(R, T)
|
|
K174
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
from the production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer
(including sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride or vinyl
chloride monomer wastewater and other wastewater), unless the sludges meet
the following conditions: 1) The sludges are disposed of in a RCRA Subtitle
C (42 USC 6921-6939e) or non-hazardous landfill licensed or permitted by a
state or the federal government; 2) The sludges are not otherwise placed on
the land prior to final disposal; and 3) The generator maintains documentation
demonstrating that the waste was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or
consigned to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a written
commitment to dispose of the waste in an off-site landfill. Upon a showing
by the government that a respondent in any enforcement action brought to
enforce the requirements of RCRA Subtitle C managed wastewater treatment
sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride,
the respondent must demonstrate that it meets the conditions of the exclusion
that are set forth above. In doing so, the respondent must provide
appropriate documentation that the terms of the exclusion were met (e.g.,
contracts between the generator and the landfill owner or operator, invoices
documenting delivery of waste to landfill, etc.).
|
(T)
|
|
K175
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
from the production of vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride
catalyst in an acetylene-based process.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Inorganic Chemicals
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K071
|
Brine purification muds from
the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where separately prepurified
brine is not used.
|
(T)
|
|
K073
|
Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste
from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite
anodes in chlorine production.
|
(T)
|
|
K106
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the mercury cell process in chlorine production.
|
(T)
|
|
K176
|
Baghouse filters from the
production of antimony oxide, including filters from the production of
intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide).
|
(E)
|
|
K177
|
Slag from the production of
antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed of, including
slag from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude
antimony oxide).
|
(T)
|
|
K178
|
Residues from manufacturing and
manufacturing-site storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the
production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process.
|
(T)
|
|
K181
|
Nonwastewaters from the
production of dyes or pigments (including nonwastewaters commingled at the
point of generation with nonwastewaters from other processes) that, at the
point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the constituents
identified in subsection (c) that are equal to or greater than the
corresponding subsection (c) levels, as determined on a calendar year basis.
These wastes will not be hazardous if the nonwastewaters are managed in one
of the following ways:
1) They
are disposed of in a municipal solid waste landfill unit that is subject to
the design criteria in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 811.303 through 811.309 and 811.315
through 811.317 and Subpart E of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 811 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
814.302 and 814.402;
2) They
are disposed of in a hazardous waste landfill unit that is subject to either
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.401 or 725.401;
3) They
are disposed of in other municipal solid waste landfill units that meet the
design criteria in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 811.303 through 811.309 and 811.315
through 811.317 and Subpart E of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 811 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
814.302 and 814.402, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.401, or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.401;
or
4) They
are treated in a combustion unit that is permitted under 415 ILCS 5/39(d), or
an onsite combustion unit that is permitted under 415 ILCS 5/39.5.
For the purposes of this
listing, dyes or pigments production is defined in subsection (b)(1).
Subsection (d) describes the process for demonstrating that a facility's
nonwastewaters are not K181 waste. This listing does not apply to wastes
that are otherwise identified as hazardous under Sections 721.121 through
721.124 and 721.131 through 721.133 at the point of generation. Also, the
listing does not apply to wastes generated before any annual mass loading
limit is met, as set forth in subsection (c).
|
(T)
|
|
|
Pesticides
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K031
|
By-product salts generated in
the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid.
|
(T)
|
|
K032
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of chlordane.
|
(T)
|
|
K033
|
Wastewater and scrub water from
the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane.
|
(T)
|
|
K034
|
Filter solids from the
filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane.
|
(T)
|
|
K097
|
Vacuum stripper discharge from
the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane.
|
(T)
|
|
K035
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
generated in the production of creosote.
|
(T)
|
|
K036
|
Still bottoms from toluene
reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton.
|
(T)
|
|
K037
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
from the production of disulfoton.
|
(T)
|
|
K038
|
Wastewater from the washing and
stripping of phorate production.
|
(T)
|
|
K039
|
Filter cake from the filtration
of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate.
|
(T)
|
|
K040
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of phorate.
|
(T)
|
|
K041
|
Wastewater treatment sludge
from the production of toxaphene.
|
(T)
|
|
K098
|
Untreated process wastewater
from the production of toxaphene.
|
(T)
|
|
K042
|
Heavy ends or distillation
residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of
2,4,5-T.
|
(T)
|
|
K043
|
2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from
the production of 2,4-D.
|
(T)
|
|
K099
|
Untreated wastewater from the
production of 2,4-D.
|
(T)
|
|
K123
|
Process wastewater (including
supernates, filtrates, and washwaters) from the production of
ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
|
(T)
|
|
K124
|
Reactor vent scrubber water
from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
|
(C, T)
|
|
K125
|
Filtration, evaporation, and
centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid
and its salts.
|
(T)
|
|
K126
|
Baghouse dust and floor
sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or
formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
|
(T)
|
|
K131
|
Wastewater from the reactor and
spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of methyl
bromide.
|
(C, T)
|
|
K132
|
Spent absorbent and wastewater
separator solids from the production of methyl bromide.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Explosives
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K044
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
from the manufacturing and processing of explosives.
|
(R)
|
|
K045
|
Spent carbon from the treatment
of wastewater containing explosives.
|
(R)
|
|
K046
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of lead-based initiating
compounds.
|
(T)
|
|
K047
|
Pink/red water from TNT
operations.
|
(R)
|
|
|
Petroleum Refining
Wastes:
|
|
|
K048
|
Dissolved air flotation (DAF)
float from the petroleum refining industry.
|
(T)
|
|
K049
|
Slop oil emulsion solids from
the petroleum refining industry.
|
(T)
|
|
K050
|
Heat exchanger bundle cleaning
sludge from the petroleum refining industry.
|
(T)
|
|
K051
|
API separator sludge from the
petroleum refining industry.
|
(T)
|
|
K052
|
Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum
refining industry.
|
(T)
|
|
K169
|
Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining
operations.
|
(T)
|
|
K170
|
Clarified slurry oil tank
sediment or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining
operations.
|
(T)
|
|
K171
|
Spent hydrotreating catalyst
from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize
feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert
support media).
|
(I, T)
|
|
K172
|
Spent hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations,
including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors
(this listing does not include inert support media).
|
(I, T)
|
|
|
Iron and Steel
Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K061
|
Emission control dust/sludge
from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces.
|
(T)
|
|
K062
|
Spent pickle liquor generated
by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel
industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332) (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110).
|
(C, T)
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Primary Aluminum Production
Wastes:
|
|
|
K088
|
Spent potliners from primary
aluminum reduction.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Secondary Lead Production
Wastes:
|
|
|
K069
|
Emission control dust/sludge
from secondary lead smelting.
|
(T)
|
BOARD NOTE: This listing is
administratively stayed for sludge generated from secondary acid scrubber
systems. The stay will remain in effect until this note is removed.
|
K100
|
Waste leaching solution from
acid leaching of emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting.
|
(T)
|
|
|
Veterinary
Pharmaceuticals Production Wastes:
|
|
|
K084
|
Wastewater treatment sludges
generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or
organo-arsenic compounds.
|
(T)
|
|
K101
|
Distillation tar residues from
the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary
pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
|
(T)
|
|
K102
|
Residue from use of activated
carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals
from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
|
(T)
|
|
K086
|
Solvent washes and sludges,
caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs
and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, dryers, soaps and
stabilizers containing chromium and lead.
|
(T)
|
|
K060
|
Ammonia still lime sludge from
coking operations.
|
(T)
|
|
K087
|
Decanter tank tar sludge from
coking operations.
|
(T)
|
|
K141
|
Process residues from the
recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump residues
from the production of coke from coal or the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal. This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar
sludges from coking operations).
|
(T)
|
|
K142
|
Tar storage tank residues from
the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal.
|
(T)
|
|
K143
|
Process residues from the
recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in
stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke
by-products produced from coal.
|
(T)
|
|
K144
|
Wastewater sump residues from
light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or
contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced
from coal.
|
(T)
|
|
K145
|
Residues from naphthalene
collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal.
|
(T)
|
|
K147
|
Tar storage tank residues from
coal tar refining.
|
(T)
|
|
K148
|
Residues from coal tar distillation,
including, but not limited to, still bottoms.
|
(T)
|
|
K149
|
Distillation bottoms from the
production of a- (or methyl-)
chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and
compounds with mixtures of these functional groups. (This waste does not
include still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.)
|
(T)
|
|
K150
|
Organic residuals, excluding
spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid
recovery processes associated with the production of a- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated
toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups.
|
(T)
|
|
K151
|
Wastewater treatment sludges,
excluding neutralization and biological sludges, generated during the treatment
of wastewaters from the production of a-
(or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl
chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups.
|
(T)
|
b) Listing-Specific
Definition. For the purposes of the K181 hazardous waste listing in subsection
(a), "dyes or pigments production" includes manufacture of the
following product classes: dyes, pigments, and FDA-certified colors that are
in the azo, triarylmethane, perylene, and anthraquinone classes. Azo products
include azo, monoazo, diazo, triazo, polyazo, azoic, benzidine, and pyrazolone
products. Triarylmethane products include both triarylmethane and
triphenylmethane products. Wastes that are not generated at a dyes or pigments
manufacturing site, such as wastes from the offsite use, formulation, and
packaging of dyes or pigments, are not included in the K181 listing.
c) K181
Listing Levels. Nonwastewaters containing constituents in amounts equal to or
exceeding the following levels during any calendar year are subject to the K181
hazardous waste listing in subsection (a), unless the conditions in the K181
hazardous waste listing are met:
|
Constituent
|
Chemical
Abstracts No.
|
Mass Levels
(kg/yr)
|
|
Aniline
|
62-53-3
|
9,300
|
|
o-Anisidine
|
90-04-0
|
110
|
|
4-Chloroaniline
|
106-47-8
|
4,800
|
|
p-Cresidine
|
120-71-8
|
660
|
|
2,4-Dimethylaniline
|
95-68-1
|
100
|
|
1,2-Phenylenediamine
|
95-54-5
|
710
|
|
1,3-Phenylenediamine
|
108-45-2
|
1,200
|
d) Procedures
for Demonstrating That Dyes or Pigments Nonwastewaters Are Not K181 Waste. The
procedures described in subsections (d)(1) through (d)(3) and (d)(5) establish
when nonwastewaters from the production of dyes or pigments would not be
hazardous. (These procedures apply to wastes that are not disposed of in
landfill units or treated in combustion units, as specified in subsection
(a)). If the nonwastewaters are disposed of in landfill units or treated in
combustion units as described in subsection (a), then the nonwastewaters are
not hazardous. In order to demonstrate that it is meeting the landfill
disposal or combustion conditions contained in the K181 waste listing
description, the generator must maintain documentation as described in
subsection (d)(4).
1) Determination
Based on No K181 Waste Constituents. A generator that has knowledge (e.g.,
knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior sampling and analysis data
or information about raw materials used, production processes used, and
reaction and degradation products formed) that its waste contains none of the
K181 waste constituents (see subsection (c)) can use its knowledge to determine
that its waste is not K181 waste. The generator must document the basis for
all such determinations on an annual basis and keep each annual documentation
for three years.
2) Determination
for Generated Quantities of 1,000 Tonnes (1,000 Metric Tons) Per Year or Less
for Wastes That Contain K181 Waste Constituents. If the total annual quantity
of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters generated is 1,000 tonnes or less, the
generator can use knowledge of the wastes (e.g., knowledge of constituents in
wastes based on prior analytical data or information about raw materials used,
production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed) to
conclude that annual mass loadings for the K181 constituents are below the
listing levels of subsection (c). To make this determination, the generator
must fulfill the following conditions:
A) Each
year, the generator must document the basis for determining that the annual
quantity of nonwastewaters expected to be generated will be less than 1,000
tonnes;
B) The
generator must track the actual quantity of nonwastewaters generated from
January 1 through December 31 of each calendar year. If, at any time within
the year, the actual waste quantity exceeds 1,000 tonnes, the generator must
comply with the requirements of subsection (d)(3) for the remainder of that
calendar year;
C) The
generator must keep a running total of the K181 waste constituent mass loadings
over the course of the calendar year; and
D) The
generator must keep the following records on site for the three most recent
calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations were made:
i) The
quantity of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters generated;
ii) The
relevant process information used; and
iii) The
calculations performed to determine annual total mass loadings for each K181
waste constituent in the nonwastewaters during the year.
3) Determination
for generated quantities greater than 1,000 tonnes per year for wastes that
contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of dyes or pigments
nonwastewaters generated is greater than 1,000 tonnes, the generator must
perform each of the following steps in order to make a determination that its
waste is not K181 waste:
A) The
generator must determine which K181 waste constituents (see subsection (c)) are
reasonably expected to be present in the wastes based on knowledge of the
wastes (e.g., based on prior sampling and analysis data or information about
raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and degradation
products formed);
B) If
1,2-phenylenediamine is present in the wastes, the generator can use either
knowledge of the wastes or sampling and analysis procedures to determine the
level of this constituent in the wastes. For determinations based on use of
knowledge of the wastes, the generator must comply with the procedures for
using knowledge of the wastes described in subsection (d)(2) and keep the
records described in subsection (d)(2)(D). For determinations based on
sampling and analysis, the generator must comply with the sampling and analysis
and recordkeeping requirements described in subsection (d)(3)(C);
C) The
generator must develop a waste sampling and analysis plan (or modify an
existing plan) to collect and analyze representative waste samples for the K181
waste constituents reasonably expected to be present in the wastes. At a
minimum, the plan must include the following elements:
i) A
discussion of the number of samples needed to characterize the wastes fully;
ii) The
planned sample collection method to obtain representative waste samples;
iii) A
discussion of how the sampling plan accounts for potential temporal and spatial
variability of the wastes; and
iv) A
detailed description of the test methods to be used, including sample
preparation, clean up (if necessary), and determinative methods;
D) The
generator must collect and analyze samples in accordance with the waste sampling
and analysis plan, and the plan must fulfill the following requirements:
i) The
sampling and analysis must be unbiased, precise, and representative of the
wastes; and
ii) The
analytical measurements must be sufficiently sensitive, accurate, and precise
to support any claim that the constituent mass loadings are below the listing
levels of subsection (c);
E) The
generator must record the analytical results;
F) The
generator must record the waste quantity represented by the sampling and
analysis results;
G) The
genrator must calculate constituent-specific mass loadings (product of
concentrations and waste quantity);
H) The
generator must keep a running total of the K181 waste constituent mass loadings
over the course of the calendar year;
I) The generator
must determine whether the mass of any of the K181 waste constituents listed in
subsection (c) generated between January 1 and December 31 of any calendar year
is below the K181 waste listing levels;
J) The
generator must keep the following records on site for the three most recent
calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations are made:
i) The
sampling and analysis plan;
ii) The
sampling and analysis results (including quality assurance or quality control
data);
iii) The
quantity of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters generated; and
iv) The
calculations performed to determine annual mass loadings; and
K) The
generator must conduct non-hazardous waste determinations annually to verify
that the wastes remain non-hazardous.
i) The
annual testing requirements are suspended after three consecutive successful
annual demonstrations that the wastes are non-hazardous. The generator can
then use knowledge of the wastes to support subsequent annual determinations.
ii) The
annual testing requirements are reinstated if the manufacturing or waste
treatment processes generating the wastes are significantly altered, resulting
in an increase of the potential for the wastes to exceed the listing levels.
iii) If
the annual testing requirements are suspended, the generator must keep records
of the process knowledge information used to support a non-hazardous
determination. If testing is reinstated, the generator must retain a
description of the process change.
4) Recordkeeping
for the Landfill Disposal and Combustion Exemptions. For the purposes of
meeting the landfill disposal and combustion condition set out in the K181
waste listing description in subsection (a), the generator must maintain on site
for three years documentation demonstrating that each shipment of waste was
received by a landfill unit that is subject to or which meets the landfill
design standards set out in the listing description or that the waste was
treated in combustion units, as specified in the listing description in subsection
(a).
5) Waste
Holding and Handling. During the interim period, from the point of generation
to completion of the hazardous waste determination, the generator must store
the wastes appropriately. If the wastes are determined to be hazardous and the
generator has not complied with the hazardous waste storage requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.116 during the interim period, the generator could be
subject to an enforcement action for improper hazardous waste management.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.133 DISCARDED COMMERCIAL CHEMICAL PRODUCTS, OFF-SPECIFICATION SPECIES, CONTAINER RESIDUES, AND SPILL RESIDUES THEREOF
Section 721.133 Discarded
Commercial Chemical Products, Off-Specification Species, Container Residues,
and Spill Residues Thereof
The following materials or items
are hazardous wastes if and when they are discarded or intended to be discarded,
as described in Section 721.102(a)(2)(A); when they are mixed with waste oil or
used oil or other material and applied to the land for dust suppression or road
treatment; when they are otherwise applied to the land in lieu of their
original intended use or when they are contained in products that are applied
to land in lieu of their original intended use; or when, in lieu of their
original intended use, they are produced for use as (or as a component of) a
fuel, distributed for use as a fuel, or burned as a fuel.
a) Any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical
intermediate having the generic name listed in subsection (e) or (f).
b) Any off-specification commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate that, if it met specifications, would have
the generic name listed in subsection (e) or (f).
c) Any residue remaining in a container or inner liner removed
from a container that has held any commercial chemical product or manufacturing
chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in subsection (e) or (f),
unless the container is empty, as defined in Section 721.107(b)(3) or 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.607.
BOARD NOTE:
Unless the residue is being beneficially used or reused; legitimately recycled
or reclaimed; or accumulated, stored, transported, or treated prior to such
use, reuse, recycling, or reclamation, the Board considers the residue to be
intended for discard, and thus a hazardous waste. An example of a legitimate
reuse of the residue would be if the residue remains in the container and the
container is used to hold the same commercial chemical product or manufacturing
chemical intermediate it previously held. An example of the discard of the
residue would be if the drum is sent to a drum reconditioner that reconditions
the drum but discards the residue.
d) Any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other debris
resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on any land or water of any
commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic
name listed in subsection (e) or (f) or any residue or contaminated soil,
water, or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on any
land or water of any off-specification chemical product or manufacturing
chemical intermediate that, if it met specifications, would have the generic
name listed in subsection (e) or (f).
BOARD NOTE:
The phrase "commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical
intermediate having the generic name" refers to a chemical substance that
is manufactured or formulated for commercial or manufacturing use that consists
of the commercially pure grade of the chemical, any technical grades of the
chemical that are produced or marketed, and all formulations in which the
chemical is the sole active ingredient. It does not refer to a material, such
as a manufacturing process waste, that contains any of the substances listed in
subsection (e) or (f). If a manufacturing process waste is deemed to be a
hazardous waste because it contains a substance listed in subsection (e) or
(f), such waste will be listed in either Sections 721.131 or 721.132 or will be
identified as a hazardous waste by the characteristics set forth in Subpart C.
e) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical
intermediates, or off-specification commercial chemical products or
manufacturing chemical intermediates referred to in subsections (a) through (d)
are identified as acute hazardous waste (H). These wastes and their
corresponding USEPA hazardous waste numbers are the following:
BOARD NOTE:
For the convenience of the regulated community, the primary hazardous
properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity),
and R (Reactivity). The absence of a letter indicates that the compound is
only listed for acute toxicity. Wastes are first listed in alphabetical order
by substance and then listed again in numerical order by USEPA hazardous waste
number.
Alphabetical Listing
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Chemical Abstracts No. (CAS
No.)
|
Substance
|
Hazard Code
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
P023
|
107-20-0
|
Acetaldehyde, chloro-
|
|
|
P002
|
591-08-2
|
Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)
|
|
|
P057
|
640-19-7
|
Acetamide, 2-fluoro-
|
|
|
P058
|
62-74-8
|
Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium
salt
|
|
|
P002
|
591-08-2
|
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea
|
|
|
P003
|
107-02-8
|
Acrolein
|
|
|
P070
|
116-06-3
|
Aldicarb
|
|
|
P203
|
1646-88-4
|
Aldicarb sulfone
|
|
|
P004
|
309-00-2
|
Aldrin
|
|
|
P005
|
107-18-6
|
Allyl alcohol
|
|
|
P006
|
20859-73-8
|
Aluminum phosphide
|
(R, T)
|
|
P007
|
2763-96-4
|
5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol
|
|
|
P008
|
504-24-5
|
4-Aminopyridine
|
|
|
P009
|
131-74-8
|
Ammonium picrate
|
(R)
|
|
P119
|
7803-55-6
|
Ammonium vanadate
|
|
|
P099
|
506-61-6
|
Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-,
potassium
|
|
|
P010
|
7778-39-4
|
Arsenic acid H3AsO4
|
|
|
P012
|
1327-53-3
|
Arsenic oxide As2O3
|
|
|
P011
|
1303-28-2
|
Arsenic oxide As2O5
|
|
|
P011
|
1303-28-2
|
Arsenic pentoxide
|
|
|
P012
|
1327-53-3
|
Arsenic trioxide
|
|
|
P038
|
692-42-2
|
Arsine, diethyl-
|
|
|
P036
|
696-28-6
|
Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-
|
|
|
P054
|
151-56-4
|
Aziridine
|
|
|
P067
|
75-55-8
|
Aziridine, 2-methyl
|
|
|
P013
|
542-62-1
|
Barium cyanide
|
|
|
P024
|
106-47-8
|
Benzenamine, 4-chloro-
|
|
|
P077
|
100-01-6
|
Benzenamine, 4-nitro-
|
|
|
P028
|
100-44-7
|
Benzene, (chloromethyl)-
|
|
|
P042
|
51-43-4
|
1,2-Benzenediol,
4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl) -, (R)-
|
|
|
P046
|
122-09-8
|
Benzeneethanamine, a,a-dimethyl-
|
|
|
P014
|
108-98-5
|
Benzenethiol
|
|
|
P127
|
1563-66-2
|
7-Benzofuranol,
2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P188
|
57-64-7
|
Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-,
compound with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo(2,3-b)
indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1)
|
|
|
P001
|
81-81-2*
|
2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one,
4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations
greater than 0.3 percent
|
|
|
P028
|
100-44-7
|
Benzyl chloride
|
|
|
P015
|
7440-41-7
|
Beryllium powder
|
|
|
P017
|
598-31-2
|
Bromoacetone
|
|
|
P018
|
357-57-3
|
Brucine
|
|
|
P045
|
39196-18-6
|
2-Butanone,3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-,
O-((methylamino)carbonyl) oxime
|
|
|
P021
|
592-01-8
|
Calcium cyanide
|
|
|
P021
|
592-01-8
|
Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2
|
|
|
P189
|
55285-14-8
|
Carbamic acid,
((dibutylamino)-thio)methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester
|
|
|
P191
|
644-64-4
|
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-,
1-((dimethyl-amino)carbonyl) -5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester
|
|
|
P192
|
119-38-0
|
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-,
3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester
|
|
|
P190
|
1129-41-5
|
Carbamic acid, methyl-,
3-methylphenyl ester
|
|
|
P127
|
1563-66-2
|
Carbofuran
|
|
|
P022
|
75-15-0
|
Carbon disulfide
|
|
|
P095
|
75-44-5
|
Carbonic dichloride
|
|
|
P189
|
55285-14-8
|
Carbosulfan
|
|
|
P023
|
107-20-0
|
Chloroacetaldehyde
|
|
|
P024
|
106-47-8
|
p-Chloroaniline
|
|
|
P026
|
5344-82-1
|
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea
|
|
|
P027
|
542-76-7
|
3-Chloropropionitrile
|
|
|
P029
|
544-92-3
|
Copper cyanide
|
|
|
P029
|
544-92-3
|
Copper cyanide CuCN
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P030
|
|
Cyanides (soluble cyanide
salts), not otherwise specified
|
|
|
P031
|
460-19-5
|
Cyanogen
|
|
|
P033
|
506-77-4
|
Cyanogen chloride
|
|
|
P033
|
506-77-4
|
Cyanogen chloride CNCl
|
|
|
P034
|
131-89-5
|
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
|
|
|
P016
|
542-88-1
|
Dichloromethyl ether
|
|
|
P036
|
696-28-6
|
Dichlorophenylarsine
|
|
|
P037
|
60-57-1
|
Dieldrin
|
|
|
P038
|
692-42-2
|
Diethylarsine
|
|
|
P041
|
311-45-5
|
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate
|
|
|
P040
|
297-97-2
|
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate
|
|
|
P043
|
55-91-4
|
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP)
|
|
|
P191
|
644-64-4
|
Dimetilan
|
|
|
P004
|
309-00-2
|
1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1a,4a,4ab,5a,8a,8ab)-
|
|
|
P060
|
465-73-6
|
1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1a,4a,4ab,5b,8b,8ab)-
|
|
|
P037
|
60-57-1
|
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aa,2b,2aa,3b,6b,6aa,7b,7aa)-
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8*
|
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aa,2b,2ab,3a,6a,6ab,7b,7aa)-,
and metabolites
|
|
|
P044
|
60-51-5
|
Dimethoate
|
|
|
P046
|
122-09-8
|
a,a-Dimethylphenethylamine
|
|
|
P047
|
534-52-1*
|
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts
|
|
|
P048
|
51-28-5
|
2,4-Dinitrophenol
|
|
|
P020
|
88-85-7
|
Dinoseb
|
|
|
P085
|
152-16-9
|
Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-
|
|
|
P111
|
107-49-3
|
Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
|
|
|
P039
|
298-04-4
|
Disulfoton
|
|
|
P049
|
541-53-7
|
Dithiobiuret
|
|
|
P185
|
26419-73-8
|
1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde,
2,4-dimethyl-, O-((methylamino)- carbonyl)oxime
|
|
|
P050
|
115-29-7
|
Endosulfan
|
|
|
P088
|
145-73-3
|
Endothall
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8
|
Endrin
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8
|
Endrin, and metabolites
|
|
|
P042
|
51-43-4
|
Epinephrine
|
|
|
P031
|
460-19-5
|
Ethanedinitrile
|
|
|
P194
|
23135-22-0
|
Ethanimidothioic acid,
2-(dimethylamino)-N-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy)-2-oxo-, methyl ester
|
|
|
P066
|
16752-77-5
|
Ethanimidothioic acid,
N-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy)-, methyl ester
|
|
|
P101
|
107-12-0
|
Ethyl cyanide
|
|
|
P054
|
151-56-4
|
Ethyleneimine
|
|
|
P097
|
52-85-7
|
Famphur
|
|
|
P056
|
7782-41-4
|
Fluorine
|
|
|
P057
|
640-19-7
|
Fluoroacetamide
|
|
|
P058
|
62-74-8
|
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt
|
|
|
P198
|
23422-53-9
|
Formetanate hydrochloride
|
|
|
P197
|
17702-57-7
|
Formparanate
|
|
|
P065
|
628-86-4
|
Fulminic acid, mercury (2+) salt
|
(R, T)
|
|
P059
|
76-44-8
|
Heptachlor
|
|
|
P062
|
757-58-4
|
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate
|
|
|
P116
|
79-19-6
|
Hydrazinecarbothioamide
|
|
|
P068
|
60-34-4
|
Hydrazine, methyl-
|
|
|
P063
|
74-90-8
|
Hydrocyanic acid
|
|
|
P063
|
74-90-8
|
Hydrogen cyanide
|
|
|
P096
|
7803-51-2
|
Hydrogen phosphide
|
|
|
P060
|
465-73-6
|
Isodrin
|
|
|
P192
|
119-38-0
|
Isolan
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
3-Isopropylphenyl-N-methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P007
|
2763-96-4
|
3(2H)-Isoxazolone,
5-(aminomethyl)-
|
|
|
P196
|
15339-36-3
|
Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-
|
|
|
P196
|
15339-36-3
|
Manganese
dimethyldithiocarbamate
|
|
|
P092
|
62-38-4
|
Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl-
|
|
|
P065
|
628-86-4
|
Mercury fulminate
|
(R, T)
|
|
P082
|
62-75-9
|
Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
P064
|
624-83-9
|
Methane, isocyanato-
|
|
|
P016
|
542-88-1
|
Methane, oxybis(chloro-
|
|
|
P112
|
509-14-8
|
Methane, tetranitro-
|
(R)
|
|
P118
|
75-70-7
|
Methanethiol, trichloro-
|
|
|
P198
|
23422-53-9
|
Methanimidamide,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-(3-(( (methylamino)-carbonyl)oxy)phenyl)-, monohydrochloride
|
|
|
P197
|
17702-57-7
|
Methanimidamide,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-(2-methyl-4-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy) phenyl)-
|
|
|
P199
|
2032-65-7
|
Methiocarb
|
|
|
P050
|
115-29-7
|
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepen,
6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide
|
|
|
P059
|
76-44-8
|
4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
|
|
|
P066
|
16752-77-5
|
Methomyl
|
|
|
P068
|
60-34-4
|
Methyl hydrazine
|
|
|
P064
|
624-83-9
|
Methyl isocyanate
|
|
|
P069
|
75-86-5
|
2-Methyllactonitrile
|
|
|
P071
|
298-00-0
|
Methyl parathion
|
|
|
P190
|
1129-41-5
|
Metolcarb
|
|
|
P128
|
315-18-4
|
Mexacarbate
|
|
|
P072
|
86-88-4
|
a-Naphthylthiourea
|
|
|
P073
|
13463-39-3
|
Nickel carbonyl
|
|
|
P073
|
13463-39-3
|
Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4,
(T-4)-
|
|
|
P074
|
557-19-7
|
Nickel cyanide
|
|
|
P074
|
557-19-7
|
Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2
|
|
|
P075
|
54-11-5*
|
Nicotine, and salts (excluding
patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine
replacement therapies)
|
|
|
P076
|
10102-43-9
|
Nitric oxide
|
|
|
P077
|
100-01-6
|
p-Nitroaniline
|
|
|
P078
|
10102-44-0
|
Nitrogen dioxide
|
|
|
P076
|
10102-43-9
|
Nitrogen oxide NO
|
|
|
P078
|
10102-44-0
|
Nitrogen oxide NO2
|
|
|
P081
|
55-63-0
|
Nitroglycerine
|
(R)
|
|
P082
|
62-75-9
|
N-Nitrosodimethylamine
|
|
|
P084
|
4549-40-0
|
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine
|
|
|
P085
|
152-16-9
|
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide
|
|
|
P087
|
20816-12-0
|
Osmium oxide OsO4,
(T-4)-
|
|
|
P087
|
20816-12-0
|
Osmium tetroxide
|
|
|
P088
|
145-73-3
|
7-Oxabicyclo(2.2.1)heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic
acid
|
|
|
P194
|
23135-22-0
|
Oxamyl
|
|
|
P089
|
56-38-2
|
Parathion
|
|
|
P034
|
131-89-5
|
Phenol,
2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-
|
|
|
P128
|
315-18-4
|
Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-,
methylcarbamate (ester)
|
|
|
P199
|
2032-65-7
|
Phenol,
(3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P048
|
51-28-5
|
Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-
|
|
|
P047
|
534-52-1*
|
Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-,
and salts
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-,
methyl carbamate
|
|
|
P201
|
2631-37-0
|
Phenol,
3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate
|
|
|
P020
|
88-85-7
|
Phenol,
2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro-
|
|
|
P009
|
131-74-8
|
Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-,
ammonium salt
|
(R)
|
|
P092
|
62-38-4
|
Phenylmercury acetate
|
|
|
P093
|
103-85-5
|
Phenylthiourea
|
|
|
P094
|
298-02-2
|
Phorate
|
|
|
P095
|
75-44-5
|
Phosgene
|
|
|
P096
|
7803-51-2
|
Phosphine
|
|
|
P041
|
311-45-5
|
Phosphoric acid, diethyl
4-nitrophenyl ester
|
|
|
P039
|
298-04-4
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-(2-(ethylthio)ethyl) ester
|
|
|
P094
|
298-02-2
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-((ethylthio)methyl) ester
|
|
|
P044
|
60-51-5
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl S-(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester
|
|
|
P043
|
55-91-4
|
Phosphorofluoridic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)ester
|
|
|
P089
|
56-38-2
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
|
|
|
P040
|
297-97-2
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester
|
|
|
P097
|
52-85-7
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O-(4-((dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl) O,O-dimethyl ester
|
|
|
P071
|
298-00-0
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
|
|
|
P204
|
57-47-6
|
Physostigmine
|
|
|
P188
|
57-64-7
|
Physostigmine salicylate
|
|
|
P110
|
78-00-2
|
Plumbane, tetraethyl-
|
|
|
P098
|
151-50-8
|
Potassium cyanide
|
|
|
P098
|
151-50-8
|
Potassium cyanide KCN
|
|
|
P099
|
506-61-6
|
Potassium silver cyanide
|
|
|
P201
|
2631-37-0
|
Promecarb
|
|
|
P203
|
1646-88-4
|
Propanal,
2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O- ((methylamino)carbonyl) oxime
|
|
|
P070
|
116-06-3
|
Propanal,
2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-((methylamino)carbonyl)oxime
|
|
|
P101
|
107-12-0
|
Propanenitrile
|
|
|
P027
|
542-76-7
|
Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-
|
|
|
P069
|
75-86-5
|
Propanenitrile,
2-hydroxy-2-methyl-
|
|
|
P081
|
55-63-0
|
1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate-
|
(R)
|
|
P017
|
598-31-2
|
2-Propanone, 1-bromo-
|
|
|
P102
|
107-19-7
|
Propargyl alcohol
|
|
|
P003
|
107-02-8
|
2-Propenal
|
|
|
P005
|
107-18-6
|
2-Propen-1-ol
|
|
|
P067
|
75-55-8
|
1,2-Propylenimine
|
|
|
P102
|
107-19-7
|
2-Propyn-1-ol
|
|
|
P008
|
504-24-5
|
4-Pyridinamine
|
|
|
P075
|
54-11-5*
|
Pyridine,
3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- and salts (excluding patches, gums and
lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement
therapies)
|
|
|
P204
|
57-47-6
|
Pyrrolo(2,3-b)indol-5-ol,
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester),
(3aS-cis)-
|
|
|
P114
|
12039-52-0
|
Selenious acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
P103
|
630-10-4
|
Selenourea
|
|
|
P104
|
506-64-9
|
Silver cyanide
|
|
|
P104
|
506-64-9
|
Silver cyanide AgCN
|
|
|
P105
|
26628-22-8
|
Sodium azide
|
|
|
P106
|
143-33-9
|
Sodium cyanide
|
|
|
P106
|
143-33-9
|
Sodium cyanide NaCN
|
|
|
P108
|
57-24-9*
|
Strychnidin-10-one, and salts
|
|
|
P018
|
357-57-3
|
Strychnidin-10-one,
2,3-dimethoxy-
|
|
|
P108
|
57-24-9*
|
Strychnine and salts
|
|
|
P115
|
7446-18-6
|
Sulfuric acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
P109
|
3689-24-5
|
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate
|
|
|
P110
|
78-00-2
|
Tetraethyl lead
|
|
|
P111
|
107-49-3
|
Tetraethylpyrophosphate
|
|
|
P112
|
509-14-8
|
Tetranitromethane
|
(R)
|
|
P062
|
757-58-4
|
Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl
ester
|
|
|
P113
|
1314-32-5
|
Thallic oxide
|
|
|
P113
|
1314-32-5
|
Thallium oxide Tl2O3
|
|
|
P114
|
12039-52-0
|
Thallium (I) selenite
|
|
|
P115
|
7446-18-6
|
Thallium (I) sulfate
|
|
|
P109
|
3689-24-5
|
Thiodiphosphoric acid,
tetraethyl ester
|
|
|
P045
|
39196-18-4
|
Thiofanox
|
|
|
P049
|
541-53-7
|
Thioimidodicarbonic diamide
((H2N)C(S)) 2NH
|
|
|
P014
|
108-98-5
|
Thiophenol
|
|
|
P116
|
79-19-6
|
Thiosemicarbazide
|
|
|
P026
|
5344-82-1
|
Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-
|
|
|
P072
|
86-88-4
|
Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-
|
|
|
P093
|
103-85-5
|
Thiourea, phenyl-
|
|
|
P123
|
8001-35-2
|
Toxaphene
|
|
|
P185
|
26419-73-8
|
Tirpate
|
|
|
P118
|
75-70-7
|
Trichloromethanethiol
|
|
|
P119
|
7803-55-6
|
Vanadic acid, ammonium salt
|
|
|
P120
|
1314-62-1
|
Vanadium oxide V2O5
|
|
|
P120
|
1314-62-1
|
Vanadium pentoxide
|
|
|
P084
|
4549-40-0
|
Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
P001
|
81-81-2*
|
Warfarin, and salts, when
present at concentrations greater than 0.3
percent
|
|
|
P121
|
557-21-1
|
Zinc cyanide
|
|
|
P121
|
557-21-1
|
Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2
|
|
|
P205
|
137-30-4
|
Zinc,
bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-
|
|
|
P122
|
1314-84-7
|
Zinc phosphide Zn3P2,
when present at concentrations greater than 10 percent
|
(R, T)
|
|
P205
|
137-30-4
|
Ziram
|
|
Numerical
Listing
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Chemical Abstracts No. (CAS
No.)
