HB4049 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB099 03667 KTG 23678 b

99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2015 and 2016
HB4049

Introduced , by Rep. John M. Cabello

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Statute on Statutes, the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and other various Acts. Changes all occurrences of "the physically handicapped" to "persons with physical disabilities", changes all occurrences of "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" to "persons with disabilities", and changes all occurrences of "handicapping condition" to "disabling condition". Changes all occurrences of "disabled persons" to "persons with disabilities" and changes all occurrences of "the mentally and developmentally disabled" to "persons with mental and developmental disabilities". Changes the title of the "Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act" and all references to that Act to the "Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act". Changes the title of other Acts and the names of certain funds. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning persons with disabilities.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Rule of construction. This Act shall be construed to make amendments to provisions of State law to substitute the term "persons with physical disabilities" for "the physically handicapped" or "the physically disabled"; "persons with disabilities" for "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" or "the disabled" or "disabled persons" or "disabled individuals"; "persons with developmental disabilities" for "the developmentally disabled" or "developmentally disabled persons" or "developmentally disabled individuals"; "permanent disability" for "permanently disabled"; "total disability" for "totally disabled"; "total and permanent disability" for "totally and permanently disabled"; "temporary total disability" for "temporarily totally disabled"; "permanent total disability" for "permanently totally disabled"; and "disabling condition", as appropriate, for "handicapping condition" without any intent to change the substantive rights, responsibilities, coverage, eligibility, or definitions referred to in the amended provisions represented in this Act.

Section 5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by changing Sections 1.37 and 1.38 and by adding Sections 1.40, 1.41, and 1.42 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/1.37)

Sec. 1.37. Intellectual disability. Except where the context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a reference to the term "mental retardation" shall be considered a reference to the term "intellectual disability" and a reference to a the term "mentally retarded person or a similar reference " shall be considered a reference to a person with an intellectual disability the term "intellectually disabled". The use of either "mental retardation" or "intellectually disabled", or "mentally retarded" or "person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled" shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(5 ILCS 70/1.38)

Sec. 1.38. Physical disability. Except where the context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a reference to a the term "crippled person or a similar reference " shall be considered a reference to a person with a physical disability the term "physically disabled" and a reference to the term "crippling" shall be considered a reference to the term "physical disability" or "physically disabling", as appropriate, when referring to a person. The use of either "crippled" or "physically disabled", or "crippling" or "physical disability" shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(5 ILCS 70/1.40 new)

Sec. 1.40. Persons with disabilities. Except where the context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a reference to the term "the physically handicapped" or "the physically disabled" shall be considered a reference to the term "persons with physical disabilities"; and a reference to the term "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" or "the disabled" or "disabled persons" or "disabled individuals" shall be considered a reference to the term "persons with disabilities"; and a reference to the term "handicapping condition" shall be considered a reference to the term "disabling condition". The use of either "the physically handicapped" or "the physically disabled" or "persons with physical disabilities", or "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" or "the disabled" or "disabled persons" or "disabled individuals" or "persons with disabilities" or "handicapping condition" or "disabling condition" shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.

(5 ILCS 70/1.41 new)

Sec. 1.41. Permanent disability; total disability. Except where the context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a reference to a permanently disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a permanent disability; and a reference to a totally disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a total disability; and a reference to a permanently and totally disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a permanent and total disability; and a reference to a totally and permanently disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a total and permanent disability; and a reference to a permanently totally disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a permanent total disability; and a reference to a temporarily totally disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a temporary total disability. The use of either "permanently disabled" or "permanent disability" or "totally disabled" or "total disability" or "permanently and totally disabled" or "permanent and total disability" or "totally and permanently disabled" or "total and permanent disability" or "permanently totally disabled" or "permanent total disability" or "temporarily totally disabled" or "temporary total disability" shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.

(5 ILCS 70/1.42 new)

Sec. 1.42. Developmental disability. Except where the context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a reference to a developmentally disabled person or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to a person with a developmental disability and a reference to the developmentally disabled or a similar reference shall be considered a reference to persons with developmental disabilities. The use of either "developmentally disabled" or "developmental disability" or "the developmentally disabled" or "persons with developmental disabilities" shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 5-45, 5-146, and 5-147 and by adding Section 5-148 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24 month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24 month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health, (iv) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (n) of this Section, (v) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (o) of this Section, or (vi) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(c-5) To facilitate the maintenance of the program of group health benefits provided to annuitants, survivors, and retired employees under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, rules to alter the contributions to be paid by the State, annuitants, survivors, retired employees, or any combination of those entities, for that program of group health benefits, shall be adopted as emergency rules. The adoption of those rules shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(m) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2008 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2008, including rules effective July 1, 2008, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (m) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(n) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2010 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2010 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (n) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (n) shall apply only to rules promulgated during Fiscal Year 2010.

(o) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2011 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2011 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (o) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (o) applies only to rules promulgated on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly through June 30, 2011.

(p) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 97-689, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 97-689 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (p) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 150-day limitation of the effective period of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p), and the effective period may continue through June 30, 2013. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (p) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(q) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement any provision of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (q) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (q). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (q) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(r) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (r) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (r). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (r) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-695, eff. 7-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-146)

Sec. 5-146. Rule change; intellectual disability. Any State agency with a rule that contains a reference to a the term "mentally retarded person or similar reference shall amend the text of the rule to contain a reference to a person with an intellectual disability. Any State agency with a rule that contains the term " or "mental retardation" shall amend the text of the rule to substitute the term "intellectually disabled" for "mentally retarded" and "intellectual disability" for "mental retardation", and shall make any other changes that may be necessary to conform to the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-147)

Sec. 5-147. Rule change; physical disability. Any State agency with a rule that contains a reference to a the term "crippled person or similar reference shall amend the text of the rule to contain a reference to a person with a physical disability. Any State agency with a rule that contains the term " or "crippling" to refer to a person with a physical disability shall amend the text of the rule to substitute the term "physically disabled" for "crippled" and "physical disability" or "physically disabling", as appropriate, for "crippling", and shall make any other changes that may be necessary to conform to the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-148 new)

Sec. 5-148. Rule change; persons with a disability. Any State agency with a rule that contains the term "the physically handicapped" or "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" or "handicapping condition" shall amend the text of the rule to substitute the term "persons with physical disabilities" for "the physically handicapped" and "persons with disabilities" for "the handicapped" or "handicapped persons" or "handicapped individuals" and "disabling condition", as appropriate, for "handicapping condition", and shall make any other changes that may be necessary to conform to the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

Section 15. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Labor Relations Board or, with respect to a matter over which the jurisdiction of the Board is assigned to the State Panel or the Local Panel under Section 5, the panel having jurisdiction over the matter.

(b) "Collective bargaining" means bargaining over terms and conditions of employment, including hours, wages, and other conditions of employment, as detailed in Section 7 and which are not excluded by Section 4.

(c) "Confidential employee" means an employee who, in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine, and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who, in the regular course of his or her duties, has authorized access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies.

(d) "Craft employees" means skilled journeymen, crafts persons, and their apprentices and helpers.

(e) "Essential services employees" means those public employees performing functions so essential that the interruption or termination of the function will constitute a clear and present danger to the health and safety of the persons in the affected community.

(f) "Exclusive representative", except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of public employees in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, (iii) after July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iv) recognized as the exclusive representative of personal assistants under Executive Order 2003-8 prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the personal assistants as defined in this Section; or (v) recognized as the exclusive representative of child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt providers, pursuant to an election held under Executive Order 2005-1 prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the child and day care home providers as defined in this Section.

With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, "exclusive representative" means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit, or (iii) after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit.

Where a historical pattern of representation exists for the workers of a water system that was owned by a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, prior to becoming certified employees of a municipality or municipalities once the municipality or municipalities have acquired the water system as authorized in Section 11-124-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code, the Board shall find the labor organization that has historically represented the workers to be the exclusive representative under this Act, and shall find the unit represented by the exclusive representative to be the appropriate unit.

(g) "Fair share agreement" means an agreement between the employer and an employee organization under which all or any of the employees in a collective bargaining unit are required to pay their proportionate share of the costs of the collective bargaining process, contract administration, and pursuing matters affecting wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, but not to exceed the amount of dues uniformly required of members. The amount certified by the exclusive representative shall not include any fees for contributions related to the election or support of any candidate for political office. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall preclude an employee from making voluntary political contributions in conjunction with his or her fair share payment.

(g-1) "Fire fighter" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any person who has been or is hereafter appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a state university and sworn or commissioned to perform fire fighter duties or paramedic duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time fire fighters, auxiliary, reserve or voluntary fire fighters, including paid on-call fire fighters, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform fire fighter duties, or elected officials.

(g-2) "General Assembly of the State of Illinois" means the legislative branch of the government of the State of Illinois, as provided for under Article IV of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and includes but is not limited to the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services and any legislative support services agency listed in the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(h) "Governing body" means, in the case of the State, the State Panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board, the Director of the Department of Central Management Services, and the Director of the Department of Labor; the county board in the case of a county; the corporate authorities in the case of a municipality; and the appropriate body authorized to provide for expenditures of its funds in the case of any other unit of government.

(i) "Labor organization" means any organization in which public employees participate and that exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with a public employer concerning wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, including the settlement of grievances.

(i-5) "Legislative liaison" means a person who is an employee of a State agency, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, or the Treasurer, as the case may be, and whose job duties require the person to regularly communicate in the course of his or her employment with any official or staff of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois for the purpose of influencing any legislative action.

(j) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of management policies and practices. With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, "managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged in executive and management functions or who is charged with the effectuation of management policies and practices or who represents management interests by taking or recommending discretionary actions that effectively control or implement policy. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "supervisor" under subsection (r) of this Section.

(k) "Peace officer" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any persons who have been or are hereafter appointed to a police force, department, or agency and sworn or commissioned to perform police duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time police officers, special police officers, auxiliary police as defined by Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code, night watchmen, "merchant police", court security officers as defined by Section 3-6012.1 of the Counties Code, temporary employees, traffic guards or wardens, civilian parking meter and parking facilities personnel or other individuals specially appointed to aid or direct traffic at or near schools or public functions or to aid in civil defense or disaster, parking enforcement employees who are not commissioned as peace officers and who are not armed and who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, parking lot attendants, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a police department who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, or elected officials.

(l) "Person" includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, public employees, associations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, or the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State or governing body, but does not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or any individual employed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois.

(m) "Professional employee" means any employee engaged in work predominantly intellectual and varied in character rather than routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work; involving the consistent exercise of discretion and adjustment in its performance; of such a character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or any employee who has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study prescribed in this subsection (m) and is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify to become a professional employee as defined in this subsection (m).

(n) "Public employee" or "employee", for the purposes of this Act, means any individual employed by a public employer, including (i) interns and residents at public hospitals, (ii) as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, (iii) as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but not before, child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (iv) as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, (v) beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any person employed by a public employer and who is classified as or who holds the employment title of Chief Stationary Engineer, Assistant Chief Stationary Engineer, Sewage Plant Operator, Water Plant Operator, Stationary Engineer, Plant Operating Engineer, and any other employee who holds the position of: Civil Engineer V, Civil Engineer VI, Civil Engineer VII, Technical Manager I, Technical Manager II, Technical Manager III, Technical Manager IV, Technical Manager V, Technical Manager VI, Realty Specialist III, Realty Specialist IV, Realty Specialist V, Technical Advisor I, Technical Advisor II, Technical Advisor III, Technical Advisor IV, or Technical Advisor V employed by the Department of Transportation who is in a position which is certified in a bargaining unit on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, and (vi) beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any mental health administrator in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 8K), any employee of the Office of the Inspector General in the Department of Human Services who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), any Deputy of Intelligence in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), and any employee of the Department of State Police who handles issues concerning the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry and who is classified as or holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), but excluding all of the following: employees of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois; elected officials; executive heads of a department; members of boards or commissions; the Executive Inspectors General; any special Executive Inspectors General; employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission; the Auditor General's Inspector General; employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General; the Legislative Inspector General; any special Legislative Inspectors General; employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission; employees of any agency, board or commission created by this Act; employees appointed to State positions of a temporary or emergency nature; all employees of school districts and higher education institutions except firefighters and peace officers employed by a state university and except peace officers employed by a school district in its own police department in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly; managerial employees; short-term employees; legislative liaisons; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Attorney General who is licensed to practice law or whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Comptroller who holds the position of Public Service Administrator or whose position is otherwise exempt under the Comptroller Merit Employment Code; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State who holds the position classification of Executive I or higher, whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation, or who is otherwise exempt under the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code; employees in the Office of the Secretary of State who are completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code and who are in Rutan-exempt positions on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172); a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Treasurer who holds a position that is exempt from the State Treasurer Employment Code; any employee of a State agency who (i) holds the title or position of, or exercises substantially similar duties as a legislative liaison, Agency General Counsel, Agency Chief of Staff, Agency Executive Director, Agency Deputy Director, Agency Chief Fiscal Officer, Agency Human Resources Director, Public Information Officer, or Chief Information Officer and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employee of a State agency who (i) is in a position that is Rutan-exempt, as designated by the employer, and completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Personnel Code and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any term appointed employee of a State agency pursuant to Section 8b.18 or 8b.19 of the Personnel Code who was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employment position properly designated pursuant to Section 6.1 of this Act; confidential employees; independent contractors; and supervisors except as provided in this Act.

Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/).

Child and day care home providers shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Notwithstanding Section 9, subsection (c), or any other provisions of this Act, all peace officers above the rank of captain in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be excluded from this Act.

(o) Except as otherwise in subsection (o-5), "public employer" or "employer" means the State of Illinois; any political subdivision of the State, unit of local government or school district; authorities including departments, divisions, bureaus, boards, commissions, or other agencies of the foregoing entities; and any person acting within the scope of his or her authority, express or implied, on behalf of those entities in dealing with its employees. As of the effective date of the amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act. As of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (o), the State shall be considered the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, but subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/). As of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the day and child care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided for in this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

"Public employer" or "employer" as used in this Act, however, does not mean and shall not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, the Executive Ethics Commission, the Offices of the Executive Inspectors General, the Legislative Ethics Commission, the Office of the Legislative Inspector General, the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General, the Office of the Governor, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, the State Board of Elections, and educational employers or employers as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, except with respect to a state university in its employment of firefighters and peace officers and except with respect to a school district in the employment of peace officers in its own police department in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. County boards and county sheriffs shall be designated as joint or co-employers of county peace officers appointed under the authority of a county sheriff. Nothing in this subsection (o) shall be construed to prevent the State Panel or the Local Panel from determining that employers are joint or co-employers.

(o-5) With respect to wages, fringe benefits, hours, holidays, vacations, proficiency examinations, sick leave, and other conditions of employment, the public employer of public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be determined as follows:

(1) For court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit, the chief judge of the Cook County Circuit Court is the public employer and employer representative.

(2) For court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(3) For court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(p) "Security employee" means an employee who is responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities. The term also includes other non-security employees in bargaining units having the majority of employees being responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities.

(q) "Short-term employee" means an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable assurance that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year.

(q-5) "State agency" means an agency directly responsible to the Governor, as defined in Section 3.1 of the Executive Reorganization Implementation Act, and the Illinois Commerce Commission, the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, the Civil Service Commission, the Pollution Control Board, the Illinois Racing Board, and the Department of State Police Merit Board.

(r) "Supervisor" is:

(1) An employee whose principal work is substantially different from that of his or her subordinates and who has authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend any of those actions, if the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment. Except with respect to police employment, the term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to exercising that authority, State supervisors notwithstanding. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "managerial employee" under subsection (j) of this Section. In addition, in determining supervisory status in police employment, rank shall not be determinative. The Board shall consider, as evidence of bargaining unit inclusion or exclusion, the common law enforcement policies and relationships between police officer ranks and certification under applicable civil service law, ordinances, personnel codes, or Division 2.1 of Article 10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, but these factors shall not be the sole or predominant factors considered by the Board in determining police supervisory status.

Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, in determining supervisory status in fire fighter employment, no fire fighter shall be excluded as a supervisor who has established representation rights under Section 9 of this Act. Further, in new fire fighter units, employees shall consist of fire fighters of the rank of company officer and below. If a company officer otherwise qualifies as a supervisor under the preceding paragraph, however, he or she shall not be included in the fire fighter unit. If there is no rank between that of chief and the highest company officer, the employer may designate a position on each shift as a Shift Commander, and the persons occupying those positions shall be supervisors. All other ranks above that of company officer shall be supervisors.

(2) With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, an employee who qualifies as a supervisor under (A) Section 152 of the National Labor Relations Act and (B) orders of the National Labor Relations Board interpreting that provision or decisions of courts reviewing decisions of the National Labor Relations Board.

(s)(1) "Unit" means a class of jobs or positions that are held by employees whose collective interests may suitably be represented by a labor organization for collective bargaining. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both employees and supervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act). With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Department of State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985). A bargaining unit determined by the Board to contain peace officers shall contain no employees other than peace officers unless otherwise agreed to by the employer and the labor organization or labor organizations involved. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a bargaining unit, including a historical bargaining unit, containing sworn peace officers of the Department of Natural Resources (formerly designated the Department of Conservation) shall contain no employees other than such sworn peace officers upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 or upon the expiration date of any collective bargaining agreement in effect upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 covering both such sworn peace officers and other employees.

(2) Notwithstanding the exclusion of supervisors from bargaining units as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (s), a public employer may agree to permit its supervisory employees to form bargaining units and may bargain with those units. This Act shall apply if the public employer chooses to bargain under this subsection.

(3) Public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be divided into 3 units for collective bargaining purposes. One unit shall be court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit; one unit shall be court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits; and one unit shall be court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits.

(t) "Active petition for certification in a bargaining unit" means a petition for certification filed with the Board under one of the following case numbers: S-RC-11-110; S-RC-11-098; S-UC-11-080; S-RC-11-086; S-RC-11-074; S-RC-11-076; S-RC-11-078; S-UC-11-052; S-UC-11-054; S-RC-11-062; S-RC-11-060; S-RC-11-042; S-RC-11-014; S-RC-11-016; S-RC-11-020; S-RC-11-030; S-RC-11-004; S-RC-10-244; S-RC-10-228; S-RC-10-222; S-RC-10-220; S-RC-10-214; S-RC-10-196; S-RC-10-194; S-RC-10-178; S-RC-10-176; S-RC-10-162; S-RC-10-156; S-RC-10-088; S-RC-10-074; S-RC-10-076; S-RC-10-078; S-RC-10-060; S-RC-10-070; S-RC-10-044; S-RC-10-038; S-RC-10-040; S-RC-10-042; S-RC-10-018; S-RC-10-024; S-RC-10-004; S-RC-10-006; S-RC-10-008; S-RC-10-010; S-RC-10-012; S-RC-09-202; S-RC-09-182; S-RC-09-180; S-RC-09-156; S-UC-09-196; S-UC-09-182; S-RC-08-130; S-RC-07-110; or S-RC-07-100.

(Source: P.A. 97-586, eff. 8-26-11; 97-1158, eff. 1-29-13; 97-1172, eff. 4-5-13; 98-100, eff. 7-19-13; 98-1004, eff. 8-18-14.)

Section 20. The Voluntary Payroll Deductions Act of 1983 is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(5 ILCS 340/3) (from Ch. 15, par. 503)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Employee" means any regular officer or employee who receives salary or wages for personal services rendered to the State of Illinois, and includes an individual hired as an employee by contract with that individual.

(b) "Qualified organization" means an organization representing one or more benefiting agencies, which organization is designated by the State Comptroller as qualified to receive payroll deductions under this Act. An organization desiring to be designated as a qualified organization shall:

(1) Submit written or electronic designations on forms approved by the State Comptroller by 500 or more employees or State annuitants, in which such employees or State annuitants indicate that the organization is one for which the employee or State annuitant intends to authorize withholding. The forms shall require the name, last 4 digits only of the social security number, and employing State agency for each employee. Upon notification by the Comptroller that such forms have been approved, the organization shall, within 30 days, notify in writing the Governor or his or her designee of its intention to obtain the required number of designations. Such organization shall have 12 months from that date to obtain the necessary designations and return to the State Comptroller's office the completed designations, which shall be subject to verification procedures established by the State Comptroller;

(2) Certify that all benefiting agencies are tax exempt under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(3) Certify that all benefiting agencies are in compliance with the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(4) Certify that all benefiting agencies are in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act;

(5) Certify that all benefiting agencies actively conduct health or welfare programs and provide services to individuals directed at one or more of the following common human needs within a community: service, research, and education in the health fields; family and child care services; protective services for children and adults; services for children and adults in foster care; services related to the management and maintenance of the home; day care services for adults; transportation services; information, referral and counseling services; services to eliminate illiteracy; the preparation and delivery of meals; adoption services; emergency shelter care and relief services; disaster relief services; safety services; neighborhood and community organization services; recreation services; social adjustment and rehabilitation services; health support services; or a combination of such services designed to meet the special needs of specific groups, such as children and youth, the ill and infirm, and persons with physical disabilities the physically handicapped; and that all such benefiting agencies provide the above described services to individuals and their families in the community and surrounding area in which the organization conducts its fund drive, or that such benefiting agencies provide relief to victims of natural disasters and other emergencies on a where and as needed basis;

(6) Certify that the organization has disclosed the percentage of the organization's total collected receipts from employees or State annuitants that are distributed to the benefiting agencies and the percentage of the organization's total collected receipts from employees or State annuitants that are expended for fund-raising and overhead costs. These percentages shall be the same percentage figures annually disclosed by the organization to the Attorney General. The disclosure shall be made to all solicited employees and State annuitants and shall be in the form of a factual statement on all petitions and in the campaign's brochures for employees and State annuitants;

(7) Certify that all benefiting agencies receiving funds which the employee or State annuitant has requested or designated for distribution to a particular community and surrounding area use a majority of such funds distributed for services in the actual provision of services in that community and surrounding area;

(8) Certify that neither it nor its member organizations will solicit State employees for contributions at their workplace, except pursuant to this Act and the rules promulgated thereunder. Each qualified organization, and each participating United Fund, is encouraged to cooperate with all others and with all State agencies and educational institutions so as to simplify procedures, to resolve differences and to minimize costs;

(9) Certify that it will pay its share of the campaign costs and will comply with the Code of Campaign Conduct as approved by the Governor or other agency as designated by the Governor; and

(10) Certify that it maintains a year-round office, the telephone number, and person responsible for the operations of the organization in Illinois. That information shall be provided to the State Comptroller at the time the organization is seeking participation under this Act.

Each qualified organization shall submit to the State Comptroller between January 1 and March 1 of each year, a statement that the organization is in compliance with all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2) through (10). The State Comptroller shall exclude any organization that fails to submit the statement from the next solicitation period.

In order to be designated as a qualified organization, the organization shall have existed at least 2 years prior to submitting the written or electronic designation forms required in paragraph (1) and shall certify to the State Comptroller that such organization has been providing services described in paragraph (5) in Illinois. If the organization seeking designation represents more than one benefiting agency, it need not have existed for 2 years but shall certify to the State Comptroller that each of its benefiting agencies has existed for at least 2 years prior to submitting the written or electronic designation forms required in paragraph (1) and that each has been providing services described in paragraph (5) in Illinois.

Organizations which have met the requirements of this Act shall be permitted to participate in the State and Universities Combined Appeal as of January 1st of the year immediately following their approval by the Comptroller.

Where the certifications described in paragraphs (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) above are made by an organization representing more than one benefiting agency they shall be based upon the knowledge and belief of such qualified organization. Any qualified organization shall immediately notify the State Comptroller in writing if the qualified organization receives information or otherwise believes that a benefiting agency is no longer in compliance with the certification of the qualified organization. A qualified organization representing more than one benefiting agency shall thereafter withhold and refrain from distributing to such benefiting agency those funds received pursuant to this Act until the benefiting agency is again in compliance with the qualified organization's certification. The qualified organization shall immediately notify the State Comptroller of the benefiting agency's resumed compliance with the certification, based upon the qualified organization's knowledge and belief, and shall pay over to the benefiting agency those funds previously withheld.

In order to qualify, a qualified organization must receive 250 deduction pledges from the immediately preceding solicitation period as set forth in Section 6. The Comptroller shall, by February 1st of each year, so notify any qualified organization that failed to receive the minimum deduction requirement. The notification shall give such qualified organization until March 1st to provide the Comptroller with documentation that the minimum deduction requirement has been met. On the basis of all the documentation, the Comptroller shall, by March 15th of each year, submit to the Governor or his or her designee, or such other agency as may be determined by the Governor, a list of all organizations which have met the minimum payroll deduction requirement. Only those organizations which have met such requirements, as well as the other requirements of this Section, shall be permitted to solicit State employees or State annuitants for voluntary contributions, and the Comptroller shall discontinue withholding for any such organization which fails to meet these requirements, except qualified organizations that received deduction pledges during the 2004 solicitation period are deemed to be qualified for the 2005 solicitation period.

(c) "United Fund" means the organization conducting the single, annual, consolidated effort to secure funds for distribution to agencies engaged in charitable and public health, welfare and services purposes, which is commonly known as the United Fund, or the organization which serves in place of the United Fund organization in communities where an organization known as the United Fund is not organized.

In order for a United Fund to participate in the State and Universities Employees Combined Appeal, it shall comply with the provisions of paragraph (9) of subsection (b).

(d) "State and Universities Employees Combined Appeal", otherwise known as "SECA", means the State-directed joint effort of all of the qualified organizations, together with the United Funds, for the solicitation of voluntary contributions from State and University employees and State annuitants.

(e) "Retirement system" means any or all of the following: the General Assembly Retirement System, the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, and the Judges Retirement System.

(f) "State annuitant" means a person receiving an annuity or disability benefit under Article 2, 14, 15, 16, or 18 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1005, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 25. The Public Employee Disability Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 345/1) (from Ch. 70, par. 91)

Sec. 1. Disability benefit.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "eligible employee" means any part-time or full-time State correctional officer or any other full or part-time employee of the Department of Corrections, any full or part-time employee of the Prisoner Review Board, any full or part-time employee of the Department of Human Services working within a penal institution or a State mental health or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services, and any full-time law enforcement officer or full-time firefighter who is employed by the State of Illinois, any unit of local government (including any home rule unit), any State supported college or university, or any other public entity granted the power to employ persons for such purposes by law.

(b) Whenever an eligible employee suffers any injury in the line of duty which causes him to be unable to perform his duties, he shall continue to be paid by the employing public entity on the same basis as he was paid before the injury, with no deduction from his sick leave credits, compensatory time for overtime accumulations or vacation, or service credits in a public employee pension fund during the time he is unable to perform his duties due to the result of the injury, but not longer than one year in relation to the same injury. However, no injury to an employee of the Department of Corrections or the Prisoner Review Board working within a penal institution or an employee of the Department of Human Services working within a departmental mental health or developmental disabilities facility shall qualify the employee for benefits under this Section unless the injury is the direct or indirect result of violence by inmates of the penal institution or residents of the mental health or developmental disabilities facility.

(c) At any time during the period for which continuing compensation is required by this Act, the employing public entity may order at the expense of that entity physical or medical examinations of the injured person to determine the degree of disability.

(d) During this period of disability, the injured person shall not be employed in any other manner, with or without monetary compensation. Any person who is employed in violation of this paragraph forfeits the continuing compensation provided by this Act from the time such employment begins. Any salary compensation due the injured person from workers' compensation or any salary due him from any type of insurance which may be carried by the employing public entity shall revert to that entity during the time for which continuing compensation is paid to him under this Act. Any person with a disability disabled person receiving compensation under the provisions of this Act shall not be entitled to any benefits for which he would qualify because of his disability under the provisions of the Illinois Pension Code.

(e) Any employee of the State of Illinois, as defined in Section 14-103.05 of the Illinois Pension Code, who becomes permanently unable to perform the duties of such employment due to an injury received in the active performance of his duties as a State employee as a result of a willful act of violence by another employee of the State of Illinois, as so defined, committed during such other employee's course of employment and after January 1, 1988, shall be eligible for benefits pursuant to the provisions of this Section. For purposes of this Section, permanent disability permanently disabled is defined as a diagnosis or prognosis of an inability to return to current job duties by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(f) The compensation and other benefits provided to part-time employees covered by this Section shall be calculated based on the percentage of time the part-time employee was scheduled to work pursuant to his or her status as a part-time employee.

(g) Pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, this Act specifically denies and limits the exercise by home rule units of any power which is inconsistent herewith, and all existing laws and ordinances which are inconsistent herewith are hereby superseded. This Act does not preempt the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers consistent herewith.

This Act does not apply to any home rule unit with a population of over 1,000,000.

(h) In those cases where the injury to a State employee for which a benefit is payable under this Act was caused under circumstances creating a legal liability for damages on the part of some person other than the State employer, all of the rights and privileges, including the right to notice of suit brought against such other person and the right to commence or join in such suit, as given the employer, together with the conditions or obligations imposed under paragraph (b) of Section 5 of the Workers' Compensation Act, are also given and granted to the State, to the end that, with respect to State employees only, the State may be paid or reimbursed for the amount of benefit paid or to be paid by the State to the injured employee or his or her personal representative out of any judgment, settlement, or payment for such injury obtained by such injured employee or his or her personal representative from such other person by virtue of the injury.

(Source: P.A. 96-1430, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 30. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 523)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases as used in this Act shall have the following meanings. The Department may define these and other words and phrases separately for the purpose of implementing specific programs providing benefits under this Act.

(a) "Administrative service organization" means any person, firm or corporation experienced in the handling of claims which is fully qualified, financially sound and capable of meeting the service requirements of a contract of administration executed with the Department.

(b) "Annuitant" means (1) an employee who retires, or has retired, on or after January 1, 1966 on an immediate annuity under the provisions of Articles 2, 14 (including an employee who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity), 15 (including an employee who has retired under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) any person who was receiving group insurance coverage under this Act as of March 31, 1978 by reason of his status as an annuitant, even though the annuity in relation to which such coverage was provided is a proportional annuity based on less than the minimum period of service required for a retirement annuity in the system involved; (3) any person not otherwise covered by this Act who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code; (4) the spouse of any person who is receiving a retirement annuity under Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code and who is covered under a group health insurance program sponsored by a governmental employer other than the State of Illinois and who has irrevocably elected to waive his or her coverage under this Act and to have his or her spouse considered as the "annuitant" under this Act and not as a "dependent"; or (5) an employee who retires, or has retired, from a qualified position, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director, under a qualified local government, a qualified rehabilitation facility, a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or a qualified child advocacy center. (For definition of "retired employee", see (p) post).

(b-5) (Blank).

(b-6) (Blank).

(b-7) (Blank).

(c) "Carrier" means (1) an insurance company, a corporation organized under the Limited Health Service Organization Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plan Act, a partnership, or other nongovernmental organization, which is authorized to do group life or group health insurance business in Illinois, or (2) the State of Illinois as a self-insurer.

(d) "Compensation" means salary or wages payable on a regular payroll by the State Treasurer on a warrant of the State Comptroller out of any State, trust or federal fund, or by the Governor of the State through a disbursing officer of the State out of a trust or out of federal funds, or by any Department out of State, trust, federal or other funds held by the State Treasurer or the Department, to any person for personal services currently performed, and ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, or benefits payable under the Workers' Compensation or Occupational Diseases Act or benefits payable under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Compensation" also means salary or wages paid to an employee of any qualified local government, qualified rehabilitation facility, qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or qualified child advocacy center.

(e) "Commission" means the State Employees Group Insurance Advisory Commission authorized by this Act. Commencing July 1, 1984, "Commission" as used in this Act means the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability as established by the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(f) "Contributory", when referred to as contributory coverage, shall mean optional coverages or benefits elected by the member toward the cost of which such member makes contribution, or which are funded in whole or in part through the acceptance of a reduction in earnings or the foregoing of an increase in earnings by an employee, as distinguished from noncontributory coverage or benefits which are paid entirely by the State of Illinois without reduction of the member's salary.

(g) "Department" means any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court or any agency of the State government receiving appropriations and having power to certify payrolls to the Comptroller authorizing payments of salary and wages against such appropriations as are made by the General Assembly from any State fund, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer and includes boards of trustees of the retirement systems created by Articles 2, 14, 15, 16 and 18 of the Illinois Pension Code. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, the Board of Examiners established under the Illinois Public Accounting Act, and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(h) "Dependent", when the term is used in the context of the health and life plan, means a member's spouse and any child (1) from birth to age 26 including an adopted child, a child who lives with the member from the time of the filing of a petition for adoption until entry of an order of adoption, a stepchild or adjudicated child, or a child who lives with the member if such member is a court appointed guardian of the child or (2) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability is mentally or physically disabled from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child dependent). For the health plan only, the term "dependent" also includes (1) any person enrolled prior to the effective date of this Section who is dependent upon the member to the extent that the member may claim such person as a dependent for income tax deduction purposes and (2) any person who has received after June 30, 2000 an organ transplant and who is financially dependent upon the member and eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes. A member requesting to cover any dependent must provide documentation as requested by the Department of Central Management Services and file with the Department any and all forms required by the Department.

(i) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Central Management Services.

(j) "Eligibility period" means the period of time a member has to elect enrollment in programs or to select benefits without regard to age, sex or health.

(k) "Employee" means and includes each officer or employee in the service of a department who (1) receives his compensation for service rendered to the department on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a department or on a warrant or check issued and drawn by a department upon a trust, federal or other fund or on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by an elected or duly appointed officer of the State or who receives payment of the performance of personal services on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a Department and drawn by the Comptroller upon the State Treasurer against appropriations made by the General Assembly from any fund or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, and (2) is employed full-time or part-time in a position normally requiring actual performance of duty during not less than 1/2 of a normal work period, as established by the Director in cooperation with each department, except that persons elected by popular vote will be considered employees during the entire term for which they are elected regardless of hours devoted to the service of the State, and (3) except that "employee" does not include any person who is not eligible by reason of such person's employment to participate in one of the State retirement systems under Articles 2, 14, 15 (either the regular Article 15 system or the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2) or 18, or under paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, of the Illinois Pension Code, but such term does include persons who are employed during the 6 month qualifying period under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Such term also includes any person who (1) after January 1, 1966, is receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, (2) receives total permanent or total temporary disability under the Workers' Compensation Act or Occupational Disease Act as a result of injuries sustained or illness contracted in the course of employment with the State of Illinois, or (3) is not otherwise covered under this Act and has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code. However, a person who satisfies the criteria of the foregoing definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code is also an "employee" for the purposes of this Act. "Employee" also includes any person receiving or eligible for benefits under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Employee" also includes (i) each officer or employee in the service of a qualified local government, including persons appointed as trustees of sanitary districts regardless of hours devoted to the service of the sanitary district, (ii) each employee in the service of a qualified rehabilitation facility, (iii) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, and (iv) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified child advocacy center, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director.

(l) "Member" means an employee, annuitant, retired employee or survivor. In the case of an annuitant or retired employee who first becomes an annuitant or retired employee on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the individual must meet the minimum vesting requirements of the applicable retirement system in order to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system. In the case of a survivor who first becomes a survivor on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the deceased employee, annuitant, or retired employee upon whom the annuity is based must have been eligible to participate in the group insurance system under the applicable retirement system in order for the survivor to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system.

(m) "Optional coverages or benefits" means those coverages or benefits available to the member on his or her voluntary election, and at his or her own expense.

(n) "Program" means the group life insurance, health benefits and other employee benefits designed and contracted for by the Director under this Act.

(o) "Health plan" means a health benefits program offered by the State of Illinois for persons eligible for the plan.

(p) "Retired employee" means any person who would be an annuitant as that term is defined herein but for the fact that such person retired prior to January 1, 1966. Such term also includes any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant but for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q) "Survivor" means a person receiving an annuity as a survivor of an employee or of an annuitant. "Survivor" also includes: (1) the surviving dependent of a person who satisfies the definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) the surviving dependent of any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant except for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (3) the surviving dependent of a person who was an annuitant under this Act by virtue of receiving an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-2) "SERS" means the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, created under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-3) "SURS" means the State Universities Retirement System, created under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-4) "TRS" means the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, created under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-5) (Blank).

(q-6) (Blank).

(q-7) (Blank).

(r) "Medical services" means the services provided within the scope of their licenses by practitioners in all categories licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(s) "Unit of local government" means any county, municipality, township, school district (including a combination of school districts under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act), special district or other unit, designated as a unit of local government by law, which exercises limited governmental powers or powers in respect to limited governmental subjects, any not-for-profit association with a membership that primarily includes townships and township officials, that has duties that include provision of research service, dissemination of information, and other acts for the purpose of improving township government, and that is funded wholly or partly in accordance with Section 85-15 of the Township Code; any not-for-profit corporation or association, with a membership consisting primarily of municipalities, that operates its own utility system, and provides research, training, dissemination of information, or other acts to promote cooperation between and among municipalities that provide utility services and for the advancement of the goals and purposes of its membership; the Southern Illinois Collegiate Common Market, which is a consortium of higher education institutions in Southern Illinois; the Illinois Association of Park Districts; and any hospital provider that is owned by a county that has 100 or fewer hospital beds and has not already joined the program. "Qualified local government" means a unit of local government approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (i) of Section 10 of this Act.

(t) "Qualified rehabilitation facility" means any not-for-profit organization that is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services to persons with disabilities and which receives funds from the State of Illinois for providing those services, approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (j) of Section 10 of this Act.

(u) "Qualified domestic violence shelter or service" means any Illinois domestic violence shelter or service and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (k) of Section 10.

(v) "TRS benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly benefit or retirement annuity under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(3) either (i) has at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (ii) was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on January 1, 1996, or (iii) is the survivor of a benefit recipient who had at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, or (iv) is a recipient or survivor of a recipient of a disability benefit under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(w) "TRS dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a TRS benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the TRS benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, (ii) was, on January 1, 1996, participating as a dependent beneficiary in the health insurance program offered under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (iii) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability is mentally or physically disabled from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"TRS dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (w), a dependent of the survivor of a TRS benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a TRS benefit recipient on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased TRS benefit recipient upon whom the survivor benefit is based.

(x) "Military leave" refers to individuals in basic training for reserves, special/advanced training, annual training, emergency call up, activation by the President of the United States, or any other training or duty in service to the United States Armed Forces.

(y) (Blank).

(z) "Community college benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code; and

(3) either (i) was a full-time employee of a community college district or an association of community college boards created under the Public Community College Act (other than an employee whose last employer under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code was a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) and was eligible to participate in a group health benefit plan as an employee during the time of employment with a community college district (other than a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) or an association of community college boards, or (ii) is the survivor of a person described in item (i).

(aa) "Community college dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a community college benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the community college benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, or (ii) age 19 or over and has a mental or physical disability mentally or physically disabled from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"Community college dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (aa), a dependent of the survivor of a community college benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a community college benefit recipient on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased community college benefit recipient upon whom the survivor annuity is based.

(bb) "Qualified child advocacy center" means any Illinois child advocacy center and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Children and Family Services, as defined by the Children's Advocacy Center Act (55 ILCS 80/), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (n) of Section 10.

(Source: P.A. 97-668, eff. 1-13-12; 97-695, eff. 7-1-12; 98-488, eff. 8-16-13.)

Section 35. The State Employment Records Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 410/5)

Sec. 5. Findings and purpose. The General Assembly hereby finds as follows:

(a) Efficient, responsive, and accountable disbursement of State services is best facilitated by a diversified State work force which reflects the diversity of the tax-paying constituency the State work force is employed to serve.

(b) The purpose of this Act is to require and develop within existing State administrative processes a comprehensive procedure to collect, classify, maintain, and publish, for State and public use, information that provides the General Assembly and the People of this State with adequate information of the number of minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons employed by State government within the State work force.

(c) To provide State officials, administrators and the People of the State with information to help guide efforts to achieve a more diversified State work force, the total number of persons employed within the State work force shall be tabulated in a comprehensive manner to provide meaningful review of the number and percentage of minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons employed as part of the State work force.

(Source: P.A. 87-1211.)

(5 ILCS 410/15)

Sec. 15. Reported information.

(a) State agencies shall, if necessary, consult with the Office of the Comptroller and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget to confirm the accuracy of information required by this Act. State agencies shall collect and maintain information and publish reports including but not limited to the following information arranged in the indicated categories:

(i) the total number of persons employed by the agency who are part of the State work force, as defined by this Act, and the number and statistical percentage of women, minorities, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons employed within the agency work force;

(ii) the total number of persons employed within the agency work force receiving levels of State remuneration within incremental levels of $10,000, and the number and statistical percentage of minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons in the agency work force receiving levels of State remuneration within incremented levels of $10,000;

(iii) the number of open positions of employment or advancement in the agency work force, reported on a fiscal year basis;

(iv) the number and percentage of open positions of employment or advancement in the agency work force filled by minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons, reported on a fiscal year basis;

(v) the total number of persons employed within the agency work force as professionals, and the number and percentage of minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons employed within the agency work force as professional employees; and

(vi) the total number of persons employed within the agency work force as contractual service employees, and the number and percentage of minorities, women, and persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons employed within the agency work force as contractual services employees.

(b) The numbers and percentages of minorities required to be reported by this Section shall be identified by the following categories:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

Data concerning women shall be reported on a minority and nonminority basis. The numbers and percentages of persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons required to be reported under this Section shall be identified by categories as male and female.

(c) To accomplish consistent and uniform classification and collection of information from each State agency, and to ensure full compliance and that all required information is provided, the Index Department of the Office of the Secretary of State, in consultation with the Department of Human Rights, the Department of Central Management Services, and the Office of the Comptroller, shall develop appropriate forms to be used by all State agencies subject to the reporting requirements of this Act.

All State agencies shall make the reports required by this Act using the forms developed under this subsection. The reports must be certified and signed by an official of the agency who is responsible for the information provided.

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 40. The Home for Disabled Soldiers Land Cession Act is amended Section 0.01 as follows:

(5 ILCS 510/0.01) (from Ch. 1, par. 3700)

Sec. 0.01. Short title. This Act may be cited as the National Home for Disabled Volunteer Soldiers Home for Disabled Soldiers Land Cession Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

Section 45. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 1-10, 4-6, 4-8.01, 4-8.01, 4-8.02, 5-5, 5-7.01, 5-7.02, 6-29, 6-35.01, 6-35.02, 6-50, 7-15, 11-4.1, 11-4.2, 11-4.3, 12-1, 17-13, 17-14, 17-17, 18-5.1, 19-5, 19-12.1, 19A-21, 19A-40, 24-9, and 24C-11 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 1-3)

Sec. 1-3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

1. "Election" includes the submission of all questions of public policy, propositions, and all measures submitted to popular vote, and includes primary elections when so indicated by the context.

2. "Regular election" means the general, general primary, consolidated and consolidated primary elections regularly scheduled in Article 2A. The even numbered year municipal primary established in Article 2A is a regular election only with respect to those municipalities in which a primary is required to be held on such date.

3. "Special election" means an election not regularly recurring at fixed intervals, irrespective of whether it is held at the same time and place and by the same election officers as a regular election.

4. "General election" means the biennial election at which members of the General Assembly are elected. "General primary election", "consolidated election" and "consolidated primary election" mean the respective elections or the election dates designated and established in Article 2A of this Code.

5. "Municipal election" means an election or primary, either regular or special, in cities, villages, and incorporated towns; and "municipality" means any such city, village or incorporated town.

6. "Political or governmental subdivision" means any unit of local government, or school district in which elections are or may be held. "Political or governmental subdivision" also includes, for election purposes, Regional Boards of School Trustees, and Township Boards of School Trustees.

7. The word "township" and the word "town" shall apply interchangeably to the type of governmental organization established in accordance with the provisions of the Township Code. The term "incorporated town" shall mean a municipality referred to as an incorporated town in the Illinois Municipal Code, as now or hereafter amended.

8. "Election authority" means a county clerk or a Board of Election Commissioners.

9. "Election Jurisdiction" means (a) an entire county, in the case of a county in which no city board of election commissioners is located or which is under the jurisdiction of a county board of election commissioners; (b) the territorial jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners; and (c) the territory in a county outside of the jurisdiction of a city board of election commissioners. In each instance election jurisdiction shall be determined according to which election authority maintains the permanent registration records of qualified electors.

10. "Local election official" means the clerk or secretary of a unit of local government or school district, as the case may be, the treasurer of a township board of school trustees, and the regional superintendent of schools with respect to the various school officer elections and school referenda for which the regional superintendent is assigned election duties by The School Code, as now or hereafter amended.

11. "Judges of election", "primary judges" and similar terms, as applied to cases where there are 2 sets of judges, when used in connection with duties at an election during the hours the polls are open, refer to the team of judges of election on duty during such hours; and, when used with reference to duties after the closing of the polls, refer to the team of tally judges designated to count the vote after the closing of the polls and the holdover judges designated pursuant to Section 13-6.2 or 14-5.2. In such case, where, after the closing of the polls, any act is required to be performed by each of the judges of election, it shall be performed by each of the tally judges and by each of the holdover judges.

12. "Petition" of candidacy as used in Sections 7-10 and 7-10.1 shall consist of a statement of candidacy, candidate's statement containing oath, and sheets containing signatures of qualified primary electors bound together.

13. "Election district" and "precinct", when used with reference to a 30-day residence requirement, means the smallest constituent territory in which electors vote as a unit at the same polling place in any election governed by this Act.

14. "District" means any area which votes as a unit for the election of any officer, other than the State or a unit of local government or school district, and includes, but is not limited to, legislative, congressional and judicial districts, judicial circuits, county board districts, municipal and sanitary district wards, school board districts, and precincts.

15. "Question of public policy" or "public question" means any question, proposition or measure submitted to the voters at an election dealing with subject matter other than the nomination or election of candidates and shall include, but is not limited to, any bond or tax referendum, and questions relating to the Constitution.

16. "Ordinance providing the form of government of a municipality or county pursuant to Article VII of the Constitution" includes ordinances, resolutions and petitions adopted by referendum which provide for the form of government, the officers or the manner of selection or terms of office of officers of such municipality or county, pursuant to the provisions of Sections 4, 6 or 7 of Article VII of the Constitution.

17. "List" as used in Sections 4-11, 4-22, 5-14, 5-29, 6-60, and 6-66 shall include a computer tape or computer disc or other electronic data processing information containing voter information.

18. "Accessible" means accessible to persons with disabilities handicapped and elderly individuals for the purpose of voting or registration, as determined by rule of the State Board of Elections.

19. "Elderly" means 65 years of age or older.

20. "Person with a disability Handicapped" means a person having a temporary or permanent physical disability.

21. "Leading political party" means one of the two political parties whose candidates for governor at the most recent three gubernatorial elections received either the highest or second highest average number of votes. The political party whose candidates for governor received the highest average number of votes shall be known as the first leading political party and the political party whose candidates for governor received the second highest average number of votes shall be known as the second leading political party.

22. "Business day" means any day in which the office of an election authority, local election official or the State Board of Elections is open to the public for a minimum of 7 hours.

23. "Homeless individual" means any person who has a nontraditional residence, including, but not limited to, a shelter, day shelter, park bench, street corner, or space under a bridge.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(10 ILCS 5/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Public comment. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the State Board of Elections in evaluating the feasibility of any new voting system shall seek and accept public comment from persons with disabilities of the disabled community, including but not limited to organizations of the blind.

(Source: P.A. 93-574, eff. 8-21-03.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-6) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6)

Sec. 4-6. For the purpose of registering voters under this Article in addition to the method provided for precinct registration under Section 4-7, the office of the county clerk shall be open every day, except Saturday, Sunday, and legal holidays, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. On Saturdays the hours of registration shall be from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 noon, and such additional hours as the county clerk may designate. If, however, the county board otherwise duly regulates and fixes the hours of opening and closing of all county offices at the county seat of any county, such regulation shall control and supersede the hours herein specified. There shall be no registration at the office of the county clerk or at the office of municipal and township or road district clerks serving as deputy registrars during the 27 days preceding any regular or special election at which the cards provided in this Article are used, or until the 2nd day following such regular or special election; provided, that if by reason of the proximity of any such elections to one another the effect of this provision would be to close registrations for all or any part of the 10 days immediately prior to such 27 day period, the county clerk shall accept, solely for use in the subsequent and not in any intervening election, registrations and transfers of registration within the period from the 27th to the 38th days, both inclusive, prior to such subsequent election. In any election called for the submission of the revision or alteration of, or the amendments to the Constitution, submitted by a Constitutional Convention, the final day for registration at the office of the election authority charged with the printing of the ballot of this election shall be the 15th day prior to the date of election.

Any qualified person residing within the county or any portion thereof subject to this Article may register or re-register with the county clerk.

Each county clerk shall appoint one or more registration or re-registration teams for the purpose of accepting the registration or re-registration of any voter who files an affidavit that he is physically unable to appear at any appointed place of registration or re-registration. Each team shall consist of one member of each political party having the highest and second highest number of registered voters in the county. The county clerk shall designate a team to visit each person with a disability disabled person and shall accept the registration or re-registration of each such person as if he had applied for registration or re-registration at the office of the county clerk.

As used in this Article, "deputy registrars" and "registration officers" mean any person authorized to accept registrations of electors under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 92-816, eff. 8-21-02.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-8.01) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-8.01)

Sec. 4-8.01. If an applicant for registration reports a permanent physical disability which would require assistance in voting, the county clerk shall mark all his registration cards in the right margin on the front of the card with a band of ink running the full margin which shall be of contrast to, and easily distinguishable from, the color of the card. If an applicant for registration declares upon properly witnessed oath, with his signature or mark affixed, that he cannot read the English language and that he will require assistance in voting, all his registration cards shall be marked in a manner similar to the marking on the cards of a voter who requires assistance because of physical disability, except that the marking shall be of a different distinguishing color. Following each election the cards of any voter who has requested assistance as a voter with a disability disabled voter, and has stated that the disability is permanent, or who has received assistance because of inability to read the English language, shall be marked in the same manner.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3525.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-8.02) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-8.02)

Sec. 4-8.02. Upon the issuance of a disabled voter's identification card for persons with disabilities as provided in Section 19-12.1, the county clerk shall cause the identification number of such card to be clearly noted on all the registration cards of such voter.

(Source: P.A. 78-320.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. For the purpose of registering voters under this Article 5, in addition to the method provided for precinct registration under Sections 5-6 and 5-17 of this Article 5, the office of the county clerk shall be open between 9:00 a. m. and 5:00 p. m. on all days except Saturday, Sunday and holidays, but there shall be no registration at such office during the 35 days immediately preceding any election required to be held under the law but if no precinct registration is being conducted prior to any election then registration may be taken in the office of the county clerk up to and including the 28th day prior to an election. On Saturdays, the hours of registration shall be from 9:00 a. m. to 12:00 p. m. noon. During such 35 or 27 day period, registration of electors of political subdivisions wherein a regular, or special election is required to be held shall cease and shall not be resumed for the registration of electors of such political subdivisions until the second day following the day of such election. In any election called for the submission of the revision or alteration of, or the amendments to the Constitution, submitted by a Constitutional Convention, the final day for registration at the office of the election authority charged with the printing of the ballot of this election shall be the 15th day prior to the date of the election.

Each county clerk shall appoint one deputy for the purpose of accepting the registration of any voter who files an affidavit that he is physically unable to appear at any appointed place of registration. The county clerk shall designate a deputy to visit each person with a disability disabled person and shall accept the registration of each such person as if he had applied for registration at the office of the county clerk.

The offices of city, village, incorporated town and town clerks shall also be open for the purpose of registering voters residing in the territory in which this Article is in effect, and also, in the case of city, village and incorporated town clerks, for the purpose of registering voters residing in a portion of the city, village or incorporated town not located within the county, on all days on which the office of the county clerk is open for the registration of voters of such cities, villages, incorporated towns and townships.

(Source: P.A. 92-816, eff. 8-21-02.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-7.01) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-7.01)

Sec. 5-7.01. If an applicant for registration reports a permanent physical disability which would require assistance in voting, the county clerk shall mark all his registration cards in the right margin on the front of the card with a band of ink running the full margin which shall be of contrast to, and easily distinguishable from, the color of the card. If an applicant for registration declares upon properly witnessed oath, with his signature or mark affixed, that he cannot read the English language and that he will require assistance in voting, all his registration cards shall be marked in a manner similar to the marking on the cards of a voter who requires assistance because of physical disability, except that the marking shall be of a different distinguishing color. Following each election the cards of any voter who has requested assistance as a voter with a disability disabled voter, and has stated that the disability is permanent, or who has received assistance because of inability to read the English language, shall be marked in the same manner.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3524.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-7.02) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-7.02)

Sec. 5-7.02. Upon the issuance of a disabled voter's identification card for persons with disabilities as provided in Section 19-12.1, the county clerk shall cause the identification number of such card to be clearly noted on all the registration cards of such voter.

(Source: P.A. 78-320.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-29) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-29)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 6-29. For the purpose of registering voters under this Article, the office of the Board of Election Commissioners shall be open during ordinary business hours of each week day, from 9 a.m. to 12 o'clock noon on the last four Saturdays immediately preceding the end of the period of registration preceding each election, and such other days and such other times as the board may direct. During the 27 days immediately preceding any election there shall be no registration of voters at the office of the Board of Election Commissioners in cities, villages and incorporated towns of fewer than 200,000 inhabitants. In cities, villages and incorporated towns of 200,000 or more inhabitants, there shall be no registration of voters at the office of the Board of Election Commissioners during the 35 days immediately preceding any election; provided, however, where no precinct registration is being conducted prior to any election then registration may be taken in the office of the Board up to and including the 28th day prior to such election. The Board of Election Commissioners may set up and establish as many branch offices for the purpose of taking registrations as it may deem necessary, and the branch offices may be open on any or all dates and hours during which registrations may be taken in the main office. All officers and employees of the Board of Election Commissioners who are authorized by such board to take registrations under this Article shall be considered officers of the circuit court, and shall be subject to the same control as is provided by Section 14-5 of this Act with respect to judges of election.

In any election called for the submission of the revision or alteration of, or the amendments to the Constitution, submitted by a Constitutional Convention, the final day for registration at the office of the election authority charged with the printing of the ballot of this election shall be the 15th day prior to the date of election.

The Board of Election Commissioners shall appoint one or more registration teams, consisting of 2 of its employees for each team, for the purpose of accepting the registration of any voter who files an affidavit, within the period for taking registrations provided for in this Article, that he is physically unable to appear at the office of the Board or at any appointed place of registration. On the day or days when a precinct registration is being conducted such teams shall consist of one member from each of the 2 leading political parties who are serving on the Precinct Registration Board. Each team so designated shall visit each person with a disability disabled person and shall accept the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence due to business of the United States, or who is temporarily residing outside the territorial limits of the United States, may make application to become registered by mail to the Board of Election Commissioners within the periods for registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the Board of Election Commissioners shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The state or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........) ) ss. County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois, and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the Board of Election Commissioners shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 6-35 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 10-1-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 6-29. For the purpose of registering voters under this Article, the office of the Board of Election Commissioners shall be open during ordinary business hours of each week day, from 9 a.m. to 12 o'clock noon on the last four Saturdays immediately preceding the end of the period of registration preceding each election, and such other days and such other times as the board may direct. During the 27 days immediately preceding any election there shall be no registration of voters at the office of the Board of Election Commissioners in cities, villages and incorporated towns of fewer than 200,000 inhabitants. In cities, villages and incorporated towns of 200,000 or more inhabitants, there shall be no registration of voters at the office of the Board of Election Commissioners during the 35 days immediately preceding any election; provided, however, where no precinct registration is being conducted prior to any election then registration may be taken in the office of the Board up to and including the 28th day prior to such election. The Board of Election Commissioners may set up and establish as many branch offices for the purpose of taking registrations as it may deem necessary, and the branch offices may be open on any or all dates and hours during which registrations may be taken in the main office. All officers and employees of the Board of Election Commissioners who are authorized by such board to take registrations under this Article shall be considered officers of the circuit court, and shall be subject to the same control as is provided by Section 14-5 of this Act with respect to judges of election.

In any election called for the submission of the revision or alteration of, or the amendments to the Constitution, submitted by a Constitutional Convention, the final day for registration at the office of the election authority charged with the printing of the ballot of this election shall be the 15th day prior to the date of election.

The Board of Election Commissioners shall appoint one or more registration teams, consisting of 2 of its employees for each team, for the purpose of accepting the registration of any voter who files an affidavit, within the period for taking registrations provided for in this Article, that he is physically unable to appear at the office of the Board or at any appointed place of registration. On the day or days when a precinct registration is being conducted such teams shall consist of one member from each of the 2 leading political parties who are serving on the Precinct Registration Board. Each team so designated shall visit each person with a disability disabled person and shall accept the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence due to business of the United States, or who is temporarily residing outside the territorial limits of the United States, may make application to become registered by mail to the Board of Election Commissioners within the periods for registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for registration by mail and vote by mail ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the Board of Election Commissioners shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The state or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........) ) ss. County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois, and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the Board of Election Commissioners shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 6-35 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-35.01) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-35.01)

Sec. 6-35.01. If an applicant for registration reports a permanent physical disability which would require assistance in voting, the board of election commissioners shall mark all his registration cards in the right margin on the front of the card with a band of ink running the full margin which shall be of contrast to, and easily distinguishable from, the color of the card. If an applicant for registration declares upon properly witnessed oath, with his signature or mark affixed, that he cannot read the English language and that he will require assistance in voting, all his registration cards shall be marked in a manner similar to the marking on the cards of a voter who requires assistance because of physical disability, except that the marking shall be of a different distinguishing color. Following each election the cards of any voter who has requested assistance as a voter with a disability disabled voter, and has stated that the disability is permanent, or who has received assistance because of inability to read the English language, shall be marked in the same manner.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3524.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-35.02) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-35.02)

Sec. 6-35.02. Upon the issuance of a disabled voter's identification card for persons with disabilities as provided in Section 19-12.1, the board of election commissioners shall cause the identification number of such card to be clearly noted on all the registration cards of such voter.

(Source: P.A. 78-320.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-50) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50)

Sec. 6-50. The office of the board of election commissioners shall be open during ordinary business hours of each week day, from 9 a.m. to 12 o'clock noon on the last four Saturdays immediately preceding the end of the period of registration preceding each election, and such other days and such other times as the board may direct. There shall be no registration at the office of the board of election commissioners in cities, villages and incorporated towns of fewer than 200,000 inhabitants during the 27 days preceding any primary, regular or special election at which the cards provided for in this article are used, or until the second day following such primary, regular or special election. In cities, villages and incorporated towns of 200,000 or more inhabitants, there shall be no registration of voters at the office of the board of election commissioners during the 35 days immediately preceding any election; provided, however, where no precinct registration is being conducted prior to any election then registration may be taken in the office of the board up to and including the 28th day prior to such election. In any election called for the submission of the revision or alteration of, or the amendments to the Constitution, submitted by a Constitutional Convention, the final day for registration at the office of the election authority charged with the printing of the ballot of this election shall be the 15th day prior to the date of election.

The Board of Election Commissioners shall appoint one or more registration teams, each consisting of one member from each of the 2 leading political parties, for the purpose of accepting the registration of any voter who files an affidavit, within the period for taking registrations provided for in this Article, that he is physically unable to appear at the office of the Board or at any appointed place of registration. On the day or days when a precinct registration is being conducted such teams shall consist of one member from each of the 2 leading political parties who are serving on the precinct registration board. Each team so designated shall visit each person with a disability disabled person and shall accept the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

The office of the board of election commissioners may be designated as a place of registration under Section 6-51 of this Article and, if so designated, may also be open for purposes of registration on such day or days as may be specified by the board of election commissioners under the provisions of that Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-816, eff. 8-21-02.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-15) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-15)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 7-15. At least 60 days prior to each general and consolidated primary, the election authority shall provide public notice, calculated to reach elderly voters and voters with disabilities and handicapped voters, of the availability of registration and voting aids under the Federal Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and Handicapped Act, of the availability of assistance in marking the ballot, procedures for voting by absentee ballot, and procedures for early voting by personal appearance. At least 20 days before the general primary the county clerk of each county, and not more than 30 nor less than 10 days before the consolidated primary the election authority, shall prepare in the manner provided in this Act, a notice of such primary which notice shall state the time and place of holding the primary, the hours during which the polls will be open, the offices for which candidates will be nominated at such primary and the political parties entitled to participate therein, notwithstanding that no candidate of any such political party may be entitled to have his name printed on the primary ballot. Such notice shall also include the list of addresses of precinct polling places for the consolidated primary unless such list is separately published by the election authority not less than 10 days before the consolidated primary.

In counties, municipalities, or towns having fewer than 500,000 inhabitants notice of the general primary shall be published once in two or more newspapers published in the county, municipality or town, as the case may be, or if there is no such newspaper, then in any two or more newspapers published in the county and having a general circulation throughout the community.

In counties, municipalities, or towns having 500,000 or more inhabitants notice of the general primary shall be published at least 15 days prior to the primary by the same authorities and in the same manner as notice of election for general elections are required to be published in counties, municipalities or towns of 500,000 or more inhabitants under this Act.

Notice of the consolidated primary shall be published once in one or more newspapers published in each political subdivision having such primary, and if there is no such newspaper, then published once in a local, community newspaper having general circulation in the subdivision, and also once in a newspaper published in the county wherein the political subdivisions, or portions thereof, having such primary are situated.

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 7-15. At least 60 days prior to each general and consolidated primary, the election authority shall provide public notice, calculated to reach elderly voters and voters with disabilities and handicapped voters, of the availability of registration and voting aids under the Federal Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and Handicapped Act, of the availability of assistance in marking the ballot, procedures for voting by a vote by mail ballot, and procedures for early voting by personal appearance. At least 20 days before the general primary the county clerk of each county, and not more than 30 nor less than 10 days before the consolidated primary the election authority, shall prepare in the manner provided in this Act, a notice of such primary which notice shall state the time and place of holding the primary, the hours during which the polls will be open, the offices for which candidates will be nominated at such primary and the political parties entitled to participate therein, notwithstanding that no candidate of any such political party may be entitled to have his name printed on the primary ballot. Such notice shall also include the list of addresses of precinct polling places for the consolidated primary unless such list is separately published by the election authority not less than 10 days before the consolidated primary.

In counties, municipalities, or towns having fewer than 500,000 inhabitants notice of the general primary shall be published once in two or more newspapers published in the county, municipality or town, as the case may be, or if there is no such newspaper, then in any two or more newspapers published in the county and having a general circulation throughout the community.

In counties, municipalities, or towns having 500,000 or more inhabitants notice of the general primary shall be published at least 15 days prior to the primary by the same authorities and in the same manner as notice of election for general elections are required to be published in counties, municipalities or towns of 500,000 or more inhabitants under this Act.

Notice of the consolidated primary shall be published once in one or more newspapers published in each political subdivision having such primary, and if there is no such newspaper, then published once in a local, community newspaper having general circulation in the subdivision, and also once in a newspaper published in the county wherein the political subdivisions, or portions thereof, having such primary are situated.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-4.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-4.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 11-4.1. (a) In appointing polling places under this Article, the county board or board of election commissioners shall, insofar as they are convenient and available, use schools and other public buildings as polling places.

(b) Upon request of the county board or board of election commissioners, the proper agency of government (including school districts and units of local government) shall make a public building under its control available for use as a polling place on an election day and for a reasonably necessary time before and after election day, without charge. If the county board or board of election commissioners chooses a school to be a polling place, then the school district must make the school available for use as a polling place. However, for the day of the election, a school district is encouraged to (i) close the school or (ii) hold a teachers institute on that day with students not in attendance.

(c) A government agency which makes a public building under its control available for use as a polling place shall (i) ensure the portion of the building to be used as the polling place is accessible to voters with disabilities handicapped and elderly voters and (ii) allow the election authority to administer the election as authorized under this Code.

(d) If a qualified elector's precinct polling place is a school and the elector will be unable to enter that polling place without violating Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 because the elector is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, that elector may vote by absentee ballot in accordance with Article 19 of this Code or may vote early in accordance with Article 19A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-773, eff. 7-18-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 11-4.1. (a) In appointing polling places under this Article, the county board or board of election commissioners shall, insofar as they are convenient and available, use schools and other public buildings as polling places.

(b) Upon request of the county board or board of election commissioners, the proper agency of government (including school districts and units of local government) shall make a public building under its control available for use as a polling place on an election day and for a reasonably necessary time before and after election day, without charge. If the county board or board of election commissioners chooses a school to be a polling place, then the school district must make the school available for use as a polling place. However, for the day of the election, a school district is encouraged to (i) close the school or (ii) hold a teachers institute on that day with students not in attendance.

(c) A government agency which makes a public building under its control available for use as a polling place shall (i) ensure the portion of the building to be used as the polling place is accessible to voters with disabilities handicapped and elderly voters and (ii) allow the election authority to administer the election as authorized under this Code.

(d) If a qualified elector's precinct polling place is a school and the elector will be unable to enter that polling place without violating Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 because the elector is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, that elector may vote by a vote by mail ballot in accordance with Article 19 of this Code or may vote early in accordance with Article 19A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-773, eff. 7-18-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-4.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-4.2)

Sec. 11-4.2. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) all polling places shall be accessible to voters with disabilities handicapped and elderly voters, as determined by rule of the State Board of Elections.

(b) Subsection (a) of this Section shall not apply to a polling place (1) in the case of an emergency, as determined by the State Board of Elections; or (2) if the State Board of Elections (A) determines that all potential polling places have been surveyed and no such accessible place is available, nor is the election authority able to make one accessible; and (B) assures that any voter with a disability handicapped or elderly voter assigned to an inaccessible polling place, upon advance request of such voter (pursuant to procedures established by rule of the State Board of Elections) will be provided with an alternative means for casting a ballot on the day of the election or will be assigned to an accessible polling place.

(c) No later than December 31 of each even numbered year, the State Board of Elections shall report to the Federal Election Commission the number of accessible and inaccessible polling places in the State on the date of the next preceding general election, and the reasons for any instance of inaccessibility.

(Source: P.A. 84-808.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-4.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-4.3)

Sec. 11-4.3. All polling places and permanent registration facilities shall have available registration and voting aids for persons with disabilities handicapped and elderly individuals including instructions, printed in large type, conspicuously displayed.

(Source: P.A. 84-808.)

(10 ILCS 5/12-1) (from Ch. 46, par. 12-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 12-1. At least 60 days prior to each general and consolidated election, the election authority shall provide public notice, calculated to reach elderly voters and voters with disabilities and handicapped voters, of the availability of registration and voting aids under the Federal Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and Handicapped Act, of the availability of assistance in marking the ballot, procedures for voting by absentee ballot, and procedures for voting early by personal appearance.

At least 30 days before any general election, and at least 20 days before any special congressional election, the county clerk shall publish a notice of the election in 2 or more newspapers published in the county, city, village, incorporated town or town, as the case may be, or if there is no such newspaper, then in any 2 or more newspapers published in the county and having a general circulation throughout the community. The notice may be substantially as follows:

Notice is hereby given that on (give date), at (give the place of holding the election and the name of the precinct or district) in the county of (name county), an election will be held for (give the title of the several offices to be filled), which election will be open at 6:00 a.m. and continued open until 7:00 p.m. of that day.

Dated at .... on (insert date).

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 12-1. At least 60 days prior to each general and consolidated election, the election authority shall provide public notice, calculated to reach elderly voters and voters with disabilities and handicapped voters, of the availability of registration and voting aids under the Federal Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and Handicapped Act, of the availability of assistance in marking the ballot, procedures for voting by vote by mail ballot, and procedures for voting early by personal appearance.

At least 30 days before any general election, and at least 20 days before any special congressional election, the county clerk shall publish a notice of the election in 2 or more newspapers published in the county, city, village, incorporated town or town, as the case may be, or if there is no such newspaper, then in any 2 or more newspapers published in the county and having a general circulation throughout the community. The notice may be substantially as follows:

Notice is hereby given that on (give date), at (give the place of holding the election and the name of the precinct or district) in the county of (name county), an election will be held for (give the title of the several offices to be filled), which election will be open at 6:00 a.m. and continued open until 7:00 p.m. of that day.

Dated at .... on (insert date).

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-13)

Sec. 17-13. (a) In the case of an emergency, as determined by the State Board of Elections, or if the Board determines that all potential polling places have been surveyed by the election authority and that no accessible polling place, as defined by rule of the State Board of Elections, is available within a precinct nor is the election authority able to make a polling place within the precinct temporarily accessible, the Board, upon written application by the election authority, is authorized to grant an exemption from the accessibility requirements of the Federal Voting Accessibility for the Elderly and Handicapped Act (Public Law 98-435). Such exemption shall be valid for a period of 2 years.

(b) Any voter with a temporary or permanent disability temporarily or permanently physically disabled voter who, because of structural features of the building in which the polling place is located, is unable to access or enter the polling place, may request that 2 judges of election of opposite party affiliation deliver a ballot to him or her at the point where he or she is unable to continue forward motion toward the polling place; but, in no case, shall a ballot be delivered to the voter beyond 50 feet of the entrance to the building in which the polling place is located. Such request shall be made to the election authority not later than the close of business at the election authority's office on the day before the election and on a form prescribed by the State Board of Elections. The election authority shall notify the judges of election for the appropriate precinct polling places of such requests.

Weather permitting, 2 judges of election shall deliver to the voter with a disability disabled voter the ballot which he or she is entitled to vote, a portable voting booth or other enclosure that will allow such voter to mark his or her ballot in secrecy, and a marking device.

(c) The voter must complete the entire voting process, including the application for ballot from which the judges of election shall compare the voter's signature with the signature on his or her registration record card in the precinct binder.

After the voter has marked his or her ballot and placed it in the ballot envelope (or folded it in the manner prescribed for paper ballots), the 2 judges of election shall return the ballot to the polling place and give it to the judge in charge of the ballot box who shall deposit it therein.

Pollwatchers as provided in Sections 7-34 and 17-23 of this Code shall be permitted to accompany the judges and observe the above procedure.

No assistance may be given to such voter in marking his or her ballot, unless the voter requests assistance and completes the affidavit required by Section 17-14 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 84-808.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-14) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-14)

Sec. 17-14. Any voter who declares upon oath, properly witnessed and with his or her signature or mark affixed, that he or she requires assistance to vote by reason of blindness, physical disability or inability to read, write or speak the English language shall, upon request, be assisted in marking his or her ballot, by 2 judges of election of different political parties, to be selected by all judges of election of each precinct at the opening of the polls or by a person of the voter's choice, other than the voter's employer or agent of that employer or officer or agent of the voter's union. A voter who presents an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, issued to that person under the provisions of the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that such voter has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability under the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, or a voter who declares upon oath, properly witnessed, that by reason of any physical disability he is unable to mark his ballot shall, upon request, be assisted in marking his ballot by 2 of the election officers of different parties as provided above in this Section or by a person of the voter's choice other than the voter's employer or agent of that employer or officer or agent of the voter's union. Such voter shall state specifically the reason why he cannot vote without assistance and, in the case of a voter with a physical disability physically disabled voter, what his physical disability is. Prior to entering the voting booth, the person providing the assistance, if other than 2 judges of election, shall be presented with written instructions on how assistance shall be provided. This instruction shall be prescribed by the State Board of Elections and shall include the penalties for attempting to influence the voter's choice of candidates, party, or votes in relation to any question on the ballot and for not marking the ballot as directed by the voter. Additionally, the person providing the assistance shall sign an oath, swearing not to influence the voter's choice of candidates, party, or votes in relation to any question on the ballot and to cast the ballot as directed by the voter. The oath shall be prescribed by the State Board of Elections and shall include the penalty for violating this Section. In the voting booth, such person shall mark the ballot as directed by the voter, and shall thereafter give no information regarding the same. The judges of election shall enter upon the poll lists or official poll record after the name of any elector who received such assistance in marking his ballot a memorandum of the fact and if the disability is permanent. Intoxication shall not be regarded as a physical disability, and no intoxicated person shall be entitled to assistance in marking his ballot.

No person shall secure or attempt to secure assistance in voting who is not blind, a person with a physical disability, physically disabled or illiterate as herein provided, nor shall any person knowingly assist a voter in voting contrary to the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-17) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-17)

Sec. 17-17. After the opening of the polls no adjournment shall be had nor shall any recess be taken, until all the votes cast at such election have been counted and the result publicly announced, except that when necessary one judge at a time may leave the polling place for a reasonable time during the casting of ballots, and except that when a polling place is inaccessible to a voter with a disability disabled voter, one team of 2 judges of opposite party affiliation may leave the polling place to deliver a ballot to such voter, as provided in Sections 7-47.1 and 17-13 of this Code. When a judge leaves and returns, such judge shall sign a time sheet indicating the length of the period such judge is absent from his duties. When absent, the judge shall authorize someone of the same political party as himself to act for him until he returns.

Where voting machines or electronic voting systems are used, the provisions of this section may be modified as required or authorized by Article 24 or Article 24A, whichever is applicable.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(10 ILCS 5/18-5.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 18-5.1)

Sec. 18-5.1. The provisions of Section 17-13, insofar as they may be made applicable to voters with disabilities disabled voters in elections under the jurisdiction of boards of election commissioners, shall be applicable herein.

(Source: P.A. 84-808.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-5. It shall be the duty of the election authority to fold the ballot or ballots in the manner specified by the statute for folding ballots prior to their deposit in the ballot box, and to enclose such ballot or ballots in an envelope unsealed to be furnished by him, which envelope shall bear upon the face thereof the name, official title and post office address of the election authority, and upon the other side a printed certification in substantially the following form:

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in such city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois, that I have lived at such address for .... months last past; and that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the .... election to be held on .....

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

I further state that I personally marked the enclosed ballot in secret.

Under penalties of perjury as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

.......................

If the ballot is to go to an elector who is physically incapacitated and needs assistance marking the ballot, the envelope shall bear upon the back thereof a certification in substantially the following form:

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in such city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois, that I have lived at such address for .... months last past; that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the .... election to be held on ....; that I am physically incapable of personally marking the ballot for such election.

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

I further state that I marked the enclosed ballot in secret with the assistance of

.................................

(Individual rendering assistance)

.................................

(Residence Address)

Under penalties of perjury as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

.......................

In the case of a voter with a physical incapacity, marking a ballot in secret includes marking a ballot with the assistance of another individual, other than a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless the voter is the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), the voter's employer, an agent of that employer, or an officer or agent of the voter's union, when the voter's physical incapacity necessitates such assistance.

In the case of a physically incapacitated voter, marking a ballot in secret includes marking a ballot with the assistance of another individual, other than a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless the voter is the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), the voter's employer, an agent of that employer, or an officer or agent of the voter's union, when the voter's physical incapacity necessitates such assistance.

Provided, that if the ballot enclosed is to be voted at a primary election, the certification shall designate the name of the political party with which the voter is affiliated.

In addition to the above, the election authority shall provide printed slips giving full instructions regarding the manner of marking and returning the ballot in order that the same may be counted, and shall furnish one of such printed slips to each of such applicants at the same time the ballot is delivered to him. Such instructions shall include the following statement: "In signing the certification on the absentee ballot envelope, you are attesting that you personally marked this absentee ballot in secret. If you are physically unable to mark the ballot, a friend or relative may assist you after completing the enclosed affidavit. Federal and State laws prohibit a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless you are the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), your employer, your employer's agent or an officer or agent of your union from assisting voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters."

In addition to the above, if a ballot to be provided to an elector pursuant to this Section contains a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6 and the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted is not described on the ballot due to the space limitations of such ballot, the election authority shall provide a printed copy of a notice of the public question, which shall include a description of the territory in the manner required by Section 16-7. The notice shall be furnished to the elector at the same time the ballot is delivered to the elector.

(Source: P.A. 95-440, eff. 8-27-07; 96-553, eff. 8-17-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-5. It shall be the duty of the election authority to fold the ballot or ballots in the manner specified by the statute for folding ballots prior to their deposit in the ballot box, and to enclose such ballot or ballots in an envelope unsealed to be furnished by him, which envelope shall bear upon the face thereof the name, official title and post office address of the election authority, and upon the other side a printed certification in substantially the following form:

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in such city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois, that I have lived at such address for .... months last past; and that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the .... election to be held on .....

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

I further state that I personally marked the enclosed ballot in secret.

Under penalties of perjury as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

.......................

If the ballot is to go to an elector who is physically incapacitated and needs assistance marking the ballot, the envelope shall bear upon the back thereof a certification in substantially the following form:

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in such city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois, that I have lived at such address for .... months last past; that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the .... election to be held on ....; that I am physically incapable of personally marking the ballot for such election.

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

I further state that I marked the enclosed ballot in secret with the assistance of

.................................

(Individual rendering assistance)

.................................

(Residence Address)

Under penalties of perjury as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

.......................

In the case of a voter with a physical incapacity, marking a ballot in secret includes marking a ballot with the assistance of another individual, other than a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless the voter is the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), the voter's employer, an agent of that employer, or an officer or agent of the voter's union, when the voter's physical incapacity necessitates such assistance.

In the case of a physically incapacitated voter, marking a ballot in secret includes marking a ballot with the assistance of another individual, other than a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless the voter is the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), the voter's employer, an agent of that employer, or an officer or agent of the voter's union, when the voter's physical incapacity necessitates such assistance.

Provided, that if the ballot enclosed is to be voted at a primary election, the certification shall designate the name of the political party with which the voter is affiliated.

In addition to the above, the election authority shall provide printed slips giving full instructions regarding the manner of marking and returning the ballot in order that the same may be counted, and shall furnish one of such printed slips to each of such applicants at the same time the ballot is delivered to him. Such instructions shall include the following statement: "In signing the certification on the vote by mail ballot envelope, you are attesting that you personally marked this vote by mail ballot in secret. If you are physically unable to mark the ballot, a friend or relative may assist you after completing the enclosed affidavit. Federal and State laws prohibit a candidate whose name appears on the ballot (unless you are the spouse or a parent, child, brother, or sister of the candidate), your employer, your employer's agent or an officer or agent of your union from assisting voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters."

In addition to the above, if a ballot to be provided to an elector pursuant to this Section contains a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6 and the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted is not described on the ballot due to the space limitations of such ballot, the election authority shall provide a printed copy of a notice of the public question, which shall include a description of the territory in the manner required by Section 16-7. The notice shall be furnished to the elector at the same time the ballot is delivered to the elector.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other absentee ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19A-21)

Sec. 19A-21. Use of local public buildings for early voting polling places. Upon request by an election authority, a unit of local government (as defined in Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, which does not include school districts) shall make the unit's public buildings within the election authority's jurisdiction available as permanent or temporary early voting polling places without charge. Availability of a building shall include reasonably necessary time before and after the period early voting is conducted at that building.

A unit of local government making its public building available as a permanent or temporary early voting polling place shall ensure that any portion of the building made available is accessible to voters with disabilities handicapped and elderly voters.

(Source: P.A. 94-1000, eff. 7-3-06.)

(10 ILCS 5/19A-40)

Sec. 19A-40. Enclosure of ballots in envelope. It is the duty of the election judge or official to fold the ballot or ballots in the manner specified by the statute for folding ballots prior to their deposit in the ballot box, and to enclose the ballot or ballots in an envelope unsealed to be furnished by him or her, which envelope shall bear upon the face thereof the name, official title, and post office address of the election authority, and upon the other side a printed certification in substantially the following form:

I state that I am a resident of the .... precinct of the (1) *township of .... (2) *City of .... or (3) *.... ward in the city of .... residing at .... in that city or town in the county of .... and State of Illinois, that I have lived at that address for .... months last past; that I am lawfully entitled to vote in that precinct at the .... election to be held on .... .

*fill in either (1), (2) or (3).

I further state that I personally marked the enclosed ballot in secret.

Under penalties of perjury as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of the Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

.......................

If the ballot enclosed is to be voted at a primary election, the certification shall designate the name of the political party with which the voter is affiliated.

In addition to the above, the election authority shall provide printed slips giving full instructions regarding the manner of marking and returning the ballot in order that the same may be counted, and shall furnish one of the printed slips to each of such applicants at the same time the ballot is delivered to him or her. The instructions shall include the following statement: "In signing the certification on the early ballot envelope, you are attesting that you personally marked this early ballot in secret. If you are physically unable to mark the ballot, a friend or relative may assist you. Federal and State laws prohibit your employer, your employer's agent, or an officer or agent of your union from assisting voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters."

In addition to the above, if a ballot to be provided to a voter pursuant to this Section contains a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6 and the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted is not described on the ballot due to the space limitations of the ballot, the election authority shall provide a printed copy of a notice of the public question, which shall include a description of the territory in the manner required by Section 16-7. The notice shall be furnished to the voter at the same time the ballot is delivered to the voter.

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05.)

(10 ILCS 5/24-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 24-9)

Sec. 24-9. Assistance to illiterate voters and voters with disabilities and disabled voters shall be given in accordance with the provisions in Section 17-14 of this Act.

(Source: Laws 1943, vol. 2, p. 1.)

(10 ILCS 5/24C-11)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 24C-11. Functional requirements. A Direct Recording Electronic Voting System shall, in addition to satisfying the other requirements of this Article, fulfill the following functional requirements:

(a) Provide a voter in a primary election with the means of casting a ballot containing votes for any and all candidates of the party or parties of his or her choice, and for any and all non-partisan candidates and public questions and preclude the voter from voting for any candidate of any other political party except when legally permitted. In a general election, the system shall provide the voter with means of selecting the appropriate number of candidates for any office, and of voting on any public question on the ballot to which he or she is entitled to vote.

(b) If a voter is not entitled to vote for particular candidates or public questions appearing on the ballot, the system shall prevent the selection of the prohibited votes.

(c) Once the proper ballot has been selected, the system devices shall provide a means of enabling the recording of votes and the casting of said ballot.

(d) System voting devices shall provide voting choices that are clear to the voter and labels indicating the names of every candidate and the text of every public question on the voter's ballot. Each label shall identify the selection button or switch, or the active area of the ballot associated with it. The system shall be able to incorporate minimal, easy-to-follow on-screen instruction for the voter on how to cast a ballot.

(e) Voting devices shall (i) enable the voter to vote for any and all candidates and public questions appearing on the ballot for which the voter is lawfully entitled to vote, in any legal number and combination; (ii) detect and reject all votes for an office or upon a public question when the voter has cast more votes for the office or upon the public question than the voter is entitled to cast; (iii) notify the voter if the voter's choices as recorded on the ballot for an office or public question are fewer than or exceed the number that the voter is entitled to vote for on that office or public question and the effect of casting more or fewer votes than legally permitted; (iv) notify the voter if the voter has failed to completely cast a vote for an office or public question appearing on the ballot; and (v) permit the voter, in a private and independent manner, to verify the votes selected by the voter, to change the ballot or to correct any error on the ballot before the ballot is completely cast and counted. A means shall be provided to indicate each selection after it has been made or canceled.

(f) System voting devices shall provide a means for the voter to signify that the selection of candidates and public questions has been completed. Upon activation, the system shall record an image of the completed ballot, increment the proper ballot position registers, and shall signify to the voter that the ballot has been cast. The system shall then prevent any further attempt to vote until it has been reset or re-enabled by a judge of election.

(g) Each system voting device shall be equipped with a public counter that can be set to zero prior to the opening of the polling place, and that records the number of ballots cast at a particular election. The counter shall be incremented only by the casting of a ballot. The counter shall be designed to prevent disabling or resetting by other than authorized persons after the polls close. The counter shall be visible to all judges of election so long as the device is installed at the polling place.

(h) Each system voting device shall be equipped with a protective counter that records all of the testing and election ballots cast since the unit was built. This counter shall be designed so that its reading cannot be changed by any cause other than the casting of a ballot. The protective counter shall be incapable of ever being reset and it shall be visible at all times when the device is configured for testing, maintenance, or election use.

(i) All system devices shall provide a means of preventing further voting once the polling place has closed and after all eligible voters have voted. Such means of control shall incorporate a visible indication of system status. Each device shall prevent any unauthorized use, prevent tampering with ballot labels and preclude its re-opening once the poll closing has been completed for that election.

(j) The system shall produce a printed summary report of the votes cast upon each voting device. Until the proper sequence of events associated with closing the polling place has been completed, the system shall not allow the printing of a report or the extraction of data. The printed report shall also contain all system audit information to be required by the election authority. Data shall not be altered or otherwise destroyed by report generation and the system shall ensure the integrity and security of data for a period of at least 6 months after the polls close.

(k) If more than one voting device is used in a polling place, the system shall provide a means to manually or electronically consolidate the data from all such units into a single report even if different voting systems are used to record absentee ballots. The system shall also be capable of merging the vote tabulation results produced by other vote tabulation systems, if necessary.

(l) System functions shall be implemented such that unauthorized access to them is prevented and the execution of authorized functions in an improper sequence is precluded. System functions shall be executable only in the intended manner and order, and only under the intended conditions. If the preconditions to a system function have not been met, the function shall be precluded from executing by the system's control logic.

(m) All system voting devices shall incorporate at least 3 memories in the machine itself and in its programmable memory devices.

(n) The system shall include capabilities of recording and reporting the date and time of normal and abnormal events and of maintaining a permanent record of audit information that cannot be turned off. Provisions shall be made to detect and record significant events (e.g., casting a ballot, error conditions that cannot be disposed of by the system itself, time-dependent or programmed events that occur without the intervention of the voter or a judge of election).

(o) The system and each system voting device must be capable of creating, printing and maintaining a permanent paper record and an electronic image of each ballot that is cast such that records of individual ballots are maintained by a subsystem independent and distinct from the main vote detection, interpretation, processing and reporting path. The electronic images of each ballot must protect the integrity of the data and the anonymity of each voter, for example, by means of storage location scrambling. The ballot image records may be either machine-readable or manually transcribed, or both, at the discretion of the election authority.

(p) The system shall include built-in test, measurement and diagnostic software and hardware for detecting and reporting the system's status and degree of operability.

(q) The system shall contain provisions for maintaining the integrity of memory voting and audit data during an election and for a period of at least 6 months thereafter and shall provide the means for creating an audit trail.

(r) The system shall be fully accessible so as to permit blind or visually impaired voters as well as voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters to exercise their right to vote in private and without assistance.

(s) The system shall provide alternative language accessibility if required pursuant to Section 203 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.

(t) Each voting device shall enable a voter to vote for a person whose name does not appear on the ballot.

(u) The system shall record and count accurately each vote properly cast for or against any candidate and for or against any public question, including the names of all candidates whose names are written in by the voters.

(v) The system shall allow for accepting provisional ballots and for separating such provisional ballots from precinct totals until authorized by the election authority.

(w) The system shall provide an effective audit trail as defined in Section 24C-2 in this Code.

(x) The system shall be suitably designed for the purpose used, be durably constructed, and be designed for safety, accuracy and efficiency.

(y) The system shall comply with all provisions of federal, State and local election laws and regulations and any future modifications to those laws and regulations.

(Source: P.A. 95-699, eff. 11-9-07.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 24C-11. Functional requirements. A Direct Recording Electronic Voting System shall, in addition to satisfying the other requirements of this Article, fulfill the following functional requirements:

(a) Provide a voter in a primary election with the means of casting a ballot containing votes for any and all candidates of the party or parties of his or her choice, and for any and all non-partisan candidates and public questions and preclude the voter from voting for any candidate of any other political party except when legally permitted. In a general election, the system shall provide the voter with means of selecting the appropriate number of candidates for any office, and of voting on any public question on the ballot to which he or she is entitled to vote.

