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Illinois Compiled Statutes

Information maintained by the Legislative Reference Bureau
Updating the database of the Illinois Compiled Statutes (ILCS) is an ongoing process. Recent laws may not yet be included in the ILCS database, but they are found on this site as Public Acts soon after they become law. For information concerning the relationship between statutes and Public Acts, refer to the Guide.

Because the statute database is maintained primarily for legislative drafting purposes, statutory changes are sometimes included in the statute database before they take effect. If the source note at the end of a Section of the statutes includes a Public Act that has not yet taken effect, the version of the law that is currently in effect may have already been removed from the database and you should refer to that Public Act to see the changes made to the current law.

CRIMINAL OFFENSES
(720 ILCS 570/) Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

720 ILCS 570/Art. I

 
    (720 ILCS 570/Art. I heading)
ARTICLE I

720 ILCS 570/100

    (720 ILCS 570/100) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1100)
    Sec. 100. Legislative intent. It is the intent of the General Assembly, recognizing the rising incidence in the abuse of drugs and other dangerous substances and its resultant damage to the peace, health, and welfare of the citizens of Illinois, to provide a system of control over the distribution and use of controlled substances which will more effectively: (1) limit access of such substances only to those persons who have demonstrated an appropriate sense of responsibility and have a lawful and legitimate reason to possess them; (2) deter the unlawful and destructive abuse of controlled substances; (3) penalize most heavily the illicit traffickers or profiteers of controlled substances, who propagate and perpetuate the abuse of such substances with reckless disregard for its consumptive consequences upon every element of society; (4) acknowledge the functional and consequential differences between the various types of controlled substances and provide for correspondingly different degrees of control over each of the various types; (5) unify where feasible and codify the efforts of this State to conform with the regulatory systems of the Federal government; and (6) provide law enforcement authorities with the necessary resources to make this system efficacious.
    It is not the intent of the General Assembly to treat the unlawful user or occasional petty distributor of controlled substances with the same severity as the large-scale, unlawful purveyors and traffickers of controlled substances. However, it is recognized that persons who violate this Act with respect to the manufacture, delivery, possession with intent to deliver, or possession of more than one type of controlled substance listed herein may accordingly receive multiple convictions and sentences under each Section of this Act. To this end, guidelines have been provided, along with a wide latitude in sentencing discretion, to enable the sentencing court to order penalties in each case which are appropriate for the purposes of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/101

    (720 ILCS 570/101) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1101)
    Sec. 101. This Act shall be known as and may be cited as the "Illinois Controlled Substances Act."
(Source: P.A. 77-757.)

720 ILCS 570/102

    (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
    (Text of Section from P.A. 100-280)
    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:
    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.
    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by
    
his or her authorized agent),
        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
    
order, or
        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
    
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.
    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 
    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 
    (x) 5-androstenedione  
        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
        diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    
    
(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        androstan-3-one), 
    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 
        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
        androst-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 
    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
        -5a-androstane), 
    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
        1-testosterone'), 
    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  
        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 
        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
        acid lactone), 
    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        4-en-3-one), 
    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
        11-trien-3-one). 
    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.
    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.
    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.
    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.
    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.
    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
    
similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;
        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
    
hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or
        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
    
person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.
    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.
    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.
    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
    (j) (Blank).
    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.
    (n) (Blank).
    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.
    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.
    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
    (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.
    (t-4) "Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.
    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:
        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
    
relationship,
        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
    
prescriber for large numbers of patients,
        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
    
clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),
        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
    
pharmacist and prescriber,
        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.
    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
    
designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;
        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used
    
or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and
        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
    
curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.
    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.
    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:
        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
    
of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that
    
the substance may be resold for profit;
        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
    
normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;
        (d) whether the distribution or attempted
    
distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.
    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.
    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:
        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or
    
compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
    
under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:
            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
        
dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or
            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching
        
or chemical analysis and not for sale.
    (z-1) (Blank).
    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.
    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
    
including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;
        (2) (blank);
        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
    
coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;
        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric
    
isomers, and salts of isomers;
        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
    
and salts of isomers;
        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
    
contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
    (cc) (Blank).
    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.
    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.
    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.
    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.
    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.
    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.
    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, emergency medical services personnel, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.
    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.
    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.
    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law.
    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.
    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.
    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.
    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.
    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.
    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.
    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.
    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-280, eff. 1-1-18.)
 
    (Text of Section from P.A. 100-453)
    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:
    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.
    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by
    
his or her authorized agent),
        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
    
order, or
        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
    
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.
    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 
    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 
    (x) 5-androstenedione  
        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
        diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    
    
(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        androstan-3-one), 
    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 
        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
        androst-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 
    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
        -5a-androstane), 
    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
        1-testosterone'), 
    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  
        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 
        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
        acid lactone), 
    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        4-en-3-one), 
    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
        11-trien-3-one). 
    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.
    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.
    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.
    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.
    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.
    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
    
similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;
        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
    
hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or
        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
    
person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.
    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.
    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.
    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
    (j) (Blank).
    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.
    (n) (Blank).
    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.
    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.
    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
    (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.
    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:
        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
    
relationship,
        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
    
prescriber for large numbers of patients,
        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
    
clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),
        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
    
pharmacist and prescriber,
        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.
    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
    
designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;
        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used
    
or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and
        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
    
curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.
    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.
    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:
        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
    
of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that
    
the substance may be resold for profit;
        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
    
normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;
        (d) whether the distribution or attempted
    
distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.
    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.
    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:
        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or
    
compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
    
under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:
            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
        
dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or
            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching
        
or chemical analysis and not for sale.
    (z-1) (Blank).
    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.
    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
    
including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;
        (2) (blank);
        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
    
coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;
        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric
    
isomers, and salts of isomers;
        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
    
and salts of isomers;
        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
    
contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
    (cc) (Blank).
    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.
    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.
    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.
    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.
    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.
    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.
    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.
    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.
    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.
    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law.
    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.
    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.
    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.
    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.
    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.
    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.
    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.
    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17.)
 
    (Text of Section from P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:
    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.
    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by
    
his or her authorized agent),
        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
    
order, or
        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
    
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.
    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 
    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 
    (x) 5-androstenedione  
        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
        diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    
    
(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        androstan-3-one), 
    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 
        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
        androst-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 
    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
        -5a-androstane), 
    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
        1-testosterone'), 
    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  
        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
        en-3,17-dione), 
    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 
        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
        acid lactone), 
    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
        4-en-3-one), 
    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
        11-trien-3-one). 
    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.
    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.
    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.
    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.
    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.
    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
    
similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;
        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
    
hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or
        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
    
person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.
    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.
    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.
    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
    (j) (Blank).
    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.
    (n) (Blank).
    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.
    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.
    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
    (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.
    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:
        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
    
relationship,
        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
    
prescriber for large numbers of patients,
        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
    
clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),
        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
    
pharmacist and prescriber,
        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.
    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
    
designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;
        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used
    
or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and
        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
    
curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.
    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.
    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:
        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
    
of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that
    
the substance may be resold for profit;
        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
    
normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;
        (d) whether the distribution or attempted
    
distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.
    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.
    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.
    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:
        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or
    
compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
    
under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:
            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
        
dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or
            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching
        
or chemical analysis and not for sale.
    (z-1) (Blank).
    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.
    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
    
including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;
        (2) (blank);
        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
    
coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;
        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric
    
isomers, and salts of isomers;
        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
    
and salts of isomers;
        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
    
contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
    (cc) (Blank).
    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.
    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.
    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.
    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.
    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.
    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.
    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.
    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.
    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, or an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.
    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law, or of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.
    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.
    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.
    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.
    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.
    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.
    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.
    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.
    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/103

    (720 ILCS 570/103) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1103)
    Sec. 103. Scope of Act. Nothing in this Act limits the lawful authority granted by the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, or the Pharmacy Practice Act.
(Source: P.A. 95-242, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

720 ILCS 570/Art. II

 
    (720 ILCS 570/Art. II heading)
ARTICLE II

720 ILCS 570/201

    (720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201)
    Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the provisions of this Article. The Department or its successor agency may, by administrative rule, add additional substances to or delete or reschedule all controlled substances in the Schedules of Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act. In making a determination regarding the addition, deletion, or rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the following:
        (1) the actual or relative potential for abuse;
        (2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological
    
effect, if known;
        (3) the state of current scientific knowledge
    
regarding the substance;
        (4) the history and current pattern of abuse;
        (5) the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;
        (6) the risk to the public health;
        (7) the potential of the substance to produce
    
psychological or physiological dependence;
        (8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor
    
of a substance already controlled under this Article;
        (9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of
    
potentially fatal dosage; and
        (10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent
    
health impairment.
    (b) (Blank).
    (c) (Blank).
    (d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected files with the Department substantial written objections objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the substantial written objections and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the Department, similar control under this Act whether by inclusion, rescheduling or deletion is stayed until the Department publishes its ruling.
    (e) (Blank).
    (f) (Blank).
    (g) Authority to control under this Section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
    (h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled substances shall maintain adequate security and provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault) for Schedule V controlled substances containing pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances containing dextromethorphan.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

720 ILCS 570/202

    (720 ILCS 570/202) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1202)
    Sec. 202. The controlled substances listed in the schedules in Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212, including any substances added to any of those schedules by the Department by administrative rule, may be included by official, common, usual, chemical, or trade name.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/203

    (720 ILCS 570/203) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1203)
    Sec. 203. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule I if it finds that:
        (1) the substance has high potential for abuse; and
        (2) the substance has no currently accepted medical
    
use in treatment in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/204

    (720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Acetylmethadol;
        (1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl
    (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);
        (2) Allylprodine;
        (3) Alphacetylmethadol, except
    levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-
    acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);
        (4) Alphameprodine;
        (5) Alphamethadol;
        (6) Alpha-methylfentanyl
    (N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)
    propionanilide;  1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-
    propanilido) piperidine;
        (6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl
    (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);
        (7.1) PEPAP
    (1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);
        (8) Benzethidine;
        (9) Betacetylmethadol;
        (9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl
    (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (10) Betameprodine;
        (11) Betamethadol;
        (12) Betaprodine;
        (13) Clonitazene;
        (14) Dextromoramide;
        (15) Diampromide;
        (16) Diethylthiambutene;
        (17) Difenoxin;
        (18) Dimenoxadol;
        (19) Dimepheptanol;
        (20) Dimethylthiambutene;
        (21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;
        (22) Dipipanone;
        (23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;
        (24) Etonitazene;
        (25) Etoxeridine;
        (26) Furethidine;
        (27) Hydroxpethidine;
        (28) Ketobemidone;
        (29) Levomoramide;
        (30) Levophenacylmorphan;
        (31) 3-Methylfentanyl
    (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-
    4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl
    (N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (32) Morpheridine;
        (33) Noracymethadol;
        (34) Norlevorphanol;
        (35) Normethadone;
        (36) Norpipanone;
        (36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl
    (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]propanamide);
        (37) Phenadoxone;
        (38) Phenampromide;
        (39) Phenomorphan;
        (40) Phenoperidine;
        (41) Piritramide;
        (42) Proheptazine;
        (43) Properidine;
        (44) Propiram;
        (45) Racemoramide;
        (45.1) Thiofentanyl
    (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);
        (46) Tilidine;
        (47) Trimeperidine;
        (48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:
    N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-
    N-phenylpropanamide).
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Acetorphine;
        (2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;
        (3) Benzylmorphine;
        (4) Codeine methylbromide;
        (5) Codeine-N-Oxide;
        (6) Cyprenorphine;
        (7) Desomorphine;
        (8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);
        (9) Dihydromorphine;
        (10) Drotebanol;
        (11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);
        (12) Heroin;
        (13) Hydromorphinol;
        (14) Methyldesorphine;
        (15) Methyldihydromorphine;
        (16) Morphine methylbromide;
        (17) Morphine methylsulfonate;
        (18) Morphine-N-Oxide;
        (19) Myrophine;
        (20) Nicocodeine;
        (21) Nicomorphine;
        (22) Normorphine;
        (23) Pholcodine;
        (24) Thebacon.
    (d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):
        (1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine
    (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine,
    methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);
        (1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine
    (some trade or other names: etryptamine;
    MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine;
    3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);
        (2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);
        (2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine
    (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-
    3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE,
    and MDEA);
        (2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);
        (2.2-1) Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine (TFMPP);
        (3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);
        (4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);
        (5) (Blank);
        (6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);
        (7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);
        (7.1) 5-Methoxy-diallyltryptamine;
        (8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);
        (9) Ibogaine  (some trade and other names:
    7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-
    6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]
    indole; Tabernanthe iboga);
        (10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;
        (10.1) Salvinorin A;
        (10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the
    
plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);
        (11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);
        (12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently
    
classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);
        (13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);
        (14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
        (14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine
    (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-
    3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);
        (15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names:
    3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-
    dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;
        (16) Psilocybin;
        (17) Psilocyn;
        (18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);
        (19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine
    (2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);
        (20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine
    (4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;
    4-bromo-2,5-DMA);
        (20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine.
    Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-
    2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane;
    alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;
        (21) 4-methoxyamphetamine
    (4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;
    paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);
        (22) (Blank);
        (23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine.
    Some trade or other names:
    N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine,
    (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine,
    N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;
        (24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade
    