|
Substance
|
Hazard Code
|
|
P001
|
81-81-2*
|
2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-,
and salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3 percent
|
|
|
P001
|
81-81-2*
|
Warfarin, and salts, when
present at concentrations greater than 0.3
percent
|
|
|
P002
|
591-08-2
|
Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)
|
|
|
P002
|
591-08-2
|
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea
|
|
|
P003
|
107-02-8
|
Acrolein
|
|
|
P003
|
107-02-8
|
2-Propenal
|
|
|
P004
|
309-00-2
|
Aldrin
|
|
|
P004
|
309-00-2
|
1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-,
(1a,4a,4ab,5a,8a,8ab)-
|
|
|
P005
|
107-18-6
|
Allyl alcohol
|
|
|
P005
|
107-18-6
|
2-Propen-1-ol
|
|
|
P006
|
20859-73-8
|
Aluminum phosphide
|
(R, T)
|
|
P007
|
2763-96-4
|
5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol
|
|
|
P007
|
2763-96-4
|
3(2H)-Isoxazolone,
5-(aminomethyl)-
|
|
|
P008
|
504-24-5
|
4-Aminopyridine
|
|
|
P008
|
504-24-5
|
4-Pyridinamine
|
|
|
P009
|
131-74-8
|
Ammonium picrate
|
(R)
|
|
P009
|
131-74-8
|
Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-,
ammonium salt
|
(R)
|
|
P010
|
7778-39-4
|
Arsenic acid H3AsO4
|
|
|
P011
|
1303-28-2
|
Arsenic oxide As2O5
|
|
|
P011
|
1303-28-2
|
Arsenic pentoxide
|
|
|
P012
|
1327-53-3
|
Arsenic oxide As2O3
|
|
|
P012
|
1327-53-3
|
Arsenic trioxide
|
|
|
P013
|
542-62-1
|
Barium cyanide
|
|
|
P014
|
108-98-5
|
Benzenethiol
|
|
|
P014
|
108-98-5
|
Thiophenol
|
|
|
P015
|
7440-41-7
|
Beryllium powder
|
|
|
P016
|
542-88-1
|
Dichloromethyl ether
|
|
|
P016
|
542-88-1
|
Methane, oxybis(chloro-
|
|
|
P017
|
598-31-2
|
Bromoacetone
|
|
|
P017
|
598-31-2
|
2-Propanone, 1-bromo-
|
|
|
P018
|
357-57-3
|
Brucine
|
|
|
P018
|
357-57-3
|
Strychnidin-10-one,
2,3-dimethoxy-
|
|
|
P020
|
88-85-7
|
Dinoseb
|
|
|
P020
|
88-85-7
|
Phenol,
2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro-
|
|
|
P021
|
592-01-8
|
Calcium cyanide
|
|
|
P021
|
592-01-8
|
Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2
|
|
|
P022
|
75-15-0
|
Carbon disulfide
|
|
|
P023
|
107-20-0
|
Acetaldehyde, chloro-
|
|
|
P023
|
107-20-0
|
Chloroacetaldehyde
|
|
|
P024
|
106-47-8
|
Benzenamine, 4-chloro-
|
|
|
P024
|
106-47-8
|
p-Chloroaniline
|
|
|
P026
|
5344-82-1
|
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea
|
|
|
P026
|
5344-82-1
|
Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-
|
|
|
P027
|
542-76-7
|
3-Chloropropionitrile
|
|
|
P027
|
542-76-7
|
Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-
|
|
|
P028
|
100-44-7
|
Benzene, (chloromethyl)-
|
|
|
P028
|
100-44-7
|
Benzyl chloride
|
|
|
P029
|
544-92-3
|
Copper cyanide
|
|
|
P029
|
544-92-3
|
Copper cyanide CuCN
|
|
|
P030
|
|
Cyanides (soluble cyanide
salts), not otherwise specified
|
|
|
P031
|
460-19-5
|
Cyanogen
|
|
|
P031
|
460-19-5
|
Ethanedinitrile
|
|
|
P033
|
506-77-4
|
Cyanogen chloride
|
|
|
P033
|
506-77-4
|
Cyanogen chloride CNCl
|
|
|
P034
|
131-89-5
|
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
|
|
|
P034
|
131-89-5
|
Phenol,
2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-
|
|
|
P036
|
696-28-6
|
Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-
|
|
|
P036
|
696-28-6
|
Dichlorophenylarsine
|
|
|
P037
|
60-57-1
|
Dieldrin
|
|
|
P037
|
60-57-1
|
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aa,2b,2aa,3b,6b,6aa,7b,7aa)-
|
|
|
P038
|
692-42-2
|
Arsine, diethyl-
|
|
|
P038
|
692-42-2
|
Diethylarsine
|
|
|
P039
|
298-04-4
|
Disulfoton
|
|
|
P039
|
298-04-4
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-(2-(ethylthio)ethyl) ester
|
|
|
P040
|
297-97-2
|
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate
|
|
|
P040
|
297-97-2
|
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl
O-pyrazinyl ester
|
|
|
P041
|
311-45-5
|
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate
|
|
|
P041
|
311-45-5
|
Phosphoric acid, diethyl
4-nitrophenyl ester
|
|
|
P042
|
51-43-4
|
1,2-Benzenediol,
4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-, (R)-
|
|
|
P042
|
51-43-4
|
Epinephrine
|
|
|
P043
|
55-91-4
|
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP)
|
|
|
P043
|
55-91-4
|
Phosphorofluoridic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)ester
|
|
|
P044
|
60-51-5
|
Dimethoate
|
|
|
P044
|
60-51-5
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl S-(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester
|
|
|
P045
|
39196-18-6
|
2-Butanone,
3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-((methylamino)carbonyl) oxime
|
|
|
P045
|
39196-18-4
|
Thiofanox
|
|
|
P046
|
122-09-8
|
Benzeneethanamine, a,a-dimethyl-
|
|
|
P046
|
122-09-8
|
a,a-Dimethylphenethylamine
|
|
|
P047
|
534-52-1*
|
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts
|
|
|
P047
|
534-52-1*
|
Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-,
and salts
|
|
|
P048
|
51-28-5
|
2,4-Dinitrophenol
|
|
|
P048
|
51-28-5
|
Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-
|
|
|
P049
|
541-53-7
|
Dithiobiuret
|
|
|
P049
|
541-53-7
|
Thioimidodicarbonic diamide ((H2N)C(S))2NH
|
|
|
P050
|
115-29-7
|
Endosulfan
|
|
|
P050
|
115-29-7
|
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepen,
6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8*
|
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aa,2b,2ab,3a,6a,6ab,7b,7aa)-,
and metabolites
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8
|
Endrin
|
|
|
P051
|
72-20-8
|
Endrin, and metabolites
|
|
|
P054
|
151-56-4
|
Aziridine
|
|
|
P054
|
151-56-4
|
Ethyleneimine
|
|
|
P056
|
7782-41-4
|
Fluorine
|
|
|
P057
|
640-19-7
|
Acetamide, 2-fluoro-
|
|
|
P057
|
640-19-7
|
Fluoroacetamide
|
|
|
P058
|
62-74-8
|
Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium
salt
|
|
|
P058
|
62-74-8
|
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt
|
|
|
P059
|
76-44-8
|
Heptachlor
|
|
|
P059
|
76-44-8
|
4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
|
|
|
P060
|
465-73-6
|
1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1a,4a,4ab,5b,8b,8ab)-
|
|
|
P060
|
465-73-6
|
Isodrin
|
|
|
P062
|
757-58-4
|
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate
|
|
|
P062
|
757-58-4
|
Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl
ester
|
|
|
P063
|
74-90-8
|
Hydrocyanic acid
|
|
|
P063
|
74-90-8
|
Hydrogen cyanide
|
|
|
P064
|
624-83-9
|
Methane, isocyanato-
|
|
|
P064
|
624-83-9
|
Methyl isocyanate
|
|
|
P065
|
628-86-4
|
Fulminic acid, mercury (2+) salt
|
(R, T)
|
|
P065
|
628-86-4
|
Mercury fulminate
|
(R, T)
|
|
P066
|
16752-77-5
|
Ethanimidothioic acid,
N-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy)-, methyl ester
|
|
|
P066
|
16752-77-5
|
Methomyl
|
|
|
P067
|
75-55-8
|
Aziridine, 2-methyl
|
|
|
P067
|
75-55-8
|
1,2-Propylenimine
|
|
|
P068
|
60-34-4
|
Hydrazine, methyl-
|
|
|
P068
|
60-34-4
|
Methyl hydrazine
|
|
|
P069
|
75-86-5
|
2-Methyllactonitrile
|
|
|
P069
|
75-86-5
|
Propanenitrile,
2-hydroxy-2-methyl-
|
|
|
P070
|
116-06-3
|
Aldicarb
|
|
|
P070
|
116-06-3
|
Propanal,
2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-((methylamino)carbonyl)oxime
|
|
|
P071
|
298-00-0
|
Methyl parathion
|
|
|
P071
|
298-00-0
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
|
|
|
P072
|
86-88-4
|
a-Naphthylthiourea
|
|
|
P072
|
86-88-4
|
Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-
|
|
|
P073
|
13463-39-3
|
Nickel carbonyl
|
|
|
P073
|
13463-39-3
|
Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4,
(T-4)-
|
|
|
P074
|
557-19-7
|
Nickel cyanide
|
|
|
P074
|
557-19-7
|
Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2
|
|
|
P075
|
54-11-5*
|
Nicotine, and salts (excluding
patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine
replacement therapies)
|
|
|
P075
|
54-11-5*
|
Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-,
(S)- and salts (excluding patches, gums and lozenges that are FDA-approved
over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies)
|
|
|
P076
|
10102-43-9
|
Nitric oxide
|
|
|
P076
|
10102-43-9
|
Nitrogen oxide NO
|
|
|
P077
|
100-01-6
|
Benzenamine, 4-nitro-
|
|
|
P077
|
100-01-6
|
p-Nitroaniline
|
|
|
P078
|
10102-44-0
|
Nitrogen dioxide
|
|
|
P078
|
10102-44-0
|
Nitrogen oxide NO2
|
|
|
P081
|
55-63-0
|
Nitroglycerine
|
(R)
|
|
P081
|
55-63-0
|
1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate-
|
(R)
|
|
P082
|
62-75-9
|
Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
P082
|
62-75-9
|
N-Nitrosodimethylamine
|
|
|
P084
|
4549-40-0
|
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine
|
|
|
P084
|
4549-40-0
|
Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
P085
|
152-16-9
|
Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-
|
|
|
P085
|
152-16-9
|
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide
|
|
|
P087
|
20816-12-0
|
Osmium oxide OsO4,
(T-4)-
|
|
|
P087
|
20816-12-0
|
Osmium tetroxide
|
|
|
P088
|
145-73-3
|
Endothall
|
|
|
P088
|
145-73-3
|
7-Oxabicyclo(2.2.1)heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic
acid
|
|
|
P089
|
56-38-2
|
Parathion
|
|
|
P089
|
56-38-2
|
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
|
|
|
P092
|
62-38-4
|
Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl-
|
|
|
P092
|
62-38-4
|
Phenylmercury acetate
|
|
|
P093
|
103-85-5
|
Phenylthiourea
|
|
|
P093
|
103-85-5
|
Thiourea, phenyl-
|
|
|
P094
|
298-02-2
|
Phorate
|
|
|
P094
|
298-02-2
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-((ethylthio)methyl) ester
|
|
|
P095
|
75-44-5
|
Carbonic dichloride
|
|
|
P095
|
75-44-5
|
Phosgene
|
|
|
P096
|
7803-51-2
|
Hydrogen phosphide
|
|
|
P096
|
7803-51-2
|
Phosphine
|
|
|
P097
|
52-85-7
|
Famphur
|
|
|
P097
|
52-85-7
|
Phosphorothioic acid, O-(4-((dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl)
O,O-dimethyl ester
|
|
|
P098
|
151-50-8
|
Potassium cyanide
|
|
|
P098
|
151-50-8
|
Potassium cyanide KCN
|
|
|
P099
|
506-61-6
|
Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-,
potassium
|
|
|
P099
|
506-61-6
|
Potassium silver cyanide
|
|
|
P101
|
107-12-0
|
Ethyl cyanide
|
|
|
P101
|
107-12-0
|
Propanenitrile
|
|
|
P102
|
107-19-7
|
Propargyl alcohol
|
|
|
P102
|
107-19-7
|
2-Propyn-1-ol
|
|
|
P103
|
630-10-4
|
Selenourea
|
|
|
P104
|
506-64-9
|
Silver cyanide
|
|
|
P104
|
506-64-9
|
Silver cyanide AgCN
|
|
|
P105
|
26628-22-8
|
Sodium azide
|
|
|
P106
|
143-33-9
|
Sodium cyanide
|
|
|
P106
|
143-33-9
|
Sodium cyanide NaCN
|
|
|
P108
|
57-24-9*
|
Strychnidin-10-one, and salts
|
|
|
P108
|
57-24-9*
|
Strychnine and salts
|
|
|
P109
|
3689-24-5
|
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate
|
|
|
P109
|
3689-24-5
|
Thiodiphosphoric acid,
tetraethyl ester
|
|
|
P110
|
78-00-2
|
Plumbane, tetraethyl-
|
|
|
P110
|
78-00-2
|
Tetraethyl lead
|
|
|
P111
|
107-49-3
|
Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
|
|
|
P111
|
107-49-3
|
Tetraethylpyrophosphate
|
|
|
P112
|
509-14-8
|
Methane, tetranitro-
|
(R)
|
|
P112
|
509-14-8
|
Tetranitromethane
|
(R)
|
|
P113
|
1314-32-5
|
Thallic oxide
|
|
|
P113
|
1314-32-5
|
Thallium oxide Tl2O3
|
|
|
P114
|
12039-52-0
|
Selenious acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
P114
|
12039-52-0
|
Thallium (I) selenite
|
|
|
P115
|
7446-18-6
|
Sulfuric acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
P115
|
7446-18-6
|
Thallium (I) sulfate
|
|
|
P116
|
79-19-6
|
Hydrazinecarbothioamide
|
|
|
P116
|
79-19-6
|
Thiosemicarbazide
|
|
|
P118
|
75-70-7
|
Methanethiol, trichloro-
|
|
|
P118
|
75-70-7
|
Trichloromethanethiol
|
|
|
P119
|
7803-55-6
|
Ammonium vanadate
|
|
|
P119
|
7803-55-6
|
Vanadic acid, ammonium salt
|
|
|
P120
|
1314-62-1
|
Vanadium oxide V2O5
|
|
|
P120
|
1314-62-1
|
Vanadium pentoxide
|
|
|
P121
|
557-21-1
|
Zinc cyanide
|
|
|
P121
|
557-21-1
|
Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2
|
|
|
P122
|
1314-84-7
|
Zinc phosphide Zn3P2,
when present at concentrations greater than 10 percent
|
(R, T)
|
|
P123
|
8001-35-2
|
Toxaphene
|
|
|
P127
|
1563-66-2
|
7-Benzofuranol,
2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P127
|
1563-66-2
|
Carbofuran
|
|
|
P128
|
315-18-4
|
Phenol,
4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester)
|
|
|
P128
|
315-18-4
|
Mexacarbate
|
|
|
P185
|
26419-73-8
|
1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde,
2,4-dimethyl-, O-((methylamino)- carbonyl)oxime
|
|
|
P185
|
26419-73-8
|
Tirpate
|
|
|
P188
|
57-64-7
|
Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-,
compound with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo(2,3-b)indol-5-yl
methylcarbamate ester (1:1)
|
|
|
P188
|
57-64-7
|
Physostigmine salicylate
|
|
|
P189
|
55285-14-8
|
Carbamic acid,
((dibutylamino)-thio)methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester
|
|
|
P189
|
55285-14-8
|
Carbosulfan
|
|
|
P190
|
1129-41-5
|
Carbamic acid, methyl-,
3-methylphenyl ester
|
|
|
P190
|
1129-41-5
|
Metolcarb
|
|
|
P191
|
644-64-4
|
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-((dimethyl-amino)carbonyl)-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl
ester
|
|
|
P191
|
644-64-4
|
Dimetilan
|
|
|
P192
|
119-38-0
|
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-,
3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester
|
|
|
P192
|
119-38-0
|
Isolan
|
|
|
P194
|
23135-22-0
|
Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy)-2-oxo-,
methyl ester
|
|
|
P194
|
23135-22-0
|
Oxamyl
|
|
|
P196
|
15339-36-3
|
Manganese,
bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-
|
|
|
P196
|
15339-36-3
|
Manganese
dimethyldithiocarbamate
|
|
|
P197
|
17702-57-7
|
Formparanate
|
|
|
P197
|
17702-57-7
|
Methanimidamide,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-(2-methyl-4-(((methylamino)carbonyl)oxy)phenyl)-
|
|
|
P198
|
23422-53-9
|
Formetanate hydrochloride
|
|
|
P198
|
23422-53-9
|
Methanimidamide,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-(3-(((methylamino)-carbonyl)oxy)phenyl)-, monohydrochloride
|
|
|
P199
|
2032-65-7
|
Methiocarb
|
|
|
P199
|
2032-65-7
|
Phenol,
(3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P201
|
2631-37-0
|
Phenol,
3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate
|
|
|
P201
|
2631-37-0
|
Promecarb
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
3-Isopropylphenyl-N-methylcarbamate
|
|
|
P202
|
64-00-6
|
Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-,
methyl carbamate
|
|
|
P203
|
1646-88-4
|
Aldicarb sulfone
|
|
|
P203
|
1646-88-4
|
Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-,
O-((methylamino)carbonyl) oxime
|
|
|
P204
|
57-47-6
|
Physostigmine
|
|
|
P204
|
57-47-6
|
Pyrrolo(2,3-b)indol-5-ol,
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester),
(3aS-cis)-
|
|
|
P205
|
137-30-4
|
Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-
|
|
|
P205
|
137-30-4
|
Ziram
|
|
BOARD NOTE:
An asterisk (*) following the CAS number indicates that the CAS number is given
for the parent compound only.
f) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical
intermediates, or off-specification commercial chemical products referred to in
subsections (a) through (d), are identified as toxic wastes (T) unless
otherwise designated. These wastes and their corresponding USEPA hazardous
waste numbers are the following:
BOARD NOTE:
For the convenience of the regulated community, the primary hazardous
properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity),
R (Reactivity), I (Ignitability), and C (Corrosivity). The absence of a letter
indicates that the compound is only listed for toxicity. Wastes are first
listed in alphabetical order by substance and then listed again in numerical
order by USEPA hazardous waste number.
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Chemical Abstracts No. (CAS
No.)
|
Substance
|
Hazard Code
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
U394
|
30558-43-1
|
A2213
|
|
|
U001
|
75-07-0
|
Acetaldehyde
|
(I)
|
|
U034
|
75-87-6
|
Acetaldehyde, trichloro-
|
|
|
U187
|
62-44-2
|
Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-
|
|
|
U005
|
53-96-3
|
Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl-
|
|
|
U240
|
P 94-75-7
|
Acetic acid,
(2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts and esters
|
|
|
U112
|
141-78-6
|
Acetic acid, ethyl ester
|
(I)
|
|
U144
|
301-04-2
|
Acetic acid, lead (2+) salt
|
|
|
U214
|
563-68-8
|
Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt
|
|
|
See F027
|
93-76-5
|
Acetic acid,
(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-
|
|
|
U002
|
67-64-1
|
Acetone
|
(I)
|
|
U003
|
75-05-8
|
Acetonitrile
|
(I, T)
|
|
U004
|
98-86-2
|
Acetophenone
|
|
|
U005
|
53-96-3
|
2-Acetylaminofluorene
|
|
|
U006
|
75-36-5
|
Acetyl chloride
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U007
|
79-06-1
|
Acrylamide
|
|
|
U008
|
79-10-7
|
Acrylic acid
|
(I)
|
|
U009
|
107-13-1
|
Acrylonitrile
|
|
|
U011
|
61-82-5
|
Amitrole
|
|
|
U012
|
62-53-3
|
Aniline
|
(I, T)
|
|
U136
|
75-60-5
|
Arsinic acid, dimethyl-
|
|
|
U014
|
492-80-8
|
Auramine
|
|
|
U015
|
115-02-6
|
Azaserine
|
|
|
U010
|
50-07-7
|
Azirino(2',3':3,4)pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione,
6-amino-8-(((aminocarbonyl)oxy)methyl)-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-,
(1a-S-(1aa,8b,8aa,8ba))-
|
|
|
U280
|
101-27-9
|
Barban
|
|
|
U278
|
22781-23-3
|
Bendiocarb
|
|
|
U364
|
22961-82-6
|
Bendiocarb phenol
|
|
|
U271
|
17804-35-2
|
Benomyl
|
|
|
U157
|
56-49-5
|
Benz(j)aceanthrylene,
1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-
|
|
|
U016
|
225-51-4
|
Benz(c)acridine
|
|
|
U017
|
98-87-3
|
Benzal chloride
|
|
|
U192
|
23950-58-5
|
Benzamide,
3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)-
|
|
|
U018
|
56-55-3
|
Benz(a)anthracene
|
|
|
U094
|
57-97-6
|
Benz(a)anthracene,
7,12-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U012
|
62-53-3
|
Benzenamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U014
|
492-80-8
|
Benzenamine,
4,4'-carbonimidoylbis(N,N-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U049
|
3165-93-3
|
Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U093
|
60-11-7
|
Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-
|
|
|
U328
|
95-53-4
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
|
|
|
U353
|
106-49-0
|
Benzenamine, 4-methyl-
|
|
|
U158
|
101-14-4
|
Benzenamine,
4,4'-methylenebis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U222
|
636-21-5
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U181
|
99-55-8
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-
|
|
|
U019
|
71-43-2
|
Benzene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U038
|
510-15-6
|
Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-a-(4-chlorophenyl)-a-hydroxy-, ethyl ester
|
|
|
U030
|
101-55-3
|
Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-
|
|
|
U035
|
305-03-3
|
Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U037
|
108-90-7
|
Benzene, chloro-
|
|
|
U221
|
25376-45-8
|
Benzenediamine, ar-methyl-
|
|
|
U028
|
117-81-7
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester
|
|
|
U069
|
84-74-2
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dibutyl ester
|
|
|
U088
|
84-66-2
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
diethyl ester
|
|
|
U102
|
131-11-3
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U107
|
117-84-0
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dioctyl ester
|
|
|
U070
|
95-50-1
|
Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U071
|
541-73-1
|
Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-
|
|
|
U072
|
106-46-7
|
Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-
|
|
|
U060
|
72-54-8
|
Benzene,
1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis(4-chloro-
|
|
|
U017
|
98-87-3
|
Benzene, (dichloromethyl)-
|
|
|
U223
|
26471-62-5
|
Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-
|
(R, T)
|
|
U239
|
1330-20-7
|
Benzene, dimethyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U201
|
108-46-3
|
1,3-Benzenediol
|
|
|
U127
|
118-74-1
|
Benzene, hexachloro-
|
|
|
U056
|
110-82-7
|
Benzene, hexahydro-
|
(I)
|
|
U220
|
108-88-3
|
Benzene, methyl-
|
|
|
U105
|
121-14-2
|
Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-
|
|
|
U106
|
606-20-2
|
Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro-
|
|
|
U055
|
98-82-8
|
Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-
|
(I)
|
|
U169
|
98-95-3
|
Benzene, nitro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U183
|
608-93-5
|
Benzene, pentachloro-
|
|
|
U185
|
82-68-8
|
Benzene, pentachloronitro-
|
|
|
U020
|
98-09-9
|
Benzenesulfonic acid chloride
|
(C, R)
|
|
U020
|
98-09-9
|
Benzenesulfonyl chloride
|
(C, R)
|
|
U207
|
95-94-3
|
Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U061
|
50-29-3
|
Benzene,
1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-chloro-
|
|
|
U247
|
72-43-5
|
Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-methoxy-
|
|
|
U023
|
98-07-7
|
Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U234
|
99-35-4
|
Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-
|
(R, T)
|
|
U021
|
92-87-5
|
Benzidene
|
|
|
U203
|
94-59-7
|
1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(2-propenyl)-
|
|
|
U141
|
120-58-1
|
1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(1-propenyl)-
|
|
|
U090
|
94-58-6
|
1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl-
|
|
|
U278
|
22781-23-3
|
1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol,
2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate
|
|
|
U364
|
22961-82-6
|
1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol,
2,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U367
|
1563-38-8
|
7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U064
|
189-55-9
|
Benzo(rst)pentaphene
|
|
|
U248
|
81-81-2
|
2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one,
4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations
of 0.3 percent or less
|
|
|
U022
|
50-32-8
|
Benzo(a)pyrene
|
|
|
U197
|
106-51-4
|
p-Benzoquinone
|
|
|
U023
|
98-07-7
|
Benzotrichloride
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U085
|
1464-53-5
|
2,2'-Bioxirane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U021
|
92-87-5
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine
|
|
|
U073
|
91-94-1
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dichloro-
|
|
|
U091
|
119-90-4
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethoxy-
|
|
|
U095
|
119-93-7
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U225
|
75-25-2
|
Bromoform
|
|
|
U030
|
101-55-3
|
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether
|
|
|
U128
|
87-68-3
|
1,3-Butadiene,
1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U172
|
924-16-3
|
1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U031
|
71-36-3
|
1-Butanol
|
(I)
|
|
U159
|
78-93-3
|
2-Butanone
|
(I, T)
|
|
U160
|
1338-23-4
|
2-Butanone, peroxide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U053
|
4170-30-3
|
2-Butenal
|
|
|
U074
|
764-41-0
|
2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U143
|
303-34-4
|
2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
7-((2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl)-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl
ester, (1S-(1a(Z), 7(2S*,3R*), 7aa))-
|
|
|
U031
|
71-36-3
|
n-Butyl alcohol
|
(I)
|
|
U136
|
75-60-5
|
Cacodylic acid
|
|
|
U032
|
13765-19-0
|
Calcium chromate
|
|
|
U372
|
10605-21-7
|
Carbamic acid,
1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester
|
|
|
U271
|
17804-35-2
|
Carbamic acid,
(1-((butylamino)carbonyl)-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl)-, methyl ester
|
|
|
U280
|
101-27-9
|
Carbamic acid,
(3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester
|
|
|
U238
|
51-79-6
|
Carbamic acid, ethyl ester
|
|
|
U178
|
615-53-2
|
Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-,
ethyl ester
|
|
|
U373
|
122-42-9
|
Carbamic acid, phenyl-,
1-methylethyl ester
|
|
|
U409
|
23564-05-8
|
Carbamic acid, (1,2-phenylenebis(iminocarbonothioyl))bis-,
dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U097
|
79-44-7
|
Carbamic chloride, dimethyl-
|
|
|
U114
|
P 111-54-6
|
Carbamodithioic acid,
1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts and esters
|
|
|
U062
|
2303-16-4
|
Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-,
S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester
|
|
|
U389
|
2303-17-5
|
Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester
|
|
|
U387
|
52888-80-9
|
Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-,
S-(phenylmethyl) ester
|
|
|
U279
|
63-25-2
|
Carbaryl
|
|
|
U372
|
10605-21-7
|
Carbendazim
|
|
|
U367
|
1563-38-8
|
Carbofuran phenol
|
|
|
U215
|
6533-73-9
|
Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
U033
|
353-50-4
|
Carbonic difluoride
|
(R, T)
|
|
U156
|
79-22-1
|
Carbonochloridic acid, methyl
ester
|
(I, T)
|
|
U033
|
353-50-4
|
Carbon oxyfluoride
|
(R, T)
|
|
U211
|
56-23-5
|
Carbon tetrachloride
|
|
|
U034
|
75-87-6
|
Chloral
|
|
|
U035
|
305-03-3
|
Chlorambucil
|
|
|
U036
|
57-74-9
|
Chlordane, a and g
isomers
|
|
|
U026
|
494-03-1
|
Chlornaphazin
|
|
|
U037
|
108-90-7
|
Chlorobenzene
|
|
|
U038
|
510-15-6
|
Chlorobenzilate
|
|
|
U039
|
59-50-7
|
p-Chloro-m-cresol
|
|
|
U042
|
110-75-8
|
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
|
|
|
U044
|
67-66-3
|
Chloroform
|
|
|
U046
|
107-30-2
|
Chloromethyl methyl ether
|
|
|
U047
|
91-58-7
|
b-Chloronaphthalene
|
|
|
U048
|
95-57-8
|
o-Chlorophenol
|
|
|
U049
|
3165-93-3
|
4-Chloro-o-toluidine,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U032
|
13765-19-0
|
Chromic acid H2CrO4,
calcium salt
|
|
|
U050
|
218-01-9
|
Chrysene
|
|
|
U051
|
|
Creosote
|
|
|
U052
|
1319-77-3
|
Cresol (Cresylic acid)
|
|
|
U053
|
4170-30-3
|
Crotonaldehyde
|
|
|
U055
|
98-82-8
|
Cumene
|
(I)
|
|
U246
|
506-68-3
|
Cyanogen bromide CNBr
|
|
|
U197
|
106-51-4
|
2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione
|
|
|
U056
|
110-82-7
|
Cyclohexane
|
(I)
|
|
U129
|
58-89-9
|
Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1a,2a,3b,4a,5a,6b)-
|
|
|
U057
|
108-94-1
|
Cyclohexanone
|
(I)
|
|
U130
|
77-47-4
|
1,3-Cyclopentadiene,
1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U058
|
50-18-0
|
Cyclophosphamide
|
|
|
U240
|
P 94-75-7
|
2,4-D, salts and esters
|
|
|
U059
|
20830-81-3
|
Daunomycin
|
|
|
U060
|
72-54-8
|
DDD
|
|
|
U061
|
50-29-3
|
DDT
|
|
|
U062
|
2303-16-4
|
Diallate
|
|
|
U063
|
53-70-3
|
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene
|
|
|
U064
|
189-55-9
|
Dibenzo(a,i)pyrene
|
|
|
U066
|
96-12-8
|
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
|
|
|
U069
|
84-74-2
|
Dibutyl phthalate
|
|
|
U070
|
95-50-1
|
o-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U071
|
541-73-1
|
m-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U072
|
106-46-7
|
p-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U073
|
91-94-1
|
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
|
|
|
U074
|
764-41-0
|
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U075
|
75-71-8
|
Dichlorodifluoromethane
|
|
|
U078
|
75-35-4
|
1,1-Dichloroethylene
|
|
|
U079
|
156-60-5
|
1,2-Dichloroethylene
|
|
|
U025
|
111-44-4
|
Dichloroethyl ether
|
|
|
U027
|
108-60-1
|
Dichloroisopropyl ether
|
|
|
U024
|
111-91-1
|
Dichloromethoxy ethane
|
|
|
U081
|
120-83-2
|
2,4-Dichlorophenol
|
|
|
U082
|
87-65-0
|
2,6-Dichlorophenol
|
|
|
U084
|
542-75-6
|
1,3-Dichloropropene
|
|
|
U085
|
1464-53-5
|
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U395
|
5952-26-1
|
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate
|
|
|
U108
|
123-91-1
|
1,4-Diethyleneoxide
|
|
|
U028
|
117-81-7
|
Diethylhexyl phthalate
|
|
|
U086
|
1615-80-1
|
N,N’-Diethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U087
|
3288-58-2
|
O,O-Diethyl S-methyl
dithiophosphate
|
|
|
U088
|
84-66-2
|
Diethyl phthalate
|
|
|
U089
|
56-53-1
|
Diethylstilbestrol
|
|
|
U090
|
94-58-6
|
Dihydrosafrole
|
|
|
U091
|
119-90-4
|
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine
|
|
|
U092
|
124-40-3
|
Dimethylamine
|
(I)
|
|
U093
|
60-11-7
|
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene
|
|
|
U094
|
57-97-6
|
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene
|
|
|
U095
|
119-93-7
|
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
|
|
|
U096
|
80-15-9
|
a,
a-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide
|
(R)
|
|
U097
|
79-44-7
|
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride
|
|
|
U098
|
57-14-7
|
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U099
|
540-73-8
|
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U101
|
105-67-9
|
2,4-Dimethylphenol
|
|
|
U102
|
131-11-3
|
Dimethyl phthalate
|
|
|
U103
|
77-78-1
|
Dimethyl sulfate
|
|
|
U105
|
121-14-2
|
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
|
|
|
U106
|
606-20-2
|
2,6-Dinitrotoluene
|
|
|
U107
|
117-84-0
|
Di-n-octyl phthalate
|
|
|
U108
|
123-91-1
|
1,4-Dioxane
|
|
|
U109
|
122-66-7
|
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine
|
|
|
U110
|
142-84-7
|
Dipropylamine
|
(I)
|
|
U111
|
621-64-7
|
Di-n-propylnitrosamine
|
|
|
U041
|
106-89-8
|
Epichlorohydrin
|
|
|
U001
|
75-07-0
|
Ethanal
|
(I)
|
|
U404
|
121-44-8
|
Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-
|
|
|
U174
|
55-18-5
|
Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U155
|
91-80-5
|
1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)-
|
|
|
U067
|
106-93-4
|
Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-
|
|
|
U076
|
75-34-3
|
Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-
|
|
|
U077
|
107-06-2
|
Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U131
|
67-72-1
|
Ethane, hexachloro-
|
|
|
U024
|
111-91-1
|
Ethane, 1,1'-(methylenebis(oxy))bis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U117
|
60-29-7
|
Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis-
|
(I)
|
|
U025
|
111-44-4
|
Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U184
|
76-01-7
|
Ethane, pentachloro-
|
|
|
U208
|
630-20-6
|
Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U209
|
79-34-5
|
Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U218
|
62-55-5
|
Ethanethioamide
|
|
|
U226
|
71-55-6
|
Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-
|
|
|
U227
|
79-00-5
|
Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
|
|
|
U410
|
59669-26-0
|
Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-(thiobis((methylimino)carbonyloxy))bis-,
dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U394
|
30558-43-1
|
Ethanimidothioic acid,
2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester
|
|
|
U359
|
110-80-5
|
Ethanol, 2-ethoxy-
|
|
|
U173
|
1116-54-7
|
Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis-
|
|
|
U395
|
5952-26-1
|
Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-,
dicarbamate
|
|
|
U004
|
98-86-2
|
Ethanone, 1-phenyl-
|
|
|
U043
|
75-01-4
|
Ethene, chloro-
|
|
|
U042
|
110-75-8
|
Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-
|
|
|
U078
|
75-35-4
|
Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-
|
|
|
U079
|
156-60-5
|
Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)-
|
|
|
U210
|
127-18-4
|
Ethene, tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U228
|
79-01-6
|
Ethene, trichloro-
|
|
|
U112
|
141-78-6
|
Ethyl acetate
|
(I)
|
|
U113
|
140-88-5
|
Ethyl acrylate
|
(I)
|
|
U238
|
51-79-6
|
Ethyl carbamate (urethane)
|
|
|
U117
|
60-29-7
|
Ethyl ether
|
(I)
|
|
U114
|
P 111-54-6
|
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid,
salts and esters
|
|
|
U067
|
106-93-4
|
Ethylene dibromide
|
|
|
U077
|
107-06-2
|
Ethylene dichloride
|
|
|
U359
|
110-80-5
|
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether
|
|
|
U115
|
75-21-8
|
Ethylene oxide
|
(I, T)
|
|
U116
|
96-45-7
|
Ethylenethiourea
|
|
|
U076
|
75-34-3
|
Ethylidene dichloride
|
|
|
U118
|
97-63-2
|
Ethyl methacrylate
|
|
|
U119
|
62-50-0
|
Ethyl methanesulfonate
|
|
|
U120
|
206-44-0
|
Fluoranthene
|
|
|
U122
|
50-00-0
|
Formaldehyde
|
|
|
U123
|
64-18-6
|
Formic acid
|
(C, T)
|
|
U124
|
110-00-9
|
Furan
|
(I)
|
|
U125
|
98-01-1
|
2-Furancarboxaldehyde
|
(I)
|
|
U147
|
108-31-6
|
2,5-Furandione
|
|
|
U213
|
109-99-9
|
Furan, tetrahydro-
|
(I)
|
|
U125
|
98-01-1
|
Furfural
|
(I)
|
|
U124
|
110-00-9
|
Furfuran
|
(I)
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-,
D-
|
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
D-Glucose,
2-deoxy-2-(((methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U126
|
765-34-4
|
Glycidylaldehyde
|
|
|
U163
|
70-25-7
|
Guanidine,
N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U127
|
118-74-1
|
Hexachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U128
|
87-68-3
|
Hexachlorobutadiene
|
|
|
U130
|
77-47-4
|
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
|
|
|
U131
|
67-72-1
|
Hexachloroethane
|
|
|
U132
|
70-30-4
|
Hexachlorophene
|
|
|
U243
|
1888-71-7
|
Hexachloropropene
|
|
|
U133
|
302-01-2
|
Hydrazine
|
(R, T)
|
|
U086
|
1615-80-1
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl-
|
|
|
U098
|
57-14-7
|
Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U099
|
540-73-8
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U109
|
122-66-7
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-
|
|
|
U134
|
7664-39-3
|
Hydrofluoric acid
|
(C, T)
|
|
U134
|
7664-39-3
|
Hydrogen fluoride
|
(C, T)
|
|
U135
|
7783-06-4
|
Hydrogen sulfide
|
|
|
U135
|
7783-06-4
|
Hydrogen sulfide H2S
|
|
|
U096
|
80-15-9
|
Hydroperoxide,
1-methyl-1-phenylethyl-
|
(R)
|
|
U116
|
96-45-7
|
2-Imidazolidinethione
|
|
|
U137
|
193-39-5
|
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene
|
|
|
U190
|
85-44-9
|
1,3-Isobenzofurandione
|
|
|
U140
|
78-83-1
|
Isobutyl alcohol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U141
|
120-58-1
|
Isosafrole
|
|
|
U142
|
143-50-0
|
Kepone
|
|
|
U143
|
303-34-4
|
Lasiocarpene
|
|
|
U144
|
301-04-2
|
Lead acetate
|
|
|
U146
|
1335-32-6
|
Lead,
bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-
|
|
|
U145
|
7446-27-7
|
Lead phosphate
|
|
|
U146
|
1335-32-6
|
Lead subacetate
|
|
|
U129
|
58-89-9
|
Lindane
|
|
|
U163
|
70-25-7
|
MNNG
|
|
|
U147
|
108-31-6
|
Maleic anhydride
|
|
|
U148
|
123-33-1
|
Maleic hydrazide
|
|
|
U149
|
109-77-3
|
Malononitrile
|
|
|
U150
|
148-82-3
|
Melphalan
|
|
|
U151
|
7439-97-6
|
Mercury
|
|
|
U152
|
126-98-7
|
Methacrylonitrile
|
(I, T)
|
|
U092
|
124-40-3
|
Methanamine, N-methyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U029
|
74-83-9
|
Methane, bromo-
|
|
|
U045
|
74-87-3
|
Methane, chloro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U046
|
107-30-2
|
Methane, chloromethoxy-
|
|
|
U068
|
74-95-3
|
Methane, dibromo-
|
|
|
U080
|
75-09-2
|
Methane, dichloro-
|
|
|
U075
|
75-71-8
|
Methane, dichlorodifluoro-
|
|
|
U138
|
74-88-4
|
Methane, iodo-
|
|
|
U119
|
62-50-0
|
Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl
ester
|
|
|
U211
|
56-23-5
|
Methane, tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U153
|
74-93-1
|
Methanethiol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U225
|
75-25-2
|
Methane, tribromo-
|
|
|
U044
|
67-66-3
|
Methane, trichloro-
|
|
|
U121
|
75-69-4
|
Methane, trichlorofluoro-
|
|
|
U036
|
57-74-9
|
4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-
|
|
|
U154
|
67-56-1
|
Methanol
|
(I)
|
|
U155
|
91-80-5
|
Methapyrilene
|
|
|
U142
|
143-50-0
|
1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta(cd)pentalen-2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro-
|
|
|
U247
|
72-43-5
|
Methoxychlor
|
|
|
U154
|
67-56-1
|
Methyl alcohol
|
(I)
|
|
U029
|
74-83-9
|
Methyl bromide
|
|
|
U186
|
504-60-9
|
1-Methylbutadiene
|
(I)
|
|
U045
|
74-87-3
|
Methyl chloride
|
(I, T)
|
|
U156
|
79-22-1
|
Methyl chlorocarbonate
|
(I, T)
|
|
U226
|
71-55-6
|
Methylchloroform
|
|
|
U157
|
56-49-5
|
3-Methylcholanthrene
|
|
|
U158
|
101-14-4
|
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline)
|
|
|
U068
|
74-95-3
|
Methylene bromide
|
|
|
U080
|
75-09-2
|
Methylene chloride
|
|
|
U159
|
78-93-3
|
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK)
|
(I, T)
|
|
U160
|
1338-23-4
|
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U138
|
74-88-4
|
Methyl iodide
|
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
Methyl isobutyl ketone
|
(I)
|
|
U162
|
80-62-6
|
Methyl methacrylate
|
(I, T)
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
4-Methyl-2-pentanone
|
(I)
|
|
U164
|
56-04-2
|
Methylthiouracil
|
|
|
U010
|
50-07-7
|
Mitomycin C
|
|
|
U059
|
20830-81-3
|
5,12-Naphthacenedione,
8-acetyl-10-((3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-a-L-lyxo-hexapyranosyl)oxyl)-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-,
(8S-cis)-
|
|
|
U167
|
134-32-7
|
1-Naphthalenamine
|
|
|
U168
|
91-59-8
|
2-Naphthalenamine
|
|
|
U026
|
494-03-1
|
Naphthaleneamine,
N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)-
|
|
|
U165
|
91-20-3
|
Naphthalene
|
|
|
U047
|
91-58-7
|
Naphthalene, 2-chloro-
|
|
|
U166
|
130-15-4
|
1,4-Naphthalenedione
|
|
|
U236
|
72-57-1
|
2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'-((3,3'-dimethyl-(1,1'-biphenyl)-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy)-,
tetrasodium salt
|
|
|
U279
|
63-25-2
|
1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
U166
|
130-15-4
|
1,4-Naphthoquinone
|
|
|
U167
|
134-32-7
|
a-Naphthylamine
|
|
|
U168
|
91-59-8
|
b-Naphthylamine
|
|
|
U217
|
10102-45-1
|
Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt
|
|
|
U169
|
98-95-3
|
Nitrobenzene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U170
|
100-02-7
|
p-Nitrophenol
|
|
|
U171
|
79-46-9
|
2-Nitropropane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U172
|
924-16-3
|
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine
|
|
|
U173
|
1116-54-7
|
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine
|
|
|
U174
|
55-18-5
|
N-Nitrosodiethylamine
|
|
|
U176
|
759-73-9
|
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea
|
|
|
U177
|
684-93-5
|
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea
|
|
|
U178
|
615-53-2
|
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane
|
|
|
U179
|
100-75-4
|
N-Nitrosopiperidine
|
|
|
U180
|
930-55-2
|
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine
|
|
|
U181
|
99-55-8
|
5-Nitro-o-toluidine
|
|
|
U193
|
1120-71-4
|
1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide
|
|
|
U058
|
50-18-0
|
2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine,
N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide
|
|
|
U115
|
75-21-8
|
Oxirane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U126
|
765-34-4
|
Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde
|
|
|
U041
|
106-89-8
|
Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-
|
|
|
U182
|
123-63-7
|
Paraldehyde
|
|
|
U183
|
608-93-5
|
Pentachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U184
|
76-01-7
|
Pentachloroethane
|
|
|
U185
|
82-68-8
|
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB)
|
|
|
See F027
|
87-86-5
|
Pentachlorophenol
|
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
Pentanol, 4-methyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U186
|
504-60-9
|
1,3-Pentadiene
|
(I)
|
|
U187
|
62-44-2
|
Phenacetin
|
|
|
U188
|
108-95-2
|
Phenol
|
|
|
U048
|
95-57-8
|
Phenol, 2-chloro-
|
|
|
U039
|
59-50-7
|
Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-
|
|
|
U081
|
120-83-2
|
Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-
|
|
|
U082
|
87-65-0
|
Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-
|
|
|
U089
|
56-53-1
|
Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-,
(E)-
|
|
|
U101
|
105-67-9
|
Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U052
|
1319-77-3
|
Phenol, methyl-
|
|
|
U132
|
70-30-4
|
Phenol,
2,2'-methylenebis(3,4,6-trichloro-
|
|
|
U411
|
114-26-1
|
Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-,
methylcarbamate
|
|
|
U170
|
100-02-7
|
Phenol, 4-nitro-
|
|
|
See F027
|
87-86-5
|
Phenol, pentachloro-
|
|
|
See F027
|
58-90-2
|
Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
See F027
|
95-95-4
|
Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-
|
|
|
See F027
|
88-06-2
|
Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-
|
|
|
U150
|
148-82-3
|
L-Phenylalanine, 4-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U145
|
7446-27-7
|
Phosphoric acid, lead (2+) salt
(2:3)
|
|
|
U087
|
3288-58-2
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester
|
|
|
U189
|
1314-80-3
|
Phosphorus sulfide
|
(R)
|
|
U190
|
85-44-9
|
Phthalic anhydride
|
|
|
U191
|
109-06-8
|
2-Picoline
|
|
|
U179
|
100-75-4
|
Piperidine, 1-nitroso-
|
|
|
U192
|
23950-58-5
|
Pronamide
|
|
|
U194
|
107-10-8
|
1-Propanamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U111
|
621-64-7
|
1-Propanamine,
N-nitroso-N-propyl-
|
|
|
U110
|
142-84-7
|
1-Propanamine, N-propyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U066
|
96-12-8
|
Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-
|
|
|
U083
|
78-87-5
|
Propane, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U149
|
109-77-3
|
Propanedinitrile
|
|
|
U171
|
79-46-9
|
Propane, 2-nitro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U027
|
108-60-1
|
Propane, 2,2'-oxybis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
See F027
|
93-72-1
|
Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-
|
|
|
U193
|
1120-71-4
|
1,3-Propane sultone
|
|
|
U235
|
126-72-7
|
1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-,
phosphate (3:1)
|
|
|
U140
|
78-83-1
|
1-Propanol, 2-methyl-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U002
|
67-64-1
|
2-Propanone
|
(I)
|
|
U007
|
79-06-1
|
2-Propenamide
|
|
|
U084
|
542-75-6
|
1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-
|
|
|
U243
|
1888-71-7
|
1-Propene,
1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U009
|
107-13-1
|
2-Propenenitrile
|
|
|
U152
|
126-98-7
|
2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U008
|
79-10-7
|
2-Propenoic acid
|
(I)
|
|
U113
|
140-88-5
|
2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester
|
(I)
|
|
U118
|
97-63-2
|
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
ethyl ester
|
|
|
U162
|
80-62-6
|
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
methyl ester
|
(I, T)
|
|
U373
|
122-42-9
|
Propham
|
|
|
U411
|
114-26-1
|
Propoxur
|
|
|
See F027
|
93-72-1
|
Propionic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-
|
|
|
U194
|
107-10-8
|
n-Propylamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U083
|
78-87-5
|
Propylene dichloride
|
|
|
U387
|
52888-80-9
|
Prosulfocarb
|
|
|
U148
|
123-33-1
|
3,6-Pyridazinedione,
1,2-dihydro-
|
|
|
U196
|
110-86-1
|
Pyridine
|
|
|
U191
|
109-06-8
|
Pyridine, 2-methyl-
|
|
|
U237
|
66-75-1
|
2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione,
5-(bis(2-chloroethyl) amino)-
|
|
|
U164
|
56-04-2
|
4(1H)-Pyrimidinone,
2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-
|
|
|
U180
|
930-55-2
|
Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-
|
|
|
U200
|
50-55-5
|
Reserpine
|
|
|
U201
|
108-46-3
|
Resorcinol
|
|
|
U203
|
94-59-7
|
Safrole
|
|
|
U204
|
7783-00-8
|
Selenious acid
|
|
|
U204
|
7783-00-8
|
Selenium dioxide
|
|
|
U205
|
7488-56-4
|
Selenium sulfide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U205
|
7488-56-4
|
Selenium sulfide SeS2
|
(R, T)
|
|
U015
|
115-02-6
|
L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)
|
|
|
See F027
|
93-72-1
|
Silvex (2,4,5-TP)
|
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
Streptozotocin
|
|
|
U103
|
77-78-1
|
Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U189
|
1314-80-3
|
Sulfur phosphide
|
(R)
|
|
See F027
|
93-76-5
|
2,4,5-T
|
|
|
U207
|
95-94-3
|
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U208
|
630-20-6
|
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
|
|
|
U209
|
79-34-5
|
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
|
|
|
U210
|
127-18-4
|
Tetrachloroethylene
|
|
|
See F027
|
58-90-2
|
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol
|
|
|
U213
|
109-99-9
|
Tetrahydrofuran
|
(I)
|
|
U214
|
563-68-8
|
Thallium (I) acetate
|
|
|
U215
|
6533-73-9
|
Thallium (I) carbonate
|
|
|
U216
|
7791-12-0
|
Thallium (I) chloride
|
|
|
U216
|
7791-12-0
|
Thallium chloride TlCl
|
|
|
U217
|
10102-45-1
|
Thallium (I) nitrate
|
|
|
U218
|
62-55-5
|
Thioacetamide
|
|
|
U410
|
59669-26-0
|
Thiodicarb
|
|
|
U153
|
74-93-1
|
Thiomethanol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U244
|
137-26-8
|
Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide ((H2N)C(S))2S2,
tetramethyl-
|
|
|
U409
|
23564-05-8
|
Thiophanate-methyl
|
|
|
U219
|
62-56-6
|
Thiourea
|
|
|
U244
|
137-26-8
|
Thiram
|
|
|
U220
|
108-88-3
|
Toluene
|
|
|
U221
|
25376-45-8
|
Toluenediamine
|
|
|
U223
|
26471-62-5
|
Toluene diisocyanate
|
(R, T)
|
|
U328
|
95-53-4
|
o-Toluidine
|
|
|
U353
|
106-49-0
|
p-Toluidine
|
|
|
U222
|
636-21-5
|
o-Toluidine hydrochloride
|
|
|
U389
|
2303-17-5
|
Triallate
|
|
|
U011
|
61-82-5
|
1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine
|
|
|
U227
|
79-00-5
|
Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
|
|
|
U227
|
79-00-5
|
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
|
|
|
U228
|
79-01-6
|
Trichloroethylene
|
|
|
U121
|
75-69-4
|
Trichloromonofluoromethane
|
|
|
See F027
|
95-95-4
|
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
|
|
|
See F027
|
88-06-2
|
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
|
|
|
U404
|
121-44-8
|
Triethylamine
|
|
|
U234
|
99-35-4
|
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene
|
(R, T)
|
|
U182
|
123-63-7
|
1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-
|
|
|
U235
|
126-72-7
|
Tris (2,3-dibromopropyl)
phosphate
|
|
|
U236
|
72-57-1
|
Trypan blue
|
|
|
U237
|
66-75-1
|
Uracil mustard
|
|
|
U176
|
759-73-9
|
Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U177
|
684-93-5
|
Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U043
|
75-01-4
|
Vinyl chloride
|
|
|
U248
|
81-81-2
|
Warfarin, and salts, when
present at concentrations of 0.3 percent
or less
|
|
|
U239
|
1330-20-7
|
Xylene
|
(I)
|
|
U200
|
50-55-5
|
Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid,
11,17-dimethoxy-18-((3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy)-, methyl ester, (3b,16b,17a,18b,20a)-
|
|
|
U249
|
1314-84-7
|
Zinc phosphide Zn3P2,
when present at concentrations of 10
percent or less
|
|
Numerical Listing
|
USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
|
Chemical Abstracts No. (CAS
No.)