(b) If a voter is not entitled to vote for particular candidates or public questions appearing on the ballot, the system shall prevent the selection of the prohibited votes.

(c) Once the proper ballot has been selected, the system devices shall provide a means of enabling the recording of votes and the casting of said ballot.

(d) System voting devices shall provide voting choices that are clear to the voter and labels indicating the names of every candidate and the text of every public question on the voter's ballot. Each label shall identify the selection button or switch, or the active area of the ballot associated with it. The system shall be able to incorporate minimal, easy-to-follow on-screen instruction for the voter on how to cast a ballot.

(e) Voting devices shall (i) enable the voter to vote for any and all candidates and public questions appearing on the ballot for which the voter is lawfully entitled to vote, in any legal number and combination; (ii) detect and reject all votes for an office or upon a public question when the voter has cast more votes for the office or upon the public question than the voter is entitled to cast; (iii) notify the voter if the voter's choices as recorded on the ballot for an office or public question are fewer than or exceed the number that the voter is entitled to vote for on that office or public question and the effect of casting more or fewer votes than legally permitted; (iv) notify the voter if the voter has failed to completely cast a vote for an office or public question appearing on the ballot; and (v) permit the voter, in a private and independent manner, to verify the votes selected by the voter, to change the ballot or to correct any error on the ballot before the ballot is completely cast and counted. A means shall be provided to indicate each selection after it has been made or canceled.

(f) System voting devices shall provide a means for the voter to signify that the selection of candidates and public questions has been completed. Upon activation, the system shall record an image of the completed ballot, increment the proper ballot position registers, and shall signify to the voter that the ballot has been cast. The system shall then prevent any further attempt to vote until it has been reset or re-enabled by a judge of election.

(g) Each system voting device shall be equipped with a public counter that can be set to zero prior to the opening of the polling place, and that records the number of ballots cast at a particular election. The counter shall be incremented only by the casting of a ballot. The counter shall be designed to prevent disabling or resetting by other than authorized persons after the polls close. The counter shall be visible to all judges of election so long as the device is installed at the polling place.

(h) Each system voting device shall be equipped with a protective counter that records all of the testing and election ballots cast since the unit was built. This counter shall be designed so that its reading cannot be changed by any cause other than the casting of a ballot. The protective counter shall be incapable of ever being reset and it shall be visible at all times when the device is configured for testing, maintenance, or election use.

(i) All system devices shall provide a means of preventing further voting once the polling place has closed and after all eligible voters have voted. Such means of control shall incorporate a visible indication of system status. Each device shall prevent any unauthorized use, prevent tampering with ballot labels and preclude its re-opening once the poll closing has been completed for that election.

(j) The system shall produce a printed summary report of the votes cast upon each voting device. Until the proper sequence of events associated with closing the polling place has been completed, the system shall not allow the printing of a report or the extraction of data. The printed report shall also contain all system audit information to be required by the election authority. Data shall not be altered or otherwise destroyed by report generation and the system shall ensure the integrity and security of data for a period of at least 6 months after the polls close.

(k) If more than one voting device is used in a polling place, the system shall provide a means to manually or electronically consolidate the data from all such units into a single report even if different voting systems are used to record ballots. The system shall also be capable of merging the vote tabulation results produced by other vote tabulation systems, if necessary.

(l) System functions shall be implemented such that unauthorized access to them is prevented and the execution of authorized functions in an improper sequence is precluded. System functions shall be executable only in the intended manner and order, and only under the intended conditions. If the preconditions to a system function have not been met, the function shall be precluded from executing by the system's control logic.

(m) All system voting devices shall incorporate at least 3 memories in the machine itself and in its programmable memory devices.

(n) The system shall include capabilities of recording and reporting the date and time of normal and abnormal events and of maintaining a permanent record of audit information that cannot be turned off. Provisions shall be made to detect and record significant events (e.g., casting a ballot, error conditions that cannot be disposed of by the system itself, time-dependent or programmed events that occur without the intervention of the voter or a judge of election).

(o) The system and each system voting device must be capable of creating, printing and maintaining a permanent paper record and an electronic image of each ballot that is cast such that records of individual ballots are maintained by a subsystem independent and distinct from the main vote detection, interpretation, processing and reporting path. The electronic images of each ballot must protect the integrity of the data and the anonymity of each voter, for example, by means of storage location scrambling. The ballot image records may be either machine-readable or manually transcribed, or both, at the discretion of the election authority.

(p) The system shall include built-in test, measurement and diagnostic software and hardware for detecting and reporting the system's status and degree of operability.

(q) The system shall contain provisions for maintaining the integrity of memory voting and audit data during an election and for a period of at least 6 months thereafter and shall provide the means for creating an audit trail.

(r) The system shall be fully accessible so as to permit blind or visually impaired voters as well as voters with physical disabilities physically disabled voters to exercise their right to vote in private and without assistance.

(s) The system shall provide alternative language accessibility if required pursuant to Section 203 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.

(t) Each voting device shall enable a voter to vote for a person whose name does not appear on the ballot.

(u) The system shall record and count accurately each vote properly cast for or against any candidate and for or against any public question, including the names of all candidates whose names are written in by the voters.

(v) The system shall allow for accepting provisional ballots and for separating such provisional ballots from precinct totals until authorized by the election authority.

(w) The system shall provide an effective audit trail as defined in Section 24C-2 in this Code.

(x) The system shall be suitably designed for the purpose used, be durably constructed, and be designed for safety, accuracy and efficiency.

(y) The system shall comply with all provisions of federal, State and local election laws and regulations and any future modifications to those laws and regulations.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

Section 50. The State Budget Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 50-10 as follows:

(15 ILCS 20/50-10) (was 15 ILCS 20/38.1)

Sec. 50-10. Budget contents. The budget shall be submitted by the Governor with line item and program data. The budget shall also contain performance data presenting an estimate for the current fiscal year, projections for the budget year, and information for the 3 prior fiscal years comparing department objectives with actual accomplishments, formulated according to the various functions and activities, and, wherever the nature of the work admits, according to the work units, for which the respective departments, offices, and institutions of the State government (including the elective officers in the executive department and including the University of Illinois and the judicial department) are responsible.

For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 1992 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the budget shall include the performance measures of each department's accountability report.

For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 1997 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the budget shall include one or more line items appropriating moneys to the Department of Human Services to fund participation in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act by persons described in Section 2-17 of that Act.

The budget shall contain a capital development section in which the Governor will present (1) information on the capital projects and capital programs for which appropriations are requested, (2) the capital spending plans, which shall document the first and subsequent years cash requirements by fund for the proposed bonded program, and (3) a statement that shall identify by year the principal and interest costs until retirement of the State's general obligation debt. In addition, the principal and interest costs of the budget year program shall be presented separately, to indicate the marginal cost of principal and interest payments necessary to retire the additional bonds needed to finance the budget year's capital program. In 2004 only, the capital development section of the State budget shall be submitted by the Governor not later than the fourth Tuesday of March (March 23, 2004).

The budget shall contain a section indicating whether there is a projected budget surplus or a projected budget deficit for general funds in the current fiscal year, or whether the current fiscal year's general funds budget is projected to be balanced, based on estimates prepared by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget using actual figures available on the date the budget is submitted. That section shall present this information in both a numerical table format and by way of a narrative description, and shall include information for the proposed upcoming fiscal year, the current fiscal year, and the 2 years prior to the current fiscal year. These estimates must specifically and separately identify any non-recurring revenues, including, but not limited to, borrowed money, money derived by borrowing or transferring from other funds, or any non-operating financial source. None of these specifically and separately identified non-recurring revenues may include any revenue that cannot be realized without a change to law. The table shall show accounts payable at the end of each fiscal year in a manner that specifically and separately identifies any general funds liabilities accrued during the current and prior fiscal years that may be paid from future fiscal years' appropriations, including, but not limited to, costs that may be paid beyond the end of the lapse period as set forth in Section 25 of the State Finance Act and costs incurred by the Department on Aging. The section shall also include an estimate of individual and corporate income tax overpayments that will not be refunded before the close of the fiscal year.

For the budget year, the current year, and 3 prior fiscal years, the Governor shall also include in the budget estimates of or actual values for the assets and liabilities for General Assembly Retirement System, State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, State Universities Retirement System, Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, and Judges Retirement System of Illinois.

The budget submitted by the Governor shall contain, in addition, in a separate book, a tabulation of all position and employment titles in each such department, office, and institution, the number of each, and the salaries for each, formulated according to divisions, bureaus, sections, offices, departments, boards, and similar subdivisions, which shall correspond as nearly as practicable to the functions and activities for which the department, office, or institution is responsible.

Together with the budget, the Governor shall transmit the estimates of receipts and expenditures, as received by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, of the elective officers in the executive and judicial departments and of the University of Illinois.

An applicable appropriations committee of each chamber of the General Assembly, for fiscal year 2012 and thereafter, must review individual line item appropriations and the total budget for each State agency, as defined in the Illinois State Auditing Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-460, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 55. The Civil and Equal Rights Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 14, par. 9)

Sec. 1. There is created in the office of the Attorney General a Division for the Enforcement of Civil and Equal Rights. The Division, under the supervision and direction of the Attorney General, shall investigate all violations of the laws relating to civil rights and the prevention of discriminations against persons by reason of race, color, creed, religion, sex, national origin, or physical or mental disability handicap, and shall, whenever such violations are established, undertake necessary enforcement measures.

(Source: P.A. 80-358.)

Section 60. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Sections 18a, 18b, and 18c as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/18a) (from Ch. 124, par. 118a)

Sec. 18a. Equal Employment Opportunity Plan. The Equal Employment Opportunity Officer shall, within 90 days after the effective date of this Act and annually thereafter, submit to the Secretary of State a plan for assuring equal employment opportunity. This plan shall include a current detailed status report (a) indicating, by each position in the service of the Secretary of State, the number, percentage, and average salary of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals employed; (b) identifying all positions in which the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped employed is less than 4/5 the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped in the State work force; (c) specifying the goals and methods for increasing the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped employed in these positions; and (d) indicating progress and problems towards meeting equal employment opportunity goals.

(Source: P.A. 80-13.)

(15 ILCS 310/18b) (from Ch. 124, par. 118b)

Sec. 18b. Duties of Secretary of State's Equal Employment Opportunity Officer. The Secretary of State's Equal Employment Opportunity Officer shall:

(1) set forth a detailed and uniform method and requirement by which the Office of the Secretary of State shall develop and implement equal employment opportunity plans as required in Section 19;

(2) establish reporting procedures for measuring progress and evaluation performance in achieving equal employment opportunity goals;

(3) provide technical assistance and training to officials of the Office of the Secretary of State in achieving equal employment opportunity goals;

(4) develop and implement training programs to help women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals qualified for government positions and positions with government contractors;

(5) report quarterly to the Secretary of State on progress, performance, and problems in meeting equal employment opportunity goals; and

(6) head a staff to assist him or her in performing his or her powers and duties.

(Source: P.A. 80-13.)

(15 ILCS 310/18c) (from Ch. 124, par. 118c)

Sec. 18c. Supported employees.

(a) The Director shall develop and implement a supported employment program. It shall be the goal of the program to appoint a minimum of 10 supported employees to Secretary of State positions before June 30, 1992.

(b) The Director shall designate a liaison to work with State agencies and departments under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State and any funder or provider or both in the implementation of a supported employment program.

(c) As used in this Section:

(1) "Supported employee" means any individual who:

(A) has a severe physical or mental disability which seriously limits functional capacities including but not limited to mobility, communication, self-care, self-direction, work tolerance or work skills, in terms of employability as defined, determined and certified by the Department of Human Services; and

(B) has one or more physical or mental disabilities resulting from amputation; arthritis; blindness; cancer; cerebral palsy; cystic fibrosis; deafness; heart disease; hemiplegia; respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction; an intellectual disability; mental illness; multiple sclerosis; muscular dystrophy; musculoskeletal disorders; neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy; paraplegia; quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions; sickle cell anemia; and end-stage renal disease; or another disability or combination of disabilities determined on the basis of an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause comparable substantial functional limitation.

(2) "Supported employment" means competitive work in integrated work settings:

(A) for individuals with severe disabilities handicaps for whom competitive employment has not traditionally occurred, or

(B) for individuals for whom competitive employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a result of a severe disability, and who because of their disability handicap, need on-going support services to perform such work. The term includes transitional employment for individuals with chronic mental illness.

(3) "Participation in a supported employee program" means participation as a supported employee that is not based on the expectation that an individual will have the skills to perform all the duties in a job class, but on the assumption that with support and adaptation, or both, a job can be designed to take advantage of the supported employee's special strengths.

(4) "Funder" means any entity either State, local or federal, or private not-for-profit or for-profit that provides monies to programs that provide services related to supported employment.

(5) "Provider" means any entity either public or private that provides technical support and services to any department or agency subject to the control of the Governor, the Secretary of State or the University Civil Service System.

(d) The Director shall establish job classifications for supported employees who may be appointed into the classifications without open competitive testing requirements. Supported employees shall serve in a trial employment capacity for not less than 3 or more than 12 months.

(e) The Director shall maintain a record of all individuals hired as supported employees. The record shall include:

(1) the number of supported employees initially appointed;

(2) the number of supported employees who successfully complete the trial employment periods; and

(3) the number of permanent targeted positions by titles.

(f) The Director shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly regarding the employment progress of supported employees, with recommendations for legislative action.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 65. The State Library Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(15 ILCS 320/18) (from Ch. 128, par. 118)

Sec. 18. Federal aid. The Secretary of State and State Librarian is authorized and empowered to do all things necessary and proper to fully cooperate with the United States government in the administering of any Act heretofore, or hereafter enacted for the purpose of appropriation of funds for the payment of salaries, library materials, access to electronic resources, library supplies, equipment, the construction of library buildings, library services throughout the State, and for library services to persons with physical disabilities the physically handicapped.

(Source: P.A. 91-507, eff. 8-13-99.)

Section 70. The Accessible Electronic Information Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 10, and 15 as follows:

(15 ILCS 323/5)

Sec. 5. Legislative findings. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(a) Thousands of citizens in this State have disabilities (including blindness or visual impairment) that prevent them from using conventional print material.

(b) The State fulfills an important responsibility by providing books and magazines prepared in Braille, audio, and large-type formats made available to eligible blind persons and persons with disabilities blind and disabled persons.

(c) The technology, transcription methods, and means of distribution used for these materials are labor-intensive and cannot support rapid dissemination to individuals in rural and urban areas throughout the State.

(d) Lack of direct and prompt access to information included in newspapers, magazines, newsletters, schedules, announcements, and other time-sensitive materials limits educational opportunities, literacy, and full participation in society by blind persons and persons with disabilities and disabled persons.

(Source: P.A. 93-797, eff. 7-22-04.)

(15 ILCS 323/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Accessible electronic information service" means news and other timely information (including newspapers) provided to eligible individuals from a multi-state service center, using high-speed computers and telecommunications technology for interstate acquisition of content and rapid distribution in a form appropriate for use by such individuals.

"Blind persons and persons with disabilities Blind and disabled persons" means those individuals who are eligible for library loan services through the Library of Congress and the State Library for the Blind and Physically Handicapped pursuant to 36 CFR 701.10(b).

"Director" means the State Librarian.

"Qualified entity" means an agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the State or a nonprofit organization that:

(1) provides interstate access for eligible persons to read daily newspapers by producing audio editions by computer; and

(2) provides a means of program administration and reader registration on the Internet.

(Source: P.A. 93-797, eff. 7-22-04.)

(15 ILCS 323/15)

Sec. 15. Accessible electronic information service program. The Director by rule shall develop and implement a program of grants to qualified entities for the provision of accessible electronic information service to blind persons and persons with disabilities blind and disabled persons throughout Illinois. The grants shall be funded through appropriations from the Accessible Electronic Information Service Fund established in Section 20.

(Source: P.A. 93-797, eff. 7-22-04.)

Section 75. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, 4A, 13 and as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/2) (from Ch. 124, par. 22)

Sec. 2. Administration and powers and duties of the Administrator.

(a) The Secretary of State is the Administrator of this Act, and he is charged with the duty of observing, administering and enforcing the provisions of this Act.

(b) The Secretary is vested with the powers and duties for the proper administration of this Act as follows:

1. He shall organize the administration of this Act as he may deem necessary and appoint such subordinate officers, clerks and other employees as may be necessary.

2. From time to time, he may make, amend or rescind rules and regulations as may be in the public interest to implement the Act.

3. He may prescribe or provide suitable forms as necessary, including such forms as are necessary to establish that an applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card is a "person with a disability" disabled person" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and establish that an applicant for a State identification card is a "homeless person" as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

4. He may prepare under the seal of the Secretary of State certified copies of any records utilized under this Act and any such certified copy shall be admissible in any proceeding in any court in like manner as the original thereof.

5. Records compiled under this Act shall be maintained for 6 years, but the Secretary may destroy such records with the prior approval of the State Records Commission.

6. He shall examine and determine the genuineness, regularity and legality of every application filed with him under this Act, and he may in all cases investigate the same, require additional information or proof or documentation from any applicant.

7. He shall require the payment of all fees prescribed in this Act, and all such fees received by him shall be placed in the Road Fund of the State treasury except as otherwise provided in Section 12 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-183, eff. 7-1-10; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(15 ILCS 335/4A) (from Ch. 124, par. 24A)

Sec. 4A. (a) "Person with a disability" as used in this Act means any person who is, and who is expected to indefinitely continue to be, subject to any of the following five types of disabilities:

Type One: Physical disability. A physical disability is a physical impairment, disease, or loss, which is of a permanent nature, and which substantially limits physical ability or motor skills. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to determine the presence of a physical disability.

Type Two: Developmental disability. Developmental disability means a disability that is attributable to: (i) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or autism or (ii) any other condition that results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. Such a disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability handicap. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to determine the presence of a developmental disability.

Type Three: Visual disability. A visual disability is blindness, and the term "blindness" means central vision acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with the use of a correcting lens. An eye that is accompanied by a limitation in the fields of vision so that the widest diameter of the visual field subtends an angle no greater than 20 degrees shall be considered as having a central vision acuity of 20/200 or less. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a visual disability.

Type Four: Hearing disability. A hearing disability is a disability resulting in complete absence of hearing, or hearing that with sound enhancing or magnifying equipment is so impaired as to require the use of sensory input other than hearing as the principal means of receiving spoken language. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a hearing disability.

Type Five: Mental Disability. A mental disability is a significant impairment of an individual's cognitive, affective, or relational abilities that may require intervention and may be a recognized, medically diagnosable illness or disorder. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to determine the presence of a mental disability.

(b) For purposes of this Act, a disability shall be classified as follows: Class 1 disability: A Class 1 disability is any type disability which does not render a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity or which does not impair his ability to live independently or to perform labor or services for which he is qualified. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a Class 1 disability. Class 1A disability: A Class 1A disability is a Class 1 disability which renders a person unable to walk 200 feet or more unassisted by another person or without the aid of a walker, crutches, braces, prosthetic device or a wheelchair or without great difficulty or discomfort due to the following impairments: neurologic, orthopedic, oncological, respiratory, cardiac, arthritic disorder, blindness, or the loss of function or absence of a limb or limbs. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a Class 1A disability. Class 2 disability: A Class 2 disability is any type disability which renders a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, which substantially impairs his ability to live independently without supervision or in-home support services, or which substantially impairs his ability to perform labor or services for which he is qualified or significantly restricts the labor or services which he is able to perform. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a Class 2 disability. Class 2A disability: A Class 2A disability is a Class 2 disability which renders a person unable to walk 200 feet or more unassisted by another person or without the aid of a walker, crutches, braces, prosthetic device or a wheelchair or without great difficulty or discomfort due to the following impairments: neurologic, orthopedic, oncological, respiratory, cardiac, arthritic disorder, blindness, or the loss of function or absence of a limb or limbs. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the presence of a Class 2A disability.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-726, eff. 1-1-15.)

(15 ILCS 335/13) (from Ch. 124, par. 33)

Sec. 13. Rejection, denial or revocations.

(a) The Secretary of State may reject or deny any application if he:

1. is not satisfied with the genuineness, regularity or legality of any application; or

2. has not been supplied with the required information; or

3. is not satisfied with the truth of any information or documentation supplied by an applicant; or

4. determines that the applicant is not entitled to the card as applied for; or

5. determines that any fraud was committed by the applicant; or

6. determines that a signature is not valid or is a forgery; or

7. determines that the applicant has not paid the prescribed fee; or

8. determines that the applicant has falsely claimed to be a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act; or

9. cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted by the applicant.

(b) The Secretary of State may cancel or revoke any identification card issued by him, upon determining that:

1. the holder is not legally entitled to the card; or

2. the applicant for the card made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application filed by him under this Act; or

3. any person has displayed or represented as his own a card not issued to him; or

4. any holder has permitted the display or use of his card by any other person; or

5. that the signature of the applicant was forgery or that the signature on the card is a forgery; or

6. a card has been used for any unlawful or fraudulent purpose; or

7. a card has been altered or defaced; or

8. any card has been duplicated for any purpose; or

9. any card was utilized to counterfeit such cards; or

10. the holder of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card is not a person with a disability disabled person as defined in Section 4A of this Act; or

11. the holder failed to appear at a Driver Services facility for the reissuance of a card or to present documentation for verification of identity.

(c) The Secretary of State is authorized to take possession of and shall make a demand for return of any card which has been cancelled or revoked, unlawfully or erroneously issued, or issued in violation of this Act, and every person to whom such demand is addressed, shall promptly and without delay, return such card to the Secretary pursuant to his instructions, or, he shall surrender any such card to the Secretary or any agent of the Secretary upon demand.

(d) The Secretary of State is authorized to take possession of any Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card which has been cancelled or revoked, or which is blank, or which has been altered or defaced or duplicated or which is counterfeit or contains a forgery; or otherwise issued in violation of this Act and may confiscate any suspected fraudulent, fictitious, or altered documents submitted by an applicant in support of an application for an identification card.

(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 80. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Sections 10.05 and 23.9 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/10.05) (from Ch. 15, par. 210.05)

Sec. 10.05. Deductions from warrants; statement of reason for deduction. Whenever any person shall be entitled to a warrant or other payment from the treasury or other funds held by the State Treasurer, on any account, against whom there shall be any then due and payable account or claim in favor of the State, the United States upon certification by the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, or his or her delegate, pursuant to a reciprocal offset agreement under subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986, or a unit of local government, a school district, a public institution of higher education, as defined in Section 1 of the Board of Higher Education Act, or the clerk of a circuit court, upon certification by that entity, the Comptroller, upon notification thereof, shall ascertain the amount due and payable to the State, the United States, the unit of local government, the school district, the public institution of higher education, or the clerk of the circuit court, as aforesaid, and draw a warrant on the treasury or on other funds held by the State Treasurer, stating the amount for which the party was entitled to a warrant or other payment, the amount deducted therefrom, and on what account, and directing the payment of the balance; which warrant or payment as so drawn shall be entered on the books of the Treasurer, and such balance only shall be paid. The Comptroller may deduct any one or more of the following: (i) the entire amount due and payable to the State or a portion of the amount due and payable to the State in accordance with the request of the notifying agency; (ii) the entire amount due and payable to the United States or a portion of the amount due and payable to the United States in accordance with a reciprocal offset agreement under subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986; or (iii) the entire amount due and payable to the unit of local government, school district, public institution of higher education, or clerk of the circuit court, or a portion of the amount due and payable to that entity, in accordance with an intergovernmental agreement authorized under this Section and Section 10.05d. No request from a notifying agency, the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, a unit of local government, a school district, a public institution of higher education, or the clerk of a circuit court for an amount to be deducted under this Section from a wage or salary payment, or from a contractual payment to an individual for personal services, shall exceed 25% of the net amount of such payment. "Net amount" means that part of the earnings of an individual remaining after deduction of any amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of this provision, wage, salary or other payments for personal services shall not include final compensation payments for the value of accrued vacation, overtime or sick leave. Whenever the Comptroller draws a warrant or makes a payment involving a deduction ordered under this Section, the Comptroller shall notify the payee and the State agency that submitted the voucher of the reason for the deduction and he or she shall retain a record of such statement in his or her records. As used in this Section, an "account or claim in favor of the State" includes all amounts owing to "State agencies" as defined in Section 7 of this Act. However, the Comptroller shall not be required to accept accounts or claims owing to funds not held by the State Treasurer, where such accounts or claims do not exceed $50, nor shall the Comptroller deduct from funds held by the State Treasurer under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or for payments to institutions from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund (unless the Trust Fund moneys are used for child support). The Comptroller shall not deduct from payments to be disbursed from the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund as provided for under Section 12-10.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except for payments representing interest on child support obligations under Section 10-16.5 of that Code. The Comptroller and the Department of Revenue shall enter into an interagency agreement to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures relating to deductions from lottery prizes awarded under Section 20.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law. The Comptroller may enter into an intergovernmental agreement with the Department of Revenue and the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States, or his or her delegate, to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures relating to reciprocal offset of delinquent State and federal obligations pursuant to subsection (i-1) of Section 10 of the Illinois State Collection Act of 1986. The Comptroller may enter into intergovernmental agreements with any unit of local government, school district, public institution of higher education, or clerk of a circuit court to establish responsibilities, duties, and procedures to provide for the offset, by the Comptroller, of obligations owed to those entities.

For the purposes of this Section, "clerk of a circuit court" means the clerk of a circuit court in any county in the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-269, eff. 12-16-11 (see Section 15 of P.A. 97-632 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 97-269); 97-632, eff. 12-16-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-884, eff. 8-2-12; 97-970, eff. 8-16-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(15 ILCS 405/23.9)

Sec. 23.9. Minority Contractor Opportunity Initiative. The State Comptroller Minority Contractor Opportunity Initiative is created to provide greater opportunities for minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses with 20 or fewer employees in this State to participate in the State procurement process. The initiative shall be administered by the Comptroller. Under this initiative, the Comptroller is responsible for the following: (i) outreach to minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses capable of providing services to the State; (ii) education of minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses concerning State contracting and procurement; (iii) notification of minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses of State contracting opportunities; and (iv) maintenance of an online database of State contracts that identifies the contracts awarded to minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses that includes the total amount paid by State agencies to contractors and the percentage paid to minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses.

The Comptroller shall work with the Business Enterprise Council created under Section 5 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act to fulfill the Comptroller's responsibilities under this Section. The Comptroller may rely on the Business Enterprise Council's identification of minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities.

The Comptroller shall annually prepare and submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly concerning the progress of this initiative including the following information for the preceding calendar year: (i) a statement of the total amounts paid by each executive branch agency to contractors since the previous report; (ii) the percentage of the amounts that were paid to minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses; (iii) the successes achieved and the challenges faced by the Comptroller in operating outreach programs for minorities, women, persons with disabilities, and small businesses; (iv) the challenges each executive branch agency may face in hiring qualified minority, female, disabled, and small business employees and employees with disabilities and contracting with qualified minority-owned businesses, female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and small businesses; and (iv) any other information, findings, conclusions, and recommendations for legislative or agency action, as the Comptroller deems appropriate.

On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, any bidder or offeror awarded a contract of $1,000 or more under Section 20-10, 20-15, 20-25, or 20-30 of the Illinois Procurement Code is required to pay a fee of $15 to cover expenses related to the administration of this Section. The Comptroller shall deduct the fee from the first check issued to the vendor under the contract and deposit the fee into the Comptroller's Administrative Fund. Contracts administered for statewide orders placed by agencies (commonly referred to as "statewide master contracts") are exempt from this fee.

(Source: P.A. 97-590, eff. 8-26-11; 98-797, eff. 7-31-14.)

Section 85. The Comptroller Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Sections 18a and 18b as follows:

(15 ILCS 410/18a) (from Ch. 15, par. 454)

Sec. 18a. Equal Employment Opportunity Plan. The Equal Employment Opportunity Officer shall, within 90 days after the effective date of this Act and annually thereafter, submit to the Comptroller a plan for assuring equal employment opportunity. This plan shall include a current detailed status report (a) indicating, by each position in the service of the Comptroller, the number, percentage, and average salary of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals employed; (b) identifying all positions in which the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped employed is less than 4/5 the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped in the State work force; (c) specifying the goals and methods for increasing the percentage of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped employed in these positions; and (d) indicating progress and problems towards meeting equal employment opportunity goals.

(Source: P.A. 80-1397.)

(15 ILCS 410/18b) (from Ch. 15, par. 455)

Sec. 18b. Duties of Comptroller's Equal Employment Opportunity Officer. The Comptroller's Equal Employment Opportunity Officer shall:

(1) set forth a detailed and uniform method and requirement by which the Office of the Comptroller shall develop and implement equal employment opportunity plans as required in Section 18;

(2) establish reporting procedures for measuring progress and evaluation performance in achieving equal employment opportunity goals;

(3) provide technical assistance and training to officials of the Office of the Comptroller in achieving equal employment opportunity goals;

(4) develop and implement training programs to help women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals qualifying for government positions and positions with government contractors;

(5) report quarterly to the Comptroller on progress, performance, and problems in meeting equal employment opportunity goals.

(Source: P.A. 80-1397.)

Section 90. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. College Savings Pool. The State Treasurer may establish and administer a College Savings Pool to supplement and enhance the investment opportunities otherwise available to persons seeking to finance the costs of higher education. The State Treasurer, in administering the College Savings Pool, may receive moneys paid into the pool by a participant and may serve as the fiscal agent of that participant for the purpose of holding and investing those moneys.

"Participant", as used in this Section, means any person who has authority to withdraw funds, change the designated beneficiary, or otherwise exercise control over an account. "Donor", as used in this Section, means any person who makes investments in the pool. "Designated beneficiary", as used in this Section, means any person on whose behalf an account is established in the College Savings Pool by a participant. Both in-state and out-of-state persons may be participants, donors, and designated beneficiaries in the College Savings Pool. The College Savings Pool must be available to any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number for the benefit of any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number, unless a contract in effect on August 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-233) does not allow for taxpayer identification numbers, in which case taxpayer identification numbers must be allowed upon the expiration of the contract.

New accounts in the College Savings Pool may be processed through participating financial institutions. "Participating financial institution", as used in this Section, means any financial institution insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois and any credit union approved by the State Treasurer and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois that agrees to process new accounts in the College Savings Pool. Participating financial institutions may charge a processing fee to participants to open an account in the pool that shall not exceed $30 until the year 2001. Beginning in 2001 and every year thereafter, the maximum fee limit shall be adjusted by the Treasurer based on the Consumer Price Index for the North Central Region as published by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics for the immediately preceding calendar year. Every contribution received by a financial institution for investment in the College Savings Pool shall be transferred from the financial institution to a location selected by the State Treasurer within one business day following the day that the funds must be made available in accordance with federal law. All communications from the State Treasurer to participants and donors shall reference the participating financial institution at which the account was processed.

The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the College Savings Pool in the same manner and in the same types of investments provided for the investment of moneys by the Illinois State Board of Investment. To enhance the safety and liquidity of the College Savings Pool, to ensure the diversification of the investment portfolio of the pool, and in an effort to keep investment dollars in the State of Illinois, the State Treasurer may make a percentage of each account available for investment in participating financial institutions doing business in the State. The State Treasurer may deposit with the participating financial institution at which the account was processed the following percentage of each account at a prevailing rate offered by the institution, provided that the deposit is federally insured or fully collateralized and the institution accepts the deposit: 10% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is less than 7 years of age, 20% of the total amount of each account for which the beneficiary is at least 7 years of age and less than 12 years of age, and 50% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is at least 12 years of age. The Treasurer shall develop, publish, and implement an investment policy covering the investment of the moneys in the College Savings Pool. The policy shall be published each year as part of the audit of the College Savings Pool by the Auditor General, which shall be distributed to all participants. The Treasurer shall notify all participants in writing, and the Treasurer shall publish in a newspaper of general circulation in both Chicago and Springfield, any changes to the previously published investment policy at least 30 calendar days before implementing the policy. Any investment policy adopted by the Treasurer shall be reviewed and updated if necessary within 90 days following the date that the State Treasurer takes office.

Participants shall be required to use moneys distributed from the College Savings Pool for qualified expenses at eligible educational institutions. "Qualified expenses", as used in this Section, means the following: (i) tuition, fees, and the costs of books, supplies, and equipment required for enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution and (ii) certain room and board expenses incurred while attending an eligible educational institution at least half-time. "Eligible educational institutions", as used in this Section, means public and private colleges, junior colleges, graduate schools, and certain vocational institutions that are described in Section 481 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088) and that are eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs. A student shall be considered to be enrolled at least half-time if the student is enrolled for at least half the full-time academic work load for the course of study the student is pursuing as determined under the standards of the institution at which the student is enrolled. Distributions made from the pool for qualified expenses shall be made directly to the eligible educational institution, directly to a vendor, or in the form of a check payable to both the beneficiary and the institution or vendor. Any moneys that are distributed in any other manner or that are used for expenses other than qualified expenses at an eligible educational institution shall be subject to a penalty of 10% of the earnings unless the beneficiary dies, becomes a person with a disability disabled, or receives a scholarship that equals or exceeds the distribution. Penalties shall be withheld at the time the distribution is made.

The Treasurer shall limit the contributions that may be made on behalf of a designated beneficiary based on the limitations established by the Internal Revenue Service. The contributions made on behalf of a beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program shall be further restricted to ensure that the contributions in both programs combined do not exceed the limit established for the College Savings Pool. The Treasurer shall provide the Illinois Student Assistance Commission each year at a time designated by the Commission, an electronic report of all participant accounts in the Treasurer's College Savings Pool, listing total contributions and disbursements from each individual account during the previous calendar year. As soon thereafter as is possible following receipt of the Treasurer's report, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall, in turn, provide the Treasurer with an electronic report listing those College Savings Pool participants who also participate in the State's prepaid tuition program, administered by the Commission. The Commission shall be responsible for filing any combined tax reports regarding State qualified savings programs required by the United States Internal Revenue Service. The Treasurer shall work with the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to coordinate the marketing of the College Savings Pool and the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program when considered beneficial by the Treasurer and the Director of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. The Treasurer's office shall not publicize or otherwise market the College Savings Pool or accept any moneys into the College Savings Pool prior to March 1, 2000. The Treasurer shall provide a separate accounting for each designated beneficiary to each participant, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, and the participating financial institution at which the account was processed. No interest in the program may be pledged as security for a loan. Moneys held in an account invested in the Illinois College Savings Pool shall be exempt from all claims of the creditors of the participant, donor, or designated beneficiary of that account, except for the non-exempt College Savings Pool transfers to or from the account as defined under subsection (j) of Section 12-1001 of the Code of Civil Procedure (735 ILCS 5/12-1001(j)).

The assets of the College Savings Pool and its income and operation shall be exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and any of its subdivisions. The accrued earnings on investments in the Pool once disbursed on behalf of a designated beneficiary shall be similarly exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and its subdivisions, so long as they are used for qualified expenses. Contributions to a College Savings Pool account during the taxable year may be deducted from adjusted gross income as provided in Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The provisions of this paragraph are exempt from Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Treasurer shall adopt rules he or she considers necessary for the efficient administration of the College Savings Pool. The rules shall provide whatever additional parameters and restrictions are necessary to ensure that the College Savings Pool meets all of the requirements for a qualified state tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529). The rules shall provide for the administration expenses of the pool to be paid from its earnings and for the investment earnings in excess of the expenses and all moneys collected as penalties to be credited or paid monthly to the several participants in the pool in a manner which equitably reflects the differing amounts of their respective investments in the pool and the differing periods of time for which those amounts were in the custody of the pool. Also, the rules shall require the maintenance of records that enable the Treasurer's office to produce a report for each account in the pool at least annually that documents the account balance and investment earnings. Notice of any proposed amendments to the rules and regulations shall be provided to all participants prior to adoption. Amendments to rules and regulations shall apply only to contributions made after the adoption of the amendment.

Upon creating the College Savings Pool, the State Treasurer shall give bond with 2 or more sufficient sureties, payable to and for the benefit of the participants in the College Savings Pool, in the penal sum of $1,000,000, conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his or her duties in relation to the College Savings Pool.

(Source: P.A. 97-233, eff. 8-1-11; 97-537, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 95. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-550 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-550) (was 20 ILCS 5/6.23)

Sec. 5-550. In the Department of Human Services. A State Rehabilitation Council, hereinafter referred to as the Council, is hereby established for the purpose of complying with the requirements of 34 CFR 361.16 and advising the Secretary of Human Services and the vocational rehabilitation administrator of the provisions of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 in matters concerning individuals with disabilities and the provision of vocational rehabilitation services. The Council shall consist of members appointed by the Governor after soliciting recommendations from organizations representing a broad range of individuals with disabilities and organizations interested in individuals with disabilities. However, the Governor may delegate his appointing authority under this Section to the Council by executive order.

The Council shall consist of the following appointed members:

(1) One representative of a parent training center established in accordance with the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act.

(2) One representative of the Client Assistance Program.

(3) One vocational rehabilitation counselor who has knowledge of and experience with vocational rehabilitation programs. If an employee of the Department of Human Services is appointed under this item, then he or she shall serve as an ex officio, nonvoting member.

(4) One representative of community rehabilitation program service providers.

(5) Four representatives of business, industry, and labor.

(6) At least two but not more than five representatives of disability advocacy groups representing a cross section of the following:

(A) individuals with physical, cognitive, sensory, and mental disabilities; and

(B) parents, family members, guardians, advocates, or authorized representative of individuals with disabilities who have difficulty in representing themselves or who are unable, due to their disabilities, to represent themselves.

(7) One current or former applicant for, or recipient of, vocational rehabilitation services.

(8) One representative from secondary or higher education.

(9) One representative of the State Workforce Investment Board.

(10) One representative of the Illinois State Board of Education who is knowledgeable about the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act.

(11) The chairperson of, or a member designated by, the Statewide Independent Living Council established under Section 12a of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(12) The chairperson of, or a member designated by, the Blind Services Planning Council established under Section 7 of the Bureau for the Blind Act.

(13) The vocational rehabilitation administrator, as defined in Section 1b of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, who shall serve as an ex officio, nonvoting member.

The Council shall select a Chairperson.

The Chairperson and a majority of the members of the Council shall be persons who are individuals with disabilities. At least one member shall be a senior citizen age 60 or over, and at least one member shall be at least 18 but not more than 25 years old. A majority of the Council members shall not be employees of the Department of Human Services.

Members appointed to the Council for full terms on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be appointed for terms of 3 years. No Council member, other than the vocational rehabilitation administrator and the representative of the Client Assistance Program, shall serve for more than 2 consecutive terms as a representative of one of the 13 enumerated categories. If an individual, other than the vocational rehabilitation administrator and the representative of the Client Assistance Program, has completed 2 consecutive terms and is eligible to seek appointment as a representative of one of the other enumerated categories, then that individual may be appointed to serve as a representative of one of those other enumerated categories after a meaningful break in Council service, as defined by the Council through its by-laws.

Vacancies for unexpired terms shall be filled. Individuals appointed by the appointing authority to fill an unexpired term shall complete the remainder of the vacated term. When the initial term of a person appointed to fill a vacancy is completed, the individual appointed to fill that vacancy may be re-appointed by the appointing authority to the vacated position for one subsequent term.

If an excessive number of expired terms and vacated terms combine to place an undue burden on the Council, the appointing authority may appoint members for terms of 1, 2, or 3 years. The appointing authority shall determine the terms of Council members to ensure the number of terms expiring each year is as close to equal as possible.

Notwithstanding the foregoing, a member who is serving on the Council on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and whose term expires as a result of the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may complete the unexpired portion of his or her term.

Members shall be reimbursed in accordance with State laws, rules, and rates for expenses incurred in the performance of their approved, Council-related duties, including expenses for travel, child care, or personal assistance services. A member who is not employed or who must forfeit wages from other employment may be paid reasonable compensation, as determined by the Department, for each day the member is engaged in performing approved duties of the Council.

The Council shall meet at least 4 times per year at times and places designated by the Chairperson upon 10 days written notice to the members. Special meetings may be called by the Chairperson or 7 members of the Council upon 7 days written notice to the other members. Nine members shall constitute a quorum. No member of the Council shall cast a vote on any matter that would provide direct financial benefit to the member or otherwise give the appearance of a conflict of interest under Illinois law.

The Council shall prepare and submit to the vocational rehabilitation administrator the reports and findings that the vocational rehabilitation administrator may request or that the Council deems fit. The Council shall select jointly with the vocational rehabilitation administrator a pool of qualified persons to serve as impartial hearing officers. The Council shall, with the vocational rehabilitation unit in the Department, jointly develop, agree to, and review annually State goals and priorities and jointly submit annual reports of progress to the federal Commissioner of the Rehabilitation Services Administration.

To the extent that there is a disagreement between the Council and the unit within the Department of Human Services responsible for the administration of the vocational rehabilitation program, regarding the resources necessary to carry out the functions of the Council as set forth in this Section, the disagreement shall be resolved by the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 98-76, eff. 7-15-13.)

Section 100. The Illinois Employment First Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 40/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Competitive employment" means work in the competitive labor market that is performed on a full-time or part-time basis in an integrated setting and for which an individual is compensated at or above the minimum wage, but not less than the customary wage and level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by individuals who are not persons with disabilities disabled.

"Disability" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 10 of the Disabilities Services Act of 2003.

"Integrated setting" means with respect to an employment outcome, a setting typically found in the community in which applicants or eligible individuals interact with individuals without disabilities non-disabled individuals, other than individuals without disabilities non-disabled individuals who are providing services to those applicants or eligible individuals, to the same extent that individuals without disabilities non-disabled individuals in comparable positions interact with other persons.

"State agency" means and includes all boards, commissions, agencies, institutions, authorities, and bodies politic and corporate of the State, created by or in accordance with the Illinois Constitution or State statute, of the executive branch of State government and does include colleges, universities, public employee retirement systems, and institutions under the jurisdiction of the governing boards of the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Illinois State University, Eastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, Chicago State University, Governors State University, Northeastern Illinois University, and the Illinois Board of Higher Education.

(Source: P.A. 98-91, eff. 7-16-13.)

Section 105. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Sections 4.02, 4.03, and 4.15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.02) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.02)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4.02. Community Care Program. The Department shall establish a program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization of persons age 60 and older in need of long term care or who are established as persons who suffer from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes or in other living arrangements. Such preventive services, which may be coordinated with other programs for the aged and monitored by area agencies on aging in cooperation with the Department, may include, but are not limited to, any or all of the following:

(a) (blank);

(b) (blank);

(c) home care aide services;

(d) personal assistant services;

(e) adult day services;

(f) home-delivered meals;

(g) education in self-care;

(h) personal care services;

(i) adult day health services;

(j) habilitation services;

(k) respite care;

(k-5) community reintegration services;

(k-6) flexible senior services;

(k-7) medication management;

(k-8) emergency home response;

(l) other nonmedical social services that may enable the person to become self-supporting; or

(m) clearinghouse for information provided by senior citizen home owners who want to rent rooms to or share living space with other senior citizens.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services. In determining the amount and nature of services for which a person may qualify, consideration shall not be given to the value of cash, property or other assets held in the name of the person's spouse pursuant to a written agreement dividing marital property into equal but separate shares or pursuant to a transfer of the person's interest in a home to his spouse, provided that the spouse's share of the marital property is not made available to the person seeking such services.

Beginning January 1, 2008, the Department shall require as a condition of eligibility that all new financially eligible applicants apply for and enroll in medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department.

The Department shall, in conjunction with the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services), seek appropriate amendments under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act. The purpose of the amendments shall be to extend eligibility for home and community based services under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act to persons who transfer to or for the benefit of a spouse those amounts of income and resources allowed under Section 1924 of the Social Security Act. Subject to the approval of such amendments, the Department shall extend the provisions of Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code to persons who, but for the provision of home or community-based services, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law. Those persons no longer found to be eligible for receiving noninstitutional services due to changes in the eligibility criteria shall be given 45 days notice prior to actual termination. Those persons receiving notice of termination may contact the Department and request the determination be appealed at any time during the 45 day notice period. The target population identified for the purposes of this Section are persons age 60 and older with an identified service need. Priority shall be given to those who are at imminent risk of institutionalization. The services shall be provided to eligible persons age 60 and older to the extent that the cost of the services together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to the person's condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Department of Human Services. The Departments of Human Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Veterans' Affairs, and Commerce and Economic Opportunity and other appropriate agencies of State, federal and local governments shall cooperate with the Department on Aging in the establishment and development of the non-institutional services. The Department shall require an annual audit from all personal assistant and home care aide vendors contracting with the Department under this Section. The annual audit shall assure that each audited vendor's procedures are in compliance with Department's financial reporting guidelines requiring an administrative and employee wage and benefits cost split as defined in administrative rules. The audit is a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the following: (1) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (2) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 60 years of age or older shall be conducted by the Department.

As part of the Department on Aging's routine training of case managers and case manager supervisors, the Department may include information on family futures planning for persons who are age 60 or older and who are caregivers of their adult children with developmental disabilities. The content of the training shall be at the Department's discretion.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient copayment for services provided under this Section, such copayment to be based upon the recipient's ability to pay but in no case to exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Additionally, any portion of a person's income which is equal to or less than the federal poverty standard shall not be considered by the Department in determining the copayment. The level of such copayment shall be adjusted whenever necessary to reflect any change in the officially designated federal poverty standard.

The Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or , blind or who has a permanent and total disability , or permanently and totally disabled. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall increase the effectiveness of the existing Community Care Program by:

(1) ensuring that in-home services included in the care plan are available on evenings and weekends;

(2) ensuring that care plans contain the services that eligible participants need based on the number of days in a month, not limited to specific blocks of time, as identified by the comprehensive assessment tool selected by the Department for use statewide, not to exceed the total monthly service cost maximum allowed for each service; the Department shall develop administrative rules to implement this item (2);

(3) ensuring that the participants have the right to choose the services contained in their care plan and to direct how those services are provided, based on administrative rules established by the Department;

(4) ensuring that the determination of need tool is accurate in determining the participants' level of need; to achieve this, the Department, in conjunction with the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee, shall institute a study of the relationship between the Determination of Need scores, level of need, service cost maximums, and the development and utilization of service plans no later than May 1, 2008; findings and recommendations shall be presented to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2009; recommendations shall include all needed changes to the service cost maximums schedule and additional covered services;

(5) ensuring that homemakers can provide personal care services that may or may not involve contact with clients, including but not limited to:

(A) bathing;

(B) grooming;

(C) toileting;

(D) nail care;

(E) transferring;

(F) respiratory services;

(G) exercise; or

(H) positioning;

(6) ensuring that homemaker program vendors are not restricted from hiring homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients; the Department may not, by rule or policy, require homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients to accept assignments in homes other than the client;

(7) ensuring that the State may access maximum federal matching funds by seeking approval for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for modifications to the State's home and community based services waiver and additional waiver opportunities, including applying for enrollment in the Balance Incentive Payment Program by May 1, 2013, in order to maximize federal matching funds; this shall include, but not be limited to, modification that reflects all changes in the Community Care Program services and all increases in the services cost maximum;

(8) ensuring that the determination of need tool accurately reflects the service needs of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementia disorders;

(9) ensuring that services are authorized accurately and consistently for the Community Care Program (CCP); the Department shall implement a Service Authorization policy directive; the purpose shall be to ensure that eligibility and services are authorized accurately and consistently in the CCP program; the policy directive shall clarify service authorization guidelines to Care Coordination Units and Community Care Program providers no later than May 1, 2013;

(10) working in conjunction with Care Coordination Units, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, Community Care Program providers, and other stakeholders to make improvements to the Medicaid claiming processes and the Medicaid enrollment procedures or requirements as needed, including, but not limited to, specific policy changes or rules to improve the up-front enrollment of participants in the Medicaid program and specific policy changes or rules to insure more prompt submission of bills to the federal government to secure maximum federal matching dollars as promptly as possible; the Department on Aging shall have at least 3 meetings with stakeholders by January 1, 2014 in order to address these improvements;

(11) requiring home care service providers to comply with the rounding of hours worked provisions under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) and as set forth in 29 CFR 785.48(b) by May 1, 2013;

(12) implementing any necessary policy changes or promulgating any rules, no later than January 1, 2014, to assist the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in moving as many participants as possible, consistent with federal regulations, into coordinated care plans if a care coordination plan that covers long term care is available in the recipient's area; and

(13) maintaining fiscal year 2014 rates at the same level established on January 1, 2013.

By January 1, 2009 or as soon after the end of the Cash and Counseling Demonstration Project as is practicable, the Department may, based on its evaluation of the demonstration project, promulgate rules concerning personal assistant services, to include, but need not be limited to, qualifications, employment screening, rights under fair labor standards, training, fiduciary agent, and supervision requirements. All applicants shall be subject to the provisions of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

The Department shall develop procedures to enhance availability of services on evenings, weekends, and on an emergency basis to meet the respite needs of caregivers. Procedures shall be developed to permit the utilization of services in successive blocks of 24 hours up to the monthly maximum established by the Department. Workers providing these services shall be appropriately trained.

Beginning on the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1991, no person may perform chore/housekeeping and home care aide services under a program authorized by this Section unless that person has been issued a certificate of pre-service to do so by his or her employing agency. Information gathered to effect such certification shall include (i) the person's name, (ii) the date the person was hired by his or her current employer, and (iii) the training, including dates and levels. Persons engaged in the program authorized by this Section before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991 shall be issued a certificate of all pre- and in-service training from his or her employer upon submitting the necessary information. The employing agency shall be required to retain records of all staff pre- and in-service training, and shall provide such records to the Department upon request and upon termination of the employer's contract with the Department. In addition, the employing agency is responsible for the issuance of certifications of in-service training completed to their employees.

The Department is required to develop a system to ensure that persons working as home care aides and personal assistants receive increases in their wages when the federal minimum wage is increased by requiring vendors to certify that they are meeting the federal minimum wage statute for home care aides and personal assistants. An employer that cannot ensure that the minimum wage increase is being given to home care aides and personal assistants shall be denied any increase in reimbursement costs.

The Community Care Program Advisory Committee is created in the Department on Aging. The Director shall appoint individuals to serve in the Committee, who shall serve at their own expense. Members of the Committee must abide by all applicable ethics laws. The Committee shall advise the Department on issues related to the Department's program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization. The Committee shall meet on a bi-monthly basis and shall serve to identify and advise the Department on present and potential issues affecting the service delivery network, the program's clients, and the Department and to recommend solution strategies. Persons appointed to the Committee shall be appointed on, but not limited to, their own and their agency's experience with the program, geographic representation, and willingness to serve. The Director shall appoint members to the Committee to represent provider, advocacy, policy research, and other constituencies committed to the delivery of high quality home and community-based services to older adults. Representatives shall be appointed to ensure representation from community care providers including, but not limited to, adult day service providers, homemaker providers, case coordination and case management units, emergency home response providers, statewide trade or labor unions that represent home care aides and direct care staff, area agencies on aging, adults over age 60, membership organizations representing older adults, and other organizational entities, providers of care, or individuals with demonstrated interest and expertise in the field of home and community care as determined by the Director.

Nominations may be presented from any agency or State association with interest in the program. The Director, or his or her designee, shall serve as the permanent co-chair of the advisory committee. One other co-chair shall be nominated and approved by the members of the committee on an annual basis. Committee members' terms of appointment shall be for 4 years with one-quarter of the appointees' terms expiring each year. A member shall continue to serve until his or her replacement is named. The Department shall fill vacancies that have a remaining term of over one year, and this replacement shall occur through the annual replacement of expiring terms. The Director shall designate Department staff to provide technical assistance and staff support to the committee. Department representation shall not constitute membership of the committee. All Committee papers, issues, recommendations, reports, and meeting memoranda are advisory only. The Director, or his or her designee, shall make a written report, as requested by the Committee, regarding issues before the Committee.

The Department on Aging and the Department of Human Services shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. Such joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before September 30 each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Those persons previously found eligible for receiving non-institutional services whose services were discontinued under the Emergency Budget Act of Fiscal Year 1992, and who do not meet the eligibility standards in effect on or after July 1, 1992, shall remain ineligible on and after July 1, 1992. Those persons previously not required to cost-share and who were required to cost-share effective March 1, 1992, shall continue to meet cost-share requirements on and after July 1, 1992. Beginning July 1, 1992, all clients will be required to meet eligibility, cost-share, and other requirements and will have services discontinued or altered when they fail to meet these requirements.

For the purposes of this Section, "flexible senior services" refers to services that require one-time or periodic expenditures including, but not limited to, respite care, home modification, assistive technology, housing assistance, and transportation.

The Department shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology for the Community Care Program no later than January 1, 2014.

The Department shall require, as a condition of eligibility, enrollment in the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall delay Community Care Program services until an applicant is determined eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall implement co-payments for the Community Care Program at the federally allowable maximum level (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall provide a bi-monthly report on the progress of the Community Care Program reforms set forth in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly to the Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate.

The Department shall conduct a quarterly review of Care Coordination Unit performance and adherence to service guidelines. The quarterly review shall be reported to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate. The Department shall collect and report longitudinal data on the performance of each care coordination unit. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require the Department to identify specific care coordination units.

In regard to community care providers, failure to comply with Department on Aging policies shall be cause for disciplinary action, including, but not limited to, disqualification from serving Community Care Program clients. Each provider, upon submission of any bill or invoice to the Department for payment for services rendered, shall include a notarized statement, under penalty of perjury pursuant to Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure, that the provider has complied with all Department policies.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-8, eff. 5-3-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4.02. Community Care Program. The Department shall establish a program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization of persons age 60 and older in need of long term care or who are established as persons who suffer from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes or in other living arrangements. Such preventive services, which may be coordinated with other programs for the aged and monitored by area agencies on aging in cooperation with the Department, may include, but are not limited to, any or all of the following:

(a) (blank);

(b) (blank);

(c) home care aide services;

(d) personal assistant services;

(e) adult day services;

(f) home-delivered meals;

(g) education in self-care;

(h) personal care services;

(i) adult day health services;

(j) habilitation services;

(k) respite care;

(k-5) community reintegration services;

(k-6) flexible senior services;

(k-7) medication management;

(k-8) emergency home response;

(l) other nonmedical social services that may enable the person to become self-supporting; or

(m) clearinghouse for information provided by senior citizen home owners who want to rent rooms to or share living space with other senior citizens.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services. In determining the amount and nature of services for which a person may qualify, consideration shall not be given to the value of cash, property or other assets held in the name of the person's spouse pursuant to a written agreement dividing marital property into equal but separate shares or pursuant to a transfer of the person's interest in a home to his spouse, provided that the spouse's share of the marital property is not made available to the person seeking such services.

Beginning January 1, 2008, the Department shall require as a condition of eligibility that all new financially eligible applicants apply for and enroll in medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code in accordance with rules promulgated by the Department.

The Department shall, in conjunction with the Department of Public Aid (now Department of Healthcare and Family Services), seek appropriate amendments under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act. The purpose of the amendments shall be to extend eligibility for home and community based services under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act to persons who transfer to or for the benefit of a spouse those amounts of income and resources allowed under Section 1924 of the Social Security Act. Subject to the approval of such amendments, the Department shall extend the provisions of Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code to persons who, but for the provision of home or community-based services, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law. Those persons no longer found to be eligible for receiving noninstitutional services due to changes in the eligibility criteria shall be given 45 days notice prior to actual termination. Those persons receiving notice of termination may contact the Department and request the determination be appealed at any time during the 45 day notice period. The target population identified for the purposes of this Section are persons age 60 and older with an identified service need. Priority shall be given to those who are at imminent risk of institutionalization. The services shall be provided to eligible persons age 60 and older to the extent that the cost of the services together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to the person's condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Department of Human Services. The Departments of Human Services, Healthcare and Family Services, Public Health, Veterans' Affairs, and Commerce and Economic Opportunity and other appropriate agencies of State, federal and local governments shall cooperate with the Department on Aging in the establishment and development of the non-institutional services. The Department shall require an annual audit from all personal assistant and home care aide vendors contracting with the Department under this Section. The annual audit shall assure that each audited vendor's procedures are in compliance with Department's financial reporting guidelines requiring an administrative and employee wage and benefits cost split as defined in administrative rules. The audit is a public record under the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the following: (1) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (2) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 60 years of age or older shall be conducted by the Department.

As part of the Department on Aging's routine training of case managers and case manager supervisors, the Department may include information on family futures planning for persons who are age 60 or older and who are caregivers of their adult children with developmental disabilities. The content of the training shall be at the Department's discretion.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient copayment for services provided under this Section, such copayment to be based upon the recipient's ability to pay but in no case to exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Additionally, any portion of a person's income which is equal to or less than the federal poverty standard shall not be considered by the Department in determining the copayment. The level of such copayment shall be adjusted whenever necessary to reflect any change in the officially designated federal poverty standard.

The Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or , blind or who has a permanent and total disability , or permanently and totally disabled. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall increase the effectiveness of the existing Community Care Program by:

(1) ensuring that in-home services included in the care plan are available on evenings and weekends;

(2) ensuring that care plans contain the services that eligible participants need based on the number of days in a month, not limited to specific blocks of time, as identified by the comprehensive assessment tool selected by the Department for use statewide, not to exceed the total monthly service cost maximum allowed for each service; the Department shall develop administrative rules to implement this item (2);

(3) ensuring that the participants have the right to choose the services contained in their care plan and to direct how those services are provided, based on administrative rules established by the Department;

(4) ensuring that the determination of need tool is accurate in determining the participants' level of need; to achieve this, the Department, in conjunction with the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee, shall institute a study of the relationship between the Determination of Need scores, level of need, service cost maximums, and the development and utilization of service plans no later than May 1, 2008; findings and recommendations shall be presented to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than January 1, 2009; recommendations shall include all needed changes to the service cost maximums schedule and additional covered services;

(5) ensuring that homemakers can provide personal care services that may or may not involve contact with clients, including but not limited to:

(A) bathing;

(B) grooming;

(C) toileting;

(D) nail care;

(E) transferring;

(F) respiratory services;

(G) exercise; or

(H) positioning;

(6) ensuring that homemaker program vendors are not restricted from hiring homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients; the Department may not, by rule or policy, require homemakers who are family members of clients or recommended by clients to accept assignments in homes other than the client;

(7) ensuring that the State may access maximum federal matching funds by seeking approval for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for modifications to the State's home and community based services waiver and additional waiver opportunities, including applying for enrollment in the Balance Incentive Payment Program by May 1, 2013, in order to maximize federal matching funds; this shall include, but not be limited to, modification that reflects all changes in the Community Care Program services and all increases in the services cost maximum;

(8) ensuring that the determination of need tool accurately reflects the service needs of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementia disorders;

(9) ensuring that services are authorized accurately and consistently for the Community Care Program (CCP); the Department shall implement a Service Authorization policy directive; the purpose shall be to ensure that eligibility and services are authorized accurately and consistently in the CCP program; the policy directive shall clarify service authorization guidelines to Care Coordination Units and Community Care Program providers no later than May 1, 2013;

(10) working in conjunction with Care Coordination Units, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, Community Care Program providers, and other stakeholders to make improvements to the Medicaid claiming processes and the Medicaid enrollment procedures or requirements as needed, including, but not limited to, specific policy changes or rules to improve the up-front enrollment of participants in the Medicaid program and specific policy changes or rules to insure more prompt submission of bills to the federal government to secure maximum federal matching dollars as promptly as possible; the Department on Aging shall have at least 3 meetings with stakeholders by January 1, 2014 in order to address these improvements;

(11) requiring home care service providers to comply with the rounding of hours worked provisions under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) and as set forth in 29 CFR 785.48(b) by May 1, 2013;

(12) implementing any necessary policy changes or promulgating any rules, no later than January 1, 2014, to assist the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in moving as many participants as possible, consistent with federal regulations, into coordinated care plans if a care coordination plan that covers long term care is available in the recipient's area; and

(13) maintaining fiscal year 2014 rates at the same level established on January 1, 2013.

By January 1, 2009 or as soon after the end of the Cash and Counseling Demonstration Project as is practicable, the Department may, based on its evaluation of the demonstration project, promulgate rules concerning personal assistant services, to include, but need not be limited to, qualifications, employment screening, rights under fair labor standards, training, fiduciary agent, and supervision requirements. All applicants shall be subject to the provisions of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

The Department shall develop procedures to enhance availability of services on evenings, weekends, and on an emergency basis to meet the respite needs of caregivers. Procedures shall be developed to permit the utilization of services in successive blocks of 24 hours up to the monthly maximum established by the Department. Workers providing these services shall be appropriately trained.

Beginning on the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1991, no person may perform chore/housekeeping and home care aide services under a program authorized by this Section unless that person has been issued a certificate of pre-service to do so by his or her employing agency. Information gathered to effect such certification shall include (i) the person's name, (ii) the date the person was hired by his or her current employer, and (iii) the training, including dates and levels. Persons engaged in the program authorized by this Section before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991 shall be issued a certificate of all pre- and in-service training from his or her employer upon submitting the necessary information. The employing agency shall be required to retain records of all staff pre- and in-service training, and shall provide such records to the Department upon request and upon termination of the employer's contract with the Department. In addition, the employing agency is responsible for the issuance of certifications of in-service training completed to their employees.

The Department is required to develop a system to ensure that persons working as home care aides and personal assistants receive increases in their wages when the federal minimum wage is increased by requiring vendors to certify that they are meeting the federal minimum wage statute for home care aides and personal assistants. An employer that cannot ensure that the minimum wage increase is being given to home care aides and personal assistants shall be denied any increase in reimbursement costs.

The Community Care Program Advisory Committee is created in the Department on Aging. The Director shall appoint individuals to serve in the Committee, who shall serve at their own expense. Members of the Committee must abide by all applicable ethics laws. The Committee shall advise the Department on issues related to the Department's program of services to prevent unnecessary institutionalization. The Committee shall meet on a bi-monthly basis and shall serve to identify and advise the Department on present and potential issues affecting the service delivery network, the program's clients, and the Department and to recommend solution strategies. Persons appointed to the Committee shall be appointed on, but not limited to, their own and their agency's experience with the program, geographic representation, and willingness to serve. The Director shall appoint members to the Committee to represent provider, advocacy, policy research, and other constituencies committed to the delivery of high quality home and community-based services to older adults. Representatives shall be appointed to ensure representation from community care providers including, but not limited to, adult day service providers, homemaker providers, case coordination and case management units, emergency home response providers, statewide trade or labor unions that represent home care aides and direct care staff, area agencies on aging, adults over age 60, membership organizations representing older adults, and other organizational entities, providers of care, or individuals with demonstrated interest and expertise in the field of home and community care as determined by the Director.

Nominations may be presented from any agency or State association with interest in the program. The Director, or his or her designee, shall serve as the permanent co-chair of the advisory committee. One other co-chair shall be nominated and approved by the members of the committee on an annual basis. Committee members' terms of appointment shall be for 4 years with one-quarter of the appointees' terms expiring each year. A member shall continue to serve until his or her replacement is named. The Department shall fill vacancies that have a remaining term of over one year, and this replacement shall occur through the annual replacement of expiring terms. The Director shall designate Department staff to provide technical assistance and staff support to the committee. Department representation shall not constitute membership of the committee. All Committee papers, issues, recommendations, reports, and meeting memoranda are advisory only. The Director, or his or her designee, shall make a written report, as requested by the Committee, regarding issues before the Committee.

The Department on Aging and the Department of Human Services shall cooperate in the development and submission of an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. Such joint report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before September 30 each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Those persons previously found eligible for receiving non-institutional services whose services were discontinued under the Emergency Budget Act of Fiscal Year 1992, and who do not meet the eligibility standards in effect on or after July 1, 1992, shall remain ineligible on and after July 1, 1992. Those persons previously not required to cost-share and who were required to cost-share effective March 1, 1992, shall continue to meet cost-share requirements on and after July 1, 1992. Beginning July 1, 1992, all clients will be required to meet eligibility, cost-share, and other requirements and will have services discontinued or altered when they fail to meet these requirements.

For the purposes of this Section, "flexible senior services" refers to services that require one-time or periodic expenditures including, but not limited to, respite care, home modification, assistive technology, housing assistance, and transportation.

The Department shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology for the Community Care Program no later than January 1, 2014.

The Department shall require, as a condition of eligibility, enrollment in the medical assistance program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall delay Community Care Program services until an applicant is determined eligible for medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall implement co-payments for the Community Care Program at the federally allowable maximum level (i) beginning August 1, 2013, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act; or (ii) beginning June 1, 2014, if the Auditor General has reported that the Department has not undertaken the required actions listed in the report required by subsection (a) of Section 2-27 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

The Department shall provide a bi-monthly report on the progress of the Community Care Program reforms set forth in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly to the Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate.

The Department shall conduct a quarterly review of Care Coordination Unit performance and adherence to service guidelines. The quarterly review shall be reported to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate. The Department shall collect and report longitudinal data on the performance of each care coordination unit. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require the Department to identify specific care coordination units.

In regard to community care providers, failure to comply with Department on Aging policies shall be cause for disciplinary action, including, but not limited to, disqualification from serving Community Care Program clients. Each provider, upon submission of any bill or invoice to the Department for payment for services rendered, shall include a notarized statement, under penalty of perjury pursuant to Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure, that the provider has complied with all Department policies.

The Director of the Department on Aging shall make information available to the State Board of Elections as may be required by an agreement the State Board of Elections has entered into with a multi-state voter registration list maintenance system.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-8, eff. 5-3-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.03) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.03)

Sec. 4.03. The Department on Aging, in cooperation with the Department of Human Services and any other appropriate State, local or federal agency, shall, without regard to income guidelines, establish a nursing home prescreening program to determine whether Alzheimer's Disease and related disorders victims, and persons who are deemed as blind or as a person with a disability disabled as defined by the Social Security Act and who are in need of long term care, may be satisfactorily cared for in their homes through the use of home and community based services. Responsibility for prescreening shall be vested with case coordination units. Prescreening shall occur: (i) when hospital discharge planners have advised the case coordination unit of the imminent risk of nursing home placement of a patient who meets the above criteria and in advance of discharge of the patient; or (ii) when a case coordination unit has been advised of the imminent risk of nursing home placement of an individual in the community. The individual who is prescreened shall be informed of all appropriate options, including placement in a nursing home and the availability of in-home and community-based services and shall be advised of her or his right to refuse nursing home, in-home, community-based, or all services. In addition, the individual being prescreened shall be informed of spousal impoverishment requirements, the need to submit financial information to access services, and the consequences for failure to do so in a form and manner developed jointly by the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Case coordination units under contract with the Department may charge a fee for the prescreening provided under this Section and the fee shall be no greater than the cost of such services to the case coordination unit. At the time of each prescreening, case coordination units shall provide information regarding the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman's Residents Right to Know database as authorized in subsection (c-5) of Section 4.04.

(Source: P.A. 98-255, eff. 8-9-13.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.15)

Sec. 4.15. Eligibility determinations.

(a) The Department is authorized to make eligibility determinations for benefits administered by other governmental bodies based on the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act as follows:

(i) for the Secretary of State with respect to reduced fees paid by qualified vehicle owners under the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(ii) for special districts that offer free fixed route public transportation services for qualified older adults under the Local Mass Transit District Act, the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, and the Regional Transportation Authority Act; and

(iii) for special districts that offer transit services for qualified individuals with disabilities under the Local Mass Transit District Act, the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act, and the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(b) The Department shall establish the manner by which claimants shall apply for these benefits. The Department is authorized to promulgate rules regarding the following matters: the application cycle; the application process; the content for an electronic application; required personal identification information; acceptable proof of eligibility as to age, disability status, marital status, residency, and household income limits; household composition; calculating income; use of social security numbers; duration of eligibility determinations; and any other matters necessary for such administrative operations.

(c) All information received by the Department from an application or from any investigation to determine eligibility for benefits shall be confidential, except for official purposes.

(d) A person may not under any circumstances charge a fee to a claimant for assistance in completing an application form for these benefits.

(Source: P.A. 98-887, eff. 8-15-14.)

Section 110. The Illinois AgrAbility Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 235/15)

Sec. 15. Illinois AgrAbility Program established.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department, in cooperation with the University of Illinois Extension, shall contract with a non-profit disability service provider or other entity that assists farmers with disabilities disabled farmers, to establish and administer the Illinois AgrAbility Program in order to assist individuals who are engaged in farming or an agriculture-related activity and who have been affected by disability.

(b) Services provided by the Illinois AgrAbility Program shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) A toll-free information and referral hotline.

(2) The establishment of networks with local agricultural and rehabilitation professionals.

(3) The coordination of community resources.

(4) The establishment of networks with local agricultural and health care professionals to help identify individuals who may be eligible for assistance and to help identify the best method of providing that assistance.

(5) The provision of information on and assistance regarding equipment modification.

(6) Job restructuring.

(7) The provision of information on and assistance regarding the development of alternative jobs.

In order to provide these services, the Illinois AgrAbility Program shall cooperate and share resources, facilities, and employees with AgrAbility Unlimited, the University of Illinois Extension, and the Office of Rehabilitation Services of the Department of Human Services.

The costs of the program, including any related administrative expenses from the Department, may be paid from any funds specifically appropriated or otherwise available to the Department for that purpose. The Department may pay the costs of the Illinois AgrAbility program by making grants to the operating entity, by making grants directly to service providers, by paying reimbursements for services provided, or in any other appropriate manner.

(c) The Department has the power to enter into any agreements that are necessary and appropriate for the establishment, operation, and funding of the Illinois AgrAbility Program. The Department may adopt any rules that it determines necessary for the establishment, operation, and funding of the Illinois AgrAbility Program.

(Source: P.A. 94-216, eff. 7-14-05.)

Section 115. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 30-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/30-5)

Sec. 30-5. Patients' rights established.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "patient" means any person who is receiving or has received intervention, treatment or aftercare services under this Act.

(b) No patient who is receiving or who has received intervention, treatment or aftercare services under this Act shall be deprived of any rights, benefits, or privileges guaranteed by law, the Constitution of the United States of America, or the Constitution of the State of Illinois solely because of his status as a patient of a program.

(c) Persons who abuse or are dependent on alcohol or other drugs who are also suffering from medical conditions shall not be discriminated against in admission or treatment by any hospital which receives support in any form from any program supported in whole or in part by funds appropriated to any State department or agency.

(d) Every patient shall have impartial access to services without regard to race, religion, sex, ethnicity, age or disability handicap.

(e) Patients shall be permitted the free exercise of religion.

(f) Every patient's personal dignity shall be recognized in the provision of services, and a patient's personal privacy shall be assured and protected within the constraints of his individual treatment plan.

(g) Treatment services shall be provided in the least restrictive environment possible.

(h) Each patient shall be provided an individual treatment plan, which shall be periodically reviewed and updated as necessary.

(i) Every patient shall be permitted to participate in the planning of his total care and medical treatment to the extent that his condition permits.

(j) A person shall not be denied treatment solely because he has withdrawn from treatment against medical advice on a prior occasion or because he has relapsed after earlier treatment or, when in medical crisis, because of inability to pay.

(k) The patient in treatment shall be permitted visits by family and significant others, unless such visits are clinically contraindicated.

(l) A patient in treatment shall be allowed to conduct private telephone conversations with family and friends unless clinically contraindicated.

(m) A patient shall be permitted to send and receive mail without hindrance, unless clinically contraindicated.

(n) A patient shall be permitted to manage his own financial affairs unless he or his guardian, or if the patient is a minor, his parent, authorizes another competent person to do so.

(o) A patient shall be permitted to request the opinion of a consultant at his own expense, or to request an in-house review of a treatment plan, as provided in the specific procedures of the provider. A treatment provider is not liable for the negligence of any consultant.

(p) Unless otherwise prohibited by State or federal law, every patient shall be permitted to obtain from his own physician, the treatment provider or the treatment provider's consulting physician complete and current information concerning the nature of care, procedures and treatment which he will receive.

(q) A patient shall be permitted to refuse to participate in any experimental research or medical procedure without compromising his access to other, non-experimental services. Before a patient is placed in an experimental research or medical procedure, the provider must first obtain his informed written consent or otherwise comply with the federal requirements regarding the protection of human subjects contained in 45 C.F.R. Part 46.

(r) All medical treatment and procedures shall be administered as ordered by a physician. In order to assure compliance by the treatment program with all physician orders, all new physician orders shall be reviewed by the treatment program's staff within a reasonable period of time after such orders have been issued. "Medical treatment and procedures" means those services that can be ordered only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in Illinois.

(s) Every patient shall be permitted to refuse medical treatment and to know the consequences of such action. Such refusal by a patient shall free the treatment program from the obligation to provide the treatment.

(t) Unless otherwise prohibited by State or federal law, every patient, patient's guardian, or parent, if the patient is a minor, shall be permitted to inspect and copy all clinical and other records kept by the treatment program or by his physician concerning his care and maintenance. The treatment program or physician may charge a reasonable fee for the duplication of a record.

(u) No owner, licensee, administrator, employee or agent of a treatment program shall abuse or neglect a patient. It is the duty of any program employee or agent who becomes aware of such abuse or neglect to report it to the Department immediately.

(v) The administrator of a program may refuse access to the program to any person if the actions of that person while in the program are or could be injurious to the health and safety of a patient or the program, or if the person seeks access to the program for commercial purposes.

(w) A patient may be discharged from a program after he gives the administrator written notice of his desire to be discharged or upon completion of his prescribed course of treatment. No patient shall be discharged or transferred without the preparation of a post-treatment aftercare plan by the program.

(x) Patients and their families or legal guardians shall have the right to present complaints concerning the quality of care provided to the patient, without threat of discharge or reprisal in any form or manner whatsoever. The treatment provider shall have in place a mechanism for receiving and responding to such complaints, and shall inform the patient and his family or legal guardian of this mechanism and how to use it. The provider shall analyze any complaint received and, when indicated, take appropriate corrective action. Every patient and his family member or legal guardian who makes a complaint shall receive a timely response from the provider which substantively addresses the complaint. The provider shall inform the patient and his family or legal guardian about other sources of assistance if the provider has not resolved the complaint to the satisfaction of the patient or his family or legal guardian.

(y) A resident may refuse to perform labor at a program unless such labor is a part of his individual treatment program as documented in his clinical record.

(z) A person who is in need of treatment may apply for voluntary admission to a treatment program in the manner and with the rights provided for under regulations promulgated by the Department. If a person is refused admission to a licensed treatment program, the staff of the program, subject to rules promulgated by the Department, shall refer the person to another treatment or other appropriate program.

(aa) No patient shall be denied services based solely on HIV status. Further, records and information governed by the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the AIDS Confidentiality and Testing Code (77 Ill. Adm. Code 697) shall be maintained in accordance therewith.

(bb) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis or treatment of any patient maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to alcohol or other drug abuse or dependency education, early intervention, intervention, training, treatment or rehabilitation which is regulated, authorized, or directly or indirectly assisted by any Department or agency of this State or under any provision of this Act shall be confidential and may be disclosed only in accordance with the provisions of federal law and regulations concerning the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records as contained in 42 U.S.C. Sections 290dd-3 and 290ee-3 and 42 C.F.R. Part 2.

(1) The following are exempt from the confidentiality protections set forth in 42 C.F.R. Section 2.12(c):

(A) Veteran's Administration records.

(B) Information obtained by the Armed Forces.

(C) Information given to qualified service organizations.

(D) Communications within a program or between a program and an entity having direct administrative control over that program.

(E) Information given to law enforcement personnel investigating a patient's commission of a crime on the program premises or against program personnel.

(F) Reports under State law of incidents of suspected child abuse and neglect; however, confidentiality restrictions continue to apply to the records and any follow-up information for disclosure and use in civil or criminal proceedings arising from the report of suspected abuse or neglect.

(2) If the information is not exempt, a disclosure can be made only under the following circumstances:

(A) With patient consent as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(1) and 2.31, and as consistent with pertinent State law.

(B) For medical emergencies as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(2) and 2.51.

(C) For research activities as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(2) and 2.52.

(D) For audit evaluation activities as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Section 2.53.

(E) With a court order as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Sections 2.61 through 2.67.

(3) The restrictions on disclosure and use of patient information apply whether the holder of the information already has it, has other means of obtaining it, is a law enforcement or other official, has obtained a subpoena, or asserts any other justification for a disclosure or use which is not permitted by 42 C.F.R. Part 2. Any court orders authorizing disclosure of patient records under this Act must comply with the procedures and criteria set forth in 42 C.F.R. Sections 2.64 and 2.65. Except as authorized by a court order granted under this Section, no record referred to in this Section may be used to initiate or substantiate any charges against a patient or to conduct any investigation of a patient.

(4) The prohibitions of this subsection shall apply to records concerning any person who has been a patient, regardless of whether or when he ceases to be a patient.

(5) Any person who discloses the content of any record referred to in this Section except as authorized shall, upon conviction, be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(6) The Department shall prescribe regulations to carry out the purposes of this subsection. These regulations may contain such definitions, and may provide for such safeguards and procedures, including procedures and criteria for the issuance and scope of court orders, as in the judgment of the Department are necessary or proper to effectuate the purposes of this Section, to prevent circumvention or evasion thereof, or to facilitate compliance therewith.

(cc) Each patient shall be given a written explanation of all the rights enumerated in this Section. If a patient is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the patient in a language that the patient understands. A copy of all the rights enumerated in this Section shall be posted in a conspicuous place within the program where it may readily be seen and read by program patients and visitors.

(dd) The program shall ensure that its staff is familiar with and observes the rights and responsibilities enumerated in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

Section 120. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-300 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-300) (was 20 ILCS 405/67.02)

Sec. 405-300. Lease or purchase of facilities; training programs.

(a) To lease or purchase office and storage space, buildings, land, and other facilities for all State agencies, authorities, boards, commissions, departments, institutions, and bodies politic and all other administrative units or outgrowths of the executive branch of State government except the Constitutional officers, the State Board of Education and the State colleges and universities and their governing bodies. However, before leasing or purchasing any office or storage space, buildings, land or other facilities in any municipality the Department shall survey the existing State-owned and State-leased property to make a determination of need.

The leases shall be for a term not to exceed 5 years, except that the leases may contain a renewal clause subject to acceptance by the State after that date or an option to purchase. The purchases shall be made through contracts that (i) may provide for the title to the property to transfer immediately to the State or a trustee or nominee for the benefit of the State, (ii) shall provide for the consideration to be paid in installments to be made at stated intervals during a certain term not to exceed 30 years from the date of the contract, and (iii) may provide for the payment of interest on the unpaid balance at a rate that does not exceed a rate determined by adding 3 percentage points to the annual yield on United States Treasury obligations of comparable maturity as most recently published in the Wall Street Journal at the time such contract is signed. The leases and purchase contracts shall be and shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to pay the rent or purchase installments payable under the terms of the lease or purchase contract. Additionally, the purchase contract shall specify that title to the office and storage space, buildings, land, and other facilities being acquired under the contract shall revert to the Seller in the event of the failure of the General Assembly to appropriate suitable funds. However, this limitation on the term of the leases does not apply to leases to and with the Illinois Building Authority, as provided for in the Building Authority Act. Leases to and with that Authority may be entered into for a term not to exceed 30 years and shall be and shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to pay the rent payable under the terms of the lease. These limitations do not apply if the lease or purchase contract contains a provision limiting the liability for the payment of the rentals or installments thereof solely to funds received from the Federal government.

(b) To lease from an airport authority office, aircraft hangar, and service buildings constructed upon a public airport under the Airport Authorities Act for the use and occupancy of the State Department of Transportation. The lease may be entered into for a term not to exceed 30 years.

(c) To establish training programs for teaching State leasing procedures and practices to new employees of the Department and to keep all employees of the Department informed about current leasing practices and developments in the real estate industry.

(d) To enter into an agreement with a municipality or county to construct, remodel, or convert a structure for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility pursuant to paragraph (c) of Section 3-2-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) To enter into an agreement with a private individual, trust, partnership, or corporation or a municipality or other unit of local government, when authorized to do so by the Department of Corrections, whereby that individual, trust, partnership, or corporation or municipality or other unit of local government will construct, remodel, or convert a structure for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility and then lease the structure to the Department for the use of the Department of Corrections. A lease entered into pursuant to the authority granted in this subsection shall be for a term not to exceed 30 years but may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

The leases shall be and shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to pay the rent payable under the terms of the lease.

(f) On and after September 17, 1983, the powers granted to the Department under this Section shall be exercised exclusively by the Department, and no other State agency may concurrently exercise any such power unless specifically authorized otherwise by a later enacted law. This subsection is not intended to impair any contract existing as of September 17, 1983.

However, no lease for more than 10,000 square feet of space shall be executed unless the Director, in consultation with the Executive Director of the Capital Development Board, has certified that leasing is in the best interest of the State, considering programmatic requirements, availability of vacant State-owned space, the cost-benefits of purchasing or constructing new space, and other criteria as he or she shall determine. The Director shall not permit multiple leases for less than 10,000 square feet to be executed in order to evade this provision.

(g) To develop and implement, in cooperation with the Interagency Energy Conservation Committee, a system for evaluating energy consumption in facilities leased by the Department, and to develop energy consumption standards for use in evaluating prospective lease sites.

(h) (1) After June 1, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-520), the Department shall not enter into an agreement for the installment purchase or lease purchase of buildings, land, or facilities unless:

(A) the using agency certifies to the Department that the agency reasonably expects that the building, land, or facilities being considered for purchase will meet a permanent space need;

(B) the building or facilities will be substantially occupied by State agencies after purchase (or after acceptance in the case of a build to suit);

(C) the building or facilities shall be in new or like new condition and have a remaining economic life exceeding the term of the contract;

(D) no structural or other major building component or system has a remaining economic life of less than 10 years;

(E) the building, land, or facilities:

(i) is free of any identifiable environmental hazard or

(ii) is subject to a management plan, provided by the seller and acceptable to the State, to address the known environmental hazard;

(F) the building, land, or facilities satisfy applicable handicap accessibility and applicable building codes; and

(G) the State's cost to lease purchase or installment purchase the building, land, or facilities is less than the cost to lease space of comparable quality, size, and location over the lease purchase or installment purchase term.

(2) The Department shall establish the methodology for comparing lease costs to the costs of installment or lease purchases. The cost comparison shall take into account all relevant cost factors, including, but not limited to, debt service, operating and maintenance costs, insurance and risk costs, real estate taxes, reserves for replacement and repairs, security costs, and utilities. The methodology shall also provide:

(A) that the comparison will be made using level payment plans; and

(B) that a purchase price must not exceed the fair market value of the buildings, land, or facilities and that the purchase price must be substantiated by an appraisal or by a competitive selection process.

(3) If the Department intends to enter into an installment purchase or lease purchase agreement for buildings, land, or facilities under circumstances that do not satisfy the conditions specified by this Section, it must issue a notice to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House. The notice shall contain (i) specific details of the State's proposed purchase, including the amounts, purposes, and financing terms; (ii) a specific description of how the proposed purchase varies from the procedures set forth in this Section; and (iii) a specific justification, signed by the Director, stating why it is in the State's best interests to proceed with the purchase. The Department may not proceed with such an installment purchase or lease purchase agreement if, within 60 calendar days after delivery of the notice, the General Assembly, by joint resolution, disapproves the transaction. Delivery may take place on a day and at an hour when the Senate and House are not in session so long as the offices of Secretary and Clerk are open to receive the notice. In determining the 60-day period within which the General Assembly must act, the day on which delivery is made to the Senate and House shall not be counted. If delivery of the notice to the 2 houses occurs on different days, the 60-day period shall begin on the day following the later delivery.

(4) On or before February 15 of each year, the Department shall submit an annual report to the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the General Assembly regarding installment purchases or lease purchases of buildings, land, or facilities that were entered into during the preceding calendar year. The report shall include a summary statement of the aggregate amount of the State's obligations under those purchases; specific details pertaining to each purchase, including the amounts, purposes, and financing terms and payment schedule for each purchase; and any other matter that the Department deems advisable.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Auditor General, the Speaker, the Minority Leader, and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader, and the Secretary of the Senate, the Chairs of the Appropriations Committees, and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06.)

Section 125. The Federal Surplus Property Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 430/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 176d2)

Sec. 2. Authority and Duties of the State Agency for Federal Surplus Property.

(a) The State Agency for Federal Surplus Property is hereby authorized and empowered (1) to acquire from the United States of America under and in conformance with the provisions of paragraph (j) of Section 203 of the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949, as amended, hereinafter referred to as the "Federal Act", such property, including equipment, materials, books, or other supplies under the control of any department or agency of the United States of America as may be useable and necessary for distribution to any public agency for use in carrying out or promoting for the residents of a given political area one or more public purposes, such as conservation, economic development, education, parks and recreation, public health, and public safety; or to nonprofit educational or public health institutions or organizations, such as medical institutions, hospitals, clinics, health centers, schools, colleges, universities, schools for persons with physical disabilities the physically handicapped, child care centers, radio and television stations licensed by the Federal Communications Commission as educational radio or educational television stations, museums attended by the public, and libraries serving free all residents of a community, district, State, or region, which are exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, for purposes of education or public health, including research for any such purpose; and for such other purposes as may now or hereafter be authorized by Federal law; (2) to warehouse such property; or if so requested by the recipient, to arrange shipment of that property, when acquired, directly to the recipient.

(b) The State Agency for Federal Surplus Property is hereby authorized to receive applications from eligible health and educational institutions for the acquisition of Federal surplus real property, investigate the same, obtain expression of views respecting such applications from the appropriate health or educational authorities of the State, make recommendations regarding the need of such applicant for the property, the merits of its proposed program of utilization, the suitability of the property for such purposes, and otherwise assist in the processing of such applications for acquisition of real and related personal property of the United States under paragraph (k) of Section 203 of the Federal Act.

(c) For the purpose of executing its authority under this Act, the State Agency for Federal Surplus Property is authorized and empowered to adopt, amend, or rescind such rules and regulations and prescribe such requirements as may be deemed necessary; and take such other action as is deemed necessary and suitable, in the administration of this Act, and to provide for the fair and equitable distribution of property within the State based on the relative needs and resources of interested public agencies and other eligible institutions within the State and their abilities to utilize the property.

(d) The State Agency for Federal Surplus Property is authorized and empowered to make such certifications, take such action, make such expenditures, require such reports and make such investigations as may be required by law or regulation of the United States of America in connection with the disposal of real property and the receipt, warehousing, and distribution of personal property received by the State Agency for Federal Surplus Property from the United States of America and to enter into contracts, agreements and undertakings for and in the name of the State (including cooperative agreements with any Federal agencies providing for utilization by and exchange between them, without reimbursement, of the property, facilities, personnel and services of each by the other, and agreements with other State Agencies for Federal Surplus Property and with associations or groups of such State Agencies.)