or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;
        (25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;
        (26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine
    (another name: DOET);
        (27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine
    (another name: TCPy);
        (28) (Blank);
        (29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade
    or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine;
    2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);
        (30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:
    3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;
    3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;
    5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;
    N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);
        (31)  1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole 
    Some trade or other names: JWH-018; 
        (32) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole 
    Some trade or other names: JWH-073;  
        (33) 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]- 
    (2-iodophenyl)methanone 
    Some trade or other names: AM-694;
        (34) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-
    (2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol 
    Some trade or other names: CP 47,497 
    and its C6, C8 and C9 homologs;
        (34.5)  2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5- 
    (2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol), where side chain n=5;  
    and homologues where side chain n=4, 6, or 7;  Some  
    trade or other names: CP 47,497; 
        (35) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-
    (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7, 
    10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
    Some trade or other names: HU-210; 
        (35.5)  (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6- 
    dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a- 
    tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,  
    salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other  
    names: HU-210, Dexanabinol; 
        (36) Dexanabinol, (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-
    6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)- 
    6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
    Some trade or other names: HU-211;
        (37) (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-
    3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone 
    Some trade or other names: JWH-015;
        (38) 4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-
    (1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone 
    Some trade or other names: JWH-081;
        (39) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole
    Some trade or other names: JWH-122;
        (40) 2-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-
    1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone 
    Some trade or other names: JWH-251;
        (41) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3- 
    (2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole 
    Some trade or other names: RCS-8, BTW-8 and SR-18; 
        (42)  Any compound structurally derived from 
    3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl- 
    (1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the 
    nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide,
    alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, 
    or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further 
    substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether 
    or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent.
    Examples of this structural class include, but are
    not limited to, JWH-018, AM-2201, JWH-175, JWH-184,
    and JWH-185;
        (43)  Any compound structurally derived from 
    3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen 
    atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl
    aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl,
    or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether 
    or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent.
    Examples of this structural class include, but are not
    limited to, JWH-030, JWH-145, JWH-146, JWH-307, and
    JWH-368; 
        (44)  Any compound structurally derived from 
    1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution 
    at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl
    halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-
    2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-
    morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in
    the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted
    in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of
    this structural class include, but are not
    limited to, JWH-176; 
        (45)  Any compound structurally derived from 
    3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the 
    nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl
    halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,
    whether or not further substituted in the indole ring
    to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl
    ring to any extent. Examples of this structural
    class include, but are not limited to, JWH-167,
    JWH-250, JWH-251, and RCS-8; 
        (46)  Any compound structurally derived from 
    2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution 
    at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl, 
    haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2- 
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,
    whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any
    extent. Examples of this structural class
    include, but are not limited to, CP 47,
    497 and its C8 homologue (cannabicyclohexanol); 
        (46.1) Benzoylindoles: Any compound 
    containing a 3-(benzoyl) indole structure with 
    substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, 
    or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group 
    whether or not further substituted 
    in the indole ring to any extent and 
    whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring 
    to any extent. Examples of this structural class 
    include, but are not limited to, AM-630, 
    AM-2233, AM-694, Pravadoline (WIN 48,098), and RCS-4; 
        (47)  3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone 
    Some trade or other names: Methylone; 
        (48)  3,4-Methyenedioxypyrovalerone 
    Some trade or other names: MDPV; 
        (49)  4-Methylmethcathinone 
    Some trade or other names: Mephedrone; 
        (50)  4-methoxymethcathinone; 
        (51)  4-Fluoromethcathinone; 
        (52)  3-Fluoromethcathinone; 
        (53)  2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio- 
    phenethylamine; 
        (54)  5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine; 
        (55)  Pentedrone;  
        (56)  4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-((2-methoxy 
    phenyl)methyl)-benzeneethanamine 
    (trade or other name: 25I-NBOMe); 
        (57)  4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl) 
    methyl]-benzeneethanamine (trade or other name: 
    25C-NBOMe); 
        (58)  4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl) 
    methyl]-benzeneethanamine (trade or other name: 
    25B-NBOMe); 
        (59)  3-cyclopropoylindole with 
    substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl 
    halide, alkyl aryl halide, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not 
    further substituted on the indole ring 
    to any extent, whether or not substituted 
    on the cyclopropyl ring to any extent: 
    including, but not limited to, XLR11, 
    UR144, FUB-144; 
        (60)  3-adamantoylindole with 
    substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not 
    further substituted on the indole ring to 
    any extent, whether or not substituted on 
    the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, 
    but not limited to, AB-001; 
        (61)  N-(adamantyl)-indole-3-carboxamide 
    with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, 
    alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, 
    or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether 
    or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any 
    extent: including, but not limited to, 
    APICA/2NE-1, STS-135; 
        (62)  N-(adamantyl)-indazole-3-carboxamide 
    with substitution at a nitrogen atom of the indazole 
    ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, 
    cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, 
    whether or not substituted on the adamantyl 
    ring to any extent: including, but not limited 
    to, AKB48, 5F-AKB48; 
        (63)  1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid 8-quinolinyl 
    ester with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl 
    aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the indole ring to any extent, 
    whether or not substituted on the quinoline ring 
    to any extent: including, but not limited to, PB22, 
    5F-PB22, FUB-PB-22; 
        (64)  3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole with 
    substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
    indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, 
    whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring 
    to any extent: including, but not limited to, 
    THJ-018, THJ-2201; 
        (65)  2-(1-naphthoyl)benzimidazole with 
    substitution at the nitrogen atom of the benzimidazole 
    ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, 
    cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 
    1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the benzimidazole ring to any extent, 
    whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to 
    any extent: including, but not limited to, FUBIMINA; 
        (66)  N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl) 
    -1H-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the 
    nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, 
    haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2- 
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, 
    whether or not further substituted on the indazole 
    ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, 
    AB-PINACA, AB-FUBINACA, AB-CHMINACA; 
        (67)  N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan- 
    2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution 
    on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, 
    haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
    aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2- 
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether 
    or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any 
    extent: including, but not limited to, ADB-PINACA, 
    ADB-FUBINACA; 
        (68)  N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)- 
    1H-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen 
    atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
    cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl 
    aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 
    2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further 
    substituted on the indole ring to any extent: 
    including, but not limited to, ADBICA, 5F-ADBICA; 
        (69)  N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)- 
    1H-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the 
    nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl 
    halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2- 
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, 
    whether or not further substituted on the indole 
    ring to any extent: including, but not limited 
    to, ABICA, 5F-ABICA; 
        (70)  Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)- 
    3-methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen 
    atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, 
    alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl 
    halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2- 
    piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, 
    whether or not further substituted on the indazole 
    ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AMB, 5F-AMB. 
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) mecloqualone;
        (2) methaqualone; and
        (3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.
    (f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
        (1) Fenethylline;
        (2) N-ethylamphetamine;
        (3) Aminorex (some other names:
    2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;
    4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its
    salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
        (4) Methcathinone (some other names:
    2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;
    Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;
    alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;
    methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its
    salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
        (5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:
    2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;
    2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);
        (6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:
    N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;
    N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);
        (7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex  ((+ or -) cis-
    4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);
        (8) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV).
    (g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:
        (1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide
    (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts,
    and salts of isomers;
        (2) N-[1(2-thienyl)
   methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl),
   its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.
    (h) Synthetic cathinones. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical compound not including bupropion, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in one or more of the following ways:
        (1) by substitution in the ring system to 
    any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, 
    haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether 
    or not further substituted in the ring system 
    by one or more other univalent substituents. 
    Examples of this class include, but are not 
    limited to, 3,4-Methylenedioxycathinone 
    (bk-MDA); 
        (2) by substitution at the 3-position 
    with an acyclic alkyl substituent. Examples of 
    this class include, but are not limited to, 
    2-methylamino-1-phenylbutan-1-one 
    (buphedrone); or 
        (3) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen 
    atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl 
    groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom 
    in a cyclic structure. Examples of this class include, 
    but are not limited to, Dimethylcathinone, Ethcathinone, 
    and a-Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (a-PPP). 
(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Acetylmethadol;
        (1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl
    (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);
        (2) Allylprodine;
        (3) Alphacetylmethadol, except
    levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-
    acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);
        (4) Alphameprodine;
        (5) Alphamethadol;
        (6) Alpha-methylfentanyl
    (N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)
    propionanilide;  1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-
    propanilido) piperidine;
        (6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl
    (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);
        (7.1) PEPAP
    (1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);
        (8) Benzethidine;
        (9) Betacetylmethadol;
        (9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl
    (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (10) Betameprodine;
        (11) Betamethadol;
        (12) Betaprodine;
        (13) Clonitazene;
        (14) Dextromoramide;
        (15) Diampromide;
        (16) Diethylthiambutene;
        (17) Difenoxin;
        (18) Dimenoxadol;
        (19) Dimepheptanol;
        (20) Dimethylthiambutene;
        (21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;
        (22) Dipipanone;
        (23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;
        (24) Etonitazene;
        (25) Etoxeridine;
        (26) Furethidine;
        (27) Hydroxpethidine;
        (28) Ketobemidone;
        (29) Levomoramide;
        (30) Levophenacylmorphan;
        (31) 3-Methylfentanyl
    (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-
    4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl
    (N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
        (32) Morpheridine;
        (33) Noracymethadol;
        (34) Norlevorphanol;
        (35) Normethadone;
        (36) Norpipanone;
        (36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl
    (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-
    4-piperidinyl]propanamide);
        (37) Phenadoxone;
        (38) Phenampromide;
        (39) Phenomorphan;
        (40) Phenoperidine;
        (41) Piritramide;
        (42) Proheptazine;
        (43) Properidine;
        (44) Propiram;
        (45) Racemoramide;
        (45.1) Thiofentanyl
    (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-
    4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);
        (46) Tilidine;
        (47) Trimeperidine;
        (48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:
    N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-
    N-phenylpropanamide);
        (49) Furanyl fentanyl (FU-F);
        (50) Butyryl fentanyl;
        (51) Valeryl fentanyl;
        (52) Acetyl fentanyl;
        (53) Beta-hydroxy-thiofentanyl;
        (54) 3,4-dichloro-N-[2-
    (dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-
    methylbenzamide (U-47700); 
        (55) 4-chloro-N-[1-[2-
    (4-nitrophenyl)ethyl]-2-piperidinylidene]-
    benzenesulfonamide (W-18); 
        (56) 4-chloro-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)
    -2-piperidinylidene]-benzenesulfonamide (W-15); 
        (57) acrylfentanyl (acryloylfentanyl). 
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Acetorphine;
        (2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;
        (3) Benzylmorphine;
        (4) Codeine methylbromide;
        (5) Codeine-N-Oxide;
        (6) Cyprenorphine;
        (7) Desomorphine;
        (8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);
        (9) Dihydromorphine;
        (10) Drotebanol;
        (11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);
        (12) Heroin;
        (13) Hydromorphinol;
        (14) Methyldesorphine;
        (15) Methyldihydromorphine;
        (16) Morphine methylbromide;
        (17) Morphine methylsulfonate;
        (18) Morphine-N-Oxide;
        (19) Myrophine;
        (20) Nicocodeine;
        (21) Nicomorphine;
        (22) Normorphine;
        (23) Pholcodine;
        (24) Thebacon.
    (d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):
        (1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine
    (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine,
    methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);
        (1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine
    (some trade or other names: etryptamine;
    MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine;
    3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);
        (2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);
        (2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine
    (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-
    3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE,
    and MDEA);
        (2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);
        (2.2-1) Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine (TFMPP);
        (3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);
        (4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);
        (5) (Blank);
        (6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);
        (7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);
        (7.1) 5-Methoxy-diallyltryptamine;
        (8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);
        (9) Ibogaine  (some trade and other names:
    7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-
    6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]
    indole; Tabernanthe iboga);
        (10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;
        (10.1) Salvinorin A;
        (10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the
    
plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);
        (11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);
        (12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently
    
classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);
        (13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);
        (14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
        (14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine
    (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-
    3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);
        (15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names:
    3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-
    dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;
        (16) Psilocybin;
        (17) Psilocyn;
        (18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);
        (19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine
    (2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);
        (20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine
    (4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;
    4-bromo-2,5-DMA);
        (20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine.
    Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-
    2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane;
    alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;
        (21) 4-methoxyamphetamine
    (4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;
    paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);
        (22) (Blank);
        (23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine.
    Some trade or other names:
    N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine,
    (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine,
    N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;
        (24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade
    
or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;
        (25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;
        (26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine
    (another name: DOET);
        (27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine
    (another name: TCPy);
        (28) (Blank);
        (29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade
    or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine;
    2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);
        (29.1) Benzothiophene analog of phencyclidine Some
    
trade or other names: BTCP or benocyclidine;
        (29.2) 3-Methoxyphencyclidine (3-MeO-PCP);
        (30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:
    3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;
    3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;
    5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;
    N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);
        (31) (Blank);  
        (32) (Blank);  
        (33) (Blank);  
        (34) (Blank); 
        (34.5) (Blank);  
        (35) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-
    (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7, 
    10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
    Some trade or other names: HU-210; 
        (35.5)  (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6- 
    dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a- 
    tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,  
    salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other  
    names: HU-210, Dexanabinol; 
        (36) Dexanabinol, (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-
    6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)- 
    6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
    Some trade or other names: HU-211;
        (37) (Blank);
        (38) (Blank);
        (39) (Blank);
        (40) (Blank);
        (41) (Blank);
        (42) Any compound structurally derived from
    
3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-018, AM-2201, JWH-175, JWH-184, and JWH-185;
        (43) Any compound structurally derived from
    
3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-030, JWH-145, JWH-146, JWH-307, and JWH-368;
        (44) Any compound structurally derived from
    
1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-176;
        (45) Any compound structurally derived from
    
3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-167, JWH-250, JWH-251, and RCS-8;
        (46) Any compound structurally derived from
    
2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, CP 47, 497 and its C8 homologue (cannabicyclohexanol);
        (46.1) Any compound structurally derived from
    
3-(benzoyl) indole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, AM-630, AM-2233, AM-694, Pravadoline (WIN 48,098), and RCS-4;
        (47) (Blank);
        (48) (Blank);
        (49) (Blank);
        (50) (Blank);
        (51) (Blank);
        (52) (Blank);
        (53) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio-phenethylamine
    
Some trade or other names: 2C-T-7;
        (53.1) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine Some trade
    
or other names: 2C-E;
        (53.2) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-methylphenethylamine Some
    
trade or other names: 2C-D;
        (53.3) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine Some
    
trade or other names: 2C-C;
        (53.4) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine Some trade
    
or other names: 2C-I;
        (53.5) 4-ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine Some
    
trade or other names: 2C-T-2;
        (53.6) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-isopropylthio-phenethylamine
    