|
Substance
|
Hazard Code
|
U001
|
75-07-0
|
Acetaldehyde
|
(I)
|
|
U001
|
75-07-0
|
Ethanal
|
(I)
|
|
U002
|
67-64-1
|
Acetone
|
(I)
|
|
U002
|
67-64-1
|
2-Propanone
|
(I)
|
|
U003
|
75-05-8
|
Acetonitrile
|
(I, T)
|
|
U004
|
98-86-2
|
Acetophenone
|
|
|
U004
|
98-86-2
|
Ethanone, 1-phenyl-
|
|
|
U005
|
53-96-3
|
Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl-
|
|
|
U005
|
53-96-3
|
2-Acetylaminofluorene
|
|
|
U006
|
75-36-5
|
Acetyl chloride
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U007
|
79-06-1
|
Acrylamide
|
|
|
U007
|
79-06-1
|
2-Propenamide
|
|
|
U008
|
79-10-7
|
Acrylic acid
|
(I)
|
|
U008
|
79-10-7
|
2-Propenoic acid
|
(I)
|
|
U009
|
107-13-1
|
Acrylonitrile
|
|
|
U009
|
107-13-1
|
2-Propenenitrile
|
|
|
U010
|
50-07-7
|
Azirino(2',3':3,4)pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione,
6-amino-8-(((aminocarbonyl)oxy)methyl)-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-,
(1a-S-(1aa,8b,8aa,8ba))-
|
|
|
U010
|
50-07-7
|
Mitomycin C
|
|
|
U011
|
61-82-5
|
Amitrole
|
|
|
U011
|
61-82-5
|
1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine
|
|
|
U012
|
62-53-3
|
Aniline
|
(I, T)
|
|
U012
|
62-53-3
|
Benzenamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U014
|
492-80-8
|
Auramine
|
|
|
U014
|
492-80-8
|
Benzenamine,
4,4'-carbonimidoylbis(N,N-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U015
|
115-02-6
|
Azaserine
|
|
|
U015
|
115-02-6
|
L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)
|
|
|
U016
|
225-51-4
|
Benz(c)acridine
|
|
|
U017
|
98-87-3
|
Benzal chloride
|
|
|
U017
|
98-87-3
|
Benzene, (dichloromethyl)-
|
|
|
U018
|
56-55-3
|
Benz(a)anthracene
|
|
|
U019
|
71-43-2
|
Benzene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U020
|
98-09-9
|
Benzenesulfonic acid chloride
|
(C, R)
|
|
U020
|
98-09-9
|
Benzenesulfonyl chloride
|
(C, R)
|
|
U021
|
92-87-5
|
Benzidene
|
|
|
U021
|
92-87-5
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine
|
|
|
U022
|
50-32-8
|
Benzo(a)pyrene
|
|
|
U023
|
98-07-7
|
Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U023
|
98-07-7
|
Benzotrichloride
|
(C, R, T)
|
|
U024
|
111-91-1
|
Dichloromethoxy ethane
|
|
|
U024
|
111-91-1
|
Ethane,
1,1'-(methylenebis(oxy))bis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U025
|
111-44-4
|
Dichloroethyl ether
|
|
|
U025
|
111-44-4
|
Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U026
|
494-03-1
|
Chlornaphazin
|
|
|
U026
|
494-03-1
|
Naphthaleneamine, N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)-
|
|
|
U027
|
108-60-1
|
Dichloroisopropyl ether
|
|
|
U027
|
108-60-1
|
Propane, 2,2'-oxybis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U028
|
117-81-7
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester
|
|
|
U028
|
117-81-7
|
Diethylhexyl phthalate
|
|
|
U029
|
74-83-9
|
Methane, bromo-
|
|
|
U029
|
74-83-9
|
Methyl bromide
|
|
|
U030
|
101-55-3
|
Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-
|
|
|
U030
|
101-55-3
|
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether
|
|
|
U031
|
71-36-3
|
1-Butanol
|
(I)
|
|
U031
|
71-36-3
|
n-Butyl alcohol
|
(I)
|
|
U032
|
13765-19-0
|
Calcium chromate
|
|
|
U032
|
13765-19-0
|
Chromic acid H2CrO4,
calcium salt
|
|
|
U033
|
353-50-4
|
Carbonic difluoride
|
(R, T)
|
|
U033
|
353-50-4
|
Carbon oxyfluoride
|
(R, T)
|
|
U034
|
75-87-6
|
Acetaldehyde, trichloro-
|
|
|
U034
|
75-87-6
|
Chloral
|
|
|
U035
|
305-03-3
|
Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U035
|
305-03-3
|
Chlorambucil
|
|
|
U036
|
57-74-9
|
Chlordane, a and g
isomers
|
|
|
U036
|
57-74-9
|
4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-
|
|
|
U037
|
108-90-7
|
Benzene, chloro-
|
|
|
U037
|
108-90-7
|
Chlorobenzene
|
|
|
U038
|
510-15-6
|
Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-a-(4-chlorophenyl)-a-hydroxy-, ethyl ester
|
|
|
U038
|
510-15-6
|
Chlorobenzilate
|
|
|
U039
|
59-50-7
|
p-Chloro-m-cresol
|
|
|
U039
|
59-50-7
|
Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-
|
|
|
U041
|
106-89-8
|
Epichlorohydrin
|
|
|
U041
|
106-89-8
|
Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-
|
|
|
U042
|
110-75-8
|
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
|
|
|
U042
|
110-75-8
|
Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-
|
|
|
U043
|
75-01-4
|
Ethene, chloro-
|
|
|
U043
|
75-01-4
|
Vinyl chloride
|
|
|
U044
|
67-66-3
|
Chloroform
|
|
|
U044
|
67-66-3
|
Methane, trichloro-
|
|
|
U045
|
74-87-3
|
Methane, chloro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U045
|
74-87-3
|
Methyl chloride
|
(I, T)
|
|
U046
|
107-30-2
|
Chloromethyl methyl ether
|
|
|
U046
|
107-30-2
|
Methane, chloromethoxy-
|
|
|
U047
|
91-58-7
|
b-Chloronaphthalene
|
|
|
U047
|
91-58-7
|
Naphthalene, 2-chloro-
|
|
|
U048
|
95-57-8
|
o-Chlorophenol
|
|
|
U048
|
95-57-8
|
Phenol, 2-chloro-
|
|
|
U049
|
3165-93-3
|
Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U049
|
3165-93-3
|
4-Chloro-o-toluidine,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U050
|
218-01-9
|
Chrysene
|
|
|
U051
|
|
Creosote
|
|
|
U052
|
1319-77-3
|
Cresol (Cresylic acid)
|
|
|
U052
|
1319-77-3
|
Phenol, methyl-
|
|
|
U053
|
4170-30-3
|
2-Butenal
|
|
|
U053
|
4170-30-3
|
Crotonaldehyde
|
|
|
U055
|
98-82-8
|
Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-
|
(I)
|
|
U055
|
98-82-8
|
Cumene
|
(I)
|
|
U056
|
110-82-7
|
Benzene, hexahydro-
|
(I)
|
|
U056
|
110-82-7
|
Cyclohexane
|
(I)
|
|
U057
|
108-94-1
|
Cyclohexanone
|
(I)
|
|
U058
|
50-18-0
|
Cyclophosphamide
|
|
|
U058
|
50-18-0
|
2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine,
N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide
|
|
|
U059
|
20830-81-3
|
Daunomycin
|
|
|
U059
|
20830-81-3
|
5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-((3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-a-L-lyxo-hexapyranosyl)oxyl)-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-,
(8S-cis)-
|
|
|
U060
|
72-54-8
|
Benzene,
1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis(4-chloro-
|
|
|
U060
|
72-54-8
|
DDD
|
|
|
U061
|
50-29-3
|
Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-chloro-
|
|
|
U061
|
50-29-3
|
DDT
|
|
|
U062
|
2303-16-4
|
Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester
|
|
|
U062
|
2303-16-4
|
Diallate
|
|
|
U063
|
53-70-3
|
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene
|
|
|
U064
|
189-55-9
|
Benzo(rst)pentaphene
|
|
|
U064
|
189-55-9
|
Dibenzo(a,i)pyrene
|
|
|
U066
|
96-12-8
|
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
|
|
|
U066
|
96-12-8
|
Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-
|
|
|
U067
|
106-93-4
|
Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-
|
|
|
U067
|
106-93-4
|
Ethylene dibromide
|
|
|
U068
|
74-95-3
|
Methane, dibromo-
|
|
|
U068
|
74-95-3
|
Methylene bromide
|
|
|
U069
|
84-74-2
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dibutyl ester
|
|
|
U069
|
84-74-2
|
Dibutyl phthalate
|
|
|
U070
|
95-50-1
|
Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U070
|
95-50-1
|
o-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U071
|
541-73-1
|
Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-
|
|
|
U071
|
541-73-1
|
m-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U072
|
106-46-7
|
Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-
|
|
|
U072
|
106-46-7
|
p-Dichlorobenzene
|
|
|
U073
|
91-94-1
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dichloro-
|
|
|
U073
|
91-94-1
|
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
|
|
|
U074
|
764-41-0
|
2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U074
|
764-41-0
|
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U075
|
75-71-8
|
Dichlorodifluoromethane
|
|
|
U075
|
75-71-8
|
Methane, dichlorodifluoro-
|
|
|
U076
|
75-34-3
|
Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-
|
|
|
U076
|
75-34-3
|
Ethylidene dichloride
|
|
|
U077
|
107-06-2
|
Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U077
|
107-06-2
|
Ethylene dichloride
|
|
|
U078
|
75-35-4
|
1,1-Dichloroethylene
|
|
|
U078
|
75-35-4
|
Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-
|
|
|
U079
|
156-60-5
|
1,2-Dichloroethylene
|
|
|
U079
|
156-60-5
|
Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)-
|
|
|
U080
|
75-09-2
|
Methane, dichloro-
|
|
|
U080
|
75-09-2
|
Methylene chloride
|
|
|
U081
|
120-83-2
|
2,4-Dichlorophenol
|
|
|
U081
|
120-83-2
|
Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-
|
|
|
U082
|
87-65-0
|
2,6-Dichlorophenol
|
|
|
U082
|
87-65-0
|
Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-
|
|
|
U083
|
78-87-5
|
Propane, 1,2-dichloro-
|
|
|
U083
|
78-87-5
|
Propylene dichloride
|
|
|
U084
|
542-75-6
|
1,3-Dichloropropene
|
|
|
U084
|
542-75-6
|
1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-
|
|
|
U085
|
1464-53-5
|
2,2'-Bioxirane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U085
|
1464-53-5
|
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U086
|
1615-80-1
|
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U086
|
1615-80-1
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl-
|
|
|
U087
|
3288-58-2
|
O,O-Diethyl S-methyl
dithiophosphate
|
|
|
U087
|
3288-58-2
|
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester
|
|
|
U088
|
84-66-2
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
diethyl ester
|
|
|
U088
|
84-66-2
|
Diethyl phthalate
|
|
|
U089
|
56-53-1
|
Diethylstilbestrol
|
|
|
U089
|
56-53-1
|
Phenol,
4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)-
|
|
|
U090
|
94-58-6
|
1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl-
|
|
|
U090
|
94-58-6
|
Dihydrosafrole
|
|
|
U091
|
119-90-4
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethoxy-
|
|
|
U091
|
119-90-4
|
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine
|
|
|
U092
|
124-40-3
|
Dimethylamine
|
(I)
|
|
U092
|
124-40-3
|
Methanamine, N-methyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U093
|
60-11-7
|
Benzenamine,
N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-
|
|
|
U093
|
60-11-7
|
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene
|
|
|
U094
|
57-97-6
|
Benz(a)anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U094
|
57-97-6
|
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene
|
|
|
U095
|
119-93-7
|
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U095
|
119-93-7
|
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
|
|
|
U096
|
80-15-9
|
a,
a-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide
|
(R)
|
|
U096
|
80-15-9
|
Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl-
|
(R )
|
|
U097
|
79-44-7
|
Carbamic chloride, dimethyl-
|
|
|
U097
|
79-44-7
|
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride
|
|
|
U098
|
57-14-7
|
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U098
|
57-14-7
|
Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U099
|
540-73-8
|
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine
|
|
|
U099
|
540-73-8
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U101
|
105-67-9
|
2,4-Dimethylphenol
|
|
|
U101
|
105-67-9
|
Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U102
|
131-11-3
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U102
|
131-11-3
|
Dimethyl phthalate
|
|
|
U103
|
77-78-1
|
Dimethyl sulfate
|
|
|
U103
|
77-78-1
|
Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U105
|
121-14-2
|
Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-
|
|
|
U105
|
121-14-2
|
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
|
|
|
U106
|
606-20-2
|
Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro-
|
|
|
U106
|
606-20-2
|
2,6-Dinitrotoluene
|
|
|
U107
|
117-84-0
|
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dioctyl ester
|
|
|
U107
|
117-84-0
|
Di-n-octyl phthalate
|
|
|
U108
|
123-91-1
|
1,4-Diethyleneoxide
|
|
|
U108
|
123-91-1
|
1,4-Dioxane
|
|
|
U109
|
122-66-7
|
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine
|
|
|
U109
|
122-66-7
|
Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-
|
|
|
U110
|
142-84-7
|
Dipropylamine
|
(I)
|
|
U110
|
142-84-7
|
1-Propanamine, N-propyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U111
|
621-64-7
|
Di-n-propylnitrosamine
|
|
|
U111
|
621-64-7
|
1-Propanamine,
N-nitroso-N-propyl-
|
|
|
U112
|
141-78-6
|
Acetic acid, ethyl ester
|
(I)
|
|
U112
|
141-78-6
|
Ethyl acetate
|
(I)
|
|
U113
|
140-88-5
|
Ethyl acrylate
|
(I)
|
|
U113
|
140-88-5
|
2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester
|
(I)
|
|
U114
|
P 111-54-6
|
Carbamodithioic acid,
1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts and esters
|
|
|
U114
|
P 111-54-6
|
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid,
salts and esters
|
|
|
U115
|
75-21-8
|
Ethylene oxide
|
(I, T)
|
|
U115
|
75-21-8
|
Oxirane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U116
|
96-45-7
|
Ethylenethiourea
|
|
|
U116
|
96-45-7
|
2-Imidazolidinethione
|
|
|
U117
|
60-29-7
|
Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis-
|
(I)
|
|
U117
|
60-29-7
|
Ethyl ether
|
(I)
|
|
U118
|
97-63-2
|
Ethyl methacrylate
|
|
|
U118
|
97-63-2
|
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
ethyl ester
|
|
|
U119
|
62-50-0
|
Ethyl methanesulfonate
|
|
|
U119
|
62-50-0
|
Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl
ester
|
|
|
U120
|
206-44-0
|
Fluoranthene
|
|
|
U121
|
75-69-4
|
Methane, trichlorofluoro-
|
|
|
U121
|
75-69-4
|
Trichloromonofluoromethane
|
|
|
U122
|
50-00-0
|
Formaldehyde
|
|
|
U123
|
64-18-6
|
Formic acid
|
(C, T)
|
|
U124
|
110-00-9
|
Furan
|
(I)
|
|
U124
|
110-00-9
|
Furfuran
|
(I)
|
|
U125
|
98-01-1
|
2-Furancarboxaldehyde
|
(I)
|
|
U125
|
98-01-1
|
Furfural
|
(I)
|
|
U126
|
765-34-4
|
Glycidylaldehyde
|
|
|
U126
|
765-34-4
|
Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde
|
|
|
U127
|
118-74-1
|
Benzene, hexachloro-
|
|
|
U127
|
118-74-1
|
Hexachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U128
|
87-68-3
|
1,3-Butadiene,
1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U128
|
87-68-3
|
Hexachlorobutadiene
|
|
|
U129
|
58-89-9
|
Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1a,2a,3b,4a,5a,6b)-
|
|
|
U129
|
58-89-9
|
Lindane
|
|
|
U130
|
77-47-4
|
1,3-Cyclopentadiene,
1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U130
|
77-47-4
|
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
|
|
|
U131
|
67-72-1
|
Ethane, hexachloro-
|
|
|
U131
|
67-72-1
|
Hexachloroethane
|
|
|
U132
|
70-30-4
|
Hexachlorophene
|
|
|
U132
|
70-30-4
|
Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis(3,4,6-trichloro-
|
|
|
U133
|
302-01-2
|
Hydrazine
|
(R, T)
|
|
U134
|
7664-39-3
|
Hydrofluoric acid
|
(C, T)
|
|
U134
|
7664-39-3
|
Hydrogen fluoride
|
(C, T)
|
|
U135
|
7783-06-4
|
Hydrogen sulfide
|
|
|
U135
|
7783-06-4
|
Hydrogen sulfide H2S
|
|
|
U136
|
75-60-5
|
Arsinic acid, dimethyl-
|
|
|
U136
|
75-60-5
|
Cacodylic acid
|
|
|
U137
|
193-39-5
|
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene
|
|
|
U138
|
74-88-4
|
Methane, iodo-
|
|
|
U138
|
74-88-4
|
Methyl iodide
|
|
|
U140
|
78-83-1
|
Isobutyl alcohol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U140
|
78-83-1
|
1-Propanol, 2-methyl-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U141
|
120-58-1
|
1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(1-propenyl)-
|
|
|
U141
|
120-58-1
|
Isosafrole
|
|
|
U142
|
143-50-0
|
Kepone
|
|
|
U142
|
143-50-0
|
1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta(cd)pentalen-2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro-
|
|
|
U143
|
303-34-4
|
2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
7-((2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl)-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl
ester, (1S-(1a(Z), 7(2S*,3R*), 7aa))-
|
|
|
U143
|
303-34-4
|
Lasiocarpene
|
|
|
U144
|
301-04-2
|
Acetic acid, lead (2+) salt
|
|
|
U144
|
301-04-2
|
Lead acetate
|
|
|
U145
|
7446-27-7
|
Lead phosphate
|
|
|
U145
|
7446-27-7
|
Phosphoric acid, lead (2+) salt
(2:3)
|
|
|
U146
|
1335-32-6
|
Lead,
bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-
|
|
|
U146
|
1335-32-6
|
Lead subacetate
|
|
|
U147
|
108-31-6
|
2,5-Furandione
|
|
|
U147
|
108-31-6
|
Maleic anhydride
|
|
|
U148
|
123-33-1
|
Maleic hydrazide
|
|
|
U148
|
123-33-1
|
3,6-Pyridazinedione,
1,2-dihydro-
|
|
|
U149
|
109-77-3
|
Malononitrile
|
|
|
U149
|
109-77-3
|
Propanedinitrile
|
|
|
U150
|
148-82-3
|
Melphalan
|
|
|
U150
|
148-82-3
|
L-Phenylalanine,
4-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U151
|
7439-97-6
|
Mercury
|
|
|
U152
|
126-98-7
|
Methacrylonitrile
|
(I, T)
|
|
U152
|
126-98-7
|
2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U153
|
74-93-1
|
Methanethiol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U153
|
74-93-1
|
Thiomethanol
|
(I, T)
|
|
U154
|
67-56-1
|
Methanol
|
(I)
|
|
U154
|
67-56-1
|
Methyl alcohol
|
(I)
|
|
U155
|
91-80-5
|
1,2-Ethanediamine,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)-
|
|
|
U155
|
91-80-5
|
Methapyrilene
|
|
|
U156
|
79-22-1
|
Carbonochloridic acid, methyl
ester
|
(I, T)
|
|
U156
|
79-22-1
|
Methyl chlorocarbonate
|
(I, T)
|
|
U157
|
56-49-5
|
Benz(j)aceanthrylene,
1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-
|
|
|
U157
|
56-49-5
|
3-Methylcholanthrene
|
|
|
U158
|
101-14-4
|
Benzenamine,
4,4'-methylenebis(2-chloro-
|
|
|
U158
|
101-14-4
|
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline)
|
|
|
U159
|
78-93-3
|
2-Butanone
|
(I, T)
|
|
U159
|
78-93-3
|
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK)
|
(I, T)
|
|
U160
|
1338-23-4
|
2-Butanone, peroxide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U160
|
1338-23-4
|
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
Methyl isobutyl ketone
|
(I)
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
4-Methyl-2-pentanone
|
(I)
|
|
U161
|
108-10-1
|
Pentanol, 4-methyl-
|
(I)
|
|
U162
|
80-62-6
|
Methyl methacrylate
|
(I, T)
|
|
U162
|
80-62-6
|
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
methyl ester
|
(I, T)
|
|
U163
|
70-25-7
|
Guanidine,
N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U163
|
70-25-7
|
MNNG
|
|
|
U164
|
56-04-2
|
Methylthiouracil
|
|
|
U164
|
56-04-2
|
4(1H)-Pyrimidinone,
2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-
|
|
|
U165
|
91-20-3
|
Naphthalene
|
|
|
U166
|
130-15-4
|
1,4-Naphthalenedione
|
|
|
U166
|
130-15-4
|
1,4-Naphthoquinone
|
|
|
U167
|
134-32-7
|
1-Naphthalenamine
|
|
|
U167
|
134-32-7
|
a-Naphthylamine
|
|
|
U168
|
91-59-8
|
2-Naphthalenamine
|
|
|
U168
|
91-59-8
|
b-Naphthylamine
|
|
|
U169
|
98-95-3
|
Benzene, nitro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U169
|
98-95-3
|
Nitrobenzene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U170
|
100-02-7
|
p-Nitrophenol
|
|
|
U170
|
100-02-7
|
Phenol, 4-nitro-
|
|
|
U171
|
79-46-9
|
2-Nitropropane
|
(I, T)
|
|
U171
|
79-46-9
|
Propane, 2-nitro-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U172
|
924-16-3
|
1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U172
|
924-16-3
|
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine
|
|
|
U173
|
1116-54-7
|
Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis-
|
|
|
U173
|
1116-54-7
|
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine
|
|
|
U174
|
55-18-5
|
Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U174
|
55-18-5
|
N-Nitrosodiethylamine
|
|
|
U176
|
759-73-9
|
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea
|
|
|
U176
|
759-73-9
|
Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U177
|
684-93-5
|
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea
|
|
|
U177
|
684-93-5
|
Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
|
|
|
U178
|
615-53-2
|
Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-,
ethyl ester
|
|
|
U178
|
615-53-2
|
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane
|
|
|
U179
|
100-75-4
|
N-Nitrosopiperidine
|
|
|
U179
|
100-75-4
|
Piperidine, 1-nitroso-
|
|
|
U180
|
930-55-2
|
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine
|
|
|
U180
|
930-55-2
|
Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-
|
|
|
U181
|
99-55-8
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-
|
|
|
U181
|
99-55-8
|
5-Nitro-o-toluidine
|
|
|
U182
|
123-63-7
|
Paraldehyde
|
|
|
U182
|
123-63-7
|
1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-
|
|
|
U183
|
608-93-5
|
Benzene, pentachloro-
|
|
|
U183
|
608-93-5
|
Pentachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U184
|
76-01-7
|
Ethane, pentachloro-
|
|
|
U184
|
76-01-7
|
Pentachloroethane
|
|
|
U185
|
82-68-8
|
Benzene, pentachloronitro-
|
|
|
U185
|
82-68-8
|
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB)
|
|
|
U186
|
504-60-9
|
1-Methylbutadiene
|
(I)
|
|
U186
|
504-60-9
|
1,3-Pentadiene
|
(I)
|
|
U187
|
62-44-2
|
Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-
|
|
|
U187
|
62-44-2
|
Phenacetin
|
|
|
U188
|
108-95-2
|
Phenol
|
|
|
U189
|
1314-80-3
|
Phosphorus sulfide
|
(R)
|
|
U189
|
1314-80-3
|
Sulfur phosphide
|
(R)
|
|
U190
|
85-44-9
|
1,3-Isobenzofurandione
|
|
|
U190
|
85-44-9
|
Phthalic anhydride
|
|
|
U191
|
109-06-8
|
2-Picoline
|
|
|
U191
|
109-06-8
|
Pyridine, 2-methyl-
|
|
|
U192
|
23950-58-5
|
Benzamide,
3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)-
|
|
|
U192
|
23950-58-5
|
Pronamide
|
|
|
U193
|
1120-71-4
|
1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide
|
|
|
U193
|
1120-71-4
|
1,3-Propane sultone
|
|
|
U194
|
107-10-8
|
1-Propanamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U194
|
107-10-8
|
n-Propylamine
|
(I, T)
|
|
U196
|
110-86-1
|
Pyridine
|
|
|
U197
|
106-51-4
|
p-Benzoquinone
|
|
|
U197
|
106-51-4
|
2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione
|
|
|
U200
|
50-55-5
|
Reserpine
|
|
|
U200
|
50-55-5
|
Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-((3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy)-,
methyl ester, (3b,16b,17a,18b,20a)-
|
|
|
U201
|
108-46-3
|
1,3-Benzenediol
|
|
|
U201
|
108-46-3
|
Resorcinol
|
|
|
U203
|
94-59-7
|
1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(2-propenyl)-
|
|
|
U203
|
94-59-7
|
Safrole
|
|
|
U204
|
7783-00-8
|
Selenious acid
|
|
|
U204
|
7783-00-8
|
Selenium dioxide
|
|
|
U205
|
7488-56-4
|
Selenium sulfide
|
(R, T)
|
|
U205
|
7488-56-4
|
Selenium sulfide SeS2
|
(R, T)
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
Glucopyranose,
2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D-
|
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-(((methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U206
|
18883-66-4
|
Streptozotocin
|
|
|
U207
|
95-94-3
|
Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U207
|
95-94-3
|
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
|
|
|
U208
|
630-20-6
|
Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U208
|
630-20-6
|
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
|
|
|
U209
|
79-34-5
|
Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U209
|
79-34-5
|
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
|
|
|
U210
|
127-18-4
|
Ethene, tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U210
|
127-18-4
|
Tetrachloroethylene
|
|
|
U211
|
56-23-5
|
Carbon tetrachloride
|
|
|
U211
|
56-23-5
|
Methane, tetrachloro-
|
|
|
U213
|
109-99-9
|
Furan, tetrahydro-
|
(I)
|
|
U213
|
109-99-9
|
Tetrahydrofuran
|
(I)
|
|
U214
|
563-68-8
|
Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt
|
|
|
U214
|
563-68-8
|
Thallium (I) acetate
|
|
|
U215
|
6533-73-9
|
Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
|
|
|
U215
|
6533-73-9
|
Thallium (I) carbonate
|
|
|
U216
|
7791-12-0
|
Thallium (I) chloride
|
|
|
U216
|
7791-12-0
|
Thallium chloride TlCl
|
|
|
U217
|
10102-45-1
|
Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt
|
|
|
U217
|
10102-45-1
|
Thallium (I) nitrate
|
|
|
U218
|
62-55-5
|
Ethanethioamide
|
|
|
U218
|
62-55-5
|
Thioacetamide
|
|
|
U219
|
62-56-6
|
Thiourea
|
|
|
U220
|
108-88-3
|
Benzene, methyl-
|
|
|
U220
|
108-88-3
|
Toluene
|
|
|
U221
|
25376-45-8
|
Benzenediamine, ar-methyl-
|
|
|
U221
|
25376-45-8
|
Toluenediamine
|
|
|
U222
|
636-21-5
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
|
|
|
U222
|
636-21-5
|
o-Toluidine hydrochloride
|
|
|
U223
|
26471-62-5
|
Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-
|
(R, T)
|
|
U223
|
26471-62-5
|
Toluene diisocyanate
|
(R, T)
|
|
U225
|
75-25-2
|
Bromoform
|
|
|
U225
|
75-25-2
|
Methane, tribromo-
|
|
|
U226
|
71-55-6
|
Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-
|
|
|
U226
|
71-55-6
|
Methylchloroform
|
|
|
U227
|
79-00-5
|
Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
|
|
|
U227
|
79-00-5
|
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
|
|
|
U228
|
79-01-6
|
Ethene, trichloro-
|
|
|
U228
|
79-01-6
|
Trichloroethylene
|
|
|
U234
|
99-35-4
|
Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-
|
(R, T)
|
|
U234
|
99-35-4
|
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene
|
(R, T)
|
|
U235
|
126-72-7
|
1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-,
phosphate (3:1)
|
|
|
U235
|
126-72-7
|
Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl)
phosphate
|
|
|
U236
|
72-57-1
|
2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'-((3,3'-dimethyl-(1,1'-biphenyl)-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy)-,
tetrasodium salt
|
|
|
U236
|
72-57-1
|
Trypan blue
|
|
|
U237
|
66-75-1
|
2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione,
5-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
|
|
|
U237
|
66-75-1
|
Uracil mustard
|
|
|
U238
|
51-79-6
|
Carbamic acid, ethyl ester
|
|
|
U238
|
51-79-6
|
Ethyl carbamate (urethane)
|
|
|
U239
|
1330-20-7
|
Benzene, dimethyl-
|
(I, T)
|
|
U239
|
1330-20-7
|
Xylene
|
(I, T)
|
|
U240
|
P 94-75-7
|
Acetic acid,
(2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts and esters
|
|
|
U240
|
P 94-75-7
|
2,4-D, salts and esters
|
|
|
U243
|
1888-71-7
|
Hexachloropropene
|
|
|
U243
|
1888-71-7
|
1-Propene,
1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-
|
|
|
U244
|
137-26-8
|
Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide ((H2N)C(S))2S2,
tetramethyl-
|
|
|
U244
|
137-26-8
|
Thiram
|
|
|
U246
|
506-68-3
|
Cyanogen bromide CNBr
|
|
|
U247
|
72-43-5
|
Benzene,
1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-methoxy-
|
|
|
U247
|
72-43-5
|
Methoxychlor
|
|
|
U248
|
81-81-2
|
2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one,
4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations
of 0.3 percent or less
|
|
|
U248
|
81-81-2
|
Warfarin, and salts, when
present at concentrations of 0.3 percent
or less
|
|
|
U249
|
1314-84-7
|
Zinc phosphide Zn3P2,
when present at concentrations of 10
percent or less
|
|
|
U271
|
17804-35-2
|
Benomyl
|
|
|
U271
|
17804-35-2
|
Carbamic acid, (1-((butylamino)carbonyl)-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl)-,
methyl ester
|
|
|
U278
|
22781-23-3
|
Bendiocarb
|
|
|
U278
|
22781-23-3
|
1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol,
2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate
|
|
|
U279
|
63-25-2
|
Carbaryl
|
|
|
U279
|
63-25-2
|
1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate
|
|
|
U280
|
101-27-9
|
Barban
|
|
|
U280
|
101-27-9
|
Carbamic acid,
(3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester
|
|
|
U328
|
95-53-4
|
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
|
|
|
U328
|
95-53-4
|
o-Toluidine
|
|
|
U353
|
106-49-0
|
Benzenamine, 4-methyl-
|
|
|
U353
|
106-49-0
|
p-Toluidine
|
|
|
U359
|
110-80-5
|
Ethanol, 2-ethoxy-
|
|
|
U359
|
110-80-5
|
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether
|
|
|
U364
|
22961-82-6
|
Bendiocarb phenol
|
|
|
U364
|
22961-82-6
|
1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol,
2,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U367
|
1563-38-8
|
7-Benzofuranol,
2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-
|
|
|
U367
|
1563-38-8
|
Carbofuran phenol
|
|
|
U372
|
10605-21-7
|
Carbamic acid,
1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester
|
|
|
U372
|
10605-21-7
|
Carbendazim
|
|
|
U373
|
122-42-9
|
Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl
ester
|
|
|
U373
|
122-42-9
|
Propham
|
|
|
U387
|
52888-80-9
|
Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl)
ester
|
|
|
U387
|
52888-80-9
|
Prosulfocarb
|
|
|
U389
|
2303-17-5
|
Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester
|
|
|
U389
|
2303-17-5
|
Triallate
|
|
|
U394
|
30558-43-1
|
A2213
|
|
|
U394
|
30558-43-1
|
Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-,
methyl ester
|
|
|
U395
|
5952-26-1
|
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate
|
|
|
U395
|
5952-26-1
|
Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-,
dicarbamate
|
|
|
U404
|
121-44-8
|
Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-
|
|
|
U404
|
121-44-8
|
Triethylamine
|
|
|
U409
|
23564-05-8
|
Carbamic acid,
(1,2-phenylenebis(iminocarbonothioyl))bis-, dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U409
|
23564-05-8
|
Thiophanate-methyl
|
|
|
U410
|
59669-26-0
|
Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-
(thiobis((methylimino)carbonyloxy))bis-, dimethyl ester
|
|
|
U410
|
59669-26-0
|
Thiodicarb
|
|
|
U411
|
114-26-1
|
Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-,
methylcarbamate
|
|
|
U411
|
114-26-1
|
Propoxur
|
|
(Source: Amended at 44 Ill.
Reg. 15142, effective September 3, 2020)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.135 WOOD PRESERVING WASTES
Section 721.135 Wood
Preserving Wastes
a) Wastes from wood preserving processes at plants that do not
resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic preservatives will not meet the
listing definition of F032 once the generator has met all of the requirements
of subsections (b) and (c). These wastes may, however, continue to meet
another hazardous waste listing description or may exhibit one or more of the
hazardous waste characteristics.
b) Generators must either clean or replace all process equipment
that may have come into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or
constituents thereof, including, but not limited to, treatment cylinders,
sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads, fork lifts and trams, in a manner that
minimizes or eliminates the escape of hazardous waste or constituents,
leachate, contaminated drippage or hazardous waste decomposition products to
the groundwater, surface water, or atmosphere.
1) Generators must do one of the following:
A) Prepare and follow an equipment cleaning plan and clean
equipment in accordance with subsection (b)(2); or
B) Prepare and follow an equipment replacement plan and replace
equipment in accordance with subsection (b)(3); or
C) Document cleaning and replacement in accordance with subsections
(b)(2) and (b)(3), carried out after termination of use of chlorophenolic
preservatives.
2) Cleaning requirements.
A) The generator must prepare and sign a written equipment
cleaning plan that describes the following:
i) The equipment to be cleaned;
ii) How the equipment will be cleaned;
iii) The solvent to be used in cleaning;
iv) How solvent rinses will be tested; and
v) How cleaning residues will be disposed of.
B) Equipment must be cleaned as follows:
i) Remove all visible residues from process equipment; and
ii) Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until
dioxins and dibenzofurans are not detected in the final solvent rinse.
C) Analytical requirements.
i) Rinses must be tested by using an appropriate method.
ii) "Not detected" means at or below the following lower
method calibration limit (MCL): the 2,3,7,8-TCDD-based MCL is 0.01 parts per
trillion (ppt), using a sample weight of 1000 g, an IS spiking level of 1 ppt,
and a final extraction volume of 10 to 50 µℓ. For other congeners,
multiply the values by 1 for TCDF, PeCDD, or PeCDF; by 2.5 for HxCDD, HxCDF,
HpCDD, or HpCDF; or by 5 for OCDD or OCDF.
D) The generator must manage all residues from the cleaning
process as F032 waste.
3) Replacement requirements.
A) The generator must prepare and sign a written equipment
replacement plan that describes the following:
i) The equipment to be replaced;
ii) How the equipment will be replaced; and
iii) How the equipment will be disposed of.
B) The generator must manage the discarded equipment as F032
waste.
4) Documentation requirements. The generator must document that
previous equipment cleaning and replacement was performed in accordance with subsections
(b)(2) and (b)(3) and that the equipment cleaning and replacement occurred
after cessation of use of chlorophenolic preservatives.
c) The generator must maintain the following records documenting
the cleaning and replacement as part of the facility's operating record:
1) The name and address of the facility;
2) Formulations previously used and the date on which their use
ceased in each process at the plant;
3) Formulations currently used in each process at the plant;
4) The equipment cleaning or replacement plan;
5) The name and address of any persons who conducted the cleaning
and replacement;
6) The dates on which cleaning and replacement were accomplished;
7) The dates of sampling and testing;
8) A description of the sample handling and preparation
techniques used for extraction, containerization, preservation and
chain-of-custody of the samples;
9) A description of the tests performed, the date the tests were
performed and the results of the tests;
10) The name and model numbers of the instruments used in
performing the tests;
11) QA/QC documentation; and
12) The following statement signed by the generator or the
generator's authorized representative:
I certify
under penalty of law that all process equipment required to be cleaned or
replaced under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.135 was cleaned or replaced as represented
in the equipment cleaning and replacement plan and accompanying documentation.
I am aware that there are significant penalties for providing false
information, including the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
(Source: Amended at 40 Ill.
Reg. 11367, effective August 9, 2016)
SUBPART E: EXCLUSIONS AND EXEMPTIONS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.138 EXCLUSION OF COMPARABLE FUEL AND SYNGAS FUEL (REPEALED)
Section 721.138 Exclusion
of Comparable Fuel and Syngas Fuel (Repealed)
(Source: Repealed at 40 Ill.
Reg. 11367, effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.139 CONDITIONAL EXCLUSION FOR USED, BROKEN CRTS AND PROCESSED CRT GLASS UNDERGOING RECYCLING
Section 721.139 Conditional Exclusion for Used, Broken
CRTs and Processed CRT Glass Undergoing Recycling
Used, broken CRTs are not solid waste if they meet the
following conditions:
a) Prior
to CRT Processing. These materials are not solid wastes if they are destined
for recycling and they meet the following requirements:
1) Storage.
The broken CRTs must be managed in either of the following ways:
A) They
are stored in a building with a roof, floor, and walls, or
B) They
are placed in a container (i.e., a package or a vehicle) that is constructed,
filled, and closed to minimize releases to the environment of CRT glass
(including fine solid materials).
2) Labeling.
Each container in which the used, broken CRT is contained must be labeled or
marked clearly with one of the following phrases: "Used cathode ray tubes
− contains leaded glass" or "Leaded glass from televisions or
computers". It must also be labeled with the following statement:
"Do not mix with other glass materials."
3) Transportation.
The used, broken CRTs must be transported in a container meeting the
requirements of subsections (a)(1)(B) and (a)(2).
4) Speculative
Accumulation and Use Constituting Disposal. The used, broken CRTs are subject
to the limitations on speculative accumulation, as defined in subsection
(c)(8). If they are used in a manner constituting disposal, they must comply
with the applicable requirements of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726, instead
of the requirements of this Section.
5) Exports.
In addition to the applicable conditions specified in subsections (a)(1)
through (a)(4), an exporter of used, broken CRTs must comply with the following
requirements:
A) It
must notify the Agency and USEPA of an intended export before the CRTs are
scheduled to leave the United States. A complete notification should be
submitted sixty (60) days before the initial shipment is intended to be shipped
off-site. This notification may cover export activities extending over a
12-month or shorter period. The notification must be in writing, signed by the
exporter, and include the following information:
i) The
name, mailing address, telephone number and USEPA identification number (if
applicable) of the exporter of the CRTs.
ii) The
estimated frequency or rate at which the CRTs are to be exported and the period
of time over which they are to be exported.
iii) The
estimated total quantity of CRTs specified in kilograms.
iv) All
points of entry to and departure from each foreign country through which the CRTs
will pass.
v) A
description of the means by which each shipment of the CRTs will be transported
(e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air, highway, rail, water, etc.), types
of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.)).
vi) The
name and address of the recycler or recyclers and the estimated quantity of
used CRTs to be sent to each facility, as well as the name of any alternate
recycler.
vii) A
description of the manner in which the CRTs will be recycled in the foreign
country that will be receiving the CRTs.
viii) The
name of any transit country through which the CRTs will be sent and a
description of the approximate length of time the CRTs will remain in such
country and the nature of their handling while there.
B) Notifications
must be submitted electronically using USEPA's Waste Import Export Tracking
System (WIETS).
C) Upon
request by the Agency or USEPA, the exporter must furnish to the Agency and
USEPA any additional information which a receiving country requests in order to
respond to a notification.
D) USEPA
has stated that it will provide a complete notification to the receiving
country and any transit countries. A notification is complete when the Agency
and USEPA receives a notification that USEPA determines satisfies the
requirements of subsection (a)(5)(A).
E) The
export of CRTs is prohibited, unless all of the following occur:
i) The
receiving country consents to the intended export. When the receiving country
consents in writing to the receipt of the CRTs, USEPA has stated that it will
forward a USEPA an Acknowledgment of Consent (AOC) to Export CRTs to the
exporter. Where the receiving country objects to receipt of the CRTs or
withdraws a prior consent, USEPA has stated that it will notify the exporter in
writing. USEPA has stated that it will also notify the exporter of any
responses from transit countries.
ii) The
exporter or a U.S. authorized agent must fulfill the requirements of subsection
(a)(6).
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved the
text of corresponding 40 CFR 261.39(a)(5)(v)(B)(1) through (a)(5)(v)(B)(2)(vii)
to appear as subsections (a)(6)(A) through (a)(6)(B)(vii) to comport with
codification requirements.
F) When
the conditions specified on the original notification change, the exporter must
provide the Agency and USEPA with a written renotification of the change using
the allowable methods listed in subsection (a)(5)(ii) of this section, except
for changes to the telephone number in subsection (a)(5)(A)(i) and decreases in
the quantity indicated pursuant to subsection (a)(5)(A)(iii). The shipment
cannot take place until consent of the receiving country to the changes has been
obtained (except for changes to information about points of entry and departure
and transit countries pursuant to subsections (a)(5)(A)(iv) and
(a)(5)(A)(viii)) and the exporter of CRTs receives from USEPA a copy of the AOC
to Export CRTs reflecting the receiving country's consent to the changes.
G) A copy
of the AOC to Export CRTs must accompany the shipment of CRTs. The shipment
must conform to the terms of the Acknowledgment.
H) If a
shipment of CRTs cannot be delivered for any reason to the recycler or the
alternate recycler, the exporter of CRTs must renotify the Agency and USEPA of
a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a
new recycler in accordance with subsection (a)(5)(F) and obtain another AOC to
Export CRTs.
I) An
exporter must keep copies of notifications and AOCs to Export CRTs for a period
of three years following receipt of the AOC. An exporter may satisfy this
recordkeeping requirement by retaining electronically submitted notifications
or electronically generated Acknowledgements in the CRT exporter’s account on
USEPA's WIETS, or its successor system, provided that such copies are readily
available for viewing and production if requested by any USEPA or authorized
state inspector. No CRT exporter may be held liable for the inability to
produce a notification or Acknowledgement for inspection under this section if
the CRT exporter can demonstrate that the inability to produce such copies are
due exclusively to technical difficulty with USEPA's WIETS, or its successor
system for which the CRT exporter bears no responsibility.
J) A CRT
exporter must file with USEPA, no later than March 1 of each year, an annual
report summarizing the quantities (in kilograms), frequency of shipment, and
ultimate destinations (i.e., the facility or facilities where the recycling
occurs) of all used CRTs exported during the previous calendar year. This
annual report must also include the following:
i) The
name, USEPA identification number (if applicable), and mailing and site address
of the exporter;
ii) The
calendar year covered by the report;
iii) A
certification signed by the CRT exporter that states as follows:
"I certify under penalty of
law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted
in this and all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this information, I believe
that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware
that there are significant penalties for submitting false information,
including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
K) Annual
reports must be submitted to the office listed using the allowable methods
specified in subsection (a)(5)(B). Exporters must keep copies of each annual
report for a period of at least three years after the due date of the report.
An exporter may satisfy this recordkeeping requirement by retaining
electronically submitted annual reports in the CRT exporter's account on
USEPA's WIETS, or its successor system, provided that a copy is readily
available for viewing and production if requested by any USEPA or authorized
Agency inspector. No CRT exporter may be held liable for the inability to
produce an annual report for inspection under this Section if the CRT exporter
can demonstrate that the inability to produce the annual report is due
exclusively to technical difficulty with USEPA's WIETS, or its successor system
for which the CRT exporter bears no responsibility.
BOARD NOTE: The hazardous waste
import and export rules define "USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent" in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181.
6) AES
Reporting Requirements.
A) Submit
Electronic Export Information (EEI) for each shipment to the Automated Export
System (AES) or its successor system, under the International Trade Data System
(ITDS) platform, in accordance with 15 CFR 30.4(b), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
B) Include
the following items in the EEI, along with the other information required under
15 CFR 30.6, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111:
i) The
USEPA license code;
ii) The
commodity classification code (per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(12));
iii) The
USEPA consent number;
iv) The
country of ultimate destination (per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(5));;
v) The
date of export (per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(2));;
vi) The
quantity of waste in shipment and units for reported quantity, if required
reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification
number are in units of weight or volume (per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(15));; or
vii) The
USEPA net quantity reported in units of kilograms, if required reporting units
established by value for the reported commodity classification number are not
in units of weight or volume.
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved the
text of corresponding 40 CFR 261.39(a)(5)(v)(B)(1) through (a)(5)(v)(B)(2)(vii)
to appear as subsections (a)(6)(A) through (a)(6)(B)(vii) to comport with
codification requirements.
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR
261.39(a)(5) requires communications relating to export of CRTs between the
exporter and USEPA. It is clear that USEPA intends to maintain its central
role between the exporter and the export-receiving country and it granting
authorization to export. Nevertheless, the Board has required the exporter
submit to the Agency also whatever notifications it must submit to USEPA
relating to the export. The intent is to facilitate the Agency's efforts
towards assurance of compliance with the regulations as a whole, and not to
require a separate authorization for export by the Agency.
b) Requirements
for used CRT processing. Used, broken CRTs undergoing CRT processing, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not solid waste if they meet the
following requirements:
1) Storage.