(e) The State Agency for Federal Surplus Property is authorized and empowered to act as a clearing house of information for the public and private nonprofit institutions, organizations and agencies referred to in subparagraph (3) of Section 2 of this Act and other institutions eligible to acquire Federal surplus real property, to locate both real and personal property available for acquisition from the United States of America, to ascertain the terms and conditions under which such property may be obtained, to receive requests from the above mentioned institutions, organizations and agencies and to transmit to them all available information in reference to such property, and to aid and assist such institutions, organizations and agencies in every way possible in the consummation of acquisitions or transactions hereunder.

(f) The State Agency for Federal Surplus Property, in the administration of this Act, shall cooperate to the fullest extent consistent with the provisions of the Federal Act, with the Administrator of the General Services Administration and shall file a State plan of operation, operate in accordance therewith, and take such action as may be necessary to meet the minimum standards prescribed in accordance with the Federal Act, and make such reports in such form and containing such information as the United States of America or any of its departments or agencies may from time to time require, and it shall comply with the laws of the United States of America and the rules and regulations of any of the departments or agencies of the United States of America governing the allocation, transfer and use of, or account for, property donable or donated to eligible donees in the State.

(Source: P.A. 81-1509.)

Section 130. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 7, 12.1, and 12.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for professional evaluation.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a ward and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the ward, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such ward. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or physically or mentally handicapped, older and other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were legal wards of the Department or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were wards of the Department for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10 day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a ward who was placed under the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Children who are wards of the Department and are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those children are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall insure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts wards of the Department for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) There is hereby created the Department of Children and Family Services Emergency Assistance Fund from which the Department may provide special financial assistance to families which are in economic crisis when such assistance is not available through other public or private sources and the assistance is deemed necessary to prevent dissolution of the family unit or to reunite families which have been separated due to child abuse and neglect. The Department shall establish administrative rules specifying the criteria for determining eligibility for and the amount and nature of assistance to be provided. The Department may also enter into written agreements with private and public social service agencies to provide emergency financial services to families referred by the Department. Special financial assistance payments shall be available to a family no more than once during each fiscal year and the total payments to a family may not exceed $500 during a fiscal year.

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place or handicapped child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a ward turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Department of State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-249, eff. 1-1-14; 98-570, eff. 8-27-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-803, eff. 1-1-15.)

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place the child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(a-5) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall place the child with the child's sibling or siblings under Section 7.4 of this Act unless the placement is not in each child's best interest, or is otherwise not possible under the Department's rules. If the child is not placed with a sibling under the Department's rules, the Department shall consider placements that are likely to develop, preserve, nurture, and support sibling relationships, where doing so is in each child's best interest.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department determines that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare based on the factors set forth in the Department's rules governing relative placements, and that the placement is consistent with the child's best interests, taking into consideration the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

When the Department first assumes custody of a child, in placing that child under this Act, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to identify and locate a relative who is ready, willing, and able to care for the child. At a minimum, these efforts shall be renewed each time the child requires a placement change and it is appropriate for the child to be cared for in a home environment. The Department must document its efforts to identify and locate such a relative placement and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that a placement with any identified relative is not in the child's best interests or that the relative does not meet the requirements to be a relative caregiver, as set forth in Department rules or by statute, the Department must document the basis for that decision and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If, pursuant to the Department's rules, any person files an administrative appeal of the Department's decision not to place a child with a relative, it is the Department's burden to prove that the decision is consistent with the child's best interests.

When the Department determines that the child requires placement in an environment, other than a home environment, the Department shall continue to make reasonable efforts to identify and locate relatives to serve as visitation resources for the child and potential future placement resources, except when the Department determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests.

If the Department determines that efforts to identify and locate relatives would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are inappropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

When the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are appropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible future placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination, maintain the documentation in the child's case file, create a visitation or transition plan, or both, and incorporate the visitation or transition plan, or both, into the child's case plan. For the purpose of this subsection, any determination as to the child's best interests shall include consideration of the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; or (iv) is a fictive kin; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department, a "relative" may also include any person who would have qualified as a relative under this paragraph prior to the adoption, but only if the Department determines, and documents, that it would be in the child's best interests to consider this person a relative, based upon the factors for determining best interests set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision under this subsection to the contrary, a fictive kin with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection shall apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin. The Department shall not remove a child from the home of a fictive kin on the basis that the fictive kin fails to apply for licensure within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin, or fails to meet the standard for licensure. All other requirements established under the rules and procedures of the Department concerning the placement of a child, for whom the Department is legally responsible, with a relative shall apply. By June 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules establishing criteria and standards for placement, identification, and licensure of fictive kin.

For purposes of this subsection, "fictive kin" means any individual, unrelated by birth or marriage, who is shown to have close personal or emotional ties with the child or the child's family prior to the child's placement with the individual.

The provisions added to this subsection (b) by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall become operative on and after June 1, 2015.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In rejecting placement of a child with an identified relative, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In evaluating the best interests of the child, the Department shall take into consideration the factors set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-846, eff. 1-1-15.)

(20 ILCS 505/12.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5012.1)

Sec. 12.1. To cooperate with the State Board of Education and the Department of Human Services in a program to provide for the placement, supervision and foster care of children with disabilities handicaps who must leave their home community in order to attend schools offering programs in special education.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(20 ILCS 505/12.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5012.2)

Sec. 12.2. To cooperate with the Department of Human Services in any programs or projects regarding the care and education of handicapped children with disabilities, particularly in relation to the institutions under the administration of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

Section 140. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 9.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/9.2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 615)

Sec. 9.2. Exemptions from Regulatory Relaxation. (a) Section 9 and subsection (a) of Section 9.1 do not apply to rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to:

(i) the "Environmental Protection Act";

(ii) the "Illinois Historic Preservation Act";

(iii) the "Illinois Human Rights Act";

(iv) any successor acts to any of the foregoing; or

(v) any other acts whose purpose is the protection of the environment, the preservation of historic places and landmarks, or the protection of persons against discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, marital status, national origin or physical or mental disability handicap.

(b) No exemption, modification or alternative to any agency rule or regulation promulgated under Section 9 or 9.1 shall be effective which

(i) presents a significant risk to the health or safety of persons resident in or employed within an Enterprise Zone;

(ii) would conflict with federal law or regulation such that the state, or any unit of local government or school district, or any area of the state other than Enterprise Zones, or any business enterprise located outside of an Enterprise Zone would be disqualified from a federal program or from federal tax or other benefits;

(iii) would suspend or modify an agency rule or regulation mandated by law; or

(iv) would eliminate or reduce benefits to individuals who are residents of or employed within a Zone.

(Source: P.A. 82-1019.)

Section 145. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-305 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-305) (was 20 ILCS 805/63a23)

Sec. 805-305. Campsites and housing facilities. The Department has the power to provide facilities for overnight tent and trailer camp sites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Department of Natural Resources may regulate, by administrative order, the fees to be charged for tent and trailer camping units at individual park areas based upon the facilities available. However, for campsites with access to showers or electricity, any Illinois resident who is age 62 or older or has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act shall be charged only one-half of the camping fee charged to the general public during the period Monday through Thursday of any week and shall be charged the same camping fee as the general public on all other days. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is age 62 or older for the use of a camp site unit during the period Monday through Thursday of any week. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is a veteran with a disability disabled veteran or a former prisoner of war, as defined in Section 5 of the Department of Veterans Affairs Act. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois after returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States as an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces, the Illinois National Guard, or the Reserves of the United States Armed Forces for the amount of time that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized if the person (i) applies for a pass at the Department office in Springfield within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department or (ii) applies for a pass at a Regional Office of the Department within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department; any portion of a year that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized shall count as a full year. Nonresidents shall be charged the same fees as are authorized for the general public regardless of age. The Department shall provide by regulation for suitable proof of age, or either a valid driver's license or a "Golden Age Passport" issued by the federal government shall be acceptable as proof of age. The Department shall further provide by regulation that notice of these reduced admission fees be posted in a conspicuous place and manner.

Reduced fees authorized in this Section shall not apply to any charge for utility service.

For the purposes of this Section, "acceptable verification of service or mobilization" means official documentation from the Department of Defense or the appropriate Major Command showing mobilization dates or service abroad dates, including: (i) a DD-214, (ii) a letter from the Illinois Department of Military Affairs for members of the Illinois National Guard, (iii) a letter from the Regional Reserve Command for members of the Armed Forces Reserve, (iv) a letter from the Major Command covering Illinois for active duty members, (v) personnel records for mobilized State employees, and (vi) any other documentation that the Department, by administrative rule, deems acceptable to establish dates of mobilization or service abroad.

For the purposes of this Section, the term "service abroad" means active duty service outside of the 50 United States and the District of Columbia, and includes all active duty service in territories and possessions of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 96-1014, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 150. The State Parks Act is amended by changing Section 4a as follows:

(20 ILCS 835/4a) (from Ch. 105, par. 468.1)

Sec. 4a. It shall be the duty of the Governor and the Director of the Department in charge of the administration of this Act to cancel immediately the lease on any concession when the person holding the concession or an employee thereof discriminates on the basis of race, color, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap, or national origin against any patron thereof.

(Source: P.A. 80-344.)

Section 155. The Recreational Trails of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 34 as follows:

(20 ILCS 862/34)

Sec. 34. Exception from display of Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamps. The operator of an off-highway vehicle shall not be required to display an Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamp if the off-highway vehicle is:

(1) owned and used by the United States, the State of Illinois, another state, or a political subdivision thereof, but these off-highway vehicles shall prominently display the name of the owner on the off-highway vehicle;

(2) operated on lands where the operator, his or her immediate family, or both are the sole owners of the land; this exception shall not apply to clubs, associations, or lands leased for hunting or recreational purposes;

(3) used only on local, national, or international competition circuits in events for which written permission has been obtained by the sponsoring or sanctioning body from the governmental unit having jurisdiction over the location of any event held in this State;

(4) (blank);

(5) used on an off-highway vehicle grant assisted site and the off-highway vehicle displays a Off-Highway Vehicle Access decal;

(6) used in conjunction with a bona fide commercial business, including, but not limited to, agricultural and livestock production;

(7) a golf cart, regardless of whether the golf cart is currently being used for golfing purposes;

(8) displaying a valid motor vehicle registration issued by the Secretary of State or any other state;

(9) operated by an individual who either possesses an Illinois Identification Card issued to the operator by the Secretary of State that lists a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability or an original or photocopy of a valid motor vehicle disability placard issued to the operator by the Secretary of State, or is assisting a person with a disability who has disabled person with a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability while using the same off-highway vehicle as the individual with a disability disabled individual; or

(10) used only at commercial riding parks.

For the purposes of this Section, "golf cart" means a machine specifically designed for the purposes of transporting one or more persons and their golf clubs.

For the purposes of this Section, "local, national, or international competition circuit" means any competition circuit sponsored or sanctioned by an international, national, or state organization, including, but not limited to, the American Motorcyclist Association, or sponsored, sanctioned, or both by an affiliate organization of an international, national, or state organization which sanctions competitions, including trials or practices leading up to or in connection with those competitions.

For the purposes of this Section, "commercial riding parks" mean commercial properties used for the recreational operation of off-highway vehicles by the paying members of the park or paying guests.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-820, eff. 8-1-14.)

Section 160. The Department of Employment Security Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1005-155 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1005/1005-155)

Sec. 1005-155. Illinois Employment and Training Centers report. The Department of Employment Security, or the State agency responsible for the oversight of the federal Workforce Investment Act of 1998 if that agency is not the Department of Employment Security, shall prepare a report for the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the progress of the Illinois Employment and Training Centers in serving individuals with disabilities. The report must include, but is not limited to, the following: (i) the number of individuals referred to the Illinois Employment and Training Centers by the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services; (ii) the total number of individuals with disabilities disabled individuals served by the Illinois Employment and Training Centers; (iii) the number of individuals with disabilities disabled individuals served in federal Workforce Investment Act of 1998 employment and training programs; (iv) the number of individuals with disabilities annually placed in jobs by the Illinois Employment and Training Centers; and (v) the number of individuals with disabilities referred by the Illinois Employment and Training Centers to the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services. The report is due by December 31, 2004 based on the previous State program year of July 1 through June 30, and is due annually thereafter. "Individuals with disabilities" are defined as those who self-report as being qualified as disabled under the 1973 Rehabilitation Act or the 1990 Americans with Disabilities Act, for the purposes of this Law.

(Source: P.A. 93-639, eff. 6-1-04.)

Section 165. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1-17 and 10-40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmentally disabled" means having a developmental disability.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health care worker registry" or "registry" means the health care worker registry created by the Nursing Home Care Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health care worker registry.

(1) Reporting to the registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's health care worker registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the registry.

(6) Removal from registry. At any time after the report to the registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving health care worker registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to a patient in contravention of that patient's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the patient's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to a patient be considered abuse under this Section if the patient has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-711, eff. 7-16-14.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-40)

Sec. 10-40. Recreational programs; persons with disabilities handicapped; grants. The Department of Human Services, subject to appropriation, may make grants to special recreation associations for the operation of recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped, including both persons with physical disabilities and persons with mental disabilities physically and mentally handicapped, and transportation to and from those programs. The grants should target unserved or underserved populations, such as persons with brain injuries, persons who are medically fragile, and adults who have acquired disabling conditions. The Department must adopt rules to implement the grant program.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 170. The Illinois Guaranteed Job Opportunity Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1510/50)

Sec. 50. Nondiscrimination.

(a) General rule.

(1) Discrimination on the basis of age, on the basis of physical or mental disability handicap, on the basis of sex, or on the basis of race, color, or national origin is prohibited.

(2) No individual shall be excluded from participation in, denied the benefits of, subjected to discrimination under, or denied employment in the administration of or in connection with any project because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, physical or mental disability handicap, or political affiliation or belief.

(3) (Blank).

(4) With respect to terms and conditions affecting, or rights provided to, individuals who are participants in activities supported by funds provided under this Act, the individuals shall not be discriminated against solely because of their status as the participants.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 93-46, eff. 7-1-03.)

Section 175. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, 7, 7.2, 11.2, 14, 15b, 15.4, 18.2, 21.2, 33.3, 43, 46, 54.5, and 66 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-2)

Sec. 2. Definitions; administrative subdivisions.

(a) For the purposes of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Department" means the Department of Human Services, successor to the former Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

(b) Unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) References in this Act to the programs or facilities of the Department shall be construed to refer only to those programs or facilities of the Department that pertain to mental health or developmental disabilities.

(2) References in this Act to the Department's service providers or service recipients shall be construed to refer only to providers or recipients of services that pertain to the Department's mental health and developmental disabilities functions.

(3) References in this Act to employees of the Department shall be construed to refer only to employees whose duties pertain to the Department's mental health and developmental disabilities functions.

(c) The Secretary shall establish such subdivisions of the Department as shall be desirable and shall assign to the various subdivisions the responsibilities and duties placed upon the Department by the Laws of the State of Illinois.

(d) There is established a coordinator of services to deaf and hearing impaired persons with mental disabilities mentally disabled deaf and hearing impaired persons. In hiring this coordinator, every consideration shall be given to qualified deaf or hearing impaired individuals.

(e) Whenever the administrative director of the subdivision for mental health services is not a board-certified psychiatrist, the Secretary shall appoint a Chief for Clinical Services who shall be a board-certified psychiatrist with both clinical and administrative experience. The Chief for Clinical Services shall be responsible for all clinical and medical decisions for mental health services.

(Source: P.A. 91-536, eff. 1-1-00.)

(20 ILCS 1705/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-4)

Sec. 4. Supervision of facilities and services; quarterly reports.

(a) To exercise executive and administrative supervision over all facilities, divisions, programs and services now existing or hereafter acquired or created under the jurisdiction of the Department, including, but not limited to, the following:

The Alton Mental Health Center, at Alton

The Clyde L. Choate Mental Health and Developmental Center, at Anna

The Chester Mental Health Center, at Chester

The Chicago-Read Mental Health Center, at Chicago

The Elgin Mental Health Center, at Elgin

The Metropolitan Children and Adolescents Center, at Chicago

The Jacksonville Developmental Center, at Jacksonville

The Governor Samuel H. Shapiro Developmental Center, at Kankakee

The Tinley Park Mental Health Center, at Tinley Park

The Warren G. Murray Developmental Center, at Centralia

The Jack Mabley Developmental Center, at Dixon

The Lincoln Developmental Center, at Lincoln

The H. Douglas Singer Mental Health and Developmental Center, at Rockford

The John J. Madden Mental Health Center, at Chicago

The George A. Zeller Mental Health Center, at Peoria

The Andrew McFarland Mental Health Center, at Springfield

The Adolf Meyer Mental Health Center, at Decatur

The William W. Fox Developmental Center, at Dwight

The Elisabeth Ludeman Developmental Center, at Park Forest

The William A. Howe Developmental Center, at Tinley Park

The Ann M. Kiley Developmental Center, at Waukegan.

(b) Beginning not later than July 1, 1977, the Department shall cause each of the facilities under its jurisdiction which provide in-patient care to comply with standards, rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health prescribed under Section 6.05 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

(b-5) The Department shall cause each of the facilities under its jurisdiction that provide in-patient care to comply with Section 6.25 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

(c) The Department shall issue quarterly reports on admissions, deflections, discharges, bed closures, staff-resident ratios, census, average length of stay, and any adverse federal certification or accreditation findings, if any, for each State-operated facility for the mentally ill and for persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10.)

(20 ILCS 1705/7) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-7)

Sec. 7. To receive and provide the highest possible quality of humane and rehabilitative care and treatment to all persons admitted or committed or transferred in accordance with law to the facilities, divisions, programs, and services under the jurisdiction of the Department. No resident of another state shall be received or retained to the exclusion of any resident of this State. No resident of another state shall be received or retained to the exclusion of any resident of this State. All recipients of 17 years of age and under in residence in a Department facility other than a facility for the care of persons with intellectual disabilities the intellectually disabled shall be housed in quarters separated from older recipients except for: (a) recipients who are placed in medical-surgical units because of physical illness; and (b) recipients between 13 and 18 years of age who need temporary security measures.

All recipients in a Department facility shall be given a dental examination by a licensed dentist or registered dental hygienist at least once every 18 months and shall be assigned to a dentist for such dental care and treatment as is necessary.

All medications administered to recipients shall be administered only by those persons who are legally qualified to do so by the laws of the State of Illinois. Medication shall not be prescribed until a physical and mental examination of the recipient has been completed. If, in the clinical judgment of a physician, it is necessary to administer medication to a recipient before the completion of the physical and mental examination, he may prescribe such medication but he must file a report with the facility director setting forth the reasons for prescribing such medication within 24 hours of the prescription. A copy of the report shall be part of the recipient's record.

No later than January 1, 2005, the Department shall adopt a model protocol and forms for recording all patient diagnosis, care, and treatment at each State-operated facility for the mentally ill and for persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled under the jurisdiction of the Department. The model protocol and forms shall be used by each facility unless the Department determines that equivalent alternatives justify an exemption.

Every facility under the jurisdiction of the Department shall maintain a copy of each report of suspected abuse or neglect of the patient. Copies of those reports shall be made available to the State Auditor General in connection with his biennial program audit of the facility as required by Section 3-2 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.

No later than January 1 2004, the Department shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly whether each State-operated facility for the mentally ill and for persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled under the jurisdiction of the Department and all services provided in those facilities comply with all of the applicable standards adopted by the Social Security Administration under Subchapter XVIII (Medicare) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ccc), if the facility and services may be eligible for federal financial participation under that federal law. For those facilities that do comply, the report shall indicate what actions need to be taken to ensure continued compliance. For those facilities that do not comply, the report shall indicate what actions need to be taken to bring each facility into compliance.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(20 ILCS 1705/7.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-7.2)

Sec. 7.2. No otherwise qualified child with a disability handicapped child receiving special education and related services under Article 14 of The School Code shall solely by reason of his or her disability handicap be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 80-1403.)

(20 ILCS 1705/11.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-11.2)

Sec. 11.2. To maintain and operate the Bureau for Mentally Ill Children and Adolescents and the Bureau for Children and Adolescents with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Children and Adolescents. Each Bureau shall:

(a) develop the Department policies necessary to assure a coherent services system for, and develop and coordinate planning on a Statewide basis for delivery of services to, children or adolescents with mental illness and children and adolescents with a developmental disability, including:

(1) assessment of the need for various types of programs, such as prevention, diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation, and

(2) design of a system to integrate additional services, including service alternatives;

(b) provide consultation and technical assistance to the appropriate Department subdivisions and coordinate service planning and development efforts for children and adolescents with a developmental disability and children or adolescents with mental illness;

(c) develop cooperative programs with community service providers and other State agencies which serve children;

(d) assist families in the placement of children with mental illness, as specified in Section 7.1; and

(e) develop minimum standards for the operation of both State-provided and contracted community-based services for promulgation as rules.

(Source: P.A. 88-380.)

(20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)

Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and operate a facility for the care, custody, and treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities hereinafter designated, to be known as the Chester Mental Health Center.

Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be confined the following classes of persons, whose history, in the opinion of the Department, discloses dangerous or violent tendencies and who, upon examination under the direction of the Department, have been found a fit subject for confinement in that facility:

(a) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as provided in Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Any male person with mental illness or developmental disabilities or person in need of mental treatment now confined under the supervision of the Department or hereafter admitted to any facility thereof or committed thereto by any court of competent jurisdiction.

If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center that it is necessary to confine persons in order to maintain security or provide for the protection and safety of recipients and staff, the Chester Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their rooms. This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in a 24 hour period, including the recipient's scheduled hours of sleep, unless approved by the Secretary of the Department. During the period of confinement, the persons confined shall be observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall be kept of the observations. This confinement shall not be considered seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for a period not to exceed 10 minutes when necessary in the course of transport of the recipient within the facility to maintain custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing each instance in which handcuffs are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs, and time of application of handcuffs and time of release therefrom. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to examine and copy such record upon request.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or security. The decision whether to use any transport devices shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a physician based upon a determination of the civil recipient's: (1) history of violence, (2) history of violence during transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, (4) history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience during similar transports, and the length, duration, and purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport device consistent with the individual's need shall be used. Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing all transports, including those transports for which use of transport devices was not sought, those for which use of transport devices was sought but denied, and each instance in which transport devices are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of transport devices, time of application of transport devices, time of release from those devices, and any adverse events. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to examine and copy the record upon request. This use of transport devices shall not be considered restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. For the purpose of this Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs, handcuffs, waist chains or wrist-waist devices designed to restrict an individual's range of motion while being transported. These devices must be approved by the Division of Mental Health, used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, and used only by qualified staff members who have completed all training required to be eligible to transport patients and all other required training relating to the safe use and application of transport devices, including recognizing and responding to signs of distress in an individual whose movement is being restricted by a transport device.

If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the Department that any person confined in the Chester Mental Health Center is not or has ceased to be such a source of danger to the public as to require his subjection to the regimen of the center, the Department is hereby authorized to transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, as the nature of the individual case may require.

Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department, except where otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to the management, conduct and control of the Chester Mental Health Center and the discipline, custody and treatment of the persons confined therein, have and exercise the same rights and powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, and the recipients thereof, and shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by law upon the Department with respect to such facilities and the recipients thereof.

The Department may elect to place persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(20 ILCS 1705/15b) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15b)

Sec. 15b. For recipients awaiting conditional discharge or placement, to execute any document relating to or make any application for any benefit including state or federal on behalf of any recipient in a Department program if the recipient is a person with a mental disability and is unable to mentally disabled to manage his own affairs.

(Source: P.A. 86-922.)

(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)

Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit direct care staff to administer medications.

(a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii) all intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the Department of Public Health. The Department of Human Services shall develop a training program for authorized direct care staff to administer medications under the supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse. This training program shall be developed in consultation with professional associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons who have successfully completed a medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is specific to an individual receiving service in a specific agency and does not transfer to another agency.

"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged specifically for an identified individual.

"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered by a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a Department-approved advanced training program specific to insulin administration developed in consultation with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed to do so by the registered nurse.

"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer program provided by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a Department of Human Services master nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of supervising those administering medications.

"Self-administration of medications" means an individual administers his or her own medications. To be considered capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by size, shape, or color, know when they should take the medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each time.

"Training program" means a standardized medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview, including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized competency-based evaluations on administration of medications and self-administration of medication training programs.

(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this subsection.

(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the following for each individual to whom medication will be administered by non-licensed direct care staff:

(A) An assessment of the individual's health history and physical and mental status.

(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.

(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall meet the following criteria:

(A) Be 18 years of age or older.

(B) Have completed high school or have a high school equivalency certificate.

(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.

(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and Safety component of a Department of Human Services authorized direct care staff training program.

(E) Have successfully completed the training program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive exam, and score 100% on the competency-based assessment specific to the individual and his or her medications.

(F) Have received additional competency-based assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication occurs or a new individual that requires medication administration enters the program.

(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct care staff to administer medication.

(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care staff is no longer competent to administer medication.

(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an individual's health status at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse.

(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the following requirements:

(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for each individual to attain the highest possible level of independent functioning, all individuals shall be permitted to participate in their total health care program. This program shall include, but not be limited to, individual training in preventive health and self-medication procedures.

(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining preventative health and self-medication skills in consultation with a registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer through the use of the Department's required, standardized screening and assessment instruments.

(C) When the results of the screening and assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to self-administer his or her own medications, programs shall be developed in consultation with the Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide individuals with self-medication administration.

(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent to self-administer medications if:

(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; and

(B) approved to self-administer medication by the individual's Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse.

(e) Quality Assurance.

(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all individuals:

(A) Medication orders.

(B) Medication labels, including medications listed on the medication administration record for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the labels match the orders issued by the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.

(C) Medication administration records for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records are completed appropriately for:

(i) medication administered as prescribed;

(ii) refusal by the individual; and

(iii) full signatures provided for all initials used.

(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be done more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse or advanced practice nurse.

(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and data collection for the purpose of monitoring and recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7 days and included in the required annual review.

(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to administer medications are responsible for documenting and maintaining records on the training that is completed.

(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be given additional education and testing to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training and testing required by this Section may be grounds for immediate dismissal.

(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to administer medication shall be subject to suspension or discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or omissions when performing the functions unless the staff person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede paragraph (4) of subsection (c).

(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at all times in any program covered by this Section.

(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.

(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be granted consideration for a one-time additional salary differential. The Department shall determine and provide the necessary funding for the differential in the base. This subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(20 ILCS 1705/18.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-18.2)

Sec. 18.2. Integrated system for services for persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled. The Department shall develop an effective, integrated system for delivering State-funded and State-operated services to persons with developmental disabilities. No later than June 30, 1993, the Department shall enter into one or more co-operative arrangements with the Department of Public Aid, the Department of Rehabilitation Services, the Department of Public Health, and any other appropriate entities for administration or supervision by the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities of all State programs for services to persons in community care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities, including but not limited to intermediate care facilities, that are supported by State funds or by funding under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act. The Department of Human Services shall succeed to the responsibilities of the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities and the Department of Rehabilitation Services under any such cooperative arrangement in existence on July 1, 1997.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(20 ILCS 1705/21.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-21.2)

Sec. 21.2. The Fund for Persons with Developmental Disabilities the Developmentally Disabled, heretofore created as a special fund in the State Treasury under repealed Section 5-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, is continued under this Section. The Secretary may accept moneys from any source for deposit into the Fund. The moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, for the purpose of providing for the care, support and treatment of low-income persons with a developmental disability, or low-income persons otherwise eligible for Department services, as defined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(20 ILCS 1705/33.3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-33.3)

Sec. 33.3. (a) The Department may develop an annual plan for staff training. The plan shall establish minimum training objectives and time frames and shall be based on the assessment of needs of direct treatment staff. The plan shall be developed using comments from employee representative organizations and State and national professional and advocacy groups. The training plan shall be available for public review and comment.

(b) A centralized pre-service training curriculum shall be developed for classifications of employees of State-operated facilities who have responsibility for direct patient care and whose professional training and experience does not substantially include the minimum training required under this Section, as determined by the Department. The plan shall address, at a minimum, the following areas:

(1) Crisis intervention;

(2) Communication (interpersonal theory, active listening and observing);

(3) Group process and group dynamics;

(4) Diagnosis, management, treatment and discharge planning;

(5) Psychotherapeutic and psychopharmacological psychosocial approaches;

(6) Community resources;

(7) Specialized skills for: long-term treatment, teaching activities of daily living skills (e.g., grooming), psychosocial rehabilitation, and schizophrenia and the aged, dual-diagnosed, young, and chronic;

(8) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(9) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act;

(10) Physical intervention techniques;

(11) Aggression management;

(12) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(13) Social assessment training;

(14) Suicide prevention and intervention;

(15) Tardive dyskinesia;

(16) Fire safety;

(17) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS);

(18) Toxic substances;

(19) The detection and reporting of suspected recipient abuse and neglect; and

(20) Methods of avoiding or reducing injuries in connection with delivery of services.

(c) Each program shall establish a unit-specific orientation which details the types of patients served, rules, treatment strategies, response to medical emergencies, policies and procedures, seclusion, restraint for special need recipients, and community resources.

(d) The plan shall provide for in-service and any other necessary training for direct service staff and shall include a system for verification of completion. Pre-service training shall be completed within 6 months after beginning employment, as a condition of continued employment and as a prerequisite to contact with recipients of services, except in the course of supervised on-the-job training that may be a component of the training plan. The plan may also require additional training in relation to changes in employee work assignments and job classifications of professional and direct service staff.

Direct care staff shall be trained in methods of communicating with recipients who are not verbal, including discerning signs of discomfort or medical problems experienced by a recipient. Facility administrators also shall receive such training, to ensure that facility operations are adapted to the needs of recipients with mental disabilities mentally disabled recipients.

(e) To facilitate training, the Department may develop at least 2 training offices, one serving State-operated facilities located in the Chicago metropolitan area and the second serving other facilities operated by the Department. These offices shall develop and conduct the pre-service and in-service training programs required by this Section and coordinate other training required by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(20 ILCS 1705/43) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-43)

Sec. 43. To provide habilitation and care for persons with an intellectual disability the intellectually disabled and persons with a developmental disability and counseling for their families in accordance with programs established and conducted by the Department.

In assisting families to place such persons in need of care in licensed facilities for persons with an intellectual disability the intellectually disabled and persons with a developmental disability, the Department may supplement the amount a family is able to pay, as determined by the Department in accordance with Sections 5-105 through 5-116 of the "Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code" as amended, and the amount available from other sources. The Department shall have the authority to determine eligibility for placement of a person in a private facility.

Whenever a person with an intellectual disability an intellectually disabled person or a client is placed in a private facility pursuant to this Section, such private facility must give the Department and the person's guardian or nearest relative, at least 30 days' notice in writing before such person may be discharged or transferred from the private facility, except in an emergency.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(20 ILCS 1705/46) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-46)

Sec. 46. Separation between the sexes shall be maintained relative to sleeping quarters in each facility under the jurisdiction of the Department, except in relation to quarters for children with intellectual disabilities intellectually disabled children under age 6 and quarters for persons with intellectual disabilities that are severely-profound severely-profoundly intellectually disabled persons and nonambulatory persons with intellectual disabilities nonambulatory intellectually disabled persons, regardless of age.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(20 ILCS 1705/54.5)

Sec. 54.5. Community care for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled quality workforce initiative.

(a) Legislative intent. Individuals with developmental disabilities who live in community-based settings rely on direct support staff for a variety of supports and services essential to the ability to reach their full potential. A stable, well-trained direct support workforce is critical to the well-being of these individuals. State and national studies have documented high rates of turnover among direct support workers and confirmed that improvements in wages can help reduce turnover and develop a more stable and committed workforce. This Section would increase the wages and benefits for direct care workers supporting individuals with developmental disabilities and provide accountability by ensuring that additional resources go directly to these workers.

(b) Reimbursement. In order to attract and retain a stable, qualified, and healthy workforce, beginning July 1, 2010, the Department of Human Services may reimburse an individual community service provider serving individuals with developmental disabilities for spending incurred to provide improved wages and benefits to its employees serving individuals with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled individuals. Reimbursement shall be based upon the provider's most recent cost report. Subject to available appropriations, this reimbursement shall be made according to the following criteria:

(1) The Department shall reimburse the provider to compensate for spending on improved wages and benefits for its eligible employees. Eligible employees include employees engaged in direct care work.

(2) In order to qualify for reimbursement under this Section, a provider must submit to the Department, before January 1 of each year, documentation of a written, legally binding commitment to increase spending for the purpose of providing improved wages and benefits to its eligible employees during the next year. The commitment must be binding as to both existing and future staff. The commitment must include a method of enforcing the commitment that is available to the employees or their representative and is expeditious, uses a neutral decision-maker, and is economical for the employees. The Department must also receive documentation of the provider's provision of written notice of the commitment and the availability of the enforcement mechanism to the employees or their representative.

(3) Reimbursement shall be based on the amount of increased spending to be incurred by the provider for improving wages and benefits that exceeds the spending reported in the cost report currently used by the Department. Reimbursement shall be calculated as follows: the per diem equivalent of the quarterly difference between the cost to provide improved wages and benefits for covered eligible employees as identified in the legally binding commitment and the previous period cost of wages and benefits as reported in the cost report currently used by the Department, subject to the limitations identified in paragraph (2) of this subsection. In no event shall the per diem increase be in excess of $7.00 for any 12 month period, or in excess of $8.00 for any 12 month period for community-integrated living arrangements with 4 beds or less. For purposes of this Section, "community-integrated living arrangement" has the same meaning ascribed to that term in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(4) Any community service provider is eligible to receive reimbursement under this Section. A provider's eligibility to receive reimbursement shall continue as long as the provider maintains eligibility under paragraph (2) of this subsection and the reimbursement program continues to exist.

(c) Audit. Reimbursement under this Section is subject to audit by the Department and shall be reduced or eliminated in the case of any provider that does not honor its commitment to increase spending to improve the wages and benefits of its employees or that decreases such spending.

(Source: P.A. 96-1124, eff. 7-20-10.)

(20 ILCS 1705/66) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-66)

Sec. 66. Domestic abuse of adults with disabilities disabled adults. Pursuant to the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act, the Department shall have the authority to provide developmental disability or mental health services in state-operated facilities or through Department supported community agencies to eligible adults in substantiated cases of abuse, neglect or exploitation on a priority basis and to waive current eligibility requirements in an emergency pursuant to the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. This Section shall not be interpreted to be in conflict with standards for admission to residential facilities as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(Source: P.A. 91-671, eff. 7-1-00.)

Section 180. The Military Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 28.6 and 52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1805/28.6)

Sec. 28.6. Policy.

(a) A member of the Army National Guard or the Air National Guard may be ordered to funeral honors duty in accordance with this Article. That member shall receive an allowance of $100 for any day on which a minimum of 2 hours of funeral honors duty is performed. Members of the Illinois National Guard ordered to funeral honors duty in accordance with this Article are considered to be in the active service of the State for all purposes except for pay, and the provisions of Sections 52, 53, 54, 55, and 56 of the Military Code of Illinois apply if a member of the Illinois National Guard is injured or becomes a person with a disability disabled in the course of those duties.

(b) The Adjutant General may provide support for other authorized providers who volunteer to participate in a funeral honors detail conducted on behalf of the Governor. This support is limited to transportation, reimbursement for transportation, expenses, materials, and training.

(c) On or after July 1, 2006, if the Adjutant General determines that Illinois National Guard personnel are not available to perform military funeral honors in accordance with this Article, the Adjutant General may authorize another appropriate organization to provide one or more of its members to perform those honors and, subject to appropriations for that purpose, shall authorize the payment of a $100 stipend to the organization.

(Source: P.A. 94-251, eff. 1-1-06; 94-359, eff. 7-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(20 ILCS 1805/52) (from Ch. 129, par. 220.52)

Sec. 52. Injured personnel or personnel with a disability or disabled personnel; treatment; compensation. Officers, warrant officers, or enlisted personnel of the Illinois National Guard who may be injured in any way, including without limitation through illness, while on duty and lawfully performing the same, are entitled to be treated by an officer of the medical or dental department detailed by the Adjutant General, or at the nearest appropriate medical treatment facility if such an officer is not detailed. Officers, warrant officers, or enlisted personnel of the Illinois National Guard who may be wounded or disabled in any way, while on duty and lawfully performing the same, so as to prevent their working at their profession, trade, or other occupation from which they gain their living, are entitled to be treated by an officer of the medical or dental department detailed by the Adjutant General, or at the nearest appropriate medical treatment facility if such an officer is not detailed, and, as long as the Illinois National Guard has not been called into federal service, are entitled to all privileges due them as State employees under the "Workers' Compensation Act", approved July 9, 1951, as now or hereafter amended, and the "Workers' Occupational Diseases Act", approved July 9, 1951, as now or hereafter amended. For purposes of this Section, injured, wounded, or disabled "while on duty and lawfully performing the same" means incurring an injury, wound, or disability while in a State military status pursuant to orders of the Commander-in-Chief, except when the injury, wound, or disability is caused by the officer's, warrant officer's, or enlisted personnel's own misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 96-509, eff. 1-1-10; 96-733, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 185. The State Guard Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1815/16) (from Ch. 129, par. 244)

Sec. 16. Any officer or warrant officer, who becomes a person with a disability becoming disabled from wounds, injuries or illness, so as to prevent him from active service thereafter, shall, on recommendation of a retirement board of three officers, two of whom shall be medical officers, be placed upon the retired list in his grade at time of retirement.

(Source: Laws 1951, p. 1999.)

Section 190. The Abandoned Mined Lands and Water Reclamation Act is amended by changing Section 2.08 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1920/2.08) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 8002.08)

Sec. 2.08. Special reclamation programs.

(a) In addition to the authority to acquire land under Section 2.06, the Department may use funds provided under the Federal Act to acquire land by purchase, donation, or condemnation, to reclaim such acquired land and retain the land or transfer title to it to a political subdivision or to any person, firm, association, or corporation, if the Department determines that such is an integral and necessary element of an economically feasible plan for the project to construct or rehabilitate housing for persons who have a disability disabled as the result of employment in the mines or work incidental thereto, persons displaced by acquisition of land under Section 2.06, or persons dislocated as the result of adverse effects of mining practices which constitute an emergency as provided in the Federal Act or persons dislocated as the result of natural disasters or catastrophic failures from any cause. No part of the funds provided under this Section may be used to pay the actual construction costs of housing.

(b) Use of funds under this Section shall be subject to requirements under the Federal Act with respect to such projects.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96.)

Section 195. The Department of Public Health Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2305/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.02)

Sec. 4. No otherwise qualified child with a disability handicapped child receiving special education and related services under Article 14 of The School Code shall solely by reason of his or her disability handicap be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 80-1403.)

Section 200. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2310-680 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-680)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 2310-680. Multiple Sclerosis Task Force.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:

(1) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, often disabling, disease that attacks the central nervous system, which is comprised of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves. MS is the number one disabling disease among young adults, striking in the prime of life. It is a disease in which the body, through its immune system, launches a defensive and damaging attack against its own tissues. MS damages the nerve-insulating myelin sheath that surrounds and protects the brain. The damage to the myelin sheath slows down or blocks messages between the brain and the body.

(2) Most people experience their first symptoms of MS between the ages of 20 and 40, but MS can appear in young children and teens as well as much older adults. MS symptoms can include visual disturbances, muscle weakness, trouble with coordination and balance, sensations such as numbness, prickling or pins and needles, and thought and memory problems. MS patients can also experience partial or complete paralysis, speech impediments, tremors, dizziness, stiffness and spasms, fatigue, paresthesias, pain, and loss of sensation.

(3) The cause of MS remains unknown; however, having a first-degree relative, such as a parent or sibling, with MS significantly increases a person's risk of developing the disease. According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, it is estimated that there are approximately 250,000 to 350,000 persons in the United States who are diagnosed with MS. This estimate suggests that approximately 200 new cases are diagnosed each week. Other sources report a population of at least 400,000 in the United States. The estimate of persons with MS in Illinois is 20,000, with at least 2 areas of MS clusters identified in Illinois.

(4) Presently, there is no cure for MS. The complex and variable nature of the disease makes it very difficult to diagnose, treat, and research. The cost to the family, often with young children, can be overwhelming. Among common diagnoses, non-stroke neurologic illnesses, such as multiple sclerosis, were associated with the highest out-of-pocket expenditures (a mean of $34,167), followed by diabetes ($26,971), injuries ($25,096), stroke ($23,380), mental illnesses ($23,178), and heart disease ($21,955). Median out-of-pocket costs for health care among people with MS, excluding insurance premiums, were almost twice as much as the general population. The costs associated with MS increase with greater disability. Costs for individuals with a severe disability severely disabled individuals are more than twice those for persons with a relatively mild form of the disease. A recent study of medical bankruptcy found that 62.1% of all personal bankruptcies in the United States were related to medical costs.

(5) Therefore, it is in the public interest for the State to establish a Multiple Sclerosis Task Force in order to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with MS and develop ways to enhance their quality of life.

(b) There is established the Multiple Sclerosis Task Force in the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the Task Force shall be to:

(1) develop strategies to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with MS in order to enhance the quality of life of persons with MS by maximizing productivity and independence and addressing emotional, social, financial, and vocational challenges of persons with MS;

(2) develop strategies to provide persons with MS greater access to various treatments and other therapeutic options that may be available; and

(3) develop strategies to improve multiple sclerosis education and awareness.

(c) The Task Force shall consist of 16 members as follows:

(1) the Director of Public Health and the Director of Human Services, or their designees, who shall serve ex officio; and

(2) fourteen public members, who shall be appointed by the Director of Public Health as follows: 2 neurologists licensed to practice medicine in this State; 3 registered nurses or other health professionals with MS certification and extensive expertise with progressed MS; one person upon the recommendation of the National Multiple Sclerosis Society; 3 persons who represent agencies that provide services or support to individuals with MS in this State; 3 persons who have MS, at least one of whom having progressed MS; and 2 members of the public with a demonstrated expertise in issues relating to the work of the Task Force.

Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner provided for in the original appointments.

(d) The Task Force shall organize within 120 days following the appointment of a majority of its members and shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among the members. The chairperson shall appoint a secretary who need not be a member of the Task Force.

(e) The public members shall serve without compensation and shall not be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties unless funds become available to the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force may meet and hold hearings as it deems appropriate.

(g) The Department of Public Health shall provide staff support to the Task Force.

(h) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly, along with any legislative bills that it desires to recommend for adoption by the General Assembly, no later than December 31, 2015.

(i) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is repealed on January 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-530, eff. 8-23-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 205. The Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Sections 0.01, 3, 5b, 10 and 13 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2405/0.01) (from Ch. 23, par. 3429)

Sec. 0.01. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

(20 ILCS 2405/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 3434)

Sec. 3. Powers and duties. The Department shall have the powers and duties enumerated herein:

(a) To co-operate with the federal government in the administration of the provisions of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, and of the federal Social Security Act to the extent and in the manner provided in these Acts.

(b) To prescribe and supervise such courses of vocational training and provide such other services as may be necessary for the habilitation and rehabilitation of persons with one or more disabilities, including the administrative activities under subsection (e) of this Section, and to co-operate with State and local school authorities and other recognized agencies engaged in habilitation, rehabilitation and comprehensive rehabilitation services; and to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services regarding the care and education of children with one or more disabilities.

(c) (Blank).

(d) To report in writing, to the Governor, annually on or before the first day of December, and at such other times and in such manner and upon such subjects as the Governor may require. The annual report shall contain (1) a statement of the existing condition of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; (2) a statement of suggestions and recommendations with reference to the development of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; and (3) an itemized statement of the amounts of money received from federal, State and other sources, and of the objects and purposes to which the respective items of these several amounts have been devoted.

(e) (Blank).

(f) To establish a program of services to prevent the unnecessary institutionalization of persons in need of long term care and who meet the criteria for blindness or disability as defined by the Social Security Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes. Such preventive services include any or all of the following:

(1) personal assistant services;

(2) homemaker services;

(3) home-delivered meals;

(4) adult day care services;

(5) respite care;

(6) home modification or assistive equipment;

(7) home health services;

(8) electronic home response;

(9) brain injury behavioral/cognitive services;

(10) brain injury habilitation;

(11) brain injury pre-vocational services; or

(12) brain injury supported employment.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services taking into consideration the unique economic and social needs of the population for whom they are to be provided. Such eligibility standards may be based on the recipient's ability to pay for services; provided, however, that any portion of a person's income that is equal to or less than the "protected income" level shall not be considered by the Department in determining eligibility. The "protected income" level shall be determined by the Department, shall never be less than the federal poverty standard, and shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index For All Urban Consumers as determined by the United States Department of Labor. The standards must provide that a person may not have more than $10,000 in assets to be eligible for the services, and the Department may increase or decrease the asset limitation by rule. The Department may not decrease the asset level below $10,000.

The services shall be provided, as established by the Department by rule, to eligible persons to prevent unnecessary or premature institutionalization, to the extent that the cost of the services, together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons, are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to their condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Illinois Department on Aging. The Department shall set rates and fees for services in a fair and equitable manner. Services identical to those offered by the Department on Aging shall be paid at the same rate.

Personal assistants shall be paid at a rate negotiated between the State and an exclusive representative of personal assistants under a collective bargaining agreement. In no case shall the Department pay personal assistants an hourly wage that is less than the federal minimum wage.

Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act (5 ILCS 315/), personal assistants providing services under the Department's Home Services Program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before. Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also provide services under the Department's Home Services Program shall be considered to be public employees, no matter whether the State provides such services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be the employer of those persons as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided under this subsection (f). The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this paragraph shall be understood to limit the right of the persons receiving services defined in this Section to hire and fire home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program or to supervise them within the limitations set by the Home Services Program. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program for any purposes not specifically provided in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also provide services under the Department's Home Services Program shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 (5 ILCS 375/).

The Department shall execute, relative to nursing home prescreening, as authorized by Section 4.03 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, written inter-agency agreements with the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the intake procedures and eligibility criteria for those persons who may need long term care. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 18 through 59 years of age shall be conducted by the Department, or a designee of the Department.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient cost-sharing for services provided under this Section. The cost-sharing shall be based upon the recipient's ability to pay for services, but in no case shall the recipient's share exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Protected income shall not be considered by the Department in its determination of the recipient's ability to pay a share of the cost of services. The level of cost-sharing shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the "protected income" level. The Department shall deduct from the recipient's share of the cost of services any money expended by the recipient for disability-related expenses.

To the extent permitted under the federal Social Security Act, the Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or , blind or who has a permanent and total disability , or permanently and totally disabled. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall submit an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. The report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before March 30 each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(g) To establish such subdivisions of the Department as shall be desirable and assign to the various subdivisions the responsibilities and duties placed upon the Department by law.

(h) To cooperate and enter into any necessary agreements with the Department of Employment Security for the provision of job placement and job referral services to clients of the Department, including job service registration of such clients with Illinois Employment Security offices and making job listings maintained by the Department of Employment Security available to such clients.

(i) To possess all powers reasonable and necessary for the exercise and administration of the powers, duties and responsibilities of the Department which are provided for by law.

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) To establish, operate and maintain a Statewide Housing Clearinghouse of information on available, government subsidized housing accessible to persons with disabilities disabled persons and available privately owned housing accessible to persons with disabilities disabled persons. The information shall include but not be limited to the location, rental requirements, access features and proximity to public transportation of available housing. The Clearinghouse shall consist of at least a computerized database for the storage and retrieval of information and a separate or shared toll free telephone number for use by those seeking information from the Clearinghouse. Department offices and personnel throughout the State shall also assist in the operation of the Statewide Housing Clearinghouse. Cooperation with local, State and federal housing managers shall be sought and extended in order to frequently and promptly update the Clearinghouse's information.

(m) To assure that the names and case records of persons who received or are receiving services from the Department, including persons receiving vocational rehabilitation, home services, or other services, and those attending one of the Department's schools or other supervised facility shall be confidential and not be open to the general public. Those case records and reports or the information contained in those records and reports shall be disclosed by the Director only to proper law enforcement officials, individuals authorized by a court, the General Assembly or any committee or commission of the General Assembly, and other persons and for reasons as the Director designates by rule. Disclosure by the Director may be only in accordance with other applicable law.

(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 97-1019, eff. 8-17-12; 97-1158, eff. 1-29-13; 98-1004, eff. 8-18-14.)

(20 ILCS 2405/5b)

Sec. 5b. Home Services Medicaid Trust Fund.

(a) The Home Services Medicaid Trust Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury.

(b) Amounts paid to the State during each State fiscal year by the federal government under Title XIX or Title XXI of the Social Security Act for services delivered in relation to the Department's Home Services Program established pursuant to Section 3 of this the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act, and any interest earned thereon, shall be deposited into the Fund.

(c) Moneys in the Fund may be used by the Department for the purchase of services, and operational and administrative expenses, in relation to the Home Services Program.

(Source: P.A. 98-1004, eff. 8-18-14.)

(20 ILCS 2405/10) (from Ch. 23, par. 3441)

Sec. 10. Residential schools; visual and hearing disabilities handicaps.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall operate residential schools for the education of children with visual and hearing disabilities handicaps who are unable to take advantage of the regular educational facilities provided in the community, and shall provide in connection therewith such academic, vocational, and related services as may be required. Children shall be eligible for admission to these schools only after proper diagnosis and evaluation, in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Department.

(a-5) The Superintendent of the Illinois School for the Deaf shall be the chief executive officer of, and shall be responsible for the day to day operations of, the School, and shall obtain educational and professional employees who are certified by the Illinois State Board of Education or licensed by the appropriate agency or entity to which licensing authority has been delegated, as well as all other employees of the School, subject to the provisions of the Personnel Code and any applicable collective bargaining agreement. The Superintendent shall be appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. In the case of a vacancy in the office of Superintendent during the recess of the Senate, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when the Governor shall nominate some person to fill the office, and any person so nominated who is confirmed by the Senate shall hold office during the remainder of the term and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. The Superintendent shall hold office (i) for a term expiring on June 30 of 2015, and every 4 years thereafter and (ii) until the Superintendent's successor is appointed and qualified. The Superintendent shall devote his or her full time to the duties of the office, shall not serve in any other capacity during his or her term of office, and shall receive such compensation as the Governor shall determine. The Superintendent shall have an administrative certificate with a superintendent endorsement as provided for under Section 21-7.1 of the School Code, and shall have degrees in both educational administration and deaf education, together with at least 15 years of experience in either deaf education, the administration of deaf education, or a combination of the 2.

(a-10) The Superintendent of the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired shall be the chief executive officer of, and shall be responsible for the day to day operations of, the School, and shall obtain educational and professional employees who are certified by the Illinois State Board of Education or licensed by the appropriate agency or entity to which licensing authority has been delegated, as well as all other employees of the School, subject to the provisions of the Personnel Code and any applicable collective bargaining agreement. The Superintendent shall be appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. In the case of a vacancy in the office of Superintendent during the recess of the Senate, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when the Governor shall nominate some person to fill the office, and any person so nominated who is confirmed by the Senate shall hold office during the remainder of the term and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. The Superintendent shall hold office (i) for a term expiring on June 30 of 2015, and every 4 years thereafter and (ii) until the Superintendent's successor is appointed and qualified. The Superintendent shall devote his or her full time to the duties of the office, shall not serve in any other capacity during his or her term of office, and shall receive such compensation as the Governor shall determine. The Superintendent shall have an administrative certificate with a superintendent endorsement as provided for under Section 21-7.1 of the School Code, and shall have degrees in both educational administration and blind or visually impaired education, together with at least 15 years of experience in either blind or visually impaired education, the administration of blind or visually impaired education, or a combination of the 2.

(b) In administering the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Department shall adopt an admission policy which permits day or residential enrollment, when resources are sufficient, of children with hearing disabilities handicaps who are able to take advantage of the regular educational facilities provided in the community and thus unqualified for admission under subsection (a). In doing so, the Department shall establish an annual deadline by which shall be completed the enrollment of children qualified under subsection (a) for admission to the Illinois School for the Deaf. After the deadline, the Illinois School for the Deaf may enroll other children with hearing disabilities handicaps at the request of their parents or guardians if the Department determines there are sufficient resources to meet their needs as well as the needs of children enrolled before the deadline and children qualified under subsection (a) who may be enrolled after the deadline on an emergency basis. The Department shall adopt any rules and regulations necessary for the implementation of this subsection.

(c) In administering the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the Department shall adopt an admission policy that permits day or residential enrollment, when resources are sufficient, of children with visual disabilities handicaps who are able to take advantage of the regular educational facilities provided in the community and thus unqualified for admission under subsection (a). In doing so, the Department shall establish an annual deadline by which the enrollment of children qualified under subsection (a) for admission to the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired shall be completed. After the deadline, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired may enroll other children with visual disabilities handicaps at the request of their parents or guardians if the Department determines there are sufficient resources to meet their needs as well as the needs of children enrolled before the deadline and children qualified under subsection (a) who may be enrolled after the deadline on an emergency basis. The Department shall adopt any rules and regulations necessary for the implementation of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 97-625, eff. 11-28-11.)

(20 ILCS 2405/13) (from Ch. 23, par. 3444)

Sec. 13. The Department shall have all powers reasonable and necessary for the administration of institutions for persons with one or more disabilities under subsection (f) of Section 3 of this Act, including, but not limited to, the authority to do the following:

(a) Appoint and remove the superintendents of the institutions operated by the Department, except for those superintendents whose appointment and removal is provided for under Section 10 of this Act; obtain all other employees subject to the provisions of the Personnel Code, except for educational and professional employees of the Illinois School for the Deaf and the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired who are certified by the Illinois State Board of Education or licensed by the appropriate agency or entity to which licensing authority has been delegated, and all other employees of the Schools who are obtained by the superintendents as provided under Section 10 of this Act, subject to the provisions of the Personnel Code and any applicable collective bargaining agreement; and conduct staff training programs for the development and improvement of services.

(b) Provide supervision, housing accommodations, board or the payment of boarding costs, tuition, and treatment free of charge, except as otherwise specified in this Act, for residents of this State who are cared for in any institution, or for persons receiving services under any program under the jurisdiction of the Department. Residents of other states may be admitted upon payment of the costs of board, tuition, and treatment as determined by the Department; provided, that no resident of another state shall be received or retained to the exclusion of any resident of this State. The Department shall accept any donation for the board, tuition, and treatment of any person receiving service or care.

(c) Cooperate with the State Board of Education and the Department of Children and Family Services in a program to provide for the placement, supervision, and foster care of children with disabilities handicaps who must leave their home community in order to attend schools offering programs in special education.

(d) Assess and collect (i) student activity fees and (ii) charges to school districts for transportation of students required under the School Code and provided by the Department. The Department shall direct the expenditure of all money that has been or may be received by any officer of the several State institutions under the direction and supervision of the Department as profit on sales from commissary stores, student activity fees, or charges for student transportation. The money shall be deposited into a locally held fund and expended under the direction of the Department for the special comfort, pleasure, and amusement of residents and employees and the transportation of residents, provided that amounts expended for comfort, pleasure, and amusement of employees shall not exceed the amount of profits derived from sales made to employees by the commissaries, as determined by the Department.

Funds deposited with State institutions under the direction and supervision of the Department by or for residents of those State institutions shall be deposited into interest-bearing accounts, and money received as interest and income on those funds shall be deposited into a "needy student fund" to be held and administered by the institution. Money in the "needy student fund" shall be expended for the special comfort, pleasure, and amusement of the residents of the particular institution where the money is paid or received.

Any money belonging to residents separated by death, discharge, or unauthorized absence from institutions described under this Section, in custody of officers of the institutions, may, if unclaimed by the resident or the legal representatives of the resident for a period of 2 years, be expended at the direction of the Department for the purposes and in the manner specified in this subsection (d). Articles of personal property, with the exception of clothing left in the custody of those officers, shall, if unclaimed for the period of 2 years, be sold and the money disposed of in the same manner.

Clothing left at the institution by residents at the time of separation may be used as determined by the institution if unclaimed by the resident or legal representatives of the resident within 30 days after notification.

(e) Keep, for each institution under the jurisdiction of the Department, a register of the number of officers, employees, and residents present each day in the year, in a form that will permit a calculation of the average number present each month.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Accept and hold in behalf of the State, if for the public interest, a grant, gift, or legacy of money or property to the State of Illinois, to the Department, or to any institution or program of the Department made in trust for the maintenance or support of a resident of an institution of the Department, or for any other legitimate purpose connected with any such institution or program. The Department shall cause each gift, grant, or legacy to be kept as a distinct fund, and shall invest the gift, grant, or legacy in the manner provided by the laws of this State as those laws now exist or shall hereafter be enacted relating to securities in which the deposits in savings banks may be invested. The Department may, however, in its discretion, deposit in a proper trust company or savings bank, during the continuance of the trust, any fund so left in trust for the life of a person and shall adopt rules and regulations governing the deposit, transfer, or withdrawal of the fund. The Department shall, on the expiration of any trust as provided in any instrument creating the trust, dispose of the fund thereby created in the manner provided in the instrument. The Department shall include in its required reports a statement showing what funds are so held by it and the condition of the funds. Monies found on residents at the time of their admission, or accruing to them during their period of institutional care, and monies deposited with the superintendents by relatives, guardians, or friends of residents for the special comfort and pleasure of a resident, shall remain in the possession of the superintendents, who shall act as trustees for disbursement to, in behalf of, or for the benefit of the resident. All types of retirement and pension benefits from private and public sources may be paid directly to the superintendent of the institution where the person is a resident, for deposit to the resident's trust fund account.

(j) Appoint, subject to the Personnel Code, persons to be members of a police and security force. Members of the police and security force shall be peace officers and as such have all powers possessed by policemen in cities and sheriffs, including the power to make arrests on view or warrants of violations of State statutes or city or county ordinances. These powers may, however, be exercised only in counties of more than 500,000 population when required for the protection of Department properties, interests, and personnel, or specifically requested by appropriate State or local law enforcement officials. Members of the police and security force may not serve and execute civil processes.

(k) Maintain, and deposit receipts from the sale of tickets to athletic, musical, and other events, fees for participation in school sponsored tournaments and events, and revenue from student activities relating to charges for art and woodworking projects, charges for automobile repairs, and other revenue generated from student projects into, locally held accounts not to exceed $20,000 per account for the purposes of (i) providing immediate payment to officials, judges, and athletic referees for their services rendered and for other related expenses at school sponsored contests, tournaments, or events, (ii) providing payment for expenses related to student revenue producing activities such as art and woodworking projects, automotive repair work, and other student activities or projects that generate revenue and incur expenses, and (iii) providing students who are enrolled in an independent living program with cash so that they may fulfill course objectives by purchasing commodities and other required supplies.

(l) Advance moneys from its appropriations to be maintained in locally held accounts at the schools to establish (i) a "Student Compensation Account" to pay students for work performed under the student work program, and (ii) a "Student Activity Travel Account" to pay transportation, meals, and lodging costs of students, coaches, and activity sponsors while traveling off campus for sporting events, lessons, and other activities directly associated with the representation of the school. Funds in the "Student Compensation Account" shall not exceed $20,000, and funds in the "Student Activity Travel Account" shall not exceed $200,000.

(l-5) Establish a locally held account (referred to as the Account) to hold, maintain and administer the Therkelsen/Hansen College Loan Fund (referred to as the Fund). All cash represented by the Fund shall be transferred from the State Treasury to the Account. The Department shall promulgate rules regarding the maintenance and use of the Fund and all interest earned thereon; the eligibility of potential borrowers from the Fund; and the awarding and repayment of loans from the Fund; and other rules as applicable regarding the Fund. The administration of the Fund and the promulgation of rules regarding the Fund shall be consistent with the will of Petrea Therkelsen, which establishes the Fund.

(m) Promulgate rules of conduct applicable to the residents of institutions for persons with one or more disabilities. The rules shall include specific standards to be used by the Department to determine (i) whether financial restitution shall be required in the event of losses or damages resulting from a resident's action and (ii) the ability of the resident and the resident's parents to pay restitution.

(Source: P.A. 97-625, eff. 11-28-11.)

Section 210. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing the title of the Act and Section 52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/Act title)

An Act concerning persons with disabilities disabled persons.

(20 ILCS 2407/52)

Sec. 52. Applicability; definitions. In accordance with Section 6071 of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L. 109-171), as used in this Article:

"Departments". The term "Departments" means for the purposes of this Act, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family Services and Department of Public Health, unless otherwise noted.

"Home and community-based long-term care services". The term "home and community-based long-term care services" means, with respect to the State Medicaid program, a service aid, or benefit, home and community-based services, including but not limited to home health and personal care services, that are provided to a person with a disability, and are voluntarily accepted, as part of his or her long-term care that: (i) is provided under the State's qualified home and community-based program or that could be provided under such a program but is otherwise provided under the Medicaid program; (ii) is delivered in a qualified residence; and (iii) is necessary for the person with a disability to live in the community.

"ID/DD community care facility". The term "ID/DD community care facility", for the purposes of this Article, means a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility subject to licensure by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act, an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled (ICF-DDs), and a State-operated developmental center or mental health center, whether publicly or privately owned.

"Money Follows the Person" Demonstration. Enacted by the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, the Money Follows the Person (MFP) Rebalancing Demonstration is part of a comprehensive, coordinated strategy to assist states, in collaboration with stakeholders, to make widespread changes to their long-term care support systems. This initiative will assist states in their efforts to reduce their reliance on institutional care while developing community-based long-term care opportunities, enabling the elderly and people with disabilities to fully participate in their communities.

"Public funds" mean any funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the Departments of Human Services, on Aging, of Healthcare and Family Services and of Public Health for settings and services as defined in this Article.

"Qualified residence". The term "qualified residence" means, with respect to an eligible individual: (i) a home owned or leased by the individual or the individual's authorized representative (as defined by P.L. 109-171); (ii) an apartment with an individual lease, with lockable access and egress, and which includes living, sleeping, bathing, and cooking areas over which the individual or the individual's family has domain and control; or (iii) a residence, in a community-based residential setting, in which no more than 4 unrelated individuals reside. Where qualified residences are not sufficient to meet the demand of eligible individuals, time-limited exceptions to this definition may be developed through administrative rule.

"Self-directed services". The term "self-directed services" means, with respect to home and community-based long-term services for an eligible individual, those services for the individual that are planned and purchased under the direction and control of the individual or the individual's authorized representative, including the amount, duration, scope, provider, and location of such services, under the State Medicaid program consistent with the following requirements:

(a) Assessment: there is an assessment of the needs, capabilities, and preference of the individual with respect to such services.

(b) Individual service care or treatment plan: based on the assessment, there is development jointly with such individual or individual's authorized representative, a plan for such services for the individual that (i) specifies those services, if any, that the individual or the individual's authorized representative would be responsible for directing; (ii) identifies the methods by which the individual or the individual's authorized representative or an agency designated by an individual or representative will select, manage, and dismiss providers of such services.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 215. The Bureau for the Blind Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2410/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 3417)

Sec. 7. Council. There shall be created within the Department a Blind Services Planning Council which shall review the actions of the Bureau for the Blind and provide advice and consultation to the Secretary on services to blind people. The Council shall be composed of 11 members appointed by the Governor. All members shall be selected because of their ability to provide worthwhile consultation or services to the blind. No fewer than 6 members shall be blind. A relative balance between the number of males and females shall be maintained. Broad representation shall be sought by appointment, with 2 members from each of the major statewide consumer organizations of the blind and one member from a specific service area including, but not limited to, the Hadley School for the Blind, Chicago Lighthouse, Department-approved Low Vision Aides Clinics, Vending Facilities Operators, the Association for the Education and Rehabilitation of the Blind and Visually Impaired (AER), blind homemakers, outstanding competitive employers of blind people, providers and recipients of income maintenance programs, in-home care programs, subsidized housing, nursing homes and homes for the blind.

Initially, 4 members shall be appointed for terms of one year, 4 for terms of 2 years and 3 for terms of 3 years with a partial term of 18 months or more counting as a full term. Subsequent terms shall be 3 years each. No member shall serve more than 2 terms. No Department employee shall be a member of the Council.

Members shall be removed for cause including, but not limited to, demonstrated incompetence, unethical behavior and unwillingness or inability to serve.

Members shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

Members shall be governed by appropriate and applicable State and federal statutes and regulations on matters such as ethics, confidentiality, freedom of information, travel and civil rights.

Department staff may attend meetings but shall not be a voting member of the Council. The Council shall elect a chairperson and a recording secretary from among its number. Sub-committees and ad hoc committees may be created to concentrate on specific program components or initiative areas.

The Council shall perform the following functions:

(a) facilitate communication and cooperative efforts between the Department and all agencies which have any responsibility to deliver services to blind and visually impaired persons.

(b) identify needs and problems related to blind and visually impaired persons, including children, adults, and seniors, and make recommendations to the Secretary, Bureau Director and Governor.

(c) recommend programmatic and fiscal priorities governing the provision of services and awarding of grants or contracts by the Department to any person or agency, public or private.

(d) conduct, encourage and advise independent research by qualified evaluators to improve services to blind and visually impaired persons, including those with multiple disabilities handicaps.

(e) participate in the development and review of proposed and amended rules and regulations of the Department relating to services for the blind and visually impaired.

(f) review and comment on all budgets (drafted and submitted) relating to services for blind and visually impaired persons.

(g) promote policies and programs to educate the public and elicit public support for services to blind and visually impaired persons.

(h) encourage creative and innovative programs to strengthen, expand and improve services for blind and visually impaired persons, including outreach services.

(i) perform such other duties as may be required by the Governor, Secretary, and Bureau Director.

The Council shall supersede and replace all advisory committees now functioning within the Bureau of Rehabilitation Services for the Blind, with the exception of federally mandated advisory groups.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

Section 220. The Blind Vendors Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2421/25)

Sec. 25. Set-aside funds; Blind Vendors Trust Fund.

(a) The Department may provide, by rule, for set-asides similar to those provided in Section 107d-3 of the Randolph-Sheppard Act. If any funds are set aside, or caused to be set aside, from the net proceeds of the operation of vending facilities by blind vendors, the funds shall be set aside only to the extent necessary in a percentage amount not to exceed that determined jointly by the Director and the Committee and published in State rule, and that these funds may be used only for the following purposes: (1) maintenance and replacement of equipment; (2) purchase of new equipment; (3) construction of new vending facilities; (4) funding the functions of the Committee, including legal and other professional services; and (5) retirement or pension funds, health insurance, paid sick leave, and vacation time for blind licensees, so long as these benefits are approved by a majority vote of all Illinois licensed blind vendors that occurs after the Department provides these vendors with information on all matters relevant to these purposes.

(b) No set-aside funds shall be collected from a blind vendor when the monthly net proceeds of that vendor are less than $1,000. This amount may be adjusted annually by the Director and the Committee to reflect changes in the cost of living.

(c) The Department shall establish, with full participation by the Committee, the Blind Vendors Trust Fund as a separate account managed by the Department for the State's blind vendors.

(d) Set-aside funds collected from the operation of all vending facilities administered by the Business Enterprise Program for the Blind shall be placed in the Blind Vendors Trust Fund, which shall include set-aside funds from facilities on federal property. The Fund must provide separately identified sub-accounts for moneys from (i) federal and (ii) State and other facilities, as well as vending machine income generated pursuant to Section 30 of this Act. These funds shall be available until expended and shall not revert to the General Revenue Fund or to any other State account.

(e) It is the intent of the General Assembly that the expenditure of set-aside funds authorized by this Section shall be supplemental to any current appropriation or other moneys made available for these purposes and shall not constitute an offset of any previously existing appropriation or other funding source. In no way shall this imply that the appropriation for the Blind Vendors Program may never be decreased, rather that the new funds shall not be used as an offset.

(f) An amount equal to 10% of the wages paid by a blind vendor to any employee who is blind or has another disability otherwise disabled shall be deducted from any set-aside charge paid by the vendor each month, in order to encourage vendors to employ blind workers and workers with disabilities and disabled workers and to set an example for industry and government. No deduction shall be made for any employee paid less than the State or federal minimum wage.

(Source: P.A. 96-644, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 225. The Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2705-305, 2705-310, and 2705-321 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-305)

Sec. 2705-305. Grants for mass transportation.

(a) For the purpose of mass transportation grants and contracts, the following definitions apply:

"Carrier" means any corporation, authority, partnership, association, person, or district authorized to provide mass transportation within the State.

"District" means all of the following:

(i) Any district created pursuant to the Local Mass Transit District Act.

(ii) The Authority created pursuant to the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act.

(iii) Any authority, commission, or other entity that by virtue of an interstate compact approved by Congress is authorized to provide mass transportation.

(iv) The Authority created pursuant to the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

"Facilities" comprise all real and personal property used in or appurtenant to a mass transportation system, including parking lots.

"Mass transportation" means transportation provided within the State of Illinois by rail, bus, or other conveyance and available to the general public on a regular and continuing basis, including the transportation of persons with disabilities handicapped or elderly persons as provided more specifically in Section 2705-310.

"Unit of local government" means any city, village, incorporated town, or county.

(b) Grants may be made to units of local government, districts, and carriers for the acquisition, construction, extension, reconstruction, and improvement of mass transportation facilities. Grants shall be made upon the terms and conditions that in the judgment of the Secretary are necessary to ensure their proper and effective utilization.

(c) The Department shall make grants under this Law in a manner designed, so far as is consistent with the maintenance and development of a sound mass transportation system within the State, to: (i) maximize federal funds for the assistance of mass transportation in Illinois under the Federal Transit Act and other federal Acts; (ii) facilitate the movement of persons who because of age, economic circumstance, or physical infirmity are unable to drive; (iii) contribute to an improved environment through the reduction of air, water, and noise pollution; and (iv) reduce traffic congestion.

(d) The Secretary shall establish procedures for making application for mass transportation grants. The procedures shall provide for public notice of all applications and give reasonable opportunity for the submission of comments and objections by interested parties. The procedures shall be designed with a view to facilitating simultaneous application for a grant to the Department and to the federal government.

(e) Grants may be made for mass transportation projects as follows:

(1) In an amount not to exceed 100% of the nonfederal share of projects for which a federal grant is made.

(2) In an amount not to exceed 100% of the net project cost for projects for which a federal grant is not made.

(3) In an amount not to exceed five-sixths of the net project cost for projects essential for the maintenance of a sound transportation system and eligible for federal assistance for which a federal grant application has been made but a federal grant has been delayed. If and when a federal grant is made, the amount in excess of the nonfederal share shall be promptly returned to the Department.

In no event shall the Department make a grant that, together with any federal funds or funds from any other source, is in excess of 100% of the net project cost.

(f) Regardless of whether any funds are available under a federal grant, the Department shall not make a mass transportation grant unless the Secretary finds that the recipient has entered into an agreement with the Department in which the recipient agrees not to engage in school bus operations exclusively for the transportation of students and school personnel in competition with private school bus operators where those private school bus operators are able to provide adequate transportation, at reasonable rates, in conformance with applicable safety standards, provided that this requirement shall not apply to a recipient that operates a school system in the area to be served and operates a separate and exclusive school bus program for the school system.

(g) Grants may be made for mass transportation purposes with funds appropriated from the Build Illinois Bond Fund consistent with the specific purposes for which those funds are appropriated by the General Assembly. Grants under this subsection (g) are not subject to any limitations or conditions imposed upon grants by any other provision of this Section, except that the Secretary may impose the terms and conditions that in his or her judgment are necessary to ensure the proper and effective utilization of the grants under this subsection.

(h) The Department may let contracts for mass transportation purposes and facilities for the purpose of reducing urban congestion funded in whole or in part with bonds described in subdivision (b)(1) of Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act, not to exceed $75,000,000 in bonds.

(i) The Department may make grants to carriers, districts, and units of local government for the purpose of reimbursing them for providing reduced fares for mass transportation services for students, persons with disabilities, handicapped persons and the elderly. Grants shall be made upon the terms and conditions that in the judgment of the Secretary are necessary to ensure their proper and effective utilization.

(j) The Department may make grants to carriers, districts, and units of local government for costs of providing ADA paratransit service.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05.)

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-310)

Sec. 2705-310. Grants for transportation for persons with disabilities handicapped persons.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, the following definitions apply:

"Carrier" means a district or a not for profit corporation providing mass transportation for persons with disabilities handicapped persons on a regular and continuing basis.

"Person with a disability Handicapped person" means any individual who, by reason of illness, injury, age, congenital malfunction, or other permanent or temporary incapacity or disability, is unable without special mass transportation facilities or special planning or design to utilize ordinary mass transportation facilities and services as effectively as persons who are not so affected.

"Unit of local government", "district", and "facilities" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 2705-305.

(b) The Department may make grants from the Transportation Fund and the General Revenue Fund (i) to units of local government, districts, and carriers for vehicles, equipment, and the acquisition, construction, extension, reconstruction, and improvement of mass transportation facilities for persons with disabilities handicapped persons and (ii) during State fiscal years 1986 and 1987, to the Regional Transportation Authority for operating assistance for mass transportation for mobility limited handicapped persons, including paratransit services for the mobility limited. The grants shall be made upon the terms and conditions that in the judgment of the Secretary are necessary to ensure their proper and effective utilization. The procedures, limitations, and safeguards provided in Section 2705-305 to govern grants for mass transportation shall apply to grants made under this Section.

For the efficient administration of grants, the Department, on behalf of grant recipients under this Section and on behalf of recipients receiving funds under Sections 5309 and 5311 of the Federal Transit Act and State funds, may administer and consolidate procurements and may enter into contracts with manufacturers of vehicles and equipment.

(c) The Department may make operating assistance grants from the Transportation Fund to those carriers that, during federal fiscal year 1986, directly received operating assistance pursuant to Section 5307 or Section 5311 of the Federal Transit Act, or under contracts with a unit of local government or mass transit district that received operating expenses under Section 5307 or Section 5311 of the Federal Transit Act, to provide public paratransit services to the general mobility limited population. The Secretary shall take into consideration the reduction in federal operating expense grants to carriers when considering the grant applications. The procedures, limitations, and safeguards provided in Section 2705-305 to govern grants for mass transportation shall apply to grants made under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-774, eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-321)

Sec. 2705-321. Illinois Transit Ridership and Economic Development (TRED) Pilot Project Program; new facilities and service.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Transportation shall establish the Illinois Transit Ridership and Economic Development (TRED) Pilot Project Program to build transit systems that more effectively address the needs of Illinois workers, families, and businesses. The Illinois TRED Pilot Project Program shall provide for new or expanded mass transportation service and facilities, including rapid transit, rail, bus, and other equipment used in connection with mass transit, by the State, a public entity, or 2 or more of these entities authorized to provide and promote public transportation in order to increase the level of service available in local communities, as well as improve the quality of life and economic viability of the State of Illinois.

The Illinois TRED Pilot Project Program expenditures for mass transportation service and facilities within the State must:

(1) Improve the economic viability of Illinois by facilitating the transportation of Illinois residents to places of employment, to educational facilities, and to commercial, medical, and shopping districts.

(2) Increase the frequency and reliability of public transit service.

(3) Facilitate the movement of all persons, including those persons who, because of age, economic circumstance, or physical infirmity, are unable to drive.

(4) Contribute to an improved environment through the reduction of air, water, and noise pollution.

(b) Under the Illinois TRED Pilot Project Program, subject to appropriation, the Department shall fund each fiscal year, in coordination and consultation with other government agencies that provide or fund transportation services, the Illinois Public Transportation Association, and transit advocates, projects as specified in subsection (c). Total funding for each project shall not exceed $500,000 and the funding for all projects shall not exceed $4,500,000. The Department shall submit annual reports to the General Assembly by March 1 of each fiscal year regarding the status of these projects, including service to constituents including local businesses, seniors, and people with disabilities, costs, and other appropriate measures of impact.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall make grants to any of the following in order to create:

(1) Two demonstration projects for the Chicago Transit Authority to increase services to currently underserved communities and neighborhoods, such as, but not limited to, Altgeld Gardens, Pilsen, and Lawndale.

(2) (Blank.)

(3) The Intertownship Transportation Program for Northwest Suburban Cook County, which shall complement existing Pace service and involve cooperation of several townships to provide transportation services for senior residents and residents with disabilities and disabled residents across village and township boundaries that is currently not provided by Pace and by individual townships and municipalities.

(4) RIDES transit services to Richland and Lawrence Counties to extend transit services into Richland and Lawrence Counties and enhance service in Wayne, Edwards, and Wabash Counties that share common travel patterns and needs with Lawrence and Richland counties. Funding shall be used to develop a route structure that shall coordinate social service and general public requirements and obtain vehicles to support the additional service.

(5) Peoria Regional Transportation Initiative, which shall fund the development of a plan to create a regional transportation service in the Peoria-Pekin MSA that integrates and expands the existing services and that would allow local leaders to develop a funding plan and a timetable to secure final political approval. The plan is intended to facilitate regional economic development and provide greater mobility to workers, senior citizens, and people with disabilities.

(6) Rock Island MetroLINK/Black Hawk College Coordination Project, which shall increase mobility for lower income students to access educational services and job training on the metropolitan bus system, which will better link community college students with transportation alternatives.

(7) The West Central Transit District to serve Scott and Morgan Counties. Funding shall be used to develop a route structure that shall coordinate social service and general public requirements and obtain vehicles to support the service.

(8) Additional community college coordination projects, which shall increase mobility for lower income students to access educational services and job training on any Champaign-Urbana MTD and Danville Mass Transit bus routes, which will better link community college students with transportation alternatives.

(Source: P.A. 93-1004, eff. 8-24-04.)

Section 230. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by changing Sections 2.01 and 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2.01) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.01)

Sec. 2.01. Veterans Home admissions.

(a) Any honorably discharged veteran is entitled to admission to an Illinois Veterans Home if the applicant meets the requirements of this Section.

(b) The veteran must:

(1) have served in the armed forces of the United States at least 1 day in World War II, the Korean Conflict, the Viet Nam Campaign, or the Persian Gulf Conflict between the dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or between any other present or future dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs as a war period, or have served in a hostile fire environment and has been awarded a campaign or expeditionary medal signifying his or her service, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(2) have served and been honorably discharged or retired from the armed forces of the United States for a service connected disability or injury, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(3) have served as an enlisted person at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before September 8, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(4) have served as an officer at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before October 17, 1981, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(5) have served on active duty in the armed forces of the United States for 24 months of continuous service or more, excluding active duty for training purposes only, and enlisted after September 7, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(6) have served as a reservist in the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard and the service included being called to federal active duty, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and who completed the term, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(7) have been discharged for reasons of hardship or released from active duty due to a reduction in the United States armed forces prior to the completion of the required period of service, regardless of the actual time served, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care; or

(8) have served in the National Guard or Reserve Forces of the United States and completed 20 years of satisfactory service, be otherwise eligible to receive reserve or active duty retirement benefits, and have been an Illinois resident for at least one year before applying for admission for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary care only.

(c) The veteran must have service accredited to the State of Illinois or have been a resident of this State for one year immediately preceding the date of application.

(d) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at Anna and Quincy, the veteran must have developed a disability be disabled by disease, wounds, or otherwise and because of the disability be incapable of earning a living.

(e) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at LaSalle and Manteno, the veteran must have developed a disability be disabled by disease, wounds, or otherwise and, for purposes of eligibility for nursing home care, require nursing care because of the disability.

(f) An individual who served during a time of conflict as set forth in subsection (a)(1) of this Section has preference over all other qualifying candidates, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care at any Illinois Veterans Home.

(Source: P.A. 97-297, eff. 1-1-12.)

(20 ILCS 2805/5) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 70)

Sec. 5. (a) Every veteran with a disability who is a resident of Illinois and disabled shall be exempt from all camping and admission fees in parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources. For the purpose of this subsection (a), a resident disabled veteran with a disability is one who has a permanent disability is permanently disabled from service connected causes with 100% disability or one who has permanently lost the use of a leg or both legs or an arm or both arms or any combination thereof or any person who has a disability so severe is so severely disabled as to be unable to move without the aid of crutches or a wheelchair. The Department shall issue free use permits to those eligible veterans. To establish eligibility, the veteran shall present an award letter or some other identifying disability document, together with proper identification, to any office of the Department. Subject to the approval of the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Veterans' Affairs shall establish the form or permit identifier to be issued.

(b) Every veteran who is a resident of Illinois and a former prisoner of war shall be exempt from all camping and admission fees in parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources. For the purposes of this subsection (b), a former prisoner of war is a veteran who was taken and held prisoner by a hostile foreign force while participating in an armed conflict as a member of the United States armed forces. Any identification card or other form of identification issued by the Veterans' Administration or other governmental agency which indicates the card-holder's former prisoner of war status shall be sufficient to accord such card-holder the fee-exempt admission or camping privileges under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96.)

Section 235. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3805/13) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 313)

Sec. 13. The Authority shall require that occupancy of all housing financed or otherwise assisted under this Act be open to all persons regardless of race, national origin, religion, creed, sex, age or physical or mental disability handicap and that contractors and subcontractors engaged in the construction or rehabilitation of such housing or any housing related commercial facility, shall provide equal opportunity for employment without discrimination as to race, national origin, religion, creed, sex, age or physical or mental disability handicap.

(Source: P.A. 83-1251.)

Section 240. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Section 1-127 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-127)

Sec. 1-127. Minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities Minority, female, and disabled persons businesses; reports.

(a) The Director of the Illinois Power Agency, or his or her designee, when offering bids for professional services, shall conduct outreach to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities. Outreach shall include, but is not limited to, advertisements in periodicals and newspapers, mailings, and other appropriate media.

(b) The Director or his or her designee shall, upon request, provide technical assistance to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities seeking to do business with the Agency.

(c) The Director or his or her designee, upon request, shall conduct post-bid reviews with minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities whose bids were not selected by the Agency. Post-bid reviews shall provide a business with detailed and specific reasons why the bid of that business was rejected and concrete recommendations to improve its bid application on future Agency professional services opportunities.

(d) The Agency shall report annually to the Governor and the General Assembly by July 1. The report shall identify the businesses that have provided bids to offer professional services to the Agency and shall also include, but not be limited to, the following information:

(1) whether or not the businesses are minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, or businesses owned by persons with disabilities;

(2) the percentage of professional service contracts that were awarded to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities as compared to other businesses; and

(3) the actions the Agency has undertaken to increase the use of the minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities in professional service contracts.

(e) In this Section, "professional services" means services that use skills that are predominantly mental or intellectual, rather than physical or manual, including, but not limited to, accounting, architecture, consulting, engineering, finance, legal, and marketing. "Professional services" does not include bidders into the competitive procurement process pursuant to Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07.)

Section 245. The Guardianship and Advocacy Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3955/Act title)

An Act to create the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, to safeguard the rights and to provide legal counsel and representation for eligible persons and to create the Office of State Guardian for persons with disabilities disabled persons.

(20 ILCS 3955/2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 702)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Authority" means a Human Rights Authority.

(b) "Commission" means the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.

(d) "Guardian" means a court appointed guardian or conservator.

(e) "Services" includes but is not limited to examination, diagnosis, evaluation, treatment, care, training, psychotherapy, pharmaceuticals, after-care, habilitation, and rehabilitation provided for an eligible person.

(f) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, unincorporated organization, or a government or any subdivision, agency, or instrumentality thereof.

(g) "Eligible persons" means individuals who have received, are receiving, have requested, or may be in need of mental health services, or are "persons with a developmental disability" as defined in the federal Developmental Disabilities Services and Facilities Construction Act (Public Law 94-103, Title II), as now or hereafter amended, or "persons with disabilities disabled" as defined in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(h) "Rights" includes but is not limited to all rights, benefits, and privileges guaranteed by law, the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and the Constitution of the United States.

(i) "Legal Advocacy Service attorney" means an attorney employed by or under contract with the Legal Advocacy Service.

(j) "Service provider" means any public or private facility, center, hospital, clinic, program, or any other person devoted in whole or in part to providing services to eligible persons.

(k) "State Guardian" means the Office of State Guardian.

(l) "Ward" means a ward as defined by the Probate Act of 1975, as now or hereafter amended, who is at least 18 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96.)

Section 250. The State Finance Act is amended by changing Sections 5.779, 6z-71, 6z-83, 6z-95, and 8.8 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.779)

Sec. 5.779. The Property Tax Relief for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans Property Tax Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1424, eff. 8-3-10.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-71)

Sec. 6z-71. Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund. The Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall use moneys in the Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund to make grants to the Illinois Facilities Fund, a not-for-profit corporation, to make long term below market rate loans to nonprofit human service providers working under contract to the State of Illinois to assist those providers in meeting their capital needs. The loans shall be for the purpose of such capital needs, including but not limited to special use facilities, requirements for serving persons with disabilities, the the disabled, mentally ill, or substance abusers, and medical and technology equipment. Loan repayments shall be deposited into the Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund. Interest income may be used to cover expenses of the program. The Illinois Facilities Fund shall report to the Department of Human Services and the General Assembly by April 1, 2008, and again by April 1, 2009, as to the use and earnings of the program.

A portion of the proceeds from the sale of a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human Services may be deposited into the Fund and may be used for the purposes described in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-815, eff. 8-1-14.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-83)

Sec. 6z-83. The Property Tax Relief for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans Property Tax Relief Fund; creation. The Property Tax Relief for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans Property Tax Relief Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Veterans' Affairs for the purpose of providing property tax relief to veterans with disabilities disabled veterans. The Department of Veterans' Affairs may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1424, eff. 8-3-10.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-95)

Sec. 6z-95. The Housing for Families Fund; creation. The Housing for Families Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Human Services to make grants to public or private not-for-profit entities for the purpose of building new housing for low income, working poor, disabled, low credit, and no credit families and families with disabilities. For the purposes of this Section, "low income", "working poor", "families with disabilities disabled", "low credit", and "no credit families" shall be defined by the Department of Human Services by rule.

(Source: P.A. 97-1117, eff. 8-27-12.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.8) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.8)

Sec. 8.8. Appropriations for the improvement, development, addition or expansion of services for the care, treatment, and training of persons who have intellectual disabilities are intellectually disabled or subject to involuntary admission under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or for the financing of any program designed to provide such improvement, development, addition or expansion of services or for expenses associated with providing services to other units of government under Section 5-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or other ordinary and contingent expenses of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, are payable from the Mental Health Fund. However, no expenditures shall be made for the purchase, construction, lease, or rental of buildings for use as State-operated mental health or developmental disability facilities.

(Source: P.A. 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-665, eff. 6-1-12.)

Section 255. The State Officers and Employees Money Disposition Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 230/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 170)

Sec. 1. Application of Act; exemptions. The officers of the Executive Department of the State Government, the Clerk of the Supreme Court, the Clerks of the Appellate Courts, the Departments of the State government created by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, and all other officers, boards, commissions, commissioners, departments, institutions, arms or agencies, or agents of the Executive Department of the State government except the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the Cooperative Computer Center, and the Board of Trustees of the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Foundation for moneys collected pursuant to subsection (11) of Section 48 of the Illinois Banking Act for purposes of the Illinois Bank Examiners' Education Program are subject to this Act. This Act shall not apply, however, to any of the following: (i) the receipt by any such officer of federal funds made available under such conditions as precluded the payment thereof into the State Treasury, (ii) (blank), (iii) the Director of Insurance in his capacity as rehabilitator or liquidator under Article XIII of the Illinois Insurance Code, (iv) funds received by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission from private firms employed by the State to collect delinquent amounts due and owing from a borrower on any loans guaranteed by such Commission under the Higher Education Student Assistance Law or on any "eligible loans" as that term is defined under the Education Loan Purchase Program Law, or (v) moneys collected on behalf of lessees of facilities of the Department of Agriculture located on the Illinois State Fairgrounds at Springfield and DuQuoin. This Section 1 shall not apply to the receipt of funds required to be deposited in the Industrial Project Fund pursuant to Section 12 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-850, eff. 8-26-02.)