Some trade or other names: 2C-T-4;
        (53.7) 2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine Some trade or
    
other names: 2C-H;
        (53.8) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-nitrophenethylamine Some trade
    
or other names: 2C-N;
        (53.9) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenethylamine Some
    
trade or other names: 2C-P;
        (53.10) 2,5-dimethoxy-3,4-dimethylphenethylamine Some
    
trade or other names: 2C-G;
        (53.11) The N-(2-methoxybenzyl) derivative of any 2C
    
phenethylamine referred to in subparagraphs (20.1), (53), (53.1), (53.2), (53.3), (53.4), (53.5), (53.6), (53.7), (53.8), (53.9), and (53.10) including, but not limited to, 25I-NBOMe and 25C-NBOMe;
        (54) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine;
        (55) (Blank);
        (56) (Blank);
        (57) (Blank);
        (58) (Blank);
        (59) 3-cyclopropoylindole with substitution at the
    
nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the cyclopropyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, XLR11, UR144, FUB-144;
        (60) 3-adamantoylindole with substitution at the
    
nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AB-001;
        (61) N-(adamantyl)-indole-3-carboxamide with
    
substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, APICA/2NE-1, STS-135;
        (62) N-(adamantyl)-indazole-3-carboxamide with
    
substitution at a nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AKB48, 5F-AKB48;
        (63) 1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid 8-quinolinyl ester
    
with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the quinoline ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, PB22, 5F-PB22, FUB-PB-22;
        (64) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole with substitution at
    
the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, THJ-018, THJ-2201;
        (65) 2-(1-naphthoyl)benzimidazole with substitution
    
at the nitrogen atom of the benzimidazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the benzimidazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, FUBIMINA;
        (66)
    
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole- 3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AB-PINACA, AB-FUBINACA, AB-CHMINACA;
        (67) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-
    
indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ADB-PINACA, ADB-FUBINACA;
        (68) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-
    
indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ADBICA, 5F-ADBICA;
        (69) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indole-
    
3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ABICA, 5F-ABICA;
        (70) Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-
    
methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AMB, 5F-AMB.
        (71) Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-
    
dimethylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, 5-fluoro-MDMB-PINACA, MDMB-FUBINACA;
        (72) Methyl 2-(1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-
    
methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, MMB018, MMB2201, and AMB-CHMICA;
        (73) Methyl 2-(1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-
    
dimethylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, MDMB-CHMICA;
        (74) N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-
    
indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any     extent: including, but not limited to, APP-CHMINACA, 5-fluoro-APP-PINACA;
        (75) N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indole-
    
3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, APP-PICA and 5-fluoro-APP-PICA;
        (76) 4-Acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine: trade name
    
4-AcO-DMT;
        (77) 5-Methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine: trade
    
name 5-MeO-MIPT;
        (78) 4-hydroxy Diethyltryptamine (4-HO-DET);
        (79) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (4-HO-MET);
        (80) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);
        (81) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine
    
(4-HO-MiPT);
        (82) Fluorophenylpiperazine;
        (83) Methoxetamine;
        (84) 1-(Ethylamino)-2-phenylpropan-2-one (iso-
    
ethcathinone).
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) mecloqualone;
        (2) methaqualone; and
        (3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.
    (f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
        (1) Fenethylline;
        (2) N-ethylamphetamine;
        (3) Aminorex (some other names:
    2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;
    4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its
    salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
        (4) Methcathinone (some other names:
    2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;
    Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;
    alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;
    methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its
    salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
        (5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:
    2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;
    2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);
        (6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:
    N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;
    N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);
        (7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex  ((+ or -) cis-
    4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);
        (8) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);
        (9) Halogenated amphetamines and
    methamphetamines - any compound derived from either
    amphetamine or methamphetamine through the substitution
    of a halogen on the phenyl ring, including, but not
    limited to, 2-fluoroamphetamine, 3-
    fluoroamphetamine and 4-fluoroamphetamine; 
        (10) Aminopropylbenzofuran (APB):
    including 4-(2-Aminopropyl) benzofuran, 5-
    (2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran, 6-(2-Aminopropyl)
    benzofuran, and 7-(2-Aminopropyl) benzofuran; 
        (11) Aminopropyldihydrobenzofuran (APDB):
    including 4-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3- dihydrobenzofuran,
    5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2, 3-dihydrobenzofuran,
    6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran,
    and 7-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran; 
        (12) Methylaminopropylbenzofuran
    (MAPB): including 4-(2-methylaminopropyl)
    benzofuran, 5-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran,
    6-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran
    and 7-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran. 
    (g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:
        (1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide
    
(benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;
        (2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-
    
phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.
    (h) Synthetic cathinones. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical compound which is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with State or federal law, not including bupropion, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in one or more of the following ways:
        (1) by substitution in the ring system to any extent
    
with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, 3,4-Methylenedioxycathinone (bk-MDA);
        (2) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic
    
alkyl substituent. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, 2-methylamino-1-phenylbutan-1-one (buphedrone); or
        (3) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with
    
alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, Dimethylcathinone, Ethcathinone, and a-Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (a-PPP).
(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-368, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/205

    (720 ILCS 570/205) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1205)
    Sec. 205. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule II if it finds that:
        (1) the substance has high potential for abuse;
        (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use
    
in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions; and
        (3) the abuse of the substance may lead to severe
    
psychological or physiological dependence.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/206

    (720 ILCS 570/206) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1206)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 206. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule II.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
        (1) Opium and opiates, and any salt, compound,
    
derivative or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, dextrorphan, levopropoxyphene, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including the following:
            (i) Raw Opium;
            (ii) Opium extracts;
            (iii) Opium fluid extracts;
            (iv) Powdered opium;
            (v) Granulated opium;
            (vi) Tincture of opium;
            (vii) Codeine;
            (viii) Ethylmorphine;
            (ix) Etorphine Hydrochloride;
            (x) Hydrocodone;
            (xi) Hydromorphone;
            (xii) Metopon;
            (xiii) Morphine;
            (xiv) Oxycodone;
            (xv) Oxymorphone;
            (xv.5) Tapentadol;
            (xvi) Thebaine;
            (xvii) Thebaine-derived butorphanol.
            (xviii) Dextromethorphan, except drug products
        
that may be dispensed pursuant to a prescription order of a practitioner and are sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration, or drug products containing dextromethorphan that are sold in solid, tablet, liquid, capsule, powder, thin film, or gel form and which are formulated, packaged, and sold in dosages and concentrations for use as an over-the-counter drug product. For the purposes of this Section, "over-the-counter drug product" means a drug that is available to consumers without a prescription and sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration.
        (2) Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative or
    
preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in subparagraph (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;
        (3) Opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, isomer, salt
    
of an isomer, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves including cocaine or ecgonine, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine (for the purpose of this paragraph, the term "isomer" includes optical, positional and geometric isomers);
        (5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of
    
poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrine alkaloids of the opium poppy).
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan excepted:
        (1) Alfentanil;
        (1.1) Carfentanil;
        (2) Alphaprodine;
        (3) Anileridine;
        (4) Bezitramide;
        (5) Bulk Dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms);
        (6) Dihydrocodeine;
        (7) Diphenoxylate;
        (8) Fentanyl;
        (9) Sufentanil;
        (9.5) Remifentanil;
        (10) Isomethadone;
        (11) Levomethorphan;
        (12) Levorphanol (Levorphan);
        (13) Metazocine;
        (14) Methadone;
        (15) Methadone-Intermediate,
    4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl-1-butane;
        (16) Moramide-Intermediate,
    2-methyl-3-morpholino-1,1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic
    acid;
        (17) Pethidine (meperidine);
        (18) Pethidine-Intermediate-A,
    4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;
        (19) Pethidine-Intermediate-B,
    ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;
        (20) Pethidine-Intermediate-C,
    1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;
        (21) Phenazocine;
        (22) Piminodine;
        (23) Racemethorphan;
        (24) Racemorphan;
        (25) Levo-alphacetylmethadol (some other names:
    
levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, LAAM).
    (d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:
        (1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and
    
salts of its optical isomers;
        (2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of
    
its isomers;
        (3) Phenmetrazine and its salts;
        (4) Methylphenidate;
        (5) Lisdexamfetamine.
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Amobarbital;
        (2) Secobarbital;
        (3) Pentobarbital;
        (4) Pentazocine;
        (5) Phencyclidine;
        (6) Gluthethimide;
        (7) (Blank).
    (f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
        (1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and
    
methamphetamine:
            (i) Phenylacetone
        Some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone;
        P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone.
        (2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine:
            (i) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;
            (ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC).
        (3) Nabilone.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 206. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule II.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
        (1) Opium and opiates, and any salt, compound,
    
derivative or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, dextrorphan, levopropoxyphene, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including the following:
            (i) Raw Opium;
            (ii) Opium extracts;
            (iii) Opium fluid extracts;
            (iv) Powdered opium;
            (v) Granulated opium;
            (vi) Tincture of opium;
            (vii) Codeine;
            (viii) Ethylmorphine;
            (ix) Etorphine Hydrochloride;
            (x) Hydrocodone;
            (xi) Hydromorphone;
            (xii) Metopon;
            (xiii) Morphine;
            (xiii.5) 6-Monoacetylmorphine;
            (xiv) Oxycodone;
            (xv) Oxymorphone;
            (xv.5) Tapentadol;
            (xvi) Thebaine;
            (xvii) Thebaine-derived butorphanol.
            (xviii) Methorphan, except drug products
        
containing dextromethorphan that may be dispensed pursuant to a prescription order of a practitioner and are sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration, or drug products containing dextromethorphan that are sold in solid, tablet, liquid, capsule, powder, thin film, or gel form and which are formulated, packaged, and sold in dosages and concentrations for use as an over-the-counter drug product. For the purposes of this Section, "over-the-counter drug product" means a drug that is available to consumers without a prescription and sold in compliance with the safety and labeling standards as set forth by the United States Food and Drug Administration.
        (2) Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative or
    
preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in subparagraph (1), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;
        (3) Opium poppy and poppy straw;
        (4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, isomer, salt
    
of an isomer, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves including cocaine or ecgonine, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine (for the purpose of this paragraph, the term "isomer" includes optical, positional and geometric isomers);
        (5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of
    
poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrine alkaloids of the opium poppy).
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan excepted:
        (1) Alfentanil;
        (1.1) Carfentanil;
        (1.2) Thiafentanyl;
        (2) Alphaprodine;
        (3) Anileridine;
        (4) Bezitramide;
        (5) Bulk Dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms);
        (6) Dihydrocodeine;
        (7) Diphenoxylate;
        (8) Fentanyl;
        (9) Sufentanil;
        (9.5) Remifentanil;
        (10) Isomethadone;
        (11) (Blank);
        (12) Levorphanol (Levorphan);
        (13) Metazocine;
        (14) Methadone;
        (15) Methadone-Intermediate,
    4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl-1-butane;
        (16) Moramide-Intermediate,
    2-methyl-3-morpholino-1,1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic
    acid;
        (17) Pethidine (meperidine);
        (18) Pethidine-Intermediate-A,
    4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;
        (19) Pethidine-Intermediate-B,
    ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;
        (20) Pethidine-Intermediate-C,
    1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;
        (21) Phenazocine;
        (22) Piminodine;
        (23) Racemethorphan;
        (24) (Blank);
        (25) Levo-alphacetylmethadol (some other names:
    
levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, LAAM).
    (d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:
        (1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and
    
salts of its optical isomers;
        (2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of
    
its isomers;
        (3) Phenmetrazine and its salts;
        (4) Methylphenidate;
        (5) Lisdexamfetamine.
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Amobarbital;
        (2) Secobarbital;
        (3) Pentobarbital;
        (4) Pentazocine;
        (5) Phencyclidine;
        (6) Gluthethimide;
        (7) (Blank).
    (f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
        (1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and
    
methamphetamine:
            (i) Phenylacetone
        Some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone;
        P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone.
        (2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine:
            (i) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;
            (ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC).
        (3) Nabilone.
(Source: P.A. 100-368, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/207

    (720 ILCS 570/207) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1207)
    Sec. 207. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule III if it finds that:
        (1) the substance has a potential for abuse less than
    
the substances listed in Schedule I and II;
        (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use
    
in treatment in the United States; and
        (3) abuse of the substance may lead to moderate or
    
low physiological dependence or high psychological dependence.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/208

    (720 ILCS 570/208) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1208)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule III.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation;
        (1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in
    
dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;
        (2) Benzphetamine;
        (3) Chlorphentermine;
        (4) Clortermine;
        (5) Phendimetrazine.
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:
        (1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing
    
amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;
        (2) Any suppository dosage form containing
    
amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;
        (3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a
    
derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof:
        (3.1) Aprobarbital;
        (3.2) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital);
        (3.3) Butalbital;
        (3.4) Butobarbital (butethal);
        (4) Chlorhexadol;
        (5) Methyprylon;
        (6) Sulfondiethylmethane;
        (7) Sulfonethylmethane;
        (8) Sulfonmethane;
        (9) Lysergic acid;
        (10) Lysergic acid amide;
        (10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt
    
of either of them.
    Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam
    combination product: Telazol.
    Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:
    2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.
    Some trade or other names for zolazepam:
    4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-
    [3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon.
        (11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin;
        (12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen;
        (13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per dosage unit;
        (14) Ketamine;
        (15) Thiopental.
    (d) Nalorphine.
    (d.5) Buprenorphine.
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:
        (1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
        (2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (3) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone
    
per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
        (4) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone
    
per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per
    
100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100
    
milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100
    
milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.
    (f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic steroids that are exempt:
        (1) Androgyn L.A.;
        (2) Andro-Estro 90-4;
        (3) depANDROGYN;
        (4) DEPO-T.E.;
        (5) depTESTROGEN;
        (6) Duomone;
        (7) DURATESTRIN;
        (8) DUO-SPAN II;
        (9) Estratest;
        (10) Estratest H.S.;
        (11) PAN ESTRA TEST;
        (12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone;
        (13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates;
        (14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2;
        (15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate
    
injection; and
        (16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate
    
injection.
    (g) Hallucinogenic substances.
        (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and
    
encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol.
        (2) (Reserved).
    (h) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.
(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule III.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation;
        (1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in
    
dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;
        (2) Benzphetamine;
        (3) Chlorphentermine;
        (4) Clortermine;
        (5) Phendimetrazine.
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:
        (1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing
    
amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;
        (2) Any suppository dosage form containing
    
amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;
        (3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a
    
derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof:
        (3.1) Aprobarbital;
        (3.2) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital);
        (3.3) Butalbital;
        (3.4) Butobarbital (butethal);
        (4) Chlorhexadol;
        (5) Methyprylon;
        (6) Sulfondiethylmethane;
        (7) Sulfonethylmethane;
        (8) Sulfonmethane;
        (9) Lysergic acid;
        (10) Lysergic acid amide;
        (10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt
    
of either of them.
    Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam
    combination product: Telazol.
    Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:
    2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.
    Some trade or other names for zolazepam:
    4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-
    [3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon.
        (11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin;
        (12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen;
        (13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
    
containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per dosage unit;
        (14) Ketamine;
        (15) Thiopental.
    (d) Nalorphine.
    (d.5) Buprenorphine.
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:
        (1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
        (2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (3) (blank);
        (4) (blank);
        (5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100
    
milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per
    
100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100
    
milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
        (8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100
    
milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.
    (f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic steroids that are exempt:
        (1) Androgyn L.A.;
        (2) Andro-Estro 90-4;
        (3) depANDROGYN;
        (4) DEPO-T.E.;
        (5) depTESTROGEN;
        (6) Duomone;
        (7) DURATESTRIN;
        (8) DUO-SPAN II;
        (9) Estratest;
        (10) Estratest H.S.;
        (11) PAN ESTRA TEST;
        (12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone;
        (13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates;
        (14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2;
        (15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate
    
injection; and
        (16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate
    
injection.
    (g) Hallucinogenic substances.
        (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and
    
encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol.
        (2) (Reserved).
    (h) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.
(Source: P.A. 100-368, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/209