Used, broken CRTs undergoing CRT processing are subject to the requirement of
subsection (a)(4).
2) CRT Processing
A) All
activities specified in the second and third paragraphs of the definition of
"CRT processing" in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110 must be performed
within a building with a roof, floor, and walls; and
BOARD NOTE: The activities
specified in the second and third paragraphs of the definition of "CRT
processing" are "intentionally breaking intact CRTs or further
breaking or separating broken CRTs" and "sorting or otherwise
managing glass removed from CRT monitors".
B) No
activities may be performed that use temperatures high enough to volatilize
lead from CRTs.
c) Glass
from CRT processing that is sent to CRT glass making or lead smelting. Glass
from CRT processing that is destined for recycling at a CRT glass manufacturer
or a lead smelter after CRT processing is not a solid waste unless it is
speculatively accumulated, as defined in Section 721.101(c)(8).
d) Use constituting
disposal. Glass from CRT processing that is used in a manner constituting
disposal must comply with the requirements of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726 instead of the requirements of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill.
Reg. 21673, effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.140 CONDITIONAL EXCLUSION FOR USED, INTACT CRTS EXPORTED FOR RECYCLING
Section 721.140 Conditional Exclusion for Used, Intact
CRTs Exported for Recycling
Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not solid waste
if they meet the notice and consent conditions of Section 721.139(a)(5) and
they are not speculatively accumulated, as defined in Section 721.101(c)(8).
(Source: Added at 32 Ill.
Reg. 11786, effective July 14, 2008)
ADMINISTRATIVE CODE TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS PART 721 IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE SECTION 721.141 NOTIFICATION AND RECORDKEEPING FOR USED, INTACT CRTS EXPORTED FOR REUSE
Section 721.141 Notification and Recordkeeping for Used,
Intact CRTs Exported for Reuse
a) A CRT
exporter that exports used, intact CRTs for reuse must send a notification to
the Agency and USEPA. This notification may cover export activities extending
over a 12-month or lesser period.
1) The
notification must be in writing, signed by the exporter, and include the
following information:
A) Name,
mailing address, telephone number, and USEPA identification number (if
applicable) of the exporter of the used, intact CRTs;
B) The
estimated frequency or rate at which the used, intact CRTs are to be exported
for reuse and the period of time over which they are to be exported;
C) The
estimated total quantity of used, intact CRTs specified in kilograms;
D) All
points of entry to and departure from each transit country through which the
used, intact CRTs will pass, a description of the approximate length of time
the used, intact CRTs will remain in that country, and the nature of their
handling while there;
E) A
description of the means by which each shipment of the used, intact CRTs will
be transported (e.g., mode of transportation vehicle (air, highway, rail,
water, etc.), types of container (drums, boxes, tanks, etc.));
F) The
name and address of the ultimate destination facility or facilities where the
used, intact CRTs will be reused, refurbished, distributed, or sold for reuse
and the estimated quantity of used, intact CRTs to be sent to each facility, as
well as the name of any alternate destination facility or facilities;
G) A
description of the manner in which the used, intact CRTs will be reused
(including reuse after refurbishment) in the foreign country that will be
receiving the used, intact CRTs; and
H) A certification signed
by the CRT exporter that states as follows:
"I certify under penalty of
law that the CRTs described in this notice are intact and fully functioning or
capable of being functional after refurbishment and that the used CRTs will be
reused or refurbished and reused. I certify under penalty of law that I have
personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and
all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals
immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the
submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there
are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment."
2) Notifications
submitted by mail should be sent to the following mailing address:
Office of Enforcement and
Compliance Assurance
Office of Federal Activities
International Compliance Assurance
Division (Mail Code 2254A)
Environmental Protection Agency
1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW
Washington, DC 20460
Hand-delivered notifications
should be sent to the following address:
Office of Enforcement and
Compliance Assurance
Office of Federal Activities
International Compliance Assurance
Division (Mail Code 2254A)
Environmental Protection Agency
William Jefferson Clinton
Building, Room 6144
1200 Pennsylvania Ave., NW
Washington, DC 20004
In either case, the following must
be prominently displayed on the front of the envelope:
"Attention: Notification of
Intent to Export CRTs".
A notification submitted to the
Agency by mail or hand-delivered must be sent to the following mailing address:
Illinois Environmental Protection
Agency
Bureau of Land Pollution Control
2520 West Iles Avenue
PO Box 19276
Springfield, Illinois 62794-9276
b) A CRT
exporter that exports used, intact CRTs for reuse must keep copies of normal
business records, such as contracts, demonstrating that each shipment of
exported used, intact CRTs will be reused. This documentation must be retained
for a period of at least three years from the date the CRTs were exported. If
the documents are written in a language other than English, a CRT exporter of
used, intact CRTs sent for reuse must provide both the original, non-English
version of the normal business records, as well as a third-party translation of
the normal business records into English, within 30 days after a request by USEPA.
(Source: Amended at 49 Ill.
Reg. 12715, effective September 23, 2025)
| SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR MANAGEMENT OF EXCLUDED HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIALS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.240 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.240 Applicability
a) The
requirements of this Subpart H apply to owners or operators of reclamation and
intermediate facilities managing hazardous secondary materials excluded under Section
721.104(a)(24), except as provided otherwise in this Section.
b) States
and the federal government are exempt from the financial assurance requirements
of this Subpart H.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.241 DEFINITIONS OF TERMS AS USED IN THIS SUBPART
Section 721.241 Definitions of Terms as Used in This
Subpart
The terms defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.241(d), (f), (g),
and (h) have the same meaning in this Subpart H as they do in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.241.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.242 COST ESTIMATE
Section 721.242 Cost Estimate
a) The
owner or operator of a reclamation or intermediate facility must have a
detailed written estimate, in current dollars, of the cost of disposing of any
hazardous secondary material as listed or characteristic hazardous waste, and
the potential cost of closing the facility as a treatment, storage, and
disposal facility.
1) The
estimate must equal the cost of conducting the activities described in this
subsection (a) at the point when the extent and manner of the facility's
operation would make these activities the most expensive.
2) The
cost estimate must be based on the costs to the owner or operator of hiring a
third party to conduct these activities. A third party is a party that is
neither a parent nor a subsidiary of the owner or operator. (See definition of
"parent corporation" in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.241(d).) The owner or
operator may use costs for on-site disposal in compliance with applicable
requirements if the owner or operator can demonstrate that on-site disposal
capacity will always exist over the life of the facility.
3) The
cost estimate may not incorporate any salvage value that may be realized with
the sale of hazardous secondary materials, or hazardous or non-hazardous wastes
(if permitted by the Agency under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.213(d)), facility
structures or equipment, land, or other assets associated with the facility.
4) The
owner or operator may not incorporate a zero cost for hazardous secondary
materials, or hazardous or non-hazardous wastes (if permitted by the Agency under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.213(d)) that might have economic value.
b) During
the active life of the facility, the owner or operator must adjust the written
cost estimate for inflation within 60 days prior to the anniversary date of the
establishment of the financial instruments used to comply with Section
721.243. An owner or operator that uses the financial test or corporate
guarantee must update its cost estimate for inflation within 30 days after the
close of the firm's fiscal year and before submitting updated information to
the Agency and USEPA under Section 721.243(e)(3). The adjustment may be made
by recalculating the cost estimate in current dollars, or by using an inflation
factor derived from the most recent Implicit Price Deflator for Gross National
Product (Deflator) published by the U.S. Department of Commerce, as specified
in subsections (b)(1) and (b)(2). The inflation factor is the result of
dividing the latest published annual Deflator by the Deflator for the previous
year.
1) The
first adjustment is made by multiplying the cost estimate by the inflation
factor. The result is the adjusted cost estimate.
2) Subsequent
adjustments are made by multiplying the latest adjusted cost estimate by the
latest inflation factor.
BOARD NOTE: The table of
Deflators is available as Table 1.1.9. in the National Income and Product
Account Tables, published by U.S. Department of Commerce, Bureau of Economic
Analysis, National Economic Accounts, available on-line at the following web
address:
https://apps.bea.gov/itable/?reqid=19&step=2&isuri=1&categories=survey
Select: Section 1-Domestic
Product and Income
c) During
the active life of the facility, the owner or operator must revise the cost estimate
within 30 days after a change in a facility's operating plan or design that
would increase the costs of conducting the activities described in subsection
(a) or within 60 days after an unexpected event that increases the cost of
conducting the activities described in subsection (a). The revised cost
estimate must be adjusted for inflation, as specified in subsection (b).
d) The
owner or operator must keep the following documents at the facility during the
operating life of the facility: The latest cost estimate prepared under
subsections (a) and (c) and, when this estimate has been adjusted under
subsection (b), the latest adjusted cost estimate.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.243 FINANCIAL ASSURANCE CONDITION
Section 721.243 Financial Assurance Condition
As required by Section 721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi), an owner or
operator of a reclamation facility or an intermediate facility must have
financial assurance as a condition of the exclusion. The owner or operator
must choose from the options specified in subsections (a) through (e).
a) Trust Fund
1) An
owner or operator may meet the requirements of this Section by establishing a
trust fund that complies with this subsection (a) and submitting an originally
signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Agency. The trustee must be an
entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations
are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
2) The
wording of the trust agreement must be identical to the wording specified by
the Agency under Section 721.251, and the trust agreement must be accompanied
by a formal certification of acknowledgment, as specified by the Agency under
Section 721.251. Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within 60
days after any change in the amount of the current cost estimate covered by the
agreement.
3) The
trust fund must be funded for the full amount of the current cost estimate
before it may be relied upon to comply with this Section.
4) Whenever
the current cost estimate changes, the owner or operator must compare the new
cost estimate with the trustee's most recent annual valuation of the trust
fund. Within 60 days after the change in the cost estimate, if the value of
the fund is less than the amount of the new cost estimate, the owner or
operator must either deposit an amount into the fund so that its value after
this deposit at least equals the amount of the current cost estimate, or the
owner or operator must obtain other financial assurance that complies with this
Section to cover the difference.
5) If
the value of the trust fund is greater than the total amount of the current
cost estimate, the owner or operator may submit a written request to the Agency
for release of the amount more than the current cost estimate.
6) If an
owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance that complies with this
Section for all or part of the trust fund, it may submit a written request to
the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the current cost estimate
covered by the trust fund.
7) Within
60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for a release of
funds, as specified in subsection (a)(5) or (a)(6), the Agency will instruct
the trustee to release to the owner or operator those funds that the Agency
specifies in writing. If the owner or operator begins final closure under
Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725, it may request reimbursements for
partial or final closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the
Agency. The owner or operator may request reimbursements for partial closure
only if sufficient funds are remaining in the trust fund to cover the maximum
costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. Within 60
days after receiving bills for partial or final closure activities, if the
Agency determines that the partial or final closure expenditures conforms to
the approved closure plan, or otherwise justified, the Agency will instruct the
trustee to make reimbursements in those amounts as the Agency specifies in
writing. If the Agency has reason to believe that the maximum cost of closure
over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater than the
value of the trust fund, the Agency may withhold reimbursements of those
amounts that the Agency deems prudent until the Agency determines, in under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.243(i), that the owner or operator is no longer required to
maintain financial assurance for final closure of the facility. If the Agency
does not instruct the trustee to make these reimbursements, the Agency must
provide to the owner or operator a detailed written statement of reasons.
8) The
Agency must agree to terminating the trust fund when either of the following
has occurred:
A) The
Agency determines that the owner or operator has substituted alternative
financial assurance that complies with this Section; or
B) The
Agency releases the owner or operator from obligation under this Section in compliance
with subsection (i).
b) Surety
Bond Guaranteeing Payment into a Trust Fund
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a surety bond that complies
with this subsection (b) and submitting the bond to the Agency. The surety
company issuing the bond must, at a minimum, be listed as acceptable sureties
on federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department
of the Treasury updates Circular 570, "Companies Holding Certificates of
Authority as Acceptable Sureties on Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring
Companies", on an annual basis under 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is
available on the Internet from the following website: https://www.fiscal.treasury.gov/surety-bonds/circular-570.html.
2) The
wording of the surety bond must be identical to the wording specified by the
Agency under Section 721.251.
3) The
owner or operator that uses a surety bond to comply with this Section must also
establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the bond, all payments made
under the bond will be deposited by the surety directly into the standby trust
fund according to the Agency's instructions. This standby trust fund must comply
with subsection (a), except that the following also apply:
A) The
owner or operator must submit an originally signed duplicate of the trust
agreement to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Until
the standby trust fund is funded under this Section, the following are not
required:
i) Payments
into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a);
ii) Updating
Schedule A of the trust agreement to show current cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as
required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment,
as required by the trust agreement.
4) The
bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will undertake one of the
following actions:
A) That
the owner or operator will fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to
the penal sum of the bond before loss of the exclusion under Section
721.104(a)(24);
B) That
the owner or operator will fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to
the penal sum within 15 days after an administrative order to begin closure
issued by the Agency becomes final, or within 15 days after an order to begin
closure is issued by the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction; or
C) Within
90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Agency of a notice cancelling
the bond from the surety, that the owner or operator will provide alternate
financial assurance that complies with this Section and obtain the Agency's
written approval of the assurance provided.
5) Under
the terms of the bond, the surety must become liable on the bond obligation
when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond.
6) The
penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the current cost
estimate, except as provided in subsection (f).
7) Whenever
the current cost estimate increases to an amount greater than the penal sum,
the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the
penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current cost
estimate and submit evidence of this increase to the Agency, or obtain other
financial assurance that complies with this Section to cover the increase.
Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to
the amount of the current cost estimate following written approval by the
Agency.
8) Under
the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending notice of
cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Agency.
Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date
of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the
Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
9) The
owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior written
consent based on the Agency's receipt of evidence of alternate financial
assurance that complies with this Section.
c) Letter of Credit
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining an irrevocable
standby letter of credit that complies with this subsection (c) and submitting
the letter to the Agency. The issuing institution must be an entity that has
the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter-of-credit operations
are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
2) The
wording of the letter of credit must be identical to the wording specified by
the Agency under Section 721.251.
3) An
owner or operator that uses a letter of credit to comply with this Section must
also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the letter of credit,
all amounts paid under a draft by the Agency will be deposited by the issuing
institution directly into the standby trust fund according to the Agency's
instructions. This standby trust fund must comply with subsection (a), except
that the following also apply:
A) The
owner or operator must submit an originally signed duplicate of the trust
agreement to the Agency with the letter of credit; and
B) Unless
the standby trust fund is funded under this Section, the following are not
required:
i) Payments
into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a);
ii) Updating
Schedule A of the trust agreement to show current cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as
required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment,
as required by the trust agreement.
4) The
letter of credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or operator
that refers to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and date,
and that provides the following information: The USEPA identification number
(if any issued), name, and address of the facility, and the amount of funds
assured for the facility by the letter of credit.
5) The
letter of credit must be irrevocable, and the letter must be issued for a
period of at least one year. The letter of credit must provide that the
expiration date will be automatically extended for a period of at least one
year unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing
institution notifies both the owner or operator and the Agency by certified
mail of a decision not to extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the
letter of credit, the 120 days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator
and the Agency have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
6) The
letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the current cost
estimate, except as provided in subsection (f).
7) Whenever
the current cost estimate increases to an amount greater than the amount of the
credit, within 60 days after the increase, the owner or operator must either
cause the amount of the credit to be increased, so that it at least equals the
current cost estimate, and submit evidence of this increase to the Agency, or
it must obtain other financial assurance that complies with this Section to
cover the increase. Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the amount
of the credit may be reduced to the amount of the current cost estimate
following written approval by the Agency.
8) Following
a determination by the Agency that the hazardous secondary materials do not
meet the conditions of the exclusion set forth in Section 721.104(a)(24), the
Agency may draw on the letter of credit.
9) If
the owner or operator does not establish alternative financial assurance that complies
with this Section and obtain written approval of the alternate assurance from
the Agency within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the
Agency of a notice from the issuing institution that it has decided not to
extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration date, the Agency may
draw on the letter of credit. The Agency may delay the drawing if the issuing
institution extends the term of the credit. During the last 30 days after any
extension, the Agency may draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator
has failed to provide alternative financial assurance that complies with this
Section and obtain written approval of this assurance from the Agency.
10) The
Agency must return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for
termination when either of the following occurs:
A) The
owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance that complies
with this Section; or
B) The
Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this Section under
subsection (i).
d) Insurance
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining insurance that complies
with this subsection (d) and submitting a certificate of that insurance to the
Agency. At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of
insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines
insurer, in one or more states.
2) The
wording of the certificate of insurance must be identical to the wording
specified by the Agency under Section 721.251.
3) The
insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at least equal to the current
cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (f). The term "face
amount" means the total amount the insurer is obligated to pay under the
policy. Actual payments by the insurer will not change the face amount,
although the insurer's future liability will be lowered by the amount of the
payments.
4) The
insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be available whenever needed to
pay the cost of removal of all hazardous secondary materials from the unit, to
pay the cost of decontaminating the unit, and to pay the costs of performing
activities required under Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725, as
applicable, for the facilities covered by the policy. The policy must also
guarantee that once funds are needed, the insurer will be responsible for
paying out funds, up to an amount equal to the face amount of the policy, upon
the direction of the Agency, to the party or parties as the Agency specifies.
5) After
beginning partial or final closure under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725, as
applicable, an owner or operator or any other authorized person may request
reimbursements for closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the
Agency. The owner or operator may request reimbursements only if the remaining
value of the policy is sufficient to cover the maximum costs of closing the
facility over its remaining operating life. If the Agency determines that the
expenditures are according to the approved plan or are otherwise justified, the
Agency must, within 60 days after receiving bills for closure activities,
instruct the insurer in writing to make reimbursements in the amounts that the
Agency specifies . If the Agency has reason to believe that the maximum cost
over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater than the
face amount of the policy, the Agency may withhold reimbursement of the amounts
that the Agency deems prudent until the Agency determines, under subsection
(h), that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial
assurance for the particular facility. If the Agency does not instruct the
insurer to make the reimbursements under this subsection (d)(5), the Agency
must provide to the owner or operator a detailed written statement of reasons.
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator
may appeal any Agency determination made under this subsection (d)(5), as
provided by Section 40 of the Act.
6) The
owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect until the
Agency consents to the owner or operator terminating the policy, as specified
in subsection (d)(10). Failure to pay the premium, without substituting
alternate financial assurance as specified in this Section, will constitute a
significant violation of these regulations warranting the remedy that is deemed
necessary under Sections 31, 39, and 40 of the Act. This violation will be
deemed to begin upon receipt by the Agency of a notice of future cancellation,
termination, or failure to renew the policy due to nonpayment of the premium,
rather than upon the date of policy expiration.
7) Each
policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to a
successor owner or operator. The assignment may be conditioned on consent of
the insurer, so long as the policy provides that the insurer may not
unreasonably refuse this consent.
8) The
policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail to renew
the policy, except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic renewal of
the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the option of renewing
at the face amount of the expiring policy. If the owner or operator fails to
pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or fail to renew
the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or operator and the
Agency. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur, however,
during the 120 days that begin on the date that both the Agency and the owner
or operator have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew the policy may not occur, and
the policy will remain in full force and effect if on or before the expiration
date, one of the following events occurs:
A) The Agency deems the
facility abandoned;
B) Conditional
exclusion or interim status is lost, terminated, or revoked;
C) Closure
is ordered by the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction;
D) The
owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or involuntary proceeding
under Title 11 of the U.S. Code (Bankruptcy); or
E) The
premium due has been paid.
9) Whenever
the owner or operator learns that the current cost estimate has increased to an
amount greater than the face amount of the policy, the owner or operator must,
within 60 days after learning of the increase, either cause the face amount to
be increased to an amount at least equal to the current cost estimate and
submit evidence of this increase to the Agency, or the owner or operator must
obtain other financial assurance that complies with this Section to cover the
increase. Whenever the current cost estimate decreases, the face amount may be
reduced to the amount of the current cost estimate after the owner or operator
has obtained the written approval of the Agency.
10) The
Agency must give written consent that allows the owner or operator to terminate
the insurance policy when either of the following events occurs:
A) The
Agency has determined that the owner or operator has substituted alternative
financial assurance that complies with this Section; or
B) The
Agency has released the owner or operator from obligation under this Section under
subsection (i).
e) Financial Test and Corporate
Guarantee
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by demonstrating that the owner
or operator passes one of the financial tests specified in this subsection
(e). To pass a financial test, the owner or operator must meet the criteria of
either subsection (e)(1)(A) or (e)(1)(B):
A) Test
1. The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) Two
of the following three ratios: A ratio of total liabilities to net worth less
than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and
amortization to total liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current
assets to current liabilities greater than 1.5;
ii) Net
working capital and tangible net worth each at least six times the sum of the
current cost estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of
at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets
located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets
or at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
B) Test
2. The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) A
current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or BBB, as
issued by Standard and Poor's, or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa, as issued by Moody's;
ii) Tangible
net worth at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of
at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets
located in the United States amounting to either at least 90 percent of total assets
or at least six times the sum of the current cost estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
2) Definitions
as used in subsection (e)(1).
"Current cost estimates"
means the following four cost estimates required in the standard letter from
the owner's or operator's chief financial officer:
The cost estimate for each
facility for which the owner or operator has demonstrated financial assurance
through the financial test specified in subsections (e)(1) through (e)(9);
The cost estimate for each
facility for which the owner or operator has demonstrated financial assurance
through the corporate guarantee specified in subsection (e)(10);
For facilities in a state outside
of Illinois, the cost estimate for each facility for which the owner or
operator has demonstrated financial assurance through the financial test
specified in Subpart H of 40 CFR 261 or through a financial test deemed by
USEPA as equivalent to that in Subpart H of 40 CFR 261; and
The cost estimate for each facility
for which the owner or operator has not demonstrated financial assurance to the
Agency, USEPA, or a sister state in which the facility is located by any
mechanism that complies with the applicable of this Subpart H, Subpart H of 40
CFR 261, or regulations deemed by USEPA as equivalent to Subpart H of 40 CFR
261.
"Current plugging and
abandonment cost estimates" means the following four cost estimates
required in the standard form of a letter from the owner's or operator's chief
financial officer (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.240):
The cost estimate for each
facility for which the owner or operator has demonstrated financial assurance
through the financial test specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.219(a) through
(i);
The cost estimate for each
facility for which the owner or operator has demonstrated financial assurance
through the financial test specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.219(j);
For facilities in a state outside
of Illinois, the cost estimate for each facility for which the owner or
operator has demonstrated financial assurance through the financial test
specified in Subpart F of 40 CFR 144 or through a financial test deemed by
USEPA as equivalent to that in Subpart F of 40 CFR 144; and
The cost estimate for each
facility for which the owner or operator has not demonstrated financial
assurance to the Agency, USEPA, or a sister state in which the facility is
located by any mechanism that complies with the applicable requirements of
Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704, Subpart F of 40 CFR 144, or regulations
deemed by USEPA as equivalent to Subpart F of 40 CFR 144.
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR
261.143(e)(2) defines "current cost estimate" as "the cost
estimates required to be shown in paragraphs 1-4 of the letter from the owner's
or operator's chief financial officer (Section 261.151(e))" and "current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates" as "the cost estimates
required to be shown in paragraphs 1-4 of the letter from the owner's or
operator's chief financial officer (Section 144.70(f) of this chapter)".
The Board has substituted the descriptions of these estimates, using those specified
by USEPA in 40 CFR 261.151(e) and 144.70(f), as appropriate. Since the letter
of the chief financial officer must include the cost estimates for any facilities
that the owner or operator manages outside of Illinois, the Board has referred
to the corresponding regulations of those sister states as "regulations
deemed by USEPA as equivalent to Subpart F of 40 CFR 144 and Subpart H of 40
CFR 261".
3) To
demonstrate that it meets the financial test in subsection (e)(1), the owner or
operator must submit the following items to the Agency:
A) A
letter signed by the owner's or operator's chief financial officer and worded
as specified by the Agency under Section 721.251 that is derived from the
independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal
year, with the amounts of the pertinent environmental liabilities included in these
financial statements;
B) A copy
of an independent certified public accountant's report on examining the owner's
or operator's financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) If the
chief financial officer's letter prepared under subsection (e)(3)(A) includes
financial data that shows that the owner or operator meets the test in
subsection (e)(1)(A) (Test 1), and either the data in the chief financial
officer's letter are different from the data in the audited financial
statements required by subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section, or the data are
different from any other audited financial statement or data filed with the
federal Securities and Exchange Commission, then the owner or operator must
submit a special report from its independent certified public accountant. The
special report must be based on an agreed-upon procedures engagement, in compliance
with professional auditing standards. The report must describe the procedures
used to compare the data in the chief financial officer's letter (prepared under
subsection (e)(3)(A)), the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any
differences.
4) This
subsection (e)(3)(4) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.143(e)(3)(iv), a provision
relating to extending the deadline for filing the financial documents required
by 40 CFR 261.143(e)(3) until 90 days after the effective date of the federal
rule. Thus, the latest date for filing the documents was March 29, 2009, which
is now past. See 40 CFR 261.143(e)(3) and 73 Fed. Reg. 64668 (Oct. 30, 2008).
This statement maintains structural consistency with the corresponding federal
provision.
5) After
initially submitting items specified in subsection (e)(3), the owner or
operator must send updated information to the Agency within 90 days after the
close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information must comprise all three
items specified in subsection (e)(3).
6) If
the owner or operator no longer complies with subsection (e)(1), it must send
notice to the Agency of intent to establish alternative financial assurance
that complies with this Section. The owner or operator must send the notice by
certified mail within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the
year-end financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the
requirements. The owner or operator must provide the alternative financial
assurance within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year.
7) The
Agency may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator may no
longer be complying with subsection (e)(1), require reports of financial
condition at any time from the owner or operator in addition to those specified
in subsection (e)(3). If the Agency finds, on the basis of these reports or
other information, that the owner or operator no longer complies with
subsection (e)(1), the owner or operator must provide alternative financial
assurance that meets the requirements of this Section within 30 days after receiving
notice of the finding.
8) The
Agency must disallow use of the financial tests in this subsection (e) on the
basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the independent certified
public accountant in the accountant's report on examining the owner's or
operator's financial statements (see subsection (e)(3)(B)) if the Agency
determines that those qualifications significantly, adversely affect the owner's
or operator's ability to provide its own financial assurance by this
mechanism. An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for
disallowance. The Agency must evaluate all other kinds of qualifications on an
individual basis. The owner or operator must provide alternative financial
assurance that complies with this Section within 30 days after receiving notice
of Agency disallowance under this subsection (e)(8).
9) The
owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified in
subsection (e)(3) when either of the following events occur:
A) An
owner or operator has substituted alternative financial assurance that complies
with this Section; or
B) The
Agency releases the owner or operator from obligation under this Section under
subsection (i).
10) Corporate
guarantee for financial responsibility. An owner or operator may comply with
this Section by obtaining a written corporate guarantee. The guarantor must be
the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a sister
firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or
operator, or a firm with a "substantial business relationship" with
the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements applicable to
an owner or operator in subsections (e)(1) through (e)(8), and it must comply
with the terms of the guarantee. The wording of the guarantee must be
identical to the wording specified by the Agency under Section 721.251. A
certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Agency
that are required by subsection (e)(3). One of these items must be the letter
from the guarantor's chief financial officer. If the guarantor's parent
corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, the letter
must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the
guarantor is a firm with a "substantial business relationship" with
the owner or operator, this letter must describe this "substantial
business relationship" and the value received in consideration of the
guarantee. The terms of the guarantee must provide as follows:
A) Following
a determination by the Agency that the hazardous secondary materials at the
owner or operator's facility covered by this guarantee do not meet the
conditions of the exclusion under Section 721.104(a)(24), the guarantor must
dispose of any hazardous secondary material as hazardous waste and close the
facility in compliance with the applicable closure requirements in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724 or 725, or the guarantor must establish a trust fund in the name of
the owner or operator and in the amount of the current cost estimate that complies
with subsection (a).
B) The
corporate guarantee must remain in force unless the guarantor has sent notice
of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Agency.
Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date
on which both the owner or operator and the Agency have received the notice of
cancellation, as evidenced by the return receipts.
C) If the
owner or operator fails to provide alternative financial assurance that complies
with this Section and obtain the written approval of the alternate assurance
from the Agency within 90 days after the date on which both the owner or
operator and the Agency have received the notice of cancellation of the
corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor must provide the
alternative financial assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
f) Use
of Multiple Financial Mechanisms. An owner or operator may comply with this
Section by establishing more than one financial mechanism per facility. The
mechanisms that an owner or operator may use for this purpose are limited to a
trust fund that complies with subsection (a), a surety bond that complies with
subsection (b), a letter of credit that complies with subsection (c), and
insurance that complies with subsection (d). The mechanisms must individually
satisfy the indicated requirements of this Section, except that it is the
combination of all mechanisms used by the owner or operator, rather than any
individual mechanism, that must provide financial assurance for an aggregated
amount at least equal to the current cost estimate. If an owner or operator
uses a trust fund in combination with a surety bond or a letter of credit, the
owner or operator may use the trust fund as the standby trust fund for the
other mechanisms. The owner or operator may establish a single standby trust
fund for two or more mechanisms. The Agency may use any of the mechanisms to
provide care for the facility.
g) Use
of a Single Financial Mechanism for Multiple Facilities. An owner or operator
may use a single financial assurance mechanism that complies with this Section
to comply with this Section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial
assurance submitted to the Agency must include a list showing, for each
facility, the USEPA identification number (if any), name, address, and the
amount of funds assured by the mechanism. If the facilities covered by the
mechanism are in more than one Region, USEPA requires the owner of operator to
submit and maintain identical evidence of financial assurance with each USEPA
Region in which a covered facility is located. The amount of funds available
through the mechanism must not be less than the sum of funds that would be
available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each
facility. In directing funds available through a mechanism for any of the
facilities covered by that mechanism, the Agency may direct only that amount of
funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the
use of additional funds available under the mechanism.
h) Removal
and Decontamination Plan for Release from Financial Assurance Obligations
1) An
owner or operator of a reclamation facility or an intermediate facility that
wishes to be released from its financial assurance obligations under Section
721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi) must submit a plan for removing all hazardous secondary
material residues from the facility. The owner or operator must submit the
plan to the Agency at least 180 days prior to the date on which the owner or
operator expects to cease to operate under the exclusion.
2) The plan must, at a
minimum, include the following information:
A) For
each hazardous secondary materials storage unit subject to financial assurance
requirements under Section 721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi), the plan must describe how
all excluded hazardous secondary materials will be recycled or sent for
recycling, and how all residues, contaminated containment systems (liners, etc.),
contaminated soils, subsoils, structures, and equipment will be removed or
decontaminated as necessary to protect human health and the environment;
B) The
plan must describe the steps necessary to remove or decontaminate all hazardous
secondary material residues and contaminated containment system components,
equipment, structures, and soils, including procedures for cleaning equipment
and removing contaminated soils, methods for sampling and testing surrounding
soils, and criteria for determining the extent of decontamination necessary to
protect human health and the environment;
C) The
plan must describe any other activities necessary to protect human health and
the environment during this timeframe, including leachate collection, run-on
and run-off control, etc.; and
D) The
plan must include a schedule for conducting the activities described that, at a
minimum, includes the total time required to remove all excluded hazardous
secondary materials for recycling and decontaminate all units subject to
financial assurance under Section 721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi) and the time required
for intervening activities that will allow tracking of the progress of
decontamination.
3) The
Agency must provide the owner or operator and the public, through a newspaper
notice, the opportunity to submit written comments on and request modifications
to the plan. The Agency must accept any comments or requests to modify the
plan that it receives within 30 days after the date when the notice is
published. The Agency must also, in response to a request or in its
discretion, hold a public hearing whenever it determines that a hearing might
clarify one or more issues concerning the plan. The Agency must give public
notice of the hearing at least 30 days before it occurs. (Public notice of the
hearing may be given at the same time as notice of the opportunity for the
public to submit written comments, and the Agency may combine the two notices.)
The Agency must approve, modify, or disapprove the plan within 90 days after
its receipt. If the Agency does not approve the plan, the Agency must provide
the owner or operator with a detailed written statement of reasons for its
refusal, and the owner or operator must modify the plan or submit a new plan
for approval within 30 days after the owner or operator receives a written
statement from the Agency. The Agency must approve or modify this owner- or
operator-modified plan in writing within 60 days. If the Agency modifies the
owner- or operator-modified plan, this modified plan becomes the approved
plan. The Agency must assure that the approved plan is consistent with this subsection
(h). A copy of the modified plan with a detailed statement of reasons for the
modifications must be mailed to the owner or operator.
4) Within
60 days after completing the activities described for each hazardous secondary
materials management unit, the owner or operator must submit to the Agency, by
registered mail, a certification that all hazardous secondary materials have
been removed from the unit and that the unit has been decontaminated in compliance
with the specifications in the approved plan. The certification must be signed
by the owner or operator and by a qualified Professional Engineer. Upon
request, the owner or operator must furnish the Agency with documentation that
supports the Professional Engineer's certification, until the Agency releases
the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements of Section
721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi).
i) Releasing
the Owner or Operator from Obligation Under This Section. Within 60 days after
receiving certifications from the owner or operator and a qualified
Professional Engineer that all hazardous secondary materials have been removed
from the facility or from a unit at the facility and the facility or unit has
been decontaminated according to the approved plan in compliance with
subsection (h), the Agency must determine whether or not the owner or operator
has accomplished the objectives of removing all hazardous secondary materials
from the facility or from a unit at the facility and decontaminating the
facility in compliance with the approved plan. If the Agency determines that
the owner or operator has accomplished both objectives, the Agency must notify
the owner or operator in writing, within the 60 days, that the owner and
operator are no longer required under Section 721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi) to maintain
financial assurance for that facility or unit at the facility. If the Agency
determines that the owner or operator has not accomplished both objectives, it
must provide the owner or operator with a detailed written statement of the
basis for its determination.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.247 LIABILITY REQUIREMENTS
Section 721.247 Liability Requirements
a) Coverage
for Sudden Accidental Occurrences. The owner or operator of one or more
hazardous secondary material reclamation facilities or intermediate facilities
that are subject to financial assurance requirements under Section
721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi) must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily
injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental
occurrences arising from operations of its facilities. The owner or operator
must maintain liability coverage in force for sudden accidental occurrences in
the amount of at least $1 million per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at
least $2 million, exclusive of legal defense costs. This liability coverage
may be demonstrated as specified in any of subsections (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3),
(a)(4), (a)(5), or (a)(6).
1) An
owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having
liability insurance that complies with this subsection (a)(1).
A) Each
insurance policy must be amended by attachment of the Hazardous Secondary
Material Facility Liability Endorsement or evidenced by a Certificate of
Liability Insurance. The wording of the Hazardous Secondary Material Facility
Liability Endorsement must be identical to the wording specified by the Agency under
Section 721.251. The wording of the Certificate of Liability Insurance must be
identical to the wording specified by the Agency under Section 721.251. The
owner or operator must submit a signed duplicate original of the Hazardous
Secondary Material Facility Liability Endorsement or the Certificate of
Liability Insurance to the Agency. If requested by the Agency, the owner or
operator must provide a signed duplicate original of the insurance policy.
B) At a
minimum, each insurance policy must be issued by an insurer that is licensed to
transact the business of insurance, or that is eligible to provide insurance as
an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
2) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by passing a financial test or
using the guarantee for liability coverage that complies with subsections (f)
and (g).
3) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a letter of credit
for liability coverage that complies with subsection (h).
4) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a surety bond for
liability coverage that complies with subsection (i).
5) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a trust fund for
liability coverage that complies with subsection (j).
6) An
owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by using a
combination of insurance under subsections (a)(2) through (a)(5), except that
the owner or operator may not combine a financial test covering part of the
liability coverage requirement with a guarantee if the financial statement of
the owner or operator is consolidated with the financial statement of the
guarantor. The amounts of coverage demonstrated by the combination must total
at least the minimum amounts required for the facility by this Section. If the
owner or operator demonstrates the required coverage using a combination of
financial assurances under this subsection (a)(6), the owner or operator must
specify at least one assurance as "primary" coverage and all other
assurance as "excess" coverage.
7) An
owner or operator must notify the Agency in writing within 30 days whenever any
of the following events has occurred:
A) A
claim has resulted in a reduction in the amount of financial assurance for
liability coverage provided by a financial instrument authorized by any of
subsections (a)(1) through (a)(6);
B) A
Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a
sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from operating a hazardous
secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is entered
between the owner or operator and a third-party claimant for liability coverage
established under any of subsections (a)(1) through (a)(6); or
C) A
final court order that establishes a judgment for bodily injury or property
damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence that arose from operating
a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is
issued against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing
financial assurance for liability coverage under any of subsections (a)(1)
through (a)(6).
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR
261.147(a) recites that it applies to "a hazardous secondary material
reclamation facility or intermediate facility with land-based units...or a
group of such facilities". The Board has rendered this provision in the
singular, intending that it include several facilities as a group if necessary.
The Board does not intend to limit the applicability of this provision to
multiple facilities. Note that the Agency can require complying with this
provision by a facility to which it would not otherwise apply under subsection
(d)(2), subject to the owner's or operator's right to appeal an Agency
determination to the Board.
b) Coverage
for Non-sudden Accidental Occurrences. An owner or operator of a hazardous
secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility with
land-based units, as defined in Section 720.110, that is used to manage
hazardous secondary materials excluded under Section 721.104(a)(24) must
demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to
third parties caused by non-sudden accidental occurrences that arise from
operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator must
maintain liability coverage for non-sudden accidental occurrences in the amount
of at least $3 million per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at least $6
million, exclusive of legal defense costs. An owner or operator that must comply
with this Section may combine the required per occurrence coverage levels for
sudden and non-sudden accidental occurrences into a single per-occurrence
level, and the owner or operator may combine the required annual aggregate
coverage levels for sudden and non-sudden accidental occurrences into a single
annual aggregate level. An owner or operator that combines coverage levels for
sudden and non-sudden accidental occurrences must maintain liability coverage
in the amount of at least $4 million per occurrence and $8 million annual
aggregate. The owner or operator may demonstrate this liability coverage by
any of the means in subsections (b)(1) through (b)(6):
1) An
owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having
liability insurance that complies with this subsection (b)(1).
A) Each
insurance policy must be amended by attachment of the Hazardous Secondary
Material Facility Liability Endorsement or evidenced by a Certificate of
Liability Insurance. The wording of the Hazardous Secondary Material Facility
Liability Endorsement must be identical to the wording specified by the Agency under
Section 721.251. The wording of the Certificate of Liability Insurance must be
identical to the wording specified by the Agency under Section 721.251. The
owner or operator must submit a signed duplicate original of the Hazardous
Secondary Material Facility Liability Endorsement or the Certificate of
Liability Insurance to the Agency. If requested by the Agency, the owner or
operator must provide a signed duplicate original of the insurance policy.
B) At a
minimum, each insurance policy must be issued by an insurer that is licensed to
transact the business of insurance, or that is eligible to provide insurance as
an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
2) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by passing a financial test or
by using the guarantee for liability coverage that complies with subsections
(f) and (g).
3) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a letter of credit
for liability coverage that complies with subsection (h).
4) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a surety bond for
liability coverage that complies with subsection (i).
5) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a trust fund for
liability coverage that complies with subsection (j).
6) An
owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by using a
combination of insurance under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(5), except that
the owner or operator may not combine a financial test covering part of the
liability coverage requirement with a guarantee if the financial statement of
the owner or operator is consolidated with the financial statement of the
guarantor. The amounts of coverage demonstrated by the combination must total to
at least the minimum amounts required for the facility by this Section. If the
owner or operator demonstrates the required coverage by using a combination of
financial assurances under this subsection (b)(6), the owner or operator must
specify at least one assurance as "primary" coverage and all other
assurance as "excess" coverage.
7) An
owner or operator must notify the Agency in writing within 30 days whenever any
of the following events has occurred:
A) A
claim has resulted in a reduction in the amount of financial assurance for
liability coverage provided by a financial instrument authorized by any of
subsections (b)(1) through (b)(6);
B) A
Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a
sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from operating a hazardous
secondary material treatment or storage facility is entered between the owner
or operator and a third-party claimant for liability coverage established under
any of subsections (b)(1) through (b)(6); or
C) A
final court order that establishes a judgment for bodily injury or property
damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence that arose from operating
a hazardous secondary material treatment and/or storage facility is issued
against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing financial
assurance for liability coverage under any of subsections (b)(1) through
(b)(6).
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR
261.147(b) recites that it applies to "a hazardous secondary material
reclamation facility or intermediate facility with land-based units...or a
group of such facilities". The Board has rendered this provision in the
singular, intending that it include several facilities as a group if necessary.
The Board does not intend to limit the applicability of this provision to
multiple facilities. Note that the Agency can require complying with this
provision by a facility to which it would not otherwise apply under subsection
(d)(2), subject to the owner's or operator's right to appeal an Agency
determination to the Board.
c) Petition
for Adjusted Standard. If an owner or operator can demonstrate that the level
of financial responsibility required by subsection (a) or (b) is not consistent
with the degree and duration of risk associated with treatment or storage at a
facility, the owner or operator may petition the Board for an adjusted standard
under Section 28.1 of the Act. The petition for an adjusted standard must be
filed with the Board and submitted in writing to the Agency, as required by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 101 and Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104. If granted, the
adjusted standard will take the form of an adjusted level of required liability
coverage, this level to be based on the Board's assessment of the degree and
duration of risk associated with owning or operating the facility or group of
facilities. The owner or operator that requests an adjusted standard must
provide the technical and engineering information that is necessary for the
Board to determine that an alternative level of financial responsibility to
that required by subsection (a) or (b) should apply.
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR
261.147(c) allows application for a "variance" for "the levels
of financial responsibility" required for "the facility or group of
facilities". The Board has rendered this provision in the singular,
intending that it include a single petition pertaining to several facilities as
a group. The Board does not intend to limit the applicability of this
provision to multiple facilities in a single petition. The Board has chosen
the adjusted standard procedure for variance from the level of financial
responsibility required by subsection (a) or (b).
d) Adjustments by the Agency
1) If
the Agency determines that the level of financial responsibility required by
subsection (a) or (b) is not consistent with the degree and duration of risk
associated with treatment or storage of hazardous secondary material at a
facility, the Agency may adjust the level of financial responsibility required
to comply with subsection (a) or (b) to the level that the Agency considers
necessary to protect human health and the environment. The Agency must base
this adjusted level on an assessment of the degree and duration of risk
associated with owning or operating the facility.
2) In
addition, if the Agency determines that there is a significant risk to human
health and the environment from non-sudden accidental occurrences resulting
from the operations of a facility that is not a surface impoundment, pile, or
land treatment facility, the Agency may require the owner or operator of the
facility to comply with subsection (b).
3) An
owner or operator must furnish to the Agency, within a reasonable time, any
information that the Agency requests to aid its determination whether cause
exists for these adjustments of level or type of coverage.
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator
may appeal any Agency determination made under this subsection (d) under Section
40 of the Act.
e) Release
from the Financial Assurance Obligation for a Facility or a Unit at a Facility
1) After
an owner or operator has removed all hazardous secondary material from a
facility or a unit at a facility and decontaminated the facility or unit at the
facility, the owner or operator may submit a written request that the Agency
release it from the obligation of subsections (a) and (b) as they apply to the
facility or to the unit. The owner or operator and a qualified Professional
Engineer must submit with the request certifications stating that all hazardous
secondary materials have been removed from the facility or from a unit at the
facility, and that the facility or a unit has been decontaminated in compliance
with the owner's or operator's Agency-approved Section 721.243(h) plan.
2) Within
60 days after receiving the complete request and certifications described in
subsection (e)(1), the Agency must notify the owner or operator in writing of
its determination on the request. The Agency must grant the request only if it
determines that the owner or operator has removed all hazardous secondary materials
from the facility or from the unit at the facility and that the owner or
operator has decontaminated the facility or unit in compliance with its
Agency-approved Section 721.243(h) plan.
3) After
an affirmative finding by the Agency under subsection (e)(2), the owner or
operator is no longer required to maintain liability coverage under Section
721.104(a)(24)(F)(vi) for that facility or unit at the facility that is
indicated in the written notice issued by the Agency.