Section 260. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 653)

Sec. 3. Capital Facilities. The amount of $9,753,963,443 is authorized to be used for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities within the State, consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, land, interests in land, and the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology, including but not limited to the purchase of hardware and software, for the following specific purposes:

(a) $3,393,228,000 for educational purposes by State universities and colleges, the Illinois Community College Board created by the Public Community College Act and for grants to public community colleges as authorized by Sections 5-11 and 5-12 of the Public Community College Act;

(b) $1,648,420,000 for correctional purposes at State prison and correctional centers;

(c) $599,183,000 for open spaces, recreational and conservation purposes and the protection of land;

(d) $751,317,000 for child care facilities, mental and public health facilities, and facilities for the care of veterans with disabilities disabled veterans and their spouses;

(e) $2,152,790,000 for use by the State, its departments, authorities, public corporations, commissions and agencies;

(f) $818,100 for cargo handling facilities at port districts and for breakwaters, including harbor entrances, at port districts in conjunction with facilities for small boats and pleasure crafts;

(g) $297,177,074 for water resource management projects;

(h) $16,940,269 for the provision of facilities for food production research and related instructional and public service activities at the State universities and public community colleges;

(i) $36,000,000 for grants by the Secretary of State, as State Librarian, for central library facilities authorized by Section 8 of the Illinois Library System Act and for grants by the Capital Development Board to units of local government for public library facilities;

(j) $25,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for grants to counties, municipalities or public building commissions with correctional facilities that do not comply with the minimum standards of the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(k) $5,000,000 for grants in fiscal year 1988 by the Department of Conservation for improvement or expansion of aquarium facilities located on property owned by a park district;

(l) $599,590,000 to State agencies for grants to local governments for the acquisition, financing, architectural planning, development, alteration, installation, and construction of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land; and

(m) $228,500,000 for the Illinois Open Land Trust Program as defined by the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

The amounts authorized above for capital facilities may be used for the acquisition, installation, alteration, construction, or reconstruction of capital facilities and for the purchase of equipment for the purpose of major capital improvements which will reduce energy consumption in State buildings or facilities.

(Source: P.A. 98-94, eff. 7-17-13.)

Section 265. The Capital Development Bond Act of 1972 is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 420/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 753)

Sec. 3. The State of Illinois is authorized to issue, sell and provide for the retirement of general obligation bonds of the State of Illinois in the amount of $1,737,000,000 hereinafter called the "Bonds", for the specific purpose of providing funds for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interests in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection therewith and for the acquisition, protection and development of natural resources, including water related resources, within the State of Illinois for open spaces, water resource management, recreational and conservation purposes, all within the State of Illinois.

The Bonds shall be used in the following specific manner:

(a) $636,697,287 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for educational purposes by State universities and colleges, the Illinois Community College Board created by "An Act in relation to the establishment, operation and maintenance of public community colleges", approved July 15, 1965, as amended and by the School Building Commission created by "An Act to provide for the acquisition, construction, rental, and disposition of buildings used for school purposes", approved June 21, 1957, as amended, or its successor, all within the State of Illinois, and for grants to public community colleges as authorized by Section 5-11 of the Public Community College Act; and for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction rehabilitation, improvement, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of durable movable equipment, including antennas and structures necessarily relating thereto, for the Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities to construct educational television facilities, which educational television facilities may be located upon land or structures not owned by the State providing that the Board of Governors has at least a 25-year lease for the use of such non-state owned land or structures, which lease may contain a provision making it subject to annual appropriations by the General Assembly;

(b) $323,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for correctional purposes at State prisons and correctional centers, all within the State of Illinois;

(c) $157,020,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land for open spaces, recreational and conservation purposes and the protection of land, all within the State of Illinois;

(d) $146,580,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for child care facilities, mental and public health facilities, and facilities for the care of veterans with disabilities disabled veterans and their spouses, all within the State of Illinois;

(e) $348,846,200 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for use by the State, its departments, authorities, public corporations, commissions and agencies;

(f) To reimburse the Illinois Building Authority created by "An Act to create the Illinois Building Authority and to define its powers and duties", as approved August 15, 1961, as amended, for any and all costs and expenses incurred, and to be incurred, by the Illinois Building Authority in connection with the acquisition, construction, development, reconstruction, improvement, planning, installation and financing of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, equipment and land as enumerated in subsections (a) through (e) hereof, and in connection therewith to acquire from the Illinois Building Authority any such capital facilities; provided, however, that nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed to require or permit the acquisition of facilities financed by the Illinois Building authority through the issuance of bonds;

(g) $24,853,800 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of buildings, structures, durable equipment, and land for:

(1) Cargo handling facilities for use by port districts, and

(2) Breakwaters, including harbor entrances incident thereto, for use by port districts in conjunction with facilities for small boats and pleasure craft;

(h) $39,900,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, modification, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for water resource management projects, all within the State of Illinois;

(i) $9,852,713 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for educational purposes by nonprofit, nonpublic health service educational institutions;

(j) $48,000,000 for the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, improvement, financing, architectural planning and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, durable equipment and land for the provision of facilities for food production research and related instructional and public service activities at the State universities and public community colleges, all within the State of Illinois;

(k) $2,250,000 for grants by the Secretary of State, as State Librarian, for the construction, acquisition, development, reconstruction and improvement of central library facilities authorized under Section 8 of "The Illinois Library System Act", as amended.

(Source: P.A. 86-453.)

Section 270. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 25-60 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/25-60)

Sec. 25-60. Prevailing wage requirements.

(a) All services furnished under service contracts of $2,000 or more or $200 or more per month and under printing contracts shall be subject to the following prevailing wage requirements:

(1) Not less than the general prevailing wage rate of hourly wages for work of a similar character in the locality in which the work is produced shall be paid by the successful bidder, offeror, or potential contractor to its employees who perform the work on the State contracts. The bidder, offeror, potential contractor, or contractor in order to be considered to be a responsible bidder, offeror, potential contractor, or contractor for the purposes of this Code, shall certify to the purchasing agency that wages to be paid to its employees are no less, and fringe benefits and working conditions of employees are not less favorable, than those prevailing in the locality where the contract is to be performed. Prevailing wages and working conditions shall be determined by the Director of the Illinois Department of Labor.

(2) Whenever a collective bargaining agreement is in effect between an employer, other than a governmental body, and service or printing employees as defined in this Section who are represented by a responsible organization that is in no way influenced or controlled by the management, that agreement and its provisions shall be considered as conditions prevalent in that locality and shall be the minimum requirements taken into consideration by the Director of Labor.

(b) As used in this Section, "services" means janitorial cleaning services, window cleaning services, building and grounds services, site technician services, natural resources services, food services, and security services. "Printing" means and includes all processes and operations involved in printing, including but not limited to letterpress, offset, and gravure processes, the multilith method, photographic or other duplicating process, the operations of composition, platemaking, presswork, and binding, and the end products of those processes, methods, and operations. As used in this Code "printing" does not include photocopiers used in the course of normal business activities, photographic equipment used for geographic mapping, or printed matter that is commonly available to the general public from contractor inventory.

(c) The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages", or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Section mean the hourly cash wages plus fringe benefits for health and welfare, insurance, vacations, and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character.

(d) "Locality" shall have the meaning established by rule.

(e) This Section does not apply to services furnished under contracts for professional or artistic services.

(f) This Section does not apply to vocational programs of training for persons with physical or mental disabilities physically or mentally handicapped persons or to sheltered workshops for persons with severe disabilities the severely disabled.

(Source: P.A. 98-1076, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 275. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2016)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as a person with a disability being disabled under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Person with a disability Disabled" means a person with a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

an intellectual disability,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business concern which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" shall mean all State contracts, funded exclusively with State funds which are not subject to federal reimbursement, whether competitively bid or negotiated as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the Council.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or State university for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "State universities" shall mean the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and controlled by females shall be certified as a "female owned business". A business owned and controlled by females who are also minorities shall be certified as both a "female owned business" and a "minority owned business".

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business concern or business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business concern is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the business concern.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-95, eff. 7-17-13.)

Section 280. The State Facilities Closure Act is amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 608/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Facility closure process.

(a) Before a State facility may be closed, the State executive branch officer with jurisdiction over the facility shall file notice of the proposed closure with the Commission. The notice must be filed within 2 days after the first public announcement of any planned or proposed closure. Within 10 days after it receives notice of the proposed closure, the Commission, in its discretion, may require the State executive branch officer with jurisdiction over the facility to file a recommendation for the closure of the facility with the Commission. In the case of a proposed closure of: (i) a prison, youth center, work camp, or work release center operated by the Department of Corrections; (ii) a school, mental health center, or center for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled operated by the Department of Human Services; or (iii) a residential facility operated by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Commission must require the executive branch officers to file a recommendation for closure. The recommendation must be filed within 30 days after the Commission delivers the request for recommendation to the State executive branch officer. The recommendation must include, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) the location and identity of the State facility proposed to be closed;

(2) the number of employees for which the State facility is the primary stationary work location and the effect of the closure of the facility on those employees;

(3) the location or locations to which the functions and employees of the State facility would be moved;

(4) the availability and condition of land and facilities at both the existing location and any potential locations;

(5) the ability to accommodate the functions and employees at the existing and at any potential locations;

(6) the cost of operations of the State facility and at any potential locations and any other related budgetary impacts;

(7) the economic impact on existing communities in the vicinity of the State facility and any potential facility;

(8) the ability of the existing and any potential community's infrastructure to support the functions and employees;

(9) the impact on State services delivered at the existing location, in direct relation to the State services expected to be delivered at any potential locations; and

(10) the environmental impact, including the impact of costs related to potential environmental restoration, waste management, and environmental compliance activities.

(b) If a recommendation is required by the Commission, a 30-day public comment period must follow the filing of the recommendation. The Commission, in its discretion, may conduct one or more public hearings on the recommendation. In the case of a proposed closure of: (i) a prison, youth center, work camp, or work release center operated by the Department of Corrections; (ii) a school, mental health center, or center for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled operated by the Department of Human Services; or (iii) a residential facility operated by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Commission must conduct one or more public hearings on the recommendation. Public hearings conducted by the Commission shall be conducted no later than 35 days after the filing of the recommendation. At least one of the public hearings on the recommendation shall be held at a convenient location within 25 miles of the facility for which closure is recommended. The Commission shall provide reasonable notice of the comment period and of any public hearings to the public and to units of local government and school districts that are located within 25 miles of the facility.

(c) Within 50 days after the State executive branch officer files the required recommendation, the Commission shall issue an advisory opinion on that recommendation. The Commission shall file the advisory opinion with the appropriate State executive branch officer, the Governor, the General Assembly, and the Index Department of the Office of the Secretary of State and shall make copies of the advisory opinion available to the public upon request.

(d) No action may be taken to implement the recommendation for closure of a State facility until 50 days after the filing of any required recommendation.

(e) The requirements of this Section do not apply if all of the functions and employees of a State facility are relocated to another State facility that is within 10 miles of the closed facility.

(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; 94-688, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 285. The Downstate Public Transportation Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5.1, 2-15.2, and 2-15.3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 740/2-5.1)

Sec. 2-5.1. Additional requirements.

(a) Any unit of local government that becomes a participant on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall, in addition to any other requirements under this Article, meet all of the following requirements when applying for grants under this Article:

(1) The grant application must demonstrate the participant's plan to provide general public transportation with an emphasis on persons with disabilities and elderly, disabled, and economically disadvantaged populations.

(2) The grant application must demonstrate the participant's plan for interagency coordination that, at a minimum, allows the participation of all State-funded and federally-funded agencies and programs with transportation needs in the proposed service area in the development of the applicant's public transportation program.

(3) Any participant serving a nonurbanized area that is not receiving Federal Section 5311 funding must meet the operating and safety compliance requirements as set forth in that federal program.

(4) The participant is required to hold public hearings to allow comment on the proposed service plan in all municipalities with populations of 1,500 inhabitants or more within the proposed service area.

(b) Service extensions by any participant after July 1, 2005 by either annexation or intergovernmental agreement must meet the 4 requirements of subsection (a).

(c) In order to receive funding, the Department shall certify that the participant has met the requirements of this Section. Funding priority shall be given to service extension, multi-county, and multi-jurisdictional projects.

(d) The Department shall develop an annual application process for existing or potential participants to request an initial appropriation or an appropriation exceeding the formula amount found in subsection (b-10) of Section 2-7 for funding service in new areas in the next fiscal year. The application shall include, but not be limited to, a description of the new service area, proposed service in the new area, and a budget for providing existing and new service. The Department shall review the application for reasonableness and compliance with the requirements of this Section, and, if it approves the application, shall recommend to the Governor an appropriation for the next fiscal year in an amount sufficient to provide 65% of projected eligible operating expenses associated with a new participant's service area or the portion of an existing participant's service area that has been expanded by annexation or intergovernmental agreement. The recommended appropriation for the next fiscal year may exceed the formula amount found in subsection (b-10) of Section 2-7.

(Source: P.A. 96-1458, eff. 1-1-11.)

(30 ILCS 740/2-15.2)

Sec. 2-15.2. Free services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, every participant, as defined in Section 2-2.02 (1)(a), shall be provided without charge to all senior citizen residents of the participant aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the participant.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, every participant, as defined in Section 2-2.02 (1)(a), shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the participant. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the participant from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1527, eff. 2-14-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(30 ILCS 740/2-15.3)

Sec. 2-15.3. Transit services for individuals with disabilities disabled individuals. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contract of, any participant shall be provided without charge to all persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such procedures as shall be prescribed by the participant. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 290. The Build Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 9-4.3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 750/9-4.3) (from Ch. 127, par. 2709-4.3)

Sec. 9-4.3. Minority, veteran, female and disability loans.

(a) In the making of loans for minority, veteran, female or disability small businesses, as defined below, the Department is authorized to employ different criteria in lieu of the general provisions of subsections (b), (d), (e), (f), (h), and (i) of Section 9-4.

Minority, veteran, female or disability small businesses, for the purpose of this Section, shall be defined as small businesses that are, in the Department's judgment, at least 51% owned and managed by one or more persons who are minority or , female or who have a disability disabled or who are veterans.

(b) Loans made pursuant to this Section:

(1) Shall not exceed $100,000 or 50% of the business project costs unless the Director of the Department determines that a waiver of these limits is required to meet the purposes of this Act.

(2) Shall only be made if, in the Department's judgment, the number of jobs to be created or retained is reasonable in relation to the loan funds requested.

(3) Shall be protected by security. Financial assistance may be secured by first, second or subordinate mortgage positions on real or personal property, by royalty payments, by personal notes or guarantees, or by any other security satisfactory to the Department to secure repayment. Security valuation requirements, as determined by the Department, for the purposes of this Section, may be less than required for similar loans not covered by this Section, provided the applicants demonstrate adequate business experience, entrepreneurial training or combination thereof, as determined by the Department.

(4) Shall be in such principal amount and form and contain such terms and provisions with respect to security, insurance, reporting, delinquency charges, default remedies, and other matters as the Department shall determine appropriate to protect the public interest and consistent with the purposes of this Section. The terms and provisions may be less than required for similar loans not covered by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-97, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1106, eff. 7-19-10.)

Section 295. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 507XX and 917 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/507XX)

Sec. 507XX. The property tax relief checkoff for veterans with disabilities disabled veterans property tax relief checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2010, the Department shall print, on its standard individual income tax form, a provision indicating that, if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Property Tax Relief for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans Property Tax Relief Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, then he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and indicating that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. The taxpayer's failure to remit any amount of the increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 96-1424, eff. 8-3-10.)

(35 ILCS 5/917) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-917)

Sec. 917. Confidentiality and information sharing.

(a) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the Department from returns filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within the Department or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by another statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, the provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to information furnished to (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General for child support enforcement purposes and (ii) a licensed attorney representing the taxpayer where an appeal or a protest has been filed on behalf of the taxpayer. If it is necessary to file information obtained pursuant to this Act in a child support enforcement proceeding, the information shall be filed under seal.

(b) Public information. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from publishing or making available to the public the names and addresses of persons filing returns under this Act, or from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the tax wherein the contents of returns are grouped into aggregates in such a way that the information contained in any individual return shall not be disclosed.

(c) Governmental agencies. The Director may make available to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or his delegate, or the proper officer or his delegate of any other state imposing a tax upon or measured by income, for exclusively official purposes, information received by the Department in the administration of this Act, but such permission shall be granted only if the United States or such other state, as the case may be, grants the Department substantially similar privileges. The Director may exchange information with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and any other health benefit program administered by the State. The Director may exchange information with the Director of the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and Acts administered by the Department of Employment Security. The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department on Aging for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income for purposes directly related to confirming eligibility for participation in the programs of benefits authorized by the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, which licenses persons to engage in any occupation, information that a person licensed by such agency has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, information regarding whether a bidder, contractor, or an affiliate of a bidder or contractor has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty, and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest due under this Act, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, units of local government, and school districts, information regarding whether a bidder or contractor is an affiliate of a person who is not collecting and remitting Illinois Use taxes, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications.

The Director may also make available to the Secretary of State information that a corporation which has been issued a certificate of incorporation by the Secretary of State has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. An assessment is final when all proceedings in court for review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the Director may make available to the Director or principal officer of any Department of the State of Illinois, information that a person employed by such Department has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein. For purposes of this paragraph, the word "Department" shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 3 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

(d) The Director shall make available for public inspection in the Department's principal office and for publication, at cost, administrative decisions issued on or after January 1, 1995. These decisions are to be made available in a manner so that the following taxpayer information is not disclosed:

(1) The names, addresses, and identification numbers of the taxpayer, related entities, and employees.

(2) At the sole discretion of the Director, trade secrets or other confidential information identified as such by the taxpayer, no later than 30 days after receipt of an administrative decision, by such means as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Director shall determine the appropriate extent of the deletions allowed in paragraph (2). In the event the taxpayer does not submit deletions, the Director shall make only the deletions specified in paragraph (1).

The Director shall make available for public inspection and publication an administrative decision within 180 days after the issuance of the administrative decision. The term "administrative decision" has the same meaning as defined in Section 3-101 of Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. Costs collected under this Section shall be paid into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from divulging information to any person pursuant to a request or authorization made by the taxpayer, by an authorized representative of the taxpayer, or, in the case of information related to a joint return, by the spouse filing the joint return with the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1501, eff. 1-25-11.)

Section 300. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-8 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purpose of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, Medicare patients with disabilities disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 105/3-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 305. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-8 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, Medicare patients with disabilities disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 310. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-8 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-8)

Sec. 3-8. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, Medicare patients with disabilities disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 315. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-9 and 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-9)

Sec. 2-9. Hospital exemption.

(a) Tangible personal property sold to or used by a hospital owner that owns one or more hospitals licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a hospital affiliate that is not already exempt under another provision of this Act and meets the criteria for an exemption under this Section, is exempt from taxation under this Act.

(b) A hospital owner or hospital affiliate satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section if the value of qualified services or activities listed in subsection (c) of this Section for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, without regard to any property tax exemption granted under Section 15-86 of the Property Tax Code, for the calendar year in which exemption or renewal of exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (b), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (c) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

(c) The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, Medicare patients with disabilities disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospital's most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (b). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (b), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) For purposes of making the calculations required by this Section:

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (c) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (b) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) For the purpose of this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for an exemption or renewal of exemption under this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property used for the calculation under subsection (b) of this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 325. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 9-275, 15-10, 15-86, 15-165, 15-168, 15-169, 15-172, 15-175, 18-185, 20-15, and 21-27 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/9-275)

Sec. 9-275. Erroneous homestead exemptions.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Erroneous homestead exemption" means a homestead exemption that was granted for real property in a taxable year if the property was not eligible for that exemption in that taxable year. If the taxpayer receives an erroneous homestead exemption under a single Section of this Code for the same property in multiple years, that exemption is considered a single erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this Section. However, if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead exemptions under multiple Sections of this Code for the same property, or if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead exemptions under the same Section of this Code for multiple properties, then each of those exemptions is considered a separate erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this Section.

"Homestead exemption" means an exemption under Section 15-165 (veterans with disabilities disabled veterans), 15-167 (returning veterans), 15-168 (persons with disabilities disabled persons), 15-169 (standard homestead for veterans with disabilities disabled veterans standard homestead), 15-170 (senior citizens), 15-172 (senior citizens assessment freeze), 15-175 (general homestead), 15-176 (alternative general homestead), or 15-177 (long-time occupant).

"Erroneous exemption principal amount" means the total difference between the property taxes actually billed to a property index number and the amount of property taxes that would have been billed but for the erroneous exemption or exemptions.

"Taxpayer" means the property owner or leasehold owner that erroneously received a homestead exemption upon property.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall include the following information with each assessment notice sent in a general assessment year: (1) a list of each homestead exemption available under Article 15 of this Code and a description of the eligibility criteria for that exemption; (2) a list of each homestead exemption applied to the property in the current assessment year; (3) information regarding penalties and interest that may be incurred under this Section if the taxpayer received an erroneous homestead exemption in a previous taxable year; and (4) notice of the 60-day grace period available under this subsection. If, within 60 days after receiving his or her assessment notice, the taxpayer notifies the chief county assessment officer that he or she received an erroneous homestead exemption in a previous taxable year, and if the taxpayer pays the erroneous exemption principal amount, plus interest as provided in subsection (f), then the taxpayer shall not be liable for the penalties provided in subsection (f) with respect to that exemption.

(c) In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, when the chief county assessment officer determines that one or more erroneous homestead exemptions was applied to the property, the erroneous exemption principal amount, together with all applicable interest and penalties as provided in subsections (f) and (j), shall constitute a lien in the name of the People of Cook County on the property receiving the erroneous homestead exemption. Upon becoming aware of the existence of one or more erroneous homestead exemptions, the chief county assessment officer shall cause to be served, by both regular mail and certified mail, a notice of discovery as set forth in subsection (c-5). The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants may cause a lien to be recorded against property that (1) is located in the county and (2) received one or more erroneous homestead exemptions if, upon determination of the chief county assessment officer, the taxpayer received: (A) one or 2 erroneous homestead exemptions for real property, including at least one erroneous homestead exemption granted for the property against which the lien is sought, during any of the 3 collection years immediately prior to the current collection year in which the notice of discovery is served; or (B) 3 or more erroneous homestead exemptions for real property, including at least one erroneous homestead exemption granted for the property against which the lien is sought, during any of the 6 collection years immediately prior to the current collection year in which the notice of discovery is served. Prior to recording the lien against the property, the chief county assessment officer shall cause to be served, by both regular mail and certified mail, return receipt requested, on the person to whom the most recent tax bill was mailed and the owner of record, a notice of intent to record a lien against the property. The chief county assessment officer shall cause the notice of intent to record a lien to be served within 3 years from the date on which the notice of discovery was served.

(c-5) The notice of discovery described in subsection (c) shall: (1) identify, by property index number, the property for which the chief county assessment officer has knowledge indicating the existence of an erroneous homestead exemption; (2) set forth the taxpayer's liability for principal, interest, penalties, and administrative costs including, but not limited to, recording fees described in subsection (f); (3) inform the taxpayer that he or she will be served with a notice of intent to record a lien within 3 years from the date of service of the notice of discovery; and (4) inform the taxpayer that he or she may pay the outstanding amount, plus interest, penalties, and administrative costs at any time prior to being served with the notice of intent to record a lien or within 30 days after the notice of intent to record a lien is served.

(d) The notice of intent to record a lien described in subsection (c) shall: (1) identify, by property index number, the property against which the lien is being sought; (2) identify each specific homestead exemption that was erroneously granted and the year or years in which each exemption was granted; (3) set forth the erroneous exemption principal amount due and the interest amount and any penalty and administrative costs due; (4) inform the taxpayer that he or she may request a hearing within 30 days after service and may appeal the hearing officer's ruling to the circuit court; (5) inform the taxpayer that he or she may pay the erroneous exemption principal amount, plus interest and penalties, within 30 days after service; and (6) inform the taxpayer that, if the lien is recorded against the property, the amount of the lien will be adjusted to include the applicable recording fee and that fees for recording a release of the lien shall be incurred by the taxpayer. A lien shall not be filed pursuant to this Section if the taxpayer pays the erroneous exemption principal amount, plus penalties and interest, within 30 days of service of the notice of intent to record a lien.

(e) The notice of intent to record a lien shall also include a form that the taxpayer may return to the chief county assessment officer to request a hearing. The taxpayer may request a hearing by returning the form within 30 days after service. The hearing shall be held within 90 days after the taxpayer is served. The chief county assessment officer shall promulgate rules of service and procedure for the hearing. The chief county assessment officer must generally follow rules of evidence and practices that prevail in the county circuit courts, but, because of the nature of these proceedings, the chief county assessment officer is not bound by those rules in all particulars. The chief county assessment officer shall appoint a hearing officer to oversee the hearing. The taxpayer shall be allowed to present evidence to the hearing officer at the hearing. After taking into consideration all the relevant testimony and evidence, the hearing officer shall make an administrative decision on whether the taxpayer was erroneously granted a homestead exemption for the taxable year in question. The taxpayer may appeal the hearing officer's ruling to the circuit court of the county where the property is located as a final administrative decision under the Administrative Review Law.

(f) A lien against the property imposed under this Section shall be filed with the county recorder of deeds, but may not be filed sooner than 60 days after the notice of intent to record a lien was delivered to the taxpayer if the taxpayer does not request a hearing, or until the conclusion of the hearing and all appeals if the taxpayer does request a hearing. If a lien is filed pursuant to this Section and the taxpayer received one or 2 erroneous homestead exemptions during any of the 3 collection years immediately prior to the current collection year in which the notice of discovery is served, then the erroneous exemption principal amount, plus 10% interest per annum or portion thereof from the date the erroneous exemption principal amount would have become due if properly included in the tax bill, shall be charged against the property by the chief county assessment officer. However, if a lien is filed pursuant to this Section and the taxpayer received 3 or more erroneous homestead exemptions during any of the 6 collection years immediately prior to the current collection year in which the notice of discovery is served, the erroneous exemption principal amount, plus a penalty of 50% of the total amount of the erroneous exemption principal amount for that property and 10% interest per annum or portion thereof from the date the erroneous exemption principal amount would have become due if properly included in the tax bill, shall be charged against the property by the chief county assessment officer. If a lien is filed pursuant to this Section, the taxpayer shall not be liable for interest that accrues between the date the notice of discovery is served and the date the lien is filed. Before recording the lien with the county recorder of deeds, the chief county assessment officer shall adjust the amount of the lien to add administrative costs, including but not limited to the applicable recording fee, to the total lien amount.

(g) If a person received an erroneous homestead exemption under Section 15-170 and: (1) the person was the spouse, child, grandchild, brother, sister, niece, or nephew of the previous taxpayer; and (2) the person received the property by bequest or inheritance; then the person is not liable for the penalties imposed under this Section for any year or years during which the chief county assessment officer did not require an annual application for the exemption. However, that person is responsible for any interest owed under subsection (f).

(h) If the erroneous homestead exemption was granted as a result of a clerical error or omission on the part of the chief county assessment officer, and if the taxpayer has paid the tax bills as received for the year in which the error occurred, then the interest and penalties authorized by this Section with respect to that homestead exemption shall not be chargeable to the taxpayer. However, nothing in this Section shall prevent the collection of the erroneous exemption principal amount due and owing.

(i) A lien under this Section is not valid as to (1) any bona fide purchaser for value without notice of the erroneous homestead exemption whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose after the erroneous homestead exemption was granted but before the filing of the notice of lien; or (2) any mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lienor whose rights in and to the underlying parcel arose before the filing of the notice of lien. A title insurance policy for the property that is issued by a title company licensed to do business in the State showing that the property is free and clear of any liens imposed under this Section shall be prima facie evidence that the taxpayer is without notice of the erroneous homestead exemption. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to impair the rights of subsequent creditors and subsequent purchasers under Section 30 of the Conveyances Act.

(j) When a lien is filed against the property pursuant to this Section, the chief county assessment officer shall mail a copy of the lien to the person to whom the most recent tax bill was mailed and to the owner of record, and the outstanding liability created by such a lien is due and payable within 30 days after the mailing of the lien by the chief county assessment officer. This liability is deemed delinquent and shall bear interest beginning on the day after the due date at a rate of 1.5% per month or portion thereof. Payment shall be made to the county treasurer. Upon receipt of the full amount due, as determined by the chief county assessment officer, the county treasurer shall distribute the amount paid as provided in subsection (k). Upon presentment by the taxpayer to the chief county assessment officer of proof of payment of the total liability, the chief county assessment officer shall provide in reasonable form a release of the lien. The release of the lien provided shall clearly inform the taxpayer that it is the responsibility of the taxpayer to record the lien release form with the county recorder of deeds and to pay any applicable recording fees.

(k) The county treasurer shall pay collected erroneous exemption principal amounts, pro rata, to the taxing districts, or their legal successors, that levied upon the subject property in the taxable year or years for which the erroneous homestead exemptions were granted, except as set forth in this Section. The county treasurer shall deposit collected penalties and interest into a special fund established by the county treasurer to offset the costs of administration of the provisions of this Section by the chief county assessment officer's office, as appropriated by the county board. If the costs of administration of this Section exceed the amount of interest and penalties collected in the special fund, the chief county assessor shall be reimbursed by each taxing district or their legal successors for those costs. Such costs shall be paid out of the funds collected by the county treasurer on behalf of each taxing district pursuant to this Section.

(l) The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall establish an amnesty period for all taxpayers owing any tax due to an erroneous homestead exemption granted in a tax year prior to the 2013 tax year. The amnesty period shall begin on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and shall run through December 31, 2013. If, during the amnesty period, the taxpayer pays the entire arrearage of taxes due for tax years prior to 2013, the county clerk shall abate and not seek to collect any interest or penalties that may be applicable and shall not seek civil or criminal prosecution for any taxpayer for tax years prior to 2013. Failure to pay all such taxes due during the amnesty period established under this Section shall invalidate the amnesty period for that taxpayer.

The chief county assessment officer in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall (i) mail notice of the amnesty period with the tax bills for the second installment of taxes for the 2012 assessment year and (ii) as soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, publish notice of the amnesty period in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. Notices shall include information on the amnesty period, its purpose, and the method by which to make payment.

Taxpayers who are a party to any criminal investigation or to any civil or criminal litigation that is pending in any circuit court or appellate court, or in the Supreme Court of this State, for nonpayment, delinquency, or fraud in relation to any property tax imposed by any taxing district located in the State on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may not take advantage of the amnesty period.

A taxpayer who has claimed 3 or more homestead exemptions in error shall not be eligible for the amnesty period established under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 98-93, eff. 7-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-811, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1143, eff. 1-1-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-10)

Sec. 15-10. Exempt property; procedures for certification.

(a) All property granted an exemption by the Department pursuant to the requirements of Section 15-5 and described in the Sections following Section 15-30 and preceding Section 16-5, to the extent therein limited, is exempt from taxation. In order to maintain that exempt status, the titleholder or the owner of the beneficial interest of any property that is exempt must file with the chief county assessment officer, on or before January 31 of each year (May 31 in the case of property exempted by Section 15-170), an affidavit stating whether there has been any change in the ownership or use of the property, the status of the owner-resident, the satisfaction by a relevant hospital entity of the condition for an exemption under Section 15-86, or that a veteran with a disability disabled veteran who qualifies under Section 15-165 owned and used the property as of January 1 of that year. The nature of any change shall be stated in the affidavit. Failure to file an affidavit shall, in the discretion of the assessment officer, constitute cause to terminate the exemption of that property, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code. Owners of 5 or more such exempt parcels within a county may file a single annual affidavit in lieu of an affidavit for each parcel. The assessment officer, upon request, shall furnish an affidavit form to the owners, in which the owner may state whether there has been any change in the ownership or use of the property or status of the owner or resident as of January 1 of that year. The owner of 5 or more exempt parcels shall list all the properties giving the same information for each parcel as required of owners who file individual affidavits.

(b) However, titleholders or owners of the beneficial interest in any property exempted under any of the following provisions are not required to submit an annual filing under this Section:

(1) Section 15-45 (burial grounds) in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants and owned by a not-for-profit organization.

(2) Section 15-40.

(3) Section 15-50 (United States property).

(c) If there is a change in use or ownership, however, notice must be filed pursuant to Section 15-20.

(d) An application for homestead exemptions shall be filed as provided in Section 15-170 (senior citizens homestead exemption), Section 15-172 (senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption), and Sections 15-175 (general homestead exemption), 15-176 (general alternative homestead exemption), and 15-177 (long-time occupant homestead exemption), respectively.

(e) For purposes of determining satisfaction of the condition for an exemption under Section 15-86:

(1) The "year for which exemption is sought" is the year prior to the year in which the affidavit is due.

(2) The "hospital year" is the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospitals in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year prior to the year in which the affidavit is due. However, if that fiscal year ends 3 months or less before the date on which the affidavit is due, the relevant hospital entity shall file an interim affidavit based on the currently available information, and shall file a supplemental affidavit within 90 days of date on which the application was due, if the information in the relevant hospital entity's audited financial statements changes the interim affidavit's statement concerning the entity's compliance with the calculation required by Section 15-86.

(3) The affidavit shall be accompanied by an exhibit prepared by the relevant hospital entity showing (A) the value of the relevant hospital entity's services and activities, if any, under items (1) through (7) of subsection (e) of Section 15-86, stated separately for each item, and (B) the value relating to the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability under paragraphs (A), (B), and (C) of item (1) of subsection (g) of Section 15-86; under paragraphs (A), (B), and (C) of item (2) of subsection (g) of Section 15-86; and under item (3) of subsection (g) of Section 15-86.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-86)

Sec. 15-86. Exemptions related to access to hospital and health care services by low-income and underserved individuals.

(a) The General Assembly finds:

(1) Despite the Supreme Court's decision in Provena Covenant Medical Center v. Dept. of Revenue, 236 Ill.2d 368, there is considerable uncertainty surrounding the test for charitable property tax exemption, especially regarding the application of a quantitative or monetary threshold. In Provena, the Department stated that the primary basis for its decision was the hospital's inadequate amount of charitable activity, but the Department has not articulated what constitutes an adequate amount of charitable activity. After Provena, the Department denied property tax exemption applications of 3 more hospitals, and, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, at least 20 other hospitals are awaiting rulings on applications for property tax exemption.

(2) In Provena, two Illinois Supreme Court justices opined that "setting a monetary or quantum standard is a complex decision which should be left to our legislature, should it so choose". The Appellate Court in Provena

stated: "The language we use in the State of Illinois to determine whether real property is used for a charitable purpose has its genesis in our 1870 Constitution. It is obvious that such language may be difficult to apply to the modern face of our nation's health care delivery systems". The court noted the many significant changes in the health care system since that time, but concluded that taking these changes into account is a matter of public policy, and "it is the legislature's job, not ours, to make public policy".

(3) It is essential to ensure that tax exemption law relating to hospitals accounts for the complexities of the modern health care delivery system. Health care is moving beyond the walls of the hospital. In addition to treating individual patients, hospitals are assuming responsibility for improving the health status of communities and populations. Low-income and underserved communities benefit disproportionately by these activities.

(4) The Supreme Court has explained that: "the fundamental ground upon which all exemptions in favor of charitable institutions are based is the benefit conferred upon the public by them, and a consequent relief, to some extent, of the burden upon the state to care for and advance the interests of its citizens". Hospitals relieve the burden of government in many ways, but most significantly through their participation in and substantial financial subsidization of the Illinois Medicaid program, which could not operate without the participation and partnership of Illinois hospitals.

(5) Working with the Illinois hospital community and other interested parties, the General Assembly has developed a comprehensive combination of related legislation that addresses hospital property tax exemption, significantly increases access to free health care for indigent persons, and strengthens the Medical Assistance program. It is the intent of the General Assembly to establish a new category of ownership for charitable property tax exemption to be applied to not-for-profit hospitals and hospital affiliates in lieu of the existing ownership category of "institutions of public charity". It is also the intent of the General Assembly to establish quantifiable standards for the issuance of charitable exemptions for such property. It is not the intent of the General Assembly to declare any property exempt ipso facto, but rather to establish criteria to be applied to the facts on a case-by-case basis.

(b) For the purpose of this Section and Section 15-10, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

(1) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or other health care facility located in Illinois that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and has a hospital owner.

(2) "Hospital owner" means a not-for-profit corporation that is the titleholder of a hospital, or the owner of the beneficial interest in an Illinois land trust that is the titleholder of a hospital.

(3) "Hospital affiliate" means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association or other organization, other than a hospital owner, that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with one or more hospital owners and that supports, is supported by, or acts in furtherance of the exempt health care purposes of at least one of those hospital owners' hospitals.

(4) "Hospital system" means a hospital and one or more other hospitals or hospital affiliates related by common control or ownership.

(5) "Control" relating to hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems means possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the entity, whether through ownership of assets, membership interest, other voting or governance rights, by contract or otherwise.

(6) "Hospital applicant" means a hospital owner or hospital affiliate that files an application for a property tax exemption pursuant to Section 15-5 and this Section.

(7) "Relevant hospital entity" means (A) the hospital owner, in the case of a hospital applicant that is a hospital owner, and (B) at the election of a hospital applicant that is a hospital affiliate, either (i) the hospital affiliate or (ii) the hospital system to which the hospital applicant belongs, including any hospitals or hospital affiliates that are related by common control or ownership.

(8) "Subject property" means property for which a hospital applicant files an application for an exemption pursuant to Section 15-5 and this Section.

(9) "Hospital year" means the fiscal year of the relevant hospital entity, or the fiscal year of one of the hospital owners in the hospital system if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital system with members with different fiscal years, that ends in the year for which the exemption is sought.

(c) A hospital applicant satisfies the conditions for an exemption under this Section with respect to the subject property, and shall be issued a charitable exemption for that property, if the value of services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year equals or exceeds the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability, as determined under subsection (g), for the year for which exemption is sought. For purposes of making the calculations required by this subsection (c), if the relevant hospital entity is a hospital owner that owns more than one hospital, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities relating to the hospital that includes the subject property, and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to the properties comprising that hospital. In the case of a multi-state hospital system or hospital affiliate, the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) shall be calculated on the basis of only those services and activities that occur in Illinois and the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability shall be calculated only with respect to its property located in Illinois.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, any parcel or portion thereof, that is owned by a for-profit entity whether part of the hospital system or not, or that is leased, licensed or operated by a for-profit entity regardless of whether healthcare services are provided on that parcel shall not qualify for exemption. If a parcel has both exempt and non-exempt uses, an exemption may be granted for the qualifying portion of that parcel. In the case of parking lots and common areas serving both exempt and non-exempt uses those parcels or portions thereof may qualify for an exemption in proportion to the amount of qualifying use.

(d) The hospital applicant shall include information in its exemption application establishing that it satisfies the requirements of subsection (c). For purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (c), the hospital applicant may for each year elect to use either (1) the value of the services or activities listed in subsection (e) for the hospital year or (2) the average value of those services or activities for the 3 fiscal years ending with the hospital year. If the relevant hospital entity has been in operation for less than 3 completed fiscal years, then the latter calculation, if elected, shall be performed on a pro rata basis.

(e) Services that address the health care needs of low-income or underserved individuals or relieve the burden of government with regard to health care services. The following services and activities shall be considered for purposes of making the calculations required by subsection (c):

(1) Charity care. Free or discounted services provided pursuant to the relevant hospital entity's financial assistance policy, measured at cost, including discounts provided under the Hospital Uninsured Patient Discount Act.

(2) Health services to low-income and underserved individuals. Other unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity for providing without charge, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services for the purpose of addressing the health of low-income or underserved individuals. Those activities or services may include, but are not limited to: financial or in-kind support to affiliated or unaffiliated hospitals, hospital affiliates, community clinics, or programs that treat low-income or underserved individuals; paying for or subsidizing health care professionals who care for low-income or underserved individuals; providing or subsidizing outreach or educational services to low-income or underserved individuals for disease management and prevention; free or subsidized goods, supplies, or services needed by low-income or underserved individuals because of their medical condition; and prenatal or childbirth outreach to low-income or underserved persons.

(3) Subsidy of State or local governments. Direct or indirect financial or in-kind subsidies of State or local governments by the relevant hospital entity that pay for or subsidize activities or programs related to health care for low-income or underserved individuals.

(4) Support for State health care programs for low-income individuals. At the election of the hospital applicant for each applicable year, either (A) 10% of payments to the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) under Medicaid or other means-tested programs, including, but not limited to, General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program or (B) the amount of subsidy provided by the relevant hospital entity and any hospital affiliate designated by the relevant hospital entity (provided that such hospital affiliate's operations provide financial or operational support for or receive financial or operational support from the relevant hospital entity) to State or local government in treating Medicaid recipients and recipients of means-tested programs, including but not limited to General Assistance, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (4) is calculated in the same manner as unreimbursed costs are calculated for Medicaid and other means-tested government programs in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; provided, however, that in any event unreimbursed costs shall be net of fee-for-services payments, payments pursuant to an assessment, quarterly payments, and all other payments included on the schedule H of the IRS form 990.

(5) Dual-eligible subsidy. The amount of subsidy provided to government by treating dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients. The amount of subsidy for purposes of this item (5) is calculated by multiplying the relevant hospital entity's unreimbursed costs for Medicare, calculated in the same manner as determined in the Schedule H of IRS Form 990 in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, by the relevant hospital entity's ratio of dual-eligible patients to total Medicare patients.

(6) Relief of the burden of government related to health care of low-income individuals. Except to the extent otherwise taken into account in this subsection, the portion of unreimbursed costs of the relevant hospital entity attributable to providing, paying for, or subsidizing goods, activities, or services that relieve the burden of government related to health care for low-income individuals. Such activities or services shall include, but are not limited to, providing emergency, trauma, burn, neonatal, psychiatric, rehabilitation, or other special services; providing medical education; and conducting medical research or training of health care professionals. The portion of those unreimbursed costs attributable to benefiting low-income individuals shall be determined using the ratio calculated by adding the relevant hospital entity's costs attributable to charity care, Medicaid, other means-tested government programs, Medicare patients with disabilities disabled Medicare patients under age 65, and dual-eligible Medicare/Medicaid patients and dividing that total by the relevant hospital entity's total costs. Such costs for the numerator and denominator shall be determined by multiplying gross charges by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospitals' most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet C, Part I). In the case of emergency services, the ratio shall be calculated using costs (gross charges multiplied by the cost to charge ratio taken from the hospitals' most recently filed Medicare cost report (CMS 2252-10 Worksheet C, Part I)) of patients treated in the relevant hospital entity's emergency department.

(7) Any other activity by the relevant hospital entity that the Department determines relieves the burden of government or addresses the health of low-income or underserved individuals.

(f) For purposes of making the calculations required by subsections (c) and (e):

(1) particular services or activities eligible for consideration under any of the paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (e) may not be counted under more than one of those paragraphs; and

(2) the amount of unreimbursed costs and the amount of subsidy shall not be reduced by restricted or unrestricted payments received by the relevant hospital entity as contributions deductible under Section 170(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(g) Estimation of Exempt Property Tax Liability. The estimated property tax liability used for the determination in subsection (c) shall be calculated as follows:

(1) "Estimated property tax liability" means the estimated dollar amount of property tax that would be owed, with respect to the exempt portion of each of the relevant hospital entity's properties that are already fully or partially exempt, or for which an exemption in whole or in part is currently being sought, and then aggregated as applicable, as if the exempt portion of those properties were subject to tax, calculated with respect to each such property by multiplying:

(A) the lesser of (i) the actual assessed value, if any, of the portion of the property for which an exemption is sought or (ii) an estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of such property as determined in item (2) of this subsection (g), by:

(B) the applicable State equalization rate (yielding the equalized assessed value), by

(C) the applicable tax rate.

(2) The estimated assessed value of the exempt portion of the property equals the sum of (i) the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this item (2), multiplied by the applicable assessment factor, and (ii) the estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property, as determined in accordance with subparagraph (C).

(A) The "estimated fair market value of buildings on the property" means the replacement value of any exempt portion of buildings on the property, minus depreciation, determined utilizing the cost replacement method whereby the exempt square footage of all such buildings is multiplied by the replacement cost per square foot for Class A Average building found in the most recent edition of the Marshall & Swift Valuation Services Manual, adjusted by any appropriate current cost and local multipliers.

(B) Depreciation, for purposes of calculating the estimated fair market value of buildings on the property, is applied by utilizing a weighted mean life for the buildings based on original construction and assuming a 40-year life for hospital buildings and the applicable life for other types of buildings as specified in the American Hospital Association publication "Estimated Useful Lives of Depreciable Hospital Assets". In the case of hospital buildings, the remaining life is divided by 40 and this ratio is multiplied by the replacement cost of the buildings to obtain an estimated fair market value of buildings. If a hospital building is older than 35 years, a remaining life of 5 years for residual value is assumed; and if a building is less than 8 years old, a remaining life of 32 years is assumed.

(C) The estimated assessed value of the land portion of the property shall be determined by multiplying (i) the per square foot average of the assessed values of three parcels of land (not including farm land, and excluding the assessed value of the improvements thereon) reasonably comparable to the property, by (ii) the number of square feet comprising the exempt portion of the property's land square footage.

(3) The assessment factor, State equalization rate, and tax rate (including any special factors such as Enterprise Zones) used in calculating the estimated property tax liability shall be for the most recent year that is publicly available from the applicable chief county assessment officer or officers at least 90 days before the end of the hospital year.

(4) The method utilized to calculate estimated property tax liability for purposes of this Section 15-86 shall not be utilized for the actual valuation, assessment, or taxation of property pursuant to the Property Tax Code.

(h) Application. Each hospital applicant applying for a property tax exemption pursuant to Section 15-5 and this Section shall use an application form provided by the Department. The application form shall specify the records required in support of the application and those records shall be submitted to the Department with the application form. Each application or affidavit shall contain a verification by the Chief Executive Officer of the hospital applicant under oath or affirmation stating that each statement in the application or affidavit and each document submitted with the application or affidavit are true and correct. The records submitted with the application pursuant to this Section shall include an exhibit prepared by the relevant hospital entity showing (A) the value of the relevant hospital entity's services and activities, if any, under paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (e) of this Section stated separately for each paragraph, and (B) the value relating to the relevant hospital entity's estimated property tax liability under subsections (g)(1)(A), (B), and (C), subsections (g)(2)(A), (B), and (C), and subsection (g)(3) of this Section stated separately for each item. Such exhibit will be made available to the public by the chief county assessment officer. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as limiting the Attorney General's authority under the Illinois False Claims Act.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the ability of otherwise eligible hospitals, hospital owners, hospital affiliates, or hospital systems to obtain or maintain property tax exemptions pursuant to a provision of the Property Tax Code other than this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-165)

Sec. 15-165. Veterans with disabilities Disabled veterans. Property up to an assessed value of $100,000, owned and used exclusively by a veteran with a disability disabled veteran, or the spouse or unmarried surviving spouse of the veteran, as a home, is exempt. As used in this Section, a "veteran with a disability" disabled veteran means a person who has served in the Armed Forces of the United States and whose disability is of such a nature that the Federal Government has authorized payment for purchase or construction of Specially Adapted Housing as set forth in the United States Code, Title 38, Chapter 21, Section 2101.

The exemption applies to housing where Federal funds have been used to purchase or construct special adaptations to suit the veteran's disability.

The exemption also applies to housing that is specially adapted to suit the veteran's disability, and purchased entirely or in part by the proceeds of a sale, casualty loss reimbursement, or other transfer of a home for which the Federal Government had previously authorized payment for purchase or construction as Specially Adapted Housing.

However, the entire proceeds of the sale, casualty loss reimbursement, or other transfer of that housing shall be applied to the acquisition of subsequent specially adapted housing to the extent that the proceeds equal the purchase price of the subsequently acquired housing.

Beginning with the 2015 tax year, the exemption also applies to housing that is specifically constructed or adapted to suit a qualifying veteran's disability if the housing or adaptations are donated by a charitable organization, the veteran has been approved to receive funds for the purchase or construction of Specially Adapted Housing under Title 38, Chapter 21, Section 2101 of the United States Code, and the home has been inspected and certified by a licensed home inspector to be in compliance with applicable standards set forth in U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Benefits Administration Pamphlet 26-13 Handbook for Design of Specially Adapted Housing.

For purposes of this Section, "charitable organization" means any benevolent, philanthropic, patriotic, or eleemosynary entity that solicits and collects funds for charitable purposes and includes each local, county, or area division of that charitable organization.

For purposes of this Section, "unmarried surviving spouse" means the surviving spouse of the veteran at any time after the death of the veteran during which such surviving spouse is not married.

This exemption must be reestablished on an annual basis by certification from the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs to the Department, which shall forward a copy of the certification to local assessing officials.

A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-168 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-1145, eff. 12-30-14.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities Disabled persons' homestead exemption.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities disabled persons in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability disabled person.

(2) The person with a disability disabled person must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability disabled person must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability is disabled during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability disabled person" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities Disabled persons filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability disabled person for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability disabled person not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability disabled person determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability disabled person. The person with a disability disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability disabled person.

(2) The person with a disability disabled person must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability disabled person must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability disabled person must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability disabled person. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability disabled person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability disabled person in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-169)

Sec. 15-169. Homestead exemption for veterans with disabilities Disabled veterans standard homestead exemption.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption, limited to the amounts set forth in subsection (b), is granted for property that is used as a qualified residence by a veteran with a disability disabled veteran.

(b) The amount of the exemption under this Section is as follows:

(1) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(2) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least 50%, but less than (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $2,500.

(b-5) If a homestead exemption is granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility operated by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person who qualified for the homestead exemption.

(c) The tax exemption under this Section carries over to the benefit of the veteran's surviving spouse as long as the spouse holds the legal or beneficial title to the homestead, permanently resides thereon, and does not remarry. If the surviving spouse sells the property, an exemption not to exceed the amount granted from the most recent ad valorem tax roll may be transferred to his or her new residence as long as it is used as his or her primary residence and he or she does not remarry.

(c-1) Beginning with taxable year 2015, nothing in this Section shall require the veteran to have qualified for or obtained the exemption before death if the veteran was killed in the line of duty.

(d) The exemption under this Section applies for taxable year 2007 and thereafter. A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-168 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(e) Each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable methods. The determination must be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

(f) For the purposes of this Section:

"Qualified residence" means real property, but less any portion of that property that is used for commercial purposes, with an equalized assessed value of less than $250,000 that is the primary residence of a veteran with a disability disabled veteran's primary residence. Property rented for more than 6 months is presumed to be used for commercial purposes.

"Veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces on active duty or State active duty, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces and who has received an honorable discharge.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-1145, eff. 12-30-14.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-175)

Sec. 15-175. General homestead exemption.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives, to a reduction in the equalized assessed value of homestead property equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the current assessment year above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth below. If however, the 1977 equalized assessed value upon which taxes were paid is subsequently determined by local assessing officials, the Property Tax Appeal Board, or a court to have been excessive, the equalized assessed value which should have been placed on the property for 1977 shall be used to determine the amount of the exemption.

(b) Except as provided in Section 15-176, the maximum reduction before taxable year 2004 shall be $4,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $3,500 in all other counties. Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, for taxable years 2004 through 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $5,000, for taxable year 2008, the maximum reduction is $5,500, and, for taxable years 2009 through 2011, the maximum reduction is $6,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2012 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $7,000 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $6,000 in all other counties. If a county has elected to subject itself to the provisions of Section 15-176 as provided in subsection (k) of that Section, then, for the first taxable year only after the provisions of Section 15-176 no longer apply, for owners who, for the taxable year, have not been granted a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption under Section 15-172 or a long-time occupant homestead exemption under Section 15-177, there shall be an additional exemption of $5,000 for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less.

(c) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if, based on the most recent assessment, the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current assessment year is greater than the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, the owner of the property shall automatically receive the exemption granted under this Section in an amount equal to the increase over the 1977 assessment up to the maximum reduction set forth in this Section.

(d) If in any assessment year beginning with the 2000 assessment year, homestead property has a pro-rata valuation under Section 9-180 resulting in an increase in the assessed valuation, a reduction in equalized assessed valuation equal to the increase in equalized assessed value of the property for the year of the pro-rata valuation above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977 shall be applied to the property on a proportionate basis for the period the property qualified as homestead property during the assessment year. The maximum proportionate homestead exemption shall not exceed the maximum homestead exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days the property qualified as homestead property.

(e) The chief county assessment officer may, when considering whether to grant a leasehold exemption under this Section, require the following conditions to be met:

(1) that a notarized application for the exemption, signed by both the owner and the lessee of the property, must be submitted each year during the application period in effect for the county in which the property is located;

(2) that a copy of the lease must be filed with the chief county assessment officer by the owner of the property at the time the notarized application is submitted;

(3) that the lease must expressly state that the lessee is liable for the payment of property taxes; and

(4) that the lease must include the following language in substantially the following form:

"Lessee shall be liable for the payment of real estate taxes with respect to the residence in accordance with the terms and conditions of Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/15-175). The permanent real estate index number for the premises is (insert number), and, according to the most recent property tax bill, the current amount of real estate taxes associated with the premises is (insert amount) per year. The parties agree that the monthly rent set forth above shall be increased or decreased pro rata (effective January 1 of each calendar year) to reflect any increase or decrease in real estate taxes. Lessee shall be deemed to be satisfying Lessee's liability for the above mentioned real estate taxes with the monthly rent payments as set forth above (or increased or decreased as set forth herein).".

In addition, if there is a change in lessee, or if the lessee vacates the property, then the chief county assessment officer may require the owner of the property to notify the chief county assessment officer of that change.

This subsection (e) does not apply to leasehold interests in property owned by a municipality.

(f) "Homestead property" under this Section includes residential property that is occupied by its owner or owners as his or their principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, which is occupied as a residence by a person who has an ownership interest therein, legal or equitable or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building which is a life care facility as defined in Section 15-170 and considered to be a cooperative under Section 15-170, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value shall be limited to the increase in the value above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth above, multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person or persons who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For purposes of this Section, the term "life care facility" has the meaning stated in Section 15-170.

"Household", as used in this Section, means the owner, the spouse of the owner, and all persons using the residence of the owner as their principal place of residence.

"Household income", as used in this Section, means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income", as used in this Section, has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, except that "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

(g) In a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(h) Where married persons maintain and reside in separate residences qualifying as homestead property, each residence shall receive 50% of the total reduction in equalized assessed valuation provided by this Section.

(i) In all counties, the assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption and the amount of the exemption by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department, provided that the taxpayer applying for an additional general exemption under this Section shall submit to the chief county assessment officer an application with an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and, if married, the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall issue guidelines establishing a method for verifying the accuracy of the affidavits filed by applicants under this paragraph. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Additional General Homestead Exemption.

(j) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, in the event of a sale of homestead property the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may require the new owner of the property to apply for the homestead exemption for the following assessment year.

(k) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1125, eff. 8-28-12; 98-7, eff. 4-23-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (p) made for road purposes in the first year after a township assumes the rights, powers, duties, assets, property, liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of a road district abolished under the provisions of Section 6-133 of the Illinois Highway Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsection (h) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (q) made by Ford Heights School District 169 under Section 17-9.02 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (m) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 if the bonds were approved by referendum after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). A debt service extension base established or increased at any time pursuant to any provision of this Law, except Section 18-212, shall be increased each year commencing with the later of (i) the 2009 levy year or (ii) the first levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to the taxing district, by the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year. The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, and 18-230. An adjustment under Section 18-135 shall be made for the 2007 levy year and all subsequent levy years whenever one or more counties within which a taxing district is located (i) used estimated valuations or rates when extending taxes in the taxing district for the last preceding levy year that resulted in the over or under extension of taxes, or (ii) increased or decreased the tax extension for the last preceding levy year as required by Section 18-135(c). Whenever an adjustment is required under Section 18-135, the aggregate extension base of the taxing district shall be equal to the amount that the aggregate extension of the taxing district would have been for the last preceding levy year if either or both (i) actual, rather than estimated, valuations or rates had been used to calculate the extension of taxes for the last levy year, or (ii) the tax extension for the last preceding levy year had not been adjusted as required by subsection (c) of Section 18-135.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2012, the aggregate extension base for West Northfield School District No. 31 in Cook County shall be $12,654,592.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value, and (iv) any increase in assessed value due to oil or gas production from an oil or gas well required to be permitted under the Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act that was not produced in or accounted for during the previous levy year. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Act of 1995, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Development Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided. In the case of a taxing district that obtained referendum approval for an increased limiting rate on March 20, 2012, the limiting rate for tax year 2012 shall be the rate that generates the approximate total amount of taxes extendable for that tax year, as set forth in the proposition approved by the voters; this rate shall be the final rate applied by the county clerk for the aggregate of all capped funds of the district for tax year 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-611, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1154, eff. 1-25-13; 98-6, eff. 3-29-13; 98-23, eff. 6-17-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Information on bill or separate statement. There shall be printed on each bill, or on a separate slip which shall be mailed with the bill:

(a) a statement itemizing the rate at which taxes have been extended for each of the taxing districts in the county in whose district the property is located, and in those counties utilizing electronic data processing equipment the dollar amount of tax due from the person assessed allocable to each of those taxing districts, including a separate statement of the dollar amount of tax due which is allocable to a tax levied under the Illinois Local Library Act or to any other tax levied by a municipality or township for public library purposes,

(b) a separate statement for each of the taxing districts of the dollar amount of tax due which is allocable to a tax levied under the Illinois Pension Code or to any other tax levied by a municipality or township for public pension or retirement purposes,

(c) the total tax rate,

(d) the total amount of tax due, and

(e) the amount by which the total tax and the tax allocable to each taxing district differs from the taxpayer's last prior tax bill.

The county treasurer shall ensure that only those taxing districts in which a parcel of property is located shall be listed on the bill for that property.

In all counties the statement shall also provide:

(1) the property index number or other suitable description,

(2) the assessment of the property,

(3) the statutory amount of each homestead exemption applied to the property,

(4) the assessed value of the property after application of all homestead exemptions,

(5) the equalization factors imposed by the county and by the Department, and

(6) the equalized assessment resulting from the application of the equalization factors to the basic assessment.

In all counties which do not classify property for purposes of taxation, for property on which a single family residence is situated the statement shall also include a statement to reflect the fair cash value determined for the property. In all counties which classify property for purposes of taxation in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, for parcels of residential property in the lowest assessment classification the statement shall also include a statement to reflect the fair cash value determined for the property.

In all counties, the statement must include information that certain taxpayers may be eligible for tax exemptions, abatements, and other assistance programs and that, for more information, taxpayers should consult with the office of their township or county assessor and with the Illinois Department of Revenue.

In all counties, the statement shall include information that certain taxpayers may be eligible for the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act and that applications are available from the Illinois Department on Aging.

In counties which use the estimated or accelerated billing methods, these statements shall only be provided with the final installment of taxes due. The provisions of this Section create a mandatory statutory duty. They are not merely directory or discretionary. The failure or neglect of the collector to mail the bill, or the failure of the taxpayer to receive the bill, shall not affect the validity of any tax, or the liability for the payment of any tax.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-93, eff. 7-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-27)

Sec. 21-27. Waiver of interest penalty.

(a) On the recommendation of the county treasurer, the county board may adopt a resolution under which an interest penalty for the delinquent payment of taxes for any year that otherwise would be imposed under Section 21-15, 21-20, or 21-25 shall be waived in the case of any person who meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The person is determined eligible for a grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act with respect to the taxes for that year.

(2) The person requests, in writing, on a form approved by the county treasurer, a waiver of the interest penalty, and the request is filed with the county treasurer on or before the first day of the month that an installment of taxes is due.

(3) The person pays the installment of taxes due, in full, on or before the third day of the month that the installment is due.

(4) The county treasurer approves the request for a waiver.

(b) With respect to property that qualifies as a brownfield site under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act, the county board, upon the recommendation of the county treasurer, may adopt a resolution to waive an interest penalty for the delinquent payment of taxes for any year that otherwise would be imposed under Section 21-15, 21-20, or 21-25 if all of the following criteria are met:

(1) the property has delinquent taxes and an outstanding interest penalty and the amount of that interest penalty is so large as to, possibly, result in all of the taxes becoming uncollectible;

(2) the property is part of a redevelopment plan of a unit of local government and that unit of local government does not oppose the waiver of the interest penalty;

(3) the redevelopment of the property will benefit the public interest by remediating the brownfield contamination;

(4) the taxpayer delivers to the county treasurer (i) a written request for a waiver of the interest penalty, on a form approved by the county treasurer, and (ii) a copy of the redevelopment plan for the property;

(5) the taxpayer pays, in full, the amount of up to the amount of the first 2 installments of taxes due, to be held in escrow pending the approval of the waiver, and enters into an agreement with the county treasurer setting forth a schedule for the payment of any remaining taxes due; and

(6) the county treasurer approves the request for a waiver.

(Source: P.A. 97-655, eff. 1-13-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 330. The Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(35 ILCS 405/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 405A-12)

Sec. 12. Parent as natural guardian for purposes of Sections 2032A and 2057 of the Internal Revenue Code. A parent, without being appointed guardian of the person or guardian of the estate, or a guardian of the estate, or, if no guardian of the estate has been appointed, a guardian of the person, of any minor or person with a disability disabled person whose interest is not adverse to the minor or person with a disability disabled person, may make any election and sign, without court approval, any agreement on behalf of the minor or person with a disability disabled person under (i) Section 2032A of the Internal Revenue Code for the valuation of property under that Section or (ii) Section 2057 of the Internal Revenue Code relating to deduction of the value of certain property under that Section. Any election so made, and any agreement so signed, shall have the same legal force and effect as if the election had been made and the agreement had been signed by the minor or person with a disability disabled person and the minor or person with a disability disabled person had been legally competent.

This amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly applies to elections and agreements made on or after January 1, 1998 in reliance on or pursuant to Section 2057 of the Internal Revenue Code, and those elections and agreements made before the effective date of this amendatory Act are hereby validated.

(Source: P.A. 91-349, eff. 7-29-99.)

Section 335. The Mobile Home Local Services Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 7.5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 515/7) (from Ch. 120, par. 1207)

Sec. 7. The local services tax for owners of mobile homes who (a) are actually residing in such mobile homes, (b) hold title to such mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code, and (c) are 65 years of age or older or are persons with disabilities disabled persons within the meaning of Section 3.14 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act on the annual billing date shall be reduced to 80 percent of the tax provided for in Section 3 of this Act. Proof that a claimant has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as provided in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person thereon named is a person with a disability disabled person within the meaning of this Act. An application for reduction of the tax shall be filed with the county clerk by the individuals who are entitled to the reduction. If the application is filed after May 1, the reduction in tax shall begin with the next annual bill. Application for the reduction in tax shall be done by submitting proof that the applicant has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card designating the applicant's disability as a Class 2 disability, or by affidavit in substantially the following form:

APPLICATION FOR REDUCTION OF MOBILE HOME LOCAL SERVICES TAX

I hereby make application for a reduction to 80% of the total tax imposed under "An Act to provide for a local services tax on mobile homes".

(1) Senior Citizens

(a) I actually reside in the mobile home ....

(b) I hold title to the mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code ....

(c) I reached the age of 65 on or before either January 1 (or July 1) of the year in which this statement is filed. My date of birth is: ...

(2) Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons

(a) I actually reside in the mobile home...

(b) I hold title to the mobile home as provided in the Illinois Vehicle Code ....

(c) I became a person with a total disability was totally disabled on ... and have remained a person with a disability disabled until the date of this application. My Social Security, Veterans, Railroad or Civil Service Total Disability Claim Number is ... The undersigned declares under the penalty of perjury that the above statements are true and correct.

Dated (insert date).

...........................

Signature of owner

...........................

(Address)

...........................

(City) (State) (Zip)

Approved by: ............................. (Assessor)

This application shall be accompanied by a copy of the applicant's most recent application filed with the Illinois Department on Aging under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(35 ILCS 515/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Exemption for veterans with disabilities disabled veterans.

(a) Beginning on January 1, 2004, a mobile home owned and used exclusively by a veteran with a disability disabled veteran or the spouse or unmarried surviving spouse of the veteran as a home, is exempt from the tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning with the 2015 tax year, the exemption also applies to housing that is specifically constructed or adapted to suit a qualifying veteran's disability if the housing or adaptations are donated by a charitable organization, the veteran has been approved to receive funds for the purchase or construction of Specially Adapted Housing under Title 38, Chapter 21, Section 2101 of the United States Code, and the home has been inspected and certified by a licensed home inspector to be in compliance with applicable standards set forth in U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Benefits Administration Pamphlet 26-13 Handbook for Design of Specially Adapted Housing.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Veteran with a disability Disabled veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces of the United States and whose disability is of such a nature that the federal government has authorized payment for purchase or construction of specially adapted housing as set forth in the United States Code, Title 38, Chapter 21, Section 2101.

For purposes of this Section, "charitable organization" means any benevolent, philanthropic, patriotic, or eleemosynary entity that solicits and collects funds for charitable purposes and includes each local, county, or area division of that charitable organization.

"Unmarried surviving spouse" means the surviving spouse of the veteran at any time after the death of the veteran during which the surviving spouse is not married.

(c) Eligibility for this exemption must be reestablished on an annual basis by certification from the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs to the county clerk of the county in which the exempt mobile home is located. The county clerk shall forward a copy of the certification to local assessing officials.

(Source: P.A. 98-1145, eff. 12-30-14.)

Section 340. The Community Self-Revitalization Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 350/15)

Sec. 15. Certification; Board of Economic Advisors.

(a) In order to receive the assistance as provided in this Act, a community shall first, by ordinance passed by its corporate authorities, request that the Department certify that it is an economically distressed community. The community must submit a certified copy of the ordinance to the Department. After review of the ordinance, if the Department determines that the community meets the requirements for certification, the Department may certify the community as an economically distressed community.

(b) A community that is certified by the Department as an economically distressed community may appoint a Board of Economic Advisors to create and implement a revitalization plan for the community. The Board shall consist of 18 members of the community, appointed by the mayor or the presiding officer of the county or jointly by the presiding officers of each municipality and county that have joined to form a community for the purposes of this Act. Up to 18 Board members may be appointed from the following vital sectors:

(1) A member representing households and families.

(2) A member representing religious organizations.

(3) A member representing educational institutions.

(4) A member representing daycare centers, care centers for persons with disabilities the handicapped, and care centers for the disadvantaged.

(5) A member representing community based organizations such as neighborhood improvement associations.

(6) A member representing federal and State employment service systems, skill training centers, and placement referrals.

(7) A member representing Masonic organizations, fraternities, sororities, and social clubs.

(8) A member representing hospitals, nursing homes, senior citizens, public health agencies, and funeral homes.

(9) A member representing organized sports, parks, parties, and games of chance.

(10) A member representing political parties, clubs, and affiliations, and election related matters concerning voter education and participation.

(11) A member representing the cultural aspects of the community, including cultural events, lifestyles, languages, music, visual and performing arts, and literature.

(12) A member representing police and fire protection agencies, prisons, weapons systems, and the military industrial complex.

(13) A member representing local businesses.

(14) A member representing the retail industry.

(15) A member representing the service industry.

(16) A member representing the industrial, production, and manufacturing sectors.

(17) A member representing the advertising and marketing industry.

(18) A member representing the technology services industry.

The Board shall meet initially within 30 days of its appointment, shall select one member as chairperson at its initial meeting, and shall thereafter meet at the call of the chairperson. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation.

(c) One third of the initial appointees shall serve for 2 years, one third shall serve for 3 years, and one third shall serve for 4 years, as determined by lot. Subsequent appointees shall serve terms of 5 years.

(d) The Board shall create a 3-year to 5-year revitalization plan for the community. The plan shall contain distinct, measurable objectives for revitalization. The objectives shall be used to guide ongoing implementation of the plan and to measure progress during the 3-year to 5-year period. The Board shall work in a dynamic manner defining goals for the community based on the strengths and weaknesses of the individual sectors of the community as presented by each member of the Board. The Board shall meet periodically and revise the plan in light of the input from each member of the Board concerning his or her respective sector of expertise. The process shall be a community driven revitalization process, with community-specific data determining the direction and scope of the revitalization.

(Source: P.A. 95-557, eff. 8-30-07.)

Section 345. The Innovation Development and Economy Act is amended by changing Section 31 as follows:

(50 ILCS 470/31)

Sec. 31. STAR bond occupation taxes.

(a) If the corporate authorities of a political subdivision have established a STAR bond district and have elected to impose a tax by ordinance pursuant to subsection (b) or (c) of this Section, each year after the date of the adoption of the ordinance and until all STAR bond project costs and all political subdivision obligations financing the STAR bond project costs, if any, have been paid in accordance with the STAR bond project plans, but in no event longer than the maximum maturity date of the last of the STAR bonds issued for projects in the STAR bond district, all amounts generated by the retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax shall be collected and the tax shall be enforced by the Department of Revenue in the same manner as all retailers' occupation taxes and service occupation taxes imposed in the political subdivision imposing the tax. The corporate authorities of the political subdivision shall deposit the proceeds of the taxes imposed under subsections (b) and (c) into either (i) a special fund held by the corporate authorities of the political subdivision called the STAR Bonds Tax Allocation Fund for the purpose of paying STAR bond project costs and obligations incurred in the payment of those costs if such taxes are designated as pledged STAR revenues by resolution or ordinance of the political subdivision or (ii) the political subdivision's general corporate fund if such taxes are not designated as pledged STAR revenues by resolution or ordinance.

The tax imposed under this Section by a municipality may be imposed only on the portion of a STAR bond district that is within the boundaries of the municipality. For any part of a STAR bond district that lies outside of the boundaries of that municipality, the municipality in which the other part of the STAR bond district lies (or the county, in cases where a portion of the STAR bond district lies in the unincorporated area of a county) is authorized to impose the tax under this Section on that part of the STAR bond district.

(b) The corporate authorities of a political subdivision that has established a STAR bond district under this Act may, by ordinance or resolution, impose a STAR Bond Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than an item of tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the STAR bond district at a rate not to exceed 1% of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of that business, to be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax may not be imposed on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this subsection without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this subsection. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of, and compliance with, this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a through 1o, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a STAR Bond Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the STAR bond district, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the STAR bond district, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. The tax shall be imposed at the same rate as the tax imposed in subsection (b) and shall not exceed 1% of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the STAR bond district, to be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax may not be imposed on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this subsection without registering separately with the Department under that ordinance or resolution or under this subsection. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2, 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the STAR bond district), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the political subdivision), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the political subdivision), the first paragraph of Section 15, and Sections 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (c), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Persons subject to any tax imposed under this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability under this Section by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the STAR Bond Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes, penalties, and interest collected under this Section for deposit into the STAR Bond Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named political subdivisions from the STAR Bond Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, the political subdivisions to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties under this Section to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each political subdivision shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less 3% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section, on behalf of such political subdivision, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the political subdivision. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the political subdivisions provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification. The proceeds of the tax paid to political subdivisions under this Section shall be deposited into either (i) the STAR Bonds Tax Allocation Fund by the political subdivision if the political subdivision has designated them as pledged STAR revenues by resolution or ordinance or (ii) the political subdivision's general corporate fund if the political subdivision has not designated them as pledged STAR revenues.

An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department, if all other requirements of this Section are met, shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon, if all other requirements of this Section are met, the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce an ordinance imposing, discontinuing, or changing the rate of the tax under this Section until the political subdivision also provides, in the manner prescribed by the Department, the boundaries of the STAR bond district and each address in the STAR bond district in such a way that the Department can determine by its address whether a business is located in the STAR bond district. The political subdivision must provide this boundary and address information to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this Section by the Department beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this Section by the Department beginning on the following January 1. The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce any change made to the boundaries of a STAR bond district or any address change, addition, or deletion until the political subdivision reports the boundary change or address change, addition, or deletion to the Department in the manner prescribed by the Department. The political subdivision must provide this boundary change or address change, addition, or deletion information to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change, addition, or deletion beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change, addition, or deletion beginning on the following January 1. The retailers in the STAR bond district shall be responsible for charging the tax imposed under this Section. If a retailer is incorrectly included or excluded from the list of those required to collect the tax under this Section, both the Department of Revenue and the retailer shall be held harmless if they reasonably relied on information provided by the political subdivision.

A political subdivision that imposes the tax under this Section must submit to the Department of Revenue any other information as the Department may require that is necessary for the administration and enforcement of the tax.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a political subdivision under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the political subdivision to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(e) When STAR bond project costs, including, without limitation, all political subdivision obligations financing STAR bond project costs, have been paid, any surplus funds then remaining in the STAR Bonds Tax Allocation Fund shall be distributed to the treasurer of the political subdivision for deposit into the political subdivision's general corporate fund. Upon payment of all STAR bond project costs and retirement of obligations, but in no event later than the maximum maturity date of the last of the STAR bonds issued in the STAR bond district, the political subdivision shall adopt an ordinance immediately rescinding the taxes imposed pursuant to this Section and file a certified copy of the ordinance with the Department in the form and manner as described in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10.)

Section 350. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 15.2a as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/15.2a) (from Ch. 134, par. 45.2a)

Sec. 15.2a. The installation of or connection to a telephone company's network of any automatic alarm, automatic alerting device, or mechanical dialer that causes the number 9-1-1 to be dialed in order to directly access emergency services is prohibited in a 9-1-1 system.

This Section does not apply to devices used to enable access to the 9-1-1 system for cognitively-impaired, disabled, or special needs persons or for persons with disabilities in an emergency situation reported by a caregiver after initiating a missing person's report. The device must have the capability to be activated and controlled remotely by trained personnel at a service center to prevent falsely activated or repeated calls to the 9-1-1 system in a single incident. The device must have the technical capability to generate location information to the 9-1-1 system. Under no circumstances shall a device be sold for use in a geographical jurisdiction where the 9-1-1 system has not deployed wireless phase II location technology. The alerting device shall also provide for either 2-way communication or send a pre-recorded message to a 9-1-1 provider explaining the nature of the emergency so that the 9-1-1 provider will be able to dispatch the appropriate emergency responder.

Violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-82, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 355. The Counties Code is amended by changing Section 5-1006.7 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.7)

Sec. 5-1006.7. School facility occupation taxes.

(a) In any county, a tax shall be imposed upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for school facility purposes if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). The tax under this Section shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments and may not exceed 1%.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sale of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics. The Department of Revenue has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection. The Department shall deposit all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection into a special fund created for that purpose.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), then a service occupation tax must also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service.

This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definition of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that that reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the county), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(c) The tax under this Section may not be imposed until the question of imposing the tax has been submitted to the electors of the county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. For all regular elections held prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, upon a resolution by the county board or a resolution by school district boards that represent at least 51% of the student enrollment within the county, the county board must certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall (name of county) be authorized to impose a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the county may, thereafter, impose the tax.

For all regular elections held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the regional superintendent of schools for the county must, upon receipt of a resolution or resolutions of school district boards that represent more than 50% of the student enrollment within the county, certify the question to the proper election authority for submission to the electors of the county at the next regular election at which the question lawfully may be submitted to the electors, all in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the tax shall be imposed at the rate set forth in the question.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "enrollment" means the head count of the students residing in the county on the last school day of September of each year, which must be reported on the Illinois State Board of Education Public School Fall Enrollment/Housing Report.

(d) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the regional superintendents of schools in counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each regional superintendent of schools and disbursed to him or her in accordance with Section 3-14.31 of the School Code, is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section, on behalf of the county, (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a regional superintendent of schools under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the regional superintendents of the schools provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund.

(e) For the purposes of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This subsection does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(f) Nothing in this Section may be construed to authorize a tax to be imposed upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(g) If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly at a rate below the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c), then the county board may, by ordinance, increase the rate of the tax up to the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the board may, by ordinance, discontinue or reduce the rate of the tax. If a tax is imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the county board may reduce or discontinue the tax, but only in accordance with subsection (h-5) of this Section. If, however, a school board issues bonds that are secured by the proceeds of the tax under this Section, then the county board may not reduce the tax rate or discontinue the tax if that rate reduction or discontinuance would adversely affect the school board's ability to pay the principal and interest on those bonds as they become due or necessitate the extension of additional property taxes to pay the principal and interest on those bonds. If the county board reduces the tax rate or discontinues the tax, then a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

Until January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

Beginning January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of May, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "school facility purposes" means (i) the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the capital facilities and (ii) the payment of bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued, including bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued to refund or to continue to refund bonds or other obligations issued, for school facility purposes, provided that the taxes levied to pay those bonds are abated by the amount of the taxes imposed under this Section that are used to pay those bonds. "School-facility purposes" also includes fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, disabled accessibility, school security, and specified repair purposes set forth under Section 17-2.11 of the School Code.

(h-5) A county board in a county where a tax has been imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may, by ordinance or resolution, submit to the voters of the county the question of reducing or discontinuing the tax. In the ordinance or resolution, the county board shall certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code. The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the school facility retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax (commonly referred to as the "school facility sales tax") currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) be (reduced to (insert rate))(discontinued)? If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then, subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, the tax shall be reduced or discontinued as set forth in the question.

(i) This Section does not apply to Cook County.

(j) This Section may be cited as the County School Facility Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 97-542, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-584, eff. 8-27-13.)

Section 360. The County Care for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 1, 1.1, and 1.2 as follows:

(55 ILCS 105/Act title)

An Act concerning the care and treatment of persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities who are intellectually disabled or under developmental disability.

(55 ILCS 105/1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 201)

Sec. 1. Facilities or services; tax levy. Any county may provide facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who are persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities intellectually disabled or under a developmental disability and who are not eligible to participate in any such program conducted under Article 14 of the School Code, or may contract therefor with any privately or publicly operated entity which provides facilities or services either in or out of such county.

For such purpose, the county board may levy an annual tax of not to exceed .1% upon all of the taxable property in the county at the value thereof, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. Taxes first levied under this Section on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly are subject to referendum approval under Section 1.1 or 1.2 of this Act. Such tax shall be levied and collected in the same manner as other county taxes, but shall not be included in any limitation otherwise prescribed as to the rate or amount of county taxes but shall be in addition thereto and in excess thereof. When collected, such tax shall be paid into a special fund in the county treasury, to be designated as the "Fund for Persons With a Developmental Disability", and shall be used only for the purpose specified in this Section. The levying of this annual tax shall not preclude the county from the use of other federal, State, or local funds for the purpose of providing facilities or services for the care and treatment of its residents who are mentally retarded or under a developmental disability.

(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(55 ILCS 105/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. Petition for submission to referendum by county.

(a) If, on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the county board passes an ordinance or resolution as provided in Section 1 of this Act asking that an annual tax may be levied for the purpose of providing facilities or services set forth in that Section and so instructs the county clerk, the clerk shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials for submission at the next general county election. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable property in the county for the purposes of providing facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who are persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities intellectually disabled or under a developmental disability and who are not eligible to participate in any program provided under Article 14 of the School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14-1.01 et seq., including contracting for those facilities or services with any privately or publicly operated entity that provides those facilities or services either in or out of the county?

(b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in Section 1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(55 ILCS 105/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Petition for submission to referendum by electors.

(a) Whenever a petition for submission to referendum by the electors which requests the establishment and maintenance of facilities or services for the benefit of its residents with a developmental disability and the levy of an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon all the taxable property in the county at the value thereof, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, is signed by electors of the county equal in number to at least 10% of the total votes cast for the office that received the greatest total number of votes at the last preceding general county election and is presented to the county clerk, the clerk shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission at the next general county election. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed 0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable property in the county for the purposes of establishing and maintaining facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who are persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities intellectually disabled or under a developmental disability and who are not eligible to participate in any program provided under Article 14 of the School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14-1.01 et seq., including contracting for those facilities or services with any privately or publicly operated entity that provides those facilities or services either in or out of the county?

(b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in Section 1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 365. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 30-145 and the heading of Article 185 and Section 190-10 and the heading of Article 225 and Sections 225-5 and 260-5 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/30-145)

Sec. 30-145. Mental health services. If a township is not included in a mental health district organized under the Community Mental Health Act, the electors may authorize the board of trustees to provide mental health services ( , including services for the alcoholic and , the drug addicted, and for persons with intellectual disabilities) the intellectually disabled, for residents of the township by disbursing existing funds if available by contracting with mental health agencies approved by the Department of Human Services, alcoholism treatment programs licensed by the Department of Public Health, and drug abuse facilities and other alcohol and drug abuse services approved by the Department of Human Services. To be eligible to receive township funds, an agency, program, facility, or other service provider must have been in existence for more than one year and must serve the township area.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(60 ILCS 1/Art. 185 heading)

ARTICLE 185. FACILITIES AND SERVICES

FOR PERSONS WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES DEVELOPMENTALLY

DISABLED PERSONS

(60 ILCS 1/190-10)

Sec. 190-10. Mental health services. If a township is not included in a mental health district organized under the Community Mental Health Act, the township board may provide mental health services (including services for the alcoholic and , the drug addicted, and for persons with intellectual disabilities the intellectually disabled) for residents of the township by disbursing funds, pursuant to an appropriation, to mental health agencies approved by the Department of Human Services, alcoholism treatment programs licensed by the Department of Public Health, drug abuse facilities approved by the Department of Human Services, and other alcoholism and drug abuse services approved by the Department of Human Services. To be eligible for township funds disbursed under this Section, an agency, program, facility, or other service provider must have been in existence for more than one year and serve the township area.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(60 ILCS 1/Art. 225 heading)

ARTICLE 225. SERVICES FOR

PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES THE DISABLED

(60 ILCS 1/225-5)

Sec. 225-5. Township committee on persons with disabilities the disabled.

(a) The township board may appoint a township committee on persons with disabilities the disabled, comprised of not more than 10 members, one of whom shall be a township trustee appointed by the chairman of the township board. A majority of the committee shall consist of persons with disabilities be disabled. The initial members shall serve their terms as follows: 3 members for 1 year, 3 members for 2 years, and 3 members for 3 years. Succeeding members shall serve 3-year terms. The initial and succeeding trustee members shall serve 3-year terms or until termination of their service as township trustees, whichever occurs first.

(b) Members of the committee shall select one of their number to serve as chairman and may select other officers deemed necessary.

(c) Members of the committee shall serve without compensation but shall be allowed necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties under this Section.

(d) The committee shall cooperate with any appropriate public or private entity to develop and administer programs designed to enhance the self-sufficiency and quality of life of citizens with disabilities disabled citizens residing within the jurisdiction of the township.

(e) The committee may receive any available monies from private sources. The township board may provide funding from the township general fund. The township board may establish and administer a separate fund for the committee on persons with disabilities the disabled and shall authorize all committee expenditures from that fund.

(f) The committee may enter into service agreements or contracts for the purpose of providing needed or required services or make grants to another governmental entity, not-for-profit corporation, or community service agency to fund programs for persons with disabilities the disabled, subject to the approval of the township board.

(g) The committee shall report monthly to the township board on its activities and operation.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "persons with disabilities disabled" means any persons any person with a physical or developmental disability.

(Source: P.A. 83-1362; 88-62.)

(60 ILCS 1/260-5)

Sec. 260-5. Distributions from general fund, generally. To the extent that moneys in the township general fund have not been appropriated for other purposes, the township board may direct that distributions be made from that fund as follows:

(1) To (i) school districts maintaining grades 1 through 8 that are wholly or partly located within the township or (ii) governmental units as defined in Section 1 of the Community Mental Health Act that provide mental health facilities and services (including facilities and services for persons with intellectual disabilities the intellectually disabled) under that Act within the township, or (iii) both.

(2) To community action agencies that serve township residents. "Community action agencies" are defined as in Part A of Title II of the federal Economic Opportunity Act of 1964.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 370. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-3-7a, 10-5-2, 11-11.1-1, 11-20-14, 11-74.3-6, 11-95-13, and 11-95-14 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-3-7a) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-3-7a)

Sec. 8-3-7a. (a) Whenever a petition containing the signatures of at least l,000 or 10% of the registered voters, whichever is less, residing in a municipality of 500,000 or fewer inhabitants is presented to the corporate authorities of the municipality requesting the submission of a proposition to levy a tax at a rate not exceeding .075% upon the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of all property within the municipality subject to taxation, for the purpose of financing a public transportation system for elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons, the corporate authorities of such municipality shall adopt an ordinance or resolution directing the proper election officials to place the proposition on the ballot at the next election at which such proposition may be voted upon. The petition shall be filed with the corporate authorities at least 90 days prior to the next election at which such proposition may be voted upon. The petition may specify whether the transportation system financed by a tax levy under this Section is to serve only the municipality levying such tax or specified regions outside the corporate boundaries of such municipality in addition thereto. The petition shall be in substantially the following form:

We, the undersigned registered voters residing in ..... (specify the municipality), in the County of ..... and State of Illinois, do hereby petition that the corporate authorities of ....... (specify the municipality) be required to place on the ballot the proposition requiring the municipality to levy an annual tax at the rate of ...... (specify a rate not exceeding .075%) on all taxable property in ....... (specify the municipality) for the purpose of financing a public transportation system for elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons within ...... (specify the municipality and any regions outside the corporate boundaries to be served by the transportation system).

Name......... Address........... State of Illinois) )ss County of... )

I ........, do hereby certify that I am a registered voter, that I reside at No....... street, in the ...... of ......... County of ......... and State of Illinois, and that signatures in this sheet were signed in my presence, and are genuine, and that to the best of my knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the time of signing the petitions registered voters, and that their respective residences are correctly stated, as above set forth.

...................

Subscribed and sworn to me this ........... day of .......... A.D....

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall a tax of ...... % (specify a rate not exceeding .075%) be levied annually on all taxable property in ......(specify the municipality) to pay YES the cost of operating and maintaining a public transportation system for ------------------- elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons within........(specify the municipality NO and any regions outside the corporate boundaries to be served by the transportation system)?

-------------------------------------------------------------

If the majority of the voters of the municipality voting therein vote in favor of the proposition, the corporate authorities of the municipality shall levy such annual tax at the rate specified in the proposition. If the majority of the vote is against such proposition, such tax may not be levied.

(b) Municipalities under this Section may contract with any not-for-profit corporation, subject to the General Not for Profit Corporation Act and incorporated primarily for the purpose of providing transportation to elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons, for such corporation to provide transportation-related services for the purposes of this Section. Municipalities should utilize where possible existing facilities and systems already operating for the purposes outlined in this Section.

(c) Taxes authorized under this Section may be used only for the purpose of financing a transportation system for elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons as authorized in this Section.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "persons with disabilities handicapped person" means any individuals individual who, by reason of illness, injury, age, congenital malfunction, or other permanent or temporary disability, are is unable without special public transportation facilities or special planning or design to utilize ordinary public transportation facilities and services as effectively as persons who are not so affected.