    (720 ILCS 570/209) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1209)
    Sec. 209. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule IV if it finds that:
        (1) the substance has a low potential for abuse
    
relative to substances in Schedule III;
        (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use
    
in treatment in the United States; and
        (3) abuse of the substance may lead to limited
    
physiological dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances in Schedule III.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/210

    (720 ILCS 570/210) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1210)
    Sec. 210. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule IV.
    (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:
        (1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin (DEA Drug
    
Code No. 9618) and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
        (2) Dextropropoxyphene (Alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,
    
2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane).
    (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:
        (1) Alprazolam;
        (2) Barbital;
        (2.1) Bromazepam;
        (2.2) Camazepam;
        (2.3) Carisoprodol;
        (3) Chloral Betaine;
        (4) Chloral Hydrate;
        (5) Chlordiazepoxide;
        (5.1) Clobazam;
        (6) Clonazepam;
        (7) Clorazepate;
        (7.1) Clotiazepam;
        (7.2) Cloxazolam;
        (7.3) Delorazepam;
        (8) Diazepam;
        (8.05) Dichloralphenazone;
        (8.1) Estazolam;
        (9) Ethchlorvynol;
        (10) Ethinamate;
        (10.1) Ethyl loflazepate;
        (10.2) Fludiazepam;
        (10.3) Flunitrazepam;
        (11) Flurazepam;
        (11.1) Fospropofol;
        (12) Halazepam;
        (12.1) Haloxazolam;
        (12.2) Ketazolam;
        (12.3) Loprazolam;
        (13) Lorazepam;
        (13.1) Lormetazepam;
        (14) Mebutamate;
        (14.1) Medazepam;
        (15) Meprobamate;
        (16) Methohexital;
        (17) Methylphenobarbital (Mephobarbital);
        (17.1) Midazolam;
        (17.2) Nimetazepam;
        (17.3) Nitrazepam;
        (17.4) Nordiazepam;
        (18) Oxazepam;
        (18.1) Oxazolam;
        (19) Paraldehyde;
        (20) Petrichloral;
        (21) Phenobarbital;
        (21.1) Pinazepam;
        (22) Prazepam;
        (22.1) Quazepam;
        (23) Temazepam;
        (23.1) Tetrazepam;
        (23.2) Tramadol;
        (24) Triazolam;
        (24.5) Zaleplon;
        (25) Zolpidem;
        (26) Zopiclone.
    (d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible:
        (1) Fenfluramine.
    (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
        (1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine);
        (1.1)   Diethylpropion;
        (1.2) Fencamfamin;
        (1.3) Fenproporex;
        (2) Mazindol;
        (2.1) Mefenorex;
        (3) Phentermine;
        (4) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and
    
chelates thereof);
        (5) Pipradrol;
        (6) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenylethane);
        (7) Modafinil;
        (8) Sibutramine.
    (f) Other Substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substance, including its salts:
        (1) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers).
    (g) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a depressant effect on the central nervous system.
    (h) Except as otherwise provided in Section 216, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substance having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, enantiomers (optical isomers) and salts of enantiomers (optical isomers):
        (1) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers and salts
    
of optical isomers.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/211

    (720 ILCS 570/211) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1211)
    Sec. 211. The Department, taking into consideration the recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in Schedule V if it finds that:
        (1) the substance has low potential for abuse
    
relative to the controlled substances listed in Schedule IV;
        (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use
    
in treatment in the United States; and
        (3) abuse of the substance may lead to limited
    
physiological dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances in Schedule IV, or the substance is a targeted methamphetamine precursor as defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/212

    (720 ILCS 570/212) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1212)
    Sec. 212. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule V.
    (b) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid which also contains one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation, valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone as set forth below:
        (1) not more than 200 milligrams of codeine, or any
    
of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
        (2) not more than 10 milligrams of dihydrocodeine; or
    
any of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
        (3) not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine, or
    
any of its salts, per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
        (4) not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and
    
not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;
        (5) not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100
    
milliliters or per 100 grams;
        (6) not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin (DEA
    
Drug Code No. 9618) and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
    (c) (Blank).
    (c-1) Lacosamide.
    (c-2) Pregabalin.
    (d) Pyrovalerone.
    (d-5) Any targeted methamphetamine precursor as defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.
    (e) Any compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of any controlled substance when such compound, mixture or preparation is not otherwise controlled in Schedules I, II, III or IV.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/213

    (720 ILCS 570/213) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1213)
    Sec. 213. The Department shall revise and republish the Schedules semi-annually for two years from the effective date of this Act, and thereafter annually. If the Department fails to republish the Schedules, the last published Schedules shall remain in full force and effect.
(Source: P.A. 83-969.)

720 ILCS 570/214

    (720 ILCS 570/214) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1214)
    Sec. 214. Excluded Substances.
    (a) Products containing an anabolic steroid, that are expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and that have been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for that administration, and that are excluded from all schedules under Section 102(41)(B)(1) of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(1)) are also excluded from Sections 207 and 208 of this Act.
    (b) The non-narcotic substances excluded from all schedules of the Federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.) pursuant to Section 1308.22 of the Code of Federal Regulations (21 C.F.R. 1308.22), are excluded from all schedules of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 91-714, eff. 6-2-00.)

720 ILCS 570/215

    (720 ILCS 570/215) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1215)
    Sec. 215. Excepted Compounds. The compounds in the form excepted from application of certain specified sections of the Federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.), the Federal Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 951 et seq.) and the Code of Federal Regulations, pursuant to Section 1308.32 of the Code of Federal Regulations (21 C.F.R. 1308.32) are excepted from the application of Sections 312 and 313 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 80-472.)

720 ILCS 570/216

    (720 ILCS 570/216)
    Sec. 216. Ephedrine.
    (a) The following drug products containing ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers shall be exempt from the application of Sections 312 and 313 of this Act if they: (i) may lawfully be sold over-the-counter without a prescription under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; (ii) are labeled and marketed in a manner consistent with Section 341.76 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations; (iii) are manufactured and distributed for legitimate medicinal use in a manner that reduces or eliminates the likelihood of abuse; and (iv) are not marketed, advertised, or labeled for the indications of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss, muscle enhancement, appetite control, or energy:
        (1) Solid oral dosage forms, including soft gelatin
    
caplets, which are formulated pursuant to 21 CFR 341 or its successor, and packaged in blister packs of not more than 2 tablets per blister.
        (2) Anorectal preparations containing not more than
    
5% ephedrine.
    (b) The marketing, advertising, or labeling of any product containing ephedrine, a salt of ephedrine, an optical isomer of ephedrine, or a salt of an optical isomer of ephedrine, for the indications of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss, appetite control, or energy, is prohibited. In determining compliance with this requirement the Department may consider the following factors:
        (1) The packaging of the drug product;
        (2) The name and labeling of the product;
        (3) The manner of distribution, advertising, and
    
promotion of the product;
        (4) Verbal representations made concerning the
    
product;
        (5) The duration, scope, and significance of abuse or
    
misuse of the particular product.
    (c) A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
    (d) This Section does not apply to dietary supplements, herbs, or other natural products, including concentrates or extracts, which:
        (1) are not otherwise prohibited by law; and
        (2) may contain naturally occurring ephedrine,
    
ephedrine alkaloids, or pseudoephedrine, or their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, or a combination of these substances, that:
            (i) are contained in a matrix of organic
        
material; and
            (ii) do not exceed 15% of the total weight of the
        
natural product.
    (e) Nothing in this Section limits the scope or terms of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.
(Source: P.A. 94-694, eff. 1-15-06.)

720 ILCS 570/217

    (720 ILCS 570/217)
    Sec. 217. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 91-714, eff. 6-2-00. Repealed by P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/218

    (720 ILCS 570/218)
    Sec. 218. Dextromethorphan.
    (a) (Blank).
    (b) Possession of a drug product containing dextromethorphan in violation of this Act is a Class 4 felony. The sale, delivery, distribution, or possession with intent to sell, deliver, or distribute a drug product containing dextromethorphan in violation of this Act is a Class 2 felony.
    (c) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 94-800, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1087, eff. 1-19-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

720 ILCS 570/219

    (720 ILCS 570/219)
    Sec. 219. Dietary supplements containing ephedrine or anabolic steroid precursors.
    (a) It is a Class A misdemeanor for any manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, or other person to sell, transfer, or otherwise furnish any of the following to a person under 18 years of age:
        (1) a dietary supplement containing an ephedrine
    
group alkaloid; or
        (2) a dietary supplement containing any of the
    
following:
            (A) Androstanediol;
            (B) Androstanedione;
            (C) Androstenedione;
            (D) Norandrostenediol;
            (E) Norandrostenedione; or
            (F) Dehydroepiandrosterone.
    (b) A seller shall request valid identification from any individual who attempts to purchase a dietary supplement set forth in subsection (a) if that individual reasonably appears to the seller to be under 18 years of age.
(Source: P.A. 94-339, eff. 7-26-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

720 ILCS 570/Art. III

 
    (720 ILCS 570/Art. III heading)
ARTICLE III

720 ILCS 570/301

    (720 ILCS 570/301) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1301)
    Sec. 301. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall promulgate rules and charge reasonable fees and fines relating to the registration and control of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances within this State. The Department shall request a contact email address in its application for a new or renewed license to dispense controlled substances. All moneys received by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act shall be deposited into the respective professional dedicated funds in like manner as the primary professional licenses.
    A pharmacy, manufacturer of controlled substances, or wholesale distributor of controlled substances that is regulated under this Act and owned and operated by the State is exempt from fees required under this Act. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians working in facilities owned and operated by the State are not exempt from the payment of fees required by this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from imposing any fine or other penalty allowed under this Act.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

720 ILCS 570/302

    (720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances; engages in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State; provides canine odor detection services; proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance; proposes to engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; proposes to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs; or proposes to provide canine odor detection services within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).
    (b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services, may possess, manufacture, distribute, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.
    (c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:
        (1) an agent or employee of any registered
    
manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;
        (2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or
    
an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;
        (3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of a
    
controlled substance prescribed for the ultimate user under a lawful prescription of a practitioner, including an advanced practice nurse, practical nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a person, or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance. In this Section, "home health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;
        (4) officers and employees of this State or of the
    
United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;
        (5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or
    
the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment;
        (6) a holder of a temporary license issued under
    
Section 17 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 practicing within the scope of that license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act. In addition to possessing controlled substances, a temporary license holder may order, administer, and prescribe controlled substances when acting within the scope of his or her license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.
    (d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.
    (e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
(Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16; 99-247, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances; engages in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State; provides canine odor detection services; proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance; proposes to engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; proposes to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs; or proposes to provide canine odor detection services within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).
    (b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services, may possess, manufacture, distribute, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.
    (c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:
        (1) an agent or employee of any registered
    
manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;
        (2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or
    
an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;
        (3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of a
    
controlled substance prescribed for the ultimate user under a lawful prescription of a practitioner, including an advanced practice registered nurse, practical nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a person, or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance. In this Section, "home health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;
        (4) officers and employees of this State or of the
    
United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;
        (5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or
    
the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment;
        (6) a holder of a temporary license issued under
    
Section 17 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 practicing within the scope of that license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act. In addition to possessing controlled substances, a temporary license holder may order, administer, and prescribe controlled substances when acting within the scope of his or her license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.
    (d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.
    (e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
(Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16; 99-247, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/303

    (720 ILCS 570/303) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1303)
    Sec. 303. (a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall license an applicant to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances included in Sections 202, 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs unless it determines that the issuance of that license would be inconsistent with the public interest. In determining the public interest, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall consider the following:
        (1) maintenance of effective controls against
    
diversion of controlled substances into other than lawful medical, scientific, or industrial channels;
        (2) compliance with applicable Federal, State and
    
local law;
        (3) any convictions of the applicant, or the
    
designated agent of the applicant where applicable, under any law of the United States or of any State relating to any controlled substance;
        (4) past experience in the manufacture or
    
distribution of controlled substances, and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion;
        (5) furnishing by the applicant of false or
    
fraudulent material in any application filed under this Act;
        (6) suspension or revocation of the applicant's
    
Federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, as authorized by Federal law;
        (7) whether the applicant is suitably equipped with
    
the facilities appropriate to carry on the operation described in his or her application;
        (8) whether the applicant is of good moral character
    
or, if the applicant is a partnership, association, corporation or other organization, whether the partners, directors, governing committee and managing officers are of good moral character;
        (9) any other factors relevant to and consistent with
    
the public health and safety; and
        (10) evidence from court, medical disciplinary and
    
pharmacy board records and those of State and Federal investigatory bodies that the applicant has not or does not prescribe controlled substances within the provisions of this Act.
    (b) No license shall be granted to or renewed for any person who has within 5 years been convicted of a wilful violation of any law of the United States or any law of any State relating to controlled substances, or who is found to be deficient in any of the matters enumerated in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(8).
    (c) Licensure under subsection (a) does not entitle a registrant to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances in Schedules I or II other than those specified in the registration.
    (d) Practitioners who are licensed to dispense any controlled substances in Schedules II through V are authorized to conduct instructional activities with controlled substances in Schedules II through V under the law of this State.
    (e) If an applicant for registration is registered under the Federal law to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, upon filing a completed application for licensure in this State and payment of all fees due hereunder, he or she shall be licensed in this State to the same extent as his or her Federal registration, unless, within 30 days after completing his or her application in this State, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation notifies the applicant that his or her application has not been granted. A practitioner who is in compliance with the Federal law with respect to registration to dispense controlled substances in Schedules II through V need only send a current copy of that Federal registration to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and he or she shall be deemed in compliance with the registration provisions of this State.
    (e-5) All of the fees and fines collected under this Section 303 shall be deposited into the Illinois State Pharmacy Disciplinary Fund.
    (f) The fee for registration as a manufacturer or wholesale distributor of controlled substances shall be $50.00 per year, except that the fee for registration as a manufacturer or wholesale distributor of controlled substances that may be dispensed without a prescription under this Act shall be $15.00 per year. The expiration date and renewal period for each controlled substance license issued under this Act shall be set by rule.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/303.05

    (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
    (Text of Section from P.A. 100-453)
    Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
    (a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants, licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:
        (1) with respect to physician assistants,
            (A) the physician assistant has been delegated
        
written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or
            (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
        
authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:
                (i) Specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            
substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;
                (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the
            
condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;
                (v) the physician assistant must have
            
completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the physician assistant must provide
            
evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the physician assistant must annually
            
complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;
        (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,
            (A) the advanced practice nurse has been
        
delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or
            (B) the advanced practice nurse has been
        
delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            
substances prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;
                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss
            
the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or podiatric physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;
                (v) the advanced practice nurse must have
            
completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide
            
evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the advanced practice nurse must
            
annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;
        (2.5) with respect to advanced practice nurses
    
certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital affiliate,
            (A) the advanced practice nurse certified as a
        
nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, has completed the appropriate application forms, and has paid the required fees as set by rule; and
            (B) an advanced practice nurse certified as a
        
nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then the following conditions must be met:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be designated, provided that the designated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced practice nurses in their area of certification; this grant of authority must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be granted;
                (ii) any grant of authority must be
            
controlled substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice nurse;
                (iii) any prescription must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply;
                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must
            
discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and
                (v) the advanced practice nurse must meet
            
the education requirements of this Section;
        (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the
    
euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department; or
        (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the
    
prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule.
    (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.
    (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.
    (d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
    (e) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.
(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17.)
 
    (Text of Section from P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
    (a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, and prescribing psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:
        (1) with respect to physician assistants,
            (A) the physician assistant has been delegated
        
written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or
            (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
        
authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:
                (i) Specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            
substances prescribed by the supervising physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;
                (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the
            
condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;
                (v) the physician assistant must have
            
completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the physician assistant must provide
            
evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the physician assistant must annually
            
complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;
        (2) with respect to advanced practice registered
    
nurses who do not meet the requirements of Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act,
            (A) the advanced practice registered nurse has
        
been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice registered nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or
            (B) the advanced practice registered nurse has
        
been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;
                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
            
substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;
                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;
                (iv) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;
                (v) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;
                (vi) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and
                (vii) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;
        (2.5) with respect to advanced practice registered
    
nurses certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists who do not meet the requirements of Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act practicing in a hospital affiliate,
            (A) the advanced practice registered nurse
        
certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been privileged to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, has completed the appropriate application forms, and has paid the required fees as set by rule; and
            (B) an advanced practice registered nurse
        
certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been privileged to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then the following conditions must be met:
                (i) specific Schedule II controlled
            
substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be designated, provided that the designated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced practice registered nurses in their area of certification; the privileging documents must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; privileges to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be granted;
                (ii) any privileges must be controlled
            
substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice registered nurse;
                (iii) any prescription must be limited to no
            
more than a 30-day supply;
                (iv) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and
                (v) the advanced practice registered nurse
            
must meet the education requirements of this Section;
        (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the
    
euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department; or
        (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the
    
prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule.
    (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice registered nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority or as authorized by their practice Act.
    (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.
    (d) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
    (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.
(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/303.1

    (720 ILCS 570/303.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1303.1)
    Sec. 303.1. Any person who delivers a check or other payment to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that is returned to the Department unpaid by the financial institution upon which it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in addition to the amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. If the check or other payment was for a renewal or issuance fee and that person practices without paying the renewal fee or issuance fee and the fine due, an additional fine of $100 shall be imposed. The fines imposed by this Section are in addition to any other discipline provided under this Act for unlicensed practice or practice on a nonrenewed license. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall notify the person that payment of fees and fines shall be paid to the Department by certified check or money order within 30 calendar days of the notification. If, after the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notification, the person has failed to submit the necessary remittance, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall automatically terminate the license or certificate or deny the application, without hearing. If, after termination or denial, the person seeks a license or certificate, he or she shall apply to the Department for restoration or issuance of the license or certificate and pay all fees and fines due to the Department. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may establish a fee for the processing of an application for restoration of a license or certificate to pay all expenses of processing this application. The Secretary may waive the fines due under this Section in individual cases where the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that the fines would be unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/304

    (720 ILCS 570/304) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1304)
    Sec. 304. (a) A registration under Section 303 to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs may be denied, refused renewal, suspended, or revoked by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and a fine of no more than $10,000 per violation may be imposed on the applicant or registrant, upon a finding that the applicant or registrant:
        (1) has furnished any false or fraudulent material
    
information in any application filed under this Act; or
        (2) has been convicted of a felony under any law of
    
the United States or any State relating to any controlled substance; or
        (3) has had suspended or revoked his or her Federal
    
registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs; or
        (4) has been convicted of bribery, perjury, or other
    
infamous crime under the laws of the United States or of any State; or
        (5) has violated any provision of this Act or any
    
rules promulgated hereunder, or any provision of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act or rules promulgated thereunder, whether or not he or she has been convicted of such violation; or
        (6) has failed to provide effective controls against
    
the diversion of controlled substances in other than legitimate medical, scientific or industrial channels.
    (b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.
    (c) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall promptly notify the Administration, the Department and the Illinois State Police or their successor agencies, of all orders denying, suspending or revoking registration, all forfeitures of controlled substances, and all final court dispositions, if any, of such denials, suspensions, revocations or forfeitures.
    (d) If Federal registration of any registrant is suspended, revoked, refused renewal or refused issuance, then the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall issue a notice and conduct a hearing in accordance with Section 305 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

720 ILCS 570/305

    (720 ILCS 570/305) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1305)
    Sec. 305. (a) Before denying, refusing renewal of, suspending, or revoking a registration, or imposing a fine on an applicant or registrant, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall serve upon the applicant or registrant, by registered mail at the address in the application or registration or by any other means authorized under the Civil Practice Law or Rules of the Illinois Supreme Court for the service of summons or subpoenas, a notice of hearing to determine why registration should not be denied, refused renewal, suspended or revoked. The notice shall contain a statement of the basis therefor and shall call upon the applicant or registrant to appear before the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation at a reasonable time and place. These proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with Sections 2105-5, 2105-15, 2105-100, 2105-105, 2105-110, 2105-115, 2105-120, 2105-125, 2105-175, and 2105-325 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/2105-5, 2105/2105-15, 2105/2105-100, 2105/2105-105, 2105/2105-110, 2105/2105-115, 2105/2105-120, 2105/2105-125, 2105/2105-175, and 2105/2105-325), without regard to any criminal prosecution or other proceeding. Except as authorized in subsection (c), proceedings to refuse renewal or suspend or revoke registration shall not abate the existing registration, which shall remain in effect until the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation has held the hearing called for in the notice and found, with input from the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board, that the registration shall no longer remain in effect.
    (b) The Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may appoint an attorney duly licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as the hearing officer in any action to deny, refuse to renew, suspend, or revoke, or take any other disciplinary action with regard to a registration. The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings and recommendations to the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board within 30 days after receiving the record. The Disciplinary Board shall have 60 days from receipt of the report to review the report of the hearing officer and present its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
    (c) If the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety by the continued manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances by the registrant, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may, upon the issuance of a written ruling stating the reasons for such finding and without notice or hearing, suspend such registrant. The suspension shall continue in effect for not more than 15 days during which time the registrant shall be given a hearing on the issues involved in the suspension. If after the hearing, and after input from the appropriate licensure or disciplinary board, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that the public health or safety requires the suspension to remain in effect it shall so remain until the ruling is terminated by its own terms or subsequent ruling or is dissolved by a circuit court upon determination that the suspension was wholly without basis in fact and law.
    (d) If, after a hearing as provided in subsection (a), the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation finds that a registration should be refused renewal, suspended or revoked, a written ruling to that effect shall be entered. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation's ruling shall remain in effect until the ruling is terminated by its own terms or subsequent ruling or is dissolved by a circuit court upon a determination that the refusal to renew suspension or revocation was wholly without basis in fact and law.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/306

    (720 ILCS 570/306) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1306)
    Sec. 306. Every practitioner and person who is required under this Act to be registered to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs under this Act shall keep records and maintain inventories in conformance with the recordkeeping and inventory requirements of the laws of the United States and with any additional rules and forms issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/307

    (720 ILCS 570/307) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1307)
    Sec. 307.
    Controlled substances in Schedules I and II shall be distributed by a registrant to another registrant only pursuant to a written order. Compliance with the laws of the United States respecting order forms shall be deemed compliance with this Section.
(Source: P.A. 77-757.)

720 ILCS 570/308

    (720 ILCS 570/308) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1308)
    Sec. 308. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-202, eff. 10-1-95. Repealed by P.A. 91-576, eff. 4-1-00.)

720 ILCS 570/309

    (720 ILCS 570/309) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1309)
    Sec. 309. On or after April 1, 2000, no person shall issue a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; gluthethimide; and pentazocine, other than on a written prescription; provided that in the case of an emergency, epidemic or a sudden or unforeseen accident or calamity, the prescriber may issue a lawful oral prescription where failure to issue such a prescription might result in loss of life or intense suffering, but such oral prescription shall include a statement by the prescriber concerning the accident or calamity, or circumstances constituting the emergency, the cause for which an oral prescription was used. Within 7 days after issuing an emergency prescription, the prescriber shall cause a written prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be delivered to the dispensing pharmacist. The prescription shall have written on its face "Authorization for Emergency Dispensing", and the date of the emergency prescription. The written prescription may be delivered to the pharmacist in person, or by mail, but if delivered by mail it must be postmarked within the 7-day period. Upon receipt, the dispensing pharmacist shall attach this prescription to the emergency oral prescription earlier received and reduced to writing. The dispensing pharmacist shall notify the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation if the prescriber fails to deliver the authorization for emergency dispensing on the prescription to him or her. Failure of the dispensing pharmacist to do so shall void the authority conferred by this paragraph to dispense without a written prescription of a prescriber. All prescriptions issued for Schedule II controlled substances shall include both a written and numerical notation of quantity on the face of the prescription. No prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be refilled. The Department shall provide, at no cost, audit reviews and necessary information to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in conjunction with ongoing investigations being conducted in whole or part by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/310

    (720 ILCS 570/310) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1310)
    Sec. 310. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 84-1308. Repealed by P.A. 91-576, eff. 4-1-00.)

720 ILCS 570/311

    (720 ILCS 570/311) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1311)
    Sec. 311. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 89-202, eff. 10-1-95. Repealed by P.A. 91-576, eff. 4-1-00.)

720 ILCS 570/311.5

    (720 ILCS 570/311.5)
    Sec. 311.5. Electronic prescriptions for controlled substances. Notwithstanding any other Section in this Act, a prescriber who is otherwise authorized to prescribe controlled substances in Illinois may issue an electronic prescription for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances if done in accordance with the federal rules for electronic prescriptions for controlled substances, as set forth in 21 C.F.R. Parts 1300, 1304, 1306, and 1311, as amended.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/312

    (720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-280)
    Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled substances.
    (a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address and registry number under the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or she is required by those laws to be registered. If the prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber. A pharmacy shall maintain a policy regarding the type of identification necessary, if any, to receive a prescription in accordance with State and federal law. The pharmacy must post such information where prescriptions are filled.
    (a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician must meet the following conditions:
        (1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a
    
legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician acting in the usual course of professional practice.
        (2) The individual physician must provide written
    
instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that prescription.
        (3) The physician shall document in the medical
    
record of a patient the medical necessity for the amount and duration of the 3 sequential 30-day prescriptions for Schedule II narcotics.
    (b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the law of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of such written memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.
    (c) Except for any non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act, and then:
        (1) only personally by a person registered to
    
dispense a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or her patients, or
        (2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to
    
a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents of identification.
        (3) the dispenser shall record the name and address
    
of the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.
        (4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more
    
than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately preceding 96 hours.
        (5) (Blank).
        (6) all records of purchases and sales shall be
    
maintained for not less than 2 years.
        (7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain
    
within any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled substance.
        (8) a person qualified to dispense controlled
    
substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one week in the previous year. These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.
        (9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl
    
nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human body for euphoric or physical effect.
    (d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of controlled substances received by him or her and a record of all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or professionally used by him or her otherwise than by prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him or her other than those controlled substances which are administered by the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a prescriber.
    (e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed.
    (f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall affix to the container in which such substance is sold or dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the specific medication remains in the container.
    (g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such substance only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person dispensing such substance.
    (h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or dispensing of controlled substances that are under the prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and which is intended to provide that individual with controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction, habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law relating to controlled substances.
    (i) A prescriber shall not pre-print or cause to be pre-printed a prescription for any controlled substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or filled, a pre-printed prescription for any controlled substance.
    (i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device to individually generate a printed prescription, but the prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual signature.
    (j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or cause to be administered under his or her direction any anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional practice.
    (k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the following conditions are met:
        (1) The controlled substances are not outwardly
    
dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause injury to a person's life or health.
        (2) The inner container of a parcel containing
    
controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.
        (3) If the controlled substances consist of
    
prescription medicines, the inner container must be labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner dispensing the prescription.
        (4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of
    
markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-280)
    Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled substances.
    (a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address and registry number under the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or she is required by those laws to be registered. If the prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber. A pharmacy shall maintain a policy regarding the type of identification necessary, if any, to receive a prescription in accordance with State and federal law. The pharmacy must post such information where prescriptions are filled.
    (a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician must meet the following conditions:
        (1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a
    
legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician acting in the usual course of professional practice.
        (2) The individual physician must provide written
    
instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that prescription.
        (3) The physician shall document in the medical
    
record of a patient the medical necessity for the amount and duration of the 3 sequential 30-day prescriptions for Schedule II narcotics.
    (b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the law of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of such written memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.
    (c) Except for any non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act, and then:
        (1) only personally by a person registered to
    
dispense a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or her patients, or
        (2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to
    
a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents of identification.
        (3) the dispenser shall record the name and address
    
of the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.
        (4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more
    
than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately preceding 96 hours.
        (5) (Blank).
        (6) all records of purchases and sales shall be
    
maintained for not less than 2 years.
        (7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain
    
within any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled substance.
        (8) a person qualified to dispense controlled
    
substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one week in the previous year. These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.
        (9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl
    
nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human body for euphoric or physical effect.
    (d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of controlled substances received by him or her and a record of all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or professionally used by him or her otherwise than by prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him or her other than those controlled substances which are administered by the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a prescriber.
    (e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed.
    (f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall affix to the container in which such substance is sold or dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the specific medication remains in the container.
    (g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such substance only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person dispensing such substance.
    (h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or dispensing of controlled substances that are under the prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and which is intended to provide that individual with controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction, habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law relating to controlled substances.
    (i) A prescriber shall not pre-print or cause to be pre-printed a prescription for any controlled substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or filled, a pre-printed prescription for any controlled substance.
    (i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device to individually generate a printed prescription, but the prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual signature.
    (j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or cause to be administered under his or her direction any anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional practice.
    (k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the following conditions are met:
        (1) The controlled substances are not outwardly
    
dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause injury to a person's life or health.
        (2) The inner container of a parcel containing
    
controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.
        (3) If the controlled substances consist of
    
prescription medicines, the inner container must be labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner dispensing the prescription.
        (4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of
    
markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.
    (l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, emergency medical services personnel may administer Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances to a person in the scope of their employment without a written, electronic, or oral prescription of a prescriber.
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-280, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/313

    (720 ILCS 570/313) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1313)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered in hospitals or institutions licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for the controlled substance shall be in writing on the patient's record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and shall state the name and quantity of controlled substances ordered and the quantity actually administered. The records of such prescriptions shall be maintained for two years and shall be available for inspection by officers and employees of the Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
    The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to a prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed outside of the hospital or institution.
    (b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be administered or dispensed directly to a patient in a long-term care facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age, are exempt from the requirements of Section 312 except that a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be either a prescription signed by the prescriber or a prescription transmitted by the prescriber or prescriber's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for 2 years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written prescription signed by the prescriber.
    (c) A prescription that is generated for a Schedule II controlled substance to be compounded for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice program may be transmitted by facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the pharmacy providing the home infusion services. The facsimile serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.
    (c-1) A prescription generated for a Schedule II controlled substance for a patient residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act or licensed by the State may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile or electronically as provided in Section 311.5. The practitioner or practitioner's agent must note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile or electronic record serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c-1) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.
    (d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered and/or dispensed in drug abuse treatment programs licensed by the Department shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for such controlled substances shall be issued and authenticated on official prescription logs prepared and maintained in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws. The Department-licensed drug treatment program shall report applicable prescriptions via electronic record keeping software approved by the Department. This software must be compatible with the specifications of the Department. Drug abuse treatment programs shall report to the Department methadone prescriptions or medications dispensed through the use of Department-approved File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). Methadone prescription records must be maintained in accordance with the applicable requirements as set forth by the Department in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws.
    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within an ambulatory surgical treatment center.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered in hospitals or institutions licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for the controlled substance shall be in writing on the patient's record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and shall state the name and quantity of controlled substances ordered and the quantity actually administered. The records of such prescriptions shall be maintained for two years and shall be available for inspection by officers and employees of the Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
    The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to a prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed outside of the hospital or institution.
    (b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be administered or dispensed directly to a patient in a long-term care facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age, are exempt from the requirements of Section 312 except that a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be either a prescription signed by the prescriber or a prescription transmitted by the prescriber or prescriber's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for 2 years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written prescription signed by the prescriber.
    (c) A prescription that is generated for a Schedule II controlled substance to be compounded for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice program may be transmitted by facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the pharmacy providing the home infusion services. The facsimile serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.
    (c-1) A prescription generated for a Schedule II controlled substance for a patient residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act or licensed by the State may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile or electronically as provided in Section 311.5. The practitioner or practitioner's agent must note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile or electronic record serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c-1) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.
    (d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered and/or dispensed in drug abuse treatment programs licensed by the Department shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for such controlled substances shall be issued and authenticated on official prescription logs prepared and maintained in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws. The Department-licensed drug treatment program shall report applicable prescriptions via electronic record keeping software approved by the Department. This software must be compatible with the specifications of the Department. Drug abuse treatment programs shall report to the Department methadone prescriptions or medications dispensed through the use of Department-approved File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). Methadone prescription records must be maintained in accordance with the applicable requirements as set forth by the Department in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws.
    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within an ambulatory surgical treatment center.
(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/314

    (720 ILCS 570/314)
    Sec. 314. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 77-757. Repealed by P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/314.5

    (720 ILCS 570/314.5)
    Sec. 314.5. Medication shopping; pharmacy shopping.
    (a) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance from a prescriber or dispenser while being supplied with any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance by another prescriber or dispenser, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance to the prescriber or dispenser from whom the subsequent controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance is sought.
    (b) It shall be unlawful for a person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance from a pharmacy while being supplied with any controlled substance by another pharmacy, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance to the pharmacy from which the subsequent controlled substance is sought.
    (c) A person may be in violation of Section 3.23 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act or Section 406 of this Act when medication shopping or pharmacy shopping, or both.
    (d) When a person has been identified as having 3 or more prescribers or 3 or more pharmacies, or both, that do not utilize a common electronic file as specified in Section 20 of the Pharmacy Practice Act for controlled substances within the course of a continuous 30-day period, the Prescription Monitoring Program may issue an unsolicited report to the prescribers, dispensers, and their designees informing them of the potential medication shopping.
    (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a requirement that any prescriber, dispenser, or pharmacist request any patient medication disclosure, report any patient activity, or prescribe or refuse to prescribe or dispense any medications.
    (f) This Section shall not be construed to apply to inpatients or residents at hospitals or other institutions or to institutional pharmacies.
    (g) Any patient feedback, including grades, ratings, or written or verbal statements, in opposition to a clinical decision that the prescription of a controlled substance is not medically necessary shall not be the basis of any adverse action, evaluation, or any other type of negative credentialing, contracting, licensure, or employment action taken against a prescriber or dispenser.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

720 ILCS 570/315

    (720 ILCS 570/315)
    Sec. 315. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 77-757. Repealed by P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/316

    (720 ILCS 570/316)
    Sec. 316. Prescription monitoring program.
    (a) The Department must provide for a prescription monitoring program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that includes the following components and requirements:
        (1) The dispenser must transmit to the central
    
repository, in a form and manner specified by the Department, the following information:
            (A) The recipient's name and address.
            (B) The recipient's date of birth and gender.
            (C) The national drug code number of the
        
controlled substance dispensed.
            (D) The date the controlled substance is
        
dispensed.
            (E) The quantity of the controlled substance
        
dispensed and days supply.
            (F) The dispenser's United States Drug
        
Enforcement Administration registration number.
            (G) The prescriber's United States Drug
        
Enforcement Administration registration number.
            (H) The dates the controlled substance
        
prescription is filled.
            (I) The payment type used to purchase the
        
controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).
            (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing
        
home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.
            (K) Any additional information that may be
        
required by the department by administrative rule, including but not limited to information required for compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or its successor.
        (2) The information required to be transmitted under
    
this Section must be transmitted not later than the end of the next business day after the date on which a controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time as may be required by the Department by administrative rule.
        (3) A dispenser must transmit the information
    
required under this Section by:
            (A) an electronic device compatible with the
        
receiving device of the central repository;
            (B) a computer diskette;
            (C) a magnetic tape; or
            (D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy
        
Inventory Control form;
        (4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to
    
$100 per day for willful failure to report controlled substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the number of days from the time the report was required to be made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.
    (b) The Department, by rule, may include in the monitoring program certain other select drugs that are not included in Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The prescription monitoring program does not apply to controlled substance prescriptions as exempted under Section 313.
    (c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently as established by administrative rule.
    (d) The Department of Human Services shall appoint a full-time Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program.
    (e) Within one year of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Department shall adopt rules establishing pilot initiatives involving a cross-section of hospitals in this State to increase electronic integration of a hospital's electronic health record with the Prescription Monitoring Program on or before January 1, 2019 to ensure all providers have timely access to relevant prescription information during the treatment of their patients. These rules shall also establish pilots that enhance the electronic integration of outpatient pharmacy records with the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster transmission of the information required under this Section. In collaboration with the Department of Human Services, the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall identify funding sources to support the pilot projects in this Section and distribution of funds shall be based on voluntary and incentive-based models. The rules adopted by the Department shall also ensure that the Department continues to monitor updates in Electronic Health Record Technology and how other states have integrated their prescription monitoring databases with Electronic Health Records.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

720 ILCS 570/317

    (720 ILCS 570/317)
    Sec. 317. Central repository for collection of information.
    (a) The Department must designate a central repository for the collection of information transmitted under Section 316 and former Section 321.
    (b) The central repository must do the following:
        (1) Create a database for information required to be
    
transmitted under Section 316 in the form required under rules adopted by the Department, including search capability for the following:
            (A) A recipient's name and address.
            (B) A recipient's date of birth and gender.
            (C) The national drug code number of a controlled
        
substance dispensed.
            (D) The dates a controlled substance is dispensed.
            (E) The quantities and days supply of a
        
controlled substance dispensed.
            (F) A dispenser's Administration registration
        
number.
            (G) A prescriber's Administration registration
        
number.
            (H) The dates the controlled substance
        
prescription is filled.
            (I) The payment type used to purchase the
        
controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).
            (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing
        
home, outpatient, etc.) for controlled substance prescriptions other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.
        (2) Provide the Department with a database maintained
    
by the central repository. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation must provide the Department with electronic access to the license information of a prescriber or dispenser.
        (3) Secure the information collected by the central
    
repository and the database maintained by the central repository against access by unauthorized persons.
    All prescribers shall designate one or more medical specialties or fields of medical care and treatment for which the prescriber prescribes controlled substances when registering with the Prescription Monitoring Program.
    No fee shall be charged for access by a prescriber or dispenser.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

720 ILCS 570/318

    (720 ILCS 570/318)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-125)
    Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.
    (a) Information received by the central repository under Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential.
    (b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the confidentiality of the information described in subsection (a). The Department may disclose the information to another person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.
    (c) The Department may disclose confidential information described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in receiving, processing, or storing the information.
    (d) The Department may release confidential information described in subsection (a) to the following persons:
        (1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and
    
is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
        (2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection
    
Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the following activities involving controlled substances:
            (A) an investigation;
            (B) an adjudication; or
            (C) a prosecution of a violation under any State
        
or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
        (3) A law enforcement officer who is:
            (A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or
        
the office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or municipal police department of Illinois to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; or
            (B) approved by the Department to receive
        
information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; and
            (C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution
        
of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
    (e) Before the Department releases confidential information under subsection (d), the applicant must demonstrate in writing to the Department that:
        (1) the applicant has reason to believe that a
    
violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance has occurred; and
        (2) the requested information is reasonably related
    
to the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the violation described in subdivision (1).
    (f) The Department may receive and release prescription record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:
        (1) a governing body that licenses practitioners;
        (2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection
    
Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General;
        (3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:
            (A) authorized to receive the type of information
        
released; and
            (B) approved by the Department to receive the
        
type of information released; or
        (4) prescription monitoring entities in other states
    
per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) below;
confidential prescription record information collected under Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.
    (g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and until that employee has certified that further investigation is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).
    (h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as evidence in the following:
        (1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that
    
involves a controlled substance.
        (2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile
    
court that involves a controlled substance.
    (i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the information described in subsection (a). The reports must not include information that identifies, by name, license or address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person administering a controlled substance.
    (j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to assist the health care community in its goal of effective clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or abusing medications.
        (1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a
    
stand-alone database which shall contain records for the previous 12 months.
        (2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure
    
identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the federal HIPAA law.
        (3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure
    
link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical assistance shall also be provided.
        (4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must
    
include the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement Administration license number and submitted upon the requestor's business stationery.
        (5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring
    
Program Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or patient may be used for clinical studies.
        (6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used
    
per administrative rule.
        (7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be
    
construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use of this inquiry system.
        (8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a
    
prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall be held harmless from any civil liability.
    (k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL).
    (l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of establishing a patient specific identifier.
    (m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their personal prescription history pursuant to the validation process as set forth by administrative rule.
    (n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to develop operational push reports to entities with compatible electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within administrative rule established by the Department.
    (o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.
    (p) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall automatically create a log-in to the inquiry system when a prescriber or dispenser obtains or renews his or her controlled substance license. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation must provide the Prescription Monitoring Program with electronic access to the license information of a prescriber or dispenser to facilitate the creation of this profile. The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send the prescriber or dispenser information regarding the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log into the system, instructions on how to use the system to promote effective clinical practice, and opportunities for continuing education for the prescribing of controlled substances. The Prescription Monitoring Program shall also send to all enrolled prescribers, dispensers, and designees information regarding the unsolicited reports produced pursuant to Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (q) A prescriber or dispenser may authorize a designee to consult the inquiry system established by the Department under this subsection on his or her behalf, provided that all the following conditions are met:
        (1) the designee so authorized is employed by the
    
same hospital or health care system; is employed by the same professional practice; or is under contract with such practice, hospital, or health care system;
        (2) the prescriber or dispenser takes reasonable
    
steps to ensure that such designee is sufficiently competent in the use of the inquiry system;
        (3) the prescriber or dispenser remains responsible
    
for ensuring that access to the inquiry system by the designee is limited to authorized purposes and occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of the information obtained from the inquiry system, and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality; and
        (4) the ultimate decision as to whether or not to
    
prescribe or dispense a controlled substance remains with the prescriber or dispenser.
    The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send to registered designees information regarding the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log onto the system.
    (r) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall maintain an Internet website in conjunction with its prescriber and dispenser inquiry system. This website shall include, at a minimum, the following information:
        (1) current clinical guidelines developed by health
    
care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances as determined by the Advisory Committee;
        (2) accredited continuing education programs related
    
to prescribing of controlled substances;
        (3) programs or information developed by health care
    
professionals that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions;
        (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration,
    