BOARD NOTE: The Board has broken
the single sentence of corresponding 40 CFR 261.147(e) into five sentences in
three subsections in this subsection (e) for enhanced clarity. The owner or
operator may appeal any Agency determination made under this subsection (e) under
Section 40 of the Act.
f) Financial Test for Liability
Coverage
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by demonstrating that it passes
one of the financial tests specified in this subsection (f)(1). To pass a
financial test, the owner or operator must meet the criteria of either
subsection (f)(1)(A) or (f)(1)(B):
A) Test
1. The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) Net
working capital and tangible net worth each at least six times the amount of
liability coverage that the owner or operator needs to demonstrate by this
test;
ii) Tangible
net worth of at least $10 million; and
iii) Assets
in the United States that amount to either at least 90 percent of the owner's
or operator's total assets or at least six times the amount of liability
coverage that it needs to demonstrate by this test.
B) Test
2. The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) A
current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or BBB, as
issued by Standard and Poor's, or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa, as issued by Moody's;
ii) Tangible net worth of
at least $10 million;
iii) Tangible
net worth at least six times the amount of liability coverage to be
demonstrated by this test; and
iv) Assets
in the United States amounting to either at least 90 percent of the owner's or
operator's total assets or at least six times the amount of liability coverage
that it needs to demonstrate by this test.
2) Definition
"Amount of liability coverage",
as used in subsection (f)(1), refers to the annual aggregate amounts for which
coverage is required under subsections (a) and (b) and the annual aggregate
amounts for which coverage is required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.247(a) and
(b) or 725.247(a) and (b).
3) To
demonstrate that it meets the financial test in subsection (f)(1), the owner or
operator must submit the following three items to the Agency:
A) A
letter signed by the owner's or operator's chief financial officer and worded
as specified by the Agency under Section 721.251. If an owner or operator is
using the financial test to demonstrate both financial assurance, as specified
by Section 721.243(e), and liability coverage, as specified by this Section,
the owner or operator must submit the letter specified by the Agency under
Section 721.251 for financial assurance to cover both forms of financial
responsibility; no separate letter is required for liability coverage;
B) A copy
of an independent certified public accountant's report on examining the owner's
or operator's financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) If the
chief financial officer's letter prepared under subsection (f)(3)(A) includes
financial data that shows that the owner or operator satisfies the test in
subsection (f)(1)(A) (Test 1), and either the data in the chief financial
officer's letter are different from the data in the audited financial
statements required by subsection (f)(3)(B), or the data are different from any
other audited financial statement or data filed with the federal Securities and
Exchange Commission, then the owner or operator must submit a special report
from its independent certified public accountant. The special report must be
based on an agreed-upon procedures engagement, in compliance with professional
auditing standards. The report must describe the procedures used to compare
the data in the chief financial officer's letter (prepared under subsection
(f)(3)(A)), the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any difference.
4) This
subsection (f)(4) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.147(f)(3)(iv), a provision
relating to extending the deadline for filing the financial documents required
by 40 CFR 261.147(f)(3) until as late as 90 days after the effective date of
the federal rule. Thus, the latest date for filing the documents was March 29,
2009, which is now past. See 40 CFR 261.147(f)(3) and 73 Fed. Reg. 64668 (Oct.
30, 2008). This statement maintains structural consistency with the
corresponding federal provision.
5) After
initially submitting items specified in subsection (f)(3), the owner or
operator must send updated information to the Agency within 90 days after the
close of each succeeding fiscal year. This information must comprise all three
items specified in subsection (f)(3).
6) If the
owner or operator no longer complies with of subsection (f)(1), it must obtain
insurance (subsection (a)(1)), a letter of credit (subsection (h)), a surety
bond (subsection (i)), a trust fund (subsection (j)), or a guarantee
(subsection (g)) for the entire amount of required liability coverage required
by this Section. Evidence of liability coverage must be submitted to the
Agency within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end
financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the test
requirements.
7) The
Agency must disallow use of the financial tests in this subsection (f) on the
basis of qualifications in the opinion expressed by the independent certified
public accountant in the accountant's report on examining the owner's or
operator's financial statements (see subsection (f)(3)(B)) if the Agency
determines that those qualifications significantly, adversely affect the owner's
or operator's ability to provide its own financial assurance by this
mechanism. An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for
disallowance. The Agency must evaluate all other kinds of qualifications on an
individual basis. The owner or operator must provide evidence of insurance for
the entire amount of required liability coverage that complies with this
Section within 30 days after receiving notice Agency disallowance under this
subsection (f)(7).
g) Corporate Guarantee for Liability
Coverage
1) Subject
to the limitations of subsection (g)(2), an owner or operator may comply with
this Section by obtaining a written guarantee ("guarantee"). The
guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or
operator, a sister firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation
of the owner or operator, or a firm with a "substantial business
relationship" with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the
requirements applicable to an owner or operator in subsections (f)(1) through
(f)(6). The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording
specified by the Agency under Section 721.251. A certified copy of the
guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Agency that are required by
subsection (f)(3). One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor's
chief financial officer. If the guarantor's parent corporation is also the
parent corporation of the owner or operator, this letter must describe the
value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm
with a "substantial business relationship" with the owner or
operator, this letter must describe this "substantial business
relationship" and the value received in consideration of the guarantee.
A) The
guarantor must pay full satisfaction, up to the limits of coverage, whenever
either of the following events has occurred with regard to liability for bodily
injury or property damage to third parties caused by sudden or non-sudden
accidental occurrences (or both) that arose from operating facilities covered
by the corporate guarantee:
i) The
owner or operator has failed to meet a judgment based on a determination of
liability; or
ii) The
owner or operator has failed to pay an amount agreed to in settlement of claims
arising from or alleged to arise from the injury or damage.
B) This
subsection (g)(1)(B) is derived from 40 CFR 261.147(g)(1)(ii), which USEPA has
marked as "reserved". This statement maintains structural
consistency with the corresponding federal regulations.
BOARD NOTE: Any determination by
the Agency under this subsection (g)(1)(B) is subject to Section 40 of the Act
. This subsection (g)(1)(B) is derived from 40 CFR 264.141(h) and 265.141(h) (2017).
2) Limitations
on Guarantee and Documentation Required
A) If both
the guarantor and the owner or operator are incorporated in the United States,
a guarantee may be used to comply with this Section only if the Attorneys
General or Insurance Commissioners of each of the following states have
submitted a written statement to the Agency that a guarantee executed as
described in this Section is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that
state:
i) The
state in which the guarantor is incorporated (if other than the State of Illinois); and
ii) The
State of Illinois (as the state in which the facility covered by the guarantee
is located).
B) If either
the guarantor or the owner or operator is incorporated outside the United States, a guarantee may be used to comply with this Section only if both of the
following has occurred:
i) The
non-U.S. corporation has identified a registered agent for service of process
in the State of Illinois (as the state in which the facility covered by the
guarantee is located) and in the state in which it has its principal place of
business (if other than the State of Illinois); and
ii) The
Attorney General or Insurance Commissioner of the State of Illinois (as the state
in which a facility covered by the guarantee is located) and the state in which
the guarantor corporation has its principal place of business (if other than
the State of Illinois) has submitted a written statement to the Agency that a
guarantee executed as described in this Section is a legally valid and
enforceable obligation in that state.
C) The facility owner or operator and the
guarantor must provide the Agency with all documents that are necessary and
adequate to support an Agency determination that the required substantial
business relationship exists adequate to support the guarantee.
BOARD NOTE: The Board added
documentation to this subsection (g)(2)(C) to ensure that the owner and
operator ensures all information necessary for an Agency determination is submitted
to the Agency. The information required would include copies of any contracts
and other documents that establish the nature, extent, and duration of the
business relationship; any statements of competent legal opinion, signed by an
attorney duly licensed to practice law in each of the jurisdictions referred to
in the applicable of subsection (g)(2)(A) or (g)(2)(B), that would support a
conclusion that the business relationship is adequate consideration to support
the guarantee in the pertinent jurisdiction; a copy of the documents required
by subsection (g)(2)(A)(ii) or (g)(2)(B)(ii); documents that identify the
registered agent, as required by subsection (g)(2)(B)(i); and any other
documents requested by the Agency that are reasonably necessary to make a
determination that a substantial business relationship exists, as defined in
subsection (g)(1)(A).
h) Letter of Credit for Liability
Coverage
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining an irrevocable
standby letter of credit that complies with this subsection (h) and submitting
a copy of the letter of credit to the Agency.
2) The
financial institution issuing the letter of credit must be an entity that has
the authority to issue letters of credit and whose letter of credit operations
are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
3) The
wording of the letter of credit must be identical to the wording specified by
the Agency under Section 721.251.
4) An
owner or operator that uses a letter of credit to comply with this Section may
also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of this letter of credit,
all amounts paid under a draft by the trustee of the standby trust fund must be
deposited by the issuing institution into the standby trust fund complying with
instructions from the trustee. The trustee of the standby trust fund must be
an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations
are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
5) The
wording of the standby trust fund must be identical to the wording specified by
the Agency under Section 721.251.
i) Surety Bond for Liability
Coverage
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by obtaining a surety bond that complies
with this subsection (i) and submitting a copy of the bond to the Agency.
2) The
surety company issuing the bond must be among those listed as acceptable
sureties on federal bonds in the most recent Circular 570 of the U.S. Department
of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department
of the Treasury updates Circular 570, "Companies Holding Certificates of
Authority as Acceptable Sureties on Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring
Companies", on an annual basis under 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is
available on the Internet at the following website: http://www.fiscal.treasury.gov/surety-bonds/circular-570.html.
3) The
wording of the surety bond must be identical to the wording specified by the
Agency under Section 721.251.
4) A
surety bond may be used to comply with this Section only if the Attorneys
General or Insurance Commissioners of the following states have submitted a
written statement to the Agency that a surety bond executed as described in
this Section is a legally valid and enforceable obligation in that state:
A) The
state in which the surety is incorporated; and
B) The
State of Illinois (as the state in which the facility covered by the surety
bond is located).
j) Trust Fund for Liability
Coverage
1) An
owner or operator may comply with this Section by establishing a trust fund
that complies with this subsection (j) and submitting an originally signed
duplicate of the trust agreement to the Agency.
2) The
trustee must be an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose
trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.
3) The
trust fund for liability coverage must be funded for the full amount of the
liability coverage to be provided by the trust fund before it may be relied
upon to comply with this Section. If at any time after the trust fund is
created the amount of funds in the trust fund is reduced below the full amount
of the liability coverage that the owner or operator must provide, the owner or
operator must either add sufficient funds to the trust fund to cause its value
to equal the full amount of liability coverage to be provided, or the owner or
operator must obtain other financial assurance that complies with this Section
to cover the difference. If the owner or operator must either add sufficient
funds or obtain other financial assurance, it must do so before the anniversary
date of the establishment of the trust fund. For this subsection, "the
full amount of the liability coverage to be provided" means the amount of
coverage for sudden or non-sudden occurrences that the owner or operator must
provide under this Section, less the amount of financial assurance for
liability coverage that the owner or operator has provided by other financial
assurance mechanisms to demonstrate financial assurance.
4) The
wording of the trust fund must be identical to the wording specified by the
Agency under Section 721.251.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill.
Reg. 16813, effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.248 INCAPACITY OF OWNERS OR OPERATORS, GUARANTORS, OR FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
Section 721.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators,
Guarantors, or Financial Institutions
a) An
owner or operator must notify the Agency by certified mail of the commencement
of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding pursuant to Title 11 of the United
States Code (Bankruptcy) that names the owner or operator as debtor, within 10
days after commencement of the proceeding. A guarantor of a corporate
guarantee undertaken to satisfy the requirements of Section 721.243(e) must
make such a notification if it is named as debtor, as required under the terms
of the corporate guarantee.
b) An
owner or operator that satisfies the requirements of Section 721.243 or 721.247
by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy
will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or liability
coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or
in the event of a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee
institution to act as trustee or of the institution issuing the surety bond,
letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or
operator must establish other financial assurance or liability coverage within
60 days after such an event.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.249 USE OF STATE-REQUIRED MECHANISMS
Section 721.249 Use of State-Required Mechanisms
This Section corresponds with 40 CFR 261.149, which pertains
to USEPA approval of state-endorsed instruments for providing financial
assurance. The Board directs attention to that federal provision without
duplicating its requirements here, since it is important to regulated entities
in Illinois, although it does not impose requirements necessary as a matter of
State law.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.250 STATE ASSUMPTION OF RESPONSIBILITY
Section 721.250 State Assumption of Responsibility
This Section corresponds with 40 CFR 261.150, which pertains
to USEPA approval of state financial assurance requirements and the assumption
of responsibility by a state. The Board directs attention to that federal
provision without duplicating its requirements here, since USEPA approval of
the Illinois requirements is important to regulated entities in Illinois, although the federal provision does not impose requirements necessary as a matter
of State law.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.251 WORDING OF THE INSTRUMENTS
Section 721.251 Wording of the Instruments
The Agency must promulgate standardized forms for financial
assurance instruments based on 40 CFR 261.151 (Wording of the Instruments),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), with such changes in
wording as are necessary under Illinois law. Any owner or operator required to
establish financial assurance under this Subpart H must do so only upon the
standardized forms for financial assurance instruments promulgated by the
Agency. The Agency must reject any financial assurance instrument that does
not comport with the Agency-promulgated standardized forms.
(Source: Added at 34 Ill.
Reg. 18611, effective November 12, 2010)
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.270 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.270 Applicability
This Subpart I applies to hazardous secondary materials
excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at Section 721.104(a)(27) and
stored in containers.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.271 CONDITION OF CONTAINERS
Section 721.271 Condition of Containers
If a container holding hazardous secondary material is not
in good condition (e.g., the container has severe rusting, apparent structural
defects, etc.) or if the container begins to leak, the hazardous secondary
material must be transferred from this container to a container that is in good
condition or managed in some other way that complies with the requirements of
this Part.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.272 COMPATIBILITY OF HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIALS WITH CONTAINERS
Section 721.272 Compatibility of Hazardous Secondary
Materials with Containers
A container holding hazardous secondary material must be
made of or lined with materials that will not react with, and are otherwise
compatible with, the hazardous secondary material to be stored, so that the
ability of the container to contain the material is not impaired.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.273 MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section 721.273 Management of Containers
a) A
container holding hazardous secondary material must always be closed during
storage, except when it is necessary to add or remove the hazardous secondary
material.
b) A
container holding hazardous secondary material must not be opened, handled, or
stored in a manner that may rupture the container or cause it to leak.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.275 SECONDARY CONTAINMENT
Section 721.275 Secondary Containment
a) Container
storage areas must have a secondary containment system that is designed and
operated in accordance with subsection (b).
b) A secondary containment
system must be designed and operated as follows:
1) A
base must underlie the containers which is free of cracks or gaps and is
sufficiently impervious to contain leaks, spills, and accumulated precipitation
until the collected material is detected and removed;
2) The
base must be sloped or the secondary containment system must be otherwise
designed and operated to drain and remove liquids resulting from leaks, spills,
or precipitation, unless the containers are elevated or are otherwise protected
from contact with accumulated liquids;
3) The secondary
containment system must have sufficient capacity to contain ten percent of the
volume of containers or the volume of the largest container, whichever is
greater;
4) Run-on
into the secondary containment system must be prevented unless the collection
system has sufficient excess capacity in addition to that required in
subsection (b)(3) to contain any run-on which might enter the system; and
5) Spilled
or leaked material and accumulated precipitation must be removed from the sump
or collection area in as timely a manner as is necessary to prevent overflow of
the secondary collection system.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.276 SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR IGNITABLE OR REACTIVE HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIAL
Section 721.276 Special Requirements for Ignitable or
Reactive Hazardous Secondary Material
Containers holding ignitable or reactive hazardous secondary
material must be located at least 15 meters (50 feet) from the facility's
property line.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.277 SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR INCOMPATIBLE MATERIALS
Section 721.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible
Materials
a) Incompatible materials
must not be placed in the same container.
b) Hazardous
secondary material must not be placed in an unwashed container that previously
held an incompatible material.
c) A
storage container holding a hazardous secondary material that is incompatible
with any other materials stored nearby must be separated from the other
materials or protected from them by means of a dike, berm, wall, or other device.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.279 AIR EMISSION STANDARDS
Section 721.279 Air Emission Standards
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must manage all hazardous secondary material
placed in a container in accordance with the applicable requirements of
Subparts AA, BB, and CC.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.290 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.290 Applicability
a) The
requirements of this Subpart J apply to tank systems for storing or treating
hazardous secondary material excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at
Section 721.104(a)(27).
b) Tank
systems, including sumps, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, that serve
as part of a secondary containment system to collect or contain releases of
hazardous secondary materials are exempted from the requirements in Section
721.293(a).
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.291 ASSESSMENT OF EXISTING TANK SYSTEM'S INTEGRITY
Section 721.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System's
Integrity
a) A
tank system must meet the secondary containment requirements of Section
721.293, or the remanufacturer or other person that handles the hazardous
secondary material must determine that the tank system is not leaking or is
unfit for use. Except as provided in subsection (c), a written assessment
reviewed and certified by a qualified Professional Engineer must be kept on
file at the remanufacturer's facility or other facility that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material that attests to the tank system's integrity.
b) The
qualified Professional Engineer's assessment must determine that the tank
system is adequately designed and has sufficient structural strength and
compatibility with the materials to be stored or treated, to ensure that the
tank system will not collapse, rupture, or fail. At a minimum, this assessment
must consider the following:
1) Design
standards, if available, according to which the tank system and ancillary
equipment were constructed;
2) Hazardous
characteristics of the materials that have been and will be handled;
3) Existing corrosion
protection measures;
4) Documented
age of the tank system, if available (otherwise, an estimate of the age); and
5) Results
of a leak test, internal inspection, or other tank system integrity examination
such that:
A) For
non-enterable underground tanks, the assessment must include a leak test that
is capable of taking into account the effects of temperature variations, tank
end deflection, vapor pockets, and high water table effects; and
B) For
other than non-enterable underground tanks and for ancillary equipment, this
assessment must include either a leak test, as described above, or other
integrity examination that is certified by a qualified Professional Engineer
that addresses cracks, leaks, corrosion, and erosion.
BOARD NOTE: The practices
described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication, Guide for
Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Chapter XIII, "Atmospheric and
Low-Pressure Storage Tanks", 4th edition, 1981, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, may be used, where applicable, as
guidelines in conducting other than a leak test.
c) If,
as a result of the assessment conducted in accordance with subsection (a), a
tank system is found to be leaking or unfit for use, the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must comply
with the requirements of Section 721.296.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.293 CONTAINMENT AND DETECTION OF RELEASES
Section 721.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
a) The following must be
true of a secondary containment system:
1) The
system is designed, installed, and operated to prevent any migration of
materials or accumulated liquid out of the system to the soil, ground water, or
surface water at any time during the use of the tank system; and
2) The
system is capable of detecting and collecting releases and accumulated liquids
until the collected material is removed.
BOARD NOTE: If the collected
material is a hazardous waste under this Part, the material is subject to
management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through 728. If the collected material is discharged
through a point source to waters of the United States, it is subject to the
NPDES permit requirement of Section 12(f) of the Environmental Protection Act
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment Works
(POTW), it is subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 307 and 310. If
the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the
reporting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 750.410 and federal 40 CFR 302.6.
b) To
meet the requirements of subsection (a), a secondary containment system must
fulfill the following requirements:
1) The
secondary containment system must be constructed of or lined with materials
that are compatible with the materials to be placed in the tank system and must
have sufficient strength and thickness to prevent failure owing to pressure
gradients (including static head and external hydrological forces), physical
contact with the material to which it is exposed, climatic conditions, and the
stress of daily operation (including stresses from nearby vehicular traffic);
2) The
secondary containment system must be placed on a foundation or base capable of
providing support to the secondary containment system, resistance to pressure
gradients above and below the system, and capable of preventing failure due to
settlement, compression, or uplift;
3) The
secondary containment system must be provided with a leak-detection system that
is designed and operated so that the system will detect the failure of either
the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of any release
of hazardous secondary material or accumulated liquid in the secondary
containment system at the earliest practicable time; and
4) The
secondary containment system must be sloped or otherwise designed or operated
to drain and remove liquids resulting from leaks, spills, or precipitation.
Spilled or leaked material and accumulated precipitation must be removed from
the secondary containment system in as timely a manner as is possible, but in
no case later than 24 hours after the leak, spill, or accumulation of
precipitation occurs, to prevent harm to human health and the environment.
c) Secondary
containment for tanks must include one or more of the following devices:
1) A liner (external to
the tank);
2) A vault; or
3) A double-walled tank.
d) In
addition to the requirements of subsections (a), (b), and (c), secondary
containment systems must satisfy the following requirements:
1) An
external liner system must fulfill the following requirements:
A) The
secondary containment system must be designed or operated to contain 100
percent of the capacity of the largest tank within its boundary;
B) The
secondary containment system must be designed or operated to prevent run-on or
infiltration of precipitation into the secondary containment system unless the
collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on or
infiltration. The additional capacity must be sufficient to contain
precipitation from a 25-year, 24-hour rainfall event;
C) The
secondary containment system must be free of cracks or gaps; and
D) The
secondary containment system must be designed and installed to surround the
tank completely and to cover all surrounding earth likely to come into contact
with the material if the material is released from the tanks (i.e., capable of
preventing lateral as well as vertical migration of the material).
2) A vault
system must fulfill the following requirements:
A) The
vault system must be designed or operated to contain 100 percent of the
capacity of the largest tank within its boundary;
B) The
vault system must be designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of
precipitation into the secondary containment system unless the collection
system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on or infiltration. The
additional capacity must be sufficient to contain precipitation from a 25-year,
24-hour rainfall event;
C) The
vault system must be constructed with chemical-resistant water stops in place
at all joints (if any);
D) The
vault system must be provided with an impermeable interior coating or lining
that is compatible with the stored material and that will prevent migration of
material into the concrete;
E) The
vault system must be provided with a means to protect against the formation of and
ignition of vapors within the vault, if the material being stored or treated is
ignitable or reactive; and
F) The
vault system must be provided with an exterior moisture barrier or be otherwise
designed or operated to prevent migration of moisture into the vault if the
vault is subject to hydraulic pressure.
3) A
double-walled tank must fulfill the following requirements:
A) The
double-walled tank must be designed as an integral structure (i.e., an inner
tank completely enveloped within an outer shell) so that any release from the
inner tank is contained by the outer shell;
B) The
double-walled tank must be protected, if constructed of metal, from both
corrosion of the primary tank interior and of the external surface of the outer
shell; and
C) The double-walled
tank must be provided with a built-in continuous leak detection system capable
of detecting a release at the earliest practicable time, but in no case later
than 24 hours after the release occurs.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions
outlined in the Steel Tank Institute's (STI) "Standard for Dual Wall
Underground Steel Storage Tanks", incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111, may be used as guidelines for aspects of the design of
underground steel double-walled tanks.
e) This
subsection (e) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.194(e), which USEPA has marked "reserved".
This statement maintains structural consistency with the corresponding federal
regulations.
f) Ancillary
equipment must be provided with secondary containment (e.g., trench, jacketing,
double-walled piping, etc.) that meets the requirements of subsections (a) and
(b), except for the following equipment:
1) Aboveground
piping (exclusive of flanges, joints, valves, and other connections) that are
visually inspected for leaks on a daily basis;
2) Welded
flanges, welded joints, and welded connections that are visually inspected for
leaks on a daily basis;
3) Seal-less
or magnetic coupling pumps and seal-less valves that are visually inspected for
leaks on a daily basis; and
4) Pressurized
aboveground piping systems with automatic shut-off devices (e.g., excess flow
check valves, flow metering shutdown devices, loss of pressure actuated
shut-off devices, etc.) that are visually inspected for leaks on a daily basis.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.294 GENERAL OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
Section 721.294 General Operating Requirements
a) Hazardous
secondary materials or treatment reagents must not be placed in a tank system
if the materials or reagents could cause the tank, its ancillary equipment, or
the containment system to rupture, leak, corrode, or otherwise fail.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must use appropriate controls and practices to prevent spills and
overflows from tank or containment systems. These include, at a minimum, the
following controls and practices:
1) Spill
prevention controls (e.g., check valves, dry disconnect couplings, etc.);
2) Overfill
prevention controls (e.g., level sensing devices, high level alarms, automatic
feed cutoff, or bypass to a standby tank); and
3) Maintenance
of sufficient freeboard in uncovered tanks to prevent overtopping by wave or
wind action or by precipitation.
c) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must comply with the requirements of Section 721.296 if a leak or
spill occurs in the tank system.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.296 RESPONSE TO LEAKS OR SPILLS AND DISPOSITION OF LEAKING OR UNFIT-FOR-USE TANK SYSTEMS
Section 721.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and
Disposition of Leaking or Unfit-for-Use Tank Systems
A tank system or secondary containment system from which
there has been a leak or spill, or that is unfit for use, must be removed from
service immediately, and the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must satisfy the following
requirements:
a) Cessation
of use; prevent flow or addition of materials. The remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must immediately
stop the flow of hazardous secondary material into the tank system or secondary
containment system and inspect the system to determine the cause of the
release.
b) Removal of material from
tank system or secondary containment system.
1) If
the release was from the tank system, the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must, within 24 hours after
detection of the leak or, if the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material demonstrates that it is not possible,
at the earliest practicable time, remove as much of the material as is
necessary to prevent further release of hazardous secondary material to the
environment and to allow inspection and repair of the tank system to be
performed.
2) If
the material released was to a secondary containment system, all released
materials must be removed within 24 hours or in as timely a manner as is
possible to prevent harm to human health and the environment.
c) Containment
of visible releases to the environment. The remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must immediately conduct
a visual inspection of the release and, based upon that inspection:
1) The
remanufacturer must prevent further migration of the leak or spill to soils or
surface water; and
2) The
remanufacturer must remove, and properly dispose of, any visible contamination
of the soil or surface water.
d) Notifications, reports.
1) Any
release to the environment, except as provided in subsection (d)(2), must be
reported to the Agency and the Administrator of USEPA Region 5 within 24 hours
of its detection. If the release has been reported pursuant to 40 CFR 302,
that report will satisfy the requirement to notify USEPA, but the release must
still be reported to the Agency.
2) A
leak or spill of hazardous secondary material is exempted from the requirements
of this subsection (d) if the following is true of the leak or spill:
A) The
leak or spill is less than or equal to a quantity of one pound; and
B) The leak or spill is
immediately contained and cleaned up.
3) Within
30 days after detection of a release to the environment, a report containing
the following information must be submitted to the Agency and the Administrator
of USEPA Region 5:
A) The likely route of
migration of the release;
B) The
characteristics of the surrounding soil (soil composition, geology,
hydrogeology, climate);
C) The
results of any monitoring or sampling conducted in connection with the release
(if available). If sampling or monitoring data relating to the release are not
available within 30 days, these data must be submitted to the Agency and the
Administrator of USEPA Region 5 as soon as the results become available;
D) The
proximity to downgradient drinking water, surface water, and populated areas;
and
E) A description of
response actions taken or planned.
e) Provision of secondary
containment, repair, or closure.
1) Unless
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material satisfies the requirements of subsections (e)(2) through
(e)(4), the tank system must cease to operate under the remanufacturing
exclusion at Section 721.104(a)(27).
2) If
the cause of the release was a spill that has not damaged the integrity of the
tank system, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material may return the tank system to service as soon as
the released material is removed and repairs, if necessary, are made.
3) If
the cause of the release was a leak from the primary tank system into the
secondary containment system, the primary tank system must be repaired prior to
returning the tank system to service.
4) If
the source of the release was a leak to the environment from a component of a
tank system without secondary containment, the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must provide the
component of the tank system from which the leak occurred with secondary
containment that satisfies the requirements of Section 721.293 before it can be
returned to service, unless the source of the leak is an aboveground portion of
a tank system that can be inspected visually. If the source is an aboveground
component that can be inspected visually, the component must be repaired and
may be returned to service without secondary containment as long as the
requirements of subsection (f) are satisfied. Additionally, if a leak has
occurred in any portion of a tank system component that is not readily
accessible for visual inspection (e.g., the bottom of an inground or on-ground
tank), the entire component must be provided with secondary containment in
accordance with Section 721.193 prior to being returned to use.
f) Certification
of major repairs. If the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material has repaired a tank system in accordance with
subsection (e), and the repair has been extensive (e.g., installation of an
internal liner, repair of a ruptured primary containment or secondary containment
vessel, etc.), the tank system must not be returned to service, unless the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material has obtained a certification by a qualified Professional Engineer that
the repaired system is capable of handling hazardous secondary materials
without release for the intended life of the system. This certification must
be kept on file at the facility and maintained until closure of the facility.
BOARD NOTE: USEPA stated in note
1 appended to corresponding 40 CFR 261.196 that the Regional Administrator may,
on the basis of any information received that there is or has been a release of
hazardous secondary material or hazardous constituents into the environment,
issue an order under RCRA section 7003(a) (42 USC 6973(a)) requiring corrective
action or such other response as deemed necessary to protect human health or
the environment. USEPA stated in note 2 appended to corresponding 40 CFR
261.196 that 40 CFR 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the
National Response Center of certain releases.
(Source: Amended at 43 Ill. Reg. 5884,
effective May 2, 2019)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.297 TERMINATION OF REMANUFACTURING EXCLUSION
Section 721.297 Termination of Remanufacturing Exclusion
Hazardous secondary material stored in units more than 90
days after the unit ceases to operate under the remanufacturing exclusion at
Section 721.104(a)(27) or otherwise ceases to be operated for manufacturing, or
for storage of a product or a raw material, then becomes subject to regulation
as hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, and 721 through 728,
as applicable.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.298 SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR IGNITABLE OR REACTIVE MATERIALS
Section 721.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or
Reactive Materials
a) Ignitable
or reactive material must not be placed in a tank system, unless the material
is stored or treated in such a way that it is protected from any material or conditions
that may cause the material to ignite or react.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary
material that is ignitable or reactive must store or treat the hazardous
secondary material in a tank system that is in compliance with the requirements
for the maintenance of protective distances between the material management
area and any public ways, streets, alleys, or an adjoining property line that
can be built upon as required in Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of the National Fire
Protection Association's "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code",
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.299 SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS FOR INCOMPATIBLE MATERIALS
Section 721.299 Special Requirements for Incompatible
Materials
a) Incompatible materials
must not be placed together in the same tank system.
b) Hazardous
secondary material must not be placed in a tank system that has not been decontaminated
and that previously held an incompatible material.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.300 AIR EMISSION STANDARDS
Section 721.300 Air Emission Standards
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must manage all hazardous secondary material
placed in a tank in accordance with the applicable requirements of Subparts AA,
BB, and CC.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
SUBPART M: EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS AND RESPONSE FOR MANAGEMENT OF EXCLUDED HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIALS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.500 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.500 Applicability
The requirements of Subpart M apply to those areas of an
entity managing hazardous secondary materials excluded under Section
721.104(a)(23) or (a)(24) where hazardous secondary materials are generated or accumulated
on site.
a) A
generator of hazardous secondary material, or an intermediate or reclamation
facility operating, that accumulates 6,000 kg or less of hazardous secondary
material at any time must comply with Sections 721.510 and 721.511.
b) A generator
of hazardous secondary material, or an intermediate or reclamation facility
that accumulates more than 6,000 kg of hazardous secondary material at any time
must comply with Sections 721.510 and 721.520.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.510 PREPAREDNESS AND PREVENTION
Section 721.510 Preparedness and Prevention
a) Maintaining
and Operating the Facility. Facilities generating or accumulating hazardous
secondary material must be maintained and operated to minimize the possibility
of a fire, explosion, or any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of
hazardous secondary materials or hazardous secondary material constituents to
air, soil, or surface water that could threaten human health or the
environment.
b) Required
Equipment. All facilities generating or accumulating hazardous secondary
material must be equipped with the following, unless none of the hazards posed
by hazardous secondary material handled at the facility could require a
particular kind of equipment specified below:
1) An
internal communications or alarm system capable of providing immediate
emergency instruction (voice or signal) to facility personnel;
2) A
device, like a telephone (immediately available at the scene of operations) or
a hand-held two-way radio, capable of summoning emergency assistance from local
police departments, fire departments, or state or local emergency response
teams;
3) Portable
fire extinguishers, fire control equipment (including special extinguishing
equipment, like those using foam, inert gas, or dry chemicals), spill control
equipment, and decontamination equipment; and
4) Water
at adequate volume and pressure to supply water hose streams, or foam producing
equipment, or automatic sprinklers, or water spray systems.
c) Testing
and Maintenance of Equipment. The owner or operator must test and maintain all
required facility communications or alarm systems, fire protection equipment,
spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment as necessary to assure
its proper operation in time of emergency.
d) Access to Communications
or Alarm System
1) Whenever
hazardous secondary material is being poured, mixed, spread, or otherwise
handled, all personnel involved in the operation must have immediate access to
an internal alarm or emergency communication device, either directly or through
visual or voice contact with another employee, unless the device is not
required under subsection (b).
2) If
there is ever just one employee on the premises while the facility is
operating, the employee must have immediate access to a device, like a
telephone (immediately available at the scene of operation) or a hand-held two-way
radio, capable of summoning external emergency assistance, unless the device is
not required under subsection (b).
e) Required
Aisle Space. The hazardous secondary material generator or intermediate or
reclamation facility must maintain aisle space to allow the unobstructed
movement of personnel, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and
decontamination equipment to any area of facility operation in an emergency,
unless aisle space is not needed for any of these purposes.
f) Arrangements with Local Authorities
1) The
hazardous secondary material generator or an intermediate or reclamation
facility must attempt to make the following arrangements, as appropriate for
the type of waste handled at its facility and the potential need for the
services of these organizations:
A) Arrangements
to familiarize police, fire departments, and emergency response teams with the
layout of the facility, properties of hazardous secondary material handled at
the facility and associated hazards, places where facility personnel would
normally be working, entrances to roads inside the facility, and possible
evacuation routes;
B) If
more than one police and fire department might respond to an emergency,
agreements designating primary emergency authority to a specific police department
and a specific fire department, and agreements with any others to provide
support to the primary emergency authority;
C) Agreements
with state emergency response teams, emergency response contractors, and
equipment suppliers; and
D) Arrangements
to familiarize local hospitals with the properties of hazardous waste handled
at the facility and the types of injuries or illnesses that could result from
fires, explosions, or releases at the facility.
2) When
state or local authorities decline to enter into the arrangements required by
this subsection (f), the hazardous secondary material generator or an intermediate
or reclamation facility must document the refusal in the operating record.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.511 EMERGENCY PROCEDURES FOR FACILITIES GENERATING OR ACCUMULATING 6,000 KG OR LESS OF HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIAL
Section 721.511 Emergency Procedures for Facilities
Generating or Accumulating 6,000 kg or Less of Hazardous Secondary Material
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility that
generates or accumulates 6,000 kg or less of hazardous secondary material must
comply with the following requirements:
a) At
all times there must be at least one employee either on the premises or on call
(i.e., available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a
short period of time) with the responsibility for coordinating all emergency
response measures specified in subsection (d). This employee is the emergency
coordinator.
b) The
generator or intermediate or reclamation facility must post the following
information next to the telephone:
1) The name and telephone
number of the emergency coordinator;
2) Location
of fire extinguishers and spill control material, and, if present, fire alarm;
and
3) The
telephone number of the fire department, unless the facility has a direct
alarm.
c) The
generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility must ensure that all
employees are thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling and emergency
procedures, relevant to their responsibilities during normal facility
operations and emergencies.
d) The
emergency coordinator or their designee must respond to any emergencies that
arise. The applicable responses are as follows:
1) In
the event of a fire, call the fire department or attempt to extinguish it using
a fire extinguisher;
2) In
the event of a spill, contain the flow of hazardous waste to the extent
possible and, as soon as is practicable, clean up the hazardous waste and any
contaminated materials or soil;
3) In
the event of a fire, explosion, or other release that could threaten human health
outside the facility or when the generator or an intermediate or reclamation
facility has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water, the generator or
an intermediate or reclamation facility must immediately notify the National
Response Center (using their 24-hour toll free number 800-424-8802). The
report must include the following information:
A) The
name, address, and USEPA identification number of the facility;
B) The date, time, and type
of incident (e.g., spill or fire);
C) The quantity and type of
hazardous waste involved in the incident;
D) The extent of injuries,
if any; and
E) The
estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials, if any.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.520 CONTINGENCY PLANNING AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES FOR FACILITIES GENERATING OR ACCUMULATING MORE THAN 6,000 KG OF HAZARDOUS SECONDARY MATERIAL
Section 721.520 Contingency Planning and Emergency
Procedures for Facilities Generating or Accumulating More Than 6,000 kg of
Hazardous Secondary Material
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility that
generates or accumulates more than 6,000 kg of hazardous secondary material
must comply with the following requirements:
a) Purpose
of and Implementing Contingency Plan
1) Each
generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility that accumulates more than
6,000 kg of hazardous secondary material must have a contingency plan for its
facility. The contingency plan must be designed to minimize hazards to human
health or the environment from fires, explosions, or any unplanned sudden or
non-sudden release of hazardous secondary material or hazardous secondary
material constituents to air, soil, or surface water.
2) The
provisions of the contingency plan must be carried out immediately whenever
there is a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous secondary material or
hazardous secondary material constituents that could threaten human health or
the environment.
b) Content of Contingency Plan
1) The
contingency plan must describe the actions facility personnel must take to
comply with subsections (a) and (f) in response to fires, explosions, or any
unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous secondary material or
hazardous secondary material constituents to air, soil, or surface water at the
facility.
2) If
the generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility accumulating more than
6,000 kg of hazardous secondary material has already prepared a Spill
Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (SPCC) Plan under 40 CFR 112, or some
other emergency or contingency plan, the facility needs only amend that plan to
incorporate hazardous secondary material management provisions that are
sufficient to comply with this Part. The hazardous secondary material
generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility may develop one
contingency plan that meets all regulatory requirements. When modifications
are made to non-RCRA provisions in an integrated contingency plan, the changes
do not trigger the need for a RCRA permit modification.
BOARD NOTE: USEPA has recommended
that the contingency plan be based on the National Response Team's Integrated
Contingency Plan Guidance ("One Plan").
3) The
contingency plan must describe arrangements agreed to by local police
departments, fire departments, hospitals, contractors, and State and local
emergency response teams to coordinate emergency services, under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.510(f).
4) The
contingency plan must list names, addresses, and phone numbers (office and
home) of all persons qualified to act as emergency coordinator (see subsection
(e)), and this list must be kept up to date. If more than one person is
listed, one must be named as primary emergency coordinator and others must be
listed in the order in which they will assume responsibility as alternates.
5) The
contingency plan must include a list of all emergency equipment at the facility
(like fire extinguishing systems, spill control equipment, communications and
alarm systems (internal and external), and decontamination equipment), if this
equipment is required. This list must be kept up to date. In addition, the
plan must include the location and a physical description of each emergency
equipment item on the list, and a brief outline of its capabilities.
6) The
contingency plan must include an evacuation plan for facility personnel if
there is a possibility that evacuation could be necessary. This evacuation
plan must describe signals to be used to begin evacuation, evacuation routes,
and alternate evacuation routes (if the primary routes could be blocked by
releases of hazardous secondary material or fires).
c) Copies
of Contingency Plan. The facility owner or operator must do as follows with
the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan:
1) Maintain a copy at the
facility; and
2) Submit
a copy to every local police department, fire department, hospital, and State
and local emergency response team that may be called upon to provide emergency
services.
d) Amendment
of Contingency Plan. The facility owner or operator must review and
immediately amend its contingency plan, if necessary, whenever any of the following
occurs:
1) Applicable regulations
are revised;
2) The plan fails in an
emergency;
3) The
facility changes − in its design, construction, operation, maintenance,
or other circumstances − in a way that materially increases the potential
for fires, explosions, or releases of hazardous secondary material or hazardous
secondary material constituents, or the facility changes the response necessary
in an emergency;
4) The list of emergency
coordinators changes; or
5) The list of emergency
equipment changes.
e) Emergency
Coordinator. At all times, there must be at least one employee, either on the
facility premises or on call (i.e., available to respond to an emergency by
reaching the facility within a short period of time), with the responsibility
for coordinating all emergency response measures. This emergency coordinator
must be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the facility's contingency
plan, all operations and activities at the facility, the location and
characteristics of hazardous secondary materials handled, the location of all
records within the facility, and the facility layout. In addition, this person
must have the authority to commit the resources needed to carry out the
contingency plan. The emergency coordinator's responsibilities are more fully
spelled out in subsection (f). Applicable responsibilities for the emergency
coordinator vary, depending on factors like type and variety of hazardous
secondary materials handled by the facility, and type and complexity of the
facility.
f) Emergency Procedures
1) Whenever
there is an imminent or actual emergency, the emergency coordinator (or his
designee when the emergency coordinator is on call) must immediately:
A) Activate
internal facility alarms or communication systems, when applicable, to notify
all facility personnel; and
B) Notify
appropriate State or local agencies with designated response roles if their
help is needed.
2) Whenever
there is a release, fire, or explosion, the emergency coordinator must
immediately identify the character, exact source, amount, and areal extent of
any released materials. The emergency coordinator may do this by observation
or review of facility records or manifests and, if necessary, by chemical
analysis.
3) Concurrently,
the emergency coordinator must assess possible hazards to human health or the
environment that may result from the release, fire, or explosion. This
assessment must consider both direct and indirect effects of the release, fire,
or explosion (e.g., the effects of any toxic, irritating, or asphyxiating gases
that are generated, or the effects of any hazardous surface water run-offs from
water or chemical agents used to control fire and heat-induced explosions).
4) If
the emergency coordinator determines that the facility has had a release, fire,
or explosion that could threaten human health, or the environment, outside the
facility, the emergency coordinator must report its findings as follows:
A) If the
emergency coordinator's assessment indicates that evacuating local areas may be
advisable, the emergency coordinator must immediately notify appropriate local
authorities. The emergency coordinator must be available to help appropriate
officials decide whether local areas should be evacuated; and
B) The
emergency coordinator must immediately notify either the government official
designated as the on-scene coordinator for that geographical area, or the
National Response Center (using their 24-hour toll free number 800-424-8802).
The report must include the following information:
i) The name and telephone
number of the reporter;
ii) The name and address
of facility;
iii) The time and type of
incident (e.g., release, fire);
iv) The
name and quantity of materials involved, to the extent known;
v) The extent of injuries,
if any; and
vi) The
possible hazards to human health, or the environment, outside the facility.
5) During
an emergency, the emergency coordinator must take all reasonable measures
necessary to ensure that fires, explosions, and releases do not occur, recur,
or spread to other hazardous secondary material at the facility. These
measures must include, when applicable, stopping processes and operations,
collecting, and containing released material, and removing or isolating
containers.
6) If
the facility stops operations in response to a fire, explosion or release, the
emergency coordinator must monitor for leaks, pressure buildup, gas generation,
or ruptures in valves, pipes, or other equipment, wherever this is appropriate.
7) Immediately
after an emergency, the emergency coordinator must provide for treating,
storing, or disposing of recovered secondary material, contaminated soil or
surface water, or any other material that results from a release, fire, or
explosion at the facility. Unless the hazardous secondary material generator
can demonstrate, in compliance with Section 721.103(c) or (d), that the
recovered material is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a
generator of hazardous waste and must manage the recovered material in compliance
with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, 723, and 725.
8) The
emergency coordinator must ensure that the following has occurred in the
affected areas of the facility:
A) Any
secondary material that may be incompatible with the released material is
treated, stored, or disposed of until cleanup procedures are completed; and
B) All
emergency equipment listed in the contingency plan is cleaned and fit for its
intended use before operations are resumed.
9) The
hazardous secondary material generator must note in the operating record the
time, date, and details of any incident that requires implementing the
contingency plan. Within 15 days after the incident, the emergency coordinator
must submit a written report on the incident to the Regional Administrator.
The report must include the following information:
A) The
name, address, and telephone number of the hazardous secondary material
generator;
B) The name, address, and
telephone number of the facility;
C) The date, time, and type
of incident (e.g., fire, explosion, etc.);
D) The name and quantity of
materials involved;
E) The extent of injuries,
if any;
F) An
assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment,
when this is applicable; and
G) The estimated
quantity and disposition of recovered material that resulted from the incident.
g) Personnel
Training. All employees must be thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling
and emergency procedures relevant to their responsibilities during normal
facility operations and emergencies.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.930 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.930 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart AA apply to process vents
associated with distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or stream stripping operations that manage hazardous secondary
materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at Section
721.104(a)(27) with organic concentrations of at least 10 ppmw (parts per
million by weight), unless the process vents are equipped with operating air
emission controls in accordance with the requirements of an applicable federal
Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.931 DEFINITIONS
Section 721.931 Definitions
As used in this Subpart AA, all terms not defined in this Section
will have the meaning given them in section 1004 of the Resource Conservation
and Recovery Act, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, and
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726.