"Public transportation for elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped" means a transportation system for persons who have mental or physical difficulty in accessing or using the conventional public mass transportation system, or for any other reason.

(Source: P.A. 83-656.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-5-2) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-5-2)

Sec. 10-5-2.

Each such policy of insurance shall provide for the payment to every volunteer member of such fire department receiving any injury, which injury was sustained through accidental means and was caused by and arose out of the duties of such member as a volunteer fireman, causing a disability which prevents such member from pursuing his usual vocation, as follows:

In such cities, villages and incorporated towns having a population of less than 1,000, a weekly indemnity of not less than $20,

In such cities, villages and incorporated towns having a population of 1,000 or more, a weekly indemnity of not less than $30.

Every such policy shall further provide:

(a) That the weekly indemnity payable thereunder shall be paid as long as such disability shall continue, not however, to exceed a period of 52 weeks.

(b) That in the event of the death or total permanent disability of such volunteer fireman, the sum of not less than $3,500 shall be paid to the estate of any such volunteer fireman or to such volunteer fireman with a total permanent disability total permanently disabled volunteer fireman, as the case may be.

(c) For the payment of such medical, surgical, hospital and nurse services and supplies, as may be necessary on account of such injury, the total sum thereof, however, not to exceed $750, for injuries sustained as the result of any one accident.

This amendatory act of 1973 does not apply to any municipality which is a home rule unit.

(Source: P.A. 78-481.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-11.1-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-11.1-1)

Sec. 11-11.1-1. The corporate authorities of any municipality may enact ordinances prescribing fair housing practices, defining unfair housing practices, establishing Fair Housing or Human Relations Commissions and standards for the operation of such Commissions in the administering and enforcement of such ordinances, prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, creed, ancestry, national origin, or physical or mental disability handicap in the listing, sale, assignment, exchange, transfer, lease, rental or financing of real property for the purpose of the residential occupancy thereof, and prescribing penalties for violations of such ordinances.

Such ordinances may provide for closed meetings of the Commissions or other administrative agencies responsible for administering and enforcing such ordinances for the purpose of conciliating complaints of discrimination and such meetings shall not be subject to the provisions of "An Act in relation to meetings", approved July 11, 1957, as amended. No final action for the imposition or recommendation of a penalty by such Commissions or agencies shall be taken, except at a meeting open to the public.

To secure and guarantee the rights established by Sections 17, 18 and 19 of Article I of the Illinois Constitution, it is declared that any ordinance or standard enacted under the authority of this Section or under general home rule power and any standard, rule or regulation of such a Commission which prohibits, restricts, narrows or limits the housing choice of any person is unenforceable and void. Nothing in this amendatory Act of 1981 prohibits such a commission or a unit of local government from making special outreach efforts to inform members of minority groups of housing opportunities available in areas of majority white concentration and make similar efforts to inform the majority white population of available housing opportunities located in areas of minority concentration.

This amendatory Act of 1981 applies to municipalities which are home rule units. Pursuant to Article VII, Section 6, paragraph (i) of the Illinois Constitution, this amendatory Act of 1981 is a limit on the power of municipalities that are home rule units.

(Source: P.A. 82-340.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-20-14)

Sec. 11-20-14. Companion dogs; restaurants. Notwithstanding any other prohibition to the contrary, a municipality with a population of 1,000,000 or more may, by ordinance, authorize the presence of companion dogs in outdoor areas of restaurants where food is served, if the ordinance provides for adequate controls to ensure compliance with the Illinois Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act, the Sanitary Food Preparation Act, and any other applicable statutes and ordinances. An ordinance enacted under this Section shall provide that: (i) no companion dog shall be present in the interior of any restaurant or in any area where food is prepared; and (ii) the restaurant shall have the right to refuse to serve the owner of a companion dog if the owner fails to exercise reasonable control over the companion dog or the companion dog is otherwise behaving in a manner that compromises or threatens to compromise the health or safety of any person present in the restaurant, including, but not limited to, violations and potential violations of any applicable health code or other statute or ordinance. An ordinance enacted under this Section may also provide for a permitting process to authorize individual restaurants to permit dogs as provided in this Section and to charge applicants and authorized restaurants a reasonable permit fee as the ordinance may establish.

For the purposes of this Section, "companion dog" means a dog other than a service dog assisting a person with a disability handicapped person.

(Source: P.A. 95-276, eff. 1-1-08.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.3-6)

Sec. 11-74.3-6. Business district revenue and obligations; business district tax allocation fund.

(a) If the corporate authorities of a municipality have approved a business district plan, have designated a business district, and have elected to impose a tax by ordinance pursuant to subsection (10) or (11) of Section 11-74.3-3, then each year after the date of the approval of the ordinance but terminating upon the date all business district project costs and all obligations paying or reimbursing business district project costs, if any, have been paid, but in no event later than the dissolution date, all amounts generated by the retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax shall be collected and the tax shall be enforced by the Department of Revenue in the same manner as all retailers' occupation taxes and service occupation taxes imposed in the municipality imposing the tax and all amounts generated by the hotel operators' occupation tax shall be collected and the tax shall be enforced by the municipality in the same manner as all hotel operators' occupation taxes imposed in the municipality imposing the tax. The corporate authorities of the municipality shall deposit the proceeds of the taxes imposed under subsections (10) and (11) of Section 11-74.3-3 into a special fund of the municipality called the "[Name of] Business District Tax Allocation Fund" for the purpose of paying or reimbursing business district project costs and obligations incurred in the payment of those costs.

(b) The corporate authorities of a municipality that has designated a business district under this Law may, by ordinance, impose a Business District Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than an item of tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the business district at a rate not to exceed 1% of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business, to be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax may not be imposed on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this subsection without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this subsection. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of, and compliance with, this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a through 1o, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability under this subsection by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the business district retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes, penalties, and interest collected under this subsection for deposit into the business district retailers' occupation tax fund.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities from the business district retailers' occupation tax fund, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties under this subsection to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this subsection, on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities provided for in this subsection to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification. The proceeds of the tax paid to municipalities under this subsection shall be deposited into the Business District Tax Allocation Fund by the municipality.

An ordinance imposing or discontinuing the tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department, if all other requirements of this subsection are met, shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon, if all other requirements of this subsection are met, the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce an ordinance imposing, discontinuing, or changing the rate of the tax under this subsection, until the municipality also provides, in the manner prescribed by the Department, the boundaries of the business district and each address in the business district in such a way that the Department can determine by its address whether a business is located in the business district. The municipality must provide this boundary and address information to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this subsection by the Department beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this subsection by the Department beginning on the following January 1. The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce any change made to the boundaries of a business district or address change, addition, or deletion until the municipality reports the boundary change or address change, addition, or deletion to the Department in the manner prescribed by the Department. The municipality must provide this boundary change information or address change, addition, or deletion to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change beginning on the following January 1. The retailers in the business district shall be responsible for charging the tax imposed under this subsection. If a retailer is incorrectly included or excluded from the list of those required to collect the tax under this subsection, both the Department of Revenue and the retailer shall be held harmless if they reasonably relied on information provided by the municipality.

A municipality that imposes the tax under this subsection must submit to the Department of Revenue any other information as the Department may require for the administration and enforcement of the tax.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this subsection, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a Business District Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the business district, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the business district, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. The tax shall be imposed at the same rate as the tax imposed in subsection (b) and shall not exceed 1% of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the business district, to be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax may not be imposed on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption), prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration which is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit such registrant to engage in a business which is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this subsection without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this subsection. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2, 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the business district), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the municipality), the first paragraph of Section 15, and Sections 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the business district retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex-officio, as trustee, all taxes, penalties, and interest collected under this subsection for deposit into the business district retailers' occupation tax fund.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities from the business district retailers' occupation tax fund, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties under this subsection to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this subsection, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the municipalities, provided for in this subsection to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification. The proceeds of the tax paid to municipalities under this subsection shall be deposited into the Business District Tax Allocation Fund by the municipality.

An ordinance imposing or discontinuing the tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department, if all other requirements of this subsection are met, shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon, if all other conditions of this subsection are met, the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce an ordinance imposing, discontinuing, or changing the rate of the tax under this subsection, until the municipality also provides, in the manner prescribed by the Department, the boundaries of the business district in such a way that the Department can determine by its address whether a business is located in the business district. The municipality must provide this boundary and address information to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this subsection by the Department beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement of the tax under this subsection by the Department beginning on the following January 1. The Department of Revenue shall not administer or enforce any change made to the boundaries of a business district or address change, addition, or deletion until the municipality reports the boundary change or address change, addition, or deletion to the Department in the manner prescribed by the Department. The municipality must provide this boundary change information or address change, addition, or deletion to the Department on or before April 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change beginning on the following July 1 and on or before October 1 for administration and enforcement by the Department of the change beginning on the following January 1. The retailers in the business district shall be responsible for charging the tax imposed under this subsection. If a retailer is incorrectly included or excluded from the list of those required to collect the tax under this subsection, both the Department of Revenue and the retailer shall be held harmless if they reasonably relied on information provided by the municipality.

A municipality that imposes the tax under this subsection must submit to the Department of Revenue any other information as the Department may require for the administration and enforcement of the tax.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (c), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) By ordinance, a municipality that has designated a business district under this Law may impose an occupation tax upon all persons engaged in the business district in the business of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel, as defined in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, at a rate not to exceed 1% of the gross rental receipts from the renting, leasing, or letting of hotel rooms within the business district, to be imposed only in 0.25% increments, excluding, however, from gross rental receipts the proceeds of renting, leasing, or letting to permanent residents of a hotel, as defined in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, and proceeds from the tax imposed under subsection (c) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act.

The tax imposed by the municipality under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the municipality imposing the tax. The municipality shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the municipality and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, shall be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and shall employ the same modes of procedure as are employed with respect to a tax adopted by the municipality under Section 8-3-14 of this Code.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their tax liability for that tax by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes imposed under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, and with any other tax.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

The proceeds of the tax imposed under this subsection shall be deposited into the Business District Tax Allocation Fund.

(e) Obligations secured by the Business District Tax Allocation Fund may be issued to provide for the payment or reimbursement of business district project costs. Those obligations, when so issued, shall be retired in the manner provided in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of those obligations by the receipts of taxes imposed pursuant to subsections (10) and (11) of Section 11-74.3-3 and by other revenue designated or pledged by the municipality. A municipality may in the ordinance pledge, for any period of time up to and including the dissolution date, all or any part of the funds in and to be deposited in the Business District Tax Allocation Fund to the payment of business district project costs and obligations. Whenever a municipality pledges all of the funds to the credit of a business district tax allocation fund to secure obligations issued or to be issued to pay or reimburse business district project costs, the municipality may specifically provide that funds remaining to the credit of such business district tax allocation fund after the payment of such obligations shall be accounted for annually and shall be deemed to be "surplus" funds, and such "surplus" funds shall be expended by the municipality for any business district project cost as approved in the business district plan. Whenever a municipality pledges less than all of the monies to the credit of a business district tax allocation fund to secure obligations issued or to be issued to pay or reimburse business district project costs, the municipality shall provide that monies to the credit of the business district tax allocation fund and not subject to such pledge or otherwise encumbered or required for payment of contractual obligations for specific business district project costs shall be calculated annually and shall be deemed to be "surplus" funds, and such "surplus" funds shall be expended by the municipality for any business district project cost as approved in the business district plan.

No obligation issued pursuant to this Law and secured by a pledge of all or any portion of any revenues received or to be received by the municipality from the imposition of taxes pursuant to subsection (10) of Section 11-74.3-3, shall be deemed to constitute an economic incentive agreement under Section 8-11-20, notwithstanding the fact that such pledge provides for the sharing, rebate, or payment of retailers' occupation taxes or service occupation taxes imposed pursuant to subsection (10) of Section 11-74.3-3 and received or to be received by the municipality from the development or redevelopment of properties in the business district.

Without limiting the foregoing in this Section, the municipality may further secure obligations secured by the business district tax allocation fund with a pledge, for a period not greater than the term of the obligations and in any case not longer than the dissolution date, of any part or any combination of the following: (i) net revenues of all or part of any business district project; (ii) taxes levied or imposed by the municipality on any or all property in the municipality, including, specifically, taxes levied or imposed by the municipality in a special service area pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Law; (iii) the full faith and credit of the municipality; (iv) a mortgage on part or all of the business district project; or (v) any other taxes or anticipated receipts that the municipality may lawfully pledge.

Such obligations may be issued in one or more series, bear such date or dates, become due at such time or times as therein provided, but in any case not later than (i) 20 years after the date of issue or (ii) the dissolution date, whichever is earlier, bear interest payable at such intervals and at such rate or rates as set forth therein, except as may be limited by applicable law, which rate or rates may be fixed or variable, be in such denominations, be in such form, either coupon, registered, or book-entry, carry such conversion, registration and exchange privileges, be subject to defeasance upon such terms, have such rank or priority, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium or payment at such place or places within or without the State, make provision for a corporate trustee within or without the State with respect to such obligations, prescribe the rights, powers, and duties thereof to be exercised for the benefit of the municipality and the benefit of the owners of such obligations, provide for the holding in trust, investment, and use of moneys, funds, and accounts held under an ordinance, provide for assignment of and direct payment of the moneys to pay such obligations or to be deposited into such funds or accounts directly to such trustee, be subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and be sold at such price, all as the corporate authorities shall determine. No referendum approval of the electors shall be required as a condition to the issuance of obligations pursuant to this Law except as provided in this Section.

In the event the municipality authorizes the issuance of obligations pursuant to the authority of this Law secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, or pledges ad valorem taxes pursuant to this subsection, which obligations are other than obligations which may be issued under home rule powers provided by Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution or which ad valorem taxes are other than ad valorem taxes which may be pledged under home rule powers provided by Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution or which are levied in a special service area pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Law, the ordinance authorizing the issuance of those obligations or pledging those taxes shall be published within 10 days after the ordinance has been adopted, in a newspaper having a general circulation within the municipality. The publication of the ordinance shall be accompanied by a notice of (i) the specific number of voters required to sign a petition requesting the question of the issuance of the obligations or pledging such ad valorem taxes to be submitted to the electors; (ii) the time within which the petition must be filed; and (iii) the date of the prospective referendum. The municipal clerk shall provide a petition form to any individual requesting one.

If no petition is filed with the municipal clerk, as hereinafter provided in this Section, within 21 days after the publication of the ordinance, the ordinance shall be in effect. However, if within that 21-day period a petition is filed with the municipal clerk, signed by electors numbering not less than 15% of the number of electors voting for the mayor or president at the last general municipal election, asking that the question of issuing obligations using full faith and credit of the municipality as security for the cost of paying or reimbursing business district project costs, or of pledging such ad valorem taxes for the payment of those obligations, or both, be submitted to the electors of the municipality, the municipality shall not be authorized to issue obligations of the municipality using the full faith and credit of the municipality as security or pledging such ad valorem taxes for the payment of those obligations, or both, until the proposition has been submitted to and approved by a majority of the voters voting on the proposition at a regularly scheduled election. The municipality shall certify the proposition to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

The ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide that the obligations shall contain a recital that they are issued pursuant to this Law, which recital shall be conclusive evidence of their validity and of the regularity of their issuance.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to this Law secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, the ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within the municipality sufficient to pay the principal thereof and interest thereon as it matures, which levy may be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by the municipality, which levy, however, shall be abated to the extent that monies from other sources are available for payment of the obligations and the municipality certifies the amount of those monies available to the county clerk.

A certified copy of the ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any portion of the municipality is situated, and shall constitute the authority for the extension and collection of the taxes to be deposited in the business district tax allocation fund.

A municipality may also issue its obligations to refund, in whole or in part, obligations theretofore issued by the municipality under the authority of this Law, whether at or prior to maturity. However, the last maturity of the refunding obligations shall not be expressed to mature later than the dissolution date.

In the event a municipality issues obligations under home rule powers or other legislative authority, the proceeds of which are pledged to pay or reimburse business district project costs, the municipality may, if it has followed the procedures in conformance with this Law, retire those obligations from funds in the business district tax allocation fund in amounts and in such manner as if those obligations had been issued pursuant to the provisions of this Law.

No obligations issued pursuant to this Law shall be regarded as indebtedness of the municipality issuing those obligations or any other taxing district for the purpose of any limitation imposed by law.

Obligations issued pursuant to this Law shall not be subject to the provisions of the Bond Authorization Act.

(f) When business district project costs, including, without limitation, all obligations paying or reimbursing business district project costs have been paid, any surplus funds then remaining in the Business District Tax Allocation Fund shall be distributed to the municipal treasurer for deposit into the general corporate fund of the municipality. Upon payment of all business district project costs and retirement of all obligations paying or reimbursing business district project costs, but in no event more than 23 years after the date of adoption of the ordinance imposing taxes pursuant to subsection (10) or (11) of Section 11-74.3-3, the municipality shall adopt an ordinance immediately rescinding the taxes imposed pursuant to subsection (10) or (11) of Section 11-74.3-3.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 96-1394, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1555, eff. 3-18-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-95-13) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-95-13)

Sec. 11-95-13. The corporate authorities of a municipality specified in Section 11-95-2 and a recreation board specified in Section 11-95-3 are authorized to establish, maintain and manage recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped, including both persons with mental disabilities and persons with physical disabilities mentally and physically handicapped, to provide transportation for persons with disabilities the handicapped to and from such programs, to provide for such examination of participants in such programs as may be deemed necessary, to charge fees for participating in such programs, the fee charged for non-residents of such municipality need not be the same as the fees charged the residents of the municipality, and to charge fees for transportation furnished to participants.

(Source: P.A. 76-806.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-95-14) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-95-14)

Sec. 11-95-14. The corporate authorities of any 2 or more municipalities specified in Section 11-95-2 and any 2 or more recreation boards specified in Section 11-95-3, or any combination thereof, are authorized to take any action jointly relating to recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped that could be taken individually and to enter into agreements with other such recreation boards, corporate authorities and park districts or any combination thereof, for the purpose of providing for the establishment, maintenance and management of joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped of all the participating districts and municipal areas, including provisions for transportation of participants, procedures for approval of budgets, authorization of expenditures and sharing of expenses, location of recreational areas in the area of any of the participating districts and municipalities, acquisition of real estate by gift, legacy, grant, or purchase, employment of a director and other professional workers for such program who may be employed by one participating district, municipality or board which shall be reimbursed on a mutually agreed basis by the other municipalities, districts and boards that are parties to the joint agreement, authorization for one municipality, board or district to supply professional workers for a joint program conducted in another municipality or district and to provide other requirements for operation of such joint program as may be desirable. The corporate authorities of any municipality that is a party to a joint agreement entered into under this Section may levy and collect a tax, in the manner provided by law for the levy and collection of other municipal taxes in the municipality but in addition to taxes for general purposes authorized by Section 8-3-1 or levied as limited by any provision of a special charter under which the municipality is incorporated, at not to exceed .04% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of all taxable property within the municipality for the purpose of funding that municipality's share of the expenses for providing the programs under that joint agreement. However, no tax may be levied pursuant to this Section in any area in which a tax is levied under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-230, eff. 1-1-02.)

Section 375. The Flood Prevention District Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(70 ILCS 750/25)

Sec. 25. Flood prevention retailers' and service occupation taxes.

(a) If the Board of Commissioners of a flood prevention district determines that an emergency situation exists regarding levee repair or flood prevention, and upon an ordinance confirming the determination adopted by the affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the county board of the county in which the district is situated, the county may impose a flood prevention retailers' occupation tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the territory of the district to provide revenue to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to secure the payment of bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act for a period not to exceed 25 years or as required to repay the bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act. The tax rate shall be 0.25% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (a), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a flood prevention service occupation tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged within the territory of the district in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service to provide revenue to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to secure the payment of bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act for a period not to exceed 25 years or as required to repay the bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness. The tax rate shall be 0.25% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the district), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the district), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the district), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the district), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

(c) The taxes imposed in subsections (a) and (b) may not be imposed on personal property titled or registered with an agency of the State; food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption); prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, and medical appliances; modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability disabled person; or insulin, urine testing materials, and syringes and needles used by diabetics.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the district to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(e) The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or a serviceman under the Service Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer or serviceman to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section.

(f) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section on behalf of the county, (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the counties provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund.

(g) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, then the county board shall, by ordinance, discontinue the tax upon the payment of all indebtedness of the flood prevention district. The tax shall not be discontinued until all indebtedness of the District has been paid.

(h) Any ordinance imposing the tax under this Section, or any ordinance that discontinues the tax, must be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(j) County Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund. All proceeds received by a county from a tax distribution under this Section must be maintained in a special fund known as the [name of county] flood prevention occupation tax fund. The county shall, at the direction of the flood prevention district, use moneys in the fund to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to pay bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act.

(k) This Section may be cited as the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 97-188, eff. 7-22-11.)

Section 380. The Downstate Forest Preserve District Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(70 ILCS 805/6) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 6309)

Sec. 6. Acquisition of property. Any such District shall have power to acquire lands and grounds for the aforesaid purposes by lease, or in fee simple by gift, grant, legacy, purchase or condemnation, or to acquire easements in land, and to construct, lay out, improve and maintain wells, power plants, comfort stations, shelter houses, paths, driveways, public roads, roadways and other improvements and facilities in and through such forest preserves as they shall deem necessary or desirable for the use of such forest preserves by the public and may acquire, develop, improve and maintain waterways in conjunction with the district. No district with a population less than 600,000 shall have the power to purchase, condemn, lease or acquire an easement in property within a municipality without the concurrence of the governing body of the municipality, except where such district is acquiring land for a linear park or trail not to exceed 100 yards in width or is acquiring land contiguous to an existing park or forest preserve, and no municipality shall annex any land for the purpose of defeating a District acquisition once the District has given notice of intent to acquire a specified parcel of land. No district with a population of less than 500,000 shall (i) have the power to condemn property for a linear park or trail within a municipality without the concurrence of the governing body of the municipality or (ii) have the power to condemn property for a linear park or trail in an unincorporated area without the concurrence of the governing body of the township within which the property is located or (iii) once having commenced a proceeding to acquire land by condemnation, dismiss or abandon that proceeding without the consent of the property owners. No district shall establish a trail surface within 50 feet of an occupied dwelling which was in existence prior to the approval of the acquisition by the district without obtaining permission of the owners of the premises or the concurrence of the governing body of the municipality or township within which the property is located. All acquisitions of land by a district with a population less than 600,000 within 1 1/2 miles of a municipality shall be preceded by a conference with the mayor or president of the municipality or his designated agent. If a forest preserve district is in negotiations for acquisition of land with owners of land adjacent to a municipality, the annexation of that land shall be deferred for 6 months. The district shall have no power to acquire an interest in real estate situated outside the district by the exercise of the right of eminent domain, by purchase or by lease, but shall have the power to acquire any such property, or an easement in any such property, which is contiguous to the district by gift, legacy, grant, or lease by the State of Illinois, subject to approval of the county board of the county, and of any forest preserve district or conservation district, within which the property is located. The district shall have the same control of and power over land, an interest in which it has so acquired, as over forest preserves within the district. If any of the powers to acquire lands and hold or improve the same given to Forest Preserve Districts, by Sections 5 and 6 of this Act should be held invalid, such invalidity shall not invalidate the remainder of this Act or any of the other powers herein given and conferred upon the Forest Preserve Districts. Such Forest Preserve Districts shall also have power to lease not to exceed 40 acres of the lands and grounds acquired by it, for a term of not more than 99 years to veterans' organizations as grounds for convalescing sick veterans and veterans with disabilities and disabled veterans, and as a place upon which to construct rehabilitation quarters, or to a county as grounds for a county nursing home or convalescent home. Any such Forest Preserve District shall also have power to grant licenses, easements and rights-of-way for the construction, operation and maintenance upon, under or across any property of such District of facilities for water, sewage, telephone, telegraph, electric, gas or other public service, subject to such terms and conditions as may be determined by such District.

Any such District may purchase, but not condemn, a parcel of land and sell a portion thereof for not less than fair market value pursuant to resolution of the Board. Such resolution shall be passed by the affirmative vote of at least 2/3 of all members of the board within 30 days after acquisition by the district of such parcel.

The corporate authorities of a forest preserve district that (i) is located in a county that has more than 700,000 inhabitants, (ii) borders a county that has 1,000,000 or more inhabitants, and (iii) also borders another state, by ordinance or resolution, may authorize the sale or public auction of a structure located on land owned by the district if (i) the structure existed on the land prior to the district's acquisition of the land, (ii) two-thirds of the members of the board of commissioners then holding office find that the structure is not necessary or is not useful to or for the best interest of the forest preserve district, (iii) a condition of sale or auction requires the transferee of the structure to remove the structure from district land, and (iv) prior to the sale or auction, the fair market value of the structure is determined by a written MAI-certified appraisal or by a written certified appraisal of a State certified or licensed real estate appraiser and the appraisal is available for public inspection. The ordinance or resolution shall (i) direct the sale to be conducted by the staff of the district, a listing with local licensed real estate agencies (in which case the terms of the agent's compensation shall be included in the ordinance or resolution), or by public auction, (ii) be published within 7 days after its passage in a newspaper published in the district, and (iii) contain pertinent information concerning the nature of the structure and any terms or conditions of sale or auction. No earlier than 14 days after the publication, the corporate authorities may accept any offer for the structure determined by them to be in the best interest of the district by a vote of two-thirds of the corporate authorities then holding office.

Whenever the board of any forest preserve district determines that the public interest will be subserved by vacating any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, located within a forest preserve, it may vacate that street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, by an ordinance passed by the affirmative vote of at least 3/4 of all the members of the board, except that the affirmative vote of at least 6/7 of all the members of the board is required if the board members are elected under Section 3c of this Act. This vote shall be taken by ayes and nays and entered in the records of the board.

The determination of the board that the nature and extent of the public use or public interest to be subserved is such as to warrant the vacation of any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, is conclusive, and the passage of such an ordinance is sufficient evidence of that determination, whether so recited in the ordinance or not. The relief to the public from further burden and responsibility of maintaining any street, roadway or driveway, or part thereof, constitutes a public use or public interest authorizing the vacation.

Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to authorize the board of any forest preserve district to vacate any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, that is part of any State or county highway.

When property is damaged by the vacation or closing of any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, damage shall be ascertained and paid as provided by law.

Except in cases where the deed, or other instrument dedicating a street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, has expressly provided for a specific devolution of the title thereto upon the abandonment or vacation thereof, and except where such street, roadway or driveway, or part thereof, is held by the district by lease, or where the district holds an easement in the land included within the street, roadway or driveway, whenever any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof is vacated under or by virtue of any ordinance of any forest preserve district, the title to the land in fee simple included within the street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, so vacated vests in the forest preserve district.

The board of any forest preserve district is authorized to sell at fair market price, gravel, sand, earth and any other material obtained from the lands and waters owned by the district.

For the purposes of this Section, "acquiring land" includes acquiring a fee simple, lease or easement in land.

(Source: P.A. 97-851, eff. 7-26-12.)

Section 385. The Cook County Forest Preserve District Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 810/8) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 6411)

Sec. 8. Any forest preserve district shall have power to acquire easements in land, lands in fee simple and grounds within such district for the aforesaid purposes by gift, grant, legacy, purchase or condemnation and to construct, lay out, improve and maintain wells, power plants, comfort stations, shelter houses, paths, driveways, roadways and other improvements and facilities in and through such forest preserves as it shall deem necessary or desirable for the use of such forest preserves by the public. Such forest preserve districts shall also have power to lease not to exceed 40 acres of the lands and grounds acquired by it, for a term of not more than 99 years to veterans' organizations as grounds for convalescing sick veterans and veterans with disabilities and disabled veterans, and as a place upon which to construct rehabilitation quarters, or to a county as grounds for a county nursing home or convalescent home. Any such forest preserve district shall also have power to grant licenses, easements and rights-of-way for the construction, operation and maintenance upon, under or across any property of such district of facilities for water, sewage, telephone, telegraph, electric, gas or other public service, subject to such terms and conditions as may be determined by such district.

Whenever the board determines that the public interest will be subserved by vacating any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, located within a forest preserve, it may vacate that street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, by an ordinance passed by the affirmative vote of at least 3/4 of all the members of the board.

The determination of the board that the nature and extent of the public use or public interest to be subserved is such as to warrant the vacation of any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, is conclusive, and the passage of such an ordinance is sufficient evidence of that determination, whether so recited in the ordinance or not. The relief to the public from further burden and responsibility of maintaining any street, roadway or driveway, or part thereof, constitutes a public use or public interest authorizing the vacation.

Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to authorize the board to vacate any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, that is part of any State or county highway.

When property is damaged by the vacation or closing of any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, damage shall be ascertained and paid as provided by law.

Except in cases where the deed, or other instrument dedicating a street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, has expressly provided for a specific devolution of the title thereto upon the abandonment or vacation thereof, whenever any street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof is vacated under or by virtue of any ordinance of any forest preserve district, the title to the land in fee simple included within the street, roadway, or driveway, or part thereof, so vacated vests in the forest preserve district.

The board of any forest preserve district is authorized to sell at fair market price, gravel, sand, earth and any other material obtained from the lands and waters owned by the district.

(Source: P.A. 98-281, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 390. The Park District Code is amended by changing Sections 5-8, 5-10, 8-10a, and 8-10b as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/5-8) (from Ch. 105, par. 5-8)

Sec. 5-8. Any park district that is a party to a joint agreement to provide recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under Section 8-10b of this Code may levy and collect annually a tax of not to exceed .04% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property in the district for the purpose of funding the district's share of the expenses of providing these programs under that joint agreement, which tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as the general taxes for the district. Such tax shall be in addition to all other taxes authorized by law to be levied and collected in the district and shall not be included within any limitation of rate contained in this Code or any other law, but shall be excluded therefrom, in addition thereto and in excess thereof. However, no tax may be levied pursuant to this Section in any area in which a tax is levied under Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 85-124.)

(70 ILCS 1205/5-10) (from Ch. 105, par. 5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Whenever, as a result of any lawful order of any agency, other than a park district board, having authority to enforce any law or regulation designed for the protection, health or safety of employees or visitors, or any law or regulation for the protection and safety of the environment, pursuant to the "Environmental Protection Act", any local park district, is required to alter or repair any physical facilities, or whenever after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985 any such district determines that it is necessary for health and safety, environmental protection, handicapped accessibility or energy conservation purposes that any physical facilities be altered or repaired, such district may, by proper resolution which specifically identifies the project and which is adopted pursuant to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act and upon the approval of a proposition by a majority of the electors voting thereon specifying the rate, levy a tax for the purpose of paying such alterations or repairs, or survey by a licensed architect or engineer, upon the equalized assessed value of all the taxable property of the district at the specified rate not to exceed .10% per year for a period sufficient to finance such alterations or repairs, upon the following conditions:

(a) When in the judgment of the local park district board of commissioners there are not sufficient funds available in the operations, building and maintenance fund of the district to pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary.

(b) When a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount of not less than $25,000 that is necessary to make the alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary has been secured by the local park district.

The filing of a certified copy of the resolution or ordinance levying the tax shall be the authority of the county clerk or clerks to extend such tax; provided, that in no event shall the extension of such tax for the current and preceding years, if any, under this Section be greater than the amount so approved, and in the event such current extension and preceding extensions exceed such approval and interest, it shall be reduced proportionately.

The county clerk of each of the counties in which any park district levying a tax under the authority of this Section is located, in reducing raised levies, shall not consider any such tax as a part of the general levy for park district purposes and shall not include the same in the limitation of any other tax rate which may be extended. Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as all other taxes of park districts.

The proposition to impose a tax under this Section may be initiated by resolution of the local park district board and shall be certified by the secretary of the local park district board to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

(Source: P.A. 84-849.)

(70 ILCS 1205/8-10a) (from Ch. 105, par. 8-10.1)

Sec. 8-10a.

Every Park District is authorized to establish, maintain and manage recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped, including both persons with mental disabilities and persons with physical disabilities mentally and physically handicapped, to provide transportation for persons with disabilities the handicapped to and from such programs, to provide for such examination of participants in such programs as may be deemed necessary, to charge fees for participating in such programs, the fee charged for non-residents of such district need not be the same as the fees charged the residents of the district, and to charge fees for transportation furnished to participants.

(Source: P.A. 76-805.)

(70 ILCS 1205/8-10b) (from Ch. 105, par. 8-10.2)

Sec. 8-10b. Joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped. Any 2 or more park districts, or in counties with a population of 300,000 or less, a single park district and another unit of local government, are authorized to take any action jointly relating to recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped that could be taken individually and to enter into agreements with other park districts and recreation boards and the corporate authorities of cities, villages and incorporated towns specified in Sections 11-95-2 and 11-95-3 of the "Illinois Municipal Code", approved May 29, 1961, as amended, or any combination thereof, for the purpose of providing for the establishment, maintenance and management of joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped of all the participating districts and municipal areas, including provisions for transportation of participants, procedures for approval of budgets, authorization of expenditures and sharing of expenses, location of recreational areas in the area of any of the participating districts and municipalities, acquisition of real estate by gift, legacy, grant, or purchase, employment of a director and other professional workers for such program who may be employed by one participating district, municipality or board which shall be reimbursed on a mutually agreed basis by the other districts, municipalities and boards that are parties to the joint agreement, authorization for one municipality, board or district to supply professional workers for a joint program conducted in another municipality or district and to provide other requirements for operation of such joint program as may be desirable.

(Source: P.A. 92-230, eff. 1-1-02.)

Section 395. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Section 7.06 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/7.06)

Sec. 7.06. Recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped; tax.

(a) The Chicago Park District is authorized to establish, maintain, and manage recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped, including both persons with mental disabilities and persons with physical disabilities mentally and physically handicapped, to provide transportation for persons with disabilities the handicapped to and from these programs, to provide for the examination of participants in such programs as deemed necessary, to charge fees for participating in the programs (the fee charged for non-residents of the district need not be the same as the fees charged the residents of the district), and to charge fees for transportation furnished to participants.

(b) For the purposes of the recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped established under this Section, the Chicago Park District is authorized to adopt procedures for approval of budgets, authorization of expenditures, location of recreational areas, acquisition of real estate by gift, legacy, grant, or purchase, and employment of a director and other professional workers for the programs.

(c) For the purposes of providing recreational programs for persons with disabilities the handicapped under this Section, the Chicago Park District may levy and collect annually a tax of not to exceed .04% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, of all taxable property in the district for the purpose of funding the district's expenses of providing these programs. This tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as the general taxes for the district. The tax shall be in addition to all other taxes authorized by law to be levied and collected in the district and shall not be included within any limitation of rate contained in this Act or any other law, but shall be excluded therefrom, in addition thereto, and in excess thereof.

(Source: P.A. 93-612, eff. 11-18-03.)

Section 400. The Metro-East Park and Recreation District Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1605/15)

Sec. 15. Creation of District; referendum.

(a) The governing body of a county may, by resolution, elect to create the Metro-East Park and Recreation District. The Metro-East District shall be established at a referendum on the question of the formation of the District that is submitted to the electors of a county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. The governing body must certify the question to the proper election authority, which must submit the question at an election in accordance with the Election Code.

The question must be submitted in substantially the following form:

Shall the Metro-East Park and Recreation District be created for the purposes of improving water quality; increasing park safety; providing neighborhood trails; improving, restoring, and expanding parks; providing disabled and expanded public access and access to persons with disabilities to recreational areas; preserving natural lands for wildlife; and maintaining other recreation grounds within the boundaries of the Metro-East Park and Recreation District; and shall (name of county) join any other counties in the Metro-East region that approve the formation of the Metro-East Park and Recreation District, with the authority to impose a Metro-East Park and Recreation District Retailers' Occupation Tax at a rate of one-tenth of 1% upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the district on gross receipts on the sales made in the course of their business for the purposes stated above, with 50% of the revenue going to the Metro-East Park and Recreation District and 50% of the revenue returned to the county from which the tax was collected?

The votes must be recorded as "Yes" or "No"

In the proposed Metro-East District that consists of only one county, if a majority of the electors in that county voting on the question vote in the affirmative, the Metro-East District may be organized. In the proposed Metro-East District that consists of more than one county, if a majority of the electors in any county proposed for inclusion in the District voting on the question vote in the affirmative, the Metro-East District may be organized and that county may be included in the District.

(b) After the Metro-East District has been created, any county eligible for inclusion in the Metro-East District may join the District after the county submits the question of joining the District to the electors of the county at a regular election. The county board must submit the question to the proper election authority, which must submit the question at an election in accordance with the Election Code.

The question must be submitted in substantially the following form:

Shall (name of county) join the Metro-East Park and Recreation District with the authority to impose a Metro-East Park and Recreation District Retailers' Occupation Tax at a rate of one-tenth of 1% upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the district on gross receipts on the sales made in the course of their business, with 50% of the revenue going to the Metro-East Park and Recreation District and 50% of the revenue returned to the county from which the tax was collected?

The votes must be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, the county shall be included in the District.

(Source: P.A. 91-103, eff. 7-13-99.)

Section 405. The Metro East Police District Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1750/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 10. Metro East Police District Commission.

(a) The governing and administrative powers of the Metro East Police District shall be vested in a body politic and corporate named the Metro East Police District Commission, whose powers are the following:

(1) To apply for, accept and expend grants, loans, or appropriations from the State of Illinois, the federal government, any State or federal agency or instrumentality, any unit of local government, or any other person or entity to be used for any of the purposes of the District. The Commission may enter into any agreement with the State of Illinois, the federal government, any State or federal instrumentality, any unit of local government, or any other person or entity in relation to grants, matching grants, loans, or appropriations. The Commission may provide grants, loans, or appropriations for law enforcement purposes to any unit of local government within the District.

(2) To enter into contracts or agreements with persons or entities for the supply of goods or services as may be necessary for the purposes of the District.

(3) To acquire fee simple title to real property lying within the District and personal property required for its purposes, by gift, purchase, contract, or otherwise for law enforcement purposes including evidence storage, records storage, equipment storage, detainment facilities, training facilities, office space and other purposes of the District. Title shall be taken in the name of the Commission. The Commission may acquire by lease any real property located within the District and personal property found by the Commission to be necessary for its purposes and to which the Commission finds that it need not acquire fee simple title for carrying out of those purposes. The Commission has no eminent domain powers or quick-take powers under this provision.

(4) To establish by resolution rules and regulations that the police departments within the District may adopt concerning: officer ethics; the carry and use of weapons; search and seizure procedures; procedures for arrests with and without warrants; alternatives to arrest; the use of officer discretion; strip searches and body cavity searches; profiling; use of reasonable force; use of deadly force; use of authorized less than lethal weapons; reporting uses of force; weapons and ammunition; weapons proficiency and training; crime analysis; purchasing and requisitions; department property; inventory and control; issue and reissue; recruitment; training attendance; lesson plans; remedial training; officer training record maintenance; department animals; response procedures; pursuit of motor vehicles; roadblocks and forcible stops; missing or mentally ill persons; use of equipment; use of vehicle lights and sirens; equipment specifications and maintenance; vehicle safety restraints; authorized personal equipment; protective vests and high risk situations; mobile data access; in-car video and audio; case file management; investigative checklists; informants; cold cases; polygraphs; shift briefings; interviews of witnesses and suspects; line-ups and show-ups; confidential information; juvenile operations; offenders, custody, and interrogation; crime prevention and community interface; critical incident response and planning; hostage negotiation; search and rescue; special events; personnel, equipment, and facility inspections; victim/witness rights, preliminary contact, and follow up; next of kin notification; traffic stops and approaches; speed-measuring devices; DUI procedures; traffic collision reporting and investigation; citation inventory, control and administration; escorts; towing procedures; detainee searches and transportation; search and inventory of vehicles; escape prevention procedures and detainee restraint; sick and injured detainees and detainees with disabilities , injured, and disabled detainees; vehicle safety; holding facility standards; collection and preservation of evidence including but not limited to photos, video, fingerprints, computers, records, DNA samples, controlled substances, weapons, and physical evidence; police report standards and format; submission of evidence to laboratories; follow up of outstanding cases; and application for charges with the State's Attorney, United States Attorney, Attorney General, or other prosecuting authority.

Any police department located within the Metro East Police District that does not adopt any rule or regulation established by resolution by the Commission shall not be eligible to receive funds from the Metro East Police District Fund.

The adoption of any policies or procedures pursuant to this Section shall not be inconsistent with any rights under current collective bargaining agreements, the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or other laws governing collective bargaining.

(5) No later than one year after the effective date of this Act, to assume for police departments within the District the authority to make application for and accept financial grants or contributions of services from any public or private source for law enforcement purposes.

(6) To develop a comprehensive plan for improvement and maintenance of law enforcement facilities within the District.

(7) To advance police departments within the District towards accreditation by the national Commission for the Accreditation of Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) within 3 years after creation of the District.

(b) The Commission shall consist of 14 appointed members and 3 ex-officio members. Seven members shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate, one of whom shall represent an organization that represents the largest number of police officers employed by the municipalities described by Section 5 of this Act. Four members shall be appointed by the Mayor of East Saint Louis, with the advice and consent of the city council. One member each shall be appointed by the Village Presidents of Washington Park, Alorton, and Brooklyn, with the advice and consent of the respective village boards. All appointed members shall hold office for a term of 2 years ending on December 31 and until their successors are appointed and qualified. The Mayor of East Saint Louis, with the approval of the city council, may serve as one of the members appointed for East Saint Louis, and the Village Presidents of Washington Park, Alorton, and Brooklyn, with the approval of their respective boards, may serve as the member for their respective municipalities.

A member may be removed by his or her appointing authority for incompetence, neglect of duty, or malfeasance in office.

The Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee, the State's Attorney of St. Clair County, or his or her designee, and the Director of the Southern Illinois Law Enforcement Commission, or his or her designee, shall serve as ex-officio members. Ex-officio members may only vote on matters before the Commission in the event of a tie vote.

(c) Any vacancy in the appointed membership of the Commission occurring by reason of the death, resignation, disqualification, removal, or inability or refusal to act of any of the members of the Commission shall be filled by the authority that had appointed the particular member, and for the unexpired term of office of that particular member.

(d) The Commission shall hold regular meetings annually for the election of a chair, vice-chair, secretary, and treasurer, for the adoption of a budget, and monthly for other business as may be necessary. The Commission shall establish the duties and responsibilities of its officers by rule. The chair, or any 9 members of the Commission, may call special meetings of the Commission. Each member shall take an oath of office for the faithful performance of his or her duties. The Commission may not transact business at a meeting of the Commission unless there is present at the meeting a quorum consisting of at least 9 members. Meetings may be held by telephone conference or other communications equipment by means of which all persons participating in the meeting can communicate with each other consistent with the Open Meetings Act.

(e) The Commission shall submit to the General Assembly, no later than March 1 of each odd-numbered year, a detailed report covering its operations for the 2 preceding calendar years and a statement of its program for the next 2 years, as provided by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act.

(f) The Auditor General shall conduct audits of the Commission in the same manner as the Auditor General conducts audits of State agencies under the Illinois State Auditing Act.

(g) The Commission is a public body for purposes of the Open Meetings Act and the Freedom of Information Act.

(h) This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 97-971, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 410. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 9.6d as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/9.6d)

Sec. 9.6d. Other Post Employment Benefit Trusts. The Board of Commissioners (the Board) may establish one or more trusts (Other Post Employment Benefit ("OPEB") Trusts) for the purpose of providing for the funding and payment of health and other fringe benefits for retired, disabled, or terminated employees of the District or employees of the District with disabilities or for their dependents and beneficiaries. Trusts created under this Section are in addition to pension benefits for those persons which are currently funded pursuant to Article 13 of the Illinois Pension Code. The OPEB Trusts may employ such personnel and enter into such investment, advisory, or professional services or similar contracts as deemed appropriate by the trustees and recommended by the Treasurer of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago (the District). The OPEB Trusts may be established in such manner so as to be exempt from taxation under the provisions of applicable federal and State tax laws. The trustee of the OPEB Trusts shall be the District. The Treasurer of the District and the trustee shall be indemnified by the District to the fullest extent permitted by law for their actions taken with respect to the OPEB Trust. The Board may deposit money with the OPEB Trusts derived from the funds of the District from time to time as such money may in the discretion of the Board be appropriated for that purpose; and, in addition, the Board may lawfully agree with the OPEB Trusts to a binding level of funding for periods of time not to exceed 5 fiscal years. In addition, the OPEB Trust documents may permit employees of the District to contribute money to provide for such benefits. To the extent participants do not direct the investment of their own account, the assets of the OPEB Trusts shall be managed by the Treasurer of the District in any manner, subject only to the prudent investor standard and any requirements of applicable federal law. The limitations of any other statute affecting the investment of District funds shall not apply to the OPEB Trusts. The trustee shall adopt an investment policy consistent with the standards articulated in Section 2.5 of the Public Funds Investment Act. The investment policy shall also provide for the availability of training for Board members. Funds of the OPEB Trusts may be used to pay for costs of administering the OPEB Trusts and for the benefits for which such trusts have been established in accordance with the terms of the OPEB Trust documents.

(Source: P.A. 95-394, eff. 8-23-07.)

Section 415. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 27a, 28, 28a, 51, and 52 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/27a) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 327a)

Sec. 27a. In addition to annually expending moneys equal to moneys expended by the Authority in the fiscal year ending December 31, 1988 for the protection against crime of its properties, employees and consumers of its public transportation services, the Authority also shall annually expend for the protection against crime of its employees and consumers, an amount that is equal to not less than 15 percent of all direct grants it receives from the State of Illinois as reimbursement for providing reduced fares for mass transportation services to students, persons with disabilities, handicapped persons and the elderly. The Authority shall provide to the Regional Transportation Authority such information as is required by the Regional Transportation Authority in determining whether the Authority has expended moneys in compliance with the provisions of this Section. The provisions of this Section shall apply in any fiscal year of the Authority only after all debt service requirements are met for that fiscal year.

(Source: P.A. 90-273, eff. 7-30-97.)

(70 ILCS 3605/28) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 328)

Sec. 28. The Board shall classify all the offices, positions and grades of regular and exempt employment required, excepting that of the Chairman of the Board, the Executive Director, Secretary, Treasurer, General Counsel, and Chief Engineer, with reference to the duties, job title, job schedule number, and the compensation fixed therefor, and adopt rules governing appointments to any of such offices or positions on the basis of merit and efficiency. The job title shall be generally descriptive of the duties performed in that job, and the job schedule number shall be used to identify a job title and to further classify positions within a job title. No discrimination shall be made in any appointment or promotion to any office, position, or grade of regular employment because of race, creed, color, sex, national origin, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or political or religious affiliations. No officer or employee in regular employment shall be discharged or demoted except for cause which is detrimental to the service. Any officer or employee in regular employment who is discharged or demoted may file a complaint in writing with the Board within ten days after notice of his or her discharge or demotion. If an employee is a member of a labor organization the complaint may be filed by such organization for and in behalf of such employee. The Board shall grant a hearing on such complaint within thirty (30) days after it is filed. The time and place of the hearing shall be fixed by the Board and due notice thereof given to the complainant, the labor organization by or through which the complaint was filed and the Executive Director. The hearing shall be conducted by the Board, or any member thereof or any officers' committee or employees' committee appointed by the Board. The complainant may be represented by counsel. If the Board finds, or approves a finding of the member or committee appointed by the Board, that the complainant has been unjustly discharged or demoted, he or she shall be restored to his or her office or position with back pay. The decision of the Board shall be final and not subject to review. The Board may designate such offices, positions, and grades of employment as exempt as it deems necessary for the efficient operation of the business of the Authority. The total number of employees occupying exempt offices, positions, or grades of employment may not exceed 3% of the total employment of the Authority. All exempt offices, positions, and grades of employment shall be at will. No discrimination shall be made in any appointment or promotion to any office, position, or grade of exempt employment because of race, creed, color, sex, national origin, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or religious or political affiliation. The Board may abolish any vacant or occupied office or position. Additionally, the Board may reduce the force of employees for lack of work or lack of funds as determined by the Board. When the number of positions or employees holding positions of regular employment within a particular job title and job schedule number are reduced, those employees with the least company seniority in that job title and job schedule number shall be first released from regular employment service. For a period of one year, an employee released from service shall be eligible for reinstatement to the job title and job schedule number from which he or she was released, in order of company seniority, if additional force of employees is required. "Company seniority" as used in this Section means the overall employment service credited to an employee by the Authority since the employee's most recent date of hire irrespective of job titles held. If 2 or more employees have the same company seniority date, time in the affected job title and job schedule number shall be used to break the company seniority tie. For purposes of this Section, company seniority shall be considered a working condition. When employees are represented by a labor organization that has a labor agreement with the Authority, the wages, hours, and working conditions (including, but not limited to, seniority rights) shall be governed by the terms of the agreement. Exempt employment shall not include any employees who are represented by a labor organization that has a labor agreement with the Authority.

No employee, officer, or agent of the Chicago Transit Board may receive a bonus that exceeds 10% of his or her annual salary unless that bonus has been reviewed for a period of 14 days by the Regional Transportation Authority Board. After 14 days, the bonus shall be considered reviewed. This Section does not apply to usual and customary salary adjustments.

(Source: P.A. 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15.)

(70 ILCS 3605/28a) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 328a)

Sec. 28a. (a) The Board may deal with and enter into written contracts with the employees of the Authority through accredited representatives of such employees or representatives of any labor organization authorized to act for such employees, concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions and pension or retirement provisions; provided, nothing herein shall be construed to permit hours of labor in excess of those provided by law or to permit working conditions prohibited by law. In case of dispute over wages, salaries, hours, working conditions, or pension or retirement provisions the Board may arbitrate any question or questions and may agree with such accredited representatives or labor organization that the decision of a majority of any arbitration board shall be final, provided each party shall agree in advance to pay half of the expense of such arbitration.

No contract or agreement shall be made with any labor organization, association, group or individual for the employment of members of such organization, association, group or individual for the construction, improvement, maintenance, operation or administration of any property, plant or facilities under the jurisdiction of the Authority, where such organization, association, group or individual denies on the ground of race, creed, color, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin membership and equal opportunities for employment to any citizen of Illinois.

(b)(1) The provisions of this paragraph (b) apply to collective bargaining agreements (including extensions and amendments of existing agreements) entered into on or after January 1, 1984.

(2) The Board shall deal with and enter into written contracts with their employees, through accredited representatives of such employees authorized to act for such employees concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions, and pension or retirement provisions about which a collective bargaining agreement has been entered prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1983. Any such agreement of the Authority shall provide that the agreement may be reopened if the amended budget submitted pursuant to Section 2.18a of the Regional Transportation Authority Act is not approved by the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority. The agreement may not include a provision requiring the payment of wage increases based on changes in the Consumer Price Index. The Board shall not have the authority to enter into collective bargaining agreements with respect to inherent management rights, which include such areas of discretion or policy as the functions of the employer, standards of services, its overall budget, the organizational structure and selection of new employees and direction of personnel. Employers, however, shall be required to bargain collectively with regard to policy matters directly affecting wages, hours and terms and conditions of employment, as well as the impact thereon upon request by employee representatives. To preserve the rights of employers and exclusive representatives which have established collective bargaining relationships or negotiated collective bargaining agreements prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1983, employers shall be required to bargain collectively with regard to any matter concerning wages, hours or conditions of employment about which they have bargained prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1983.

(3) The collective bargaining agreement may not include a prohibition on the use of part-time operators on any service operated by or funded by the Board, except where prohibited by federal law.

(4) Within 30 days of the signing of any such collective bargaining agreement, the Board shall determine the costs of each provision of the agreement, prepare an amended budget incorporating the costs of the agreement, and present the amended budget to the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority for its approval under Section 4.11 of the Regional Transportation Act. The Board of the Regional Transportation Authority may approve the amended budget by an affirmative vote of 12 of its then Directors. If the budget is not approved by the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority, the agreement may be reopened and its terms may be renegotiated. Any amended budget which may be prepared following renegotiation shall be presented to the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority for its approval in like manner.

(Source: P.A. 95-708, eff. 1-18-08.)

(70 ILCS 3605/51)

Sec. 51. Free services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Board shall be provided without charge to all senior citizens of the Metropolitan Region (as such term is defined in 70 ILCS 3615/1.03) aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Board.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Board shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the Board from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1527, eff. 2-14-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(70 ILCS 3605/52)

Sec. 52. Transit services for individuals with disabilities disabled individuals. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contract of, the Board shall be provided without charge to all persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such procedures as shall be prescribed by the Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 420. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Sections 8.6 and 8.7 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/8.6)

Sec. 8.6. Free services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, every District shall be provided without charge to all senior citizens of the District aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the District.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, every District shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the District. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the District from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1527, eff. 2-14-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(70 ILCS 3610/8.7)

Sec. 8.7. Transit services for individuals with disabilities disabled individuals. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contract of, any District shall be provided without charge to all persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such procedures as shall be prescribed by the District. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 425. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 1.02, 3A.15, 3A.16, 3B.14, and 3B.15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/1.02) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 701.02)

Sec. 1.02. Findings and Purpose.

(a) The General Assembly finds;

(i) Public transportation is, as provided in Section 7 of Article XIII of the Illinois Constitution, an essential public purpose for which public funds may be expended and that Section authorizes the State to provide financial assistance to units of local government for distribution to providers of public transportation. There is an urgent need to reform and continue a unit of local government to assure the proper management of public transportation and to receive and distribute State or federal operating assistance and to raise and distribute revenues for local operating assistance. System generated revenues are not adequate for such service and a public need exists to provide for, aid and assist public transportation in the northeastern area of the State, consisting of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will Counties.

(ii) Comprehensive and coordinated regional public transportation is essential to the public health, safety and welfare. It is essential to economic well-being, maintenance of full employment, conservation of sources of energy and land for open space and reduction of traffic congestion and for providing and maintaining a healthful environment for the benefit of present and future generations in the metropolitan region. Public transportation improves the mobility of the public and improves access to jobs, commercial facilities, schools and cultural attractions. Public transportation decreases air pollution and other environmental hazards resulting from excessive use of automobiles and allows for more efficient land use and planning.

(iii) Because system generated receipts are not presently adequate, public transportation facilities and services in the northeastern area are in grave financial condition. With existing methods of financing, coordination and management, and relative convenience of automobiles, such public transportation facilities are not providing adequate public transportation to insure the public health, safety and welfare.

(iv) Additional commitments to the public transportation needs of persons with disabilities the disabled, the economically disadvantaged, and the elderly are necessary.

(v) To solve these problems, it is necessary to provide for the creation of a regional transportation authority with the powers necessary to insure adequate public transportation.

(b) The General Assembly further finds, in connection with this amendatory Act of 1983:

(i) Substantial, recurring deficits in the operations of public transportation services subject to the jurisdiction of the Regional Transportation Authority and periodic cash shortages have occurred either of which could bring about a loss of public transportation services throughout the metropolitan region at any time;

(ii) A substantial or total loss of public transportation services or any segment thereof would create an emergency threatening the safety and well-being of the people in the northeastern area of the State; and

(iii) To meet the urgent needs of the people of the metropolitan region that such an emergency be averted and to provide financially sound methods of managing the provision of public transportation services in the northeastern area of the State, it is necessary, while maintaining and continuing the existing Authority, to modify the powers and responsibilities of the Authority, to reallocate responsibility for operating decisions, to change the composition and appointment of the Board of Directors thereof, and to immediately establish a new Board of Directors.

(c) The General Assembly further finds in connection with this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly:

(i) The economic vitality of northeastern Illinois requires regionwide and systemwide efforts to increase ridership on the transit systems, constrain road congestion within the metropolitan region, and allocate resources for transportation so as to assist in the development of an adequate, efficient, geographically equitable and coordinated regional transportation system that is in a state of good repair.

(ii) To achieve the purposes of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the powers and duties of the Authority must be enhanced to improve overall planning and coordination, to achieve an integrated and efficient regional transit system, to advance the mobility of transit users, and to increase financial transparency of the Authority and the Service Boards.

(d) It is the purpose of this Act to provide for, aid and assist public transportation in the northeastern area of the State without impairing the overall quality of existing public transportation by providing for the creation of a single authority responsive to the people and elected officials of the area and with the power and competence to develop, implement, and enforce plans that promote adequate, efficient, geographically equitable and coordinated public transportation, provide financial review of the providers of public transportation in the metropolitan region and facilitate public transportation provided by Service Boards which is attractive and economical to users, comprehensive, coordinated among its various elements, economical, safe, efficient and coordinated with area and State plans.

(Source: P.A. 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15.)

(70 ILCS 3615/3A.15)

Sec. 3A.15. Free services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Suburban Bus Board shall be provided without charge to all senior citizens of the Metropolitan Region aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Suburban Bus Board.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Suburban Bus Board shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Suburban Bus Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the Suburban Bus Board from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1527, eff. 2-14-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(70 ILCS 3615/3A.16)

Sec. 3A.16. Transit services for individuals with disabilities disabled individuals. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contract of, the Suburban Bus Board shall be provided without charge to all persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such procedures as shall be prescribed by the Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(70 ILCS 3615/3B.14)

Sec. 3B.14. Free services; eligibility.

(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and until subsection (b) is implemented, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Commuter Rail Board shall be provided without charge to all senior citizens of the Metropolitan Region aged 65 and older, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Commuter Rail Board.

(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 180 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, any fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contracts of, the Commuter Rail Board shall be provided without charge to senior citizens aged 65 and older who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such conditions as shall be prescribed by the Commuter Rail Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall relieve the Commuter Rail Board from providing reduced fares as may be required by federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1527, eff. 2-14-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(70 ILCS 3615/3B.15)

Sec. 3B.15. Transit services for individuals with disabilities disabled individuals. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, no later than 60 days following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, all fixed route public transportation services provided by, or under grant or purchase of service contract of, the Commuter Rail Board shall be provided without charge to all persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the income eligibility limitation set forth in subsection (a-5) of Section 4 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, under such procedures as shall be prescribed by the Board. The Department on Aging shall furnish all information reasonably necessary to determine eligibility, including updated lists of individuals who are eligible for services without charge under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 430. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.83, 2-3.98, 10-22.11, 10-22.33B, 14-6.01, 14-7.02, 14-7.03, 14-8.01, 14-8.02, 14-8.04, 14-11.01, 17-2.11, 19-1, 21B-20, 30-14.2, 34-2.4, 34-18, and 34-128 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.83) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.83)

Sec. 2-3.83. Individual transition plan model pilot program.

(a) The General Assembly finds that transition services for special education students in secondary schools are needed for the increasing numbers of students exiting school programs. Therefore, to ensure coordinated and timely delivery of services, the State shall establish a model pilot program to provide such services. Local school districts, using joint agreements and regional service delivery systems for special and vocational education selected by the Governor's Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities, shall have the primary responsibility to convene transition planning meetings for these students who will require post-school adult services.

(b) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Post-secondary Service Provider" means a provider of services for adults who have any developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or who are persons with one or more disabilities disabled as defined in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(2) "Individual Education Plan" means a written statement for an exceptional child that provides at least a statement of: the child's present levels of educational performance, annual goals and short-term instructional objectives; specific special education and related services; the extent of participation in the regular education program; the projected dates for initiation of services; anticipated duration of services; appropriate objective criteria and evaluation procedures; and a schedule for annual determination of short-term objectives.

(3) "Individual Transition Plan" (ITP) means a multi-agency informal assessment of a student's needs for post-secondary adult services including but not limited to employment, post-secondary education or training and residential independent living.

(4) "Developmental Disability" means a disability which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or to (b) any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled persons. Such disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability handicap.

(5) "Exceptional Characteristic" means any disabling or exceptional characteristic which interferes with a student's education including, but not limited to, a determination that the student has a severe or profound mental disability, has mental disability but is trainable, is is severely or profoundly mentally disabled, trainably mentally disabled, deaf-blind, or has some other health impairment.

(c) The model pilot program required by this Section shall be established and administered by the Governor's Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities in conjunction with the case coordination pilot projects established by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 4.1 of the Community Services Act, as amended.

(d) The model pilot program shall include the following features:

(1) Written notice shall be sent to the student and, when appropriate, his or her parent or guardian giving the opportunity to consent to having the student's name and relevant information shared with the local case coordination unit and other appropriate State or local agencies for purposes of inviting participants to the individual transition plan meeting.

(2) Meetings to develop and modify, as needed, an Individual Transition Plan shall be conducted annually for all students with a developmental disability in the pilot program area who are age 16 or older and who are receiving special education services for 50% or more of their public school program. These meetings shall be convened by the local school district and conducted in conjunction with any other regularly scheduled meetings such as the student's annual individual educational plan meeting. The Governor's Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities shall cooperate with and may enter into any necessary written agreements with the Department of Human Services and the State Board of Education to identify the target group of students for transition planning and the appropriate case coordination unit to serve these individuals.

(3) The ITP meetings shall be co-chaired by the individual education plan coordinator and the case coordinator. The ITP meeting shall include but not be limited to discussion of the following: the student's projected date of exit from the public schools; his projected post-school goals in the areas of employment, residential living arrangement and post-secondary education or training; specific school or post-school services needed during the following year to achieve the student's goals, including but not limited to vocational evaluation, vocational education, work experience or vocational training, placement assistance, independent living skills training, recreational or leisure training, income support, medical needs and transportation; and referrals and linkage to needed services, including a proposed time frame for services and the responsible agency or provider. The individual transition plan shall be signed by participants in the ITP discussion, including but not limited to the student's parents or guardian, the student (where appropriate), multi-disciplinary team representatives from the public schools, the case coordinator and any other individuals who have participated in the ITP meeting at the discretion of the individual education plan coordinator, the developmental disability case coordinator or the parents or guardian.

(4) At least 10 days prior to the ITP meeting, the parents or guardian of the student shall be notified in writing of the time and place of the meeting by the local school district. The ITP discussion shall be documented by the assigned case coordinator, and an individual student file shall be maintained by each case coordination unit. One year following a student's exit from public school the case coordinator shall conduct a follow up interview with the student.

(5) Determinations with respect to individual transition plans made under this Section shall not be subject to any due process requirements prescribed in Section 14-8.02 of this Code.

(e) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.98) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.98)

Sec. 2-3.98. Transition program for persons with developmental disabilities Developmentally disabled transition program. The State Board of Education shall establish and implement, in conjunction with the Department of Human Services, a pilot program for the provision of transitional, educational services to persons with a developmental disability 18 years of age or older who have completed public school programs.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.11) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.11)

Sec. 10-22.11. Lease of school property.

(a) To lease school property to another school district, municipality or body politic and corporate for a term of not to exceed 25 years, except as otherwise provided in this Section, and upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed if in the opinion of the school board use of such property will not be needed by the district during the term of such lease; provided, the school board shall not make or renew any lease for a term longer than 10 years, nor alter the terms of any lease whose unexpired term may exceed 10 years without the vote of 2/3 of the full membership of the board.

(b) Whenever the school board considers such action advisable and in the best interests of the school district, to lease vacant school property for a period not exceeding 51 years to a private not for profit school organization for use in the care of persons with a mental disability who are trainable and educable the trainable and educable mentally disabled persons in the district or in the education of the gifted children in the district. Before leasing such property to a private not for profit school organization, the school board must adopt a resolution for the leasing of such property, fixing the period and price therefor, and order submitted to referendum at an election to be held in the district as provided in the general election law, the question of whether the lease should be entered into. Thereupon, the secretary shall certify to the proper election authorities the proposition for submission in accordance with the general election law. If the majority of the voters voting upon the proposition vote in favor of the leasing, the school board may proceed with the leasing. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

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Shall School District No. ..... of ..... County, Illinois lease to YES ..... (here name and identify the lessee) the following described vacant ---------------------

school property (here describe the property) for a term of ..... years NO for the sum of ..... Dollars?

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This paragraph (b) shall not be construed in such a manner as to relieve the responsibility of the Board of Education as set out in Article 14 of the School Code.

(c) To lease school buildings and land to suitable lessees for educational purposes or for any other purpose which serves the interests of the community, for a term not to exceed 25 years and upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon by the parties, when such buildings and land are declared by the board to be unnecessary or unsuitable or inconvenient for a school or the uses of the district during the term of the lease and when, in the opinion of the board, the best interests of the residents of the school district will be enhanced by entering into such a lease. Such leases shall include provisions for adequate insurance for both liability and property damage or loss, and reasonable charges for maintenance and depreciation of such buildings and land.

(Source: P.A. 89-397, eff. 8-20-95.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.33B)

Sec. 10-22.33B. Summer school; required attendance. To conduct a high quality summer school program for those resident students identified by the school district as being academically at risk in such critical subject areas as language arts (reading and writing) and mathematics who will be entering any of the school district's grades for the next school term and to require attendance at such program by such students who have not been identified as a person with a disability disabled under Article 14, but who meet criteria established under this Section. Summer school programs established under this Section shall be designed to raise the level of achievement and improve opportunities for success in subsequent grade levels of those students required to attend. The parent or guardian of any student required to attend summer school shall be given written notice from the school district requiring attendance not later than the close of the school term which immediately precedes the required summer school program.

(Source: P.A. 89-610, eff. 8-6-96.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-6.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-6.01)

Sec. 14-6.01. Powers and duties of school boards. School boards of one or more school districts establishing and maintaining any of the educational facilities described in this Article shall, in connection therewith, exercise similar powers and duties as are prescribed by law for the establishment, maintenance and management of other recognized educational facilities. Such school boards shall include only eligible children in the program and shall comply with all the requirements of this Article and all rules and regulations established by the State Board of Education. Such school boards shall accept in part-time attendance children with disabilities of the types described in Sections 14-1.02 through 14-1.07 who are enrolled in nonpublic schools. A request for part-time attendance must be submitted by a parent or guardian of the child with a disability disabled child and may be made only to those public schools located in the district where the child attending the nonpublic school resides; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting an agreement between the district where the child resides and another public school district to provide special educational services if such an arrangement is deemed more convenient and economical. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. Transportation for students in part time attendance shall be provided only if required in the child's individualized educational program on the basis of the child's disabling condition or as the special education program location may require.

A school board shall publish a public notice in its newsletter of general circulation or in the newsletter of another governmental entity of general circulation in the district or if neither is available in the district, then in a newspaper of general circulation in the district, the right of all children with disabilities to a free appropriate public education as provided under this Code. Such notice shall identify the location and phone number of the office or agent of the school district to whom inquiries should be directed regarding the identification, assessment and placement of such children.

School boards shall immediately provide upon request by any person written materials and other information that indicates the specific policies, procedures, rules and regulations regarding the identification, evaluation or educational placement of children with disabilities under Section 14-8.02 of the School Code. Such information shall include information regarding all rights and entitlements of such children under this Code, and of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents or guardian in the parents' or guardian's native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and federal Public Law 94-142; it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and federal Public Law 94-142, as amended, to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents or guardian of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents or guardians in exercising rights or entitlements under this Code.

Any parent or guardian who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter.

No student with a disability disabled student may be denied promotion, graduation or a general diploma on the basis of failing a minimal competency test when such failure can be directly related to the disabling condition of the student. For the purpose of this Act, "minimal competency testing" is defined as tests which are constructed to measure the acquisition of skills to or beyond a certain defined standard.

Effective July 1, 1966, high school districts are financially responsible for the education of pupils with disabilities who are residents in their districts when such pupils have reached age 15 but may admit children with disabilities into special educational facilities without regard to graduation from the eighth grade after such pupils have reached the age of 14 1/2 years. Upon a pupil with a disability disabled pupil's attaining the age of 14 1/2 years, it shall be the duty of the elementary school district in which the pupil resides to notify the high school district in which the pupil resides of the pupil's current eligibility for special education services, of the pupil's current program, and of all evaluation data upon which the current program is based. After an examination of that information the high school district may accept the current placement and all subsequent timelines shall be governed by the current individualized educational program; or the high school district may elect to conduct its own evaluation and multidisciplinary staff conference and formulate its own individualized educational program, in which case the procedures and timelines contained in Section 14-8.02 shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 98-219, eff. 8-9-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-7.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.02)

Sec. 14-7.02. Children attending private schools, public out-of-state schools, public school residential facilities or private special education facilities. The General Assembly recognizes that non-public schools or special education facilities provide an important service in the educational system in Illinois.

If because of his or her disability the special education program of a district is unable to meet the needs of a child and the child attends a non-public school or special education facility, a public out-of-state school or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit that provides special educational services required by the child and is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations of the State Superintendent of Education, the school district in which the child is a resident shall pay the actual cost of tuition for special education and related services provided during the regular school term and during the summer school term if the child's educational needs so require, excluding room, board and transportation costs charged the child by that non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, or $4,500 per year, whichever is less, and shall provide him any necessary transportation. "Nonpublic special education facility" shall include a residential facility, within or without the State of Illinois, which provides special education and related services to meet the needs of the child by utilizing private schools or public schools, whether located on the site or off the site of the residential facility.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations for determining when placement in a private special education facility is appropriate. Such rules and regulations shall take into account the various types of services needed by a child and the availability of such services to the particular child in the public school. In developing these rules and regulations the State Board of Education shall consult with the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities and hold public hearings to secure recommendations from parents, school personnel, and others concerned about this matter.

The State Board of Education shall also promulgate rules and regulations for transportation to and from a residential school. Transportation to and from home to a residential school more than once each school term shall be subject to prior approval by the State Superintendent in accordance with the rules and regulations of the State Board.

A school district making tuition payments pursuant to this Section is eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the district per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services. Such reimbursement shall be approved in accordance with Section 14-12.01 and each district shall file its claims, computed in accordance with rules prescribed by the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Superintendent of Education. Data used as a basis of reimbursement claims shall be for the preceding regular school term and summer school term. Each school district shall transmit its claims to the State Board of Education on or before August 15. The State Board of Education, before approving any such claims, shall determine their accuracy and whether they are based upon services and facilities provided under approved programs. Upon approval the State Board shall cause vouchers to be prepared showing the amount due for payment of reimbursement claims to school districts, for transmittal to the State Comptroller on the 30th day of September, December, and March, respectively, and the final voucher, no later than June 20. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved.

No child shall be placed in a special education program pursuant to this Section if the tuition cost for special education and related services increases more than 10 percent over the tuition cost for the previous school year or exceeds $4,500 per year unless such costs have been approved by the Illinois Purchased Care Review Board. The Illinois Purchased Care Review Board shall consist of the following persons, or their designees: the Directors of Children and Family Services, Public Health, Public Aid, and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget; the Secretary of Human Services; the State Superintendent of Education; and such other persons as the Governor may designate. The Review Board shall also consist of one non-voting member who is an administrator of a private, nonpublic, special education school. The Review Board shall establish rules and regulations for its determination of allowable costs and payments made by local school districts for special education, room and board, and other related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall establish uniform standards and criteria which it shall follow. The Review Board shall approve the usual and customary rate or rates of a special education program that (i) is offered by an out-of-state, non-public provider of integrated autism specific educational and autism specific residential services, (ii) offers 2 or more levels of residential care, including at least one locked facility, and (iii) serves 12 or fewer Illinois students.

The Review Board shall establish uniform definitions and criteria for accounting separately by special education, room and board and other related services costs. The Board shall also establish guidelines for the coordination of services and financial assistance provided by all State agencies to assure that no otherwise qualified child with a disability disabled child receiving services under Article 14 shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by any State agency.

The Review Board shall review the costs for special education and related services provided by non-public schools or special education facilities and shall approve or disapprove such facilities in accordance with the rules and regulations established by it with respect to allowable costs.

The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and staff support for the Review Board as deemed reasonable by the State Superintendent of Education. This support shall not include travel expenses or other compensation for any Review Board member other than the State Superintendent of Education.

The Review Board shall seek the advice of the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the rules and regulations to be promulgated by it relative to providing special education services.

If a child has been placed in a program in which the actual per pupil costs of tuition for special education and related services based on program enrollment, excluding room, board and transportation costs, exceed $4,500 and such costs have been approved by the Review Board, the district shall pay such total costs which exceed $4,500. A district making such tuition payments in excess of $4,500 pursuant to this Section shall be responsible for an amount in excess of $4,500 equal to the district per capita tuition charge and shall be eligible for reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments actually made in excess of the districts per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special education services.

If a child has been placed in an approved individual program and the tuition costs including room and board costs have been approved by the Review Board, then such room and board costs shall be paid by the appropriate State agency subject to the provisions of Section 14-8.01 of this Act. Room and board costs not provided by a State agency other than the State Board of Education shall be provided by the State Board of Education on a current basis. In no event, however, shall the State's liability for funding of these tuition costs begin until after the legal obligations of third party payors have been subtracted from such costs. If the money appropriated by the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the claims approved. Each district shall submit estimated claims to the State Superintendent of Education. Upon approval of such claims, the State Superintendent of Education shall direct the State Comptroller to make payments on a monthly basis. The frequency for submitting estimated claims and the method of determining payment shall be prescribed in rules and regulations adopted by the State Board of Education. Such current state reimbursement shall be reduced by an amount equal to the proceeds which the child or child's parents are eligible to receive under any public or private insurance or assistance program. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to a child with a disability disabled child.

If it otherwise qualifies, a school district is eligible for the transportation reimbursement under Section 14-13.01 and for the reimbursement of tuition payments under this Section whether the non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility, attended by a child who resides in that district and requires special educational services, is within or outside of the State of Illinois. However, a district is not eligible to claim transportation reimbursement under this Section unless the district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the district is unable to provide special educational services required by the child for the current school year.

Nothing in this Section authorizes the reimbursement of a school district for the amount paid for tuition of a child attending a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school or county special education facility unless the school district certifies to the State Superintendent of Education that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of that child because of his disability and the State Superintendent of Education finds that the school district is in substantial compliance with Section 14-4.01. However, if a child is unilaterally placed by a State agency or any court in a non-public school or special education facility, public out-of-state school, or county special education facility, a school district shall not be required to certify to the State Superintendent of Education, for the purpose of tuition reimbursement, that the special education program of that district is unable to meet the needs of a child because of his or her disability.

Any educational or related services provided, pursuant to this Section in a non-public school or special education facility or a special education facility owned and operated by a county government unit shall be at no cost to the parent or guardian of the child. However, current law and practices relative to contributions by parents or guardians for costs other than educational or related services are not affected by this amendatory Act of 1978.

Reimbursement for children attending public school residential facilities shall be made in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02b, 14-13.01, or 29-5 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or general State aid to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

(Source: P.A. 98-636, eff. 6-6-14; 98-1008, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-7.03) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.03)

Sec. 14-7.03. Special Education Classes for Children from Orphanages, Foster Family Homes, Children's Homes, or in State Housing Units. If a school district maintains special education classes on the site of orphanages and children's homes, or if children from the orphanages, children's homes, foster family homes, other State agencies, or State residential units for children attend classes for children with disabilities in which the school district is a participating member of a joint agreement, or if the children from the orphanages, children's homes, foster family homes, other State agencies, or State residential units attend classes for the children with disabilities maintained by the school district, then reimbursement shall be paid to eligible districts in accordance with the provisions of this Section by the Comptroller as directed by the State Superintendent of Education.

The amount of tuition for such children shall be determined by the actual cost of maintaining such classes, using the per capita cost formula set forth in Section 14-7.01, such program and cost to be pre-approved by the State Superintendent of Education.

If a school district makes a claim for reimbursement under Section 18-3 or 18-4 of this Act it shall not include in any claim filed under this Section a claim for such children. Payments authorized by law, including State or federal grants for education of children included in this Section, shall be deducted in determining the tuition amount.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed so as to prohibit reimbursement for the tuition of children placed in for profit facilities. Private facilities shall provide adequate space at the facility for special education classes provided by a school district or joint agreement for children with disabilities who are residents of the facility at no cost to the school district or joint agreement upon request of the school district or joint agreement. If such a private facility provides space at no cost to the district or joint agreement for special education classes provided to children with disabilities who are residents of the facility, the district or joint agreement shall not include any costs for the use of those facilities in its claim for reimbursement.

Reimbursement for tuition may include the cost of providing summer school programs for children with severe and profound disabilities served under this Section. Claims for that reimbursement shall be filed by November 1 and shall be paid on or before December 15 from appropriations made for the purposes of this Section.

The State Board of Education shall establish such rules and regulations as may be necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

Claims filed on behalf of programs operated under this Section housed in a jail, detention center, or county-owned shelter care facility shall be on an individual student basis only for eligible students with disabilities. These claims shall be in accordance with applicable rules.

Each district claiming reimbursement for a program operated as a group program shall have an approved budget on file with the State Board of Education prior to the initiation of the program's operation. On September 30, December 31, and March 31, the State Board of Education shall voucher payments to group programs based upon the approved budget during the year of operation. Final claims for group payments shall be filed on or before July 15. Final claims for group programs received at the State Board of Education on or before June 15 shall be vouchered by June 30. Final claims received at the State Board of Education between June 16 and July 15 shall be vouchered by August 30. Claims for group programs received after July 15 shall not be honored.

Each district claiming reimbursement for individual students shall have the eligibility of those students verified by the State Board of Education. On September 30, December 31, and March 31, the State Board of Education shall voucher payments for individual students based upon an estimated cost calculated from the prior year's claim. Final claims for individual students for the regular school term must be received at the State Board of Education by July 15. Claims for individual students received after July 15 shall not be honored. Final claims for individual students shall be vouchered by August 30.

Reimbursement shall be made based upon approved group programs or individual students. The State Superintendent of Education shall direct the Comptroller to pay a specified amount to the district by the 30th day of September, December, March, June, or August, respectively. However, notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the School Code, beginning with fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter, if the amount appropriated for any fiscal year is less than the amount required for purposes of this Section, the amount required to eliminate any insufficient reimbursement for each district claim under this Section shall be reimbursed on August 30 of the next fiscal year. Payments required to eliminate any insufficiency for prior fiscal year claims shall be made before any claims are paid for the current fiscal year.

The claim of a school district otherwise eligible to be reimbursed in accordance with Section 14-12.01 for the 1976-77 school year but for this amendatory Act of 1977 shall not be paid unless the district ceases to maintain such classes for one entire school year.

If a school district's current reimbursement payment for the 1977-78 school year only is less than the prior year's reimbursement payment owed, the district shall be paid the amount of the difference between the payments in addition to the current reimbursement payment, and the amount so paid shall be subtracted from the amount of prior year's reimbursement payment owed to the district.

Regional superintendents may operate special education classes for children from orphanages, foster family homes, children's homes or State housing units located within the educational services region upon consent of the school board otherwise so obligated. In electing to assume the powers and duties of a school district in providing and maintaining such a special education program, the regional superintendent may enter into joint agreements with other districts and may contract with public or private schools or the orphanage, foster family home, children's home or State housing unit for provision of the special education program. The regional superintendent exercising the powers granted under this Section shall claim the reimbursement authorized by this Section directly from the State Board of Education.

Any child who is not a resident of Illinois who is placed in a child welfare institution, private facility, foster family home, State operated program, orphanage or children's home shall have the payment for his educational tuition and any related services assured by the placing agent.

For each student with a disability disabled student who is placed in a residential facility by an Illinois public agency or by any court in this State, the costs for educating the student are eligible for reimbursement under this Section.

The district of residence of the student with a disability disabled student as defined in Section 14-1.11a is responsible for the actual costs of the student's special education program and is eligible for reimbursement under this Section when placement is made by a State agency or the courts.

When a dispute arises over the determination of the district of residence under this Section, the district or districts may appeal the decision in writing to the State Superintendent of Education, who, upon review of materials submitted and any other items or information he or she may request for submission, shall issue a written decision on the matter. The decision of the State Superintendent of Education shall be final.

In the event a district does not make a tuition payment to another district that is providing the special education program and services, the State Board of Education shall immediately withhold 125% of the then remaining annual tuition cost from the State aid or categorical aid payment due to the school district that is determined to be the resident school district. All funds withheld by the State Board of Education shall immediately be forwarded to the school district where the student is being served.

When a child eligible for services under this Section 14-7.03 must be placed in a nonpublic facility, that facility shall meet the programmatic requirements of Section 14-7.02 and its regulations, and the educational services shall be funded only in accordance with this Section 14-7.03.

(Source: P.A. 98-739, eff. 7-16-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.01)

Sec. 14-8.01. Supervision of special education buildings and facilities. All special educational facilities, building programs, housing, and all educational programs for the types of children with disabilities disabled children defined in Section 14-1.02 shall be under the supervision of and subject to the approval of the State Board of Education.

All special education facilities, building programs, and housing shall comply with the building code authorized by Section 2-3.12.

All educational programs for children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02 administered by any State agency shall be under the general supervision of the State Board of Education. Such supervision shall be limited to insuring that such educational programs meet standards jointly developed and agreed to by both the State Board of Education and the operating State agency, including standards for educational personnel.

Any State agency providing special educational programs for children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02 shall promulgate rules and regulations, in consultation with the State Board of Education and pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act as now or hereafter amended, to insure that all such programs comply with this Section and Section 14-8.02.

No otherwise qualified child with a disability disabled child receiving special education and related services under Article 14 shall solely by reason of his or her disability be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by a State agency.

State agencies providing special education and related services, including room and board, either directly or through grants or purchases of services shall continue to provide these services according to current law and practice. Room and board costs not provided by a State agency other than the State Board of Education shall be provided by the State Board of Education to the extent of available funds. An amount equal to one-half of the State education agency's share of IDEA PART B federal monies, or so much thereof as may actually be needed, shall annually be appropriated to pay for the additional costs of providing for room and board for those children placed pursuant to Section 14-7.02 of this Code and, after all such room and board costs are paid, for similar expenditures for children served pursuant to Section 14-7.02 or 14-7.02b of this Code. Any such excess room and board funds must first be directed to those school districts with students costing in excess of 4 times the district's per capita tuition charge and then to community based programs that serve as alternatives to residential placements.

Beginning with Fiscal Year 1997 and continuing through Fiscal Year 2000, 100% of the former Chapter I, Section 89-313 federal funds shall be allocated by the State Board of Education in the same manner as IDEA, PART B "flow through" funding to local school districts, joint agreements, and special education cooperatives for the maintenance of instructional and related support services to students with disabilities. However, beginning with Fiscal Year 1998, the total IDEA Part B discretionary funds available to the State Board of Education shall not exceed the maximum permissible under federal law or 20% of the total federal funds available to the State, whichever is less. After all room and board payments and similar expenditures are made by the State Board of Education as required by this Section, the State Board of Education may use the remaining funds for administration and for providing discretionary activities. However, the State Board of Education may use no more than 25% of its available IDEA Part B discretionary funds for administrative services.

Special education and related services included in the child's individualized educational program which are not provided by another State agency shall be included in the special education and related services provided by the State Board of Education and the local school district.

The State Board of Education with the advice of the Advisory Council shall prescribe the standards and make the necessary rules and regulations for special education programs administered by local school boards, including but not limited to establishment of classes, training requirements of teachers and other professional personnel, eligibility and admission of pupils, the curriculum, class size limitation, building programs, housing, transportation, special equipment and instructional supplies, and the applications for claims for reimbursement. The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations for annual evaluations of the effectiveness of all special education programs and annual evaluation by the local school district of the individualized educational program for each child for whom it provides special education services.

A school district is responsible for the provision of educational services for all school age children residing within its boundaries excluding any student placed under the provisions of Section 14-7.02 or any student with a disability disabled student whose parent or guardian lives outside of the State of Illinois as described in Section 14-1.11.

(Source: P.A. 93-1022, eff. 8-24-04; 94-69, eff. 7-1-05.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, Evaluation and Placement of Children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to limited English proficiency students coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and be informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if they disagree with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable the educable mentally disabled or for the trainable mentally disabled except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent and the State Board of Education the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while waiting placement in the appropriate special education class.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf or the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include without limitation information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability are not disabled; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability disabled child from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of limited English proficiency students with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with non-disabled peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. Such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. Any parent who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(o) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-219, eff. 8-9-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.04) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.04)

Sec. 14-8.04. Supported employment. The school board that is the governing body of any secondary school in this State that provides special education services and facilities for children with disabilities shall include, as part of preparing the transition planning for children with disabilities disabled children who are 16 years of age or more, consideration of a supported employment component with experiences in integrated community settings for those eligible children with disabilities who have been determined at an IEP meeting to be in need of participation in the supported employment services offered pursuant to this Section.

Supported employment services made available as part of transition planning under this Section shall be designed and developed for school boards by the State Board of Education, in consultation with programs such as Project CHOICES (Children Have Opportunities In Integrated Community Environments), parents and advocates of children with disabilities, and the Departments of Central Management Services and Human Services.

(Source: P.A. 98-44, eff. 6-28-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-11.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-11.01)

Sec. 14-11.01. Educational materials coordinating unit. The State Board of Education shall maintain or contract for an educational materials coordinating unit for children with disabilities to provide:

(1) Staff and resources for the coordination, cataloging, standardizing, production, procurement, storage, and distribution of educational materials needed by children with visual disabilities visually disabled children and adults with disabilities.

(2) Staff and resources of an instructional materials center to include library, audio-visual, programmed, and other types of instructional materials peculiarly adapted to the instruction of pupils with disabilities.

The educational materials coordinating unit shall have as its major purpose the improvement of instructional programs for children with disabilities and the in-service training of all professional personnel associated with programs of special education and to these ends is authorized to operate under rules and regulations of the State Board of Education with the advice of the Advisory Council.

(Source: P.A. 89-397, eff. 8-20-95.)

(105 ILCS 5/17-2.11) (from Ch. 122, par. 17-2.11)

Sec. 17-2.11. School board power to levy a tax or to borrow money and issue bonds for fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, disabled accessibility, school security, and specified repair purposes.

(a) Whenever, as a result of any lawful order of any agency, other than a school board, having authority to enforce any school building code applicable to any facility that houses students, or any law or regulation for the protection and safety of the environment, pursuant to the Environmental Protection Act, any school district having a population of less than 500,000 inhabitants is required to alter or reconstruct any school building or permanent, fixed equipment; the district may, by proper resolution, levy a tax for the purpose of making such alteration or reconstruction, based on a survey report by an architect or engineer licensed in this State, upon all of the taxable property of the district at the value as assessed by the Department of Revenue and at a rate not to exceed 0.05% per year for a period sufficient to finance such alteration or reconstruction, upon the following conditions:

(1) When there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the school district, the school facility occupation tax fund of the district, or the fire prevention and safety fund of the district, as determined by the district on the basis of rules adopted by the State Board of Education, to make such alteration or reconstruction or to purchase and install such permanent, fixed equipment so ordered or determined as necessary. Appropriate school district records must be made available to the State Superintendent of Education, upon request, to confirm this insufficiency.

(2) When a certified estimate of an architect or engineer licensed in this State stating the estimated amount necessary to make the alteration or reconstruction or to purchase and install the equipment so ordered has been secured by the school district, and the estimate has been approved by the regional superintendent of schools having jurisdiction over the district and the State Superintendent of Education. Approval must not be granted for any work that has already started without the prior express authorization of the State Superintendent of Education. If the estimate is not approved or is denied approval by the regional superintendent of schools within 3 months after the date on which it is submitted to him or her, the school board of the district may submit the estimate directly to the State Superintendent of Education for approval or denial.