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing;
        (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing;
        (6) other information regarding the prescription of
    
controlled substances; and
        (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal
    
events, including take-back programs or other disposal options or events.
    The content of the Internet website shall be periodically reviewed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee as set forth in Section 320 and updated in accordance with the recommendation of the advisory committee.
    (s) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall regularly send electronic updates to the registered users of the Program. The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall review any communications sent to registered users and also make recommendations for communications as set forth in Section 320. These updates shall include the following information:
        (1) opportunities for accredited continuing
    
education programs related to prescribing of controlled substances;
        (2) current clinical guidelines developed by health
    
care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other drugs as determined by the Advisory Committee;
        (3) programs or information developed by health care
    
professionals that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions;
        (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration,
    
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing;
        (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing;
        (6) other information regarding prescribing of
    
controlled substances;
        (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal
    
events, including take-back programs or other disposal options or events; and
        (8) reminders that the Prescription Monitoring
    
Program is a useful clinical tool.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-125)
    Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.
    (a) Information received by the central repository under Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential.
    (b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the confidentiality of the information described in subsection (a). The Department may disclose the information to another person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.
    (c) The Department may disclose confidential information described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in receiving, processing, or storing the information.
    (d) The Department may release confidential information described in subsection (a) to the following persons:
        (1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and
    
is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
        (2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection
    
Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the following activities involving controlled substances:
            (A) an investigation;
            (B) an adjudication; or
            (C) a prosecution of a violation under any State
        
or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
        (3) A law enforcement officer who is:
            (A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or
        
the office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or municipal police department of Illinois to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; or
            (B) approved by the Department to receive
        
information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; and
            (C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution
        
of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.
        (4) Select representatives of the Department of
    
Children and Family Services through the indirect online request process. Access shall be established by an intergovernmental agreement between the Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services.
    (e) Before the Department releases confidential information under subsection (d), the applicant must demonstrate in writing to the Department that:
        (1) the applicant has reason to believe that a
    
violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance has occurred; and
        (2) the requested information is reasonably related
    
to the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the violation described in subdivision (1).
    (f) The Department may receive and release prescription record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:
        (1) a governing body that licenses practitioners;
        (2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection
    
Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General;
        (3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:
            (A) authorized to receive the type of information
        
released; and
            (B) approved by the Department to receive the
        
type of information released; or
        (4) prescription monitoring entities in other states
    
per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) below;
confidential prescription record information collected under Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.
    (g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and until that employee has certified that further investigation is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).
    (h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as evidence in the following:
        (1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that
    
involves a controlled substance.
        (2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile
    
court that involves a controlled substance.
    (i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the information described in subsection (a). The reports must not include information that identifies, by name, license or address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person administering a controlled substance.
    (j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to assist the health care community in its goal of effective clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or abusing medications.
        (1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a
    
stand-alone database which shall contain records for the previous 12 months.
        (2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure
    
identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the federal HIPAA law.
        (3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure
    
link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical assistance shall also be provided.
        (4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must
    
include the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement Administration license number and submitted upon the requestor's business stationery.
        (5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring
    
Program Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or patient may be used for clinical studies.
        (6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used
    
per administrative rule.
        (7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be
    
construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use of this inquiry system.
        (8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a
    
prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall be held harmless from any civil liability.
    (k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL).
    (l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of establishing a patient specific identifier.
    (m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their personal prescription history pursuant to the validation process as set forth by administrative rule.
    (n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to develop operational push reports to entities with compatible electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within administrative rule established by the Department.
    (o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.
    (p) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall automatically create a log-in to the inquiry system when a prescriber or dispenser obtains or renews his or her controlled substance license. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation must provide the Prescription Monitoring Program with electronic access to the license information of a prescriber or dispenser to facilitate the creation of this profile. The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send the prescriber or dispenser information regarding the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log into the system, instructions on how to use the system to promote effective clinical practice, and opportunities for continuing education for the prescribing of controlled substances. The Prescription Monitoring Program shall also send to all enrolled prescribers, dispensers, and designees information regarding the unsolicited reports produced pursuant to Section 314.5 of this Act.
    (q) A prescriber or dispenser may authorize a designee to consult the inquiry system established by the Department under this subsection on his or her behalf, provided that all the following conditions are met:
        (1) the designee so authorized is employed by the
    
same hospital or health care system; is employed by the same professional practice; or is under contract with such practice, hospital, or health care system;
        (2) the prescriber or dispenser takes reasonable
    
steps to ensure that such designee is sufficiently competent in the use of the inquiry system;
        (3) the prescriber or dispenser remains responsible
    
for ensuring that access to the inquiry system by the designee is limited to authorized purposes and occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of the information obtained from the inquiry system, and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality; and
        (4) the ultimate decision as to whether or not to
    
prescribe or dispense a controlled substance remains with the prescriber or dispenser.
    The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send to registered designees information regarding the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log onto the system.
    (r) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall maintain an Internet website in conjunction with its prescriber and dispenser inquiry system. This website shall include, at a minimum, the following information:
        (1) current clinical guidelines developed by health
    
care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances as determined by the Advisory Committee;
        (2) accredited continuing education programs related
    
to prescribing of controlled substances;
        (3) programs or information developed by health care
    
professionals that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions;
        (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration,
    
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing;
        (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing;
        (6) other information regarding the prescription of
    
controlled substances; and
        (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal
    
events, including take-back programs or other disposal options or events.
    The content of the Internet website shall be periodically reviewed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee as set forth in Section 320 and updated in accordance with the recommendation of the advisory committee.
    (s) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall regularly send electronic updates to the registered users of the Program. The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall review any communications sent to registered users and also make recommendations for communications as set forth in Section 320. These updates shall include the following information:
        (1) opportunities for accredited continuing
    
education programs related to prescribing of controlled substances;
        (2) current clinical guidelines developed by health
    
care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other drugs as determined by the Advisory Committee;
        (3) programs or information developed by health care
    
professionals that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions;
        (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration,
    
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing;
        (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing;
        (6) other information regarding prescribing of
    
controlled substances;
        (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal
    
events, including take-back programs or other disposal options or events; and
        (8) reminders that the Prescription Monitoring
    
Program is a useful clinical tool.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-125, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/319

    (720 ILCS 570/319)
    Sec. 319. Rules. The Department shall adopt rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement Sections 316 through 321, including the following:
        (1) Information collection and retrieval procedures
    
for the central repository, including the controlled substances to be included in the program required under Section 316 and Section 321 (now repealed).
        (2) Design for the creation of the database required
    
under Section 317.
        (3) Requirements for the development and installation
    
of on-line electronic access by the Department to information collected by the central repository.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

720 ILCS 570/320

    (720 ILCS 570/320)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 320. Advisory committee.
    (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to assist the Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription Monitoring Program created by this Article and to advise the Department on the professional performance of prescribers and dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence.
    (b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall appoint members to serve on the advisory committee. The advisory committee shall be composed of prescribers and dispensers as follows: 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; one advanced practice nurse; one physician assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one podiatric physician; and 3 pharmacists. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative of an organization representing a profession required to be appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of the committee.
    (c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers as it deems appropriate.
    (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.
    (e) The advisory committee shall:
        (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act
    
in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly;
        (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage
    
changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act;
        (3) review the following: current clinical
    
guidelines developed by health care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; accredited continuing education programs related to prescribing and dispensing; programs or information developed by health care professional organizations that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant medical studies; and other publications which involve the prescription of controlled substances;
        (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these
    
materials or other studies which may be effective resources for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of the inquiry system established under Section 318;
        (5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content
    
of the Internet website of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has the most current available information;
        (6) on at least a quarterly basis, review
    
opportunities for federal grants and other forms of funding to support projects which will increase the number of pilot programs which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health records; and
        (7) on at least a quarterly basis, review
    
communication to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318, including recommendations for relevant accredited continuing education and information regarding prescribing and dispensing.
    (f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists, of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence, establish a formal peer review of professional performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The deliberations, information, and communications of the peer review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with current law.
        (1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically
    
review the data contained within the prescription monitoring program to identify those prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the currently accepted standards in the course of their professional practice.
        (2) The peer review subcommittee may identify
    
prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside the currently accepted medical standards in the course of their professional practice and send the identified prescriber or dispenser a request for information regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This request for information shall be sent via certified mail, return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall have 30 days to respond to the request for information.
        (3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a
    
prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the following situations:
            (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond
        
to three successive requests for information;
            (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of
        
the peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not have a satisfactory explanation for the practices identified by the peer review subcommittee in its request for information; or
            (iii) following communications with the peer
        
review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in the request for information in the opinion of a majority of the members of the peer review subcommittee.
        (4) The Department of Financial and Professional
    
Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee.
        (5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an
    
annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall contain the following information: the number of times the peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer review committee; the number of requests for information sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber, dispenser, or patient.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-513)
    Sec. 320. Advisory committee.
    (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to assist the Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription Monitoring Program created by this Article and to advise the Department on the professional performance of prescribers and dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence.
    (b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall appoint members to serve on the advisory committee. The advisory committee shall be composed of prescribers and dispensers as follows: 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; one advanced practice registered nurse; one physician assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one podiatric physician; and 3 pharmacists. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative of an organization representing a profession required to be appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of the committee.
    (c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers as it deems appropriate.
    (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.
    (e) The advisory committee shall:
        (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act
    
in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly;
        (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage
    
changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act;
        (3) review the following: current clinical
    
guidelines developed by health care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; accredited continuing education programs related to prescribing and dispensing; programs or information developed by health care professional organizations that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant medical studies; and other publications which involve the prescription of controlled substances;
        (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these
    
materials or other studies which may be effective resources for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of the inquiry system established under Section 318;
        (5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content
    
of the Internet website of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has the most current available information;
        (6) on at least a quarterly basis, review
    
opportunities for federal grants and other forms of funding to support projects which will increase the number of pilot programs which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health records; and
        (7) on at least a quarterly basis, review
    
communication to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318, including recommendations for relevant accredited continuing education and information regarding prescribing and dispensing.
    (f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists, of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence, establish a formal peer review of professional performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The deliberations, information, and communications of the peer review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with current law.
        (1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically
    
review the data contained within the prescription monitoring program to identify those prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the currently accepted standards in the course of their professional practice.
        (2) The peer review subcommittee may identify
    
prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside the currently accepted medical standards in the course of their professional practice and send the identified prescriber or dispenser a request for information regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This request for information shall be sent via certified mail, return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall have 30 days to respond to the request for information.
        (3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a
    
prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the following situations:
            (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond
        
to three successive requests for information;
            (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of
        
the peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not have a satisfactory explanation for the practices identified by the peer review subcommittee in its request for information; or
            (iii) following communications with the peer
        
review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in the request for information in the opinion of a majority of the members of the peer review subcommittee.
        (4) The Department of Financial and Professional
    
Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee.
        (5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an
    
annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall contain the following information: the number of times the peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer review committee; the number of requests for information sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber, dispenser, or patient.
(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/321

    (720 ILCS 570/321)
    Sec. 321. (Repealed).
(Source: P.A. 95-442, eff. 1-1-08. Repealed by P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

720 ILCS 570/Art. IV

 
    (720 ILCS 570/Art. IV heading)
ARTICLE IV

720 ILCS 570/401

    (720 ILCS 570/401) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1401)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 401. Manufacture or delivery, or possession with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance, a counterfeit substance, or controlled substance analog. Except as authorized by this Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to manufacture or deliver, or possess with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance other than methamphetamine and other than bath salts as defined in the Bath Salts Prohibition Act sold or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment as defined in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a counterfeit substance, or a controlled substance analog. A violation of this Act with respect to each of the controlled substances listed herein constitutes a single and separate violation of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "controlled substance analog" or "analog" means a substance, other than a controlled substance, that has a chemical structure substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II, or that was specifically designed to produce an effect substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. Examples of chemical classes in which controlled substance analogs are found include, but are not limited to, the following: phenethylamines, N-substituted piperidines, morphinans, ecgonines, quinazolinones, substituted indoles, and arylcycloalkylamines. For purposes of this Act, a controlled substance analog shall be treated in the same manner as the controlled substance to which it is substantially similar.
    (a) Any person who violates this Section with respect to the following amounts of controlled or counterfeit substances or controlled substance analogs, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (c), (d), (e), (f), (g) or (h) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class X felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as provided in this subsection (a) and fined as provided in subsection (b):
        (1)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (1.5) (A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (2)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (3)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (4) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
peyote, or an analog thereof;
        (5) 200 grams or more of any substance containing a
    
derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid, or an analog thereof;
        (6) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine, or an analog thereof;
        (6.5) (blank);
        (6.6) (blank);
        (7)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 15 or more objects or 15 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 200 objects or 200 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amounts of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 200 or more objects or 200 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 600 objects or less than 600 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 600 or more objects or 600 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 1500 objects or 1500 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 1500 or more objects or 1500 or more segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (7.5)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 15 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 200 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amounts of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 200 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 600 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 600 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 1,500 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60
        