"Air stripping
operation" is a desorption operation employed to transfer one or more
volatile components from a liquid mixture into a gas (air) either with or
without the application of heat to the liquid. Packed towers, spray towers,
and bubble-cap, sieve, or valve-type plate towers are among the process
configurations used for contacting the air and a liquid.
"Bottoms receiver" means
a container or tank used to receive and collect the heavier bottoms fractions
of the distillation feed stream that remain in the liquid phase.
"Closed-vent system"
means a system that is not open to the atmosphere and that is composed of
piping, connections, and, if necessary, flow-inducing devices that transport
gas or vapor from a piece or pieces of equipment to a control device.
"Condenser" means a
heat-transfer device that reduces a thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to
its liquid phase.
"Connector" means
flanged, screwed, welded, or other joined fittings used to connect two
pipelines or a pipeline and a piece of equipment. For the purposes of
reporting and recordkeeping, connector means flanged fittings that are not
covered by insulation or other materials that prevent location of the fittings.
"Continuous recorder"
means a data-recording device recording an instantaneous data value at least
once every 15 minutes.
"Control device" means
an enclosed combustion device, vapor recovery system, or flare. Any device the
primary function of which is the recovery or capture of solvents or other
organics for use, reuse, or sale (e.g., a primary condenser on a solvent
recovery unit) is not a control device.
"Control device
shutdown" means the cessation of operation of a control device for any
purpose.
"Distillate receiver"
means a container or tank used to receive and collect liquid material
(condensed) from the overhead condenser of a distillation unit and from which
the condensed liquid is pumped to larger storage tanks or other process units.
"Distillation operation"
means an operation, either batch or continuous, separating one or more feed
streams into two or more exit streams, each exit stream having component
concentrations different from those in the feed streams. The separation is
achieved by the redistribution of the components between the liquid and vapor
phase as they approach equilibrium within the distillation unit.
"Double block and bleed
system" means two block valves connected in series with a bleed valve or
line that can vent the line between the two block valves.
"Equipment" means each
valve, pump, compressor, pressure relief device, sampling connection system,
open-ended valve or line, or flange or other connector, and any control devices
or systems required by this Subpart AA.
"Flame zone" means the
portion of the combustion chamber in a boiler occupied by the flame envelope.
"Flow indicator" means a
device that indicates whether gas flow is present in a vent stream.
"First attempt at repair"
means to take rapid action for the purpose of stopping or reducing leakage of
organic material to the atmosphere using best practices.
"Fractionation
operation" means a distillation operation or method used to separate a
mixture of several volatile components of different boiling points in
successive stages, each stage removing from the mixture some proportion of one
of the components.
"Hazardous secondary material
management unit shutdown" means a work practice or operational procedure
that stops operation of a hazardous secondary material management unit or part
of a hazardous secondary material management unit. An unscheduled work
practice or operational procedure that stops operation of a hazardous secondary
material management unit or part of a hazardous secondary material management
unit for less than 24 hours is not a hazardous secondary material management
unit shutdown. The use of spare equipment and technically feasible bypassing
of equipment without stopping operation are not hazardous secondary material
management unit shutdowns.
"Hot well" means a
container for collecting condensate as in a steam condenser serving a
vacuum-jet or steam-jet ejector.
"In gas/vapor service"
means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a hazardous secondary
material stream that is in the gaseous state at operating conditions.
"In heavy liquid
service" means that the piece of equipment is not in gas/vapor service or
in light liquid service.
"In light liquid
service" means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a material
stream where the vapor pressure of one or more of the organic components in the
stream is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20 °C, the total concentration
of the pure organic components having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at
20 °C is equal to or greater than 20 percent by weight, and the fluid is a
liquid at operating conditions.
"In situ sampling
systems" means non-extractive samplers or in-line samplers.
"In vacuum service"
means that equipment is operating at an internal pressure that is at least 5
kPa below ambient pressure.
"Malfunction" means any
sudden failure of a control device or a hazardous secondary material management
unit or failure of a hazardous secondary material management unit to operate in
a normal or usual manner, so that organic emissions are increased.
"Open-ended valve or
line" means any valve, except pressure relief valves, having one side of
the valve seat in contact with hazardous secondary material and one side open
to the atmosphere, either directly or through open piping.
"Pressure release" means
the emission of materials resulting from the system pressure being greater than
the set pressure of the pressure relief device.
"Process heater" means a
device that transfers heat liberated by burning fuel to fluids contained in tubes,
including all fluids except water that are heated to produce steam.
"Process vent" means any
open-ended pipe or stack that is vented to the atmosphere either directly,
through a vacuum-producing system, or through a tank (e.g., distillate
receiver, condenser, bottoms receiver, surge control tank, separator tank, or
hot well) associated with hazardous secondary material distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam
stripping operations.
"Repaired" means that equipment
is adjusted, or otherwise altered, to eliminate a leak.
"Sampling connection
system" means an assembly of equipment within a process or material
management unit used during periods of representative operation to take samples
of the process or material fluid. Equipment used to take non-routine grab
samples is not considered a sampling connection system.
"Sensor" means a device
that measures a physical quantity or the change in a physical quantity, such as
temperature, pressure, flow rate, pH, or liquid level.
"Separator tank" means a
device used for separation of two immiscible liquids.
"Solvent extraction
operation" means an operation or method of separation in which a solid or
solution is contacted with a liquid solvent (the two being mutually insoluble)
to preferentially dissolve and transfer one or more components into the
solvent.
"Startup" means the
setting in operation of a hazardous secondary material management unit or
control device for any purpose.
"Steam stripping
operation" means a distillation operation in which vaporization of the
volatile constituents of a liquid mixture takes place by the introduction of
steam directly into the charge.
"Surge control tank"
means a large-sized pipe or storage reservoir sufficient to contain the surging
liquid discharge of the process tank to which it is connected.
"Thin-film evaporation
operation" means a distillation operation that employs a heating surface
consisting of a large diameter tube that may be either straight or tapered,
horizontal or vertical. Liquid is spread on the tube wall by a rotating
assembly of blades that maintain a close clearance from the wall or actually
ride on the film of liquid on the wall.
"Vapor incinerator"
means any enclosed combustion device that is used for destroying organic
compounds and does not extract energy in the form of steam or process heat.
"Vented" means
discharged through an opening, typically an open-ended pipe or stack, allowing
the passage of a stream of liquids, gases, or fumes into the atmosphere. The
passage of liquids, gases, or fumes is caused by mechanical means such as
compressors or vacuum-producing systems or by process-related means such as
evaporation produced by heating and not caused by tank loading and unloading
(working losses) or by natural means such as diurnal temperature changes.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.932 STANDARDS: PROCESS VENTS
Section 721.932 Standards: Process Vents
a) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary
materials in hazardous secondary material management units with process vents
associated with distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping operations managing hazardous secondary
material with organic concentrations of at least 10 ppmw must either:
1) Reduce
total organic emissions from all affected process vents at the facility below
1.4 kg/h (3 lb/h) and 2.8 Mg/yr (3.1 tons/yr); or
2) Reduce,
by use of a control device, total organic emissions from all affected process
vents at the facility by 95 weight percent.
b) If
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material installs a closed-vent system and control device to comply
with the provisions of subsection (a) the closed-vent system and control device
must meet the requirements of Section 721.933.
c) Determinations
of vent emissions and emission reductions or total organic compound
concentrations achieved by add-on control devices may be based on engineering
calculations or performance tests. If performance tests are used to determine
vent emissions, emission reductions, or total organic compound concentrations
achieved by add-on control devices, the performance tests must conform with the
requirements of Section 721.934(c).
d) When
a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material and the Agency do not agree on determinations of vent emissions or
emission reductions or total organic compound concentrations achieved by add-on
control devices based on engineering calculations, the procedures in Section
721.934(c) must be used to resolve the disagreement. The Agency must state any
disagreement on a determination of vent emissions or emission reductions in
writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.933 STANDARDS: CLOSED-VENT SYSTEMS AND CONTROL DEVICES
Section 721.933 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and
Control Devices
a) Applicability
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
materials in hazardous secondary material management units using closed-vent
systems and control devices used to comply with provisions of this Part must
comply with the provisions of this Section.
2) This
subsection (a)(2) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.1033, which USEPA has marked
"reserved". This statement maintains structural consistency with the
federal regulations.
b) A
control device involving vapor recovery (e.g., a condenser or adsorber) must be
designed and operated to recover the organic vapors vented to it with an
efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater unless the total organic emission
limits of Section 721.932(a)(1) for all affected process vents can be attained
at an efficiency less than 95 weight percent.
c) An
enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process
heater) must be designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions vented to
it by 95 weight percent or greater; to achieve a total organic compound
concentration of 20 ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds, not
carbon equivalents, on a dry basis corrected to three percent oxygen; or to
provide a minimum residence time of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of
760°C. If a boiler or process heater is used as the control device, then the
vent stream must be introduced into the flame zone of the boiler or process
heater.
d) Flares
1) A
flare must be designed for and operated with no visible emissions, as
determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(1), except for periods
not to exceed a total of five minutes during any two consecutive hours.
2) The owner
or operator must operate a flare with a flame present at all times, as
determined by the methods specified in subsection (f)(2)(C).
3) A
flare must be used only if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is
11.2 MJ/scm (300 Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is steam-assisted or
air-assisted; or if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is 7.45
MJ/scm (200 Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is non-assisted. The net heating
value of the gas being combusted must be determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(2).
4) Exit Velocity
A) A
steam-assisted or unassisted flare must be designed for and operated with an
exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(3),
less than 18.3 m/s (60 ft/s), except as provided in subsections (d)(4)(B) and
(C).
B) A
steam-assisted or non-assisted flare designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(3), equal to
or greater than 18.3 m/s (60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed
if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is greater than 37.3 MJ/scm
(1,000 Btu/scf).
C) A
steam-assisted or non-assisted flare designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(3), less
than the velocity, Vmax, as determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(4), and less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed.
5) An
air-assisted flare must be designed and operated with an exit velocity less
than the velocity, Vmax, as determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(5).
6) A
flare used to comply with this Section must be steam-assisted, air-assisted, or
unassisted.
e) Compliance Determination
and Equations
1) Reference
Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from Material Sources and
Smoke Emissions from Flares) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, must be used to
determine the compliance of a flare with the visible emission provisions of
this Subpart AA. The observation period is two hours and must be used according
to Method 22.
2) The
net heating value of the gas being combusted in a flare must be calculated
using the following equation:

Where:
|
HT
|
=
|
Net heating value of the sample,
MJ/scm; if the net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at 25°C
and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for determining the volume
corresponding to one mol is 20°C
|
|
K
|
=
|
Constant, 1.74 × 10-7 (1/ppm) (g mol/scm)
(MJ/kcal) if standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20°C
|
|
Ci
|
=
|
Concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet basis,
as measured for organics by Reference Method 18 (Measurement of Gaseous
Organic Compound Emissions by Gas Chromatography) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, and
measured for hydrogen and carbon monoxide by ASTM D 1946-90, incorporated by
reference in Section 720.111
|
|
Hi
|
=
|
Net heat of combustion of sample component i, kcal/g mol
at 25°C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion may be determined using ASTM
D 2382-83, incorporated by reference in Section 720.111, if published values
are not available or cannot be calculated.
|
3) The
actual exit velocity of a flare must be determined by dividing the volumetric
flow rate (in units of standard temperature and pressure), as determined by
Reference Methods 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow
Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)), 2A (Direct Measurement of Gas Volume through Pipes
and Small Ducts), 2C (Determination of Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate in
Small Stacks or Ducts (Standard Pitot Tube)), or 2D (Measurement of Gas Volume
Flow Rates in Small Pipes and Ducts) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, as appropriate, by
the unobstructed (free) cross-sectional area of the flare tip.
4) The
maximum allowed velocity in m/s, Vmax, for a flare complying with
subsection (d)(4)(C) must be determined by the following equation:

Where:
|
HT
|
=
|
The net heating value as
determined in subsection (c)(2)
|
5) The
maximum allowed velocity in m/s, Vmax, for an air-assisted flare
must be determined by the following equation:

Where:
|
HT
|
=
|
The net heating value as
determined in subsection (c)(2)
|
f) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must monitor and inspect each control device required to comply with this
section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the control device by
implementing the following requirements:
1) Install,
calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer's specifications
a flow indicator that provides a record of vent stream flow from each affected
process vent to the control device at least once every hour. The flow
indicator sensor must be installed in the vent stream at the nearest feasible
point to the control device inlet but before the point at which the vent
streams are combined.
2) Install,
calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer's specifications
a device to continuously monitor control device operation as specified below:
A) For a
thermal vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have an accuracy of ±1 percent of the
temperature being monitored in °C or ±0.5°C, whichever is greater. The
temperature sensor must be installed at a location in the combustion chamber
downstream of the combustion zone.
B) For a
catalytic vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must be capable of monitoring temperature at
two locations and have an accuracy of ±1 percent of the temperature being
monitored in °C or ±0.5°C, whichever is greater. One temperature sensor must
be installed in the vent stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst
bed inlet and a second temperature sensor must be installed in the vent stream
at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed outlet.
C) For a
flare, a heat sensing monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
that indicates the continuous ignition of the pilot flame.
D) For a
boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity less than 44 MW, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder. The device
must have an accuracy of ±1 percent of the temperature being monitored in °C or
±0.5°C, whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be installed at a
location in the furnace downstream of the combustion zone.
E) For a
boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity greater than or
equal to 44 MW, a monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder to
measure a parameter(s) that indicates good combustion operating practices are
being used.
F) For a condenser,
either:
i) A
monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from
the condenser; or
ii) A
temperature monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder. The device
must be capable of monitoring temperature with an accuracy of ±1 percent of the
temperature being monitored in °C or ±0.5°C, whichever is greater. The temperature
sensor must be installed at a location in the exhaust vent stream from the
condenser exit (i.e., product side).
G) For a
carbon adsorption system that regenerates the carbon bed directly in the
control device like a fixed-bed carbon adsorber, either:
i) A
monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from
the carbon bed; or
ii) A
monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder to measure a parameter
that indicates the carbon bed is regenerated on a regular, predetermined time
cycle.
3) Inspect
the readings from each monitoring device required by subsections (f)(1) and
(f)(2) at least once each operating day to check control device operation and,
if necessary, immediately implement the corrective measures necessary to ensure
the control device operates in compliance with this Section.
g) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary
material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a carbon
adsorption system like a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates the carbon
bed directly onsite in the control device must replace the existing carbon in
the control device with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined time interval
that is no longer than the carbon service life established as a requirement of
Section 721.935(b)(4)(C)(vi).
h) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary
material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a carbon
adsorption system like a carbon canister that does not regenerate the carbon
bed directly onsite in the control device must replace the existing carbon in
the control device with fresh carbon on a regular basis by using one of the following
procedures:
1) Monitor
the concentration level of the organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream
from the carbon adsorption system on a regular schedule and replace the
existing carbon with fresh carbon immediately when carbon breakthrough is indicated.
The monitoring frequency must be daily or at an interval no greater than 20
percent of the time required to consume the total carbon working capacity
established as a requirement of Section 721.935(b)(4)(C)(vii), whichever is
longer.
2) Replace
the existing carbon with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined time interval
that is less than the design carbon replacement interval established as a
requirement of Section 721.935(b)(4)(C)(vii).
i) An
alternative operational or process parameter may be monitored if it can be
demonstrated that another parameter will ensure that the control device is
operated in conformance with these standards and the control device's design
specifications.
j) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary
material at an affected facility seeking to comply with the provisions of this
part by using a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator,
catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon
adsorption system must develop documentation including sufficient information
to describe the control device operation and identify the process parameter or
parameters that indicate proper operation and maintenance of the control
device.
k) A closed-vent system
must meet either of the following design requirements:
1) A
closed-vent system must be designed to operate with no detectable emissions, as
indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv above background as
determined by the procedure in Section 721.934(b), and by visual inspections;
or
2) A
closed-vent system must be designed to operate at a pressure below atmospheric
pressure. The system must be equipped with at least one pressure gauge or
other pressure measurement device that can be read from a readily accessible
location to verify that negative pressure is being maintained in the
closed-vent system when the control device is operating.
l) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must monitor and inspect each closed-vent system required to comply
with this section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the closed-vent
system by implementing the following requirements:
1) Each
closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (k)(1) must be
inspected and monitored in compliance with the following requirements:
A) An
initial leak detection monitoring of the closed-vent system must be conducted
by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material on or before the date that the system becomes subject to this section.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must monitor the closed-vent system components and
connections using the procedures specified in Section 721.934(b) to demonstrate
that the closed-vent system operates with no detectable emissions, as indicated
by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv above background.
B) After
initial leak detection monitoring required in subsection (l)(1)(A), the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect and monitor the closed-vent system as follows:
i) Closed-vent
system joints, seams, or other connections that are permanently or semi-permanently
sealed (e.g., a welded joint between two sections of hard piping or a bolted
and gasketed ducting flange) must be visually inspected at least once per year
to check for defects that could result in air pollutant emissions. The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must monitor a component or connection using the procedures specified
in Section 721.934(b) to demonstrate that it operates with no detectable
emissions following any time the component is repaired or replaced (e.g., a
section of damaged hard piping is replaced with new hard piping) or the
connection is unsealed (e.g., a flange is unbolted).
ii) Closed-vent
system components or connections other than those specified in subsection (l)(1)(B)(i)
must be monitored annually and at other times as requested by the Agency,
except as provided for in subsection (o), using the procedures specified in
Section 721.934(b) to demonstrate that the components or connections operate
with no detectable emissions. The Agency must make any request for monitoring
in writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material.
C) If a
defect or leak is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect or leak in compliance
with subsection (l)(3).
D) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection and monitoring in compliance
with the requirements specified in Section 721.935.
2) Each
closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (k)(2) must be
inspected and monitored as follows:
A) The
closed-vent system must be visually inspected by the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material to check for
defects that could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include visible
cracks, holes, or gaps in ductwork or piping or loose connections.
B) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must perform an initial inspection of the closed-vent system on or
before the date that the system becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter,
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must perform the inspections at least once every year.
C) If a
defect or leak is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect or the leak in compliance
with subsection (l)(3).
D) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection and monitoring in compliance
with the requirements specified in Section 721.935.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must repair all detected defects as follows:
A) Detectable
emissions, as indicated by visual inspection, or by an instrument reading
greater than 500 ppmv above background, must be controlled as soon as
practicable, but not later than 15 calendar days after the emission is
detected, except as provided for in subsection (l)(3)(C).
B) A
first attempt at repair must be made within 5 calendar days after the emission
is detected.
C) Delay
of repair of a closed-vent system for which leaks have been detected is allowed
if the repair is technically infeasible without a process unit shutdown, or if
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material determines that emissions resulting from immediate repair
would be greater than the fugitive emissions likely to result from delay of
repair. Repair of the equipment must be completed by the end of the next
process unit shutdown.
D) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the defect repair in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.935.
m) Closed-vent
systems and control devices used to comply with provisions of this Subpart AA
must be operated at all times when emissions may be vented to them.
n) The
owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system to control air pollutant
emissions must document that all carbon that is a hazardous waste and that is
removed from the control device is managed in one of the following manners,
regardless of the average volatile organic concentration of the carbon:
1) Regenerated
or reactivated in a thermal treatment unit that meets one of the following:
A) The
owner or operator of the unit has been issued a final permit under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements Subpart X; or
B) The
unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in compliance with
the applicable requirements of Subparts AA and CC or Subparts AA and CC of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725; or
C) The
unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in compliance with a
national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants under 40 CFR 61
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants) or 40 CFR 63
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source
Categories), each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
2) Incinerated
in a hazardous waste incinerator for which the owner or operator either:
A) Has
been issued a final permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that
implements Subpart O; or
B) Has
designed and operates the incinerator in compliance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
3) Burned
in a boiler or industrial furnace for which the owner or operator either:
A) Has
been issued a final permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that
implements Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; or
B) Has
designed and operates the boiler or industrial furnace in compliance with the
interim status requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.
o) Any
components of a closed-vent system that are designated, as described in Section
721.935(c)(9), as unsafe to monitor are exempt from subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) if
both of the following conditions are met:
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a closed-vent
system determines that the components of the closed-vent system are unsafe to
monitor because monitoring personnel would be exposed to an immediate danger as
a consequence of complying with subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii); and
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a closed-vent
system adheres to a written plan that requires monitoring the closed-vent
system components using the procedure specified in subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) as
frequently as practicable during safe-to-monitor times.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.934 TEST METHODS AND PROCEDURES
Section 721.934 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must comply with the test
methods and procedural requirements provided in this Section.
b) When
a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as
required in Section 721.933(l) of this Subpart AA, the test must comply with
the following requirements:
1) Monitoring
must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of Volatile Organic
Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The
detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The
instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration
gases must be:
A) Zero air (less than 10
ppm of hydrocarbon in air).
B) A
mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of approximately, but
less than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The
background level must be determined as set forth in Reference Method 21.
6) The
instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak interfaces as
close to the interface as possible as described in Reference Method 21.
7) The
arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated by the
instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for determining
compliance.
c) Performance
tests to determine compliance with Section 721.932(a) and with the total
organic compound concentration limit of Section 721.933(c) must comply with the
following:
1) Performance
tests to determine total organic compound concentrations and mass flow rates
entering and exiting control devices must be conducted and data reduced in
accordance with the following reference methods and calculation procedures:
A) Reference
Method 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate (Type S
Pitot Tube)) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111 for velocity and volumetric flow rate.
B) Reference
Method 18 (Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound Emissions by Gas
Chromatography) or Reference Method 25A (Determination of Total Gaseous Organic
Concentration Using a Flame Ionization Analyzer) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, for
organic content. If Reference Method 25A is used, the organic HAP used as the
calibration gas must be the single organic HAP representing the largest percent
by volume of the emissions. The use of Reference Method 25A is acceptable if
the response from the high-level calibration gas is at least 20 times the
standard deviation of the response from the zero calibration gas when the
instrument is zeroed on the most sensitive scale.
C) Each
performance test must consist of three separate runs; each run must be conducted
for at least one hour under the conditions that exist when the hazardous
secondary material management unit is operating at the highest load or capacity
level reasonably expected to occur. For the purpose of determining total
organic compound concentrations and mass flow rates, the average of results of
all runs must apply. The average must be computed on a time-weighted basis.
D) Total
organic mass flow rates must be determined by the following equation:
i) For sources utilizing
Reference Method 18.

Where:
|
Eh
|
=
|
Total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h
|
|
Q2sd
|
=
|
Volumetric
flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by
Reference Method 2, dscm/h
|
|
n
|
=
|
Number of organic compounds in
the vent gas
|
|
Ci
|
=
|
Organic concentration in ppm,
dry basis, of compound i in the vent gas, as determined by Reference Method
18
|
|
MWi
|
=
|
Molecular
weight of organic compound i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol
|
|
0.0416
|
=
|
Conversion factor for molar
volume, kg-mol/m3 (@293 K and 760 mm Hg)
|
|
10-6
|
=
|
Conversion from ppm
|
ii) For
sources utilizing Reference Method 25A.
Eh=
(Q)(C)(MW)(0.0416)(10-6)
Where:
|
Eh
|
=
|
Total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h
|
|
Q
|
=
|
Volumetric
flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by
Reference Method 2, dscm/h
|
|
C
|
=
|
Organic concentration in ppm,
dry basis, as determined by Reference Method 25A
|
|
MW
|
=
|
Molecular weight of propane,
44
|
|
0.0416
|
=
|
Conversion factor for molar
volume, kg-mol/m3 (@293 K and 760 mm Hg)
|
|
10-6
|
=
|
Conversion from ppm
|
E) The
annual total organic emission rate must be determined by the following
equation:
EA=(Eh)(H)
Where:
|
EA
|
=
|
Total organic mass emission
rate, kg/y
|
|
Eh
|
=
|
Total organic
mass flow rate for the process vent, kg/h
|
|
H
|
=
|
Total annual hours of
operations for the affected unit, h/y
|
F) Total
organic emissions from all affected process vents at the facility must be
determined by summing the hourly total organic mass emission rates (Eh,
as determined in subsection (c)(1)(D)) and by summing the annual total organic
mass emission rates (EA, as determined in subsection (c)(1)(E)) for
all affected process vents at the facility.
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must record process information as necessary to determine the
conditions of the performance tests. Operations during periods of startup,
shutdown, and malfunction must not constitute representative conditions for the
purpose of a performance test.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material at an affected facility must provide, or cause to be provided,
performance testing facilities, as follows:
A) Sampling
ports adequate for the test methods specified in subsection (c)(1).
B) Safe sampling platforms.
C) Safe access to sampling
platforms.
D) Utilities for sampling
and testing equipment.
4) For
the purpose of making compliance determinations, the time-weighted average of
the results of the three runs must apply. In the event that a sample is
accidentally lost or conditions occur in which one of the three runs must be
discontinued because of forced shutdown, failure of an irreplaceable portion of
the sample train, extreme meteorological conditions, or other circumstances
beyond the control of the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material, the Agency may approve compliance
determination using the average of the results of the two other runs. The
Agency must state any approval or disapproval of a compliance determination in
writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material.
d) To
show that a process vent associated with a hazardous secondary material
distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air
or steam stripping operation is not subject to the requirements of this Subpart
AA, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must make an initial determination that the time-weighted,
annual average total organic concentration of the material managed by the
hazardous secondary material management unit is less than 10 ppmw using one of
the following two methods:
1) Direct
measurement of the organic concentration of the material using the following
procedures:
A) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must take a minimum of four grab samples of material for each material
stream managed in the affected unit under process conditions expected to cause
the maximum material organic concentration.
B) For
material generated onsite, the grab samples must be collected at a point before
the material is exposed to the atmosphere such as in an enclosed pipe or other closed
system that is used to transfer the material after generation to the first
affected distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping operation. For material generated
offsite, the grab samples must be collected at the inlet to the first material
management unit that receives the material provided the material has been
transferred to the facility in a closed system such as a tank truck and the
material is not diluted or mixed with other material.
C) Each
sample must be analyzed and the total organic concentration of the sample must
be computed using Method 9060A of "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods", EPA Publication SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or analyzed for its individual organic
constituents.
D) The
arithmetic mean of the results of the analyses of the four samples must apply
for each material stream managed in the unit in determining the time-weighted,
annual average total organic concentration of the material. The time-weighted
average is to be calculated using the annual quantity of each material stream
processed and the mean organic concentration of each material stream managed in
the unit.
2) Using
knowledge of the material to determine that its total organic concentration is
less than 10 ppmw. Documentation of the material determination is required.
Examples of documentation that must be used to support a determination under
this provision include production process information documenting that no
organic compounds are used, information that the material is generated by a
process that is identical to a process at the same or another facility that has
previously been demonstrated by direct measurement to generate a material stream
having a total organic content less than 10 ppmw, or prior speciation analysis
results on the same material stream where it can also be documented that no
process changes have occurred since that analysis that could affect the
material total organic concentration.
e) The
determination that distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping operations manage hazardous secondary
materials with time-weighted, annual average total organic concentrations less
than 10 ppmw must be made as follows:
1) By
the effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of this
Subpart AA or by the date when the material is first managed in a hazardous
secondary material management unit, whichever is later; and
2) For continuously
generated material, annually; or
3) Whenever
there is a change in the material being managed or a change in the process that
generates or treats the material.
f) When
a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material and the Agency do not agree on whether a distillation, fractionation,
thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operation
manages a hazardous secondary material with organic concentrations of at least 10
ppmw based on knowledge of the material, the dispute may be resolved by using
direct measurement, as specified at subsection (d)(1). The Agency must state
any disagreement in writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.935 RECORDKEEPING REQUIREMENTS
Section 721.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Compliance Required
1) Each
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must comply with the recordkeeping
requirements of this Section.
2) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material of more than one hazardous secondary material management unit subject
to the provisions of this Subpart AA may comply with the recordkeeping
requirements for these hazardous secondary material management units in one
recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each hazardous
secondary material management unit.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must keep the following records on-site:
1) For
facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 721.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule that includes dates by which the closed-vent system and
control device will be installed and in operation. The schedule must also
include a rationale of why the installation cannot be completed at an earlier
date. The implementation schedule must be kept on-site at the facility by the
effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of this
Subpart AA.
2) Up-to-date
documentation of compliance with the process vent standards in Section 721.932,
including the following:
A) Information
and data identifying all affected process vents, annual throughput and
operating hours of each affected unit, estimated emission rates for each
affected vent and for the overall facility (i.e., the total emissions for all
affected vents at the facility), and the approximate location within the
facility of each affected unit (e.g., identify the hazardous secondary material
management units on a facility plot plan).
B) Information
and data supporting determinations of vent emissions and emission reductions
achieved by add-on control devices based on engineering calculations or source
tests. For the purpose of determining compliance, determinations of vent
emissions and emission reductions must be made using operating parameter values
(e.g., temperatures, flow rates, or vent stream organic compounds and
concentrations) that represent the conditions that result in maximum organic
emissions, such as when the hazardous secondary material management unit is
operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur.
If the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material takes any action (e.g., managing a material of different
composition or increasing operating hours of affected hazardous secondary
material management units) that would result in an increase in total organic
emissions from affected process vents at the facility, then a new determination
is required.
3) Where
a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material chooses to use test data to determine the organic removal efficiency
or total organic compound concentration achieved by the control device, a
performance test plan must be developed and include the following:
A) A
description of how it is determined that the planned test is going to be
conducted when the hazardous secondary material management unit is operating at
the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur. This must
include the estimated or design flow rate and organic content of each vent
stream and define the acceptable operating ranges of key process and control
device parameters during the test program.
B) A
detailed engineering description of the closed-vent system and control device,
including the following:
i) Manufacturer's name
and model number of control device.
ii) Type of control
device.
iii) Dimensions of the
control device.
iv) Capacity.
v) Construction materials.
C) A
detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures, including sampling
and monitoring locations in the system, the equipment to be used, sampling and
monitoring frequency, and planned analytical procedures for sample analysis.
4) Documentation
of compliance with Section 721.933 must include the following information:
A) A list
of all information references and sources used in preparing the documentation.
B) Records,
including the dates, of each compliance test required by Section 721.933(k).
C) If
engineering calculations are used, a design analysis, specifications, drawings,
schematics, and piping and instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate
sections of "APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions",
incorporated by reference as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or other
engineering texts acceptable to the Agency that present basic control device
design information. Documentation provided by the control device manufacturer
or vendor that describes the control device design in accordance with
subsections (b)(4)(C)(i) through (b)(4)(C)(vii) may be used to comply with this
requirement. The design analysis must address the vent stream characteristics
and control device operation parameters, as specified below. The Agency must
state whether or not the other engineering texts are acceptable or unacceptable
in writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material.
i) For
a thermal vapor incinerator, the design analysis must consider the vent stream
composition, constituent concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis
must also establish the design minimum and average temperature in the
combustion zone and the combustion zone residence time.
ii) For
a catalytic vapor incinerator, the design analysis must consider the vent
stream composition, constituent concentrations, and flow rate. The design
analysis must also establish the design minimum and average temperatures across
the catalyst bed inlet and outlet.
iii) For
a boiler or process heater, the design analysis must consider the vent stream
composition, constituent concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis
must also establish the design minimum and average flame zone temperatures,
combustion zone residence time, and description of method and location where
the vent stream is introduced into the combustion zone.
iv) For a
flare, the design analysis must consider the vent stream composition,
constituent concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must also
consider the requirements specified in Section 721.933(d).
v) For a
condenser, the design analysis must consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, flow rate, relative humidity, and temperature. The design
analysis must also establish the design outlet organic compound concentration
level, design average temperature of the condenser exhaust vent stream, and
design average temperatures of the coolant fluid at the condenser inlet and
outlet.
vi) For a
carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed adsorber that regenerates the
carbon bed directly onsite in the control device, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow rate,
relative humidity, and temperature. The design analysis must also establish
the design exhaust vent stream organic compound concentration level, number and
capacity of carbon beds, type and working capacity of activated carbon used for
carbon beds, design total steam flow over the period of each complete carbon
bed regeneration cycle, duration of the carbon bed steaming and cooling/ drying
cycles, design carbon bed temperature after regeneration, design carbon bed
regeneration time, and design service life of carbon.
vii) For a
carbon adsorption system such as a carbon canister that does not regenerate the
carbon bed directly onsite in the control device, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow rate,
relative humidity, and temperature. The design analysis must also establish
the design outlet organic concentration level, capacity of carbon bed, type and
working capacity of activated carbon used for carbon bed, and design carbon
replacement interval based on the total carbon working capacity of the control
device and source operating schedule.
D) A
statement signed and dated by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material certifying that the operating
parameters used in the design analysis reasonably represent the conditions that
exist when the hazardous secondary material management unit is or would be
operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur.
E) A
statement signed and dated by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material certifying that the control device is
designed to operate at an efficiency of 95 percent or greater unless the total
organic concentration limit of Section 721.932(a) is achieved at an efficiency
less than 95 weight percent or the total organic emission limits of Section
721.932(a) for affected process vents at the facility can be attained by a
control device involving vapor recovery at an efficiency less than 95 weight
percent. A statement provided by the control device manufacturer or vendor
certifying that the control equipment meets the design specifications may be
used to comply with this requirement.
F) If performance
tests are used to demonstrate compliance, all test results.
c) Design
documentation and monitoring, operating, and inspection information for each
closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the provisions of
this part must be recorded and kept up-to-date at the facility. The
information must include the following:
1) Description
and date of each modification that is made to the closed-vent system or control
device design.
2) Identification
of operating parameter, description of monitoring device, and diagram of
monitoring sensor location or locations used to comply with Section 721.933
(f)(1) and (f)(2).
3) Monitoring,
operating, and inspection information required by Section 721.933(f) through
(k).
4) Date,
time, and duration of each period that occurs while the control device is
operating when any monitored parameter exceeds the value established in the
control device design analysis, as specified below:
A) For a
thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with a minimum residence time of
0.50 second at a minimum temperature of 760 °C, period when the combustion
temperature is below 760 °C.
B) For a
thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with an organic emission
reduction efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater, period when the
combustion zone temperature is more than 28 °C below the design average
combustion zone temperature established as a requirement of subsection
(b)(4)(C)(i).
C) For a
catalytic vapor incinerator, period when either of the following occurs:
i) Temperature
of the vent stream at the catalyst bed inlet is more than 28 °C below the
average temperature of the inlet vent stream established as a requirement of
subsection (b)(4)(C)(ii); or
ii) Temperature
difference across the catalyst bed is less than 80 percent of the design
average temperature difference established as a requirement of subsection
(b)(4)(C)(ii).
D) For a
boiler or process heater, period when either of the following occurs:
i) Flame
zone temperature is more than 28 °C below the design average flame zone
temperature established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii); or
ii) Position
changes where the vent stream is introduced to the combustion zone from the
location established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii).
E) For a flare, period when
the pilot flame is not ignited.
F) For a
condenser that complies with Section 721.933(f)(2)(F)(i), period when the
organic compound concentration level or readings of organic compounds in the exhaust
vent stream from the condenser are more than 20 percent greater than the design
outlet organic compound concentration level established as a requirement of
subsection (b)(4)(C)(v).
G) For a
condenser that complies with Section 721.933(f)(2)(F)(ii), period when either
of the following occurs:
i) Temperature
of the exhaust vent stream from the condenser is more than 6 °C above the
design average exhaust vent stream temperature established as a requirement of
subsection (b)(4)(C)(v); or
ii) Temperature
of the coolant fluid exiting the condenser is more than 6 °C above the design
average coolant fluid temperature at the condenser outlet established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(v).
H) For a
carbon adsorption system, such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates
the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device and which complies with
Section 721.933(f)(2)(G)(i), any period when the organic compound concentration
level or readings of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the
carbon bed are more than 20 percent greater than the design exhaust vent stream
organic compound concentration level established as a requirement of subsection
(b)(4)(C)(vi).
I) For a
carbon adsorption system, such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates
the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device and which complies with
Section 721.933(f)(2)(G)(ii), any period when the vent stream continues to flow
through the control device beyond the predetermined carbon bed regeneration
time established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(vi).
5) Explanation
for each period recorded under subsection (c)(4) of the cause for control
device operating parameter exceeding the design value and the measures
implemented to correct the control device operation.
6) For a
carbon adsorption system operated subject to requirements specified in Section
721.933(g) or (h)(2), any date when existing carbon in the control device is
replaced with fresh carbon.
7) For a
carbon adsorption system operated subject to requirements specified in Section
721.933(h)(1), a log that records:
A) Date
and time when control device is monitored for carbon breakthrough and the
monitoring device reading.
B) Date
when existing carbon in the control device is replaced with fresh carbon.
8) Date of each control
device startup and shutdown.
9) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material designating any components of a closed-vent system as unsafe to
monitor pursuant to Section 721.933(o) must record in a log that is kept at the
facility the identification of closed-vent system components that are
designated as unsafe to monitor in accordance with the requirements of Section
721.933(o), an explanation for each closed-vent system component stating why
the closed-vent system component is unsafe to monitor, and the plan for
monitoring each closed-vent system component.
10) When
each leak is detected as specified in Section 721.933(l), the following
information must be recorded:
A) The instrument
identification number, the closed-vent system component identification number,
and the operator name, initials, or identification number.
B) The
date the leak was detected and the date of first attempt to repair the leak.
C) The date of successful
repair of the leak.
D) Maximum
instrument reading measured by Reference Method 21 (Determination of Volatile
Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, after it is successfully repaired or
determined to be nonrepairable.
E) "Repair
delayed" and the reason for the delay if a leak is not repaired within 15
calendar days after discovery of the leak.
i) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material may develop a written procedure that identifies the conditions that
justify a delay of repair. In such cases, reasons for delay of repair may be
documented by citing the relevant sections of the written procedure.
ii) If
delay of repair was caused by depletion of stocked parts, there must be
documentation that the spare parts were sufficiently stocked on-site before
depletion and the reason for depletion.
d) Records
of the monitoring, operating, and inspection information required by
subsections (c)(3) through (c)(10) must be maintained by the owner or operator
for at least three years following the date of each occurrence, measurement,
maintenance, corrective action, or record.
e) For a
control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption
system, the Agency must specify the appropriate recordkeeping requirements.
The Agency must specify the appropriate recordkeeping requirements in writing
to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material.
f) Up-to-date
information and data used to determine whether or not a process vent is subject
to the requirements in Section 721.932, including supporting documentation as
required by Section 721.934(d)(2) when application of the knowledge of the
nature of the hazardous secondary material stream or the process by which it
was produced is used, must be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.950 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.950 Applicability
The regulations in this this Subpart BB apply to equipment
that contains hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing
exclusion at Section 721.104(a)(27), unless the equipment operations are subject
to the requirements of an applicable federal Clean Air Act regulation in 40 CFR
60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources), 61 (National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63 (National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories), each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
BOARD NOTE: Section 9.1(b) and (d) of the Act make the
federal new source performance standards and national emission standards for
hazardous air pollutants directly applicable in Illinois and prohibit operation
of an emission source without a permit issued by the Agency. The Agency issues
permits that incorporate the federal new source performance standards and
national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants pursuant to Section
39.5 of the Act.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.951 DEFINITIONS
Section 721.951 Definitions
As used in this this Subpart BB, all terms will have the
meaning given them in Section 721.931; section 1004 of the federal Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6903), incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.952 STANDARDS: PUMPS IN LIGHT LIQUID SERVICE
Section 721.952 Standards: Pumps in Light Liquid
Service
a) Monitoring.
1) Each
pump in light liquid service must be monitored monthly to detect leaks by the
methods specified in Section 721.963(b), except as provided in subsections (d),
(e), and (f).
2) Each
pump in light liquid service must be checked by visual inspection each calendar
week for indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal.
b) Leaks.
1) If an
instrument reading of 10,000 ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
2) If
there are indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal, a leak is
detected.
c) Repairs.
1) When
a leak is detected, it must be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later
than 15 calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in Section
721.959.
2) A
first attempt at repair (e.g., tightening the packing gland) must be made no
later than five calendar days after each leak is detected.
d) Each
pump equipped with a dual mechanical seal system that includes a barrier fluid
system is exempt from the requirements of subsection (a), provided the
following requirements are met:
1) Each
dual mechanical seal system must be as follows:
A) Operated
with the barrier fluid at a pressure that is at all times greater than the pump
stuffing box pressure; or
B) Equipped
with a barrier fluid degassing reservoir that is connected by a closed-vent
system to a control device that complies with the requirements of Section
721.960; or
C) Equipped
with a system that purges the barrier fluid into a hazardous secondary material
stream with no detectable emissions to the atmosphere.
2) The
barrier fluid system must not be a hazardous secondary material with organic
concentrations 10 percent or greater by weight.
3) Each
barrier fluid system must be equipped with a sensor that will detect failure of
the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or both.
4) Each
pump must be checked by visual inspection, each calendar week, for indications
of liquids dripping from the pump seals.
5) Alarms.
A) Each
sensor as described in subsection (d)(3) must be checked daily or be equipped
with an audible alarm that must be checked monthly to ensure that it is
functioning properly.
B) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine, based on design considerations and operating
experience, a criterion that indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier
fluid system, or both.
6) Leaks.
A) If
there are indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal or the sensor
indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or both based
on the criterion determined in subsection (d)(5)(B), a leak is detected.
B) When a
leak is detected, it must be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later
than 15 calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in Section
721.959.
C) A
first attempt at repair (e.g., relapping the seal) must be made no later than
five calendar days after each leak is detected.
e) Any
pump that is designated, as described in Section 721.964(g)(2), for no
detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500
ppm above background, is exempt from the requirements of subsections (a), (c),
and (d) if the pump meets the following requirements:
1) Must have no externally
actuated shaft penetrating the pump housing.
2) Must
operate with no detectable emissions as indicated by an instrument reading of
less than 500 ppm above background as measured by the methods specified in
Section 721.963(c).
3) Must
be tested for compliance with subsection (e)(2) initially upon designation,
annually, and at other times as requested by the Agency. The Agency must
request any compliance testing at times other than annually in writing to the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material.
f) If
any pump is equipped with a closed-vent system capable of capturing and
transporting any leakage from the seal or seals to a control device that
complies with the requirements of Section 721.960, it is exempt from the
requirements of subsections (a) through (e).
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.953 STANDARDS: COMPRESSORS
Section 721.953 Standards: Compressors
a) Each
compressor must be equipped with a seal system that includes a barrier fluid
system and that prevents leakage of total organic emissions to the atmosphere,
except as provided in subsections (h) and (i).
b) Each compressor seal
system as required in subsection (a) must be:
1) Operated
with the barrier fluid at a pressure that is at all times greater than the
compressor stuffing box pressure; or
2) Equipped
with a barrier fluid system that is connected by a closed-vent system to a
control device that complies with the requirements of Section 721.960; or
3) Equipped
with a system that purges the barrier fluid into a hazardous secondary material
stream with no detectable emissions to atmosphere.
c) The
barrier fluid must not be a hazardous secondary material with organic
concentrations 10 percent or greater by weight.
d) Each
barrier fluid system, as described in subsections (a) through (c), must be
equipped with a sensor that will detect failure of the seal system, barrier
fluid system, or both.
e) Inspections.
1) Each
sensor as required in subsection (d) must be checked daily or must be equipped
with an audible alarm that must be checked monthly to ensure that it is
functioning properly unless the compressor is located within the boundary of an
unmanned plant site, in which case the sensor must be checked daily.
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine, based on design considerations and operating
experience, a criterion that indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier
fluid system, or both.
f) If
the sensor indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or
both based on the criterion determined under subsection (e)(2), a leak is
detected.
g) Repairs.
1) When
a leak is detected, it must be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later
than 15 calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in Section
721.959.
2) A
first attempt at repair (e.g., tightening the packing gland) must be made no
later than five calendar days after each leak is detected.
h) A
compressor is exempt from the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) if it is
equipped with a closed-vent system capable of capturing and transporting any
leakage from the seal to a control device that complies with the requirements
of Section 721.960, except as provided in subsection (i).
i) Any
compressor that is designated, as described in Section 721.964(g)(2), for no
detectable emissions as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppm
above background is exempt from the requirements of subsections (a) through (h)
if the compressor:
1) Is
determined to be operating with no detectable emissions, as indicated by an
instrument reading of less than 500 ppm above background, as measured by the
method specified in Section 721.963(c).