In the case of an emergency situation, where the estimated cost to effectuate emergency repairs is less than the amount specified in Section 10-20.21 of this Code, the school district may proceed with such repairs prior to approval by the State Superintendent of Education, but shall comply with the provisions of subdivision (2) of this subsection (a) as soon thereafter as may be as well as Section 10-20.21 of this Code. If the estimated cost to effectuate emergency repairs is greater than the amount specified in Section 10-20.21 of this Code, then the school district shall proceed in conformity with Section 10-20.21 of this Code and with rules established by the State Board of Education to address such situations. The rules adopted by the State Board of Education to deal with these situations shall stipulate that emergency situations must be expedited and given priority consideration. For purposes of this paragraph, an emergency is a situation that presents an imminent and continuing threat to the health and safety of students or other occupants of a facility, requires complete or partial evacuation of a building or part of a building, or consumes one or more of the 5 emergency days built into the adopted calendar of the school or schools or would otherwise be expected to cause such school or schools to fall short of the minimum school calendar requirements.

(b) Whenever any such district determines that it is necessary for energy conservation purposes that any school building or permanent, fixed equipment should be altered or reconstructed and that such alterations or reconstruction will be made with funds not necessary for the completion of approved and recommended projects contained in any safety survey report or amendments thereto authorized by Section 2-3.12 of this Act; the district may levy a tax or issue bonds as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Whenever any such district determines that it is necessary for disabled accessibility purposes and to comply with the school building code that any school building or equipment should be altered or reconstructed and that such alterations or reconstruction will be made with funds not necessary for the completion of approved and recommended projects contained in any safety survey report or amendments thereto authorized under Section 2-3.12 of this Act, the district may levy a tax or issue bonds as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) Whenever any such district determines that it is necessary for school security purposes and the related protection and safety of pupils and school personnel that any school building or property should be altered or reconstructed or that security systems and equipment (including but not limited to intercom, early detection and warning, access control and television monitoring systems) should be purchased and installed, and that such alterations, reconstruction or purchase and installation of equipment will be made with funds not necessary for the completion of approved and recommended projects contained in any safety survey report or amendment thereto authorized by Section 2-3.12 of this Act and will deter and prevent unauthorized entry or activities upon school property by unknown or dangerous persons, assure early detection and advance warning of any such actual or attempted unauthorized entry or activities and help assure the continued safety of pupils and school staff if any such unauthorized entry or activity is attempted or occurs; the district may levy a tax or issue bonds as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) If a school district does not need funds for other fire prevention and safety projects, including the completion of approved and recommended projects contained in any safety survey report or amendments thereto authorized by Section 2-3.12 of this Act, and it is determined after a public hearing (which is preceded by at least one published notice (i) occurring at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district and (ii) setting forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing) that there is a substantial, immediate, and otherwise unavoidable threat to the health, safety, or welfare of pupils due to disrepair of school sidewalks, playgrounds, parking lots, or school bus turnarounds and repairs must be made; then the district may levy a tax or issue bonds as provided in subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) For purposes of this Section a school district may replace a school building or build additions to replace portions of a building when it is determined that the effectuation of the recommendations for the existing building will cost more than the replacement costs. Such determination shall be based on a comparison of estimated costs made by an architect or engineer licensed in the State of Illinois. The new building or addition shall be equivalent in area (square feet) and comparable in purpose and grades served and may be on the same site or another site. Such replacement may only be done upon order of the regional superintendent of schools and the approval of the State Superintendent of Education.

(g) The filing of a certified copy of the resolution levying the tax when accompanied by the certificates of the regional superintendent of schools and State Superintendent of Education shall be the authority of the county clerk to extend such tax.

(h) The county clerk of the county in which any school district levying a tax under the authority of this Section is located, in reducing raised levies, shall not consider any such tax as a part of the general levy for school purposes and shall not include the same in the limitation of any other tax rate which may be extended.

Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as all other taxes of school districts, subject to the provisions contained in this Section.

(i) The tax rate limit specified in this Section may be increased to .10% upon the approval of a proposition to effect such increase by a majority of the electors voting on that proposition at a regular scheduled election. Such proposition may be initiated by resolution of the school board and shall be certified by the secretary to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

(j) When taxes are levied by any school district for fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, and school security purposes as specified in this Section, and the purposes for which the taxes have been levied are accomplished and paid in full, and there remain funds on hand in the Fire Prevention and Safety Fund from the proceeds of the taxes levied, including interest earnings thereon, the school board by resolution shall use such excess and other board restricted funds, excluding bond proceeds and earnings from such proceeds, as follows:

(1) for other authorized fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, and school security purposes and for required safety inspections; or

(2) for transfer to the Operations and Maintenance Fund for the purpose of abating an equal amount of operations and maintenance purposes taxes. Notwithstanding subdivision (2) of this subsection (j) and subsection (k) of this Section, through June 30, 2016, the school board may, by proper resolution following a public hearing set by the school board or the president of the school board (that is preceded (i) by at least one published notice over the name of the clerk or secretary of the board, occurring at least 7 days and not more than 30 days prior to the hearing, in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district and (ii) by posted notice over the name of the clerk or secretary of the board, at least 48 hours before the hearing, at the principal office of the school board or at the building where the hearing is to be held if a principal office does not exist, with both notices setting forth the time, date, place, and subject matter of the hearing), transfer surplus life safety taxes and interest earnings thereon to the Operations and Maintenance Fund for building repair work.

(k) If any transfer is made to the Operation and Maintenance Fund, the secretary of the school board shall within 30 days notify the county clerk of the amount of that transfer and direct the clerk to abate the taxes to be extended for the purposes of operations and maintenance authorized under Section 17-2 of this Act by an amount equal to such transfer.

(l) If the proceeds from the tax levy authorized by this Section are insufficient to complete the work approved under this Section, the school board is authorized to sell bonds without referendum under the provisions of this Section in an amount that, when added to the proceeds of the tax levy authorized by this Section, will allow completion of the approved work.

(m) Any bonds issued pursuant to this Section shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by law at the time of the making of the contract, shall mature within 20 years from date, and shall be signed by the president of the school board and the treasurer of the school district.

(n) In order to authorize and issue such bonds, the school board shall adopt a resolution fixing the amount of bonds, the date thereof, the maturities thereof, rates of interest thereof, place of payment and denomination, which shall be in denominations of not less than $100 and not more than $5,000, and provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property in the school district sufficient to pay the principal and interest on such bonds to maturity. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of the county in which the school district is located of a certified copy of the resolution, it is the duty of the county clerk to extend the tax therefor in addition to and in excess of all other taxes heretofore or hereafter authorized to be levied by such school district.

(o) After the time such bonds are issued as provided for by this Section, if additional alterations or reconstructions are required to be made because of surveys conducted by an architect or engineer licensed in the State of Illinois, the district may levy a tax at a rate not to exceed .05% per year upon all the taxable property of the district or issue additional bonds, whichever action shall be the most feasible.

(p) This Section is cumulative and constitutes complete authority for the issuance of bonds as provided in this Section notwithstanding any other statute or law to the contrary.

(q) With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after the effective date of Public Act 86-004 (June 6, 1989), it is, and always has been, the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are, and always have been, supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

(r) When the purposes for which the bonds are issued have been accomplished and paid for in full and there remain funds on hand from the proceeds of the bond sale and interest earnings therefrom, the board shall, by resolution, use such excess funds in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-22.14 of this Act.

(s) Whenever any tax is levied or bonds issued for fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, and school security purposes, such proceeds shall be deposited and accounted for separately within the Fire Prevention and Safety Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-26, eff. 6-21-13; 98-1066, eff. 8-26-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in "An Act to limit the indebtedness of counties having a population of less than 500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal corporations having a population of less than 300,000", approved February 15, 1928, as amended.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not handicapped accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) (p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-834, eff. 7-20-12; 97-1146, eff. 1-18-13; 98-617, eff. 1-7-14; 98-912, eff. 8-15-14; 98-916, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-20)

Sec. 21B-20. Types of licenses. Before July 1, 2013, the State Board of Education shall implement a system of educator licensure, whereby individuals employed in school districts who are required to be licensed must have one of the following licenses: (i) a professional educator license; (ii) a professional educator license with stipulations; or (iii) a substitute teaching license. References in law regarding individuals certified or certificated or required to be certified or certificated under Article 21 of this Code shall also include individuals licensed or required to be licensed under this Article. The first year of all licenses ends on June 30 following one full year of the license being issued.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to govern the requirements for licenses and endorsements under this Section.

(1) Professional Educator License. Persons who (i) have successfully completed an approved educator preparation program and are recommended for licensure by the Illinois institution offering the educator preparation program, (ii) have successfully completed the required testing under Section 21B-30 of this Code, (iii) have successfully completed coursework on the psychology of, the identification of, and the methods of instruction for the exceptional child, including without limitation children with learning disabilities the learning disabled, (iv) have successfully completed coursework in methods of reading and reading in the content area, and (v) have met all other criteria established by rule of the State Board of Education shall be issued a Professional Educator License. All Professional Educator Licenses are valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the license being issued. The Professional Educator License shall be endorsed with specific areas and grade levels in which the individual is eligible to practice.

Individuals can receive subsequent endorsements on the Professional Educator License. Subsequent endorsements shall require a minimum of 24 semester hours of coursework in the endorsement area, unless otherwise specified by rule, and passage of the applicable content area test.

(2) Educator License with Stipulations. An Educator License with Stipulations shall be issued an endorsement that limits the license holder to one particular position or does not require completion of an approved educator program or both.

An individual with an Educator License with Stipulations must not be employed by a school district or any other entity to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

An Educator License with Stipulations may be issued with the following endorsements:

(A) Provisional educator. A provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds an educator license with a minimum of 15 semester hours in content coursework from another state, U.S. territory, or foreign country and who, at the time of applying for an Illinois license, does not meet the minimum requirements under Section 21B-35 of this Code, but does, at a minimum, meet both of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement, from a regionally accredited college or university or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement.

(ii) Has passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required by Section 21B-30 of this Code.

However, a provisional educator endorsement for principals may not be issued, nor may any person with a provisional educator endorsement serve as a principal in a public school in this State. In addition, out-of-state applicants shall not receive a provisional educator endorsement if the person completed an alternative licensure program in another state, unless the program has been determined to be equivalent to Illinois program requirements.

Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Section, a service member or spouse of a service member may obtain a Professional Educator License with Stipulations, and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, if he or she holds a valid teaching certificate or license in good standing from another state, meets the qualifications of educators outlined in Section 21B-15 of this Code, and has not engaged in any misconduct that would prohibit an individual from obtaining a license pursuant to Illinois law, including without limitation any administrative rules of the State Board of Education; however, the service member or spouse may not serve as a principal under the Professional Educator License with Stipulations or provisional educator endorsement.

In this Section, "service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

A provisional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 2 years of the license being issued, during which time any remaining testing and coursework deficiencies must be met. Failure to satisfy all stated deficiencies shall mean the individual, including any service member or spouse who has obtained a Professional Educator License with Stipulations and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, is ineligible to receive a Professional Educator License at that time. A provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall not be renewed.

(B) Alternative provisional educator. An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Successfully completed the first phase of the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers, as described in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The alternative provisional educator endorsement is valid for 2 years of teaching and may be renewed for a third year by an individual meeting the requirements set forth in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(C) Alternative provisional superintendent. An alternative provisional superintendent endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations entitles the holder to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent in a school district's central office. This endorsement may only be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a master's degree in a management field other than education.

(ii) Been employed for a period of at least 5 years in a management level position in a field other than education.

(iii) Successfully completed the first phase of an alternative route to superintendent endorsement program, as provided in Section 21B-55 of this Code.

(iv) Passed a test of basic skills and content area tests required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The endorsement may be registered for 2 fiscal years in order to complete one full year of serving as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(D) Resident teacher endorsement. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited institution of higher education with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Enrolled in an approved Illinois educator preparation program.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 4 years of teaching and shall not be renewed.

A resident teacher may teach only under the direction of a licensed teacher, who shall act as the resident mentor teacher, and may not teach in place of a licensed teacher. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall no longer be valid after June 30, 2017.

(E) Career and technical educator. A career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 60 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and has a minimum of 2,000 hours of experience in the last 10 years outside of education in each area to be taught.

The career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

(F) Part-time provisional career and technical educator or provisional career and technical educator. A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement or a provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 8,000 hours of work experience in the skill for which the applicant is seeking the endorsement. It is the responsibility of each employing school board and regional office of education to provide verification, in writing, to the State Superintendent of Education at the time the application is submitted that no qualified teacher holding a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations with a career and technical educator endorsement is available and that actual circumstances require such issuance.

The provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed only one time for 5 years if the individual passes a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code, and has completed a minimum of 20 semester hours from a regionally accredited institution.

A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for teaching no more than 2 courses of study for grades 6 through 12. The part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years if the individual makes application for renewal.

(G) Transitional bilingual educator. A transitional bilingual educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for the purpose of providing instruction in accordance with Article 14C of this Code to an applicant who provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Possesses adequate speaking, reading, and writing ability in the language other than English in which transitional bilingual education is offered.

(ii) Has the ability to successfully communicate in English.

(iii) Either possessed, within 5 years previous to his or her applying for a transitional bilingual educator endorsement, a valid and comparable teaching certificate or comparable authorization issued by a foreign country or holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

A transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall be valid for prekindergarten through grade 12, is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued, and shall not be renewed.

Persons holding a transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall not be employed to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

(H) Language endorsement. In an effort to alleviate the shortage of teachers speaking a language other than English in the public schools, an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations may also apply for a language endorsement, provided that the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds a transitional bilingual endorsement.

(ii) Has demonstrated proficiency in the language for which the endorsement is to be issued by passing the applicable language content test required by the State Board of Education.

(iii) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

(iv) Has passed a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A language endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for prekindergarten through grade 12 for the same validity period as the individual's transitional bilingual educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations and shall not be renewed.

(I) Visiting international educator. A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an individual who is being recruited by a particular school district that conducts formal recruitment programs outside of the United States to secure the services of qualified teachers and who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States.

(ii) Has been prepared as a teacher at the grade level for which he or she will be employed.

(iii) Has adequate content knowledge in the subject to be taught.

(iv) Has an adequate command of the English language.

A holder of a visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall be permitted to teach in bilingual education programs in the language that was the medium of instruction in his or her teacher preparation program, provided that he or she passes the English Language Proficiency Examination or another test of writing skills in English identified by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 3 years and shall not be renewed.

(J) Paraprofessional educator. A paraprofessional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent and either holds an associate's degree or a minimum of 60 semester hours of credit from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or has passed a test of basic skills required under Section 21B-30 of this Code. The paraprofessional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed through application and payment of the appropriate fee, as required under Section 21B-40 of this Code. An individual who holds only a paraprofessional educator endorsement is not subject to additional requirements in order to renew the endorsement.

(3) Substitute Teaching License. A Substitute Teaching License may be issued to qualified applicants for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Substitute Teaching License must hold a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for 5 years and may be renewed if the individual has passed a test of basic skills, as authorized under Section 21B-30 of this Code. An individual who has passed a test of basic skills for the first licensure renewal is not required to retake the test again for further renewals.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked or has not met the renewal requirements for licensure, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Substitute Teaching License.

A substitute teacher may only teach in the place of a licensed teacher who is under contract with the employing board. If, however, there is no licensed teacher under contract because of an emergency situation, then a district may employ a substitute teacher for no longer than 30 calendar days per each vacant position in the district if the district notifies the appropriate regional office of education within 5 business days after the employment of the substitute teacher in the emergency situation. An emergency situation is one in which an unforeseen vacancy has occurred and (i) a teacher is unable to fulfill his or her contractual duties or (ii) teacher capacity needs of the district exceed previous indications, and the district is actively engaged in advertising to hire a fully licensed teacher for the vacant position.

There is no limit on the number of days that a substitute teacher may teach in a single school district, provided that no substitute teacher may teach for longer than 90 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. A substitute teacher who holds a Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations shall not teach for more than 120 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. The limitations in this paragraph (3) on the number of days a substitute teacher may be employed do not apply to any school district operating under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; 97-710, eff. 1-1-13; 98-28, eff. 7-1-13; 98-751, eff. 1-1-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/30-14.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 30-14.2)

Sec. 30-14.2. MIA/POW scholarships.

(a) Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or any step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson who possesses all necessary entrance requirements shall, upon application and proper proof, be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship consisting of the equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment including summer terms, to the state supported Illinois institution of higher learning of his choice, subject to the restrictions listed below.

"Eligible veteran or serviceperson" means any veteran or serviceperson, including an Illinois National Guard member who is on active duty or is active on a training assignment, who has been declared by the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S. Department of Veterans' Affairs to be a prisoner of war, be missing in action, have died as the result of a service-connected disability or have become a person with a permanent disability be permanently disabled from service-connected causes with 100% disability and who (i) at the time of entering service was an Illinois resident, (ii) was an Illinois resident within 6 months after entering such service, or (iii) until July 1, 2014, became an Illinois resident within 6 months after leaving the service and can establish at least 30 years of continuous residency in the State of Illinois.

Full-time enrollment means 12 or more semester hours of courses per semester, or 12 or more quarter hours of courses per quarter, or the equivalent thereof per term. Scholarships utilized by dependents enrolled in less than full-time study shall be computed in the proportion which the number of hours so carried bears to full-time enrollment.

Scholarships awarded under this Section may be used by a spouse or child without regard to his or her age. The holder of a Scholarship awarded under this Section shall be subject to all examinations and academic standards, including the maintenance of minimum grade levels, that are applicable generally to other enrolled students at the Illinois institution of higher learning where the Scholarship is being used. If the surviving spouse remarries or if there is a divorce between the veteran or serviceperson and his or her spouse while the dependent is pursuing his or her course of study, Scholarship benefits will be terminated at the end of the term for which he or she is presently enrolled. Such dependents shall also be entitled, upon proper proof and application, to enroll in any extension course offered by a State supported Illinois institution of higher learning without payment of tuition and approved fees.

The holder of a MIA/POW Scholarship authorized under this Section shall not be required to pay any matriculation or application fees, tuition, activities fees, graduation fees or other fees, except multipurpose building fees or similar fees for supplies and materials.

Any dependent who has been or shall be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship shall be reimbursed by the appropriate institution of higher learning for any fees which he or she has paid and for which exemption is granted under this Section if application for reimbursement is made within 2 months following the end of the school term for which the fees were paid.

(b) In lieu of the benefit provided in subsection (a), any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson, which spouse or child has a physical, mental or developmental disability, shall be entitled to receive, upon application and proper proof, a benefit to be used for the purpose of defraying the cost of the attendance or treatment of such spouse or child at one or more appropriate therapeutic, rehabilitative or educational facilities. The application and proof may be made by the parent or legal guardian of the spouse or child on his or her behalf.

The total benefit provided to any beneficiary under this subsection shall not exceed the cost equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment, including summer terms, at the University of Illinois. Whenever practicable in the opinion of the Department of Veterans' Affairs, payment of benefits under this subsection shall be made directly to the facility, the cost of attendance or treatment at which is being defrayed, as such costs accrue.

(c) The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid for out of funds made available to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due to any state supported Illinois institution of higher learning shall be payable by the Comptroller to such institution on vouchers approved by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due under subsection (b) of this Section shall be payable by warrant upon vouchers issued by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and approved by the Comptroller. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall determine the eligibility of the persons who make application for the benefits provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1415, eff. 7-30-10; revised 12-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-2.4) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-2.4)

Sec. 34-2.4. School improvement plan. A 3 year local school improvement plan shall be developed and implemented at each attendance center. This plan shall reflect the overriding purpose of the attendance center to improve educational quality. The local school principal shall develop a school improvement plan in consultation with the local school council, all categories of school staff, parents and community residents. Once the plan is developed, reviewed by the professional personnel leadership committee, and approved by the local school council, the principal shall be responsible for directing implementation of the plan, and the local school council shall monitor its implementation. After the termination of the initial 3 year plan, a new 3 year plan shall be developed and modified as appropriate on an annual basis.

The school improvement plan shall be designed to achieve priority goals including but not limited to:

(a) assuring that students show significant progress toward meeting and exceeding State performance standards in State mandated learning areas, including the mastery of higher order thinking skills in these areas;

(b) assuring that students attend school regularly and graduate from school at such rates that the district average equals or surpasses national norms;

(c) assuring that students are adequately prepared for and aided in making a successful transition to further education and life experience;

(d) assuring that students are adequately prepared for and aided in making a successful transition to employment; and

(e) assuring that students are, to the maximum extent possible, provided with a common learning experience that is of high academic quality and that reflects high expectations for all students' capacities to learn.

With respect to these priority goals, the school improvement plan shall include but not be limited to the following:

(a) an analysis of data collected in the attendance center and community indicating the specific strengths and weaknesses of the attendance center in light of the goals specified above, including data and analysis specified by the State Board of Education pertaining to specific measurable outcomes for student performance, the attendance centers, and their instructional programs;

(b) a description of specific annual objectives the attendance center will pursue in achieving the goals specified above;

(c) a description of the specific activities the attendance center will undertake to achieve its objectives;

(d) an analysis of the attendance center's staffing pattern and material resources, and an explanation of how the attendance center's planned staffing pattern, the deployment of staff, and the use of material resources furthers the objectives of the plan;

(e) a description of the key assumptions and directions of the school's curriculum and the academic and non-academic programs of the attendance center, and an explanation of how this curriculum and these programs further the goals and objectives of the plan;

(f) a description of the steps that will be taken to enhance educational opportunities for all students, regardless of gender, including limited English proficient students, students with disabilities disabled students, low-income students and minority students;

(g) a description of any steps which may be taken by the attendance center to educate parents as to how they can assist children at home in preparing their children to learn effectively;

(h) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to coordinate its efforts with, and to gain the participation and support of, community residents, business organizations, and other local institutions and individuals;

(i) a description of any staff development program for all school staff and volunteers tied to the priority goals, objectives, and activities specified in the plan;

(j) a description of the steps the local school council will undertake to monitor implementation of the plan on an ongoing basis;

(k) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to ensure that teachers have working conditions that provide a professional environment conducive to fulfilling their responsibilities;

(l) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to ensure teachers the time and opportunity to incorporate new ideas and techniques, both in subject matter and teaching skills, into their own work;

(m) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to encourage pride and positive identification with the attendance center through various athletic activities; and

(n) a description of the student need for and provision of services to special populations, beyond the standard school programs provided for students in grades K through 12 and those enumerated in the categorical programs cited in item d of part 4 of Section 34-2.3, including financial costs of providing same and a timeline for implementing the necessary services, including but not limited, when applicable, to ensuring the provisions of educational services to all eligible children aged 4 years for the 1990-91 school year and thereafter, reducing class size to State averages in grades K-3 for the 1991-92 school year and thereafter and in all grades for the 1993-94 school year and thereafter, and providing sufficient staff and facility resources for students not served in the regular classroom setting.

Based on the analysis of data collected indicating specific strengths and weaknesses of the attendance center, the school improvement plan may place greater emphasis from year to year on particular priority goals, objectives, and activities.

(Source: P.A. 93-48, eff. 7-1-03.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18)

Sec. 34-18. Powers of the board. The board shall exercise general supervision and jurisdiction over the public education and the public school system of the city, and, except as otherwise provided by this Article, shall have power:

1. To make suitable provision for the establishment and maintenance throughout the year or for such portion thereof as it may direct, not less than 9 months, of schools of all grades and kinds, including normal schools, high schools, night schools, schools for defectives and delinquents, parental and truant schools, schools for the blind, the deaf and persons with physical disabilities the physically disabled, schools or classes in manual training, constructural and vocational teaching, domestic arts and physical culture, vocation and extension schools and lecture courses, and all other educational courses and facilities, including establishing, equipping, maintaining and operating playgrounds and recreational programs, when such programs are conducted in, adjacent to, or connected with any public school under the general supervision and jurisdiction of the board; provided that the calendar for the school term and any changes must be submitted to and approved by the State Board of Education before the calendar or changes may take effect, and provided that in allocating funds from year to year for the operation of all attendance centers within the district, the board shall ensure that supplemental general State aid funds are allocated and applied in accordance with Section 18-8 or 18-8.05. To admit to such schools without charge foreign exchange students who are participants in an organized exchange student program which is authorized by the board. The board shall permit all students to enroll in apprenticeship programs in trade schools operated by the board, whether those programs are union-sponsored or not. No student shall be refused admission into or be excluded from any course of instruction offered in the common schools by reason of that student's sex. No student shall be denied equal access to physical education and interscholastic athletic programs supported from school district funds or denied participation in comparable physical education and athletic programs solely by reason of the student's sex. Equal access to programs supported from school district funds and comparable programs will be defined in rules promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation with the Illinois High School Association. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, neither the board of education nor any local school council or other school official shall recommend that children with disabilities be placed into regular education classrooms unless those children with disabilities are provided with supplementary services to assist them so that they benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register;

2. To furnish lunches to pupils, to make a reasonable charge therefor, and to use school funds for the payment of such expenses as the board may determine are necessary in conducting the school lunch program;

3. To co-operate with the circuit court;

4. To make arrangements with the public or quasi-public libraries and museums for the use of their facilities by teachers and pupils of the public schools;

5. To employ dentists and prescribe their duties for the purpose of treating the pupils in the schools, but accepting such treatment shall be optional with parents or guardians;

6. To grant the use of assembly halls and classrooms when not otherwise needed, including light, heat, and attendants, for free public lectures, concerts, and other educational and social interests, free of charge, under such provisions and control as the principal of the affected attendance center may prescribe;

7. To apportion the pupils to the several schools; provided that no pupil shall be excluded from or segregated in any such school on account of his color, race, sex, or nationality. The board shall take into consideration the prevention of segregation and the elimination of separation of children in public schools because of color, race, sex, or nationality. Except that children may be committed to or attend parental and social adjustment schools established and maintained either for boys or girls only. All records pertaining to the creation, alteration or revision of attendance areas shall be open to the public. Nothing herein shall limit the board's authority to establish multi-area attendance centers or other student assignment systems for desegregation purposes or otherwise, and to apportion the pupils to the several schools. Furthermore, beginning in school year 1994-95, pursuant to a board plan adopted by October 1, 1993, the board shall offer, commencing on a phased-in basis, the opportunity for families within the school district to apply for enrollment of their children in any attendance center within the school district which does not have selective admission requirements approved by the board. The appropriate geographical area in which such open enrollment may be exercised shall be determined by the board of education. Such children may be admitted to any such attendance center on a space available basis after all children residing within such attendance center's area have been accommodated. If the number of applicants from outside the attendance area exceed the space available, then successful applicants shall be selected by lottery. The board of education's open enrollment plan must include provisions that allow low income students to have access to transportation needed to exercise school choice. Open enrollment shall be in compliance with the provisions of the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan cited in Section 34-1.01;

8. To approve programs and policies for providing transportation services to students. Nothing herein shall be construed to permit or empower the State Board of Education to order, mandate, or require busing or other transportation of pupils for the purpose of achieving racial balance in any school;

9. Subject to the limitations in this Article, to establish and approve system-wide curriculum objectives and standards, including graduation standards, which reflect the multi-cultural diversity in the city and are consistent with State law, provided that for all purposes of this Article courses or proficiency in American Sign Language shall be deemed to constitute courses or proficiency in a foreign language; and to employ principals and teachers, appointed as provided in this Article, and fix their compensation. The board shall prepare such reports related to minimal competency testing as may be requested by the State Board of Education, and in addition shall monitor and approve special education and bilingual education programs and policies within the district to assure that appropriate services are provided in accordance with applicable State and federal laws to children requiring services and education in those areas;

10. To employ non-teaching personnel or utilize volunteer personnel for: (i) non-teaching duties not requiring instructional judgment or evaluation of pupils, including library duties; and (ii) supervising study halls, long distance teaching reception areas used incident to instructional programs transmitted by electronic media such as computers, video, and audio, detention and discipline areas, and school-sponsored extracurricular activities. The board may further utilize volunteer non-certificated personnel or employ non-certificated personnel to assist in the instruction of pupils under the immediate supervision of a teacher holding a valid certificate, directly engaged in teaching subject matter or conducting activities; provided that the teacher shall be continuously aware of the non-certificated persons' activities and shall be able to control or modify them. The general superintendent shall determine qualifications of such personnel and shall prescribe rules for determining the duties and activities to be assigned to such personnel;

10.5. To utilize volunteer personnel from a regional School Crisis Assistance Team (S.C.A.T.), created as part of the Safe to Learn Program established pursuant to Section 25 of the Illinois Violence Prevention Act of 1995, to provide assistance to schools in times of violence or other traumatic incidents within a school community by providing crisis intervention services to lessen the effects of emotional trauma on individuals and the community; the School Crisis Assistance Team Steering Committee shall determine the qualifications for volunteers;

11. To provide television studio facilities in not to exceed one school building and to provide programs for educational purposes, provided, however, that the board shall not construct, acquire, operate, or maintain a television transmitter; to grant the use of its studio facilities to a licensed television station located in the school district; and to maintain and operate not to exceed one school radio transmitting station and provide programs for educational purposes;

12. To offer, if deemed appropriate, outdoor education courses, including field trips within the State of Illinois, or adjacent states, and to use school educational funds for the expense of the said outdoor educational programs, whether within the school district or not;

13. During that period of the calendar year not embraced within the regular school term, to provide and conduct courses in subject matters normally embraced in the program of the schools during the regular school term and to give regular school credit for satisfactory completion by the student of such courses as may be approved for credit by the State Board of Education;

14. To insure against any loss or liability of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, Local School Councils, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, or the former Subdistrict Councils or of any member, officer, agent or employee thereof, resulting from alleged violations of civil rights arising from incidents occurring on or after September 5, 1967 or from the wrongful or negligent act or omission of any such person whether occurring within or without the school premises, provided the officer, agent or employee was, at the time of the alleged violation of civil rights or wrongful act or omission, acting within the scope of his employment or under direction of the board, the former School Board Nominating Commission, the Chicago Schools Academic Accountability Council, Local School Councils, or the former Subdistrict Councils; and to provide for or participate in insurance plans for its officers and employees, including but not limited to retirement annuities, medical, surgical and hospitalization benefits in such types and amounts as may be determined by the board; provided, however, that the board shall contract for such insurance only with an insurance company authorized to do business in this State. Such insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized religious denomination;

15. To contract with the corporate authorities of any municipality or the county board of any county, as the case may be, to provide for the regulation of traffic in parking areas of property used for school purposes, in such manner as is provided by Section 11-209 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, approved September 29, 1969, as amended;

16. (a) To provide, on an equal basis, access to a high school campus and student directory information to the official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States for the purposes of informing students of the educational and career opportunities available in the military if the board has provided such access to persons or groups whose purpose is to acquaint students with educational or occupational opportunities available to them. The board is not required to give greater notice regarding the right of access to recruiting representatives than is given to other persons and groups. In this paragraph 16, "directory information" means a high school student's name, address, and telephone number.

(b) If a student or his or her parent or guardian submits a signed, written request to the high school before the end of the student's sophomore year (or if the student is a transfer student, by another time set by the high school) that indicates that the student or his or her parent or guardian does not want the student's directory information to be provided to official recruiting representatives under subsection (a) of this Section, the high school may not provide access to the student's directory information to these recruiting representatives. The high school shall notify its students and their parents or guardians of the provisions of this subsection (b).

(c) A high school may require official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the United States to pay a fee for copying and mailing a student's directory information in an amount that is not more than the actual costs incurred by the high school.

(d) Information received by an official recruiting representative under this Section may be used only to provide information to students concerning educational and career opportunities available in the military and may not be released to a person who is not involved in recruiting students for the armed forces of Illinois or the United States;

17. (a) To sell or market any computer program developed by an employee of the school district, provided that such employee developed the computer program as a direct result of his or her duties with the school district or through the utilization of the school district resources or facilities. The employee who developed the computer program shall be entitled to share in the proceeds of such sale or marketing of the computer program. The distribution of such proceeds between the employee and the school district shall be as agreed upon by the employee and the school district, except that neither the employee nor the school district may receive more than 90% of such proceeds. The negotiation for an employee who is represented by an exclusive bargaining representative may be conducted by such bargaining representative at the employee's request.

(b) For the purpose of this paragraph 17:

(1) "Computer" means an internally programmed, general purpose digital device capable of automatically accepting data, processing data and supplying the results of the operation.

(2) "Computer program" means a series of coded instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a computer, which causes the computer to process data in order to achieve a certain result.

(3) "Proceeds" means profits derived from marketing or sale of a product after deducting the expenses of developing and marketing such product;

18. To delegate to the general superintendent of schools, by resolution, the authority to approve contracts and expenditures in amounts of $10,000 or less;

19. Upon the written request of an employee, to withhold from the compensation of that employee any dues, payments or contributions payable by such employee to any labor organization as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. Under such arrangement, an amount shall be withheld from each regular payroll period which is equal to the pro rata share of the annual dues plus any payments or contributions, and the board shall transmit such withholdings to the specified labor organization within 10 working days from the time of the withholding;

19a. Upon receipt of notice from the comptroller of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more, a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or a housing authority of a municipality with a population of 500,000 or more that a debt is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority by an employee of the Chicago Board of Education, to withhold, from the compensation of that employee, the amount of the debt that is due and owing and pay the amount withheld to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority; provided, however, that the amount deducted from any one salary or wage payment shall not exceed 25% of the net amount of the payment. Before the Board deducts any amount from any salary or wage of an employee under this paragraph, the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority shall certify that (i) the employee has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to dispute the debt that is due and owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority and (ii) the employee has received notice of a wage deduction order and has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to object to the order. For purposes of this paragraph, "net amount" means that part of the salary or wage payment remaining after the deduction of any amounts required by law to be deducted and "debt due and owing" means (i) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority for services, work, or goods, after the period granted for payment has expired, or (ii) a specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority pursuant to a court order or order of an administrative hearing officer after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust, judicial review;

20. The board is encouraged to employ a sufficient number of certified school counselors to maintain a student/counselor ratio of 250 to 1 by July 1, 1990. Each counselor shall spend at least 75% of his work time in direct contact with students and shall maintain a record of such time;

21. To make available to students vocational and career counseling and to establish 5 special career counseling days for students and parents. On these days representatives of local businesses and industries shall be invited to the school campus and shall inform students of career opportunities available to them in the various businesses and industries. Special consideration shall be given to counseling minority students as to career opportunities available to them in various fields. For the purposes of this paragraph, minority student means a person who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

Counseling days shall not be in lieu of regular school days;

22. To report to the State Board of Education the annual student dropout rate and number of students who graduate from, transfer from or otherwise leave bilingual programs;

23. Except as otherwise provided in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or other applicable State or federal law, to permit school officials to withhold, from any person, information on the whereabouts of any child removed from school premises when the child has been taken into protective custody as a victim of suspected child abuse. School officials shall direct such person to the Department of Children and Family Services, or to the local law enforcement agency if appropriate;

24. To develop a policy, based on the current state of existing school facilities, projected enrollment and efficient utilization of available resources, for capital improvement of schools and school buildings within the district, addressing in that policy both the relative priority for major repairs, renovations and additions to school facilities, and the advisability or necessity of building new school facilities or closing existing schools to meet current or projected demographic patterns within the district;

25. To make available to the students in every high school attendance center the ability to take all courses necessary to comply with the Board of Higher Education's college entrance criteria effective in 1993;

26. To encourage mid-career changes into the teaching profession, whereby qualified professionals become certified teachers, by allowing credit for professional employment in related fields when determining point of entry on teacher pay scale;

27. To provide or contract out training programs for administrative personnel and principals with revised or expanded duties pursuant to this Act in order to assure they have the knowledge and skills to perform their duties;

28. To establish a fund for the prioritized special needs programs, and to allocate such funds and other lump sum amounts to each attendance center in a manner consistent with the provisions of part 4 of Section 34-2.3. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require any additional appropriations of State funds for this purpose;

29. (Blank);

30. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other law to the contrary, to contract with third parties for services otherwise performed by employees, including those in a bargaining unit, and to layoff those employees upon 14 days written notice to the affected employees. Those contracts may be for a period not to exceed 5 years and may be awarded on a system-wide basis. The board may not operate more than 30 contract schools, provided that the board may operate an additional 5 contract turnaround schools pursuant to item (5.5) of subsection (d) of Section 34-8.3 of this Code;

31. To promulgate rules establishing procedures governing the layoff or reduction in force of employees and the recall of such employees, including, but not limited to, criteria for such layoffs, reductions in force or recall rights of such employees and the weight to be given to any particular criterion. Such criteria shall take into account factors including, but not be limited to, qualifications, certifications, experience, performance ratings or evaluations, and any other factors relating to an employee's job performance;

32. To develop a policy to prevent nepotism in the hiring of personnel or the selection of contractors;

33. To enter into a partnership agreement, as required by Section 34-3.5 of this Code, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, to promulgate policies, enter into contracts, and take any other action necessary to accomplish the objectives and implement the requirements of that agreement; and

34. To establish a Labor Management Council to the board comprised of representatives of the board, the chief executive officer, and those labor organizations that are the exclusive representatives of employees of the board and to promulgate policies and procedures for the operation of the Council.

The specifications of the powers herein granted are not to be construed as exclusive but the board shall also exercise all other powers that they may be requisite or proper for the maintenance and the development of a public school system, not inconsistent with the other provisions of this Article or provisions of this Code which apply to all school districts.

In addition to the powers herein granted and authorized to be exercised by the board, it shall be the duty of the board to review or to direct independent reviews of special education expenditures and services. The board shall file a report of such review with the General Assembly on or before May 1, 1990.

(Source: P.A. 96-105, eff. 7-30-09; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-128) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-128)

Sec. 34-128. The Board shall provide free bus transportation for every child who is a child with a mental disability who is trainable trainable mentally disabled, as defined in Article 14, who resides at a distance of one mile or more from any school to which he is assigned for attendance and who the State Board of Education determines in advance requires special transportation service in order to take advantage of special educational facilities.

The board may levy, without regard to any other legally authorized tax and in addition to such taxes, an annual tax upon all the taxable property in the school district at a rate not to exceed .005% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, that will produce an amount not to exceed the annual cost of transportation provided in accordance with this Section. The board shall deduct from the cost of such transportation any amount reimbursed by the State under Article 14. Such levy is authorized in the year following the school year in which the transportation costs were incurred by the district.

(Source: P.A. 89-397, eff. 8-20-95.)

Section 435. The State Universities Civil Service Act is amended by changing Sections 36d and 36s as follows:

(110 ILCS 70/36d) (from Ch. 24 1/2, par. 38b3)

Sec. 36d. Powers and duties of the Merit Board.

The Merit Board shall have the power and duty-

(1) To approve a classification plan prepared under its direction, assigning to each class positions of substantially similar duties. The Merit Board shall have power to delegate to its Director the duty of assigning each position in the classified service to the appropriate class in the classification plan approved by the Merit Board.

(2) To prescribe the duties of each class of positions and the qualifications required by employment in that class.

(3) To prescribe the range of compensation for each class or to fix a single rate of compensation for employees in a particular class; and to establish other conditions of employment which an employer and employee representatives have agreed upon as fair and equitable. The Merit Board shall direct the payment of the "prevailing rate of wages" in those classifications in which, on January 1, 1952, any employer is paying such prevailing rate and in such other classes as the Merit Board may thereafter determine. "Prevailing rate of wages" as used herein shall be the wages paid generally in the locality in which the work is being performed to employees engaged in work of a similar character. Each employer covered by the University System shall be authorized to negotiate with representatives of employees to determine appropriate ranges or rates of compensation or other conditions of employment and may recommend to the Merit Board for establishment the rates or ranges or other conditions of employment which the employer and employee representatives have agreed upon as fair and equitable. Any rates or ranges established prior to January 1, 1952, and hereafter, shall not be changed except in accordance with the procedures herein provided.

(4) To recommend to the institutions and agencies specified in Section 36e standards for hours of work, holidays, sick leave, overtime compensation and vacation for the purpose of improving conditions of employment covered therein and for the purpose of insuring conformity with the prevailing rate principal.

(5) To prescribe standards of examination for each class, the examinations to be related to the duties of such class. The Merit Board shall have power to delegate to the Director and his staff the preparation, conduct and grading of examinations. Examinations may be written, oral, by statement of training and experience, in the form of tests of knowledge, skill, capacity, intellect, aptitude; or, by any other method, which in the judgment of the Merit Board is reasonable and practical for any particular classification. Different examining procedures may be determined for the examinations in different classifications but all examinations in the same classification shall be uniform.

(6) To authorize the continuous recruitment of personnel and to that end, to delegate to the Director and his staff the power and the duty to conduct open and continuous competitive examinations for all classifications of employment.

(7) To cause to be established from the results of examinations registers for each class of positions in the classified service of the State Universities Civil Service System, of the persons who shall attain the minimum mark fixed by the Merit Board for the examination; and such persons shall take rank upon the registers as candidates in the order of their relative excellence as determined by examination, without reference to priority of time of examination.

(8) To provide by its rules for promotions in the classified service. Vacancies shall be filled by promotion whenever practicable. For the purpose of this paragraph, an advancement in class shall constitute a promotion.

(9) To set a probationary period of employment of no less than 6 months and no longer than 12 months for each class of positions in the classification plan, the length of the probationary period for each class to be determined by the Director.

(10) To provide by its rules for employment at regular rates of compensation of persons with physical disabilities physically handicapped persons in positions in which the disability handicap does not prevent the individual from furnishing satisfactory service.

(11) To make and publish rules, to carry out the purpose of the State Universities Civil Service System and for examination, appointments, transfers and removals and for maintaining and keeping records of the efficiency of officers and employees and groups of officers and employees in accordance with the provisions of Sections 36b to 36q, inclusive, and said Merit Board may from time to time make changes in such rules.

(12) To appoint a Director and such assistants and other clerical and technical help as may be necessary efficiently to administer Sections 36b to 36q, inclusive. To authorize the Director to appoint an assistant resident at the place of employment of each employer specified in Section 36e and this assistant may be authorized to give examinations and to certify names from the regional registers provided in Section 36k.

(13) To submit to the Governor of this state on or before November 1 of each year prior to the regular session of the General Assembly a report of the University System's business and an estimate of the amount of appropriation from state funds required for the purpose of administering the University System.

(Source: P.A. 82-524.)

(110 ILCS 70/36s) (from Ch. 24 1/2, par. 38b18)

Sec. 36s. Supported employees.

(a) The Merit Board shall develop and implement a supported employment program. It shall be the goal of the program to appoint a minimum of 10 supported employees to State University civil service positions before June 30, 1992.

(b) The Merit Board shall designate a liaison to work with State agencies and departments, any funder or provider or both, and State universities in the implementation of a supported employment program.

(c) As used in this Section:

(1) "Supported employee" means any individual who:

(A) has a severe physical or mental disability which seriously limits functional capacities, including but not limited to, mobility, communication, self-care, self-direction, work tolerance or work skills, in terms of employability as defined, determined and certified by the Department of Human Services; and

(B) has one or more physical or mental disabilities resulting from amputation; arthritis; blindness; cancer; cerebral palsy; cystic fibrosis; deafness; heart disease; hemiplegia; respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction; an intellectual disability; mental illness; multiple sclerosis; muscular dystrophy; musculoskeletal disorders; neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy; paraplegia; quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions; sickle cell anemia; and end-stage renal disease; or another disability or combination of disabilities determined on the basis of an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause comparable substantial functional limitation.

(2) "Supported employment" means competitive work in integrated work settings:

(A) for individuals with severe disabilities handicaps for whom competitive employment has not traditionally occurred, or

(B) for individuals for whom competitive employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a result of a severe disability, and who because of their disability handicap, need on-going support services to perform such work. The term includes transitional employment for individuals with chronic mental illness.

(3) "Participation in a supported employee program" means participation as a supported employee that is not based on the expectation that an individual will have the skills to perform all the duties in a job class, but on the assumption that with support and adaptation, or both, a job can be designed to take advantage of the supported employee's special strengths.

(4) "Funder" means any entity either State, local or federal, or private not-for-profit or for-profit that provides monies to programs that provide services related to supported employment.

(5) "Provider" means any entity either public or private that provides technical support and services to any department or agency subject to the control of the Governor, the Secretary of State or the University Civil Service System.

(d) The Merit Board shall establish job classifications for supported employees who may be appointed into the classifications without open competitive testing requirements. Supported employees shall serve in a trial employment capacity for not less than 3 or more than 12 months.

(e) The Merit Board shall maintain a record of all individuals hired as supported employees. The record shall include:

(1) the number of supported employees initially appointed;

(2) the number of supported employees who successfully complete the trial employment periods; and

(3) the number of permanent targeted positions by titles.

(f) The Merit Board shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly regarding the employment progress of supported employees, with recommendations for legislative action.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 440. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Section 9.16 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/9.16) (from Ch. 144, par. 189.16)

Sec. 9.16. Underrepresentation of certain groups in higher education. To require public institutions of higher education to develop and implement methods and strategies to increase the participation of minorities, women and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals who are traditionally underrepresented in education programs and activities. For the purpose of this Section, minorities shall mean persons who are citizens of the United States or lawful permanent resident aliens of the United States and who are any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

The Board shall adopt any rules necessary to administer this Section. The Board shall also do the following:

(a) require all public institutions of higher education to develop and submit plans for the implementation of this Section;

(b) conduct periodic review of public institutions of higher education to determine compliance with this Section; and if the Board finds that a public institution of higher education is not in compliance with this Section, it shall notify the institution of steps to take to attain compliance;

(c) provide advice and counsel pursuant to this Section;

(d) conduct studies of the effectiveness of methods and strategies designed to increase participation of students in education programs and activities in which minorities, women and individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals are traditionally underrepresented, and monitor the success of students in such education programs and activities;

(e) encourage minority student recruitment and retention in colleges and universities. In implementing this paragraph, the Board shall undertake but need not be limited to the following: the establishment of guidelines and plans for public institutions of higher education for minority student recruitment and retention, the review and monitoring of minority student programs implemented at public institutions of higher education to determine their compliance with any guidelines and plans so established, the determination of the effectiveness and funding requirements of minority student programs at public institutions of higher education, the dissemination of successful programs as models, and the encouragement of cooperative partnerships between community colleges and local school attendance centers which are experiencing difficulties in enrolling minority students in four-year colleges and universities;

(f) mandate all public institutions of higher education to submit data and information essential to determine compliance with this Section. The Board shall prescribe the format and the date for submission of this data and any other education equity data; and

(g) report to the General Assembly and the Governor annually with a description of the plans submitted by each public institution of higher education for implementation of this Section, including financial data relating to the most recent fiscal year expenditures for specific minority programs, the effectiveness of such plans and programs and the effectiveness of the methods and strategies developed by the Board in meeting the purposes of this Section, the degree of compliance with this Section by each public institution of higher education as determined by the Board pursuant to its periodic review responsibilities, and the findings made by the Board in conducting its studies and monitoring student success as required by paragraph d) of this Section. With respect to each public institution of higher education such report also shall include, but need not be limited to, information with respect to each institution's minority program budget allocations; minority student admission, retention and graduation statistics; admission, retention, and graduation statistics of all students who are the first in their immediate family to attend an institution of higher education; number of financial assistance awards to undergraduate and graduate minority students; and minority faculty representation. This paragraph shall not be construed to prohibit the Board from making, preparing or issuing additional surveys or studies with respect to minority education in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-588, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 445. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 144, par. 30)

Sec. 9. Scholarships for children of veterans. For each of the following periods of hostilities, each county shall be entitled, annually, to one honorary scholarship in the University, for the benefit of the children of persons who served in the armed forces of the United States: the Civil War, World War I, any time between September 16, 1940 and the termination of World War II, any time during the national emergency between June 25, 1950 and January 31, 1955, any time during the Viet Nam conflict between January 1, 1961 and May 7, 1975, any time on or after August 2, 1990 and until Congress or the President orders that persons in service are no longer eligible for the Southwest Asia Service Medal, Operation Enduring Freedom, and Operation Iraqi Freedom. Preference shall be given to the children of persons who are deceased or to the children of persons who have a disability disabled. Such scholarships shall be granted to such pupils as shall, upon public examination, conducted as the board of trustees of the University may determine, be decided to have attained the greatest proficiency in the branches of learning usually taught in the secondary schools, and who shall be of good moral character, and not less than 15 years of age. Such pupils, so selected, shall be entitled to receive, without charge for tuition, instruction in any or all departments of the University for a term of at least 4 consecutive years. Such pupils shall conform, in all respects, to the rules and regulations of the University, established for the government of the pupils in attendance.

(Source: P.A. 95-64, eff. 1-1-08.)

Section 450. The University of Illinois Hospital Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(110 ILCS 330/6) (from Ch. 23, par. 1376)

Sec. 6. No otherwise qualified child with a disability handicapped child receiving special education and related services under Article 14 of The School Code shall solely by reason of his or her disability handicap be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by the University of Illinois Hospital.

(Source: P.A. 80-1403.)

Section 455. The Specialized Care for Children Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 3 as follows:

(110 ILCS 345/1) (from Ch. 144, par. 67.1)

Sec. 1. The University of Illinois is hereby designated as the agency to receive, administer, and to hold in its own treasury federal funds and aid in relation to the administration of its Division of Specialized Care for Children. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois shall have a charge upon all claims, demands and causes of action for injuries to an applicant for or recipient of financial aid for the total amount of medical assistance provided the recipient by the Division from the time of injury to the date of recovery upon such claim, demand or cause of action. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois may cooperate with the United States Children's Bureau of the Department of Health, Education and Welfare, or with any successor or other federal agency, in the administration of the Division of Specialized Care for Children, and shall have full responsibility for the expenditure of federal and state funds, or monies recovered as the result of a judgment or settlement of a lawsuit or from an insurance or personal settlement arising from a claim relating to a recipient child's medical condition, as well as any aid which may be made available to the Board of Trustees for administering, through the Division of Specialized Care for Children, a program of services for children with physical disabilities or who are who are physically disabled or suffering from conditions which may lead to a physical disability, including medical, surgical, corrective and other services and care, and facilities for diagnosis, hospitalization and aftercare of such children.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(110 ILCS 345/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 67.3)

Sec. 3. No otherwise qualified child with a disability handicapped child receiving special education services under Article 14 of The School Code shall solely by reason of his or her disability handicap be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by the Division of Specialized Care for Children.

(Source: P.A. 87-203.)

Section 460. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Sections 3-20.3.01 and 3-49 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-20.3.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 103-20.3.01)

Sec. 3-20.3.01. Whenever, as a result of any lawful order of any agency, other than a local community college board, having authority to enforce any law or regulation designed for the protection, health or safety of community college students, employees or visitors, or any law or regulation for the protection and safety of the environment, pursuant to the "Environmental Protection Act", any local community college district, including any district to which Article VII of this Act applies, is required to alter or repair any physical facilities, or whenever any district determines that it is necessary for energy conservation, health or safety, environmental protection or handicapped accessibility purposes that any physical facilities should be altered or repaired and that such alterations or repairs will be made with funds not necessary for the completion of approved and recommended projects for fire prevention and safety, or whenever after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984 any district, including any district to which Article VII applies, provides for alterations or repairs determined by the local community college board to be necessary for health and safety, environmental protection, handicapped accessibility or energy conservation purposes, such district may, by proper resolution which specifically identifies the project and which is adopted pursuant to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act, levy a tax for the purpose of paying for such alterations or repairs, or survey by a licensed architect or engineer, upon the equalized assessed value of all the taxable property of the district at a rate not to exceed .05% per year for a period sufficient to finance such alterations or repairs, upon the following conditions:

(a) When in the judgment of the local community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered, determined as necessary.

(b) When a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount that is necessary to make the alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary has been secured by the local community college district and the project and estimated amount have been approved by the Executive Director of the State Board.

The filing of a certified copy of the resolution or ordinance levying the tax when accompanied by the certificate of approval of the Executive Director of the State Board shall be the authority of the county clerk or clerks to extend such tax; provided, however, that in no event shall the extension for the current and preceding years, if any, under this Section be greater than the amount so approved, and interest on bonds issued pursuant to this Section and in the event such current extension and preceding extensions exceed such approval and interest, it shall be reduced proportionately.

The county clerk of each of the counties in which any community college district levying a tax under the authority of this Section is located, in reducing raised levies, shall not consider any such tax as a part of the general levy for community college purposes and shall not include the same in the limitation of any other tax rate which may be extended. Such tax shall be levied and collected in like manner as all other taxes of community college districts.

The tax rate limit hereinabove specified in this Section may be increased to .10% upon the approval of a proposition to effect such increase by a majority of the electors voting on that proposition at a regular scheduled election. Such proposition may be initiated by resolution of the local community college board and shall be certified by the secretary of the local community college board to the proper election authorities for submission in accordance with the general election law.

Each local community college district authorized to levy any tax pursuant to this Section may also or in the alternative by proper resolution or ordinance borrow money for such specifically identified purposes not in excess of $4,500,000 in the aggregate at any one time when in the judgment of the local community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary and a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount has been secured by the local community college district and the project and the estimated amount have been approved by the State Board, and as evidence of such indebtedness may issue bonds without referendum. However, Community College District No. 522 and Community College District No. 536 may or in the alternative by proper resolution or ordinance borrow money for such specifically identified purposes not in excess of $20,000,000 in the aggregate at any one time when in the judgment of the community college board of trustees there are not sufficient funds available in the operations and maintenance fund of the district to permanently pay for such alterations or repairs so ordered or determined as necessary and a certified estimate of a licensed architect or engineer stating the estimated amount has been secured by the community college district and the project and the estimated amount have been approved by the State Board, and as evidence of such indebtedness may issue bonds without referendum. Such bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates authorized by "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended, shall mature within 20 years from date, and shall be signed by the chairman, secretary and treasurer of the local community college board.

In order to authorize and issue such bonds the local community college board shall adopt a resolution fixing the amount of bonds, the date thereof, the maturities thereof and rates of interest thereof, and the board by such resolution, or in a district to which Article VII applies the city council upon demand and under the direction of the board by ordinance, shall provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property in the local community college district sufficient to pay the principal and interest on such bonds to maturity. Upon the filing in the office of the county clerk of each of the counties in which the community college district is located of a certified copy of such resolution or ordinance it is the duty of the county clerk or clerks to extend the tax therefor without limit as to rate or amount and in addition to and in excess of all other taxes heretofore or hereafter authorized to be levied by such community college district.

The State Board shall prepare and enforce regulations and specifications for minimum requirements for the construction, remodeling or rehabilitation of heating, ventilating, air conditioning, lighting, seating, water supply, toilet, handicapped accessibility, fire safety and any other matter that will conserve, preserve or provide for the protection and the health or safety of individuals in or on community college property and will conserve the integrity of the physical facilities of the district.

This Section is cumulative and constitutes complete authority for the issuance of bonds as provided in this Section notwithstanding any other statute or law to the contrary.

(Source: P.A. 96-561, eff. 1-1-10.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-49) (from Ch. 122, par. 103-49)

Sec. 3-49. Each Board of Trustees of a Community College District may, at its discretion, appoint an Employment Advisory Board. Such Employment Advisory Board shall consist of not more than 15 members appointed to terms of 4 years, and their membership shall include, but not be limited to, representatives of the following groups:

(a) small businesses;

(b) large businesses which employ residents of the Community College District;

(c) governmental units which employ residents of the Community College District;

(d) non-profit private organizations;

(e) organizations which serve as advocates for persons with disabilities the handicapped; and

(f) employee organizations.

(Source: P.A. 85-458.)

Section 465. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 50, 52, 55, 60, 65.15, 65.70, and 105 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/50)

Sec. 50. Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Eligible applicant" means a minority student who has graduated from high school or has received a high school equivalency certificate and has maintained a cumulative grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale, and who by reason thereof is entitled to apply for scholarships to be awarded under this Section.

"Minority student" means a student who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Qualified student" means a person (i) who is a resident of this State and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States; (ii) who is a minority student, as defined in this Section; (iii) who, as an eligible applicant, has made a timely application for a minority teaching scholarship under this Section; (iv) who is enrolled on at least a half-time basis at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (v) who is enrolled in a course of study leading to teacher certification, including alternative teacher certification; (vi) who maintains a grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale; and (vii) who continues to advance satisfactorily toward the attainment of a degree.

(b) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois minority students to pursue teaching careers at the preschool or elementary or secondary school level, each qualified student shall be awarded a minority teacher scholarship to any qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. However, preference may be given to qualified applicants enrolled at or above the junior level.

(c) Each minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the qualified Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000.

(d) The total amount of minority teacher scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled. If the amount of minority teacher scholarship to be awarded to a qualified student as provided in subsection (c) of this Section exceeds the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled, the minority teacher scholarship shall be reduced by an amount equal to the amount by which the combined financial assistance available to the student exceeds the cost of attendance.

(e) The maximum number of academic terms for which a qualified student can receive minority teacher scholarship assistance shall be 8 semesters or 12 quarters.

(f) In any academic year for which an eligible applicant under this Section accepts financial assistance through the Paul Douglas Teacher Scholarship Program, as authorized by Section 551 et seq. of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the applicant shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(g) All applications for minority teacher scholarships to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Commission on forms which the Commission shall provide for eligible applicants. The form of applications and the information required to be set forth therein shall be determined by the Commission, and the Commission shall require eligible applicants to submit with their applications such supporting documents or recommendations as the Commission deems necessary.

(h) Subject to a separate appropriation for such purposes, payment of any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be determined by the Commission. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this subsection shall be paid to the institution and used only for payment of the tuition and fee and room and board expenses incurred by the student in connection with his or her attendance as an undergraduate student at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. Any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be applicable to 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment. If a qualified student withdraws from enrollment prior to completion of the first semester or quarter for which the minority teacher scholarship is applicable, the school shall refund to the Commission the full amount of the minority teacher scholarship.

(i) The Commission shall administer the minority teacher scholarship aid program established by this Section and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(j) When an appropriation to the Commission for a given fiscal year is insufficient to provide scholarships to all qualified students, the Commission shall allocate the appropriation in accordance with this subsection. If funds are insufficient to provide all qualified students with a scholarship as authorized by this Section, the Commission shall allocate the available scholarship funds for that fiscal year on the basis of the date the Commission receives a complete application form.

(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (j) or any other provision of this Section, at least 30% of the funds appropriated for scholarships awarded under this Section in each fiscal year shall be reserved for qualified male minority applicants. If the Commission does not receive enough applications from qualified male minorities on or before January 1 of each fiscal year to award 30% of the funds appropriated for these scholarships to qualified male minority applicants, then the Commission may award a portion of the reserved funds to qualified female minority applicants.

(l) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Commission to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the one-year period following the termination of the program for which the recipient was awarded a minority teacher scholarship, the recipient (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than one year for each year of scholarship assistance he or she was awarded under this Section; and (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool, elementary school, or secondary school at which no less than 30% of the enrolled students are minority students in the year during which the recipient begins teaching at the school; and (iii) shall, upon request by the Commission, provide the Commission with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection.

(m) If a recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (l) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, at a rate of interest equal to 5%, and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. The Commission is authorized to establish rules relating to its collection activities for repayment of scholarships under this Section. All repayments collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the State Comptroller for deposit into the State's General Revenue Fund.

(n) A recipient of minority teacher scholarship shall not be considered in violation of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (l) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving, not in excess of 3 years, as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability temporarily totally disabled for a period of time not to exceed 3 years as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full time employment as a teacher at an Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or elementary or secondary school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (l) of this Section and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) becomes a person with a permanent total disability permanently totally disabled as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (vi) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain certification as a teacher in Illinois; or (vii) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation.

(o) Scholarship recipients under this Section who withdraw from a program of teacher education but remain enrolled in school to continue their postsecondary studies in another academic discipline shall not be required to commence repayment of their Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship so long as they remain enrolled in school on a full-time basis or if they can document for the Commission special circumstances that warrant extension of repayment.

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(110 ILCS 947/52)

Sec. 52. Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program; Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching.

(a) In this Section, "Foundation" means the Golden Apple Foundation for Excellence in Teaching, a registered 501(c)(3) not-for-profit corporation.

(a-2) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois students, especially minority students, to pursue teaching careers, especially in teacher shortage disciplines (which shall be defined to include early childhood education) or at hard-to-staff schools (as defined by the Commission in consultation with the State Board of Education), to provide those students with the crucial mentoring, guidance, and in-service support that will significantly increase the likelihood that they will complete their full teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in targeted disciplines and hard-to-staff schools, and to ensure that students in this State will continue to have access to a pool of highly-qualified teachers, each qualified student shall be awarded a Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarship to any Illinois institution of higher learning. The Commission shall administer the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program, which shall be managed by the Foundation pursuant to the terms of a grant agreement meeting the requirements of Section 4 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a qualified student shall be a student who meets the following qualifications:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States;

(2) is a high school graduate or a person who has received a high school equivalency certificate;

(3) is enrolled or accepted, on at least a half-time basis, at an institution of higher learning;

(4) is pursuing a postsecondary course of study leading to initial certification or pursuing additional course work needed to gain State Board of Education approval to teach, including alternative teacher licensure; and

(5) is a participant in programs managed by and is approved to receive a scholarship from the Foundation.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) Funds designated for the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program shall be used by the Commission for the payment of scholarship assistance under this Section or for the award of grant funds, subject to the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act, to the Foundation. Subject to appropriation, awards of grant funds to the Foundation shall be made on an annual basis and following an application for grant funds by the Foundation.

(b-10) Each year, the Foundation shall include in its application to the Commission for grant funds an estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance to be provided to qualified students during the grant period. Any amount of appropriated funds exceeding the estimated amount of scholarship assistance may be awarded by the Commission to the Foundation for management expenses expected to be incurred by the Foundation in providing the mentoring, guidance, and in-service supports that will increase the likelihood that qualified students will complete their teaching commitments and elect to continue teaching in hard-to-staff schools. If the estimate of the amount of scholarship assistance described in the Foundation's application is less than the actual amount required for the award of scholarship assistance to qualified students, the Foundation shall be responsible for using awarded grant funds to ensure all qualified students receive scholarship assistance under this Section.

(b-15) All grant funds not expended or legally obligated within the time specified in a grant agreement between the Foundation and the Commission shall be returned to the Commission within 45 days. Any funds legally obligated by the end of a grant agreement shall be liquidated within 45 days or otherwise returned to the Commission within 90 days after the end of the grant agreement that resulted in the award of grant funds.

(c) Each scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution of higher learning at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this Section shall be paid to the institution on behalf of recipients.

(d) The total amount of scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution of higher learning at which the student is enrolled. In any academic year for which a qualified student under this Section accepts financial assistance through any other teacher scholarship program administered by the Commission, a qualified student shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(e) A recipient may receive up to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of scholarship assistance under this Section. Scholarship funds are applicable toward 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment each academic year.

(f) All applications for scholarship assistance to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Foundation in a form determined by the Foundation. Each year, the Foundation shall notify the Commission of the individuals awarded scholarship assistance under this Section. Each year, at least 30% of the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program scholarships shall be awarded to students residing in counties having a population of less than 500,000.

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Commission shall administer the payment of scholarship assistance provided through the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for the effective implementation of this Section.

(i) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Foundation to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the 2-year period following the termination of the academic program for which the recipient was awarded a scholarship, the recipient: (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than 5 years, (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or an Illinois public elementary or secondary school that qualifies for teacher loan cancellation under Section 465(a)(2)(A) of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ee(a)(2)(A)) or other Illinois schools deemed eligible for fulfilling the teaching commitment as designated by the Foundation, and (iii) shall, upon request of the Foundation, provide the Foundation with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection. Upon request, the Foundation shall provide evidence of teacher fulfillment to the Commission.

(j) If a recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (i) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, plus interest at a rate of 5% and if applicable, reasonable collection fees. Payments received by the Commission under this subsection (j) shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the General Revenue Fund, except that that portion of a recipient's repayment that equals the amount in expenses that the Commission has reasonably incurred in attempting collection from that recipient shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the Commission's Accounts Receivable Fund.

(k) A recipient of a scholarship awarded by the Foundation under this Section shall not be considered to have failed to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full-time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at an institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability temporarily totally disabled, as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a teacher at a school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (i) and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain certification as a teacher in Illinois; (vi) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation; or (vii) is participating in a program established under Executive Order 10924 of the President of the United States or the federal National Community Service Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12501 et seq.). Any such extension of the period during which the teaching requirement must be fulfilled shall be subject to limitations of duration as established by the Commission.

(l) A recipient who fails to fulfill the teaching obligations of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section shall repay the amount of scholarship assistance awarded to them under this Section within 10 years.

(m) Annually, at a time determined by the Commission in consultation with the Foundation, the Foundation shall submit a report to assist the Commission in monitoring the Foundation's performance of grant activities. The report shall describe the following:

(1) the Foundation's anticipated expenditures for the next fiscal year;

(2) the number of qualified students receiving scholarship assistance at each institution of higher learning where a qualified student was enrolled under this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(3) the total monetary value of scholarship funds paid to each institution of higher learning at which a qualified student was enrolled during the previous fiscal year;

(4) the number of scholarship recipients who completed a baccalaureate degree during the previous fiscal year;

(5) the number of scholarship recipients who fulfilled their teaching obligation during the previous fiscal year;

(6) the number of scholarship recipients who failed to fulfill their teaching obligation during the previous fiscal year;

(7) the number of scholarship recipients granted an extension described in subsection (k) of this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(8) the number of scholarship recipients required to repay scholarship assistance in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section during the previous fiscal year;

(9) the number of scholarship recipients who successfully repaid scholarship assistance in full during the previous fiscal year;

(10) the number of scholarship recipients who defaulted on their obligation to repay scholarship assistance during the previous fiscal year;

(11) the amount of scholarship assistance subject to collection in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section at the end of the previous fiscal year;

(12) the amount of collected funds to be remitted to the Comptroller in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section at the end of the previous fiscal year; and

(13) other information that the Commission may reasonably request.

(n) Nothing in this Section shall affect the rights of the Commission to collect moneys owed to it by recipients of scholarship assistance through the Illinois Future Teacher Corps Program, repealed by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(o) The Auditor General shall prepare an annual audit of the operations and finances of the Golden Apple Scholars of Illinois Program. This audit shall be provided to the Governor, General Assembly, and the Commission.

(p) The suspension of grant making authority found in Section 4.2 of the Illinois Grant Funds Recovery Act shall not apply to grants made pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-533, eff. 8-23-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(110 ILCS 947/55)

Sec. 55. Police officer or fire officer survivor grant. Grants shall be provided for any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or child in the legal custody of police officers and fire officers who are killed or who become a person with a permanent disability permanently disabled with 90% to 100% disability in the line of duty while employed by, or in the voluntary service of, this State or any local public entity in this State. Beneficiaries need not be Illinois residents at the time of enrollment in order to receive this grant. Beneficiaries are entitled to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of full payment of tuition and mandatory fees at any State-sponsored Illinois institution of higher learning for either full or part-time study, or the equivalent of 8 semesters or 12 quarters of payment of tuition and mandatory fees at the rate established by the Commission for private institutions in the State of Illinois, provided the recipient is maintaining satisfactory academic progress. This benefit may be used for undergraduate or graduate study. The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid out of funds available to the Commission and shall accrue to the bona fide applicant without the requirement of demonstrating financial need to qualify for those benefits.

(Source: P.A. 91-670, eff. 12-22-99.)

(110 ILCS 947/60)

Sec. 60. Grants for dependents of Department of Corrections employees who are killed or who become a person with a permanent disability permanently disabled in the line of duty. Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or child in the legal custody of an employee of the Department of Corrections who is assigned to a security position with the Department with responsibility for inmates of any correctional institution under the jurisdiction of the Department and who is killed or who becomes a person with a permanent disability permanently disabled with 90% to 100% disability in the line of duty is entitled to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of full payment of tuition and mandatory fees at any State-supported Illinois institution of higher learning for either full or part-time study, or the equivalent of 8 semesters or 12 quarters of payment of tuition and mandatory fees at the rate established by the Commission for private institutions in the State of Illinois, provided the recipient is maintaining satisfactory academic progress. This benefit may be used for undergraduate or graduate study. Beneficiaries need not be Illinois residents at the time of enrollment in order to receive this grant. The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid out of funds available to the Commission and shall accrue to the bona fide applicant without the requirement of demonstrating financial need to qualify for those benefits.

(Source: P.A. 91-670, eff. 12-22-99.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.15)

Sec. 65.15. Special education teacher scholarships.

(a) There shall be awarded annually 250 scholarships to persons qualifying as members of any of the following groups:

(1) Students who are otherwise qualified to receive a scholarship as provided in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section and who make application to the Commission for such scholarship and agree to take courses that will prepare the student for the teaching of children described in Section 14-1 of the School Code.

(2) Persons holding a valid certificate issued under the laws relating to the certification of teachers and who make application to the Commission for such scholarship and agree to take courses that will prepare them for the teaching of children described in Section 14-1 of the School Code.

(3) Persons who (A) have graduated high school; (B) have not been certified as a teacher; and (C) make application to the Commission for such scholarship and agree to take courses that will prepare them for the teaching of children described in Section 14-1 of the School Code.

Scholarships awarded under this Section shall be issued pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Commission; provided that no rule or regulation promulgated by the State Board of Education prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 pursuant to the exercise of any right, power, duty, responsibility or matter of pending business transferred from the State Board of Education to the Commission under this Section shall be affected thereby, and all such rules and regulations shall become the rules and regulations of the Commission until modified or changed by the Commission in accordance with law.

For the purposes of this Section scholarships awarded each school year shall be deemed to be issued on July 1 of the year prior to the start of the postsecondary school term and all calculations for use of the scholarship shall be based on such date. Each scholarship shall entitle its holder to exemption from fees as provided in subsection (a) of Section 65.40 while enrolled in a special education program of teacher education, for a period of not more than 4 calendar years and shall be available for use at any time during such period of study except as provided in subsection (b) of Section 65.40.

Scholarships issued to holders of a valid certificate issued under the laws relating to the certification of teachers as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection may also entitle the holder thereof to a program of teacher education that will prepare the student for the teaching of children described in Section 14-1 of the School Code at the graduate level.

(b) The principal, or his or her designee, of an approved high school shall certify to the Commission, for students who are Illinois residents and are completing an application, that the students ranked scholastically in the upper one-half of their graduating class at the end of the sixth semester.

(c) Each holder of a scholarship must furnish proof to the Commission, in such form and at such intervals as the Commission prescribes, of the holder's continued enrollment in a teacher education program qualifying the holder for the scholarship. Any holder of a scholarship who fails to register in a special education program of teacher education at the university within 10 days after the commencement of the term, quarter or semester immediately following the receipt of the scholarship or who, having registered, withdraws from the university or transfers out of teacher education, shall thereupon forfeit the right to use it and it may be granted to the person having the next highest rank as shown on the list held by the Commission. If the person having the next highest rank, within 10 days after notification thereof by the Commission, fails to register at any such university in a special education program of teacher education, or who, having registered, withdraws from the university or transfers out of teacher education, the scholarship may then be granted to the person shown on the list as having the rank next below such person.

(d) Any person who has accepted a scholarship under the preceding subsections of this Section must, within one year after graduation from or termination of enrollment in a teacher education program, begin teaching at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or elementary or secondary school for a period of at least 2 of the 5 years immediately following that graduation or termination, excluding, however, from the computation of that 5 year period (i) any time up to 3 years spent in the military service, whether such service occurs before or after the person graduates; (ii) any time that person is enrolled full-time in an academic program related to the field of teaching leading to a graduate or postgraduate degree; (iii) the time that person is a person with a temporary total disability temporarily totally disabled for a period of time not to exceed 3 years, as established by the sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) the time that person is seeking and unable to find full time employment as a teacher at an Illinois public, private, or parochial school; (v) the time that person is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain certification as a teacher in Illinois; or (vi) the time that person is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission if he or she cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation.

A person who has accepted a scholarship under the preceding subsections of this Section and who has been unable to fulfill the teaching requirements of this Section may receive a deferment from the obligation of repayment under this subsection (d) under guidelines established by the Commission; provided that no guideline established for any such purpose by the State Board of Education prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 shall be affected by the transfer to the Commission of the responsibility for administering and implementing the provisions of this Section, and all guidelines so established shall become the guidelines of the Commission until modified or changed by the Commission.

Any such person who fails to fulfill this teaching requirement shall pay to the Commission the amount of tuition waived by virtue of his or her acceptance of the scholarship, together with interest at 5% per year on that amount. However, this obligation to repay the amount of tuition waived plus interest does not apply when the failure to fulfill the teaching requirement results from the death or adjudication as a person under legal disability of the person holding the scholarship, and no claim for repayment may be filed against the estate of such a decedent or person under legal disability. Payments received by the Commission under this subsection (d) shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit in the General Revenue Fund. Each person receiving a scholarship shall be provided with a description of the provisions of this subsection (d) at the time he or she qualifies for the benefits of such a scholarship.

(e) This Section is basically the same as Sections 30-1, 30-2, 30-3, and 30-4a of the School Code, which are repealed by this amendatory Act of 1993, and shall be construed as a continuation of the teacher scholarship program established by that prior law, and not as a new or different teacher scholarship program. The State Board of Education shall transfer to the Commission, as the successor to the State Board of Education for all purposes of administering and implementing the provisions of this Section, all books, accounts, records, papers, documents, contracts, agreements, and pending business in any way relating to the teacher scholarship program continued under this Section; and all scholarships at any time awarded under that program by, and all applications for any such scholarships at any time made to, the State Board of Education shall be unaffected by the transfer to the Commission of all responsibility for the administration and implementation of the teacher scholarship program continued under this Section. The State Board of Education shall furnish to the Commission such other information as the Commission may request to assist it in administering this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-133, eff. 7-1-06.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.70)

Sec. 65.70. Optometric Education Scholarship Program.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that the provision of graduate education leading to a doctoral degree in optometry for persons of this State who desire such an education is important to the health and welfare of this State and Nation and, consequently, is an important public purpose. Many qualified potential optometrists are deterred by financial considerations from pursuing their optometric education with consequent irreparable loss to the State and Nation of talents vital to health and welfare. A program of scholarships, repayment of which may be excused if the individual practices professional optometry in this State, will enable such individuals to attend qualified public or private institutions of their choice in the State.

(b) Beginning with the 2003-2004 academic year, the Commission shall, each year, consider applications for scholarship assistance under this Section. An applicant is eligible for a scholarship under this Section if the Commission finds that the applicant is:

(1) a United States citizen or eligible noncitizen;

(2) a resident of Illinois; and

(3) enrolled on a full-time basis in a public or private college of optometry located in this State that awards a doctorate degree in optometry and is approved by the Department of Professional Regulation.

(c) Each year the Commission shall award 10 scholarships under this Section among applicants qualified pursuant to subsection (b). Two of these scholarships each shall be awarded to eligible applicants enrolled in their first year, second year, third year, and fourth year. The remaining 2 scholarships shall be awarded to any level of student. The Commission shall receive funding for the scholarships through appropriations from the Optometric Licensing and Disciplinary Board Fund. If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded, the Commission shall give priority in awarding scholarships to students demonstrating exceptional merit and who are in financial need. A scholarship shall be in the amount of $5,000 each year applicable to tuition and fees.

(d) The total amount of scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled.

(e) A recipient may receive up to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of scholarship assistance under this Section.

(f) Subject to a separate appropriation made for such purposes, payment of any scholarship awarded under this Section shall be determined by the Commission. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this Section shall be paid to the institution on behalf of the recipients. Scholarship funds are applicable toward 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment within an academic year.

(g) The Commission shall administer the Optometric Education Scholarship Program established by this Section and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(h) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Commission to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the one-year period following the termination of the academic program for which the recipient was awarded a scholarship, the recipient shall practice in this State as a licensed optometrist under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 for a period of not less than one year for each year of scholarship assistance awarded under this Section. Each recipient shall, upon request of the Commission, provide the Commission with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the practice agreement provided for in this subsection.

(i) If a recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the practice obligation set forth in subsection (h) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the obligation not completed, plus interest at a rate of 5% and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. The Commission is authorized to establish rules relating to its collection activities for repayment of scholarships under this Section.

(j) A recipient of a scholarship awarded by the Commission under this Section shall not be in violation of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (h) if the recipient (i) is serving as a member of the armed services of the United States; (ii) is enrolled in a residency program following graduation at an approved institution; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability temporarily totally disabled, as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; or (iii) cannot fulfill the employment obligation due to his or her death, disability, or incompetency, as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician. No claim for repayment may be filed against the estate of such a decedent or incompetent. Any extension of the period during which the employment requirement must be fulfilled shall be subject to limitations of duration as established by the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 92-569, eff. 6-26-02.)

(110 ILCS 947/105)

Sec. 105. Procedure on default. Upon default by the borrower on any loan guaranteed under this Act, upon the death of the borrower, or upon report from the lender that the borrower has become a person with a total and permanent disability totally and permanently disabled, as determined in accordance with the Higher Education Act of 1965, the lender shall promptly notify the Commission, and the Commission shall pay to the lender the amount of loss sustained by the lender upon that loan as soon as that amount has been determined. The amount of loss on any loan shall be determined in accordance with the definitions, rules, and regulations of the Commission, and shall not exceed (1) the unpaid balance of the principal amount; (2) the unpaid accrued interest; and (3) the unpaid late charges.

Upon payment by the Commission of the guaranteed portion of the loss, the Commission shall be subrogated to the rights of the holder of the obligation upon the insured loan and shall be entitled to an assignment of the note or other evidence of the guaranteed loan by the lender. The Commission shall file any and all lawsuits on delinquent and defaulted student loans in the County of Cook where venue shall be deemed to be proper. A defendant may request a change of venue to the county where he resides, and the court has the authority to grant the change. Any defendant, within 30 days of service of summons, may file a written request by mail with the Commission to change venue. Upon receipt, the Commission shall move the court for the change of venue.

The Commission shall upon the filing and completion of the requirements for the "Adjustment of Debts of an Individual with Regular Income", pursuant to Title 11, Chapter l3 of the United States Code, proceed to collect the outstanding balance of the loan guaranteed under this Act. Educational loans guaranteed under this Act shall not be discharged by the filing of the "Adjustment of Debts of an Individual with Regular Income", unless the loan first became due more than 5 years, exclusive of any applicable suspension period, prior to the filing of the petition; or unless excepting the debt from discharge will impose an undue hardship on the debtor and the debtor's dependents.

The Commission shall proceed to recover educational loans upon the filing of a petition under "Individual Liquidation", pursuant to Title 11, Chapter 7 of the United States Code, unless the loan first became due more than 5 years, exclusive of any applicable suspension period, prior to the filing of the petition; or unless excepting the debt from discharge will impose an undue hardship on the debtor and the debtor's dependents.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude any forbearance for the benefit of the borrower which may be agreed upon by the party to the guaranteed loan and approved by the Commission, to preclude forbearance by the Commission in the enforcement of the guaranteed obligation after payment on that guarantee, or to require collection of the amount of any loan by the lender or by the Commission from the estate of a deceased borrower or from a borrower found by the lender to have become a person with a total and permanent disability permanently and totally disabled.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to excuse the holder of a loan from exercising reasonable care and diligence in the making and collection of loans under this Act. If the Commission after reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing to a lender finds that it has substantially failed to exercise such care and diligence, the Commission shall disqualify that lender for the guarantee of further loans until the Commission is satisfied that the lender's failure has ceased and finds that there is reasonable assurance that the lender will in the future exercise necessary care and diligence or comply with the rules and regulations of the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 87-997.)

Section 470. The Nurse Educator Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 15-30 as follows:

(110 ILCS 967/15-30)

Sec. 15-30. Repayment upon default; exception.

(a) If a recipient of a scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the work agreement required under the program, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarship or scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the work agreement not completed, plus interest at a rate of 5% and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees.

(b) Payments received by the Commission under this Section shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the General Revenue Fund, except that that portion of a recipient's repayment that equals the amount in expenses that the Commission has reasonably incurred in attempting collection from that recipient shall be remitted to the State Comptroller for deposit into the Commission's Accounts Receivable Fund.

(c) A recipient of a scholarship awarded by the Commission under the program shall not be in violation of the agreement entered into pursuant to this Article if the recipient is (i) serving as a member of the armed services of the United States, (ii) a person with a temporary total disability temporarily totally disabled, as established by a sworn affidavit of a qualified physician, (iii) seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a nursing educator and is able to provide evidence of that fact, or (iv) taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, related to nursing education. Any extension of the period during which the work requirement must be fulfilled shall be subject to limitations of duration established by the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06.)

Section 475. The Senior Citizen Courses Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 990/1) (from Ch. 144, par. 1801)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

(a) "Public institutions of higher education" means the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, and the public community colleges subject to the "Public Community College Act".

(b) "Credit Course" means any program of study for which public institutions of higher education award credit hours.

(c) "Senior citizen" means any person 65 years or older whose annual household income is less than the threshold amount provided in Section 4 of the "Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act", approved July 17, 1972, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 480. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Section 48.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/48.1) (from Ch. 17, par. 360)

Sec. 48.1. Customer financial records; confidentiality.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of:

(1) a document granting signature authority over a deposit or account;

(2) a statement, ledger card or other record on any deposit or account, which shows each transaction in or with respect to that account;

(3) a check, draft or money order drawn on a bank or issued and payable by a bank; or

(4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of a bank's business between a bank and its customer, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the customer.

(b) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation, examination, handling or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee or agent of a bank having custody of the records, or the examination of the records by a certified public accountant engaged by the bank to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by, or the furnishing of financial records by a bank to, any officer, employee or agent of (i) the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, (ii) after May 31, 1997, a state regulatory authority authorized to examine a branch of a State bank located in another state, (iii) the Comptroller of the Currency, (iv) the Federal Reserve Board, or (v) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee, or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to customers where the data cannot be identified to any particular customer or account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a bank and other banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a bank and other banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a purchase or sale involving the bank or assets or liabilities of the bank.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the bank reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information under the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information under the federal Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.

(11) The furnishing of information under any other statute that by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information about the existence of an account of a person to a judgment creditor of that person who has made a written request for that information.

(13) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between commonly owned banks in connection with a transaction authorized under paragraph (23) of Section 5 and conducted at an affiliate facility.

(14) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any bank governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the bank a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A bank providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the bank in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A bank shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(15) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between a bank and any commonly owned affiliate of the bank, subject to the provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law.

(16) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the bank that a customer who is an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (16), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "disabled person" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the bank to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly or disabled person, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the elderly or disabled person's assets or resources by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A bank or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (16) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(17) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the customer, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the customer;

(B) maintaining or servicing a customer's account with the bank; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a customer.

Nothing in this item (17), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a customer without the consent of the customer.

(18) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(19)(a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(b)(l) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.1, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.l, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(c) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, a bank may not disclose to any person, except to the customer or his duly authorized agent, any financial records or financial information obtained from financial records relating to that customer of that bank unless:

(1) the customer has authorized disclosure to the person;

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order which meets the requirements of subsection (d) of this Section; or

(3) the bank is attempting to collect an obligation owed to the bank and the bank complies with the provisions of Section 2I of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(d) A bank shall disclose financial records under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section under a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the bank mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the bank, if living, and, otherwise his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid, unless the bank is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court or by applicable State or federal law. A bank shall not mail a copy of a subpoena to any person pursuant to this subsection if the subpoena was issued by a grand jury under the Statewide Grand Jury Act.

(e) Any officer or employee of a bank who knowingly and willfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(f) Any person who knowingly and willfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a bank to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(g) A bank shall be reimbursed for costs that are reasonably necessary and that have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, or transporting books, papers, records, or other data of a customer required or requested to be produced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order. The Commissioner shall determine the rates and conditions under which payment may be made.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13.)

Section 485. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Section 4013 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/4013) (from Ch. 17, par. 7304-13)

Sec. 4013. Access to books and records; communication with members and shareholders.

(a) Every member or shareholder shall have the right to inspect books and records of the savings bank that pertain to his accounts. Otherwise, the right of inspection and examination of the books and records shall be limited as provided in this Act, and no other person shall have access to the books and records nor shall be entitled to a list of the members or shareholders.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of (1) a document granting signature authority over a deposit or account; (2) a statement, ledger card, or other record on any deposit or account that shows each transaction in or with respect to that account; (3) a check, draft, or money order drawn on a savings bank or issued and payable by a savings bank; or (4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of a savings bank's business between a savings bank and its customer, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the member or shareholder.

(c) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation examination, handling, or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee, or agent of a savings bank having custody of records or examination of records by a certified public accountant engaged by the savings bank to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by, or the furnishing of financial records by a savings bank to, any officer, employee, or agent of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the federal depository institution regulator for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee, or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to members or holders of capital where the data cannot be identified to any particular member, shareholder, or account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a savings bank and other savings banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a savings bank and other savings banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a purchase or sale involving the savings bank or assets or liabilities of the savings bank.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the savings bank reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information pursuant to the federal "Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act", (Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.).

(11) The furnishing of information pursuant to any other statute which by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any savings bank governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the savings bank a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A savings bank providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the savings bank in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A savings bank shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(13) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the savings bank that a customer who is an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (13), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "person with a disability disabled person" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the savings bank to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the elderly or disabled person's assets or resources of the elderly person or person with a disability by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A savings bank or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (13) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(14) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the member or holder of capital, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the member or holder of capital;

(B) maintaining or servicing an account of a member or holder of capital with the savings bank; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a member or holder of capital.

Nothing in this item (14), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a member or holder of capital without the consent of the member or holder of capital.

(15) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between a savings bank and any commonly owned affiliate of the savings bank, subject to the provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law.

(16) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(17)(a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(b)(l) For purposes of this paragraph (17) of subsection (c) of Section 4013, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (17) of subsection (c) of Section 4013, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(d) A savings bank may not disclose to any person, except to the member or holder of capital or his duly authorized agent, any financial records relating to that member or shareholder of the savings bank unless:

(1) the member or shareholder has authorized disclosure to the person; or

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order that meets the requirements of subsection (e) of this Section.

(e) A savings bank shall disclose financial records under subsection (d) of this Section pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the savings bank mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the savings bank, if living, and otherwise, his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid, unless the savings bank is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court.

(f) Any officer or employee of a savings bank who knowingly and willfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(g) Any person who knowingly and willfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a savings bank to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(h) If any member or shareholder desires to communicate with the other members or shareholders of the savings bank with reference to any question pending or to be presented at an annual or special meeting, the savings bank shall give that person, upon request, a statement of the approximate number of members or shareholders entitled to vote at the meeting and an estimate of the cost of preparing and mailing the communication. The requesting member shall submit the communication to the Commissioner who, upon finding it to be appropriate and truthful, shall direct that it be prepared and mailed to the members upon the requesting member's or shareholder's payment or adequate provision for payment of the expenses of preparation and mailing.

(i) A savings bank shall be reimbursed for costs that are necessary and that have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, or transporting books, papers, records, or other data of a customer required to be reproduced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order.

(j) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a savings bank may sell or otherwise make use of lists of customers' names and addresses. All other information regarding a customer's account are subject to the disclosure provisions of this Section. At the request of any customer, that customer's name and address shall be deleted from any list that is to be sold or used in any other manner beyond identification of the customer's accounts.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13.)