years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 1,500 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (8) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;
        (9) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone, or an analog thereof;
        (10) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP), or an analog thereof;
        (10.5) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.6) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
hydrocodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of hydrocodone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.7) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
dihydrocodeinone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeinone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.8) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
dihydrocodeine, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.9) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
oxycodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of oxycodone, or an analog thereof;
        (11) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
any other controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.
    (b) Any person sentenced with respect to violations of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (7), or (7.5) of subsection (a) involving 100 grams or more of the controlled substance named therein, may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not more than $500,000 or the full street value of the controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog, whichever is greater. The term "street value" shall have the meaning ascribed in Section 110-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Any person sentenced with respect to any other provision of subsection (a), may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $500,000.
    (b-1) Excluding violations of this Act when the controlled substance is fentanyl, any person sentenced to a term of imprisonment with respect to violations of Section 401, 401.1, 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407, when the substance containing the controlled substance contains any amount of fentanyl, 3 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court, and the maximum sentence for the offense shall be increased by 3 years.
    (c) Any person who violates this Section with regard to the following amounts of controlled or counterfeit substances or controlled substance analogs, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (d), (e), (f), (g) or (h) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class 1 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (c) shall not be more than $250,000:
        (1) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (1.5) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (2) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (3) 10 grams or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (4) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing peyote, or an analog thereof;
        (5) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing a derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid, or an analog thereof;
        (6) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine, or an analog thereof;
        (6.5) (blank);
        (7)(i) 5 grams or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) more than 10 objects or more than 10 segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 15 objects or less than 15 segregated parts of an object containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (7.5)(i) 5 grams or more but less than 15 grams of
    
any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) more than 10 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 15 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (8) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;
        (9) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone, or an analog thereof;
        (10) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP), or an analog thereof;
        (10.5) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.6) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing hydrocodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of hydrocodone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.7) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing dihydrocodeinone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeinone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.8) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing dihydrocodeine, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.9) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing oxycodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of oxycodone, or an analog thereof;
        (11) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing a substance classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.
    (c-5) (Blank).
    (d) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance containing dihydrocodeinone or dihydrocodeine or classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is (i) a narcotic drug, (ii) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) or an analog thereof, (iii) any substance containing amphetamine or fentanyl or any salt or optical isomer of amphetamine or fentanyl, or an analog thereof, or (iv) any substance containing N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP) or any salt or optical isomer of N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP), or an analog thereof, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (d) shall not be more than $200,000.
    (d-5) (Blank).
    (e) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule I or II, or an analog thereof, which substance is not included under subsection (d) of this Section, is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (e) shall not be more than $150,000.
    (f) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule III is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (f) shall not be more than $125,000.
    (g) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule IV is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (g) shall not be more than $100,000.
    (h) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule V is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (h) shall not be more than $75,000.
    (i) This Section does not apply to the manufacture, possession or distribution of a substance in conformance with the provisions of an approved new drug application or an exemption for investigational use within the meaning of Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.
    (j) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-585, eff. 1-1-17.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 401. Manufacture or delivery, or possession with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance, a counterfeit substance, or controlled substance analog. Except as authorized by this Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to manufacture or deliver, or possess with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance other than methamphetamine and other than bath salts as defined in the Bath Salts Prohibition Act sold or offered for sale in a retail mercantile establishment as defined in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a counterfeit substance, or a controlled substance analog. A violation of this Act with respect to each of the controlled substances listed herein constitutes a single and separate violation of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "controlled substance analog" or "analog" means a substance, other than a controlled substance, which is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with State or federal law, and that has a chemical structure substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II, or that was specifically designed to produce an effect substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. Examples of chemical classes in which controlled substance analogs are found include, but are not limited to, the following: phenethylamines, N-substituted piperidines, morphinans, ecgonines, quinazolinones, substituted indoles, and arylcycloalkylamines. For purposes of this Act, a controlled substance analog shall be treated in the same manner as the controlled substance to which it is substantially similar.
    (a) Any person who violates this Section with respect to the following amounts of controlled or counterfeit substances or controlled substance analogs, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (c), (d), (e), (f), (g) or (h) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class X felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment as provided in this subsection (a) and fined as provided in subsection (b):
        (1)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
    
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (1.5)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
    
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to 900 grams or more of a substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (2)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
    
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (3)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
    
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to 900 grams or more of a substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (4) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
peyote, or an analog thereof;
        (5) 200 grams or more of any substance containing a
    
derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid, or an analog thereof;
        (6) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine, or an analog thereof;
        (6.5) (blank);
        (6.6) (blank);
        (7)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
    
years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 15 or more objects or 15 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 200 objects or 200 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amounts of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 200 or more objects or 200 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 600 objects or less than 600 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 600 or more objects or 600 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 1500 objects or 1500 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 1500 or more objects or 1500 or more segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
    (7.5)(A) not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years
    
with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 15 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 200 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amounts of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (B) not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years
    
with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 200 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 600 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (C) not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years
    
with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 600 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 1,500 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (D) not less than 15 years and not more than 60 years
    
with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 1,500 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (8) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;
        (9) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone, or an analog thereof;
        (10) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP), or an analog thereof;
        (10.5) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.6) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
hydrocodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of hydrocodone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.7) (blank);
        (10.8) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
dihydrocodeine, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.9) 100 grams or more of any substance containing
    
oxycodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of oxycodone, or an analog thereof;
        (11) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
any other controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.
    (b) Any person sentenced with respect to violations of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (7), or (7.5) of subsection (a) involving 100 grams or more of the controlled substance named therein, may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not more than $500,000 or the full street value of the controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog, whichever is greater. The term "street value" shall have the meaning ascribed in Section 110-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Any person sentenced with respect to any other provision of subsection (a), may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $500,000.
    (b-1) Excluding violations of this Act when the controlled substance is fentanyl, any person sentenced to a term of imprisonment with respect to violations of Section 401, 401.1, 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407, when the substance containing the controlled substance contains any amount of fentanyl, 3 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court, and the maximum sentence for the offense shall be increased by 3 years.
    (c) Any person who violates this Section with regard to the following amounts of controlled or counterfeit substances or controlled substance analogs, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (d), (e), (f), (g) or (h) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class 1 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (c) shall not be more than $250,000:
        (1) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing heroin, or an analog thereof;
        (1.5) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing fentanyl, or an analog thereof;
        (2) 1 gram or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing cocaine, or an analog thereof;
        (3) 10 grams or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing morphine, or an analog thereof;
        (4) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing peyote, or an analog thereof;
        (5) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing a derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid, or an analog thereof;
        (6) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine, or an analog thereof;
        (6.5) (blank);
        (7)(i) 5 grams or more but less than 15 grams of any
    
substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) more than 10 objects or more than 10 segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 15 objects or less than 15 segregated parts of an object containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (7.5)(i) 5 grams or more but less than 15 grams of
    
any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) more than 10 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 15 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (8) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;
        (9) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone, or an analog thereof;
        (10) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP), or an analog thereof;
        (10.5) 10 grams or more but less than 30 grams of any
    
substance containing ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.6) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing hydrocodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of hydrocodone, or an analog thereof;
        (10.7) (blank);
        (10.8) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing dihydrocodeine, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of dihydrocodeine, or an analog thereof;
        (10.9) 50 grams or more but less than 100 grams of
    
any substance containing oxycodone, or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of oxycodone, or an analog thereof;
        (11) 50 grams or more but less than 200 grams of any
    
substance containing a substance classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.
    (c-5) (Blank).
    (d) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance containing dihydrocodeine or classified in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is (i) a narcotic drug, (ii) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) or an analog thereof, (iii) any substance containing amphetamine or fentanyl or any salt or optical isomer of amphetamine or fentanyl, or an analog thereof, or (iv) any substance containing N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP) or any salt or optical isomer of N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP), or an analog thereof, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (d) shall not be more than $200,000.
    (d-5) (Blank).
    (e) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule I or II, or an analog thereof, which substance is not included under subsection (d) of this Section, is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (e) shall not be more than $150,000.
    (f) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule III is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (f) shall not be more than $125,000.
    (g) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule IV is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (g) shall not be more than $100,000.
    (h) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any other amount of a controlled or counterfeit substance classified in Schedule V is guilty of a Class 3 felony. The fine for violation of this subsection (h) shall not be more than $75,000.
    (i) This Section does not apply to the manufacture, possession or distribution of a substance in conformance with the provisions of an approved new drug application or an exemption for investigational use within the meaning of Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.
    (j) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-585, eff. 1-1-17; 100-368, eff. 1-1-18.)

720 ILCS 570/401.1

    (720 ILCS 570/401.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1401.1)
    Sec. 401.1. Controlled Substance Trafficking.
    (a) Except for purposes as authorized by this Act, any person who knowingly brings or causes to be brought into this State for the purpose of manufacture or delivery or with the intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance other than methamphetamine or counterfeit substance in this or any other state or country is guilty of controlled substance trafficking.
    (b) A person convicted of controlled substance trafficking shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment not less than twice the minimum term and fined an amount as authorized by Section 401 of this Act, based upon the amount of controlled or counterfeit substance brought or caused to be brought into this State, and not more than twice the maximum term of imprisonment and fined twice the amount as authorized by Section 401 of this Act, based upon the amount of controlled or counterfeit substance brought or caused to be brought into this State.
    (c) It shall be a Class 2 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed for any person to knowingly use a cellular radio telecommunication device in the furtherance of controlled substance trafficking. This penalty shall be in addition to any other penalties imposed by law.
(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

720 ILCS 570/401.5

    (720 ILCS 570/401.5)
    Sec. 401.5. Chemical breakdown of illicit controlled substance.
    (a) It is unlawful for any person to manufacture a controlled substance other than methamphetamine prohibited by this Act by chemically deriving the controlled substance from one or more other controlled substances prohibited by this Act.
    (a-5) It is unlawful for any person to possess any substance with the intent to use the substance to facilitate the manufacture of any controlled substance other than methamphetamine, any counterfeit substance, or any controlled substance analog other than as authorized by this Act.
    (b) A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.
    (c) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

720 ILCS 570/402

    (720 ILCS 570/402) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1402)
    (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 402. Except as otherwise authorized by this Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to possess a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog. A violation of this Act with respect to each of the controlled substances listed herein constitutes a single and separate violation of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "controlled substance analog" or "analog" means a substance, other than a controlled substance, that has a chemical structure substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II, or that was specifically designed to produce an effect substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. Examples of chemical classes in which controlled substance analogs are found include, but are not limited to, the following: phenethylamines, N-substituted piperidines, morphinans, ecgonines, quinazolinones, substituted indoles, and arylcycloalkylamines. For purposes of this Act, a controlled substance analog shall be treated in the same manner as the controlled substance to which it is substantially similar.
    (a) Any person who violates this Section with respect to the following controlled or counterfeit substances and amounts, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (c) and (d) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class 1 felony and shall, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, be sentenced as provided in this subsection (a) and fined as provided in subsection (b):
        (1) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of a substance containing heroin;
            (B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of a substance containing heroin;
            (C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing heroin;
            (D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing heroin;
        (2) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing cocaine;
            (B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing cocaine;
            (C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing cocaine;
            (D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing cocaine;
        (3) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15
        
years with respect to 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing morphine;
            (B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing morphine;
            (C) not less than 6 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing morphine;
            (D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to 900 grams or more of any substance containing morphine;
        (4) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
peyote;
        (5) 200 grams or more of any substance containing a
    
derivative of barbituric acid or any of the salts of a derivative of barbituric acid;
        (6) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
amphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of amphetamine;
        (6.5) (blank);
        (7) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15
        
years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 15 or more objects or 15 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 200 objects or 200 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 200 or more objects or 200 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 600 objects or less than 600 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 600 or more objects or 600 or more segregated parts of an object or objects but less than 1500 objects or 1500 segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
            (D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof, or (ii) 1500 or more objects or 1500 or more segregated parts of an object or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance containing lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), or an analog thereof;
        (7.5) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15
        
years with respect to: (i) 15 grams or more but less than 100 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 15 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 200 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (B) not less than 6 years and not more than 30
        
years with respect to: (i) 100 grams or more but less than 400 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 200 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 600 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (C) not less than 8 years and not more than 40
        
years with respect to: (i) 400 grams or more but less than 900 grams of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 600 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects but less than 1,500 pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
            (D) not less than 10 years and not more than 50
        
years with respect to: (i) 900 grams or more of any substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof, or (ii) 1,500 or more pills, tablets, caplets, capsules, or objects containing in them or having upon them any amount of a substance listed in paragraph (1), (2), (2.1), (2.2), (3), (14.1), (19), (20), (20.1), (21), (25), or (26) of subsection (d) of Section 204, or an analog or derivative thereof;
        (8) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
pentazocine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of pentazocine, or an analog thereof;
        (9) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
methaqualone or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of methaqualone;
        (10) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
phencyclidine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of phencyclidine (PCP);
        (10.5) 30 grams or more of any substance containing
    
ketamine or any of the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of ketamine;
        (11) 200 grams or more of any substance containing
    
any substance classified as a narcotic drug in Schedules I or II, or an analog thereof, which is not otherwise included in this subsection.
    (b) Any person sentenced with respect to violations of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (7), or (7.5) of subsection (a) involving 100 grams or more of the controlled substance named therein, may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $200,000 or the full street value of the controlled or counterfeit substances, whichever is greater. The term "street value" shall have the meaning ascribed in Section 110-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Any person sentenced with respect to any other provision of subsection (a), may in addition to the penalties provided therein, be fined an amount not to exceed $200,000.
    (c) Any person who violates this Section with regard to an amount of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine or counterfeit substance not set forth in subsection (a) or (d) is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The fine for a violation punishable under this subsection (c) shall not be more than $25,000.
    (d) Any person who violates this Section with regard to any amount of anabolic steroid is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class B misdemeanor for a subsequent offense committed within 2 years of a prior conviction.
(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16.)
 
    (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-368)
    Sec. 402. Except as otherwise authorized by this Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to possess a controlled or counterfeit substance or controlled substance analog. A violation of this Act with respect to each of the controlled substances listed herein constitutes a single and separate violation of this Act. For purposes of this Section, "controlled substance analog" or "analog" means a substance, other than a controlled substance, which is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with State or federal law, and that has a chemical structure substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II, or that was specifically designed to produce an effect substantially similar to that of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. Examples of chemical classes in which controlled substance analogs are found include, but are not limited to, the following: phenethylamines, N-substituted piperidines, morphinans, ecgonines, quinazolinones, substituted indoles, and arylcycloalkylamines. For purposes of this Act, a controlled substance analog shall be treated in the same manner as the controlled substance to which it is substantially similar.
    (a) Any person who violates this Section with respect to the following controlled or counterfeit substances and amounts, notwithstanding any of the provisions of subsections (c) and (d) to the contrary, is guilty of a Class 1 felony and shall, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, be sentenced as provided in this subsection (a) and fined as provided in subsection (b):
        (1) (A) not less than 4 years and not more than 15