2) Is
tested for compliance with subsection (i)(1) initially upon designation,
annually, and at other times as requested by the Agency. The Agency must request
any compliance testing at times other than annually in writing to the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.954 STANDARDS: PRESSURE RELIEF DEVICES IN GAS/VAPOR SERVICE
Section 721.954 Standards: Pressure Relief Devices in
Gas/Vapor Service
a) Except
during pressure releases, each pressure relief device in gas/vapor service must
be operated with no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading
of less than 500 ppm above background, as measured by the method specified in
Section 721.963(c).
b) Actions following
pressure release.
1) After
each pressure release, the pressure relief device must be returned to a
condition of no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of
less than 500 ppm above background, as soon as practicable, but no later than
five calendar days after each pressure release, except as provided in Section
721.959.
2) No
later than five calendar days after the pressure release, the pressure relief
device must be monitored to confirm the condition of no detectable emissions,
as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppm above background, as
measured by the method specified in Section 721.963(c).
c) Any pressure
relief device that is equipped with a closed-vent system capable of capturing
and transporting leakage from the pressure relief device to a control device as
described in Section 721.960 is exempt from the requirements of subsections (a)
and (b).
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.955 STANDARDS: SAMPLING CONNECTION SYSTEMS
Section 721.955 Standards: Sampling Connection Systems
a) Each
sampling connection system must be equipped with a closed-purge, closed-loop,
or closed-vent system. This system must collect the sample purge for return to
the process or for routing to the appropriate treatment system. Gases
displaced during filling of the sample container are not required to be
collected or captured.
b) Each
closed-purge, closed-loop, or closed-vent system as required in subsection (a)
must meet one of the following requirements:
1) It must return the
purged process fluid directly to the process line;
2) It must collect and
recycle the purged process fluid; or
3) It
must be designed and operated to capture and transport all the purged process
fluid to a material management unit that complies with the applicable
requirements of Sections 721.984 through 264.986 or a control device that
complies with the requirements of Section 721.960.
c) In-situ
sampling systems and sampling systems without purges are exempt from the
requirements of subsections (a) and (b).
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.956 STANDARDS: OPEN-ENDED VALVES OR LINES
Section 721.956 Standards: Open-Ended Valves or Lines
a) Equipment.
1) Each
open-ended valve or line must be equipped with a cap, blind flange, plug, or a
second valve.
2) The
cap, blind flange, plug, or second valve must seal the open end at all times
except during operations requiring hazardous secondary material stream flow
through the open-ended valve or line.
b) Each
open-ended valve or line equipped with a second valve must be operated in a
manner such that the valve on the hazardous secondary material stream end is
closed before the second valve is closed.
c) When
a double block and bleed system is being used, the bleed valve or line may
remain open during operations that require venting the line between the block
valves but must comply with subsection (a) at all other times.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.957 STANDARDS: VALVES IN GAS/VAPOR SERVICE OR IN LIGHT LIQUID SERVICE
Section 721.957 Standards: Valves in Gas/Vapor Service
or in Light Liquid Service
a) Each
valve in gas/vapor or light liquid service must be monitored monthly to detect
leaks by the methods specified in Section 721.963(b) and must comply with subsections
(b) through (e), except as provided in subsections (f), (g), and (h) and
Sections 721.961 and 721.962.
b) If an instrument reading
of 10,000 ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
c) Monitoring Frequency.
1) Any
valve for which a leak is not detected for two successive months may be
monitored the first month of every succeeding quarter, beginning with the next
quarter, until a leak is detected.
2) If a
leak is detected, the valve must be monitored monthly until a leak is not
detected for two successive months,
d) Leak repair.
1) When
a leak is detected, it must be repaired as soon as practicable, but no later
than 15 calendar days after the leak is detected, except as provided in Section
721.959.
2) A
first attempt at repair must be made no later than five calendar days after
each leak is detected.
e) First
attempts at repair include, but are not limited to, the following best
practices where practicable:
1) Tightening of bonnet
bolts.
2) Replacement of bonnet
bolts.
3) Tightening of packing
gland nuts.
4) Injection of lubricant
into lubricated packing.
f) Any
valve that is designated, as described in Section 721.964(g)(2), for no
detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500
ppm above background, is exempt from the requirements of subsection (a) if the
valve:
1) Has
no external actuating mechanism in contact with the hazardous secondary
material stream.
2) Is
operated with emissions less than 500 ppm above background as determined by the
method specified in Section 721.963(c).
3) Is
tested for compliance with subsection (f)(2) initially upon designation,
annually, and at other times as requested by the Agency. The Agency must
request any compliance testing at times other than annually in writing to the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material.
g) Any
valve that is designated, as described in Section 721.964(h)(1), as an
unsafe-to-monitor valve is exempt from the requirements of subsection (a) if
both of the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material determines that the valve is unsafe to monitor because monitoring
personnel would be exposed to an immediate danger as a consequence of complying
with subsection (a); and
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material adheres to a written plan that requires monitoring of the valve as
frequently as practicable during safe-to-monitor times.
h) Any
valve that is designated, as described in Section 721.964(h)(2), as a
difficult-to-monitor valve is exempt from the requirements of subsection (a) if
all of the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material determines that the valve cannot be monitored without elevating the
monitoring personnel more than two meters above a support surface;
2) The
hazardous secondary material management unit within which the valve is located
was in operation before January 13, 2015; and
3) The
owner or operator of the valve follows a written plan that requires monitoring
of the valve at least once per calendar year.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.958 STANDARDS: PUMPS AND VALVES IN HEAVY LIQUID SERVICE, PRESSURE RELIEF DEVICES IN LIGHT LIQUID OR HEAVY LIQUID SERVICE, AND FLANGES AND OTHER CONNECTORS
Section 721.958 Standards: Pumps and Valves in Heavy
Liquid Service, Pressure Relief Devices in Light Liquid or Heavy Liquid
Service, and Flanges and Other Connectors
a) Pumps
and valves in heavy liquid service, pressure relief devices in light liquid or
heavy liquid service, and flanges and other connectors must be monitored within
five days by the method specified in Section 721.963(b) if evidence of a
potential leak is found by visual, audible, olfactory, or any other detection
method.
b) If an instrument reading
of 10,000 ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
c) Repairs.
1) When
a leak is detected, it must be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later
than 15 calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in Section 721.959.
2) The
first attempt at repair must be made no later than five calendar days after
each leak is detected.
d) First
attempts at repair include, but are not limited to, the best practices
described under Section 721.957(e).
e) Any
connector that is inaccessible or which is ceramic or ceramic-lined (e.g.,
porcelain, glass, or glass-lined) is exempt from the monitoring requirements of
subsection (a) and from the recordkeeping requirements of Section 721.964.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.959 STANDARDS: DELAY OF REPAIR
Section 721.959 Standards: Delay of Repair
a) Delay
of repair of equipment for which leaks have been detected will be allowed if
the repair is technically infeasible without a hazardous secondary material
management unit shutdown. In such a case, repair of this equipment must occur
before the end of the next hazardous secondary material management unit
shutdown.
b) Delay
of repair of equipment for which leaks have been detected will be allowed for
equipment that is isolated from the hazardous secondary material management
unit and that does not continue to contain or contact hazardous secondary
material with organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight.
c) Delay of repair for
valves will be allowed if:
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material determines that emissions of purged material resulting from immediate
repair are greater than the emissions likely to result from delay of repair.
2) When
repair procedures are effected, the purged material is collected and destroyed
or recovered in a control device complying with Section 721.960.
d) Delay
of repair for pumps will be allowed if both of the following conditions are
fulfilled:
1) Repair
requires the use of a dual mechanical seal system that includes a barrier fluid
system; and
2) Repair
is completed as soon as practicable, but not later than six months after the
leak was detected.
e) Delay
of repair beyond a hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown will
be allowed for a valve if valve assembly replacement is necessary during the
hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown, valve assembly supplies
have been depleted, and valve assembly supplies had been sufficiently stocked
before the supplies were depleted. Delay of repair beyond the next hazardous
secondary material management unit shutdown will not be allowed unless the next
hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown occurs sooner than six
months after the first hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.960 STANDARDS: CLOSED-VENT SYSTEMS AND CONTROL DEVICES
Section 721.960 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and
Control Devices
a) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using closed-vent
systems and control devices subject to this Subpart BB must comply with the
provisions of Section 721.933.
b) Implementation Schedule
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material at an existing facility who cannot install a closed-vent system and
control device to comply with the provisions of this Subpart BB on the
effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of this
Subpart BB must prepare an implementation schedule that includes dates by which
the closed-vent system and control device will be installed and in operation.
The controls must be installed as soon as possible, but the implementation
schedule may allow up to 30 months after the effective date that the facility
becomes subject to this Subpart BB for installation and startup.
2) Any
unit beginning operation that is subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB
when operation begins, must comply with the rules immediately (i.e., must have
control devices installed and operating on startup of the affected unit); the
30-month implementation schedule does not apply.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material at any facility in existence on the effective date of a statutory or
regulatory amendment that renders the facility subject to this Subpart BB must
comply with all requirements of this Subpart BB as soon as practicable but no
later than 30 months after the amendment's effective date. When control
equipment required by this Subpart BB cannot be installed and begin operation
by the effective date of the statutory or regulatory amendment that renders the
facility subject to this Subpart BB, the facility owner or operator must
prepare an implementation schedule that includes the following information:
specific calendar dates for award of contracts or issuance of purchase orders
for the control equipment, initiation of on-site installation of the control
equipment, completion of the control equipment installation, and performance of
any testing to demonstrate that the installed equipment meets the applicable
standards of this Subpart BB. The remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must keep a copy of the
implementation schedule at the facility.
BOARD NOTE: The federal effective
date of this provision was July 15, 2015. The resulting compliance deadline
for the Subpart BB standards was then January 18, 2018 for all facilities to
which this Subpart BB applied on July 15, 2015. All new and modified facilities
to which this Subpart BB applies are to immediately comply upon beginning operation
after July 15, 2015. Where this Subpart BB becomes applicable to a facility
subject to after July 15, 2015 as a result of statutory or regulatory
amendment, compliance with the Subpart BB standards is required 30 months after
the effective date of the statutory or regulatory amendment that subjected that
facility to this provision.
4) Remanufacturers
or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary materials at
facilities and units that become newly subject to the requirements of this Subpart
BB due to an action other than those described in subsection (b)(3), must
comply with all applicable requirements immediately (i.e., must have control
devices installed and operating on the date the facility or unit becomes
subject to this Subpart BB; the 30-month implementation schedule does not
apply).
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.961 ALTERNATIVE STANDARDS FOR VALVES IN GAS/VAPOR SERVICE OR IN LIGHT LIQUID SERVICE: PERCENTAGE OF VALVES ALLOWED TO LEAK
Section 721.961 Alternative Standards for Valves in
Gas/Vapor Service or in Light Liquid Service: Percentage of Valves Allowed to
Leak
a) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the requirements of Section 721.957 may elect to have all
valves within a hazardous secondary material management unit comply with an
alternative standard that allows no greater than two percent of the valves to
leak.
b) The
following requirements must be met if a remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material decides to comply with the
alternative standard of allowing two percent of valves to leak:
1) A
performance test, as specified in subsection (c), must be conducted initially
upon designation, annually, and at other times requested by the Agency in
writing to the remanufacturer or other persons that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material; and
2) If a
valve leak is detected, it must be repaired in accordance with Section
721.957(d) and (e).
c) Performance tests must
be conducted in the following manner:
1) All
valves subject to the requirements in Section 721.957 within the hazardous
secondary material management unit must be monitored within one week by the
methods specified in Section 721.963(b).
2) If an
instrument reading of 10,000 ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
3) The
leak percentage must be determined by dividing the number of valves subject to
the requirements in Section 721.957 for which leaks are detected by the total
number of valves subject to the requirements in Section 721.957 within the
hazardous secondary material management unit.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.962 ALTERNATIVE STANDARDS FOR VALVES IN GAS/VAPOR SERVICE OR IN LIGHT LIQUID SERVICE: SKIP PERIOD LEAK DETECTION AND REPAIR
Section 721.962 Alternative Standards for Valves in
Gas/Vapor Service or in Light Liquid Service: Skip Period Leak Detection and
Repair
a) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the requirements of Section 721.957 may elect for all
valves within a hazardous secondary material management unit to comply with one
of the alternative work practices specified in subsections (b)(2) and (b)(3).
b) Reduced Monitoring.
1) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must comply with the requirements for valves, as described in Section
721.957, except as described in subsections (b)(2) and (b)(3).
2) After
two consecutive quarterly leak detection periods with the percentage of valves
leaking equal to or less than two percent, a remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material may begin to skip one of
the quarterly leak detection periods (i.e., monitor for leaks once every six
months) for the valves subject to the requirements in Section 721.957.
3) After
five consecutive quarterly leak detection periods with the percentage of valves
leaking equal to or less than two percent, a remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material may begin to skip three
of the quarterly leak detection periods (i.e., monitor for leaks once every
year) for the valves subject to the requirements in Section 721.957.
4) If
the percentage of valves leaking is greater than two percent, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must monitor monthly in compliance with the requirements in Section
721.957, but may again elect to use this Section after meeting the requirements
of Section 721.957(c)(1).
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.963 TEST METHODS AND PROCEDURES
Section 721.963 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must comply with the test
methods and procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) Leak
detection monitoring, as required in Sections 721.952 through 721.962, must
comply with the following requirements:
1) Monitoring
must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of Volatile Organic
Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The
detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The
instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must
be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10
ppm of hydrocarbon in air); and
B) A
mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of approximately, but
less than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The
instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak interfaces as
close to the interface as possible as described in Reference Method 21.
c) When
equipment is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as required in
Sections 721.952(e), 721.953(i), 721.954, and 721.957(f), the test must comply
with the following requirements:
1) The requirements of
subsections (b)(1) through (b)(4).
2) The
background level must be determined as set forth in Reference Method 21.
3) The
instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak interfaces as
close to the interface as possible as described in Reference Method 21.
4) The
arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated by the
instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for determining
compliance.
d) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine, for each piece of equipment, whether the equipment
contains or contacts a hazardous secondary material with organic concentration
that equals or exceeds 10 percent by weight using the following:
1) Methods
described in ASTM Methods D 2267-88, E 169-87, E 168-88, E 260-85, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
2) Method
9060A of "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste", USEPA Publication
SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, for computing
total organic concentration of the sample, or analyzed for its individual
organic constituents; or
3) Application
of the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous secondary material stream or
the process by which it was produced. Documentation of a material
determination by knowledge is required. Examples of documentation that must be
used to support a determination under this provision include production process
information documenting that no organic compounds are used, information that
the material is generated by a process that is identical to a process at the
same or another facility that has previously been demonstrated by direct
measurement to have a total organic content less than 10 percent, or prior
speciation analysis results on the same material stream, where it can also be
documented that no process changes have occurred since that analysis that could
affect the material total organic concentration.
e) If a
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material determines that a piece of equipment contains or contacts a hazardous
secondary material with organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight,
the determination can be revised only after following the procedures in
subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2).
f) When
a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material and the Agency do not agree on whether a piece of equipment contains
or contacts a hazardous secondary material with organic concentrations at least
10 percent by weight, the procedures in subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2) can be used
to resolve the dispute. The Agency must state any disagreement on whether a
piece of equipment contains or contacts a hazardous secondary material with
organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight in writing to the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material.
g) Samples
used in determining the percent organic content must be representative of the
highest total organic content hazardous secondary material that is expected to
be contained in or contact the equipment.
h) To
determine if pumps or valves are in light liquid service, the vapor pressures
of constituents may be obtained from standard reference texts or may be
determined by ASTM D 2879-92, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
i) Performance
tests to determine if a control device achieves 95 weight percent organic
emission reduction must comply with the procedures of Section 721.934(c)(1)
through (c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.964 RECORDKEEPING REQUIREMENTS
Section 721.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Lumping Units.
1) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must comply with the
recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material in more than one hazardous secondary material management unit subject
to the provisions of this Subpart BB may comply with the recordkeeping
requirements for these hazardous secondary material management units in one
recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each hazardous
secondary material management unit.
b) A person
that stores or treats a hazardous secondary material must record and keep the
following information at the facility:
1) For
each piece of equipment to which this Subpart BB applies:
A) The
equipment identification number and hazardous secondary material management
unit identification.
B) The
approximate locations within the facility (e.g., identify the hazardous
secondary material management unit on a facility plot plan).
C) The type of equipment
(e.g., a pump or pipeline valve).
D) The
percent-by-weight total organics in the hazardous secondary material stream at
the equipment.
E) The
hazardous secondary material state at the equipment (e.g., gas/vapor or
liquid).
F) A
method of compliance with the standard (e.g., "monthly leak detection and
repair" or "equipped with dual mechanical seals").
2) For
facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 721.933(a)(2), an implementation
schedule, as specified in Section 721.933(a)(2).
3) When
a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material chooses to use test data to demonstrate the organic removal efficiency
or total organic compound concentration achieved by the control device, a
performance test plan, as specified in Section 721.935(b)(3).
4) Documentation
of compliance with Section 721.960, including the detailed design documentation
or performance test results specified in Section 721.935(b)(4).
c) When
each leak is detected, as specified in Sections 721.952, 721.953, 721.957, and 721.958,
the following requirements apply:
1) A
weatherproof and readily visible identification, marked with the equipment
identification number, the date evidence of a potential leak was found in
accordance with Section 721.958(a), and the date the leak was detected, must be
attached to the leaking equipment.
2) The
identification on equipment, except on a valve, may be removed after it has
been repaired.
3) The
identification on a valve may be removed after it has been monitored for two
successive months as specified in Section 721.957(c) and no leak has been
detected during those two months.
d) When
each leak is detected, as specified in Sections 721.952, 721.953, 721.957, and 721.958,
the following information must be recorded in an inspection log and must be
kept at the facility:
1) The
instrument and operator identification numbers and the equipment identification
number.
2) The
date evidence of a potential leak was found in accordance with Section
721.958(a).
3) The
date the leak was detected and the dates of each attempt to repair the leak.
4) Repair methods applied
in each attempt to repair the leak.
5) "Above
10,000" if the maximum instrument reading measured by the methods
specified in Section 721.963(b) after each repair attempt is equal to or
greater than 10,000 ppm.
6) "Repair
delayed" and the reason for the delay if a leak is not repaired within 15
calendar days after discovery of the leak.
7) Documentation
supporting the delay of repair of a valve in compliance with Section
721.959(c).
8) The
signature of the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material (or designate) whose decision it was that repair
could not be effected without a hazardous secondary material management unit
shutdown.
9) The
expected date of successful repair of the leak if a leak is not repaired within
15 calendar days.
10) The
date of successful repair of the leak.
e) Design
documentation and monitoring, operating, and inspection information for each
closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the provisions of
Section 721.960 must be recorded and kept up-to-date at the facility, as
specified in Section 721.935(c). Design documentation is specified in Section
721.935(c)(1) and (c)(2) and monitoring, operating, and inspection information
in Section 721.935(c)(3) through (c)(8).
f) For
a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption
system, the Agency must specify in writing the appropriate recordkeeping
requirements.
g) The
following information pertaining to all equipment subject to the requirements
in Sections 721.952 through 721.960 must be recorded in a log that is kept at
the facility:
1) A
list of identification numbers for equipment (except welded fittings) subject
to the requirements of this Subpart BB.
2) List of Equipment.
A) A list
of identification numbers for equipment that the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material elects to designate for
no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500
ppm above background, under the provisions of Sections 721.952(e), 721.953(i),
and 721.957(f).
B) The
designation of this equipment as subject to the requirements of Sections
721.952(e), 721.953(i), or 721.957(f) must be signed by the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material.
3) A
list of equipment identification numbers for pressure relief devices required
to comply with Section 721.954(a).
4) Compliance Tests.
A) The
dates of each compliance test required in Sections 721.952(e), 721.953(i), 721.954,
and 721.957(f).
B) The background level
measured during each compliance test.
C) The
maximum instrument reading measured at the equipment during each compliance
test.
5) A list of identification
numbers for equipment in vacuum service.
6) Identification,
either by list or location (area or group) of equipment that contains or
contacts hazardous secondary material with an organic concentration of at least
10 percent by weight for less than 300 hours per calendar year.
h) The
following information pertaining to all valves subject to the requirements of
Section 721.957(g) and (h) must be recorded in a log that is kept at the
facility:
1) A
list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as unsafe to
monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is unsafe to
monitor, and the plan for monitoring each valve.
2) A
list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as difficult to
monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is difficult to
monitor, and the planned schedule for monitoring each valve.
i) The
following information must be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility
for valves complying with Section 721.962:
1) A schedule of
monitoring.
2) The percent of valves
found leaking during each monitoring period.
j) The following
information must be recorded in a log that is kept at in the facility:
1) Criteria
required in Sections 721.952(d)(5)(B) and 721.953(e)(2) and an explanation of
the design criteria.
2) Any changes to these
criteria and the reasons for the changes.
k) The
following information must be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility
for use in determining exemptions, as provided in the applicability Section of
this Subpart BB and other specific Subparts:
1) An
analysis determining the design capacity of the hazardous secondary material
management unit.
2) A
statement listing the hazardous secondary material influent to and effluent
from each hazardous secondary material management unit subject to the
requirements in Sections 721.952 through 721.960 and an analysis determining
whether these hazardous secondary materials are heavy liquids.
3) An
up-to-date analysis and the supporting information and data used to determine
whether or not equipment is subject to the requirements in Sections 721.952
through 721.960. The record must include supporting documentation as required
by Section 721.963(d)(3) when application of the knowledge of the nature of the
hazardous secondary material stream or the process by which it was produced is
used. If the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material takes any action (e.g., changing the process that
produced the material) that could result in an increase in the total organic
content of the material contained in or contacted by equipment determined not
to be subject to the requirements in Sections 721.952 through 721.960, then a
new determination is required.
l) Records
of the equipment leak information required by subsection (d) and the operating
information required by subsection (e) need be kept only three years.
m) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material at a facility with equipment that is subject to this Subpart BB and to
regulations in 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources),
61 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63 (National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, may elect to determine
compliance with this Subpart BB either by documentation pursuant to Section
721.964, or by documentation of compliance with the regulations in 40 CFR 60,
61, or 63 pursuant to the relevant provisions of the regulations in 40 CFR 60,
61, or 63. The documentation of compliance under regulations in 40 CFR 60, 61,
or 63 must be kept with or made readily available at the facility.
BOARD NOTE: 415 ILCS 5/9.1(b) and
(d) make the federal new source performance standards and national emission
standards for hazardous air pollutants directly applicable in Illinois and
prohibit operation of an emission source without a permit issued by the
Agency. The Agency issues permits that incorporate the federal new source
performance standards and national emission standards for hazardous air
pollutants pursuant to 415 ILCS 5/39.5.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS AND CONTAINERS
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.980 APPLICABILITY
Section 721.980 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart CC apply to tanks and
containers that contain hazardous secondary materials excluded under the
remanufacturing exclusion at Section 721.104(a)(27), unless the tanks and
containers are equipped with and operating air emission controls in accordance
with the requirements of an applicable federal Clean Air Act regulations
codified in 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources), 61
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63 (National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories), each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.981 DEFINITIONS
Section 721.981 Definitions
As used in this this Subpart CC, all terms not defined in
this Section will have the meaning given to them in section 1004 of the federal
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6903), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726.
"Average volatile organic
concentration" or "average VO concentration" means the
mass-weighted average volatile organic concentration of a hazardous secondary
material as determined in accordance with the requirements of Section 721.984.
"Closure device" means a
cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal, valve, or other type of fitting that blocks an
opening in a cover such that when the device is secured in the closed position
it prevents or reduces air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. Closure
devices include devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a sampling
port cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged access lid or hatch), or
automatically operated (e.g., a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
"Continuous seal" means
a seal that forms a continuous closure that completely covers the space between
the edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A continuous seal may be
a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-mounted seal, or metallic shoe seal. A continuous
seal may be constructed of fastened segments so as to form a continuous seal.
"Cover" means a device
that provides a continuous barrier over the hazardous secondary material
managed in a unit to prevent or reduce air pollutant emissions to the
atmosphere. A cover may have openings (such as access hatches, sampling ports,
gauge wells) that are necessary for operation, inspection, maintenance, and
repair of the unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a separate piece
of equipment that can be detached and removed from the unit or a cover may be
formed by structural features permanently integrated into the design of the
unit.
"Empty hazardous secondary
material container" means any of the following:
A container from which all
hazardous secondary materials have been removed that can be removed using the
practices commonly employed to remove materials from that type of container
(e.g., pouring, pumping, or aspirating), and no more than 2.5 centimeters (one
inch) of residue remain on the bottom of the container or inner liner;
A container that is less than or
equal to 119 gallons (450 liters) in size and no more than three percent by
weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner
liner; or
A container that is greater than
119 (450 liters) gallons in size and no more than 0.3 percent by weight of the
total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner.
"Enclosure" means a
structure that surrounds a tank or container, captures organic vapors emitted
from the tank or container, and vents the captured vapors through a closed-vent
system to a control device.
"External floating roof"
means a pontoon-type or double-deck type cover that rests on the surface of the
material managed in a tank with no fixed roof.
"Fixed roof" means a
cover that is mounted on a unit in a stationary position and does not move with
fluctuations in the level of the material managed in the unit.
"Floating membrane cover"
means a cover consisting of a synthetic flexible membrane material that rests
upon and is supported by the hazardous secondary material being managed in a
surface impoundment.
"Floating roof" means a
cover consisting of a double deck, pontoon single deck, or internal floating
cover which rests upon and is supported by the material being contained, and is
equipped with a continuous seal.
"Hard-piping" means pipe
or tubing that is manufactured and properly installed in accordance with
relevant standards and good engineering practices.
"In light material service"
means the container is used to manage a material for which both of the
following conditions apply: The vapor pressure of one or more of the organic
constituents in the material is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20 °C;
and the total concentration of the pure organic constituents having a vapor
pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at 20 °C is equal to or greater than 20 percent
by weight.
"Internal floating roof"
means a cover that rests or floats on the material surface (but not necessarily
in complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a fixed roof.
"Liquid-mounted seal"
means a foam or liquid-filled primary seal mounted in contact with the
hazardous secondary material between the tank wall and the floating roof
continuously around the circumference of the tank.
"Malfunction" means any
sudden, infrequent, and not reasonably preventable failure of air pollution
control equipment, process equipment, or a process to operate in a normal or
usual manner. Failures that are caused in part by poor maintenance or careless
operation are not malfunctions.
"Material determination"
means performing all applicable procedures in accordance with the requirements
of Section 721.984 to determine whether a hazardous secondary material meets
standards specified in this Subpart CC. Examples of a material determination
include performing the procedures in accordance with the requirements of
Section 721.984 to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous
secondary material at the point of material origination; the average VO
concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material
treatment and comparing the results to the exit concentration limit specified
for the process used to treat the hazardous secondary material; the organic
reduction efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency for a biological
process used to treat a hazardous secondary material and comparing the results
to the applicable standards; or the maximum volatile organic vapor pressure for
a hazardous secondary material in a tank and comparing the results to the
applicable standards.
"Maximum organic vapor
pressure" means the sum of the individual organic constituent partial
pressures exerted by the material contained in a tank, at the maximum vapor
pressure-causing conditions (i.e., temperature, agitation, pH effects of
combining materials, etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For the
purpose of this Subpart CC, maximum organic vapor pressure is determined using
the procedures specified in Section 721.984(c).
"Metallic shoe seal"
means a continuous seal that is constructed of metal sheets which are held
vertically against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted levers, or other
mechanisms and is connected to the floating roof by braces or other means. A
flexible coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space between the metal
sheet and the floating roof.
"No detectable organic
emissions" means no escape of organics to the atmosphere as determined
using the procedure specified in Section 721.984(d).
"Point of material
origination" means as follows:
Where the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is the generator
of the hazardous secondary material, the point of material origination means
the point when a material produced by a system, process, or material management
unit is determined to be a hazardous secondary material excluded under Section
721.104(a)(27).
BOARD NOTE: Where the person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is the generator of the
hazardous secondary material, "point of material origination" is
being used in a manner similar to the use of the term "point of generation"
in air standards established under authority of the federal Clean Air Act in 40
CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources), 61 (National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), and 63 (National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories), each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
Where the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is not the
generator of the hazardous secondary material, point of material origination
means the point when the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material accepts delivery or takes possession of the
hazardous secondary material.
"Safety device" means a
closure device such as a pressure relief valve, frangible disc, fusible plug,
or any other type of device that functions exclusively to prevent physical
damage or permanent deformation to a unit or its air emission control equipment
by venting gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during unsafe conditions
resulting from an unplanned, accidental, or emergency event. For the purpose
of this Subpart CC, a safety device is not used for routine venting of gases or
vapors from the vapor headspace underneath a cover such as during filling of
the unit or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in response to
normal daily diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations. A safety device is
designed to remain in a closed position during normal operations and open only
when the internal pressure, or another relevant parameter, exceeds the device
threshold setting applicable to the air emission control equipment as
determined by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material based on manufacturer recommendations, applicable
regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes
and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable,
ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
"Single-seal system"
means a floating roof having one continuous seal. This seal may be
vapor-mounted, liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
"Vapor-mounted seal"
means a continuous seal that is mounted such that there is a vapor space
between the hazardous secondary material in the unit and the bottom of the
seal.
"Volatile organic
concentration" or "VO concentration" means the fraction by
weight of the volatile organic compounds contained in a hazardous secondary
material expressed in terms of parts per million (ppmw) as determined by direct
measurement or by knowledge of the material in accordance with the requirements
of Section 721.984. For the purpose of determining the VO concentration of a
hazardous secondary material, organic compounds with a Henry's law constant
value of at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase
(0.1 Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3)
at 25 ºC must be included.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.982 STANDARDS: GENERAL
Section 721.982 Standards: General
a) This
Section applies to the management of hazardous secondary material in tanks and
containers subject to this Subpart CC.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must control air pollutant emissions from each hazardous secondary
material management unit in accordance with standards specified in Sections
721.984 through 721.987, as applicable to the hazardous secondary material
management unit, except as provided for in subsection (c).
c) A
tank or container is exempt from standards specified in Sections 721.984
through 721.987, as applicable, provided that the hazardous secondary material
management unit is a tank or container for which all hazardous secondary
material entering the unit has an average VO concentration at the point of
material origination of less than 500 parts per million by weight (ppmw). The
average VO concentration must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 721.983(a). The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material must review and update, as necessary, this
determination at least once every 12 months following the date of the initial
determination for the hazardous secondary material streams entering the unit.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.983 MATERIAL DETERMINATION PROCEDURES
Section 721.983 Material Determination Procedures
a) Procedure
to Determine Average Volatile Organic (VO) Concentration
1) Determining
average VO concentration at the point of material origination. A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine the average VO concentration at the point of material
origination for each hazardous secondary material placed in a hazardous
secondary material management unit exempted under the provisions of Section
721.982(c) from using air emission controls in compliance with standards
specified in Sections 721.984 through 721.987, as applicable to the hazardous
secondary material management unit.
A) An
initial determination of the average VO concentration of the material stream
must be made before the first time any portion of the material in the hazardous
secondary material stream is placed in a hazardous secondary material
management unit exempted under the provisions of Section 721.982(c) from using
air emission controls, and thereafter an initial determination of the average
VO concentration of the material stream must be made for each averaging period
that a hazardous secondary material is managed in the unit; and
B) Perform
a new material determination whenever changes to the source generating the
material stream are reasonably likely to cause the average VO concentration of
the hazardous secondary material to increase to a level that is equal to or
greater than the applicable VO concentration limits specified in Section
721.982.
2) Determining
average VO concentration using direct measurement or knowledge. For a material
determination that is required by subsection (a)(1), the average VO
concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material
origination must be determined using either direct measurement, as specified in
subsection (a)(3), or by knowledge of the hazardous secondary material, as
specified in subsection (a)(4).
3) Direct
measurement to determine average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary
material at the point of material origination, as follows:
A) Identification.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must identify and record in a log that is kept at the
facility the point of material origination for the hazardous secondary
material.
B) Sampling.
Samples of the hazardous secondary material stream must be collected at the
point of material origination in a manner so that volatilization of organics
contained in the material and in the subsequent sample is minimized and an
adequately representative sample is collected and maintained for analysis by
the selected method.
i) The
averaging period to be used for determining the average VO concentration for
the hazardous secondary material stream on a mass-weighted average basis must
be designated and recorded. The averaging period can represent any time
interval that the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material determines is appropriate for the hazardous
secondary material stream but must not exceed one year.
ii) Enough
samples, but at least four, must be collected and analyzed for a hazardous
secondary material determination. The samples for a given material
determination must be collected within a one-hour period. The average of the
four or more sample results constitutes a material determination for the material
stream. One or more material determinations may be required to represent the
complete range of material compositions and quantities that occur during the
entire averaging period due to normal variations in the operating conditions
for the source or process generating the hazardous secondary material stream.
Examples of these normal variations are seasonal variations in material
quantity or fluctuations in ambient temperature.
iii) All
samples must be collected and handled according to written procedures prepared
by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material and documented in a site sampling plan. This plan must
describe the procedure by which representative samples of the hazardous
secondary material stream are collected so that a minimum loss of organics
occurs throughout the sample collection and handling process, and by which
sample integrity is maintained. A copy of the written sampling plan must be
maintained at the facility. An example of acceptable sample collection and
handling procedures for a total volatile organic constituent concentration may
be found in Reference Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic
Concentration of Waste Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
iv) Sufficient
information, as specified in the "site sampling plan" required under
subsection (a)(3)(B)(iii), must be prepared and recorded to document the
material quantity represented by the samples and, as applicable, the operating
conditions for the source or process generating the hazardous secondary
material represented by the samples.
C) Analysis.
Each collected sample must be prepared and analyzed according to Reference
Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic Concentration of Waste
Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, for the total concentration of volatile organic
constituents, or using one or more methods when the individual organic compound
concentrations are identified and summed and the summed material concentration
accounts for and reflects all organic compounds in the material with Henry's
law constant values at least 0.1
mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which
can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3)
at 25 ºC. At the discretion of the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material, the test data obtained may be
adjusted by any appropriate method to discount any contribution to the total
volatile organic concentration that is a result of including a compound with a
Henry's law constant value of less than 0.1 Y/X at 25 °C. To adjust these
data, the measured concentration of each individual chemical constituent
contained in the material is multiplied by the appropriate constituent-specific
adjustment factor (fm25D). If the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material elects to adjust the
test data, the adjustment must be made to all individual chemical constituents
with a Henry's law constant value greater than or equal to 0.1 Y/X at 25 ºC
contained in the material. To adjust these data, the measured concentration of
each individual chemical constituent contained in the waste is multiplied by
the constituent-specific adjustment factors (fm25D) approved in
writing by the Agency. Other test methods may be used if they meet the
requirements in subsection (a)(3)(C)(i) or (a)(3)(C)(ii) and provided the
requirement to reflect all organic compounds in the material with Henry's law
constant values greater than or equal to 0.1 Y/X (which can also be expressed
as 1.8 × 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3) at 25 ºC, is met.
i) Any
USEPA standard method that has been validated in compliance with appendix D to
40 CFR 63 (Alternative Validation Procedure for EPA Waste and Wastewater
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
ii) Any
other analysis method that has been validated in according to the procedures
specified in Section 5.1 or Section 5.3, and the corresponding calculations in
Section 6.1 or Section 6.3, of Method 301 (Field Validation of Pollutant
Measurement Methods from Various Waste Media) in appendix A to 40 CFR 63 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. The data are
acceptable if they meet the criteria specified in Section 6.1.5 or Section
6.3.3 of Method 301. If correction is required under section 6.3.3 of Method
301, the data are acceptable if the correction factor is within the range 0.7
to 1.30. Other sections of Method 301 are not required.
D) Calculations
i) The
average VO concentration ( )
on a mass-weighted basis must be calculated by using the results for all
material determinations conducted in compliance with subsections (a)(3)(B) and
(a)(3)(C) and the following equation:

Where:
|

|
=
|
Average VO
concentration of the hazardous secondary material at the point of material
origination on a mass-weighted basis, ppmw
|
|
i
|
=
|
Individual
material determination "i" of the hazardous secondary material
|
|
n
|
=
|
Total number
of material determinations of the hazardous secondary material conducted for
the averaging period (not to exceed one year)
|
|
Qi
|
=
|
Mass quantity
of hazardous secondary material stream represented by Ci, kg/hr
|
|
QT
|
=
|
Total mass
quantity of hazardous secondary material during the averaging period, kg/hr
|
|
Ci
|
=
|
Measured VO
concentration of material determination "i" as determined in compliance
with subsection (a)(3)(C) (i.e., the average of the four or more samples
specified in subsection (a)(3)(B)(ii)), ppmw
|
ii) For
determining Ci, for individual material samples analyzed in compliance
with subsection (a)(3)(C), the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must account for VO concentrations
determined to be below the detection limit of the analytical method by using
the VO concentration that is one-half the blank value determined in the method
at section 4.4 of Reference Method 25D, if Reference Method 25D is used for the
analysis; or that is one-half the sum of the limits of detection established
for each organic constituent in the material that has a Henry's law constant
values at least 0.1
mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which
can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10‑6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3)
at 25 °C, if any other analytical method is used.
4) Use
of knowledge by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material to determine average VO concentration of a
hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination.
A) Documentation
must be prepared that presents the information used as the basis for the
knowledge by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material of the hazardous secondary material stream's
average VO concentration. Examples of information that may be used as the
basis for knowledge include material balances for the source or process
generating the hazardous secondary material stream; constituent-specific
chemical test data for the hazardous secondary material stream from previous
testing that are still applicable to the current material stream; previous test
data for other locations managing the same type of material stream; or other
knowledge based on information included in shipping papers or material
certification notices.
B) If
test data are used as the basis for knowledge, then the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must document the
test method, sampling protocol, and the means by which sampling variability and
analytical variability are accounted for in determining the average VO
concentration. For example, a remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material may use organic concentration test data
for the hazardous secondary material stream that are validated according to
Method 301 (Field Validation of Pollutant Measurement Methods from Various
Waste Media) in appendix A to 40 CFR 63 (Test Methods) as the basis for
knowledge of the material.
C) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material using chemical constituent-specific concentration test data as the
basis for knowledge of the hazardous secondary material may adjust the test
data to the corresponding average VO concentration value that would have been
obtained had the material samples been analyzed using Reference Method 25D
(Determination of the Volatile Organic Concentration of Waste Samples) in
appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b). To adjust these data, the measured concentration for
each individual chemical constituent contained in the material is multiplied by
the appropriate constituent-specific adjustment factor (fm25D).
D) In the
event that the Agency and the remanufacture or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material disagree on a determination of the
average VO concentration for a hazardous secondary material stream using
knowledge, then the results from a determination of average VO concentration
using direct measurement, as specified in subsection (a)(3), must be used to
establish compliance with the applicable requirements of this Subpart CC. The
Agency may perform or request that the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material perform this determination
using direct measurement. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material may choose one or more appropriate
methods to analyze each collected sample under subsection (a)(3)(C). The
Agency must state any disagreement on determination of the average VO
concentration for a hazardous secondary material stream using knowledge in
writing to the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material.
b) This
subsection (b) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.1083(b), marked "reserved"
by USEPA. This statement maintains structural consistency with the federal
regulations.
c) Procedure
to Determine the Maximum Organic Vapor Pressure of a Hazardous Secondary Material
in a Tank
1) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine the maximum organic vapor pressure for each hazardous
secondary material placed in a tank using Tank Level 1 controls in compliance
with standards specified in Section 721.984(c).
2) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must use either direct measurement as specified in subsection (c)(3)
or knowledge of the waste as specified by subsection (c)(4) to determine the
maximum organic vapor pressure that is representative of the hazardous
secondary material composition stored or treated in the tank.
3) Direct
Measurement to Determine the Maximum Organic Vapor Pressure of a Hazardous
Secondary Material
A) Sampling.
Enough samples must be collected to be representative of the hazardous
secondary material contained in the tank. All samples must be collected and
handled according to written procedures prepared by the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material and documented in
a site sampling plan. This plan must describe the procedure by which
representative samples of the hazardous secondary material are collected so
that a minimum loss of organics occurs throughout the sample collection and
handling process and by which sample integrity is maintained. A copy of the
written sampling plan must be maintained at the facility. An example of
acceptable sample collection and handling procedures may be found in Reference
Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic Concentration of Waste
Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
B) Analysis.
Any appropriate one of the following methods may be used to analyze the samples
and compute the maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous secondary
material:
i) Reference
Method 25E (Determination of Vapor Phase Organic Concentration in Waste
Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
ii) Methods
described in American Petroleum Institute Publication 2517, Third Edition,
February 1989, "Evaporative Loss from External Floating-Roof Tanks",
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
iii) Methods obtained from
standard reference texts;
iv) ASTM
Method 2879-92, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; and
v) Any other method
approved in writing by the Agency.
4) Use
of Knowledge to Determine the Maximum Organic Vapor Pressure of the Hazardous Secondary
Material. Documentation must be prepared and recorded that presents the
information used as the basis for the knowledge by the remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material that the maximum
organic vapor pressure of the hazardous secondary material is less than the
maximum vapor pressure limit listed in Section 721.984(b)(1)(A) for the
applicable tank design capacity category. An example of information that may
be used is documentation that the hazardous secondary material is generated by
a process for which at other locations it previously has been determined by
direct measurement that the hazardous secondary material's waste maximum
organic vapor pressure is less than the maximum vapor pressure limit for the
appropriate tank design capacity category.
d) Procedure
for Determining No Detectable Organic Emissions for the Purpose of Complying
with this Subpart CC
1) The
test must be conducted according to the procedures specified in Reference
Method 21 (Determination of Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to
40 CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111. Each potential leak interface (i.e., a location if organic vapor
leakage could occur) on the cover and associated closure devices must be
checked. Potential leak interfaces that are associated with covers and closure
devices include the interface of the cover and its foundation mounting, the
periphery of any opening on the cover and its associated closure device, and
the sealing seat interface on a spring-loaded pressure relief valve.
2) The
test must be performed when the unit contains a hazardous secondary material
having an organic concentration representative of the range of concentrations
for the hazardous secondary material expected to be managed in the unit.
During the test, the cover and closure devices must be secured in the closed
position.
3) The
detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference Method 21,
except the instrument response factor criteria in section 3.1.2(a) of Reference
Method 21, must be for the average composition of the organic constituents in
the hazardous secondary material placed in the hazardous secondary management
unit, not for each individual organic constituent.
4) The
detection instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by
the procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
5) Calibration gases must
be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10
ppmv hydrocarbon in air); and
B) A
mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of approximately, but
less than, 10,000 ppmv methane or n-hexane.
6) The
background level must be determined according to the procedures in Reference
Method 21.
7) Each
potential leak interface must be checked by traversing the instrument probe
around the potential leak interface as close to the interface as possible, as
described in Reference Method 21. If the configuration of the cover or closure
device prevents a complete traverse of the interface, all accessible portions
of the interface must be sampled. If the configuration of the closure device
prevents any sampling at the interface and the device is equipped with an
enclosed extension or horn (e.g., some pressure relief devices), the instrument
probe inlet must be placed at approximately the center of the exhaust area to
the atmosphere.
8) The
arithmetic difference between the maximum organic concentration indicated by
the instrument and the background level must be compared with the value of 500
ppmv except when monitoring a seal around a rotating shaft that passes through
a cover opening, in which case the comparison must be as specified in
subsection (d)(9). If the difference is less than 500 ppmv, then the potential
leak interface is determined to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
9) For
the seals around a rotating shaft that passes through a cover opening, the
arithmetic difference between the maximum organic concentration indicated by
the instrument and the background level must be compared with the value of
10,000 ppmw. If the difference is less than 10,000 ppmw, then the potential
leak interface is determined to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.984 STANDARDS: TANKS
Section 721.984 Standards: Tanks
a) The
provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
tanks for which Section 721.982(b) references the use of this Section for air
emission control.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must control air pollutant emissions from each tank subject to this
Section in compliance with the following requirements, as applicable:
1) For a
tank that manages hazardous secondary material that meets the conditions
specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C), the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must
control air pollutant emissions from the tank in compliance with the Tank Level
1 controls specified in subsection (c) or the Tank Level 2 controls specified
in subsection (d).
A) The
hazardous secondary material in the tank has a maximum organic vapor pressure
that is less than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank's
design capacity category, as follows:
i) For
a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 151 m3, the maximum organic
vapor pressure limit for the tank is 5.2 kPa.
ii) For
a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 75 m3 but less than
151 m3, the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank is
27.6 kPa.
iii) For
a tank design capacity less than 75 m3, the maximum organic vapor
pressure limit for the tank is 76.6 kPa.