Section 490. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/10) (from Ch. 17, par. 4411)

Sec. 10. Credit union records; member financial records.

(1) A credit union shall establish and maintain books, records, accounting systems and procedures which accurately reflect its operations and which enable the Department to readily ascertain the true financial condition of the credit union and whether it is complying with this Act.

(2) A photostatic or photographic reproduction of any credit union records shall be admissible as evidence of transactions with the credit union.

(3)(a) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of (1) a document granting signature authority over an account, (2) a statement, ledger card or other record on any account which shows each transaction in or with respect to that account, (3) a check, draft or money order drawn on a financial institution or other entity or issued and payable by or through a financial institution or other entity, or (4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of business between a credit union and its member, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the member.

(b) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation, examination, handling or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee or agent of a credit union having custody of such records, or the examination of such records by a certified public accountant engaged by the credit union to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by or the furnishing of financial records by a credit union to any officer, employee or agent of the Department, the National Credit Union Administration, Federal Reserve board or any insurer of share accounts for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to members where the data cannot be identified to any particular customer of account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a credit union and other credit unions or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a credit union and other credit unions or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a merger or a purchase or sale of assets or liabilities of the credit union.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the credit union reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information pursuant to the federal "Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act", Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et sequentia.

(11) The furnishing of information pursuant to any other statute which by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any credit union governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the credit union a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A credit union providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the credit union in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A credit union shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(13) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the credit union that a member who is an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (13), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "person with a disability" "disabled person" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the credit union to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the elderly or disabled person's assets or resources by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A credit union or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (13) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(14) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the member, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the member;

(B) maintaining or servicing a member's account with the credit union; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a member.

Nothing in this item (14), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a member without the consent of the member.

(15) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(16)(a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(b)(l) For purposes of this paragraph (16) of subsection (b) of Section 10, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (16) of subsection (b) of Section 10, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(c) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, a credit union may not disclose to any person, except to the member or his duly authorized agent, any financial records relating to that member of the credit union unless:

(1) the member has authorized disclosure to the person;

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order that meets the requirements of subparagraph (d) of this Section; or

(3) the credit union is attempting to collect an obligation owed to the credit union and the credit union complies with the provisions of Section 2I of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(d) A credit union shall disclose financial records under subparagraph (c)(2) of this Section pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the credit union mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the credit union, if living, and otherwise his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid unless the credit union is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court or by applicable State or federal law. In the case of a grand jury subpoena, a credit union shall not mail a copy of a subpoena to any person pursuant to this subsection if the subpoena was issued by a grand jury under the Statewide Grand Jury Act or notifying the person would constitute a violation of the federal Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978.

(e)(1) Any officer or employee of a credit union who knowingly and wilfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(2) Any person who knowingly and wilfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a credit union to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(f) A credit union shall be reimbursed for costs which are reasonably necessary and which have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing or transporting books, papers, records or other data of a member required or requested to be produced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order. The Secretary and the Director may determine, by rule, the rates and conditions under which payment shall be made. Delivery of requested documents may be delayed until final reimbursement of all costs is received.

(Source: P.A. 97-133, eff. 1-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13.)

Section 495. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/75)

Sec. 75. Residency Requirements.

(a) No individual shall be accepted for residency or remain in residence if the establishment cannot provide or secure appropriate services, if the individual requires a level of service or type of service for which the establishment is not licensed or which the establishment does not provide, or if the establishment does not have the staff appropriate in numbers and with appropriate skill to provide such services.

(b) Only adults may be accepted for residency.

(c) A person shall not be accepted for residency if:

(1) the person poses a serious threat to himself or herself or to others;

(2) the person is not able to communicate his or her needs and no resident representative residing in the establishment, and with a prior relationship to the person, has been appointed to direct the provision of services;

(3) the person requires total assistance with 2 or more activities of daily living;

(4) the person requires the assistance of more than one paid caregiver at any given time with an activity of daily living;

(5) the person requires more than minimal assistance in moving to a safe area in an emergency;

(6) the person has a severe mental illness, which for the purposes of this Section means a condition that is characterized by the presence of a major mental disorder as classified in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) (American Psychiatric Association, 1994), where the individual is a person with a substantial disability substantially disabled due to mental illness in the areas of self-maintenance, social functioning, activities of community living and work skills, and the disability specified is expected to be present for a period of not less than one year, but does not mean Alzheimer's disease and other forms of dementia based on organic or physical disorders;

(7) the person requires intravenous therapy or intravenous feedings unless self-administered or administered by a qualified, licensed health care professional;

(8) the person requires gastrostomy feedings unless self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(9) the person requires insertion, sterile irrigation, and replacement of catheter, except for routine maintenance of urinary catheters, unless the catheter care is self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(10) the person requires sterile wound care unless care is self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(11) the person requires sliding scale insulin administration unless self-performed or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(12) the person is a diabetic requiring routine insulin injections unless the injections are self-administered or administered by a licensed health care professional;

(13) the person requires treatment of stage 3 or stage 4 decubitus ulcers or exfoliative dermatitis;

(14) the person requires 5 or more skilled nursing visits per week for conditions other than those listed in items (13) and (15) of this subsection for a period of 3 consecutive weeks or more except when the course of treatment is expected to extend beyond a 3 week period for rehabilitative purposes and is certified as temporary by a physician; or

(15) other reasons prescribed by the Department by rule.

(d) A resident with a condition listed in items (1) through (15) of subsection (c) shall have his or her residency terminated.

(e) Residency shall be terminated when services available to the resident in the establishment are no longer adequate to meet the needs of the resident. This provision shall not be interpreted as limiting the authority of the Department to require the residency termination of individuals.

(f) Subsection (d) of this Section shall not apply to terminally ill residents who receive or would qualify for hospice care and such care is coordinated by a hospice program licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act or other licensed health care professional employed by a licensed home health agency and the establishment and all parties agree to the continued residency.

(g) Items (3), (4), (5), and (9) of subsection (c) shall not apply to a quadriplegic, paraplegic, or individual with neuro-muscular diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and multiple sclerosis, or other chronic diseases and conditions as defined by rule if the individual is able to communicate his or her needs and does not require assistance with complex medical problems, and the establishment is able to accommodate the individual's needs. The Department shall prescribe rules pursuant to this Section that address special safety and service needs of these individuals.

(h) For the purposes of items (7) through (10) of subsection (c), a licensed health care professional may not be employed by the owner or operator of the establishment, its parent entity, or any other entity with ownership common to either the owner or operator of the establishment or parent entity, including but not limited to an affiliate of the owner or operator of the establishment. Nothing in this Section is meant to limit a resident's right to choose his or her health care provider.

(i) Subsection (h) is not applicable to residents admitted to an assisted living establishment under a life care contract as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act if the life care facility has both an assisted living establishment and a skilled nursing facility. A licensed health care professional providing health-related or supportive services at a life care assisted living or shared housing establishment must be employed by an entity licensed by the Department under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-256, eff. 7-19-05; 94-570, eff. 8-12-05; 95-216, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 500. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166)

Sec. 6. All reports of suspected abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the Department's central register established under Section 14 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established under Section 13, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. No long term care facility administrator, agent or employee, or any other person, shall screen reports or otherwise withhold any reports from the Department, and no long term care facility, department of State government, or other agency shall establish any rules, criteria, standards or guidelines to the contrary. Every long term care facility, department of State government and other agency whose employees are required to make or cause to be made reports under Section 4 shall notify its employees of the provisions of that Section and of this Section, and provide to the Department documentation that such notification has been given. The Department of Human Services shall train all of its mental health and developmental disabilities employees in the detection and reporting of suspected abuse and neglect of residents. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be transmitted to appropriate Department offices and municipal health departments that have responsibility for licensing long term care facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. All reports received through offices of the Department shall be forwarded to the central register, in a manner and form described by the Department. The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected abuse and neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Reports shall also be made in writing deposited in the U.S. mail, postage prepaid, within 24 hours after having reasonable cause to believe that the condition of the resident resulted from abuse or neglect. Such reports may in addition be made to the local law enforcement agency in the same manner. However, in the event a report is made to the local law enforcement agency, the reporter also shall immediately so inform the Department. The Department shall initiate an investigation of each report of resident abuse and neglect under this Act, whether oral or written, as provided for in Section 3-702 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 2-208 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or Section 3-702 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, except that reports of abuse which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours of such report. The Department may delegate to law enforcement officials or other public agencies the duty to perform such investigation.

With respect to investigations of reports of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services, the Department shall transmit copies of such reports to the Department of State Police, the Department of Human Services, and the Inspector General appointed under Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act. If the Department receives a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a recipient of services as defined in Section 1-123 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, the Department shall transmit copies of such report to the Inspector General and the Directors of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act. When requested by the Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, or the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department, the Department of Human Services and the Department of State Police shall make available a copy of the final investigative report regarding investigations conducted by their respective agencies on incidents of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions or individuals receiving services at community agencies under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services. Such final investigative report shall not contain witness statements, investigation notes, draft summaries, results of lie detector tests, investigative files or other raw data which was used to compile the final investigative report. Specifically, the final investigative report of the Department of State Police shall mean the Director's final transmittal letter. The Department of Human Services shall also make available a copy of the results of disciplinary proceedings of employees involved in incidents of abuse or neglect to the Directors. All identifiable information in reports provided shall not be further disclosed except as provided by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to limit or construe the power or authority granted to the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, pursuant to any other State or federal statute.

With respect to investigations of reported resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall effect with appropriate law enforcement agencies formal agreements concerning methods and procedures for the conduct of investigations into the criminal histories of any administrator, staff assistant or employee of the nursing home or other person responsible for the residents care, as well as for other residents in the nursing home who may be in a position to abuse, neglect or exploit the patient. Pursuant to the formal agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies, the Department may request information with respect to whether the person or persons set forth in this paragraph have ever been charged with a crime and if so, the disposition of those charges. Unless the criminal histories of the subjects involved crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall be entitled only to information limited in scope to charges and their dispositions. In cases where prior crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect are involved, a more detailed report can be made available to authorized representatives of the Department, pursuant to the agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies. Any criminal charges and their disposition information obtained by the Department shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department, except as required herein, to authorized representatives or delegates of the Department, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Department who is not duly authorized to handle resident abuse or neglect investigations.

The Department shall effect formal agreements with appropriate law enforcement agencies in the various counties and communities to encourage cooperation and coordination in the handling of resident abuse or neglect cases pursuant to this Act. The Department shall adopt and implement methods and procedures to promote statewide uniformity in the handling of reports of abuse and neglect under this Act, and those methods and procedures shall be adhered to by personnel of the Department involved in such investigations and reporting. The Department shall also make information required by this Act available to authorized personnel within the Department, as well as its authorized representatives.

The Department shall keep a continuing record of all reports made pursuant to this Act, including indications of the final determination of any investigation and the final disposition of all reports.

The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the incidence of abuse and neglect of long term care facility residents, with special attention to residents who are persons with mental disabilities mentally disabled. The report shall include but not be limited to data on the number and source of reports of suspected abuse or neglect filed under this Act, the nature of any injuries to residents, the final determination of investigations, the type and number of cases where abuse or neglect is determined to exist, and the final disposition of cases.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

Section 505. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 2-202, 3-807, and 3A-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/2-202) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-202)

Sec. 2-202. (a) Before a person is admitted to a facility, or at the expiration of the period of previous contract, or when the source of payment for the resident's care changes from private to public funds or from public to private funds, a written contract shall be executed between a licensee and the following in order of priority:

(1) the person, or if the person is a minor, his parent or guardian; or

(2) the person's guardian, if any, or agent, if any, as defined in Section 2-3 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; or

(3) a member of the person's immediate family.

An adult person shall be presumed to have the capacity to contract for admission to a long term care facility unless he has been adjudicated a "person with a disability disabled person" within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, or unless a petition for such an adjudication is pending in a circuit court of Illinois.

If there is no guardian, agent or member of the person's immediate family available, able or willing to execute the contract required by this Section and a physician determines that a person is so disabled as to be unable to consent to placement in a facility, or if a person has already been found to be a "person with a disability disabled person", but no order has been entered allowing residential placement of the person, that person may be admitted to a facility before the execution of a contract required by this Section; provided that a petition for guardianship or for modification of guardianship is filed within 15 days of the person's admission to a facility, and provided further that such a contract is executed within 10 days of the disposition of the petition.

No adult shall be admitted to a facility if he objects, orally or in writing, to such admission, except as otherwise provided in Chapters III and IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 11a-14.1 of the Probate Act of 1975.

If a person has not executed a contract as required by this Section, then such a contract shall be executed on or before July 1, 1981, or within 10 days after the disposition of a petition for guardianship or modification of guardianship that was filed prior to July 1, 1981, whichever is later.

Before a licensee enters a contract under this Section, it shall provide the prospective resident and his or her guardian, if any, with written notice of the licensee's policy regarding discharge of a resident whose private funds for payment of care are exhausted.

Before a licensee enters into a contract under this Section, it shall provide the resident or prospective resident and his or her guardian, if any, with a copy of the licensee's policy regarding the assignment of Social Security representative payee status as a condition of the contract when the resident's or prospective resident's care is being funded under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) A resident shall not be discharged or transferred at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in Sections 3-401 through 3-423.

(c) At the time of the resident's admission to the facility, a copy of the contract shall be given to the resident, his guardian, if any, and any other person who executed the contract.

(d) A copy of the contract for a resident who is supported by nonpublic funds other than the resident's own funds shall be made available to the person providing the funds for the resident's support.

(e) The original or a copy of the contract shall be maintained in the facility and be made available upon request to representatives of the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(f) The contract shall be written in clear and unambiguous language and shall be printed in not less than 12-point type. The general form of the contract shall be prescribed by the Department.

(g) The contract shall specify:

(1) the term of the contract;

(2) the services to be provided under the contract and the charges for the services;

(3) the services that may be provided to supplement the contract and the charges for the services;

(4) the sources liable for payments due under the contract;

(5) the amount of deposit paid; and

(6) the rights, duties and obligations of the resident, except that the specification of a resident's rights may be furnished on a separate document which complies with the requirements of Section 2-211.

(h) The contract shall designate the name of the resident's representative, if any. The resident shall provide the facility with a copy of the written agreement between the resident and the resident's representative which authorizes the resident's representative to inspect and copy the resident's records and authorizes the resident's representative to execute the contract on behalf of the resident required by this Section.

(i) The contract shall provide that if the resident is compelled by a change in physical or mental health to leave the facility, the contract and all obligations under it shall terminate on 7 days notice. No prior notice of termination of the contract shall be required, however, in the case of a resident's death. The contract shall also provide that in all other situations, a resident may terminate the contract and all obligations under it with 30 days notice. All charges shall be prorated as of the date on which the contract terminates, and, if any payments have been made in advance, the excess shall be refunded to the resident. This provision shall not apply to life-care contracts through which a facility agrees to provide maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life nor to continuing-care contracts through which a facility agrees to supplement all available forms of financial support in providing maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life.

(j) In addition to all other contract specifications contained in this Section admission contracts shall also specify:

(1) whether the facility accepts Medicaid clients;

(2) whether the facility requires a deposit of the resident or his family prior to the establishment of Medicaid eligibility;

(3) in the event that a deposit is required, a clear and concise statement of the procedure to be followed for the return of such deposit to the resident or the appropriate family member or guardian of the person;

(4) that all deposits made to a facility by a resident, or on behalf of a resident, shall be returned by the facility within 30 days of the establishment of Medicaid eligibility, unless such deposits must be drawn upon or encumbered in accordance with Medicaid eligibility requirements established by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(k) It shall be a business offense for a facility to knowingly and intentionally both retain a resident's deposit and accept Medicaid payments on behalf of that resident.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-807)

Sec. 3-807. Review of shelter care licensure standards. On or before March 1, 1994, the Department shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly a report concerning the necessity of revising the current statutory and regulatory standards of licensure under the category of shelter care. The Department shall conduct a review of those standards for that category, taking into consideration the Department on Aging's report on board and care homes prepared pursuant to Section 4.02a of the Illinois Act on the Aging. The Department's report shall include recommendations for statutory or regulatory changes necessary to address the regulation of facilities providing room, board, and personal care to older persons and persons with disabilities disabled persons.

(Source: P.A. 88-252.)

(210 ILCS 45/3A-101)

Sec. 3A-101. Cooperative arrangements. Not later than June 30, 1996, the Department shall enter into one or more cooperative arrangements with the Illinois Department of Public Aid, the Department on Aging, the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and any other appropriate entity for the purpose of developing a single survey for nursing facilities, including but not limited to facilities funded under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, or both, which shall be administered and conducted solely by the Department. The Departments shall test the single survey process on a pilot basis, with both the Departments of Public Aid and Public Health represented on the consolidated survey team. The pilot will sunset June 30, 1997. After June 30, 1997, unless otherwise determined by the Governor, a single survey shall be implemented by the Department of Public Health which would not preclude staff from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) from going on-site to nursing facilities to perform necessary audits and reviews which shall not replicate the single State agency survey required by this Act. This Article shall not apply to community or intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 510. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-101.05, 1-113, and 2-202 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/1-101.05)

Sec. 1-101.05. Prior law.

(a) This Act provides for licensure of intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled and long-term care for under age 22 facilities under this Act instead of under the Nursing Home Care Act. On and after the effective date of this Act, those facilities shall be governed by this Act instead of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(b) If any other Act of the General Assembly changes, adds, or repeals a provision of the Nursing Home Care Act that is the same as or substantially similar to a provision of this Act, then that change, addition, or repeal in the Nursing Home Care Act shall be construed together with this Act until July 1, 2010 and not thereafter.

(c) Nothing in this Act affects the validity or effect of any finding, decision, or action made or taken by the Department or the Director under the Nursing Home Care Act before the effective date of this Act with respect to a facility subject to licensure under this Act. That finding, decision, or action shall continue to apply to the facility on and after the effective date of this Act. Any finding, decision, or action with respect to the facility made or taken on or after the effective date of this Act shall be made or taken as provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1187, eff. 7-22-10.)

(210 ILCS 47/1-113)

Sec. 1-113. Facility. "ID/DD facility" or "facility" means an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled or a long-term care for under age 22 facility, whether operated for profit or not, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes intermediate care facilities for the intellectually disabled as the term is defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefore, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "supportive residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(12) A home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(210 ILCS 47/2-202)

Sec. 2-202. Contract required.

(a) Before a person is admitted to a facility, or at the expiration of the period of previous contract, or when the source of payment for the resident's care changes from private to public funds or from public to private funds, a written contract shall be executed between a licensee and the following in order of priority:

(1) the person, or if the person is a minor, his parent or guardian; or

(2) the person's guardian, if any, or agent, if any, as defined in Section 2-3 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; or

(3) a member of the person's immediate family.

An adult person shall be presumed to have the capacity to contract for admission to a long term care facility unless he or she has been adjudicated a "person with a disability disabled person" within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, or unless a petition for such an adjudication is pending in a circuit court of Illinois.

If there is no guardian, agent or member of the person's immediate family available, able or willing to execute the contract required by this Section and a physician determines that a person is so disabled as to be unable to consent to placement in a facility, or if a person has already been found to be a "person with a disability disabled person", but no order has been entered allowing residential placement of the person, that person may be admitted to a facility before the execution of a contract required by this Section; provided that a petition for guardianship or for modification of guardianship is filed within 15 days of the person's admission to a facility, and provided further that such a contract is executed within 10 days of the disposition of the petition.

No adult shall be admitted to a facility if he or she objects, orally or in writing, to such admission, except as otherwise provided in Chapters III and IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 11a-14.1 of the Probate Act of 1975.

Before a licensee enters a contract under this Section, it shall provide the prospective resident and his or her guardian, if any, with written notice of the licensee's policy regarding discharge of a resident whose private funds for payment of care are exhausted.

(b) A resident shall not be discharged or transferred at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in Sections 3-401 through 3-423.

(c) At the time of the resident's admission to the facility, a copy of the contract shall be given to the resident, his or her guardian, if any, and any other person who executed the contract.

(d) A copy of the contract for a resident who is supported by nonpublic funds other than the resident's own funds shall be made available to the person providing the funds for the resident's support.

(e) The original or a copy of the contract shall be maintained in the facility and be made available upon request to representatives of the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(f) The contract shall be written in clear and unambiguous language and shall be printed in not less than 12-point type. The general form of the contract shall be prescribed by the Department.

(g) The contract shall specify:

(1) the term of the contract;

(2) the services to be provided under the contract and the charges for the services;

(3) the services that may be provided to supplement the contract and the charges for the services;

(4) the sources liable for payments due under the contract;

(5) the amount of deposit paid; and

(6) the rights, duties and obligations of the resident, except that the specification of a resident's rights may be furnished on a separate document which complies with the requirements of Section 2-211.

(h) The contract shall designate the name of the resident's representative, if any. The resident shall provide the facility with a copy of the written agreement between the resident and the resident's representative which authorizes the resident's representative to inspect and copy the resident's records and authorizes the resident's representative to execute the contract on behalf of the resident required by this Section.

(i) The contract shall provide that if the resident is compelled by a change in physical or mental health to leave the facility, the contract and all obligations under it shall terminate on 7 days' notice. No prior notice of termination of the contract shall be required, however, in the case of a resident's death. The contract shall also provide that in all other situations, a resident may terminate the contract and all obligations under it with 30 days' notice. All charges shall be prorated as of the date on which the contract terminates, and, if any payments have been made in advance, the excess shall be refunded to the resident. This provision shall not apply to life care contracts through which a facility agrees to provide maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life nor to continuing care contracts through which a facility agrees to supplement all available forms of financial support in providing maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his or her life.

(j) In addition to all other contract specifications contained in this Section admission contracts shall also specify:

(1) whether the facility accepts Medicaid clients;

(2) whether the facility requires a deposit of the resident or his or her family prior to the establishment of Medicaid eligibility;

(3) in the event that a deposit is required, a clear and concise statement of the procedure to be followed for the return of such deposit to the resident or the appropriate family member or guardian of the person;

(4) that all deposits made to a facility by a resident, or on behalf of a resident, shall be returned by the facility within 30 days of the establishment of Medicaid eligibility, unless such deposits must be drawn upon or encumbered in accordance with Medicaid eligibility requirements established by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(k) It shall be a business offense for a facility to knowingly and intentionally both retain a resident's deposit and accept Medicaid payments on behalf of that resident.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 515. The Supportive Residences Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(210 ILCS 65/20) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 9020)

Sec. 20. Licensing standards.

(a) The Department shall promulgate rules establishing minimum standards for licensing and operating Supportive Residences in municipalities with a population over 500,000. No such municipality shall have more than 12 Supportive Residences. These rules shall regulate the operation and conduct of Supportive Residences and shall include but not be limited to:

(1) development and maintenance of a case management system by which an integrated care plan is to be created for each resident;

(2) the training and qualifications of personnel directly responsible for providing care to residents;

(3) provisions and criteria for admission, discharge, and transfer of residents;

(4) provisions for residents to receive appropriate programming and support services commensurate with their individual needs;

(5) agreements between Supportive Residences and hospitals or other health care providers;

(6) residents' rights and responsibilities and those of their families and guardians;

(7) fee and other contractual agreements between Supportive Residences and residents;

(8) medical and supportive services for residents;

(9) the safety, cleanliness, and general adequacy of the premises, including provision for maintenance of fire and health standards that conform to State laws and municipal codes, to provide for the physical comfort, well-being, care, and protection of the residents;

(10) maintenance of records and residents' rights of access to those records; and

(11) procedures for reporting abuse or neglect of residents.

(b) The rules shall also regulate the general financial ability, competence, character, and qualifications of the applicant to provide appropriate care and comply with this Act.

(c) The Department may promulgate special rules and regulations establishing minimum standards for Supportive Residences that permit the admission of:

(1) residents who are parents with children, whether either or both have HIV Disease; or

(2) residents with HIV Disease who are also persons with developmental or physical disabilities developmentally or physically disabled.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to impair or abridge the power of municipalities to enforce municipal zoning or land use ordinances.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 520. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 6.09 and 6.11 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.09) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.09)

Sec. 6.09. (a) In order to facilitate the orderly transition of aged patients and patients with disabilities and disabled patients from hospitals to post-hospital care, whenever a patient who qualifies for the federal Medicare program is hospitalized, the patient shall be notified of discharge at least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital. With regard to pending discharges to a skilled nursing facility, the hospital must notify the case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, at least 24 hours prior to discharge. When the assessment is completed in the hospital, the case coordination unit shall provide the discharge planner with a copy of the prescreening information and accompanying materials, which the discharge planner shall transmit when the patient is discharged to a skilled nursing facility. If home health services are ordered, the hospital must inform its designated case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, of the pending discharge and must provide the patient with the case coordination unit's telephone number and other contact information.

(b) Every hospital shall develop procedures for a physician with medical staff privileges at the hospital or any appropriate medical staff member to provide the discharge notice prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. The procedures must include prohibitions against discharging or referring a patient to any of the following if unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered: (i) a board and care facility, as defined in the Board and Care Home Act; (ii) an assisted living and shared housing establishment, as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (iv) a supportive living facility, as defined in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or (v) a free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act if licensure, certification, or registration is required. The Department of Public Health shall annually provide hospitals with a list of licensed, certified, or registered board and care facilities, assisted living and shared housing establishments, nursing homes, supportive living facilities, facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and hospice facilities. Reliance upon this list by a hospital shall satisfy compliance with this requirement. The procedure may also include a waiver for any case in which a discharge notice is not feasible due to a short length of stay in the hospital by the patient, or for any case in which the patient voluntarily desires to leave the hospital before the expiration of the 24 hour period.

(c) At least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital, the patient shall receive written information on the patient's right to appeal the discharge pursuant to the federal Medicare program, including the steps to follow to appeal the discharge and the appropriate telephone number to call in case the patient intends to appeal the discharge.

(d) Before transfer of a patient to a long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act where elderly persons reside, a hospital shall as soon as practicable initiate a name-based criminal history background check by electronic submission to the Department of State Police for all persons between the ages of 18 and 70 years; provided, however, that a hospital shall be required to initiate such a background check only with respect to patients who:

(1) are transferring to a long term care facility for the first time;

(2) have been in the hospital more than 5 days;

(3) are reasonably expected to remain at the long term care facility for more than 30 days;

(4) have a known history of serious mental illness or substance abuse; and

(5) are independently ambulatory or mobile for more than a temporary period of time.

A hospital may also request a criminal history background check for a patient who does not meet any of the criteria set forth in items (1) through (5).

A hospital shall notify a long term care facility if the hospital has initiated a criminal history background check on a patient being discharged to that facility. In all circumstances in which the hospital is required by this subsection to initiate the criminal history background check, the transfer to the long term care facility may proceed regardless of the availability of criminal history results. Upon receipt of the results, the hospital shall promptly forward the results to the appropriate long term care facility. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the hospital shall have no additional duty or obligation to seek additional information from, or about, the patient.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.11) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.11)

Sec. 6.11. In licensing any hospital which provides for the diagnosis, care or treatment for persons suffering from mental or emotional disorders or for persons with intellectual disabilities intellectually disabled persons, the Department shall consult with the Department of Human Services in developing standards for and evaluating the psychiatric programs of such hospitals.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 525. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Section 3 as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/Act title)

An Act in relation to community-integrated living arrangements for the mentally ill and for persons with developmental disabilities developmentally disabled.

(210 ILCS 135/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Applicant" means a person, group of persons, association, partnership or corporation that applies for a license as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act.

(b) "Community mental health or developmental services agency" or "agency" means a public or private agency, association, partnership, corporation or organization which, pursuant to this Act, certifies community-integrated living arrangements for persons with mental illness or persons with a developmental disability.

(c) "Department" means the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities).

(d) "Community-integrated living arrangement" means a living arrangement certified by a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act where 8 or fewer recipients with mental illness or recipients with a developmental disability who reside under the supervision of the agency. Examples of community integrated living arrangements include but are not limited to the following:

(1) "Adult foster care", a living arrangement for recipients in residences of families unrelated to them, for the purpose of providing family care for the recipients on a full-time basis;

(2) "Assisted residential care", an independent living arrangement where recipients are intermittently supervised by off-site staff;

(3) "Crisis residential care", a non-medical living arrangement where recipients in need of non-medical, crisis services are supervised by on-site staff 24 hours a day;

(4) "Home individual programs", living arrangements for 2 unrelated adults outside the family home;

(5) "Supported residential care", a living arrangement where recipients are supervised by on-site staff and such supervision is provided less than 24 hours a day;

(6) "Community residential alternatives", as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act; and

(7) "Special needs trust-supported residential care", a living arrangement where recipients are supervised by on-site staff and that supervision is provided 24 hours per day or less, as dictated by the needs of the recipients, and determined by service providers. As used in this item (7), "special needs trust" means a trust for the benefit of a beneficiary with a disability disabled beneficiary as described in Section 15.1 of the Trusts and Trustees Act.

(e) "Recipient" means a person who has received, is receiving, or is in need of treatment or habilitation as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(f) "Unrelated" means that persons residing together in programs or placements certified by a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act do not have any of the following relationships by blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.

(Source: P.A. 93-274, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 530. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 4, 143.24, 143.24a, 155.52, 236, 356b, 356z.2, 357.3, 362a, 364, 367b, 367i, 424, 500-50, and 500-60 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 73, par. 616)

Sec. 4. Classes of insurance. Insurance and insurance business shall be classified as follows:

Class 1. Life, Accident and Health.

(a) Life. Insurance on the lives of persons and every insurance appertaining thereto or connected therewith and granting, purchasing or disposing of annuities. Policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts or contracts supplemental thereto which contain provisions for additional benefits in case of death by accidental means and provisions operating to safeguard such policies or contracts against lapse, to give a special surrender value, or special benefit, or an annuity, in the event, that the insured or annuitant shall become a person with a total and permanent disability totally and permanently disabled as defined by the policy or contract, or which contain benefits providing acceleration of life or endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable, as an indemnity for long term care which is certified or ordered by a physician, including but not limited to, professional nursing care, medical care expenses, custodial nursing care, non-nursing custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a residence of the insured, or which contain benefits providing acceleration of life or endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable, at any time during the insured's lifetime, as an indemnity for a terminal illness shall be deemed to be policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts within the intent of this clause.

Also to be deemed as policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts within the intent of this clause shall be those policies or riders that provide for the payment of up to 75% of the face amount of benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable upon a diagnosis by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches that the insured has incurred a covered condition listed in the policy or rider.

"Covered condition", as used in this clause, means: heart attack, stroke, coronary artery surgery, life threatening cancer, renal failure, alzheimer's disease, paraplegia, major organ transplantation, total and permanent disability, and any other medical condition that the Department may approve for any particular filing.

The Director may issue rules that specify prohibited policy provisions, not otherwise specifically prohibited by law, which in the opinion of the Director are unjust, unfair, or unfairly discriminatory to the policyholder, any person insured under the policy, or beneficiary.

(b) Accident and health. Insurance against bodily injury, disablement or death by accident and against disablement resulting from sickness or old age and every insurance appertaining thereto, including stop-loss insurance. Stop-loss insurance is insurance against the risk of economic loss issued to a single employer self-funded employee disability benefit plan or an employee welfare benefit plan as described in 29 U.S.C. 100 et seq. The insurance laws of this State, including this Code, do not apply to arrangements between a religious organization and the organization's members or participants when the arrangement and organization meet all of the following criteria:

(i) the organization is described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is exempt from taxation under Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(ii) members of the organization share a common set of ethical or religious beliefs and share medical expenses among members in accordance with those beliefs and without regard to the state in which a member resides or is employed;

(iii) no funds that have been given for the purpose of the sharing of medical expenses among members described in paragraph (ii) of this subsection (b) are held by the organization in an off-shore trust or bank account;

(iv) the organization provides at least monthly to all of its members a written statement listing the dollar amount of qualified medical expenses that members have submitted for sharing, as well as the amount of expenses actually shared among the members;

(v) members of the organization retain membership even after they develop a medical condition;

(vi) the organization or a predecessor organization has been in existence at all times since December 31, 1999, and medical expenses of its members have been shared continuously and without interruption since at least December 31, 1999;

(vii) the organization conducts an annual audit that is performed by an independent certified public accounting firm in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and is made available to the public upon request;

(viii) the organization includes the following statement, in writing, on or accompanying all applications and guideline materials:

"Notice: The organization facilitating the sharing of medical expenses is not an insurance company, and neither its guidelines nor plan of operation constitute or create an insurance policy. Any assistance you receive with your medical bills will be totally voluntary. As such, participation in the organization or a subscription to any of its documents should never be considered to be insurance. Whether or not you receive any payments for medical expenses and whether or not this organization continues to operate, you are always personally responsible for the payment of your own medical bills.";

(ix) any membership card or similar document issued by the organization and any written communication sent by the organization to a hospital, physician, or other health care provider shall include a statement that the organization does not issue health insurance and that the member or participant is personally liable for payment of his or her medical bills;

(x) the organization provides to a participant, within 30 days after the participant joins, a complete set of its rules for the sharing of medical expenses, appeals of decisions made by the organization, and the filing of complaints;

(xi) the organization does not offer any other services that are regulated under any provision of the Illinois Insurance Code or other insurance laws of this State; and

(xii) the organization does not amass funds as reserves intended for payment of medical services, rather the organization facilitates the payments provided for in this subsection (b) through payments made directly from one participant to another.

(c) Legal Expense Insurance. Insurance which involves the assumption of a contractual obligation to reimburse the beneficiary against or pay on behalf of the beneficiary, all or a portion of his fees, costs, or expenses related to or arising out of services performed by or under the supervision of an attorney licensed to practice in the jurisdiction wherein the services are performed, regardless of whether the payment is made by the beneficiaries individually or by a third person for them, but does not include the provision of or reimbursement for legal services incidental to other insurance coverages. The insurance laws of this State, including this Act do not apply to:

(i) Retainer contracts made by attorneys at law with individual clients with fees based on estimates of the nature and amount of services to be provided to the specific client, and similar contracts made with a group of clients involved in the same or closely related legal matters;

(ii) Plans owned or operated by attorneys who are the providers of legal services to the plan;

(iii) Plans providing legal service benefits to groups where such plans are owned or operated by authority of a state, county, local or other bar association;

(iv) Any lawyer referral service authorized or operated by a state, county, local or other bar association;

(v) The furnishing of legal assistance by labor unions and other employee organizations to their members in matters relating to employment or occupation;

(vi) The furnishing of legal assistance to members or dependents, by churches, consumer organizations, cooperatives, educational institutions, credit unions, or organizations of employees, where such organizations contract directly with lawyers or law firms for the provision of legal services, and the administration and marketing of such legal services is wholly conducted by the organization or its subsidiary;

(vii) Legal services provided by an employee welfare benefit plan defined by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;

(viii) Any collectively bargained plan for legal services between a labor union and an employer negotiated pursuant to Section 302 of the Labor Management Relations Act as now or hereafter amended, under which plan legal services will be provided for employees of the employer whether or not payments for such services are funded to or through an insurance company.

Class 2. Casualty, Fidelity and Surety.

(a) Accident and health. Insurance against bodily injury, disablement or death by accident and against disablement resulting from sickness or old age and every insurance appertaining thereto, including stop-loss insurance. Stop-loss insurance is insurance against the risk of economic loss issued to a single employer self-funded employee disability benefit plan or an employee welfare benefit plan as described in 29 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.

(b) Vehicle. Insurance against any loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance or use of any vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft. Any policy insuring against any loss or liability on account of the bodily injury or death of any person may contain a provision for payment of disability benefits to injured persons and death benefits to dependents, beneficiaries or personal representatives of persons who are killed, including the named insured, irrespective of legal liability of the insured, if the injury or death for which benefits are provided is caused by accident and sustained while in or upon or while entering into or alighting from or through being struck by a vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft, and such provision shall not be deemed to be accident insurance.

(c) Liability. Insurance against the liability of the insured for the death, injury or disability of an employee or other person, and insurance against the liability of the insured for damage to or destruction of another person's property.

(d) Workers' compensation. Insurance of the obligations accepted by or imposed upon employers under laws for workers' compensation.

(e) Burglary and forgery. Insurance against loss or damage by burglary, theft, larceny, robbery, forgery, fraud or otherwise; including all householders' personal property floater risks.

(f) Glass. Insurance against loss or damage to glass including lettering, ornamentation and fittings from any cause.

(g) Fidelity and surety. Become surety or guarantor for any person, copartnership or corporation in any position or place of trust or as custodian of money or property, public or private; or, becoming a surety or guarantor for the performance of any person, copartnership or corporation of any lawful obligation, undertaking, agreement or contract of any kind, except contracts or policies of insurance; and underwriting blanket bonds. Such obligations shall be known and treated as suretyship obligations and such business shall be known as surety business.

(h) Miscellaneous. Insurance against loss or damage to property and any liability of the insured caused by accidents to boilers, pipes, pressure containers, machinery and apparatus of any kind and any apparatus connected thereto, or used for creating, transmitting or applying power, light, heat, steam or refrigeration, making inspection of and issuing certificates of inspection upon elevators, boilers, machinery and apparatus of any kind and all mechanical apparatus and appliances appertaining thereto; insurance against loss or damage by water entering through leaks or openings in buildings, or from the breakage or leakage of a sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing and all tanks, apparatus, conduits and containers designed to bring water into buildings or for its storage or utilization therein, or caused by the falling of a tank, tank platform or supports, or against loss or damage from any cause (other than causes specifically enumerated under Class 3 of this Section) to such sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing, tanks, apparatus, conduits or containers; insurance against loss or damage which may result from the failure of debtors to pay their obligations to the insured; and insurance of the payment of money for personal services under contracts of hiring.

(i) Other casualty risks. Insurance against any other casualty risk not otherwise specified under Classes 1 or 3, which may lawfully be the subject of insurance and may properly be classified under Class 2.

(j) Contingent losses. Contingent, consequential and indirect coverages wherein the proximate cause of the loss is attributable to any one of the causes enumerated under Class 2. Such coverages shall, for the purpose of classification, be included in the specific grouping of the kinds of insurance wherein such cause is specified.

(k) Livestock and domestic animals. Insurance against mortality, accident and health of livestock and domestic animals.

(l) Legal expense insurance. Insurance against risk resulting from the cost of legal services as defined under Class 1(c).

Class 3. Fire and Marine, etc.

(a) Fire. Insurance against loss or damage by fire, smoke and smudge, lightning or other electrical disturbances.

(b) Elements. Insurance against loss or damage by earthquake, windstorms, cyclone, tornado, tempests, hail, frost, snow, ice, sleet, flood, rain, drought or other weather or climatic conditions including excess or deficiency of moisture, rising of the waters of the ocean or its tributaries.

(c) War, riot and explosion. Insurance against loss or damage by bombardment, invasion, insurrection, riot, strikes, civil war or commotion, military or usurped power, or explosion (other than explosion of steam boilers and the breaking of fly wheels on premises owned, controlled, managed, or maintained by the insured.)

(d) Marine and transportation. Insurance against loss or damage to vessels, craft, aircraft, vehicles of every kind, (excluding vehicles operating under their own power or while in storage not incidental to transportation) as well as all goods, freights, cargoes, merchandise, effects, disbursements, profits, moneys, bullion, precious stones, securities, chooses in action, evidences of debt, valuable papers, bottomry and respondentia interests and all other kinds of property and interests therein, in respect to, appertaining to or in connection with any or all risks or perils of navigation, transit, or transportation, including war risks, on or under any seas or other waters, on land or in the air, or while being assembled, packed, crated, baled, compressed or similarly prepared for shipment or while awaiting the same or during any delays, storage, transshipment, or reshipment incident thereto, including marine builder's risks and all personal property floater risks; and for loss or damage to persons or property in connection with or appertaining to marine, inland marine, transit or transportation insurance, including liability for loss of or damage to either arising out of or in connection with the construction, repair, operation, maintenance, or use of the subject matter of such insurance, (but not including life insurance or surety bonds); but, except as herein specified, shall not mean insurances against loss by reason of bodily injury to the person; and insurance against loss or damage to precious stones, jewels, jewelry, gold, silver and other precious metals whether used in business or trade or otherwise and whether the same be in course of transportation or otherwise, which shall include jewelers' block insurance; and insurance against loss or damage to bridges, tunnels and other instrumentalities of transportation and communication (excluding buildings, their furniture and furnishings, fixed contents and supplies held in storage) unless fire, tornado, sprinkler leakage, hail, explosion, earthquake, riot and civil commotion are the only hazards to be covered; and to piers, wharves, docks and slips, excluding the risks of fire, tornado, sprinkler leakage, hail, explosion, earthquake, riot and civil commotion; and to other aids to navigation and transportation, including dry docks and marine railways, against all risk.

(e) Vehicle. Insurance against loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance or use of any vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft, excluding the liability of the insured for the death, injury or disability of another person.

(f) Property damage, sprinkler leakage and crop. Insurance against the liability of the insured for loss or damage to another person's property or property interests from any cause enumerated in this class; insurance against loss or damage by water entering through leaks or openings in buildings, or from the breakage or leakage of a sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing and all tanks, apparatus, conduits and containers designed to bring water into buildings or for its storage or utilization therein, or caused by the falling of a tank, tank platform or supports or against loss or damage from any cause to such sprinklers, pumps, water pipes, plumbing, tanks, apparatus, conduits or containers; insurance against loss or damage from insects, diseases or other causes to trees, crops or other products of the soil.

(g) Other fire and marine risks. Insurance against any other property risk not otherwise specified under Classes 1 or 2, which may lawfully be the subject of insurance and may properly be classified under Class 3.

(h) Contingent losses. Contingent, consequential and indirect coverages wherein the proximate cause of the loss is attributable to any of the causes enumerated under Class 3. Such coverages shall, for the purpose of classification, be included in the specific grouping of the kinds of insurance wherein such cause is specified.

(i) Legal expense insurance. Insurance against risk resulting from the cost of legal services as defined under Class 1(c).

(Source: P.A. 97-705, eff. 1-1-13; 97-707, eff. 1-1-13.)

(215 ILCS 5/143.24) (from Ch. 73, par. 755.24)

Sec. 143.24. Limited Nonrenewal of Automobile Insurance Policy. A policy of automobile insurance, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 143.13, may not be nonrenewed for any of the following reasons:

a. Age;

b. Sex;

c. Race;

d. Color;

e. Creed;

f. Ancestry;

g. Occupation;

h. Marital Status;

i. Employer of the insured;

j. Physical disability handicap as defined in Section 143.24a of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-437.)

(215 ILCS 5/143.24a) (from Ch. 73, par. 755.24a)

Sec. 143.24a. (a) No insurer, licensed to issue a policy of automobile insurance, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 143.13, shall fail or refuse to accept an application from a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person for such insurance, refuse to issue such insurance to an applicant with a physical disability a physically handicapped applicant therefor solely because of a physical disability handicap, or issue or cancel such insurance under conditions less favorable to persons with physical disabilities physically handicapped persons than persons without physical disabilities nonhandicapped persons; nor shall a physical disability handicap itself constitute a condition or risk for which a higher premium may be required of a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person for such insurance.

(b) As used in this Section, "physical disability handicap" refers only to an impairment of physical ability because of amputation or loss of function which impairment has been compensated for, when necessary, by vehicle equipment adaptation or modification; or an impairment of hearing which impairment has been compensated for, when necessary, either by sensory equipment adaptation or modification, or an impairment of speech; provided, that the insurer may require an applicant with a physical disability a physically handicapped applicant for such insurance on the renewal of such insurance to furnish proof that he or she has qualified for a new or renewed drivers license since the occurrence of the disabling handicapping condition.

(Source: P.A. 85-762.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.52) (from Ch. 73, par. 767.52)

Sec. 155.52. Definitions.

For the purpose of this Article:

(a) "Credit life insurance" means insurance on the life of a debtor pursuant to or in connection with a specific loan or other credit transaction;

(b) "Credit Accident and health insurance" means insurance on a debtor to provide indemnity for payments becoming due on a specific loan or other credit transaction while the debtor is a person with a disability disabled as defined in the policy;

(c) "Creditor" means the lender of money or vendor or lessor of goods, services, property, rights or privileges, for which payment is arranged through a credit transaction or any successor to the right, title or interest of any such lender, vendor or lessor, and an affiliate, associate or subsidiary of any of them or any director, officer or employee of any of them or any other person in any way associated with any of them;

(d) "Debtor" means a borrower of money or a purchaser or lessee of goods, services, property, rights or privileges for which payment is arranged through a credit transaction;

(e) "Indebtedness" means the total amount payable by a debtor to a creditor in connection with a loan or other credit transaction;

(f) "Director" means the Director of Insurance of the State of Illinois.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 1140.)

(215 ILCS 5/236) (from Ch. 73, par. 848)

Sec. 236. Discrimination prohibited.

(a) No life company doing business in this State shall make or permit any distinction or discrimination in favor of individuals among insured persons of the same class and equal expectation of life in the issuance of its policies, in the amount of payment of premiums or rates charged for policies of insurance, in the amount of any dividends or other benefits payable thereon, or in any other of the terms and conditions of the contracts it makes.

(b) No life company shall make or permit any distinction or discrimination against individuals with handicaps or disabilities in the amount of payment of premiums or rates charged for policies of life insurance, in the amount of any dividends or death benefits payable thereon, or in any other terms and conditions of the contract it makes unless the rate differential is based on sound actuarial principles and a reasonable system of classification and is related to actual or reasonably anticipated experience directly associated with the handicap or disability.

(c) No life company shall refuse to insure, or refuse to continue to insure, or limit the amount or extent or kind of coverage available to an individual, or charge an individual a different rate for the same coverage solely because of blindness or partial blindness. With respect to all other conditions, including the underlying cause of the blindness or partial blindness, persons who are blind or partially blind shall be subject to the same standards of sound actuarial principles or actual or reasonably anticipated experience as are sighted persons. Refusal to insure includes denial by an insurer of disability insurance coverage on the grounds that the policy defines "disability" as being presumed in the event that the insured loses his or her eyesight. However, an insurer may exclude from coverage disabilities consisting solely of blindness or partial blindness when such condition existed at the time the policy was issued.

(d) No life company shall refuse to insure or to continue to insure an individual solely because of the individual's status as a member of the United States Air Force, Army, Coast Guard, Marines, or Navy or solely because of the individual's status as a member of the National Guard or Armed Forces Reserve.

(e) An insurer or producer authorized to issue policies of insurance in this State may not make a distinction or otherwise discriminate between persons, reject an applicant, cancel a policy, or demand or require a higher rate of premium for reasons based solely upon an applicant's or insured's past lawful travel experiences or future lawful travel plans. This subsection (e) does not prohibit an insurer or producer from excluding or limiting coverage under a policy or refusing to offer the policy based upon past lawful travel or future lawful travel plans or from charging a different rate for that coverage when that action is based upon sound actuarial principles or is related to actual or reasonably expected experience and is not based solely on the destination's inclusion on the United States Department of State's travel warning list.

(Source: P.A. 95-163, eff. 1-1-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/356b) (from Ch. 73, par. 968b)

Sec. 356b. (a) This Section applies to the hospital and medical expense provisions of an accident or health insurance policy.

(b) If a policy provides that coverage of a dependent person terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the policy, the attainment of such limiting age does not operate to terminate the hospital and medical coverage of a person who, because of a disabling handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(c) For purposes of subsection (b), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(d) The insurer may inquire of the policyholder 2 months prior to attainment by a dependent of the limiting age set forth in the policy, or at any reasonable time thereafter, whether such dependent is in fact a person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person and, in the absence of proof submitted within 60 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of such policy or any extension or renewal thereof.

(e) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to policies issued or renewed more than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.2)

Sec. 356z.2. Coverage for adjunctive services in dental care.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall cover charges incurred, and anesthetics provided, in conjunction with dental care that is provided to a covered individual in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center if any of the following applies:

(1) the individual is a child age 6 or under;

(2) the individual has a medical condition that requires hospitalization or general anesthesia for dental care; or

(3) the individual is a person with a disability disabled.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "ambulatory surgical treatment center" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

For purposes of this Section, "person with a disability disabled" means a person, regardless of age, with a chronic disability if the chronic disability meets all of the following conditions:

(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments.

(2) It is likely to continue.

(3) It results in substantial functional limitations in one or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) self-care;

(B) receptive and expressive language;

(C) learning;

(D) mobility;

(E) capacity for independent living; or

(F) economic self-sufficiency.

(c) The coverage required under this Section may be subject to any limitations, exclusions, or cost-sharing provisions that apply generally under the insurance policy.

(d) This Section does not apply to a policy that covers only dental care.

(e) Nothing in this Section requires that the dental services be covered.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specified disease policies, nor to policies or contracts designed for issuance to persons eligible for coverage under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, known as Medicare, or any other similar coverage under State or federal governmental plans.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/357.3) (from Ch. 73, par. 969.3)

Sec. 357.3. "TIME LIMIT ON CERTAIN DEFENSES: (1) After 2 years from the date of issue of this policy no misstatements, except fraudulent misstatements, made by the applicant in the application for such policy shall be used to void the policy or to deny a claim for loss incurred or disability (as defined in the policy) commencing after the expiration of such 2 year period."

(The foregoing policy provision shall not be so construed as to affect any legal requirement for avoidance of a policy or denial of a claim during such initial 2 year period, nor to limit the application of section 357.15 through section 357.19 in the event of misstatement with respect to age or occupation or other insurance.)

A policy which the insured has the right to continue in force subject to its terms by the timely payment of premium (1) until at least age 50 or, (2) in the case of a policy issued after age 44, for at least 5 years from its date of issue, may contain in lieu of the foregoing the following provisions (from which the clause in parentheses may be omitted at the company's option) under the caption "INCONTESTABLE":

"After this policy has been in force for a period of 2 years during the lifetime of the insured (excluding any period during which the insured is a person with a disability disabled), it shall become incontestable as to the statements contained in the application."

(2) "No claim for loss incurred or disability (as defined in the policy) commencing after 2 years from the date of issue of this policy shall be reduced or denied on the ground that a disease or physical condition not excluded from coverage by name or specific description effective on the date of loss had existed prior to the effective date of coverage of this policy."

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 1735.)

(215 ILCS 5/362a) (from Ch. 73, par. 974a)

Sec. 362a. Non-application to certain policies. The provisions of sections 356a to 359a, both inclusive, shall not apply to or affect (1) any policy of workers' compensation insurance or any policy of liability insurance with or without supplementary expense coverage therein; or (2) any policy or contract of reinsurance; or (3) any group policy of insurance (unless otherwise specifically provided); or (4) life insurance, endowment or annuity contracts, or contracts supplemental thereto which contain only such provisions relating to accident and sickness insurance as (a) provide additional benefits in case of death or dismemberment or loss of sight by accident, or as (b) operate to safeguard such contracts against lapse, or to give a special surrender value or special benefit or an annuity in the event that the insured or annuitant shall become a person with a total and permanent disability totally and permanently disabled, as defined by the contract or supplemental contract.

(Source: P.A. 81-992.)

(215 ILCS 5/364) (from Ch. 73, par. 976)

Sec. 364. Discrimination prohibited. Discrimination between individuals of the same class of risk in the issuance of its policies or in the amount of premiums or rates charged for any insurance covered by this article, or in the benefits payable thereon, or in any of the terms or conditions of such policy, or in any other manner whatsoever is prohibited. Nothing in this provision shall prohibit an insurer from providing incentives for insureds to utilize the services of a particular hospital or person. It is hereby expressly provided that whenever the terms "physician" or "doctor" appear or are used in any way in any policy of accident or health insurance issued in this state, said terms shall include within their meaning persons licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act with regard to benefits payable for services performed by a person so licensed, which such services are within the coverage provided by the particular policy or contract of insurance and are within the professional services authorized to be performed by such person under and in accordance with the said Act.

No company, in any policy of accident or health insurance issued in this State, shall make or permit any distinction or discrimination against individuals solely because of the individuals' disabilities handicaps or disabilities in the amount of payment of premiums or rates charged for policies of insurance, in the amount of any dividends or other benefits payable thereon, or in any other terms and conditions of the contract it makes, except where the distinction or discrimination is based on sound actuarial principles or is related to actual or reasonably anticipated experience.

No company shall refuse to insure, or refuse to continue to insure, or limit the amount or extent or kind of coverage available to an individual, or charge an individual a different rate for the same coverage solely because of blindness or partial blindness. With respect to all other conditions, including the underlying cause of the blindness or partial blindness, persons who are blind or partially blind shall be subject to the same standards of sound actuarial principles or actual or reasonably anticipated experience as are sighted persons. Refusal to insure includes denial by an insurer of disability insurance coverage on the grounds that the policy defines "disability" as being presumed in the event that the insured loses his or her eyesight.

(Source: P.A. 91-549, eff. 8-14-99.)

(215 ILCS 5/367b) (from Ch. 73, par. 979b)

Sec. 367b. (a) This Section applies to the hospital and medical expense provisions of a group accident or health insurance policy.

(b) If a policy provides that coverage of a dependent of an employee or other member of the covered group terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the policy, the attainment of such limiting age does not operate to terminate the hospital and medical coverage of a person who, because of a disabling handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(c) For purposes of subsection (b), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(d) The insurer may inquire of the person insured 2 months prior to attainment by a dependent of the limiting age set forth in the policy, or at any reasonable time thereafter, whether such dependent is in fact a person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person and, in the absence of proof submitted within 31 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of such policy or any extension or renewal.

(e) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to policies issued or renewed more than 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1969.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/367i) (from Ch. 73, par. 979i)

Sec. 367i. Discontinuance and replacement of coverage. Group health insurance policies issued, amended, delivered or renewed on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989, shall provide a reasonable extension of benefits in the event of total disability on the date the policy is discontinued for any reason.

Any applicable extension of benefits or accrued liability shall be described in the policy and group certificate. Benefits payable during any extension of benefits may be subject to the policy's regular benefit limits.

Any insurer discontinuing a group health insurance policy shall provide to the policyholder for delivery to covered employees or members a notice as to the date such discontinuation is to be effective and urging them to refer to their group certificates to determine what contract rights, if any, are available to them.

In the event a discontinued policy is replaced by another group policy, the prior insurer or plan shall be liable only to the extent of its accrued liabilities and extension of benefits. Persons eligible for coverage under the succeeding insurer's plan shall include all employees and dependents covered under the prior insurer's plan, including individuals with disabilities disabled individuals covered under the prior plan but absent from work on the effective date and thereafter. The prior insurer shall provide extension of benefits for an insured's disabling condition when no coverage is available under the succeeding insurer's plan whether due to the absence of coverage in the contract or lack of required creditable coverage for a preexisting condition.

The Director shall promulgate reasonable rules as necessary to carry out this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-549, eff. 8-14-99.)

(215 ILCS 5/424) (from Ch. 73, par. 1031)

Sec. 424. Unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices defined. The following are hereby defined as unfair methods of competition and unfair and deceptive acts or practices in the business of insurance:

(1) The commission by any person of any one or more of the acts defined or prohibited by Sections 134, 143.24c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 155.22, 155.22a, 155.42, 236, 237, 364, and 469 of this Code.

(2) Entering into any agreement to commit, or by any concerted action committing, any act of boycott, coercion or intimidation resulting in or tending to result in unreasonable restraint of, or monopoly in, the business of insurance.

(3) Making or permitting, in the case of insurance of the types enumerated in Classes 1, 2, and 3 of Section 4, any unfair discrimination between individuals or risks of the same class or of essentially the same hazard and expense element because of the race, color, religion, or national origin of such insurance risks or applicants. The application of this Article to the types of insurance enumerated in Class 1 of Section 4 shall in no way limit, reduce, or impair the protections and remedies already provided for by Sections 236 and 364 of this Code or any other provision of this Code.

(4) Engaging in any of the acts or practices defined in or prohibited by Sections 154.5 through 154.8 of this Code.

(5) Making or charging any rate for insurance against losses arising from the use or ownership of a motor vehicle which requires a higher premium of any person by reason of his physical disability handicap, race, color, religion, or national origin.

(Source: P.A. 97-527, eff. 8-23-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/500-50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 500-50. Insurance producers; examination statistics.

(a) The use of examinations for the purpose of determining qualifications of persons to be licensed as insurance producers has a direct and far-reaching effect on persons seeking those licenses, on insurance companies, and on the public. It is in the public interest and it will further the public welfare to insure that examinations for licensing do not have the effect of unlawfully discriminating against applicants for licensing as insurance producers on the basis of race, color, national origin, or sex.

(b) As used in this Section, the following words have the meanings given in this subsection.

Examination. "Examination" means the examination in each line of insurance administered pursuant to Section 500-30.

Examinee. "Examinee" means a person who takes an examination.

Part. "Part" means a portion of an examination for which a score is calculated.

Operational item. "Operational item" means a test question considered in determining an examinee's score.

Test form. "Test form" means the test booklet or instrument used for a part of an examination.

Pretest item. "Pretest item" means a prospective test question that is included in a test form in order to assess its performance, but is not considered in determining an examinee's score.

Minority group or examinees. "Minority group" or "minority examinees" means examinees who are American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, or Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander.

Correct-answer rate. "Correct-answer rate" for an item means the number of examinees who provided the correct answer on an item divided by the number of examinees who answered the item.

Correlation. "Correlation" means a statistical measure of the relationship between performance on an item and performance on a part of the examination.

(c) The Director shall ask each examinee to self-report on a voluntary basis on the answer sheet, application form, or by other appropriate means, the following information:

(1) race or ethnicity (American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White);

(2) education (8th grade or less; less than 12th grade; high school diploma or high school equivalency certificate; some college, but no 4-year degree; or 4-year degree or more); and

(3) gender (male or female).

The Director must advise all examinees that they are not required to provide this information, that they will not be penalized for not doing so, and that the Director will use the information provided exclusively for research and statistical purposes and to improve the quality and fairness of the examinations.

(d) No later than May 1 of each year, the Director must prepare, publicly announce, and publish an Examination Report of summary statistical information relating to each examination administered during the preceding calendar year. Each Examination Report shall show with respect to each examination:

(1) For all examinees combined and separately by race or ethnicity, by educational level, by gender, by educational level within race or ethnicity, by education level within gender, and by race or ethnicity within gender:

(A) number of examinees;

(B) percentage and number of examinees who passed each part;

(C) percentage and number of examinees who passed all parts;

(D) mean scaled scores on each part; and

(E) standard deviation of scaled scores on each part.

(2) For male examinees, female examinees, Black or African American examinees, white examinees, American Indian or Alaska Native examinees, Asian examinees, Hispanic or Latino examinees, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, respectively, with a high school diploma or high school equivalency certificate, the distribution of scaled scores on each part.

No later than May 1 of each year, the Director must prepare and make available on request an Item Report of summary statistical information relating to each operational item on each test form administered during the preceding calendar year. The Item Report shall show, for each operational item, for all examinees combined and separately for Black or African American examinees, white examinees, American Indian or Alaska Native examinees, Asian examinees, Hispanic or Latino examinees, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, the correct-answer rates and correlations.

The Director is not required to report separate statistical information for any group or subgroup comprising fewer than 50 examinees.

(e) The Director must obtain a regular analysis of the data collected under this Section, and any other relevant information, for purposes of the development of new test forms. The analysis shall continue the implementation of the item selection methodology as recommended in the Final Report of the Illinois Insurance Producer's Licensing Examination Advisory Committee dated November 19, 1991, and filed with the Department unless some other methodology is determined by the Director to be as effective in minimizing differences between white and minority examinee pass-fail rates.

(f) The Director has the discretion to set cutoff scores for the examinations, provided that scaled scores on test forms administered after July 1, 1993, shall be made comparable to scaled scores on test forms administered in 1991 by use of professionally acceptable methods so as to minimize changes in passing rates related to the presence or absence of or changes in equating or scaling equations or methods or content outlines. Each calendar year, the scaled cutoff score for each part of each examination shall fluctuate by no more than the standard error of measurement from the scaled cutoff score employed during the preceding year.

(g) No later than May 1, 2003 and no later than May 1 of every fourth year thereafter, the Director must release to the public and make generally available one representative test form and set of answer keys for each part of each examination.

(h) The Director must maintain, for a period of 3 years after they are prepared or used, all registration forms, test forms, answer sheets, operational items and pretest items, item analyses, and other statistical analyses relating to the examinations. All personal identifying information regarding examinees and the content of test items must be maintained confidentially as necessary for purposes of protecting the personal privacy of examinees and the maintenance of test security.

(i) In administering the examinations, the Director must make such accommodations for examinees with disabilities disabled examinees as are reasonably warranted by the particular disability involved, including the provision of additional time if necessary to complete an examination or special assistance in taking an examination.

(j) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "American Indian or Alaska Native" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.

(2) "Asian" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.

(3) "Black or African American" means a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa. Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) "Hispanic or Latino" means a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.

(5) "Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.

(6) "White" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa.

(Source: P.A. 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/500-60)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 500-60. Temporary licensing.

(a) The Director may issue a temporary insurance producer license for a period not to exceed 180 days and, at the discretion of the Director, may renew the temporary producer license for an additional 180 days without requiring an examination if the Director deems that the temporary license is necessary for the servicing of an insurance business in the following cases:

(1) to the surviving spouse or court-appointed personal representative of a licensed insurance producer who dies or becomes a person with a mental or physical disability mentally or physically disabled to allow adequate time for the sale of the insurance business owned by the producer or for the recovery or return of the producer to the business or to provide for the training and licensing of new personnel to operate the producer's business;

(2) to a member or employee of a business entity licensed as an insurance producer, upon the death or disability of an individual designated in the business entity application or the license; or

(3) to the designee of a licensed insurance producer entering active service in the armed forces of the United States of America.

(b) The Director may by order limit the authority of any temporary licensee in any way deemed necessary to protect insureds and the public. The Director may require the temporary licensee to have a suitable sponsor who is a licensed producer or insurer and who assumes responsibility for all acts of the temporary licensee and may impose other similar requirements designed to protect insureds and the public. The Director may by order revoke a temporary license if the interest of insureds or the public are endangered. A temporary license may not continue after the owner or the personal representative disposes of the business.

(c) Before any temporary insurance producer license is issued, there must be filed with the Director a written application by the person desiring the license in the form, with the supplements, and containing the information that the Director requires. License fees, as provided for in Section 500-135, must be paid upon the issuance of the original temporary insurance producer license, but not for any renewal thereof.

(Source: P.A. 92-386, eff. 1-1-02.)

Section 535. The Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(215 ILCS 105/2) (from Ch. 73, par. 1302)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Plan administrator" means the insurer or third party administrator designated under Section 5 of this Act.

"Benefits plan" means the coverage to be offered by the Plan to eligible persons and federally eligible individuals pursuant to this Act.

"Board" means the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board.

"Church plan" has the same meaning given that term in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

"Continuation coverage" means continuation of coverage under a group health plan or other health insurance coverage for former employees or dependents of former employees that would otherwise have terminated under the terms of that coverage pursuant to any continuation provisions under federal or State law, including the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA), as amended, Sections 367.2, 367e, and 367e.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, or any other similar requirement in another State.

"Covered person" means a person who is and continues to remain eligible for Plan coverage and is covered under one of the benefit plans offered by the Plan.

"Creditable coverage" means, with respect to a federally eligible individual, coverage of the individual under any of the following:

(A) A group health plan.

(B) Health insurance coverage (including group health insurance coverage).

(C) Medicare.

(D) Medical assistance.

(E) Chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code.

(F) A medical care program of the Indian Health Service or of a tribal organization.

(G) A state health benefits risk pool.

(H) A health plan offered under Chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code.

(I) A public health plan (as defined in regulations consistent with Section 104 of the Health Care Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 that may be promulgated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services).

(J) A health benefit plan under Section 5(e) of the Peace Corps Act (22 U.S.C. 2504(e)).

(K) Any other qualifying coverage required by the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as it may be amended, or regulations under that Act.

"Creditable coverage" does not include coverage consisting solely of coverage of excepted benefits, as defined in Section 2791(c) of title XXVII of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300 gg-91), nor does it include any period of coverage under any of items (A) through (K) that occurred before a break of more than 90 days or, if the individual has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002, a break of more than 63 days during all of which the individual was not covered under any of items (A) through (K) above.

Any period that an individual is in a waiting period for any coverage under a group health plan (or for group health insurance coverage) or is in an affiliation period under the terms of health insurance coverage offered by a health maintenance organization shall not be taken into account in determining if there has been a break of more than 90 days in any creditable coverage.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Insurance.

"Dependent" means an Illinois resident: who is a spouse; or who is claimed as a dependent by the principal insured for purposes of filing a federal income tax return and resides in the principal insured's household, and is a resident unmarried child under the age of 19 years; or who is an unmarried child who also is a full-time student under the age of 23 years and who is financially dependent upon the principal insured; or who is a child of any age and who is a person with a disability disabled and financially dependent upon the principal insured.

"Direct Illinois premiums" means, for Illinois business, an insurer's direct premium income for the kinds of business described in clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a) of Class 2 of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and direct premium income of a health maintenance organization or a voluntary health services plan, except it shall not include credit health insurance as defined in Article IX 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Insurance.

"Effective date of medical assistance" means the date that eligibility for medical assistance for a person is approved by the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, except when the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services determines eligibility retroactively. In such circumstances, the effective date of the medical assistance is the date the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services determines the person to be eligible for medical assistance. As it pertains to Medicare, the effective date is 24 months after the entitlement date as approved by the Social Security Administration, except when eligibility is made retroactive to a prior date. In such circumstances, the effective date of Medicare is the date on the Notice of Award letter issued by the Social Security Administration.

"Eligible person" means a resident of this State who qualifies for Plan coverage under Section 7 of this Act.

"Employee" means a resident of this State who is employed by an employer or has entered into the employment of or works under contract or service of an employer including the officers, managers and employees of subsidiary or affiliated corporations and the individual proprietors, partners and employees of affiliated individuals and firms when the business of the subsidiary or affiliated corporations, firms or individuals is controlled by a common employer through stock ownership, contract, or otherwise.

"Employer" means any individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, or any person or group of persons acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee, for which one or more persons is gainfully employed.

"Family" coverage means the coverage provided by the Plan for the covered person and his or her eligible dependents who also are covered persons.

"Federally eligible individual" means an individual resident of this State:

(1)(A) for whom, as of the date on which the individual seeks Plan coverage under Section 15 of this Act, the aggregate of the periods of creditable coverage is 18 or more months or, if the individual has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002, 3 or more months, and (B) whose most recent prior creditable coverage was under group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, a group health plan, a governmental plan, or a church plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with any such plans) or any other type of creditable coverage that may be required by the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as it may be amended, or the regulations under that Act;

(2) who is not eligible for coverage under (A) a group health plan (other than an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002), (B) part A or part B of Medicare due to age (other than an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002), or (C) medical assistance, and does not have other health insurance coverage (other than an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002);

(3) with respect to whom (other than an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002) the most recent coverage within the coverage period described in paragraph (1)(A) of this definition was not terminated based upon a factor relating to nonpayment of premiums or fraud;

(4) if the individual (other than an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002) had been offered the option of continuation coverage under a COBRA continuation provision or under a similar State program, who elected such coverage; and

(5) who, if the individual elected such continuation coverage, has exhausted such continuation coverage under such provision or program.

However, an individual who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002 shall not be required to elect continuation coverage under a COBRA continuation provision or under a similar state program.

"Group health insurance coverage" means, in connection with a group health plan, health insurance coverage offered in connection with that plan.

"Group health plan" has the same meaning given that term in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

"Governmental plan" has the same meaning given that term in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

"Health insurance coverage" means benefits consisting of medical care (provided directly, through insurance or reimbursement, or otherwise and including items and services paid for as medical care) under any hospital and medical expense-incurred policy, certificate, or contract provided by an insurer, non-profit health care service plan contract, health maintenance organization or other subscriber contract, or any other health care plan or arrangement that pays for or furnishes medical or health care services whether by insurance or otherwise. Health insurance coverage shall not include short term, accident only, disability income, hospital confinement or fixed indemnity, dental only, vision only, limited benefit, or credit insurance, coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance, insurance arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law, automobile medical-payment insurance, or insurance under which benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or equivalent self-insurance.

"Health insurance issuer" means an insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization (including a health maintenance organization and a voluntary health services plan) that is authorized to transact health insurance business in this State. Such term does not include a group health plan.

"Health Maintenance Organization" means an organization as defined in the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Hospice" means a program as defined in and licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

"Hospital" means a duly licensed institution as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act, an institution that meets all comparable conditions and requirements in effect in the state in which it is located, or the University of Illinois Hospital as defined in the University of Illinois Hospital Act.

"Individual health insurance coverage" means health insurance coverage offered to individuals in the individual market, but does not include short-term, limited-duration insurance.

"Insured" means any individual resident of this State who is eligible to receive benefits from any insurer (including health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan) or health insurance issuer as defined in this Section.

"Insurer" means any insurance company authorized to transact health insurance business in this State and any corporation that provides medical services and is organized under the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act or the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Medical assistance" means the State medical assistance or medical assistance no grant (MANG) programs provided under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Articles V (Medical Assistance) and VI (General Assistance) of the Illinois Public Aid Code (or any successor program) or under any similar program of health care benefits in a state other than Illinois.

"Medically necessary" means that a service, drug, or supply is necessary and appropriate for the diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury in accord with generally accepted standards of medical practice at the time the service, drug, or supply is provided. When specifically applied to a confinement it further means that the diagnosis or treatment of the covered person's medical symptoms or condition cannot be safely provided to that person as an outpatient. A service, drug, or supply shall not be medically necessary if it: (i) is investigational, experimental, or for research purposes; or (ii) is provided solely for the convenience of the patient, the patient's family, physician, hospital, or any other provider; or (iii) exceeds in scope, duration, or intensity that level of care that is needed to provide safe, adequate, and appropriate diagnosis or treatment; or (iv) could have been omitted without adversely affecting the covered person's condition or the quality of medical care; or (v) involves the use of a medical device, drug, or substance not formally approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Medical care" means the ordinary and usual professional services rendered by a physician or other specified provider during a professional visit for treatment of an illness or injury.

"Medicare" means coverage under both Part A and Part B of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395, et seq.

"Minimum premium plan" means an arrangement whereby a specified amount of health care claims is self-funded, but the insurance company assumes the risk that claims will exceed that amount.

"Participating transplant center" means a hospital designated by the Board as a preferred or exclusive provider of services for one or more specified human organ or tissue transplants for which the hospital has signed an agreement with the Board to accept a transplant payment allowance for all expenses related to the transplant during a transplant benefit period.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine pursuant to the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Plan" means the Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan established by this Act.

"Plan of operation" means the plan of operation of the Plan, including articles, bylaws and operating rules, adopted by the board pursuant to this Act.

"Provider" means any hospital, skilled nursing facility, hospice, home health agency, physician, registered pharmacist acting within the scope of that registration, or any other person or entity licensed in Illinois to furnish medical care.

"Qualified high risk pool" has the same meaning given that term in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

"Resident" means a person who is and continues to be legally domiciled and physically residing on a permanent and full-time basis in a place of permanent habitation in this State that remains that person's principal residence and from which that person is absent only for temporary or transitory purpose.

"Skilled nursing facility" means a facility or that portion of a facility that is licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or a comparable licensing authority in another state to provide skilled nursing care.

"Stop-loss coverage" means an arrangement whereby an insurer insures against the risk that any one claim will exceed a specific dollar amount or that the entire loss of a self-insurance plan will exceed a specific amount.

"Third party administrator" means an administrator as defined in Section 511.101 of the Illinois Insurance Code who is licensed under Article XXXI 1/4 of that Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-346, eff. 8-12-11.)

Section 540. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4-9.1 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/4-9.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1409.2-1)

Sec. 4-9.1. Dependent Coverage Termination.

(a) The attainment of a limiting age under a group contract or evidence of coverage which provides that coverage of a dependent person of an enrollee shall terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons does not operate to terminate the coverage of a person who, because of a disabling handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(b) For purposes of subsection (a), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(c) Proof of such incapacity and dependency shall be furnished to the health maintenance organization by the enrollee within 31 days of a request for the information by the health maintenance organization and subsequently as may be required by the health maintenance organization, but not more frequently than annually. In the absence of proof submitted within 31 days of such inquiry that such dependent is a person who has a disability and is dependent disabled and dependent person, the health maintenance organization may terminate coverage of such person at or after attainment of the limiting age. In the absence of such inquiry, coverage of any person who has a disability and is a dependent disabled and dependent person shall continue through the term of the group contract or evidence of coverage or any extension or renewal thereof.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 545. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/50)

Sec. 50. Prohibited practices.

(a) It is a violation of this Act for any person to enter into a viatical settlement contract prior to the application of or issuance of a policy that is the subject of the viatical settlement contract. It is a violation of this Act for any person to enter into stranger-originated life insurance or STOLI as defined by this Act.

(b) It is a violation of this Act for any person to enter into a viatical settlement contract within a 2-year period commencing with the date of issuance of the insurance policy unless the viator certifies to the viatical settlement provider that one or more of the following conditions have been met within the 2-year period:

(1) The policy was issued upon the viator's exercise of conversion rights arising out of a group or individual policy, provided the total of the time covered under the conversion policy plus the time covered under the prior policy is at least 24 months. The time covered under a group policy shall be calculated without regard to any change in insurance carriers, provided the coverage has been continuous and under the same group sponsorship.

(2) The viator certifies and submits independent evidence to the viatical settlement provider that one or more of the following conditions have been met within the 2-year period:

(A) the viator or insured is terminally or chronically ill;

(B) the viator's spouse dies;

(C) the viator divorces his or her spouse;

(D) the viator retires from full-time employment;

(E) the viator becomes a person with a physical or mental disability physically or mentally disabled and a physician determines that the disability prevents the viator from maintaining full-time employment;

(F) a court of competent jurisdiction enters a final order, judgment, or decree on the application of a creditor of the viator, adjudicating the viator bankrupt or insolvent, or approving a petition seeking reorganization of the viator or appointing a receiver, trustee, or liquidator to all or a substantial part of the viator's assets;

(G) the sole beneficiary of the policy is a family member of the viator and the beneficiary dies; or

(H) any other condition that the Director may determine by regulation to be an extraordinary circumstance for the viator or the insured.

(c) Copies of the independent evidence described in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section and documents required by Section 45 shall be submitted to the insurer when the viatical settlement provider or any other party entering into a viatical settlement contract with a viator submits a request to the insurer for verification of coverage. The copies shall be accompanied by a letter of attestation from the viatical settlement provider that the copies are true and correct copies of the documents received by the viatical settlement provider.

(d) If the viatical settlement provider submits to the insurer a copy of the owner or insured's certification described in and the independent evidence required by paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section when the viatical settlement provider submits a request to the insurer to effect the transfer of the policy to the viatical settlement provider, then the copy shall be deemed to conclusively establish that the viatical settlement contract satisfies the requirements of this Section, and the insurer shall timely respond to the request.

(e) No insurer may, as a condition of responding to a request for verification of coverage or effecting the transfer of a policy pursuant to a viatical settlement contract, require that the viator, insured, viatical settlement provider, or viatical settlement broker sign any forms, disclosures, consent, or waiver form that has not been expressly approved by the Director for use in connection with viatical settlement contracts in this State.

(f) Upon receipt of a properly completed request for change of ownership or beneficiary of a policy, the insurer shall respond in writing within 30 calendar days to confirm that the change has been effected or specifying the reasons why the requested change cannot be processed. No insurer shall unreasonably delay effecting change of ownership or beneficiary or seek to interfere with any viatical settlement contract lawfully entered into in this State.

(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 550. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 15a as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/15a) (from Ch. 32, par. 609a)

Sec. 15a. Dependent Coverage Termination.

(a) The attainment of a limiting age under a voluntary health services plan which provides that coverage of a dependent of a subscriber terminates upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent persons specified in the subscription certificate does not operate to terminate the coverage of a person who, because of a disabling handicapped condition that occurred before attainment of the limiting age, is incapable of self-sustaining employment and is dependent on his or her parents or other care providers for lifetime care and supervision.

(b) For purposes of subsection (a), "dependent on other care providers" is defined as requiring a Community Integrated Living Arrangement, group home, supervised apartment, or other residential services licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities), the Department of Public Health, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid).

(c) The corporation may require, at reasonable intervals from the date of the first claim filed on behalf of the person with a disability who is dependent disabled and dependent person or from the date the corporation receives notice of a covered person's disability and dependency, proof of the person's disability and dependency.

(d) This amendatory Act of 1969 is applicable to subscription certificates issued or renewed after October 27, 1969.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 555. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 13-703 and 16-108.5 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/13-703) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 13-703)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)

Sec. 13-703. (a) The Commission shall design and implement a program whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications device capable of servicing the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability together with a single party line, at no charge additional to the basic exchange rate, to any subscriber who is certified as having a hearing or speech disability by a licensed physician, speech-language pathologist, audiologist or a qualified State agency and to any subscriber which is an organization serving the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability as determined and specified by the Commission pursuant to subsection (d).

(b) The Commission shall design and implement a program, whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications relay system, using third party intervention to connect those persons having a hearing or speech disability with persons of normal hearing by way of intercommunications devices and the telephone system, making available reasonable access to all phases of public telephone service to persons who have a hearing or speech disability. In order to design a telecommunications relay system which will meet the requirements of those persons with a hearing or speech disability available at a reasonable cost, the Commission shall initiate an investigation and conduct public hearings to determine the most cost-effective method of providing telecommunications relay service to those persons who have a hearing or speech disability when using telecommunications devices and therein solicit the advice, counsel, and physical assistance of Statewide nonprofit consumer organizations that serve persons with hearing or speech disabilities in such hearings and during the development and implementation of the system. The Commission shall phase in this program, on a geographical basis, as soon as is practicable, but no later than June 30, 1990.

(c) The Commission shall establish a rate recovery mechanism, authorizing charges in an amount to be determined by the Commission for each line of a subscriber to allow telecommunications carriers providing local exchange service to recover costs as they are incurred under this Section.

(d) The Commission shall determine and specify those organizations serving the needs of those persons having a hearing or speech disability that shall receive a telecommunications device and in which offices the equipment shall be installed in the case of an organization having more than one office. For the purposes of this Section, "organizations serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities" means centers for independent living as described in Section 12a of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act and not-for-profit organizations whose primary purpose is serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities. The Commission shall direct the telecommunications carriers subject to its jurisdiction and this Section to comply with its determinations and specifications in this regard.

(e) As used in this Section, the phrase "telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service" includes, without otherwise limiting the meaning of the term, telecommunications carriers which are purely mutual concerns, having no rates or charges for services, but paying the operating expenses by assessment upon the members of such a company and no other person.

(f) Interconnected VoIP service providers in Illinois shall collect and remit assessments determined in accordance with this Section in a competitively neutral manner in the same manner as a telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service. Interconnected VoIP services shall not be considered an intrastate telecommunications service for the purposes of this Section in a manner inconsistent with federal law or Federal Communications Commission regulation.

(g) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 96-927, eff. 6-15-10.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-108.5)

Sec. 16-108.5. Infrastructure investment and modernization; regulatory reform.

(a) (Blank).

(b) For purposes of this Section, "participating utility" means an electric utility or a combination utility serving more than 1,000,000 customers in Illinois that voluntarily elects and commits to undertake (i) the infrastructure investment program consisting of the commitments and obligations described in this subsection (b) and (ii) the customer assistance program consisting of the commitments and obligations described in subsection (b-10) of this Section, notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and without obtaining any approvals from the Commission or any other agency other than as set forth in this Section, regardless of whether any such approval would otherwise be required. "Combination utility" means a utility that, as of January 1, 2011, provided electric service to at least one million retail customers in Illinois and gas service to at least 500,000 retail customers in Illinois. A participating utility shall recover the expenditures made under the infrastructure investment program through the ratemaking process, including, but not limited to, the performance-based formula rate and process set forth in this Section.

During the infrastructure investment program's peak program year, a participating utility other than a combination utility shall create 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, and a participating utility that is a combination utility shall create 450 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois related to the provision of electric service. These jobs shall include direct jobs, contractor positions, and induced jobs, but shall not include any portion of a job commitment, not specifically contingent on an amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly becoming law, between a participating utility and a labor union that existed on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and that has not yet been fulfilled. A portion of the full-time equivalent jobs created by each participating utility shall include incremental personnel hired subsequent to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. For purposes of this Section, "peak program year" means the consecutive 12-month period with the highest number of full-time equivalent jobs that occurs between the beginning of investment year 2 and the end of investment year 4.

A participating utility shall meet one of the following commitments, as applicable:

(1) Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility other than a combination utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or, beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, except as provided in subsection (b-5):

(A) over a 5-year period, invest an estimated $1,300,000,000 in electric system upgrades, modernization projects, and training facilities, including, but not limited to:

(i) distribution infrastructure improvements totaling an estimated $1,000,000,000, including underground residential distribution cable injection and replacement and mainline cable system refurbishment and replacement projects;

(ii) training facility construction or upgrade projects totaling an estimated $10,000,000, provided that, at a minimum, one such facility shall be located in a municipality having a population of more than 2 million residents and one such facility shall be located in a municipality having a population of more than 150,000 residents but fewer than 170,000 residents; any such new facility located in a municipality having a population of more than 2 million residents must be designed for the purpose of obtaining, and the owner of the facility shall apply for, certification under the United States Green Building Council's Leadership in Energy Efficiency Design Green Building Rating System;

(iii) wood pole inspection, treatment, and replacement programs;

(iv) an estimated $200,000,000 for reducing the susceptibility of certain circuits to storm-related damage, including, but not limited to, high winds, thunderstorms, and ice storms; improvements may include, but are not limited to, overhead to underground conversion and other engineered outcomes for circuits; the participating utility shall prioritize the selection of circuits based on each circuit's historical susceptibility to storm-related damage and the ability to provide the greatest customer benefit upon completion of the improvements; to be eligible for improvement, the participating utility's ability to maintain proper tree clearances surrounding the overhead circuit must not have been impeded by third parties; and

(B) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $1,300,000,000 to upgrade and modernize its transmission and distribution infrastructure and in Smart Grid electric system upgrades, including, but not limited to:

(i) additional smart meters;

(ii) distribution automation;

(iii) associated cyber secure data communication network; and

(iv) substation micro-processor relay upgrades.

(2) Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility that is a combination utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or, beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, except as provided in subsection (b-5):

(A) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $265,000,000 in electric system upgrades, modernization projects, and training facilities, including, but not limited to:

(i) distribution infrastructure improvements totaling an estimated $245,000,000, which may include bulk supply substations, transformers, reconductoring, and rebuilding overhead distribution and sub-transmission lines, underground residential distribution cable injection and replacement and mainline cable system refurbishment and replacement projects;

(ii) training facility construction or upgrade projects totaling an estimated $1,000,000; any such new facility must be designed for the purpose of obtaining, and the owner of the facility shall apply for, certification under the United States Green Building Council's Leadership in Energy Efficiency Design Green Building Rating System; and

(iii) wood pole inspection, treatment, and replacement programs; and

(B) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $360,000,000 to upgrade and modernize its transmission and distribution infrastructure and in Smart Grid electric system upgrades, including, but not limited to:

(i) additional smart meters;

(ii) distribution automation;

(iii) associated cyber secure data communication network; and

(iv) substation micro-processor relay upgrades.

For purposes of this Section, "Smart Grid electric system upgrades" shall have the meaning set forth in subsection (a) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act.

The investments in the infrastructure investment program described in this subsection (b) shall be incremental to the participating utility's annual capital investment program, as defined by, for purposes of this subsection (b), the participating utility's average capital spend for calendar years 2008, 2009, and 2010 as reported in the applicable Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) Form 1; provided that where one or more utilities have merged, the average capital spend shall be determined using the aggregate of the merged utilities' capital spend reported in FERC Form 1 for the years 2008, 2009, and 2010. A participating utility may add reasonable construction ramp-up and ramp-down time to the investment periods specified in this subsection (b). For each such investment period, the ramp-up and ramp-down time shall not exceed a total of 6 months.

Within 60 days after filing a tariff under subsection (c) of this Section, a participating utility shall submit to the Commission its plan, including scope, schedule, and staffing, for satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments pursuant to this subsection (b). The submitted plan shall include a schedule and staffing plan for the next calendar year. The plan shall also include a plan for the creation, operation, and administration of a Smart Grid test bed as described in subsection (c) of Section 16-108.8. The plan need not allocate the work equally over the respective periods, but should allocate material increments throughout such periods commensurate with the work to be undertaken. No later than April 1 of each subsequent year, the utility shall submit to the Commission a report that includes any updates to the plan, a schedule for the next calendar year, the expenditures made for the prior calendar year and cumulatively, and the number of full-time equivalent jobs created for the prior calendar year and cumulatively. If the utility is materially deficient in satisfying a schedule or staffing plan, then the report must also include a corrective action plan to address the deficiency. The fact that the plan, implementation of the plan, or a schedule changes shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of the infrastructure investment program, plan, or schedule. Further, no later than 45 days following the last day of the first, second, and third quarters of each year of the plan, a participating utility shall submit to the Commission a verified quarterly report for the prior quarter that includes (i) the total number of full-time equivalent jobs created during the prior quarter, (ii) the total number of employees as of the last day of the prior quarter, (iii) the total number of full-time equivalent hours in each job classification or job title, (iv) the total number of incremental employees and contractors in support of the investments undertaken pursuant to this subsection (b) for the prior quarter, and (v) any other information that the Commission may require by rule.

With respect to the participating utility's peak job commitment, if, after considering the utility's corrective action plan and compliance thereunder, the Commission enters an order finding, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility did not satisfy its peak job commitment described in this subsection (b) for reasons that are reasonably within its control, then the Commission shall also determine, after consideration of the evidence, including, but not limited to, evidence submitted by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the utility, the deficiency in the number of full-time equivalent jobs during the peak program year due to such failure. The Commission shall notify the Department of any proceeding that is initiated pursuant to this paragraph. For each full-time equivalent job deficiency during the peak program year that the Commission finds as set forth in this paragraph, the participating utility shall, within 30 days after the entry of the Commission's order, pay $6,000 to a fund for training grants administered under Section 605-800 of The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law, which shall not be a recoverable expense.

With respect to the participating utility's investment amount commitments, if, after considering the utility's corrective action plan and compliance thereunder, the Commission enters an order finding, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility is not satisfying its investment amount commitments described in this subsection (b), then the utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. In such event, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

If the Commission finds that a participating utility is no longer eligible to update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, or the performance-based formula rate is otherwise terminated, then the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under this subsection (b) shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order.

In meeting the obligations of this subsection (b), to the extent feasible and consistent with State and federal law, the investments under the infrastructure investment program should provide employment opportunities for all segments of the population and workforce, including minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises, and shall not, consistent with State and federal law, discriminate based on race or socioeconomic status.

(b-5) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Commission from investigating the prudence and reasonableness of the expenditures made under the infrastructure investment program during the annual review required by subsection (d) of this Section and shall, as part of such investigation, determine whether the utility's actual costs under the program are prudent and reasonable. The fact that a participating utility invests more than the minimum amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section or its plan shall not imply imprudence or unreasonableness.