B) The
hazardous secondary material in the tank is not heated by the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material to a
temperature that is greater than the temperature at which the maximum organic
vapor pressure of the hazardous secondary material is determined for complying
with subsection (b)(1)(A).
2) For a
tank that manages hazardous secondary material that does not meet the
conditions specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C), the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must control air pollutant emissions from the tank by using Tank Level
2 controls in compliance with subsection (d). An example of tanks required to
use Tank Level 2 controls is a tank for which the hazardous secondary material
in the tank has a maximum organic vapor pressure that is equal to or greater
than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank's design capacity
category, as specified in subsection (b)(1)(A).
c) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank Level 1
controls must meet the requirements specified in subsections (c)(1) through
(c)(4):
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats that hazardous secondary
material must determine the maximum organic vapor pressure for a hazardous
secondary material to be managed in the tank using Tank Level 1 controls before
the first time the hazardous secondary material is placed in the tank. The maximum
organic vapor pressure must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 721.983(c). Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must perform a new determination
whenever changes to the hazardous secondary material managed in the tank could
potentially cause the maximum organic vapor pressure to increase to a level
that is equal to or greater than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank design capacity category specified in subsection (b)(1)(A), as
applicable to the tank.
2) The
tank must be equipped with a fixed roof designed to meet the following
specifications:
A) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a continuous
barrier over the entire surface area of the hazardous secondary material in the
tank. The fixed roof may be a separate cover installed on the tank (e.g., a
removable cover mounted on an open-top tank) or may be an integral part of the
tank structural design (e.g., a horizontal cylindrical tank equipped with a
hatch).
B) The
fixed roof must be installed in a manner so that there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces between roof section joints or between the
interface of the roof edge and the tank wall.
C) Each
opening in the fixed roof, and any manifold system associated with the fixed
roof, must meet either of the following requirements:
i) It
must be equipped with a closure device designed to operate so that when the
closure device is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between the
perimeter of the opening and the closure device; or
ii) It
must be connected by a closed-vent system that is vented to a control device.
The control device must remove or destroy organics in the vent stream and must
be operating whenever hazardous secondary material is managed in the tank,
except as provided in this subsection (c)(2)(C)(ii). During any period of
routine inspection, maintenance, or other activities needed for normal
operations, and for removal of accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of the tank. During any period when it is necessary to provide access
to the tank for performing the foregoing activities, venting of the vapor
headspace underneath the fixed roof to the control device is not required,
opening of closure devices is allowed, and removal of the fixed roof is
allowed. After completing the activity, the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the
closure device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable,
and resume operating the control device.
BOARD NOTE: This subsection
(c)(2)(C)(ii) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.1083(c)(2)(iii)(B). The Board
combined the texts of 40 CFR 261.1083(c)(2)(iii)(B)(1) and (c)(2)(iii)(B)(2)
into this single subsection to comport with codification requirements.
D) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere, to the
extent practical, and will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof and closure
devices throughout their intended service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices
must include the organic vapor permeability; the effects of any contact with
the hazardous secondary material or its vapors managed in the tank; the effects
of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the operating
practices used for the tank on which the fixed roof is installed.
3) Whenever
a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the fixed roof must be installed
with each closure device secured in the closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening
of closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the following
times:
i) To
provide access to the tank for performing routine inspection, maintenance, or
other activities needed for normal operations. Examples of these activities
include those times when a worker needs to open a port to sample the liquid in
the tank, or when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain or repair
equipment. After completing the activity, the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the
closure device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable, to
the tank.
ii) To
remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the bottom of tank.
B) Opening
of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve, conservation vent, or similar
type of pressure relief device that vents to the atmosphere is allowed during
normal operations for maintaining the tank internal pressure in compliance with
the tank design specifications. The device must be designed to operate with no
detectable organic emissions when the device is secured in the closed
position. The settings at which the device opens must be established so that
the device remains in the closed position whenever the tank internal pressure
is within the internal pressure operating range determined by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material based on the tank manufacturer recommendations, applicable
regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes
and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable,
ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials. Examples of normal
operating conditions that may require these devices to open are during those
times when the tank internal pressure exceeds the internal pressure operating
range for the tank because of loading operations or diurnal ambient temperature
fluctuations.
C) Opening
of a safety device, as defined in Section 721.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect the air emission control equipment in according to the
following requirements.
A) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material to check for defects that could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections or between
the roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or
gaskets on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers, caps,
or other closure devices.
B) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must perform an initial inspection of the fixed roof and its closure
devices on or before the date that the tank becomes subject to this section.
Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must perform the inspections at least once every
year except under the special conditions provided for in subsection (l).
C) If a
defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in compliance with
subsection (k).
D) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.989(b).
d) Remanufacturers
or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary material
controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank Level 2 controls
must use one of the following tanks:
1) A
fixed-roof tank equipped with an internal floating roof in compliance with
subsection (e);
2) A
tank equipped with an external floating roof in compliance with subsection (f);
3) A
tank vented through a closed-vent system to a control device in compliance with
subsection (g);
4) A
pressure tank designed and operated in compliance with subsection (h); or
5) A
tank located inside an enclosure that is vented through a closed-vent system to
an enclosed combustion control device in compliance with subsection (i).
e) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using a fixed roof
with an internal floating roof must meet the requirements specified in
subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3).
1) The
tank must be equipped with a fixed roof and an internal floating roof in compliance
with the following requirements:
A) The
internal floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid surface except
when the floating roof must be supported by the leg supports.
B) The
internal floating roof must be equipped with a continuous seal between the wall
of the tank and the floating roof edge that meets either of the following
requirements:
i) A
single continuous seal that is either a liquid-mounted seal or a metallic shoe
seal, as defined in Section 721.981; or
ii) Two
continuous seals mounted one above the other. The lower seal may be a
vapor-mounted seal.
C) The internal
floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Each
opening in a noncontact internal floating roof except for automatic bleeder
vents (vacuum breaker vents) and the rim space vents is to provide a projection
below the liquid surface.
ii) Each
opening in the internal floating roof must be equipped with a gasketed cover or
a gasketed lid except for leg sleeves, automatic bleeder vents, rim space
vents, column wells, ladder wells, sample wells, and stub drains.
iii) Each
penetration of the internal floating roof for sampling must have a slit fabric
cover that covers at least 90 percent of the opening.
iv) Each
automatic bleeder vent and rim space vent must be gasketed.
v) Each
penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for passage of a ladder
must have a gasketed sliding cover.
vi) Each
penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for passage of a column
supporting the fixed roof must have a flexible fabric sleeve seal or a gasketed
sliding cover.
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must operate the tank in compliance with the following requirements:
A) When
the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of filling,
emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be completed as soon as
practical.
B) Automatic
bleeder vents are always to be set closed when the roof is floating, except
when the roof is being floated off or is being landed on the leg supports.
C) Prior
to filling the tank, each cover, access hatch, gauge float well or lid on any
opening in the internal floating roof must be bolted or fastened closed (i.e.,
no visible gaps). Rim space vents are to be set to open only when the internal
floating roof is not floating or when the pressure beneath the rim exceeds the
manufacturer's recommended setting.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect the internal floating roof in according to the following procedures:
A) The
floating roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material to check for defects that could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include the internal floating roof is not floating on the surface of
the liquid inside the tank; liquid has accumulated on top of the internal
floating roof; any portion of the roof seals have detached from the roof rim;
holes, tears, or other openings are visible in the seal fabric; the gaskets no
longer close off the hazardous secondary material surface from the atmosphere;
or the slotted membrane has more than 10 percent open area.
B) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material
must inspect the internal floating roof components as follows, except as
provided in subsection (e)(3)(C):
i) It
must visually inspect the internal floating roof components through openings on
the fixed roof (e.g., manholes and roof hatches) at least once every 12 months
after initial fill; and
ii) It
must visually inspect the internal floating roof, primary seal, secondary seal
(if one is in service), gaskets, slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if any)
each time the tank is emptied and degassed and at least every 10 years.
C) As an
alternative to performing the inspections specified in subsection (e)(3)(B), for
an internal floating roof equipped with two continuous seals mounted one above
the other, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must visually inspect the internal floating roof,
primary and secondary seals, gaskets, slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if
any) each time the tank is emptied and degassed and at least every five years.
D) Prior
to each inspection required by subsection (e)(3)(B) or (e)(3)(C), the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must notify the Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the
Agency with the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must notify the Agency of the date and location of the
inspection as follows:
i) Prior
to each visual inspection of an internal floating roof in a tank that has been
emptied and degassed, written notification must be prepared and sent by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material so that it is received by the Agency at least 30 calendar days before
refilling the tank, except when an inspection is not planned as provided for in
subsection (e)(3)(D)(ii).
ii) When
a visual inspection is not planned and the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material could not have known about
the inspection 30 calendar days before refilling the tank, the remanufacturer
or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must
notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no later than seven calendar days
before refilling of the tank. This notification may be made by telephone and
immediately followed by a written explanation for why the inspection is
unplanned. Alternatively, written notification, including the explanation for
the unplanned inspection, may be sent so that it is received by the Agency at
least seven calendar days before refilling the tank.
E) In the
event that a defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in compliance
with subsection (k).
F) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.989(b).
4) Safety
devices, as defined in Section 721.981, may be installed and operated as
necessary on any tank complying with subsection (e).
f) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using an external
floating roof must meet the requirements specified in subsections (f)(1)
through (f)(3).
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must design the external floating roof as follows:
A) The
external floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid surface except
when the floating roof must be supported by the leg supports.
B) The
floating roof must be equipped with two continuous seals, one above the other,
between the wall of the tank and the roof edge. The lower seal is referred to
as the primary seal, and the upper seal is referred to as the secondary seal.
i) The
primary seal must be a liquid-mounted seal or a metallic shoe seal, as defined
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.981. The total area of the gaps between the tank wall
and the primary seal must not exceed 212 square centimeters (cm2)
per meter of tank diameter, and the width of any portion of these gaps must not
exceed 3.8 centimeters (cm). If a metallic shoe seal is used for the primary
seal, the metallic shoe seal must be designed so that one end extends into the
liquid in the tank and the other end extends a vertical distance of at least 61
cm above the liquid surface.
ii) The
secondary seal must be mounted above the primary seal and cover the annular
space between the floating roof and the wall of the tank. The total area of
the gaps between the tank wall and the secondary seal must not exceed 21.2 cm2
per meter of tank diameter, and the width of any portion of these gaps must not
exceed 1.3 cm.
C) The
external floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Except
for automatic bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents) and rim space vents, each
opening in a noncontact external floating roof must provide a projection below
the liquid surface.
ii) Except
for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof drains, and leg sleeves,
each opening in the roof must be equipped with a gasketed cover, seal, or lid.
iii) Each
access hatch and each gauge float well must be equipped with a cover designed
to be bolted or fastened when the cover is secured in the closed position.
iv) Each
automatic bleeder vent and each rim space vent must be equipped with a gasket.
v) Each
roof drain that empties into the liquid managed in the tank must be equipped
with a slotted membrane fabric cover that covers at least 90 percent of the
area of the opening.
vi) Each
unslotted and slotted guide pole well must be equipped with a gasketed sliding
cover or a flexible fabric sleeve seal.
vii) Each
unslotted guide pole must be equipped with a gasketed cap on the end of the
pole.
viii) Each
slotted guide pole must be equipped with a gasketed float or other device that
closes off the liquid surface from the atmosphere.
ix) Each
gauge hatch and each sample well must be equipped with a gasketed cover.
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must operate the tank in compliance with the following requirements:
A) When
the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of filling,
emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be completed as soon as
practical.
B) Except
for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof drains, and leg sleeves,
each opening in the roof must be secured and maintained in a closed position at
all times except when the closure device must be open for access.
C) Covers
on each access hatch and each gauge float well must be bolted or fastened when
secured in the closed position.
D) Automatic
bleeder vents must be set closed always when the roof is floating, except when
the roof is being floated off or is being landed on the leg supports.
E) Rim
space vents must be set to open only at those times that the roof is being
floated off the roof leg supports or when the pressure beneath the rim seal
exceeds the manufacturer's recommended setting.
F) The
cap on the end of each unslotted guide pole must be secured in the closed
position always except when measuring the level or collecting samples of the
liquid in the tank.
G) The
cover on each gauge hatch or sample well must be secured in the closed position
always except when the hatch or well must be opened for access.
H) Both
the primary seal and the secondary seal must completely cover the annular space
between the external floating roof and the wall of the tank in a continuous
fashion except during inspections.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect the external floating roof according to the following
procedures:
A) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must measure the external floating roof seal gaps as follows:
i) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must perform measurements of gaps between the tank wall and the
primary seal within 60 calendar days after initially operating the tank
following installing the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once every
five years.
ii) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must perform measurements of gaps between the tank wall and the
secondary seal within 60 calendar days after initially operating the tank
following installing the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once every
year.
iii) If a
tank ceases to hold hazardous secondary material for a period of one year or
more, subsequently introducing hazardous secondary material into the tank must
be considered an initial operation for subsections (f)(3)(A)(i) and (f)(3)(A)(ii).
iv) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must determine the total surface area of gaps in the primary seal and
in the secondary seal individually using the procedure described in subsection
(f)(3)(D):
BOARD NOTE: The Board moved
corresponding 40 CFR 261.1084(f)(3)(i)(D)(1) through (f)(3)(i)(D)(4) to appear
as subsections (f)(3)(D)(i) through (f)(3)(D)(iv) to comport with codification
requirements.
v) If
the seal gap measurements do not conform to the specifications in subsection
(f)(1)(B), the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in compliance with
subsection (k).
vi) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.989(b).
B) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must visually inspect the external floating roof as follows:
i) The
floating roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material to check for defects that could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include holes, tears, or other openings in the rim seal or seal fabric
of the floating roof; a rim seal detached from the floating roof; all or a
portion of the floating roof deck being submerged below the surface of the liquid
in the tank; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on closure
devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers, caps, or other closure
devices.
ii) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material
must perform an initial inspection of the external floating roof and its
closure devices on or before the date that the tank becomes subject to this Section.
After the initial inspection, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must perform the inspections at least
once every year except for the special conditions provided for in subsection
(l).
iii) If a
defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in compliance with
subsection (k).
iv) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.989(b).
C) Before
each inspection required by subsection (f)(3)(A) or (f)(3)(B), the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must notify the Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the
Agency with the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must notify the Agency of the date and location of the
inspection as follows:
i) Before
each inspection to measure external floating roof seal gaps, as required under
subsection (f)(3)(A), written notification must be prepared and sent by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material so that it is received by the Agency at least 30 calendar days before
the date the measurements are scheduled to be performed.
ii) Before
each visual inspection of an external floating roof in a tank that has been
emptied and degassed, written notification must be prepared and sent by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material so that it is received by the Agency at least 30 calendar days before
refilling the tank, except when an inspection is not planned as provided for in
subsection (f)(3)(C)(iii).
iii) When
a visual inspection is not planned and the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material could not have known about
the inspection 30 calendar days before refilling the tank, the owner or
operator must notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no later than seven
calendar days before refilling of the tank. This notification may be made by
telephone and immediately followed by a written explanation for why the
inspection is unplanned. Alternatively, written notification, including the
explanation for the unplanned inspection, may be sent so that it is received by
the Agency at least seven calendar days before refilling the tank.
D) Procedure
for determining the total surface area of gaps in the primary seal and in the
secondary seal individually.
i) The
seal gap measurements must be performed at one or more floating roof levels
when the roof is floating off the roof supports.
ii) Seal
gaps, if any, must be measured around the entire perimeter of the floating roof
in each place where a 0.32-cm diameter uniform probe passes freely (without
forcing or binding against the seal) between the seal and the wall of the tank
and measure the circumferential distance of each location.
iii) For
a seal gap measured under this subsection (f)(3), the gap surface area must be
determined by using probes of various widths to measure accurately the actual
distance from the tank wall to the seal and multiplying each width by its
respective circumferential distance.
iv) The
total gap area must be calculated by adding the gap surface areas determined
for each identified gap location for the primary seal and the secondary seal
individually, and then dividing the sum for each seal type by the nominal
diameter of the tank. These total gap areas for the primary seal and secondary
seal are then compared to the respective standards for the seal type as
specified in subsection (f)(1)(B).
BOARD NOTE: The texts of
corresponding 40 CFR 261.1084(f)(3)(i)(D)(1) through (f)(3)(i)(D)(4), which would
normally appear in subsection (f)(3)(A)(iv), but codification requirements do
not allow a fifth level of subsections. Thus, the Board has codified them to
appear as subsections (f)(3)(D)(i) through (f)(3)(D)(iv) to comport with
codification requirements.
4) Safety
devices, as defined in Section 721.981, may be installed and operated as
necessary on any tank complying with this subsection (f).
g) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank by venting the tank
to a control device must meet the following requirements:
1) The
tank must be covered by a fixed roof and vented directly through a closed-vent
system to a control device in compliance with the following requirements:
A) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a continuous
barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid in the tank.
B) Each
opening in the fixed roof not vented to the control device must be equipped
with a closure device. If the pressure in the vapor headspace underneath the
fixed roof is less than atmospheric pressure when the control device is
operating, the closure devices must be designed to operate so that when the
closure device is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between the
perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device. If the pressure in the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device is operating, the closure device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
C) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere, to the
extent practical, and will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof and closure
devices throughout their intended service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices
must include, organic vapor permeability, the effects of any contact with the
liquid and its vapor managed in the tank; the effects of outdoor exposure to
wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the tank on
which the fixed roof is installed.
D) The
closed-vent system and control device must be designed and operated in compliance
with the requirements of Section 721.987.
2) Whenever
a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the fixed roof must be installed
with each closure device secured in the closed position and the vapor headspace
underneath the fixed roof vented to the control device, except as follows:
A) Venting
to the control device is not required, and opening of closure devices or
removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the following times:
i) To
provide access to the tank for performing routine inspection, maintenance, or
other activities needed for normal operations. Examples of activities needed
for normal operations include those times when a worker needs to open a port to
sample liquid in the tank, or when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain
or repair equipment. After completing the activity, the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must
promptly secure the closure device in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To
remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the bottom of a tank.
B) Opening
of a safety device, as defined in Section 721.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe condition.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect and monitor the air emission control equipment according
to the following procedures:
A) The
fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material to check for defects that could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections or between
the roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or
gaskets on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers, caps,
or other closure devices.
B) The
closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and monitored by the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material according to the procedures specified in Section 721.987.
C) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must perform an initial inspection of the air emission control
equipment on or before the date that the tank becomes subject to this section.
Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must perform the inspections at least once every
year except for the special conditions provided for in subsection (l).
D) In the
event that a defect is detected, the remanufacture or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in compliance
with subsection (k).
E) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain a record of the inspection in compliance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.989(b).
h) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material that controls air pollutant emissions by using a pressure tank must
meet the following requirements:
1) The
tank must be designed not to vent to the atmosphere because compression of the
vapor headspace in the tank during filling of the tank to its design capacity.
2) All
tank openings must be equipped with closure devices designed to operate with no
detectable organic emissions as determined using the procedure specified in
Section 721.983(d).
3) Whenever
a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the tank must be operated as a
closed system that does not vent to the atmosphere, except under either or the
following conditions described in subsection (h)(3)(A) or (h)(3)(B).
A) At
those times when opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 721.981, is
required to avoid an unsafe condition.
B) At
those times when purging of inerts from the tank is required and the purge
stream is routed to a closed-vent system and control device designed and
operated in compliance with of Section 721.987.
i) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material that controls air pollutant emissions by using an enclosure vented
through a closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control device must meet
the following requirements:
1) The
tank must be located inside an enclosure. The enclosure must be designed and
operated in according to the criteria for a permanent total enclosure as
specified in "Procedure T − Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure" in appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. The enclosure may have
permanent or temporary openings to allow worker access; passage of material
into or out of the enclosure by conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical means;
entry of permanent mechanical or electrical equipment; or direct airflow into
the enclosure. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must perform the verification procedure for the
enclosure as specified in Section 5.0 of "Procedure T − Criteria for
and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure" initially
when the enclosure is first installed and annually thereafter.
2) The
enclosure must be vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion
control device that is designed and operated in compliance with the standards
for either a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process heater specified in Section
721.987.
3) Safety
devices, as defined in Section 721.981, may be installed and operated as
necessary on any enclosure, closed-vent system, or control device used to
comply with subsections (i)(1) and (i)(2).
4) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect and monitor the closed-vent system and control device, as
specified in Section 721.987.
j) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must transfer hazardous secondary material to a tank subject to this
section as follows:
1) Transfer
of hazardous secondary material, except as provided in subsection (j)(2), to
the tank from another tank subject to this section must be conducted using
continuous hard-piping or another closed system that does not allow exposure of
the hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere. For complying with this
provision, an individual drain system is considered to be a closed system when
it complies with subpart RR of 40 CFR 63 (National Emission Standards for
Individual Drain Systems), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
2) Subsection
(j)(1) does not apply when transferring a hazardous secondary material to the
tank under any of the following conditions:
A) The
hazardous secondary material meets the average VO concentration conditions
specified in Section 721.982(c) at the point of material origination.
B) The
hazardous secondary material has been treated by an organic destruction or
removal process to meet the requirements in Section 721.982(c).
C) The
hazardous secondary material complies with Section 721.982(c).
k) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must repair each defect detected during an inspection performed in under
subsection (i)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3), or (g)(3), as follows:
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must make first efforts at repair of the defect no later than five
calendar days after detection, and repair must be completed as soon as possible,
but within 45 calendar days after detection, except as provided in subsection
(k)(2).
2) Repair
of a defect may be delayed beyond 45 calendar days if the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material determines
that repair of the defect requires emptying or temporary removal from service
of the tank and no alternative tank capacity is available at the site to accept
the hazardous secondary material normally managed in the tank. In this case,
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must repair the defect the next time the process or unit
that is generating the hazardous secondary material managed in the tank stops
operation. Repair of the defect must be completed before the process or unit
resumes operation.
l) Following
the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover as required by the
applicable provisions of this Subpart CC, subsequent inspection and monitoring
may be performed at intervals longer than one year under the following special
conditions:
1) If inspecting
or monitoring the cover would expose a worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other
unsafe conditions, then the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material may designate a cover as an "unsafe
to inspect and monitor cover" and comply with the following requirements:
A) Prepare
a written explanation for the cover stating the reasons why the cover is unsafe
to visually inspect or to monitor, if required.
B) Develop
and implement a written plan and schedule to inspect and monitor the cover,
using the procedures specified in the applicable Section of this Subpart CC, as
frequently as practicable during those times when a worker can safely access
the cover.
2) If a
tank is buried partially or entirely underground, a remanufacturer or other
person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must inspect and
monitor, as required by the applicable provisions of this Section, only those
portions of the tank cover and those connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports,
access hatches, gauge wells, etc.) that are located on or above the ground
surface.
(Source: Amended at 48 Ill. Reg. 16813,
effective November 7, 2024)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.986 STANDARDS: CONTAINERS
Section 721.986 Standards: Containers
a) Applicability.
The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions
from containers for which Section 721.982(b) references the use of this Section
for air emission control.
b) General Requirements
1) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must control air pollutant emissions from each container subject to
this Section in accordance with the following requirements, as applicable to
the container.
A) For a
container having a design capacity greater than 0.1 m3 and less than
or equal to 0.46 m3, the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must control air pollutant emissions
from the container in accordance with the Container Level 1 standards specified
in subsection (c).
B) For a
container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m3 that is not
in light material service, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must control air pollutant emissions
from the container in accordance with the Container Level 1 standards specified
in subsection (c).
C) For a
container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m3 that is in
light material service, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or
treats the hazardous secondary material must control air pollutant emissions
from the container in accordance with the Container Level 2 standards specified
in subsection (d).
2) This
subsection (b)(2) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.1086(b)(2), marked "reserved"
by USEPA. This statement maintains structural consistency with the federal
regulations
c) Container Level 1 Standards
1) A
container using Container Level 1 controls is one of the following:
A) A
container that meets the applicable U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT)
regulations on packaging hazardous materials for transportation, as specified
in subsection (f).
B) A
container equipped with a cover and closure devices that form a continuous
barrier over the container openings such that, when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position, there are no visible holes, gaps,
or other open spaces into the interior of the container. The cover may be a
separate cover installed on the container (e.g., a lid on a drum or a suitably
secured tarp on a roll-off box) or may be an integral part of the container
structural design (e.g., a "portable tank" or bulk cargo container
equipped with a screw-type cap).
C) An
open-top container in which an organic-vapor suppressing barrier is placed on
or over the hazardous secondary material in the container such that no
hazardous secondary material is exposed to the atmosphere. One example of such
a barrier is application of a suitable organic-vapor suppressing foam.
2) A
container used to meet the requirements of subsection (c)(1)(B) or (c)(1)(C)
must be equipped with covers and closure devices, as applicable to the
container, that are composed of suitable materials to minimize exposure of the
hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere and to maintain the equipment
integrity, for as long as the container is in service. Factors to be
considered in selecting the materials of construction and designing the cover
and closure devices must include, organic vapor permeability; the effects of
contact with the hazardous secondary material or its vapor managed in the
container; the effects of outdoor exposure of the closure device or cover
material to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the operating practices for which
the container is intended to be used.
3) Whenever
a hazardous secondary material is in a container using Container Level 1
controls, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must install all covers and closure devices for
the container, as applicable to the container, and secure and maintain each
closure device in the closed position except as follows:
A) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of adding hazardous
secondary material or other material to the container as follows:
i) If
the container is filled to the intended final level in one continuous
operation, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the closure devices in the
closed position and install the covers, as applicable to the container, upon
conclusion of the filling operation.
ii) If discrete
quantities or batches of material intermittently are added to the container over
a period of time, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the closure devices in the
closed position and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon either
the container being filled to the intended final level; the completion of a
batch loading after which no additional material will be added to the container
within 15 minutes; the person performing the loading operation leaving the
immediate vicinity of the container; or the shutdown of the process generating
the hazardous secondary material being added to the container, whichever
condition occurs first.
B) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of removing hazardous
secondary material from the container, as follows:
i) For
the purpose of meeting the requirements of this section, an empty hazardous
secondary material container may be open to the atmosphere at any time (i.e.,
covers and closure devices on such a container are not required to be secured
in the closed position).
ii) If
discrete quantities or batches of material are removed from the container, but
the container is not an empty hazardous secondary material container, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position and
install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the completion of a batch
removal after which no additional material will be removed from the container
within 15 minutes or the person performing the unloading operation leaves the
immediate vicinity of the container, whichever condition occurs first.
C) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside the container is
needed to perform routine activities other than transfer of hazardous secondary
material. Examples of routine activities other than transfer of hazardous
secondary material include those times when a worker needs to open a port to
measure the depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the container.
Following completion of the activity, the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the closure
device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the
container.
D) Opening
of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve, conservation vent, or similar
type of pressure relief device which vents to the atmosphere is allowed during
normal operations for the purpose of maintaining the internal pressure of the
container in accordance with the container design specifications. The device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emissions when the
device is secured in the closed position. The settings at which the device
opens must be established such that the device remains in the closed position
whenever the internal pressure of the container is within the internal pressure
operating range determined by the remanufacturer or other persons that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material based on container manufacturer
recommendations, applicable regulations, fire protection and prevention codes,
standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe
handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these devices to open
are during those times when the internal pressure of the container exceeds the
internal pressure operating range for the container as a result of loading
operations or diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
E) Opening
of a safety device, as defined in Section 721.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material using containers with Container Level 1 controls must inspect the
containers and their covers and closure devices, as follows:
A) If a
hazardous secondary material already is in the container at the time the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material first accepts possession of the container at the facility and the
container is not emptied within 24 hours after the container is accepted at the
facility (i.e., is not an empty hazardous secondary material container) the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must visually inspect the container and its cover and closure devices
to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the
interior of the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be conducted on or
before the date that the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., the date
the container becomes subject to the container standards of this Subpart CC).
B) If a
container used for managing hazardous secondary material remains at the
facility for a period of one year or more, the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must initially visually
inspect the container and its cover and closure devices to check for visible
cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of the container
when the cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position. After
the initial inspection, a visual inspection must occur at least once every 12
months. If a defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(4)(C).
C) When a
defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure devices, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must make first efforts at repair of the defect no later than 24 hours
after detection and repair must be completed as soon as possible but no later
than five calendar days after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be
completed within five calendar days, then the hazardous secondary material must
be removed from the container and the container must not be used to manage
hazardous secondary material until the defect is repaired.
5) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must maintain at the facility a copy of the procedure used to
determine that containers with capacity of 0.46 m3 or greater which do
not meet applicable USDOT regulations, as specified in subsection (f), are not
managing hazardous secondary material in light material service.
d) Container Level 2 Standards
1) A
container using Container Level 2 controls is one of the following:
A) A
container that meets the applicable USDOT regulations on packaging hazardous
materials for transportation, as specified in subsection (f).
B) A
container that operates with no detectable organic emissions, as defined in
Section 721.981, and determined in accordance with the procedure specified in
subsection (g).
C) A
container that has been demonstrated within the preceding 12 months to be
vapor-tight by using Reference Method 27 (Determination of Vapor Tightness of
Gasoline Delivery Tank Unis Pressure-Vacuum Test) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, in
accordance with the procedure specified in subsection (h).
2) Transfer
of hazardous secondary material in or out of a container using Container Level
2 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize exposure of the
hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere, to the extent practical,
considering the physical properties of the hazardous secondary material and
good engineering and safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable, explosive,
reactive, or other hazardous materials. Examples of container loading
procedures that USEPA has stated that it considers to meet the requirements of
this subsection (d) include using any one of the following: a submerged-fill
pipe or other submerged-fill method to load liquids into the container; a
vapor-balancing system or a vapor-recovery system to collect and control the
vapors displaced from the container during filling operations; or a fitted
opening in the top of a container through which the hazardous secondary
material is filled and subsequently purging the transfer line before removing
it from the container opening.
3) Whenever
a hazardous secondary material is in a container using Container Level 2
controls, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material must install all covers and closure devices for
the container, and secure and maintain each closure device in the closed
position, except as follows:
A) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of adding hazardous
secondary material or other material to the container, as follows:
i) If
the container is filled to the intended final level in one continuous
operation, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed
position and install the covers, as applicable to the container, upon
conclusion of the filling operation.
ii) If
discrete quantities or batches of material intermittently are added to the
container over a period of time, the remanufacturer or other person that stores
or treats the hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the closure
devices in the closed position and install covers, as applicable to the
container, upon either the container being filled to the intended final level;
the completion of a batch loading after which no additional material will be
added to the container within 15 minutes; the person performing the loading
operation leaving the immediate vicinity of the container; or the shutdown of
the process generating the material being added to the container, whichever
condition occurs first.
B) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of removing hazardous
secondary material from the container, as follows:
i) For
the purpose of meeting the requirements of this Section, an empty hazardous
secondary material container may be open to the atmosphere at any time (i.e.,
covers and closure devices are not required to be secured in the closed
position on an empty container).
ii) If
discrete quantities or batches of material are removed from the container, but
the container is not an empty hazardous secondary materials container, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position and
install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the completion of a batch
removal after which no additional material will be removed from the container within
15 minutes or the person performing the unloading operation leaves the
immediate vicinity of the container, whichever condition occurs first.
C) Opening
of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside the container is
needed to perform routine activities other than transfer of hazardous secondary
material. Examples of routine activities other than transfer of hazardous
secondary material include those times when a worker needs to open a port to
measure the depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the container.
Following completion of the activity, the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must promptly secure the
closure device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to
the container.
D) Opening
of a spring-loaded, pressure-vacuum relief valve, conservation vent, or similar
type of pressure relief device which vents to the atmosphere is allowed during
normal operations for the purpose of maintaining the internal pressure of the
container in accordance with the container design specifications. The device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emission when the device
is secured in the closed position. The settings at which the device opens must
be established such that the device remains in the closed position whenever the
internal pressure of the container is within the internal pressure operating
range determined by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats
the hazardous secondary material based on container manufacturer
recommendations, applicable regulations, fire protection and prevention codes,
standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe
handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these devices to open
are during those times when the internal pressure of the container exceeds the
internal pressure operating range for the container as a result of loading
operations or diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
E) Opening
of a safety device, as defined in Section 721.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material using containers with Container Level 2 controls must inspect the
containers and their covers and closure devices as follows:
A) If a
hazardous secondary material already is in the container at the time the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material first accepts possession of the container at the facility and the
container is not emptied within 24 hours after the container is accepted at the
facility (i.e., is not an empty hazardous secondary material container), the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must visually inspect the container and its cover and closure devices
to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the
interior of the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be conducted on or
before the date that the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., the date
the container becomes subject to the container standards of this Subpart CC).
B) If a
container used for managing hazardous secondary material remains at the
facility for a period of one year or more, the remanufacturer or other person
that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must visually inspect
the container and its cover and closure devices initially and thereafter, at
least once every 12 months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other
open spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (d)(4)(C).
C) When a
defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure devices, the
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must make first efforts at repair of the defect no later than 24 hours
after detection, and repair must be completed as soon as possible but no later
than five calendar days after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be
completed within five calendar days, then the hazardous secondary material must
be removed from the container and the container must not be used to manage
hazardous secondary material until the defect is repaired.
e) Container Level 3 Standards
1) A
container using Container Level 3 controls is one of the following:
A) A
container that is vented directly through a closed-vent system to a control
device in accordance with the requirements of subsection (e)(2)(B).
B) A
container that is vented inside an enclosure which is exhausted through a
closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the requirements of
subsections (e)(2)(A) and (e)(2)(B).
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must meet the following requirements, as applicable to the type of air
emission control equipment selected by the remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material:
A) The
container enclosure must be designed and operated in accordance with the
criteria for a permanent total enclosure, as specified in "Procedure T
− Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure" in appendix B (VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture
Efficiency) to 40 CFR 52.741, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111. The enclosure may have permanent or temporary openings to allow
worker access; passage of containers through the enclosure by conveyor or other
mechanical means; entry of permanent mechanical or electrical equipment; or
direct airflow into the enclosure. The remanufacturer or other person that
stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must perform the verification
procedure for the enclosure as specified in Section 5.0 of "Procedure T
− Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure" initially when the enclosure is first installed and,
thereafter, annually.
B) The
closed-vent system and control device must be designed and operated in
accordance with the requirements of Section 721.987.
3) Safety
devices, as defined in Section 721.981, may be installed and operated as
necessary on any container, enclosure, closed-vent system, or control device
used to comply with the requirements of subsection (e)(1).
4) Remanufacturers
or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary material using
Container Level 3 controls in accordance with the provisions of this Subpart CC
must inspect and monitor the closed-vent systems and control devices as
specified in Section 721.987.
5) Remanufacturers
or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary material that use
Container Level 3 controls in accordance with the provisions of this Subpart CC
must prepare and maintain the records specified in Section 721.989(d).
6) Transfer
of hazardous secondary material in or out of a container using Container Level
3 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize exposure of the
hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere, to the extent practical,
considering the physical properties of the hazardous secondary material and
good engineering and safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive, or other hazardous materials. Examples of container
loading procedures that USEPA has stated that it considers to meet the
requirements of this subsection (e) include using any one of the following: a
submerged-fill pipe or other submerged-fill method to load liquids into the
container; a vapor-balancing system or a vapor-recovery system to collect and
control the vapors displaced from the container during filling operations; or a
fitted opening in the top of a container through which the hazardous secondary
material is filled and subsequently purging the transfer line before removing
it from the container opening.
f) For
the purpose of compliance with subsection (c)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(A), containers
must be used that meet the applicable USDOT regulations on packaging hazardous
materials for transportation, as follows:
1) The
container meets the applicable requirements specified in 49 CFR 178
(Specifications for Packagings) or 179 (Specifications for Tank Cars), each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) Hazardous
secondary material is managed in the container in accordance with the
applicable requirements specified in subpart B of 49 CFR 107 (Hazardous
Material Program Procedures) and 49 CFR 172 (Hazardous Materials Table, Special
Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response Information,
Training Requirements, and Security Plans), 173 (Shippers − General
Requirements for Shipments and Packagings), and 180 (Continuing Qualification
and Maintenance of Packagings), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
3) For
the purpose of complying with this Subpart CC, no exceptions to the 49 CFR 178
(Specifications for Packagings) or 179 (Specifications for Tank Cars)
regulations are allowed.
g) To
determine compliance with the no detectable organic emissions requirement of
subsection (d)(1)(B), the procedure specified in Section 721.983(d) must be
used.
1) Each
potential leak interface (i.e., a location where organic vapor leakage could
occur) on the container, its cover, and associated closure devices, as
applicable to the container, must be checked. Potential leak interfaces that
are associated with containers include, but are not limited to: the interface
of the cover rim and the container wall; the periphery of any opening on the
container or container cover and its associated closure device; and the sealing
seat interface on a spring-loaded pressure-relief valve.
2) The
test must be performed when the container is filled with a material having a
volatile organic concentration representative of the range of volatile organic
concentrations for the hazardous secondary materials expected to be managed in
this type of container. During the test, the container cover and closure
devices must be secured in the closed position.
h) Procedure
for determining a container to be vapor-tight using Reference Method 27
(Determination of Vapor Tightness of Gasoline Delivery Tank Unis
Pressure-Vacuum Test) in appendix A (Test Methods) to 40 CFR 60, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, for the purpose of complying with
subsection (d)(1)(C).
1) The
test must be performed in accordance with Reference Method 27 of appendix A to
40 CFR 60.
2) A
pressure measurement device must be used that has a precision of ±2.5 mm water
and that is capable of measuring above the pressure at which the container is
to be tested for vapor tightness.
3) If
the test results determined by Reference Method 27 indicate that the container
sustains a pressure change less than or equal to 0.75 kPa within five minutes
after it is pressurized to a minimum of 4.5 kPa, then the container is
determined to be vapor-tight.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.987 STANDARDS: CLOSED-VENT SYSTEMS AND CONTROL DEVICES
Section 721.987 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and
Control Devices
a) This
Section applies to each closed-vent system and control device installed and
operated by the remanufacturer or other person who stores or treats the
hazardous secondary material to control air emissions in accordance with
standards of this Subpart CC.
b) The closed-vent system
must meet the following requirements:
1) The
closed-vent system must route the gases, vapors, and fumes emitted from the
hazardous secondary material in the hazardous secondary material management
unit to a control device that meets the requirements specified in subsection
(c).
2) The
closed-vent system must be designed and operated in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.933(k).
3) If
the closed-vent system includes bypass devices that could be used to divert the
gas or vapor stream to the atmosphere before entering the control device, each
bypass device must be equipped with either a flow indicator as specified in
subsection (b)(3)(A) or a seal or locking device as specified in subsection
(b)(3)(B). For the purpose of complying with this subsection (b), low leg
drains, high point bleeds, analyzer vents, open-ended valves or lines, spring
loaded pressure relief valves, and other fittings used for safety purposes are
not considered to be bypass devices.
A) If a
flow indicator is used to comply with subsection (b)(3), the indicator must be
installed at the inlet to the bypass line used to divert gases and vapors from
the closed-vent system to the atmosphere at a point upstream of the control
device inlet. For this subsection (b), a flow indicator means a device which
indicates the presence of either gas or vapor flow in the bypass line.
B) If a
seal or locking device is used to comply with subsection (b)(3), the device
must be placed on the mechanism by which the bypass device position is
controlled (e.g., valve handle, damper lever, etc.) when the bypass device is
in the closed position such that the bypass device cannot be opened without
breaking the seal or removing the lock. Examples of such devices include, but
are not limited to, a car-seal or a lock-and-key configuration valve. The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must visually inspect the seal or closure mechanism at least once
every month to verify that the bypass mechanism is maintained in the closed
position.
4) The
closed-vent system must be inspected and monitored by the remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in
accordance with the procedure specified in Section 721.933(l).
c) The control device must
meet the following requirements:
1) The
control device must be one of the following devices:
A) A
control device designed and operated to reduce the total organic content of the
inlet vapor stream vented to the control device by at least 95 percent by
weight;
B) An
enclosed combustion device designed and operated in accordance with the
requirements of Section 721.933(c); or
C) A
flare designed and operated in accordance with the requirements of Section
721.933(d).
2) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material who elects to use a closed-vent system and control device to comply
with the requirements of this Section must comply with the requirements
specified in subsections (c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F).
A) Periods
of planned routine maintenance of the control device, during which the control
device does not meet the specifications of subsection (c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or
(c)(1)(C), as applicable, must not exceed 240 hours per year.
B) The
specifications and requirements in subsections (c)(1)(A) through (c)(1)(C) for
control devices do not apply during periods of planned routine maintenance.
C) The
specifications and requirements in subsections (c)(1)(A) through (c)(1)(C) for
control devices do not apply during a control device system malfunction.
D) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of subsection
(c)(2)(A) (i.e., planned routine maintenance of a control device, during which
the control device does not meet the specifications of subsection (c)(1)(A),
(c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C), as applicable, must not exceed 240 hours per year) by
recording the information specified in Section 721.989(e)(1)(E).
E) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must correct control device system malfunctions as soon as practicable
after their occurrence in order to minimize excess emissions of air pollutants.
F) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must operate the closed-vent system such that gases, vapors, or fumes
are not actively vented to the control device during periods of planned
maintenance or control device system malfunction (i.e., periods when the
control device is not operating or not operating normally) except in cases when
it is necessary to vent the gases, vapors, or fumes to avoid an unsafe
condition or to implement malfunction corrective actions or planned maintenance
actions.
3) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material using a carbon adsorption system to comply with subsection (c)(1) must
operate and maintain the control device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) Following
the initial startup of the control device, all activated carbon in the control
device must be replaced with fresh carbon on a regular basis in accordance with
the requirements of Section 721.933(g) or (h).
B) All
carbon that is hazardous waste and that is removed from the control device must
be managed in accordance with the requirements of Section 721.933(n),
regardless of the average volatile organic concentration of the carbon.
4) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material using a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, flare, boiler,
process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system to comply with
subsection (c)(1) must operate and maintain the control device in accordance
with the requirements of Section 721.933(j).
5) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must demonstrate that a control device achieves the performance
requirements of subsection (c)(1) as follows:
A) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must demonstrate the performance of each control device, using either
a performance test, as specified in subsection (c)(5)(C), or a design analysis,
as specified in subsection (c)(5)(D), except for the following:
i) A flare;
ii) A
boiler or process heater with a design heat input capacity of 44 megawatts or
greater; or
iii) A
boiler or process heater into which the vent stream is introduced with the
primary fuel.
B) A
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must demonstrate the performance of each flare in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 721.933(e).
C) For a
performance test conducted to meet the requirements of subsection (c)(5)(A),
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material must use the test methods and procedures specified in
Section 721.934(c)(1) through (c)(4).
D) For a
design analysis conducted to meet the requirements of subsection (c)(5)(A), the
design analysis must meet the requirements specified in Section
721.935(b)(4)(C).
E) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must demonstrate that a carbon adsorption system achieves the
performance requirements of subsection (c)(1) based on the total quantity of
organics vented to the atmosphere from all carbon adsorption system equipment
that is used for organic adsorption, organic desorption or carbon regeneration,
organic recovery, and carbon disposal.
6) If
the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous
secondary material and the Agency do not agree on a demonstration of control
device performance using a design analysis, then the disagreement must be
resolved using the results of a performance test performed by the remanufacturer
or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(5)(C). The Agency may
choose to have an authorized representative observe the performance test. The
Agency must state any disagreement on a demonstration of control device
performance using a design analysis in writing to the remanufacturer or other
person that treats or stores hazardous secondary material.
7) The
closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and monitored by the
remanufacture or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material in accordance with the procedures specified in Section 721.933(f)(2)
and (l). The readings from each monitoring device required by Section
721.933(f)(2) must be inspected at least once each operating day to check
control device operation. Any necessary corrective measures must be immediately
implemented to ensure the control device is operated in compliance with the
requirements of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 42 Ill. Reg. 21673,
effective November 19, 2018)
 | TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SECTION 721.988 INSPECTION AND MONITORING REQUIREMENTS
Section 721.988 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
a) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must inspect and monitor air emission control equipment used to comply
with this Subpart CC in accordance with the applicable requirements specified
in Sections 721.984 through 721.987.
b) The
remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary
material must develop and implement a written plan and schedule to perform the
inspections and monitoring required by subsection (a). The remanufacturer or
other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must keep
the plan and schedule at the facility.
(Source: Added at 40 Ill. Reg. 11367,
effective August 9, 2016)
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