If the participating utility finds that it is implementing its plan for satisfying the infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section at a cost below the estimated amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section, then the utility may file a petition with the Commission requesting that it be permitted to satisfy its commitments by spending less than the estimated amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving, or approving as modified, or denying each such petition within 150 days after the filing of the petition.

In no event, absent General Assembly approval, shall the capital investment costs incurred by a participating utility other than a combination utility in satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section exceed $3,000,000,000 or, for a participating utility that is a combination utility, $720,000,000. If the participating utility's updated cost estimates for satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section exceed the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5), then it shall submit a report to the Commission that identifies the increased costs and explains the reason or reasons for the increased costs no later than the year in which the utility estimates it will exceed the limitation. The Commission shall review the report and shall, within 90 days after the participating utility files the report, report to the General Assembly its findings regarding the participating utility's report. If the General Assembly does not amend the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5), then the utility may modify its plan so as not to exceed the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5) and may propose corresponding changes to the metrics established pursuant to subparagraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, and the Commission may modify the metrics and incremental savings goals established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section accordingly.

(b-10) All participating utilities shall make contributions for an energy low-income and support program in accordance with this subsection. Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and without obtaining any approvals from the Commission or any other agency other than as set forth in this Section, regardless of whether any such approval would otherwise be required, a participating utility other than a combination utility shall pay $10,000,000 per year for 5 years and a participating utility that is a combination utility shall pay $1,000,000 per year for 10 years to the energy low-income and support program, which is intended to fund customer assistance programs with the primary purpose being avoidance of imminent disconnection. Such programs may include:

(1) a residential hardship program that may partner with community-based organizations, including senior citizen organizations, and provides grants to low-income residential customers, including low-income senior citizens, who demonstrate a hardship;

(2) a program that provides grants and other bill payment concessions to veterans with disabilities disabled veterans who demonstrate a hardship and members of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or members of the Illinois National Guard who are on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor and who demonstrate a hardship;

(3) a budget assistance program that provides tools and education to low-income senior citizens to assist them with obtaining information regarding energy usage and effective means of managing energy costs;

(4) a non-residential special hardship program that provides grants to non-residential customers such as small businesses and non-profit organizations that demonstrate a hardship, including those providing services to senior citizen and low-income customers; and

(5) a performance-based assistance program that provides grants to encourage residential customers to make on-time payments by matching a portion of the customer's payments or providing credits towards arrearages.

The payments made by a participating utility pursuant to this subsection (b-10) shall not be a recoverable expense. A participating utility may elect to fund either new or existing customer assistance programs, including, but not limited to, those that are administered by the utility.

Programs that use funds that are provided by a participating utility to reduce utility bills may be implemented through tariffs that are filed with and reviewed by the Commission. If a utility elects to file tariffs with the Commission to implement all or a portion of the programs, those tariffs shall, regardless of the date actually filed, be deemed accepted and approved, and shall become effective on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The participating utilities whose customers benefit from the funds that are disbursed as contemplated in this Section shall file annual reports documenting the disbursement of those funds with the Commission. The Commission has the authority to audit disbursement of the funds to ensure they were disbursed consistently with this Section.

If the Commission finds that a participating utility is no longer eligible to update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, or the performance-based formula rate is otherwise terminated, then the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under this subsection (b-10) shall immediately terminate.

(c) A participating utility may elect to recover its delivery services costs through a performance-based formula rate approved by the Commission, which shall specify the cost components that form the basis of the rate charged to customers with sufficient specificity to operate in a standardized manner and be updated annually with transparent information that reflects the utility's actual costs to be recovered during the applicable rate year, which is the period beginning with the first billing day of January and extending through the last billing day of the following December. In the event the utility recovers a portion of its costs through automatic adjustment clause tariffs on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the utility may elect to continue to recover these costs through such tariffs, but then these costs shall not be recovered through the performance-based formula rate. In the event the participating utility, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, filed electric delivery services tariffs with the Commission pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act that are related to the recovery of its electric delivery services costs that are still pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, at the time it files its performance-based formula rate tariff with the Commission, also file a notice of withdrawal with the Commission to withdraw the electric delivery services tariffs previously filed pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act. Upon receipt of such notice, the Commission shall dismiss with prejudice any docket that had been initiated to investigate the electric delivery services tariffs filed pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act, and such tariffs and the record related thereto shall not be the subject of any further hearing, investigation, or proceeding of any kind related to rates for electric delivery services.

The performance-based formula rate shall be implemented through a tariff filed with the Commission consistent with the provisions of this subsection (c) that shall be applicable to all delivery services customers. The Commission shall initiate and conduct an investigation of the tariff in a manner consistent with the provisions of this subsection (c) and the provisions of Article IX of this Act to the extent they do not conflict with this subsection (c). Except in the case where the Commission finds, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility is not satisfying its investment amount commitments under subsection (b) of this Section, the performance-based formula rate shall remain in effect at the discretion of the utility. The performance-based formula rate approved by the Commission shall do the following:

(1) Provide for the recovery of the utility's actual costs of delivery services that are prudently incurred and reasonable in amount consistent with Commission practice and law. The sole fact that a cost differs from that incurred in a prior calendar year or that an investment is different from that made in a prior calendar year shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of that cost or investment.

(2) Reflect the utility's actual year-end capital structure for the applicable calendar year, excluding goodwill, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law.

(3) Include a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the following:

(A) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and

(B) 580 basis points.

At such time as the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System ceases to include the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication, the monthly average yields of the U.S. Treasury bonds then having the longest duration published by the Board of Governors in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication shall instead be used for purposes of this paragraph (3).

(4) Permit and set forth protocols, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law, for the following:

(A) recovery of incentive compensation expense that is based on the achievement of operational metrics, including metrics related to budget controls, outage duration and frequency, safety, customer service, efficiency and productivity, and environmental compliance. Incentive compensation expense that is based on net income or an affiliate's earnings per share shall not be recoverable under the performance-based formula rate;

(B) recovery of pension and other post-employment benefits expense, provided that such costs are supported by an actuarial study;

(C) recovery of severance costs, provided that if the amount is over $3,700,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility or $10,000,000 for a participating utility that serves more than 3 million retail customers, then the full amount shall be amortized consistent with subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (4);

(D) investment return at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of long-term debt, on the pension assets as, and in the amount, reported in Account 186 (or in such other Account or Accounts as such asset may subsequently be recorded) of the utility's most recently filed FERC Form 1, net of deferred tax benefits;

(E) recovery of the expenses related to the Commission proceeding under this subsection (c) to approve this performance-based formula rate and initial rates or to subsequent proceedings related to the formula, provided that the recovery shall be amortized over a 3-year period; recovery of expenses related to the annual Commission proceedings under subsection (d) of this Section to review the inputs to the performance-based formula rate shall be expensed and recovered through the performance-based formula rate;

(F) amortization over a 5-year period of the full amount of each charge or credit that exceeds $3,700,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility or $10,000,000 for a participating utility that serves more than 3 million retail customers in the applicable calendar year and that relates to a workforce reduction program's severance costs, changes in accounting rules, changes in law, compliance with any Commission-initiated audit, or a single storm or other similar expense, provided that any unamortized balance shall be reflected in rate base. For purposes of this subparagraph (F), changes in law includes any enactment, repeal, or amendment in a law, ordinance, rule, regulation, interpretation, permit, license, consent, or order, including those relating to taxes, accounting, or to environmental matters, or in the interpretation or application thereof by any governmental authority occurring after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly;

(G) recovery of existing regulatory assets over the periods previously authorized by the Commission;

(H) historical weather normalized billing determinants; and

(I) allocation methods for common costs.

(5) Provide that if the participating utility's earned rate of return on common equity related to the provision of delivery services for the prior rate year (calculated using costs and capital structure approved by the Commission as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (c), consistent with this Section, in accordance with Commission rules and orders, including, but not limited to, adjustments for goodwill, and after any Commission-ordered disallowances and taxes) is more than 50 basis points higher than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section), then the participating utility shall apply a credit through the performance-based formula rate that reflects an amount equal to the value of that portion of the earned rate of return on common equity that is more than 50 basis points higher than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section) for the prior rate year, adjusted for taxes. If the participating utility's earned rate of return on common equity related to the provision of delivery services for the prior rate year (calculated using costs and capital structure approved by the Commission as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (c), consistent with this Section, in accordance with Commission rules and orders, including, but not limited to, adjustments for goodwill, and after any Commission-ordered disallowances and taxes) is more than 50 basis points less than the return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section), then the participating utility shall apply a charge through the performance-based formula rate that reflects an amount equal to the value of that portion of the earned rate of return on common equity that is more than 50 basis points less than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section) for the prior rate year, adjusted for taxes.

(6) Provide for an annual reconciliation, as described in subsection (d) of this Section, with interest, of the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, with what the revenue requirement would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

The utility shall file, together with its tariff, final data based on its most recently filed FERC Form 1, plus projected plant additions and correspondingly updated depreciation reserve and expense for the calendar year in which the tariff and data are filed, that shall populate the performance-based formula rate and set the initial delivery services rates under the formula. For purposes of this Section, "FERC Form 1" means the Annual Report of Major Electric Utilities, Licensees and Others that electric utilities are required to file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission under the Federal Power Act, Sections 3, 4(a), 304 and 209, modified as necessary to be consistent with 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 415 as of May 1, 2011. Nothing in this Section is intended to allow costs that are not otherwise recoverable to be recoverable by virtue of inclusion in FERC Form 1.

After the utility files its proposed performance-based formula rate structure and protocols and initial rates, the Commission shall initiate a docket to review the filing. The Commission shall enter an order approving, or approving as modified, the performance-based formula rate, including the initial rates, as just and reasonable within 270 days after the date on which the tariff was filed, or, if the tariff is filed within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then by May 31, 2012. Such review shall be based on the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, the Commission applies in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The initial rates shall take effect within 30 days after the Commission's order approving the performance-based formula rate tariff.

Until such time as the Commission approves a different rate design and cost allocation pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, rate design and cost allocation across customer classes shall be consistent with the Commission's most recent order regarding the participating utility's request for a general increase in its delivery services rates.

Subsequent changes to the performance-based formula rate structure or protocols shall be made as set forth in Section 9-201 of this Act, but nothing in this subsection (c) is intended to limit the Commission's authority under Article IX and other provisions of this Act to initiate an investigation of a participating utility's performance-based formula rate tariff, provided that any such changes shall be consistent with paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection (c). Any change ordered by the Commission shall be made at the same time new rates take effect following the Commission's next order pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, provided that the new rates take effect no less than 30 days after the date on which the Commission issues an order adopting the change.

A participating utility that files a tariff pursuant to this subsection (c) must submit a one-time $200,000 filing fee at the time the Chief Clerk of the Commission accepts the filing, which shall be a recoverable expense.

In the event the performance-based formula rate is terminated, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive rate adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs. At such time that the performance-based formula rate is terminated, the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under subsection (b) of this Section shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order issued under subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Subsequent to the Commission's issuance of an order approving the utility's performance-based formula rate structure and protocols, and initial rates under subsection (c) of this Section, the utility shall file, on or before May 1 of each year, with the Chief Clerk of the Commission its updated cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate for the applicable rate year and the corresponding new charges. Each such filing shall conform to the following requirements and include the following information:

(1) The inputs to the performance-based formula rate for the applicable rate year shall be based on final historical data reflected in the utility's most recently filed annual FERC Form 1 plus projected plant additions and correspondingly updated depreciation reserve and expense for the calendar year in which the inputs are filed. The filing shall also include a reconciliation of the revenue requirement that was in effect for the prior rate year (as set by the cost inputs for the prior rate year) with the actual revenue requirement for the prior rate year (determined using a year-end rate base) that uses amounts reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1 that reports the actual costs for the prior rate year. Any over-collection or under-collection indicated by such reconciliation shall be reflected as a credit against, or recovered as an additional charge to, respectively, with interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, the charges for the applicable rate year. Provided, however, that the first such reconciliation shall be for the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section and shall reconcile (i) the revenue requirement or requirements established by the rate order or orders in effect from time to time during such calendar year (weighted, as applicable) with (ii) the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for that calendar year calculated pursuant to the performance-based formula rate using (A) actual costs for that year as reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1, and (B) for the first such reconciliation only, the cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of 590 basis points plus the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication. The first such reconciliation is not intended to provide for the recovery of costs previously excluded from rates based on a prior Commission order finding of imprudence or unreasonableness. Each reconciliation shall be certified by the participating utility in the same manner that FERC Form 1 is certified. The filing shall also include the charge or credit, if any, resulting from the calculation required by paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of this Section.

Notwithstanding anything that may be to the contrary, the intent of the reconciliation is to ultimately reconcile the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, with what the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for the applicable calendar year would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

(2) The new charges shall take effect beginning on the first billing day of the following January billing period and remain in effect through the last billing day of the next December billing period regardless of whether the Commission enters upon a hearing pursuant to this subsection (d).

(3) The filing shall include relevant and necessary data and documentation for the applicable rate year that is consistent with the Commission's rules applicable to a filing for a general increase in rates or any rules adopted by the Commission to implement this Section. Normalization adjustments shall not be required. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or Act or any rule or other requirement adopted by the Commission, a participating utility that is a combination utility with more than one rate zone shall not be required to file a separate set of such data and documentation for each rate zone and may combine such data and documentation into a single set of schedules.

Within 45 days after the utility files its annual update of cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate, the Commission shall have the authority, either upon complaint or its own initiative, but with reasonable notice, to enter upon a hearing concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility to be recovered during the applicable rate year that are reflected in the inputs to the performance-based formula rate derived from the utility's FERC Form 1. During the course of the hearing, each objection shall be stated with particularity and evidence provided in support thereof, after which the utility shall have the opportunity to rebut the evidence. Discovery shall be allowed consistent with the Commission's Rules of Practice, which Rules shall be enforced by the Commission or the assigned hearing examiner. The Commission shall apply the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, in the hearing as it would apply in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The Commission shall not, however, have the authority in a proceeding under this subsection (d) to consider or order any changes to the structure or protocols of the performance-based formula rate approved pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. In a proceeding under this subsection (d), the Commission shall enter its order no later than the earlier of 240 days after the utility's filing of its annual update of cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate or December 31. The Commission's determinations of the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred for the applicable calendar year shall be final upon entry of the Commission's order and shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other Commission proceeding, case, docket, order, rule or regulation, provided, however, that nothing in this subsection (d) shall prohibit a party from petitioning the Commission to rehear or appeal to the courts the order pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

In the event the Commission does not, either upon complaint or its own initiative, enter upon a hearing within 45 days after the utility files the annual update of cost inputs to its performance-based formula rate, then the costs incurred for the applicable calendar year shall be deemed prudent and reasonable, and the filed charges shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other proceeding, case, docket, order, rule, or regulation.

A participating utility's first filing of the updated cost inputs, and any Commission investigation of such inputs pursuant to this subsection (d) shall proceed notwithstanding the fact that the Commission's investigation under subsection (c) of this Section is still pending and notwithstanding any other law, order, rule, or Commission practice to the contrary.

(e) Nothing in subsections (c) or (d) of this Section shall prohibit the Commission from investigating, or a participating utility from filing, revenue-neutral tariff changes related to rate design of a performance-based formula rate that has been placed into effect for the utility. Following approval of a participating utility's performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, the utility shall make a filing with the Commission within one year after the effective date of the performance-based formula rate tariff that proposes changes to the tariff to incorporate the findings of any final rate design orders of the Commission applicable to the participating utility and entered subsequent to the Commission's approval of the tariff. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving, or approving with modification, the proposed changes to the performance-based formula rate tariff within 240 days after the utility's filing. Following such approval, the utility shall make a filing with the Commission during each subsequent 3-year period that either proposes revenue-neutral tariff changes or re-files the existing tariffs without change, which shall present the Commission with an opportunity to suspend the tariffs and consider revenue-neutral tariff changes related to rate design.

(f) Within 30 days after the filing of a tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, each participating utility shall develop and file with the Commission multi-year metrics designed to achieve, ratably (i.e., in equal segments) over a 10-year period, improvement over baseline performance values as follows:

(1) Twenty percent improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010.

(2) Fifteen percent improvement in the system Customer Average Interruption Duration Index, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010.

(3) For a participating utility other than a combination utility, 20% improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index for its Southern Region, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010. For purposes of this paragraph (3), Southern Region shall have the meaning set forth in the participating utility's most recent report filed pursuant to Section 16-125 of this Act.

(3.5) For a participating utility other than a combination utility, 20% improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index for its Northeastern Region, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010. For purposes of this paragraph (3.5), Northeastern Region shall have the meaning set forth in the participating utility's most recent report filed pursuant to Section 16-125 of this Act.

(4) Seventy-five percent improvement in the total number of customers who exceed the service reliability targets as set forth in subparagraphs (A) through (C) of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 411.140 as of May 1, 2011, using 2010 as the baseline year.

(5) Reduction in issuance of estimated electric bills: 90% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility, and 56% improvement for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average number of estimated bills for the years 2008 through 2010.

(6) Consumption on inactive meters: 90% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility, and 56% improvement for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average unbilled kilowatthours for the years 2009 and 2010.

(7) Unaccounted for energy: 50% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility using a baseline of the non-technical line loss unaccounted for energy kilowatthours for the year 2009.

(8) Uncollectible expense: reduce uncollectible expense by at least $30,000,000 for a participating utility other than a combination utility and by at least $3,500,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average uncollectible expense for the years 2008 through 2010.

(9) Opportunities for minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises: design a performance metric regarding the creation of opportunities for minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises consistent with State and federal law using a base performance value of the percentage of the participating utility's capital expenditures that were paid to minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises in 2010.

The definitions set forth in 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 411.20 as of May 1, 2011 shall be used for purposes of calculating performance under paragraphs (1) through (3.5) of this subsection (f), provided, however, that the participating utility may exclude up to 9 extreme weather event days from such calculation for each year, and provided further that the participating utility shall exclude 9 extreme weather event days when calculating each year of the baseline period to the extent that there are 9 such days in a given year of the baseline period. For purposes of this Section, an extreme weather event day is a 24-hour calendar day (beginning at 12:00 a.m. and ending at 11:59 p.m.) during which any weather event (e.g., storm, tornado) caused interruptions for 10,000 or more of the participating utility's customers for 3 hours or more. If there are more than 9 extreme weather event days in a year, then the utility may choose no more than 9 extreme weather event days to exclude, provided that the same extreme weather event days are excluded from each of the calculations performed under paragraphs (1) through (3.5) of this subsection (f).

The metrics shall include incremental performance goals for each year of the 10-year period, which shall be designed to demonstrate that the utility is on track to achieve the performance goal in each category at the end of the 10-year period. The utility shall elect when the 10-year period shall commence for the metrics set forth in subparagraphs (1) through (4) and (9) of this subsection (f), provided that it begins no later than 14 months following the date on which the utility begins investing pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, and when the 10-year period shall commence for the metrics set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f), provided that it begins no later than 14 months following the date on which the Commission enters its order approving the utility's Advanced Metering Infrastructure Deployment Plan pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act.

The metrics and performance goals set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f) are based on the assumptions that the participating utility may fully implement the technology described in subsection (b) of this Section, including utilizing the full functionality of such technology and that there is no requirement for personal on-site notification. If the utility is unable to meet the metrics and performance goals set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f) for such reasons, and the Commission so finds after notice and hearing, then the utility shall be excused from compliance, but only to the limited extent achievement of the affected metrics and performance goals was hindered by the less than full implementation.

(f-5) The financial penalties applicable to the metrics described in subparagraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, as applicable, shall be applied through an adjustment to the participating utility's return on equity of no more than a total of 30 basis points in each of the first 3 years, of no more than a total of 34 basis points in each of the 3 years thereafter, and of no more than a total of 38 basis points in each of the 4 years thereafter, as follows:

(1) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (f) of this Section,

(A) for each year that a participating utility other than a combination utility does not achieve the annual goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points; and

(B) for each year that a participating utility that is a combination utility does not achieve the annual goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 10 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 12 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 14 basis points.

(2) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(3) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (3.5) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that a participating utility other than a combination utility does not achieve both such goals, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(4) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(5) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to subparagraph (5) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve at least 95% of each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced by 5 basis points for each such unachieved goal.

(6) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraphs (6), (7), and (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, as applicable, which together measure non-operational customer savings and benefits relating to the implementation of the Advanced Metering Infrastructure Deployment Plan, as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, the performance under each such goal shall be calculated in terms of the percentage of the goal achieved. The percentage of goal achieved for each of the goals shall be aggregated, and an average percentage value calculated, for each year of the 10-year period. If the utility does not achieve an average percentage value in a given year of at least 95%, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced by 5 basis points.

The financial penalties shall be applied as described in this subsection (f-5) for the 12-month period in which the deficiency occurred through a separate tariff mechanism, which shall be filed by the utility together with its metrics. In the event the formula rate tariff established pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section terminates, the utility's obligations under subsection (f) of this Section and this subsection (f-5) shall also terminate, provided, however, that the tariff mechanism established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section and this subsection (f-5) shall remain in effect until any penalties due and owing at the time of such termination are applied.

The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order within 120 days after the metrics are filed approving, or approving with modification, a participating utility's tariff or mechanism to satisfy the metrics set forth in subsection (f) of this Section. On June 1 of each subsequent year, each participating utility shall file a report with the Commission that includes, among other things, a description of how the participating utility performed under each metric and an identification of any extraordinary events that adversely impacted the utility's performance. Whenever a participating utility does not satisfy the metrics required pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section, the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order approving financial penalties in accordance with this subsection (f-5). The Commission-approved financial penalties shall be applied beginning with the next rate year. Nothing in this Section shall authorize the Commission to reduce or otherwise obviate the imposition of financial penalties for failing to achieve one or more of the metrics established pursuant to subparagraph (1) through (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

(g) On or before July 31, 2014, each participating utility shall file a report with the Commission that sets forth the average annual increase in the average amount paid per kilowatthour for residential eligible retail customers, exclusive of the effects of energy efficiency programs, comparing the 12-month period ending May 31, 2012; the 12-month period ending May 31, 2013; and the 12-month period ending May 31, 2014. For a participating utility that is a combination utility with more than one rate zone, the weighted average aggregate increase shall be provided. The report shall be filed together with a statement from an independent auditor attesting to the accuracy of the report. The cost of the independent auditor shall be borne by the participating utility and shall not be a recoverable expense. "The average amount paid per kilowatthour" shall be based on the participating utility's tariffed rates actually in effect and shall not be calculated using any hypothetical rate or adjustments to actual charges (other than as specified for energy efficiency) as an input.

In the event that the average annual increase exceeds 2.5% as calculated pursuant to this subsection (g), then Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act, other than this subsection, shall be inoperative as they relate to the utility and its service area as of the date of the report due to be submitted pursuant to this subsection and the utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. In such event, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs, and the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under subsection (b) of this Section shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order issued under subsection (b) of this Section.

In the event that the average annual increase is 2.5% or less as calculated pursuant to this subsection (g), then the performance-based formula rate shall remain in effect as set forth in this Section.

For purposes of this Section, the amount per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis, and the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes exclusive of any increases in taxes or new taxes imposed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. For purposes of this Section, "eligible retail customers" shall have the meaning set forth in Section 16-111.5 of this Act.

The fact that this Section becomes inoperative as set forth in this subsection shall not be construed to mean that the Commission may reexamine or otherwise reopen prudence or reasonableness determinations already made.

(h) Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act, other than this subsection, are inoperative after December 31, 2017 for every participating utility, after which time a participating utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. At such time, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

By December 31, 2017, the Commission shall prepare and file with the General Assembly a report on the infrastructure program and the performance-based formula rate. The report shall include the change in the average amount per kilowatthour paid by residential customers between June 1, 2011 and May 31, 2017. If the change in the total average rate paid exceeds 2.5% compounded annually, the Commission shall include in the report an analysis that shows the portion of the change due to the delivery services component and the portion of the change due to the supply component of the rate. The report shall include separate sections for each participating utility.

In the event Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act do not become inoperative after December 31, 2017, then these Sections are inoperative after December 31, 2022 for every participating utility, after which time a participating utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. At such time, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

The fact that this Section becomes inoperative as set forth in this subsection shall not be construed to mean that the Commission may reexamine or otherwise reopen prudence or reasonableness determinations already made.

(i) While a participating utility may use, develop, and maintain broadband systems and the delivery of broadband services, voice-over-internet-protocol services, telecommunications services, and cable and video programming services for use in providing delivery services and Smart Grid functionality or application to its retail customers, including, but not limited to, the installation, implementation and maintenance of Smart Grid electric system upgrades as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, a participating utility is prohibited from offering to its retail customers broadband services or the delivery of broadband services, voice-over-internet-protocol services, telecommunications services, or cable or video programming services, unless they are part of a service directly related to delivery services or Smart Grid functionality or applications as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, and from recovering the costs of such offerings from retail customers.

(j) Nothing in this Section is intended to legislatively overturn the opinion issued in Commonwealth Edison Co. v. Ill. Commerce Comm'n, Nos. 2-08-0959, 2-08-1037, 2-08-1137, 1-08-3008, 1-08-3030, 1-08-3054, 1-08-3313 cons. (Ill. App. Ct. 2d Dist. Sept. 30, 2010). This amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall not be construed as creating a contract between the General Assembly and the participating utility, and shall not establish a property right in the participating utility.

(k) The changes made in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are intended to be a restatement and clarification of existing law, and intended to give binding effect to the provisions of House Resolution 1157 adopted by the House of Representatives of the 97th General Assembly and Senate Resolution 821 adopted by the Senate of the 97th General Assembly that are reflected in paragraph (3) of this subsection. In addition, this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly preempts and supersedes any final Commission orders entered in Docket Nos. 11-0721, 12-0001, 12-0293, and 12-0321 to the extent inconsistent with the amendatory language added to subsections (c) and (d).

(1) No earlier than 5 business days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each participating utility shall file any tariff changes necessary to implement the amendatory language set forth in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and a revised revenue requirement under the participating utility's performance-based formula rate. The Commission shall enter a final order approving such tariff changes and revised revenue requirement within 21 days after the participating utility's filing.

(2) Notwithstanding anything that may be to the contrary, a participating utility may file a tariff to retroactively recover its previously unrecovered actual costs of delivery service that are no longer subject to recovery through a reconciliation adjustment under subsection (d) of this Section. This retroactive recovery shall include any derivative adjustments resulting from the changes to subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Such tariff shall allow the utility to assess, on current customer bills over a period of 12 monthly billing periods, a charge or credit related to those unrecovered costs with interest at the utility's weighted average cost of capital during the period in which those costs were unrecovered. A participating utility may file a tariff that implements a retroactive charge or credit as described in this paragraph for amounts not otherwise included in the tariff filing provided for in paragraph (1) of this subsection (k). The Commission shall enter a final order approving such tariff within 21 days after the participating utility's filing.

(3) The tariff changes described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (k) shall relate only to, and be consistent with, the following provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly: paragraph (2) of subsection (c) regarding year-end capital structure, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) regarding pension assets, and subsection (d) regarding the reconciliation components related to year-end rate base and interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital.

(4) Nothing in this subsection is intended to effect a dismissal of or otherwise affect an appeal from any final Commission orders entered in Docket Nos. 11-0721, 12-0001, 12-0293, and 12-0321 other than to the extent of the amendatory language contained in subsections (c) and (d) of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(l) Each participating utility shall be deemed to have been in full compliance with all requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, subsection (c) of this Section, Section 16-108.6 of this Act, and all Commission orders entered pursuant to Sections 16-108.5 and 16-108.6 of this Act, up to and including the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. The Commission shall not undertake any investigation of such compliance and no penalty shall be assessed or adverse action taken against a participating utility for noncompliance with Commission orders associated with subsection (b) of this Section, subsection (c) of this Section, and Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to such date. Each participating utility other than a combination utility shall be permitted, without penalty, a period of 12 months after such effective date to take actions required to ensure its infrastructure investment program is in compliance with subsection (b) of this Section and with Section 16-108.6 of this Act. Provided further:

(1) if this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly takes effect on or before June 15, 2013, the following subparagraphs shall apply to a participating utility other than a combination utility:

(A) if the Commission has initiated a proceeding pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act that is pending as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the order entered in such proceeding shall, after notice and hearing, accelerate the commencement of the meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298;

(B) if the Commission has entered an order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that does not accelerate the commencement of the meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298, then the utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298; the Commission shall reopen the proceeding in which it entered its order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act and shall, after notice and hearing, enter an amendatory order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan within 90 days after the utility's filing; or

(C) if the Commission has not initiated a proceeding pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298 and the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, approve or approve as modified such plan within 90 days after the utility's filing;

(2) if this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly takes effect after June 15, 2013, then each participating utility other than a combination utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298; the Commission shall reopen the most recent proceeding in which it entered an order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act and within 90 days after the utility's filing shall, after notice and hearing, enter an amendatory order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan, provided that if there was no such prior proceeding the Commission shall open a new proceeding and within 90 days after the utility's filing shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan.

Any schedule for meter deployment approved by the Commission pursuant to subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (l) shall take into consideration procurement times for meters and other equipment and operational issues. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall shorten or extend the end dates for the 5-year or 10-year periods set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or Section 16-108.6 of this Act. Nothing in this subsection is intended to address whether a participating utility has, or has not, satisfied any or all of the metrics and performance goals established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section.

(m) The provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 97-616, eff. 10-26-11; 97-646, eff. 12-30-11; 98-15, eff. 5-22-13.)

Section 560. The Citizens Utility Board Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(220 ILCS 10/9) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 909)

Sec. 9. Mailing procedure.

(1) As used in this Section:

(a) "Enclosure" means a card, leaflet, envelope or combination thereof furnished by the corporation under this Section.

(b) "Mailing" means any communication by a State agency, other than a mailing made under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, that is sent through the United States Postal Service to more than 50,000 persons within a 12-month period.

(c) "State agency" means any officer, department, board, commission, institution or entity of the executive or legislative branches of State government.

(2) To accomplish its powers and duties under Section 5 this Act, the corporation, subject to the following limitations, may prepare and furnish to any State agency an enclosure to be included with a mailing by that agency.

(a) A State agency furnished with an enclosure shall include the enclosure within the mailing designated by the corporation.

(b) An enclosure furnished by the corporation under this Section shall be provided to the State agency a reasonable period of time in advance of the mailing.

(c) An enclosure furnished by the corporation under this Section shall be limited to informing the reader of the purpose, nature and activities of the corporation as set forth in this Act and informing the reader that it may become a member in the corporation, maintain membership in the corporation and contribute money to the corporation directly.

(d) Prior to furnishing an enclosure to the State agency, the corporation shall seek and obtain approval of the content of the enclosure from the Illinois Commerce Commission. The Commission shall approve the enclosure if it determines that the enclosure (i) is not false or misleading and (ii) satisfies the requirements of this Act. The Commission shall be deemed to have approved the enclosure unless it disapproves the enclosure within 14 days from the date of receipt.

(3) The corporation shall reimburse each State agency for all reasonable incremental costs incurred by the State agency in complying with this Section above the agency's normal mailing and handling costs, provided that:

(a) The State agency shall first furnish the corporation with an itemized accounting of such additional cost; and

(b) The corporation shall not be required to reimburse the State agency for postage costs if the weight of the corporation's enclosure does not exceed .35 ounce avoirdupois. If the corporation's enclosure exceeds that weight, then it shall only be required to reimburse the State agency for postage cost over and above what the agency's postage cost would have been had the enclosure weighed only .35 ounce avoirdupois.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 565. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.06, 2.09, 4.2, and 7 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.06) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.06)

Sec. 2.06. "Child care institution" means a child care facility where more than 7 children are received and maintained for the purpose of providing them with care or training or both. The term "child care institution" includes residential schools, primarily serving ambulatory children with disabilities handicapped children, and those operating a full calendar year, but does not include:

(a) Any State-operated institution for child care established by legislative action;

(b) Any juvenile detention or shelter care home established and operated by any county or child protection district established under the "Child Protection Act";

(c) Any institution, home, place or facility operating under a license pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(d) Any bona fide boarding school in which children are primarily taught branches of education corresponding to those taught in public schools, grades one through 12, or taught in public elementary schools, high schools, or both elementary and high schools, and which operates on a regular academic school year basis; or

(e) Any facility licensed as a "group home" as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(225 ILCS 10/2.09) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.09)

Sec. 2.09. "Day care center" means any child care facility which regularly provides day care for less than 24 hours per day for (1) more than 8 children in a family home, or (2) more than 3 children in a facility other than a family home, including senior citizen buildings. The term does not include (a) programs operated by (i) public or private elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning that serve children who shall have attained the age of 3 years or (ii) private entities on the grounds of public or private elementary or secondary schools and that serve children who have attained the age of 3 years, except that this exception applies only to the facility and not to the private entities' personnel operating the program; (b) programs or that portion of the program which serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are recognized by the State Board of Education; (c) educational program or programs serving children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are operated by a school which is registered with the State Board of Education and which is recognized or accredited by a recognized national or multistate educational organization or association which regularly recognizes or accredits schools; (d) programs which exclusively serve or that portion of the program which serves children with disabilities handicapped children who shall have attained the age of 3 years but are less than 21 years of age and which are registered and approved as meeting standards of the State Board of Education and applicable fire marshal standards; (e) facilities operated in connection with a shopping center or service, religious services, or other similar facility, where transient children are cared for temporarily while parents or custodians of the children are occupied on the premises and readily available; (f) any type of day care center that is conducted on federal government premises; (g) special activities programs, including athletics, crafts instruction and similar activities conducted on an organized and periodic basis by civic, charitable and governmental organizations; (h) part day child care facilities, as defined in Section 2.10 of this Act; or (i) programs or that portion of the program which (1) serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years, (2) is operated by churches or religious institutions as described in Section 501 (c) (3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code, (3) receives no governmental aid, (4) is operated as a component of a religious, nonprofit elementary school, (5) operates primarily to provide religious education, and (6) meets appropriate State or local health and fire safety standards.

For purposes of (a), (b), (c), (d) and (i) of this Section, "children who shall have attained the age of 3 years" shall mean children who are 3 years of age, but less than 4 years of age, at the time of enrollment in the program.

(Source: P.A. 92-659, eff. 7-16-02.)

(225 ILCS 10/4.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2214.2)

Sec. 4.2. (a) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a licensed child care facility who refuses to authorize an investigation as required by Section 4.1.

(b) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been declared a sexually dangerous person under "An Act in relation to sexually dangerous persons, and providing for their commitment, detention and supervision", approved July 6, 1938, as amended, or convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) harboring a runaway;

(3.4) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) hate crime;

(16) stalking;

(17) aggravated stalking;

(18) threatening public officials;

(19) home invasion;

(20) vehicular invasion;

(21) criminal transmission of HIV;

(22) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (e) (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(23) child abandonment;

(24) endangering the life or health of a child;

(25) ritual mutilation;

(26) ritualized abuse of a child;

(27) an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

(b-1) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, beginning January 1, 2004, no new applicant and, on the date of licensure renewal, no current licensee may operate or receive a license from the Department to operate, no person may be employed by, and no adult person may reside in a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses or an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the following offenses:

(I) BODILY HARM

(1) Felony aggravated assault.

(2) Vehicular endangerment.

(3) Felony domestic battery.

(4) Aggravated battery.

(5) Heinous battery.

(6) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(7) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(8) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(9) Intimidation.

(10) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(11) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(12) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(1) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(2) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(3) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(4) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(5) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(6) Disarming a police officer.

(7) Obstructing justice.

(8) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(9) Armed violence.

(10) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(III) DRUG OFFENSES

(1) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(2) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(3) Cannabis trafficking.

(4) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(5) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(6) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(7) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(8) Controlled substance trafficking.

(9) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(10) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(11) Street gang criminal drug conspiracy.

(12) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(13) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(14) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(15) Delivery of controlled substances.

(16) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(17) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(18) Felony possession of a controlled substance.

(19) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b-1.5) In addition to any other provision of this Section, for applicants with access to confidential financial information or who submit documentation to support billing, no applicant whose initial application was considered after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may receive a license from the Department or a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following felony offenses:

(1) financial institution fraud under Section 17-10.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) identity theft under Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(3) financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability under Section 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) computer tampering under Section 17-51 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(5) aggravated computer tampering under Section 17-52 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) computer fraud under Section 17-50 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7) deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(8) forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) State benefits fraud under Section 17-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(10) mail fraud and wire fraud under Section 17-24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(11) theft under paragraphs (1.1) through (11) of subsection (b) of Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b-2) Notwithstanding subsection (b-1), the Department may make an exception and, for child care facilities other than foster family homes, issue a new child care facility license to or renew the existing child care facility license of an applicant, a person employed by a child care facility, or an applicant who has an adult residing in a home child care facility who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (b-1), provided that all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense occurred more than 5 years prior to the date of application or renewal, except for drug offenses. The relevant drug offense must have occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal, unless the applicant passed a drug test, arranged and paid for by the child care facility, no less than 5 years after the offense.

(2) The Department must conduct a background check and assess all convictions and recommendations of the child care facility to determine if hiring or licensing the applicant is in accordance with Department administrative rules and procedures.

(3) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as the pertinent type of child care facility under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(c) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department to operate a foster family home, and no adult person may reside in a foster family home licensed by the Department, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Cannabis Control Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act:

(I) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST THE PERSON

(A) KIDNAPPING AND RELATED OFFENSES

(1) Unlawful restraint.

(B) BODILY HARM

(2) Felony aggravated assault.

(3) Vehicular endangerment.

(4) Felony domestic battery.

(5) Aggravated battery.

(6) Heinous battery.

(7) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(8) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(9) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(10) Intimidation.

(11) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(12) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(13) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST PROPERTY

(14) Felony theft.

(15) Robbery.

(16) Armed robbery.

(17) Aggravated robbery.

(18) Vehicular hijacking.

(19) Aggravated vehicular hijacking.

(20) Burglary.

(21) Possession of burglary tools.

(22) Residential burglary.

(23) Criminal fortification of a residence or building.

(24) Arson.

(25) Aggravated arson.

(26) Possession of explosive or explosive incendiary devices.

(III) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(27) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(28) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(29) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(30) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(31) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(32) Disarming a police officer.

(33) Obstructing justice.

(34) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(35) Armed violence.

(36) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(IV) DRUG OFFENSES

(37) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(38) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(39) Cannabis trafficking.

(40) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(41) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(42) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(43) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(44) Controlled substance trafficking.

(45) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(46) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(46.5) Streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(47) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(48) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(49) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(50) Delivery of controlled substances.

(51) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(52) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(53) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c), the Department may make an exception and issue a new foster family home license or may renew an existing foster family home license of an applicant who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (c), provided all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense or offenses occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal.

(2) The applicant had previously disclosed the conviction or convictions to the Department for purposes of a background check.

(3) After the disclosure, the Department either placed a child in the home or the foster family home license was issued.

(4) During the background check, the Department had assessed and waived the conviction in compliance with the existing statutes and rules in effect at the time of the hire or licensure.

(5) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as a foster family home under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(6) The applicant has a history of providing a safe, stable home environment and appears able to continue to provide a safe, stable home environment.

(e) In evaluating the exception pursuant to subsections (b-2) and (d), the Department must carefully review any relevant documents to determine whether the applicant, despite the disqualifying convictions, poses a substantial risk to State resources or clients. In making such a determination, the following guidelines shall be used:

(1) the age of the applicant when the offense was committed;

(2) the circumstances surrounding the offense;

(3) the length of time since the conviction;

(4) the specific duties and responsibilities necessarily related to the license being applied for and the bearing, if any, that the applicant's conviction history may have on his or her fitness to perform these duties and responsibilities;

(5) the applicant's employment references;

(6) the applicant's character references and any certificates of achievement;

(7) an academic transcript showing educational attainment since the disqualifying conviction;

(8) a Certificate of Relief from Disabilities or Certificate of Good Conduct; and

(9) anything else that speaks to the applicant's character.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 925, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 990, eff. 7-1-11; 97-874, eff. 7-31-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(225 ILCS 10/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2217)

Sec. 7. (a) The Department must prescribe and publish minimum standards for licensing that apply to the various types of facilities for child care defined in this Act and that are equally applicable to like institutions under the control of the Department and to foster family homes used by and under the direct supervision of the Department. The Department shall seek the advice and assistance of persons representative of the various types of child care facilities in establishing such standards. The standards prescribed and published under this Act take effect as provided in the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and are restricted to regulations pertaining to the following matters and to any rules and regulations required or permitted by any other Section of this Act:

(1) The operation and conduct of the facility and responsibility it assumes for child care;

(2) The character, suitability and qualifications of the applicant and other persons directly responsible for the care and welfare of children served. All child day care center licensees and employees who are required to report child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act shall be required to attend training on recognizing child abuse and neglect, as prescribed by Department rules;

(3) The general financial ability and competence of the applicant to provide necessary care for children and to maintain prescribed standards;

(4) The number of individuals or staff required to insure adequate supervision and care of the children received. The standards shall provide that each child care institution, maternity center, day care center, group home, day care home, and group day care home shall have on its premises during its hours of operation at least one staff member certified in first aid, in the Heimlich maneuver and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the American Red Cross or other organization approved by rule of the Department. Child welfare agencies shall not be subject to such a staffing requirement. The Department may offer, or arrange for the offering, on a periodic basis in each community in this State in cooperation with the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association or other appropriate organization, voluntary programs to train operators of foster family homes and day care homes in first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(5) The appropriateness, safety, cleanliness and general adequacy of the premises, including maintenance of adequate fire prevention and health standards conforming to State laws and municipal codes to provide for the physical comfort, care and well-being of children received;

(6) Provisions for food, clothing, educational opportunities, program, equipment and individual supplies to assure the healthy physical, mental and spiritual development of children served;

(7) Provisions to safeguard the legal rights of children served;

(8) Maintenance of records pertaining to the admission, progress, health and discharge of children, including, for day care centers and day care homes, records indicating each child has been immunized as required by State regulations. The Department shall require proof that children enrolled in a facility have been immunized against Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB);

(9) Filing of reports with the Department;

(10) Discipline of children;

(11) Protection and fostering of the particular religious faith of the children served;

(12) Provisions prohibiting firearms on day care center premises except in the possession of peace officers;

(13) Provisions prohibiting handguns on day care home premises except in the possession of peace officers or other adults who must possess a handgun as a condition of employment and who reside on the premises of a day care home;

(14) Provisions requiring that any firearm permitted on day care home premises, except handguns in the possession of peace officers, shall be kept in a disassembled state, without ammunition, in locked storage, inaccessible to children and that ammunition permitted on day care home premises shall be kept in locked storage separate from that of disassembled firearms, inaccessible to children;

(15) Provisions requiring notification of parents or guardians enrolling children at a day care home of the presence in the day care home of any firearms and ammunition and of the arrangements for the separate, locked storage of such firearms and ammunition; and

(16) Provisions requiring all licensed child care facility employees who care for newborns and infants to complete training every 3 years on the nature of sudden unexpected infant death (SUID), sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), and the safe sleep recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics.

(b) If, in a facility for general child care, there are children diagnosed as mentally ill or children diagnosed as having an intellectual or physical disability , intellectually disabled or physically handicapped, who are determined to be in need of special mental treatment or of nursing care, or both mental treatment and nursing care, the Department shall seek the advice and recommendation of the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, or both Departments regarding the residential treatment and nursing care provided by the institution.

(c) The Department shall investigate any person applying to be licensed as a foster parent to determine whether there is any evidence of current drug or alcohol abuse in the prospective foster family. The Department shall not license a person as a foster parent if drug or alcohol abuse has been identified in the foster family or if a reasonable suspicion of such abuse exists, except that the Department may grant a foster parent license to an applicant identified with an alcohol or drug problem if the applicant has successfully participated in an alcohol or drug treatment program, self-help group, or other suitable activities.

(d) The Department, in applying standards prescribed and published, as herein provided, shall offer consultation through employed staff or other qualified persons to assist applicants and licensees in meeting and maintaining minimum requirements for a license and to help them otherwise to achieve programs of excellence related to the care of children served. Such consultation shall include providing information concerning education and training in early childhood development to providers of day care home services. The Department may provide or arrange for such education and training for those providers who request such assistance.

(e) The Department shall distribute copies of licensing standards to all licensees and applicants for a license. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall distribute copies of the appropriate licensing standards and any other information required by the Department to child care facilities under its supervision. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the distribution of the standards. Such documentation shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(f) The Department shall prepare summaries of day care licensing standards. Each licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall distribute a copy of the appropriate summary and any other information required by the Department, to the legal guardian of each child cared for in that facility at the time when the child is enrolled or initially placed in the facility. The licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall secure appropriate documentation of the distribution of the summary and brochure. Such documentation shall be a part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by an authorized representative of the Department.

(g) The Department shall distribute to each licensee and holder of a permit copies of the licensing or permit standards applicable to such person's facility. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall make available by posting at all times in a common or otherwise accessible area a complete and current set of licensing standards in order that all employees of the facility may have unrestricted access to such standards. All employees of the facility shall have reviewed the standards and any subsequent changes. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the current review of licensing standards by all employees. Such records shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(h) Any standards involving physical examinations, immunization, or medical treatment shall include appropriate exemptions for children whose parents object thereto on the grounds that they conflict with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious organization, of which the parent is an adherent or member, and for children who should not be subjected to immunization for clinical reasons.

(i) The Department, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, shall work to increase immunization awareness and participation among parents of children enrolled in day care centers and day care homes by publishing on the Department's website information about the benefits of immunization against vaccine preventable diseases, including influenza and pertussis. The information for vaccine preventable diseases shall include the incidence and severity of the diseases, the availability of vaccines, and the importance of immunizing children and persons who frequently have close contact with children. The website content shall be reviewed annually in collaboration with the Department of Public Health to reflect the most current recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP). The Department shall work with day care centers and day care homes licensed under this Act to ensure that the information is annually distributed to parents in August or September.

(j) Any standard adopted by the Department that requires an applicant for a license to operate a day care home to include a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate with his or her application shall be deemed to be satisfied if the applicant includes a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate or a copy of a degree from an accredited institution of higher education or vocational institution or equivalent certificate.

(Source: P.A. 97-83, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-494, eff. 8-22-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-817, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 570. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 2313)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 13. Qualifications of Applicants for Dental Hygienists. Every person who desires to obtain a license as a dental hygienist shall apply to the Department in writing, upon forms prepared and furnished by the Department. Each application shall contain proof of the particular qualifications required of the applicant, shall be verified by the applicant, under oath, and shall be accompanied by the required examination fee.

The Department shall require that every applicant for a license as a dental hygienist shall:

(1) (Blank).

(2) Be a graduate of high school or its equivalent.

(3) Present satisfactory evidence of having successfully completed 2 academic years of credit at a dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.

(4) Submit evidence that he or she holds a currently valid certification to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The Department shall adopt rules establishing criteria for certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The rules of the Department shall provide for variances only in instances where the applicant is a person with a physical disability physically disabled and therefore unable to secure such certification.

(5) (Blank).

(6) Present satisfactory evidence that the applicant has passed the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations and has successfully completed an examination conducted by one of the following regional testing services: the Central Regional Dental Testing Service, Inc. (CRDTS), the Southern Regional Testing Agency, Inc. (SRTA), the Western Regional Examining Board (WREB), or the North East Regional Board (NERB). For the purposes of this Section, successful completion shall mean that the applicant has achieved a minimum passing score as determined by the applicable regional testing service. The Secretary may suspend a regional testing service under this item (6) if, after proper notice and hearing, it is established that (i) the integrity of the examination has been breached so as to make future test results unreliable or (ii) the examination is fundamentally deficient in testing clinical competency.

(Source: P.A. 96-14, eff. 6-19-09; 97-1013, eff. 8-17-12.)

Section 575. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/5)

Sec. 5. Purpose. The General Assembly finds that it is in the public interest to protect the citizens of the State of Illinois who are the most frail and who are persons with disabilities disabled citizens of the State of Illinois from possible harm through a criminal background check of certain health care workers and all employees of licensed and certified long-term care facilities who have or may have contact with residents or have access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents.

(Source: P.A. 94-665, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 580. The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 51/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(2) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(3) "Board" means the Home Medical Equipment and Services Board.

(4) "Home medical equipment and services provider" or "provider" means a legal entity, as defined by State law, engaged in the business of providing home medical equipment and services, whether directly or through a contractual arrangement, to an unrelated sick individual or an unrelated individual with a disability or disabled individual where that individual resides.

(5) "Home medical equipment and services" means the delivery, installation, maintenance, replacement, or instruction in the use of medical equipment used by a sick individual or an individual with a disability or disabled individual to allow the individual to be maintained in his or her residence.

(6) "Home medical equipment" means technologically sophisticated medical devices, apparatuses, machines, or other similar articles bearing a label that states "Caution: federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician.", which are usable in a home care setting, including but not limited to:

(A) oxygen and oxygen delivery systems;

(B) ventilators;

(C) respiratory disease management devices, excluding compressor driven nebulizers;

(D) wheelchair seating systems;

(E) apnea monitors;

(F) transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) units;

(G) low air-loss cutaneous pressure management devices;

(H) sequential compression devices;

(I) neonatal home phototherapy devices;

(J) enteral feeding pumps; and

(K) other similar equipment as defined by the Board.

"Home medical equipment" also includes hospital beds and electronic and computer-driven wheelchairs, excluding scooters.

(7) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 95-703, eff. 12-31-07.)

Section 585. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)

Sec. 23. Reports relating to professional conduct and capacity.

(A) Entities required to report.

(1) Health care institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of any health care institution licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health shall report to the Disciplinary Board when any person's clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination made in accordance with that institution's by-laws or rules and regulations that a person has either committed an act or acts which may directly threaten patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that person's care. Such officer also shall report if a person accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that person's care. The Disciplinary Board shall, by rule, provide for the reporting to it by health care institutions of all instances in which a person, licensed under this Act, who is impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Such reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Disciplinary Board, or by authorized staff as provided by rules of the Disciplinary Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such person not less than twice annually in order that the Disciplinary Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of any such person. Such initial and periodic reports of impaired physicians shall not be considered records within the meaning of The State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Disciplinary Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at such time as the Disciplinary Board shall determine by rule. The filing of such reports shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (C) of this Section.

(1.5) Clinical training programs. The program director of any post-graduate clinical training program shall report to the Disciplinary Board if a person engaged in a post-graduate clinical training program at the institution, including, but not limited to, a residency or fellowship, separates from the program for any reason prior to its conclusion. The program director shall provide all documentation relating to the separation if, after review of the report, the Disciplinary Board determines that a review of those documents is necessary to determine whether a violation of this Act occurred.

(2) Professional associations. The President or chief executive officer of any association or society, of persons licensed under this Act, operating within this State shall report to the Disciplinary Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that person's care.

(3) Professional liability insurers. Every insurance company which offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other entity which seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Act, shall report to the Disciplinary Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, which alleged negligence in the furnishing of medical care by such licensed person when such settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Disciplinary Board, within 5 days, any instances in which a person licensed under this Act is convicted of any felony or Class A misdemeanor. The State's Attorney of each county may report to the Disciplinary Board through a verified complaint any instance in which the State's Attorney believes that a physician has willfully violated the notice requirements of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(5) State agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Disciplinary Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of such agency, including the administration of any law by such agency, in which a person licensed under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may be a violation of this Act or which may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or which indicates that a person licensed under this Act may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that person's care.

(B) Mandatory reporting. All reports required by items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22 and by Section 23 shall be submitted to the Disciplinary Board in a timely fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name and date of birth of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, if available, or other means of identification if such information is not available, identification of the hospital or other healthcare facility where the care at issue in the report was rendered, provided, however, no medical records may be revealed.

(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information which the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

The Disciplinary Board or Department may also exercise the power under Section 38 of this Act to subpoena copies of hospital or medical records in mandatory report cases alleging death or permanent bodily injury. Appropriate rules shall be adopted by the Department with the approval of the Disciplinary Board.

When the Department has received written reports concerning incidents required to be reported in items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22, the licensee's failure to report the incident to the Department under those items shall not be the sole grounds for disciplinary action.

Nothing contained in this Section shall act to in any way, waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Disciplinary Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff, as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation or to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body or medical licensing authority. Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense, or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority, only for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license. Information and documents disclosed to the Department of Public Health may be used by that Department only for investigation and disciplinary action regarding the license of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health.

(C) Immunity from prosecution. Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by voluntarily reporting to the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee information regarding alleged errors or negligence by a person licensed under this Act, or by participating in proceedings of the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, or by serving as a member of the Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(D) Indemnification. Members of the Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, physicians retained under contract to assist and advise the medical coordinators in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Disciplinary Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(E) Deliberations of Disciplinary Board. Upon the receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act required pursuant to the rules of the Disciplinary Board, the Disciplinary Board shall notify in writing, by certified mail, the person who is the subject of the report. Such notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Disciplinary Board of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in such notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The person who is the subject of the report shall also submit with the written statement any medical records related to the report. The statement and accompanying medical records shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Disciplinary Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified by the Disciplinary Board of the existence of the original report.

The Disciplinary Board shall review all reports received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Disciplinary Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event, shall the Disciplinary Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Disciplinary Board.

When the Disciplinary Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Disciplinary Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

Should the Disciplinary Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported to the Secretary. The Secretary shall then have 30 days to accept the Disciplinary Board's decision or request further investigation. The Secretary shall inform the Board of the decision to request further investigation, including the specific reasons for the decision. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Secretary of any final action on their report or complaint. The Department shall disclose to the individual or entity who filed the original report or complaint, on request, the status of the Disciplinary Board's review of a specific report or complaint. Such request may be made at any time, including prior to the Disciplinary Board's determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

(F) Summary reports. The Disciplinary Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than once every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Disciplinary Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's website. Information or documentation relating to any disciplinary file that is closed without disciplinary action taken shall not be disclosed and shall be afforded the same status as is provided by Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(H) If any such person violates the provisions of this Section an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such violation, and if it is established that such person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this paragraph shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-449, eff. 1-1-12; 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13.)

Section 590. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 65-65 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/65-65) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-65. Reports relating to APN professional conduct and capacity.

(a) Entities Required to Report.

(1) Health Care Institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health, which provides the minimum due process set forth in Section 10.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act, shall report to the Board when an advanced practice nurse's organized professional staff clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination, in accordance with that institution's bylaws or rules and regulations, that (i) a person has either committed an act or acts that may directly threaten patient care and that are not of an administrative nature or (ii) that a person may have a mental or physical disability be mentally or physically disabled in a manner that may endanger patients under that person's care. The chief administrator or officer shall also report if an advanced practice nurse accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care and not of an administrative nature, or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability be mentally or physically disabled in a manner that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Board shall provide by rule for the reporting to it of all instances in which a person licensed under this Article, who is impaired by reason of age, drug, or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Reports submitted under this subsection shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Board or authorized staff as provided by rule of the Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such reported person not less than twice annually in order that the Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of that person. Initial and periodic reports of impaired advanced practice nurses shall not be considered records within the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at an appropriate time as the Board shall determine by rule. The filing of reports submitted under this subsection shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) Professional Associations. The President or chief executive officer of an association or society of persons licensed under this Article, operating within this State, shall report to the Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person licensed under this Article has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability be mentally or physically disabled in a manner that may endanger patients under the person's care.

(3) Professional Liability Insurers. Every insurance company that offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Article, or any other entity that seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Article, shall report to the Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, that alleged negligence in the furnishing of patient care by the licensee when the settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Board all instances in which a person licensed under this Article is convicted or otherwise found guilty of the commission of a felony.

(5) State Agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of this State shall report to the Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of the agency, including the administration of any law by the agency, in which a person licensed under this Article has either committed an act or acts that may constitute a violation of this Article, that may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care, or that indicates that a person licensed under this Article may have a mental or physical disability be mentally or physically disabled in a manner that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(b) Mandatory Reporting. All reports required under items (16) and (17) of subsection (a) of Section 70-5 shall be submitted to the Board in a timely fashion. The reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Article. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name or other means of identification of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, except that no medical records may be revealed without the written consent of the patient or patients.

(4) A brief description of the facts that gave rise to the issuance of the report, including but not limited to the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, the docket number, and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information that the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to in any way waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Immunity from Prosecution. An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(d) Indemnification. Members of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, advanced practice nurses or physicians retained under contract to assist and advise in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions (i) occurring within the scope of services on the Board, (ii) performed in good faith, and (iii) not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all actions taken against those persons unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in the representation or that the actions complained of were not performed in good faith or were wilful and wanton in nature. If the Attorney General declines representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not performed in good faith or were wilful and wanton in nature. The member shall notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of an action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification. The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving the notice whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(e) Deliberations of Board. Upon the receipt of a report called for by this Section, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Article required pursuant to the rules of the Board, the Board shall notify in writing by certified mail the person who is the subject of the report. The notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Board of the report. The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in the notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding to, clarifying, adding to, or proposing to amend the report previously filed. The statement shall become a permanent part of the file and shall be received by the Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified of the existence of the original report. The Board shall review all reports received by it and any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event shall the Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Board. When the Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make that determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Should the Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Board of any final action on their report or complaint.

(f) Summary Reports. The Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than one every other month, a summary report of final actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's Internet website.

(g) Any violation of this Section shall constitute a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) If a person violates the provisions of this Section, an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining the violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin the violation, and if it is established that the person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this subsection shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 595. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 17.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/17.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 17.1. Reports of violations of Act or other conduct.

(a) The owner or licensee of a long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act who employs or contracts with a licensee under this Act shall report to the Department any instance of which he or she has knowledge arising in connection with operations of the health care institution, including the administration of any law by the institution, in which a licensee under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may constitute a violation of this Act or unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care, or which may indicate that the licensee may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that licensee's care. Additionally, every nursing home shall report to the Department any instance when a licensee is terminated for cause which would constitute a violation of this Act. The Department may take disciplinary or non-disciplinary action if the termination is based upon unprofessional conduct related to planning, organizing, directing, or supervising the operation of a nursing home as defined by this Act or other conduct by the licensee that would be a violation of this Act or rules.

For the purposes of this subsection, "owner" does not mean the owner of the real estate or physical plant who does not hold management or operational control of the licensed long term care facility.

(b) Any insurance company that offers policies of professional liability insurance to licensees, or any other entity that seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a licensee, shall report the settlement of any claim or adverse final judgment rendered in any action that alleged negligence in planning, organizing, directing, or supervising the operation of a nursing home by the licensee.

(c) The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Department each instance in which a licensee is convicted of or enters a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony, or of which an essential element is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession of nursing home administration.

(d) Any agency, board, commission, department, or other instrumentality of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Department any instance arising in connection with the operations of the agency, including the administration of any law by the agency, in which a licensee under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may constitute a violation of this Act or unprofessional conduct related directly to planning, organizing, directing or supervising the operation of a nursing home, or which may indicate that a licensee may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger others.

(e) All reports required by items (19), (20), and (21) of subsection (a) of Section 17 and by this Section 17.1 shall be submitted to the Department in a timely fashion. The reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Section. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name and date of birth of any person or persons whose treatment is a subject of the report, or other means of identification if that information is not available, and identification of the nursing home facility where the care at issue in the report was rendered.

(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and the date the action was filed.

(6) Any further pertinent information that the reporting party deems to be an aid in evaluating the report.

If the Department receives a written report concerning an incident required to be reported under item (19), (20), or (21) of subsection (a) of Section 17, then the licensee's failure to report the incident to the Department within 60 days may not be the sole ground for any disciplinary action against the licensee.

(f) Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing any report or other information to the Department, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, by voluntarily reporting to the Department information regarding alleged errors or negligence by a licensee, or by participating in proceedings of the Department, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(g) Upon the receipt of any report required by this Section, the Department shall notify in writing, by certified mail, the person who is the subject of the report. The notification shall be made within 30 days after the Department's receipt of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. The notification shall also include the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the file, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The statement shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Department no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified by the Department of the existence of the original report.

The Department shall review a report received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by the person who is the subject of the report. The review by the Department shall be in a timely manner, but in no event shall the Department's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file last less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Department.

When the Department makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Department shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such a determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. The Department shall notify the person who is the subject of the report of any final action on the report.

(h) A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(i) If any person or entity violates this Section, then an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining the violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in the court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin the violation. If it is established that the person or entity has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this subsection (i) shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10.)

Section 600. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/26) (from Ch. 111, par. 4826)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 26. Reports relating to professional conduct and capacity.

(A) The Board shall by rule provide for the reporting to it of all instances in which a podiatric physician licensed under this Act who is impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Board, or by authorized staff of the Department as provided by the rules of the Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such podiatric physician not less than twice annually in order that the Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of any such podiatric physician. Such initial and periodic reports of impaired physicians shall not be considered records within the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at such time as the Board shall determine by rule. The filing of such reports shall be construed as the filing of a report for the purposes of subsection (C) of this Section. Failure to file a report under this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(A-5) The following persons and entities shall report to the Department or the Board in the instances and under the conditions set forth in this subsection (A-5):

(1) Any administrator or officer of any hospital, nursing home or other health care agency or facility who has knowledge of any action or condition which reasonably indicates to him or her that a licensed podiatric physician practicing in such hospital, nursing home or other health care agency or facility is habitually intoxicated or addicted to the use of habit forming drugs, or is otherwise impaired, to the extent that such intoxication, addiction, or impairment adversely affects such podiatric physician's professional performance, or has knowledge that reasonably indicates to him or her that any podiatric physician unlawfully possesses, uses, distributes or converts habit-forming drugs belonging to the hospital, nursing home or other health care agency or facility for such podiatric physician's own use or benefit, shall promptly file a written report thereof to the Department. The report shall include the name of the podiatric physician, the name of the patient or patients involved, if any, a brief summary of the action, condition or occurrence that has necessitated the report, and any other information as the Department may deem necessary. The Department shall provide forms on which such reports shall be filed.

(2) The president or chief executive officer of any association or society of podiatric physicians licensed under this Act, operating within this State shall report to the Board when the association or society renders a final determination relating to the professional competence or conduct of the podiatric physician.

(3) Every insurance company that offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other entity that seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a podiatric physician licensed under this Act, shall report to the Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action that alleged negligence in the furnishing of medical care by such licensed person when such settlement or final judgement is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Board all instances in which a person licensed under this Act is convicted or otherwise found guilty of the commission of any felony.

(5) All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of such agency, including the administration of any law by such agency, in which a podiatric physician licensed under this Act has either committed an act or acts that may be a violation of this Act or that may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that indicates that a podiatric physician licensed under this Act may have a mental or physical disability that may be mentally or physically disabled in such a manner as to endanger patients under that physician's care.

(B) All reports required by this Act shall be submitted to the Board in a timely fashion. The reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address and telephone number of the podiatric physician who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name or other means of identification of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, provided, however, no medical records may be revealed without the written consent of the patient or patients.

(4) A brief description of the facts that gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information that the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

Nothing contained in this Section shall waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff and other authorized Department staff, as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(C) Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Board, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(D) Members of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, other podiatric physicians retained under contract to assist and advise in the investigation, and other authorized Department staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Board, done in good faith and not willful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that he or she would have a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton. The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification. The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(E) Upon the receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act required pursuant to the rules of the Board, the Board shall notify in writing, by certified mail, the podiatric physician who is the subject of the report. Such notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Board of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the podiatric physician's right to examine the report. Included in such notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The podiatric physician who is the subject of the report shall be permitted to submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The statement shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the podiatric physician was notified of the existence of the original report.

The Board shall review all reports received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event shall the Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Board.

When the Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files the Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

Should the Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported.

The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the podiatric physician who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Board of any final action on their report or complaint.

(F) The Board shall prepare on a timely basis, but in no event less than once every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Board. The summary reports shall be made available on the Department's web site.

(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(H) If any such podiatric physician violates the provisions of this Section, an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such violation, and if it is established that such podiatric physician has violated or is violating the injunction, the Court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this paragraph shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-235, eff. 8-17-07.)

Section 605. The Illinois Explosives Act is amended by changing Section 2005 as follows:

(225 ILCS 210/2005) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)

Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure.

(a) No person shall qualify to hold a license who:

(1) is under 21 years of age;

(2) has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

(3) is under indictment for a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

(4) is a fugitive from justice;

(5) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et seq.);

(6) has been adjudicated a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or

(7) is not a legal citizen of the United States.

(b) A person who has been granted a "relief from disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments, pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec. 845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications under this Act are met.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Section 610. The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 3B-15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 410/3B-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 3B-15. Grounds for disciplinary action. In addition to any other cause herein set forth the Department may refuse to issue or renew and may suspend, place on probation, or revoke any license to operate a school, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action that the Department may deem proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Repeated violation of any provision of this Act or any standard or rule established under this Act.

(2) Knowingly furnishing false, misleading, or incomplete information to the Department or failure to furnish information requested by the Department.

(3) Violation of any commitment made in an application for a license, including failure to maintain standards that are the same as, or substantially equivalent to, those represented in the school's applications and advertising.

(4) Presenting to prospective students information relating to the school, or to employment opportunities or opportunities for enrollment in institutions of higher learning after entering into or completing courses offered by the school, that is false, misleading, or fraudulent.

(5) Failure to provide premises or equipment or to maintain them in a safe and sanitary condition as required by law.

(6) Failure to maintain financial resources adequate for the satisfactory conduct of the courses of instruction offered or to retain a sufficient and qualified instructional and administrative staff.

(7) Refusal to admit applicants on account of race, color, creed, sex, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, religion, or national origin.

(8) Paying a commission or valuable consideration to any person for acts or services performed in violation of this Act.

(9) Attempting to confer a fraudulent degree, diploma, or certificate upon a student.

(10) Failure to correct any deficiency or act of noncompliance under this Act or the standards and rules established under this Act within reasonable time limits set by the Department.

(11) Conduct of business or instructional services other than at locations approved by the Department.

(12) Failure to make all of the disclosures or making inaccurate disclosures to the Department or in the enrollment agreement as required under this Act.

(13) Failure to make appropriate refunds as required by this Act.

(14) Denial, loss, or withdrawal of accreditation by any accrediting agency.

(15) During any calendar year, having a failure rate of 25% or greater for those of its students who for the first time take the examination authorized by the Department to determine fitness to receive a license as a barber, barber teacher, cosmetologist, cosmetology teacher, esthetician, esthetician teacher, hair braider, hair braiding teacher, nail technician, or nail technology teacher, provided that a student who transfers into the school having completed 50% or more of the required program and who takes the examination during that calendar year shall not be counted for purposes of determining the school's failure rate on an examination, without regard to whether that transfer student passes or fails the examination.

(16) Failure to maintain a written record indicating the funds received per student and funds paid out per student. Such records shall be maintained for a minimum of 7 years and shall be made available to the Department upon request. Such records shall identify the funding source and amount for any student who has enrolled as well as any other item set forth by rule.

(17) Failure to maintain a copy of the student record as defined by rule.

(Source: P.A. 98-911, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 615. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Section 25-40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/25-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 25-40. Exclusive State powers and functions; municipal powers. It is declared to be the public policy of this State, pursuant to paragraphs (h) and (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution of 1970, that any power or function set forth in this Act to be exercised by the State is an exclusive State power or function. Such power or function shall not be exercised concurrently, either directly or indirectly, by any unit of local government, including home rule units, except as otherwise provided in this Act. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect or impair the validity of Section 11-11.1-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as amended, or to deny to the corporate authorities of any municipality the powers granted in the Illinois Municipal Code to enact ordinances prescribing fair housing practices; defining unfair housing practices; establishing Fair Housing or Human Relations Commissions and standards for the operation of these commissions in the administration and enforcement of such ordinances; prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, creed, ancestry, national origin or physical or mental disability handicap in the listing, sale, assignment, exchange, transfer, lease, rental, or financing of real property for the purpose of the residential occupancy thereof; and prescribing penalties for violations of such ordinances.

(Source: P.A. 91-245, eff. 12-31-99.)

Section 620. The Solicitation for Charity Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 11 as follows:

(225 ILCS 460/1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5101)

Sec. 1. The following words and phrases as used in this Act shall have the following meanings unless a different meaning is required by the context.

(a) "Charitable organization" means any benevolent, philanthropic, patriotic, or eleemosynary person or one purporting to be such which solicits and collects funds for charitable purposes and includes each local, county, or area division within this State of such charitable organization, provided such local, county or area division has authority and discretion to disburse funds or property otherwise than by transfer to any parent organization.

(b) "Contribution" means the promise or grant of any money or property of any kind or value, including the promise to pay, except payments by union members of an organization. Reference to the dollar amount of "contributions" in this Act means in the case of promises to pay, or payments for merchandise or rights of any other description, the value of the total amount promised to be paid or paid for such merchandise or rights and not merely that portion of the purchase price to be applied to a charitable purpose. Contribution shall not include the proceeds from the sale of admission tickets by any not-for-profit music or dramatic arts organization which establishes, by such proof as the Attorney General may require, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and which is organized and operated for the presentation of live public performances of musical or theatrical works on a regular basis. For purposes of this subsection, union member dues and donated services shall not be deemed contributions.

(c) "Person" means any individual, organization, group, association, partnership, corporation, trust or any combination of them.

(d) "Professional fund raiser" means any person who for compensation or other consideration, conducts, manages, or carries on any solicitation or fund raising drive or campaign in this State or from this State or on behalf of a charitable organization residing within this State for the purpose of soliciting, receiving, or collecting contributions for or on behalf of any charitable organization or any other person, or who engages in the business of, or holds himself out to persons in this State as independently engaged in the business of soliciting, receiving, or collecting contributions for such purposes. A bona fide director, officer, employee or unpaid volunteer of a charitable organization shall not be deemed a professional fund raiser unless the person is in a management position and the majority of the individual's salary or other compensation is computed on a percentage basis of funds to be raised, or actually raised.

(e) "Professional fund raising consultant" means any person who is retained by a charitable organization or trustee for a fixed fee or rate that is not computed on a percentage of funds to be raised, or actually raised, under a written agreement, to only plan, advise, consult, or prepare materials for a solicitation of contributions in this State, but who does not manage, conduct or carry on a fundraising campaign and who does not solicit contributions or employ, procure, or engage any compensated person to solicit contributions and who does not at any time have custody or control of contributions. A volunteer, employee or salaried officer of a charitable organization or trustee maintaining a permanent establishment or office in this State is not a professional fundraising consultant. An attorney, investment counselor, or banker who advises an individual, corporation or association to make a charitable contribution is not a professional fundraising consultant as a result of the advice.

(f) "Charitable purpose" means any charitable, benevolent, philanthropic, patriotic, or eleemosynary purpose.

(g) "Charitable Trust" means any relationship whereby property is held by a person for a charitable purpose.

(h) "Education Program Service" means any activity which provides information to the public of a nature that is not commonly known or facts which are not universally regarded as obvious or as established by common understanding and which informs the public of what it can or should do about a particular issue.

(i) "Primary Program Service" means the program service upon which an organization spends more than 50% of its program service funds or the program activity which represents the largest expenditure of funds in the fiscal period.

(j) "Professional solicitor" means any natural person who is employed or retained for compensation by a professional fund raiser to solicit, receive, or collect contributions for charitable purposes from persons in this State or from this State or on behalf of a charitable organization residing within this State.

(k) "Program Service Activity" means the actual charitable program activities of a charitable organization for which it expends its resources.

(l) "Program Service Expense" means the expenses of charitable program activity and not management expenses or fund raising expenses. In determining Program Service Expense, management and fund raising expenses may not be included.

(m) "Public Safety Personnel Organization" means any person who uses any of the words "officer", "police", "policeman", "policemen", "troopers", "sheriff", "law enforcement", "fireman", "firemen", "paramedic", or similar words in its name or in conjunction with solicitations, or in the title or name of a magazine, newspaper, periodical, advertisement book, or any other medium of electronic or print publication, and is not a governmental entity. No organization may be a Public Safety Personnel Organization unless 80% or more of its voting members or trustees are active or , retired police officers, police officers with disabilities , or disabled police officers, peace officers, firemen, fire fighters, emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel.

(m-5) "Public Safety Personnel" includes police officers, peace officers, firemen, fire fighters, emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, and other medical assistance or first aid personnel.

(n) "Trustee" means any person, individual, group of individuals, association, corporation, not for profit corporation, or other legal entity holding property for or solicited for any charitable purpose; or any officer, director, executive director or other controlling persons of a corporation soliciting or holding property for a charitable purpose.

(Source: P.A. 94-749, eff. 1-1-07.)

(225 ILCS 460/11) (from Ch. 23, par. 5111)

Sec. 11. (a) No person shall for the purpose of soliciting contributions from persons in this State, use the name of any other person, except that of an officer, director or trustee of the charitable organization by or for which contributions are solicited, without the written consent of such other persons.

(b) A person shall be deemed to have used the name of another person for the purpose of soliciting contributions if such latter person's name is listed on any stationery, advertisement, brochure or correspondence in or by which a contribution is solicited by or on behalf of a charitable organization or his name is listed or referred to in connection with a request for a contribution as one who has contributed to, sponsored or endorsed the charitable organization or its activities.

(c) Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the publication of names of contributors without their written consents, in an annual or other periodic report issued by a charitable organization for the purpose of reporting on its operations and affairs to its membership or for the purpose of reporting contributions to contributors.

(d) No charitable organization or professional fund raiser soliciting contributions shall use a name, symbol, or statement so closely related or similar to that used by another charitable organization or governmental agency that the use thereof would tend to confuse or mislead the public.

(d-1) No Public Safety Personnel Organization may by words in its name or in its solicitations claim to be representing, acting on behalf of, assisting, or affiliated with the public safety personnel of a particular municipal, regional, or other geographical area, unless: (1) 80% or more of the organization's voting members and trustees are persons who are actively employed or retired or disabled from employment within the particular municipal, regional, or other geographical area stated in the name or solicitation; (2) all of these members are vested with the right to vote in the election of the managing or controlling officers of the organization either directly or through delegates; and (3) the organization includes in any solicitation the actual number of active or , retired police officers, or police officers with disabilities , or disabled police officers, peace officers, firemen, fire fighters, emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel who are members of the organization who are actively employed, retired, or disabled from employment within the particular municipal, regional, or other geographical area referenced in the solicitation.

(d-2) No person or organization may have a name or use a name using the words "officer", "police", "policeman", "policemen", "trooper", "sheriff", "law enforcement officer", "deputy", "chief of police", or similar words therein unless 80% or more of its trustees and voting members are active or , retired law enforcement personnel or law enforcement personnel with disabilities , or disabled law enforcement personnel.

(d-3) No person or organization may have a name or use a name using the words "fireman", "firemen", "fire fighter", "fire chief", "paramedic", or similar words therein unless 80% or more of its trustees and voting members are active or , retired fire fighters or fire fighters with disabilities or disabled fire fighters, firemen, emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel.

(d-4) No person by words in a Public Safety Personnel Organization name or in solicitations made therefor shall state he or she or his or her organization is assisting or affiliated with a local, municipal, regional, or other governmental body or geographical area unless 80% of its trustees and voting members are active or , retired police officers or police officers with disabilities , or disabled police officers, law enforcement officials, firemen, fire fighters, emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel of the local, municipal, regional, or other geographical area so named or stated. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a Public Safety Personnel Organization from stating the actual number of members it has in any geographical area.

(e) Any person or organization that willfully violates the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any person or organization that willfully violates the provisions of this Section may in addition to other remedies be subject to a fine of $2,000 for each violation, shall be subject to forfeiture of all solicitation fees, and shall be enjoined from operating as a fund raiser and soliciting the public for fundraising purposes.

(Source: P.A. 91-301, eff. 7-29-99.)

Section 625. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 28 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/28) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-28)

Sec. 28. Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, moneys collected shall be distributed according to the provisions of this Section 28.

(a) Thirty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building Fund in the State Treasury.

(b) In addition, 4.5% of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the State treasury into a special Fund to be known as the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium, and Office Building Fund.

(c) Fifty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes under the provisions of this Act shall be paid into the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(d) Seven per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Fair and Exposition Fund in the State treasury; provided, however, that when all bonds issued prior to July 1, 1984 by the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority shall have been paid or payment shall have been provided for upon a refunding of those bonds, thereafter 1/12 of $1,665,662 of such monies shall be paid each month into the Build Illinois Fund, and the remainder into the Fair and Exposition Fund. All excess monies shall be allocated to the Department of Agriculture for distribution to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act.

(e) The monies provided for in Section 30 shall be paid into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

(f) The monies provided for in Section 31 shall be paid into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

(g) Until January 1, 2000, that part representing 1/2 of the total breakage in Thoroughbred, Harness, Appaloosa, Arabian, and Quarter Horse racing in the State shall be paid into the Illinois Race Track Improvement Fund as established in Section 32.

(h) All other monies received by the Board under this Act shall be paid into the Horse Racing Fund.

(i) The salaries of the Board members, secretary, stewards, directors of mutuels, veterinarians, representatives, accountants, clerks, stenographers, inspectors and other employees of the Board, and all expenses of the Board incident to the administration of this Act, including, but not limited to, all expenses and salaries incident to the taking of saliva and urine samples in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Board shall be paid out of the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(j) The Agricultural Premium Fund shall also be used:

(1) for the expenses of operating the Illinois State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair, including the payment of prize money or premiums;

(2) for the distribution to county fairs, vocational agriculture section fairs, agricultural societies, and agricultural extension clubs in accordance with the Agricultural Fair Act, as amended;

(3) for payment of prize monies and premiums awarded and for expenses incurred in connection with the International Livestock Exposition and the Mid-Continent Livestock Exposition held in Illinois, which premiums, and awards must be approved, and paid by the Illinois Department of Agriculture;

(4) for personal service of county agricultural advisors and county home advisors;

(5) for distribution to agricultural home economic extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finance for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties in this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967, as amended;

(6) for research on equine disease, including a development center therefor;

(7) for training scholarships for study on equine diseases to students at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine;

(8) for the rehabilitation, repair and maintenance of the Illinois and DuQuoin State Fair Grounds and the structures and facilities thereon and the construction of permanent improvements on such Fair Grounds, including such structures, facilities and property located on such State Fair Grounds which are under the custody and control of the Department of Agriculture;

(9) for the expenses of the Department of Agriculture under Section 5-530 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-530);

(10) for the expenses of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Sections 605-620, 605-625, and 605-630 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law (20 ILCS 605/605-620, 605/605-625, and 605/605-630);

(11) for remodeling, expanding, and reconstructing facilities destroyed by fire of any Fair and Exposition Authority in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants;

(12) for the purpose of assisting in the care and general rehabilitation of veterans with disabilities disabled veterans of any war and their surviving spouses and orphans;

(13) for expenses of the Department of State Police for duties performed under this Act;

(14) for the Department of Agriculture for soil surveys and soil and water conservation purposes;

(15) for the Department of Agriculture for grants to the City of Chicago for conducting the Chicagofest;

(16) for the State Comptroller for grants and operating expenses authorized by the Illinois Global Partnership Act.

(k) To the extent that monies paid by the Board to the Agricultural Premium Fund are in the opinion of the Governor in excess of the amount necessary for the purposes herein stated, the Governor shall notify the Comptroller and the State Treasurer of such fact, who, upon receipt of such notification, shall transfer such excess monies from the Agricultural Premium Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1060, eff. 8-24-12.)

Section 630. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 120, par. 2406)

Sec. 6. Application for Owners License.

(a) A qualified person may apply to the Board for an owners license to conduct a riverboat gambling operation as provided in this Act. The application shall be made on forms provided by the Board and shall contain such information as the Board prescribes, including but not limited to the identity of the riverboat on which such gambling operation is to be conducted and the exact location where such riverboat will be docked, a certification that the riverboat will be registered under this Act at all times during which gambling operations are conducted on board, detailed information regarding the ownership and management of the applicant, and detailed personal information regarding the applicant. Any application for an owners license to be re-issued on or after June 1, 2003 shall also include the applicant's license bid in a form prescribed by the Board. Information provided on the application shall be used as a basis for a thorough background investigation which the Board shall conduct with respect to each applicant. An incomplete application shall be cause for denial of a license by the Board.

(b) Applicants shall submit with their application all documents, resolutions, and letters of support from the governing body that represents the municipality or county wherein the licensee will dock.

(c) Each applicant shall disclose the identity of every person, association, trust or corporation having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the riverboat gambling operation with respect to which the license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.

(d) An application shall be filed and considered in accordance with the rules of the Board. An application fee of $50,000 shall be paid at the time of filing to defray the costs associated with the background investigation conducted by the Board. If the costs of the investigation exceed $50,000, the applicant shall pay the additional amount to the Board. If the costs of the investigation are less than $50,000, the applicant shall receive a refund of the remaining amount. All information, records, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda or other data supplied to or used by the Board in the course of its review or investigation of an application for a license or a renewal under this Act shall be privileged, strictly confidential and shall be used only for the purpose of evaluating an applicant for a license or a renewal. Such information, records, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda or other data shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person, except for any action deemed necessary by the Board.

(e) The Board shall charge each applicant a fee set by the Department of State Police to defray the costs associated with the search and classification of fingerprints obtained by the Board with respect to the applicant's application. These fees shall be paid into the State Police Services Fund.

(f) The licensed owner shall be the person primarily responsible for the boat itself. Only one riverboat gambling operation may be authorized by the Board on any riverboat. The applicant must identify each riverboat it intends to use and certify that the riverboat: (1) has the authorized capacity required in this Act; (2) is accessible to persons with disabilities disabled persons; and (3) is fully registered and licensed in accordance with any applicable laws.

(g) A person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1392, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 635. The Bingo License and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1.3 as follows:

(230 ILCS 25/1.3)

Sec. 1.3. Restrictions on licensure. Licensing for the conducting of bingo is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) The license application, when submitted to the Department, must contain a sworn statement attesting to the not-for-profit character of the prospective licensee organization, signed by a person listed on the application as an owner, officer, or other person in charge of the necessary day-to-day operations of that organization.

(2) The license application shall be prepared in accordance with the rules of the Department.

(3) The licensee shall prominently display the license in the area where the licensee conducts bingo. The licensee shall likewise display, in the form and manner as prescribed by the Department, the provisions of Section 8 of this Act.

(4) Each license shall state the day of the week, hours and at which location the licensee is permitted to conduct bingo games.

(5) A license is not assignable or transferable.

(6) A license authorizes the licensee to conduct the game commonly known as bingo, in which prizes are awarded on the basis of designated numbers or symbols on a card conforming to numbers or symbols selected at random.

(7) The Department may, on special application made by any organization having a bingo license, issue a special permit for conducting bingo at other premises and on other days not exceeding 5 consecutive days, except that a licensee may conduct bingo at the Illinois State Fair or any county fair held in Illinois during each day that the fair is held, without a fee. Bingo games conducted at the Illinois State Fair or a county fair shall not require a special permit. No more than 2 special permits may be issued in one year to any one organization.

(8) Any organization qualified for a license but not holding one may, upon application and payment of a nonrefundable fee of $50, receive a limited license to conduct bingo games at no more than 2 indoor or outdoor festivals in a year for a maximum of 5 consecutive days on each occasion. No more than 2 limited licenses under this item (7) may be issued to any organization in any year. A limited license must be prominently displayed at the site where the bingo games are conducted.

(9) Senior citizens organizations and units of local government may conduct bingo without a license or fee, subject to the following conditions:

(A) bingo shall be conducted only (i) at a facility that is owned by a unit of local government to which the corporate authorities have given their approval and that is used to provide social services or a meeting place to senior citizens, (ii) in common areas in multi-unit federally assisted rental housing maintained solely for elderly persons and persons with disabilities the elderly and handicapped, or (iii) at a building owned by a church or veterans organization;

(B) the price paid for a single card shall not exceed 50 cents;

(C) the aggregate retail value of all prizes or merchandise awarded in any one game of bingo shall not exceed $10;

(D) no person or organization shall participate in the management or operation of bingo under this item (9) if the person or organization would be ineligible for a license under this Section; and

(E) no license is required to provide premises for bingo conducted under this item (9).

(10) Bingo equipment shall not be used for any purpose other than for the play of bingo.

(Source: P.A. 96-210, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1055, eff. 7-14-10; 96-1150, eff. 7-21-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

Section 640. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 4-1.1, 4-1.6, 4-2, 4-3a, 5-1, 5-1.1, 5-2, 5-4, 5-5.4f, 5-5.17, 5-5a, and 5-13 and the heading of Article V-C and Sections 5C-1, 5C-2, 5C-3, 5C-4, 5C-5, 5C-6, 5C-7, 5C-8, 5C-10, 6-1.2, 6-2, 6-11, 11-20, 12-4.42, and 12-5 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/4-1.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1.1)

Sec. 4-1.1. Child age eligibility.

(a) Every assistance unit must include a child, except as provided in subsections (b) and (c). The child or children must have already been born and be under age 18, or, if age 18, must be a full-time student in a secondary school or the equivalent level of vocational or technical training.

(b) Grants shall be provided for assistance units consisting exclusively of a pregnant woman with no dependent child, and may include her husband if living with her, if the pregnancy has been determined by medical diagnosis.

(c) Grants may be provided for assistance units consisting of only adults if all the children living with those adults are children with disabilities disabled and receive Supplemental Security Income.

(Source: P.A. 92-111, eff. 1-1-02.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-1.6) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1.6)

Sec. 4-1.6. Need. Income available to the family as defined by the Illinois Department by rule, or to the child in the case of a child removed from his or her home, when added to contributions in money, substance or services from other sources, including income available from parents absent from the home or from a stepparent, contributions made for the benefit of the parent or other persons necessary to provide care and supervision to the child, and contributions from legally responsible relatives, must be equal to or less than the grant amount established by Department regulation for such a person. For purposes of eligibility for aid under this Article, the Department shall (a) disregard all earned income between the grant amount and 50% of the Federal Poverty Level and (b) disregard the value of all assets held by the family.

In considering income to be taken into account, consideration shall be given to any expenses reasonably attributable to the earning of such income. Three-fourths of the earned income of a household eligible for aid under this Article shall be disregarded when determining the level of assistance for which a household is eligible. The Illinois Department may also permit all or any portion of earned or other income to be set aside for the future identifiable needs of a child. The Illinois Department may provide by rule and regulation for the exemptions thus permitted or required. The eligibility of any applicant for or recipient of public aid under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the "Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act" or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Illinois Department may, by rule, set forth criteria under which an assistance unit is ineligible for cash assistance under this Article for a specified number of months due to the receipt of a lump sum payment.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-114, eff. 7-29-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-2)

Sec. 4-2. Amount of aid.

(a) The amount and nature of financial aid shall be determined in accordance with the grant amounts, rules and regulations of the Illinois Department. Due regard shall be given to the self-sufficiency requirements of the family and to the income, money contributions and other support and resources available, from whatever source. However, the amount and nature of any financial aid is not affected by the payment of any grant under the "Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act" or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The aid shall be sufficient, when added to all other income, money contributions and support to provide the family with a grant in the amount established by Department regulation.

Subject to appropriation, beginning on July 1, 2008, the Department of Human Services shall increase TANF grant amounts in effect on June 30, 2008 by 15%. The Department is authorized to administer this increase but may not otherwise adopt any rule to implement this increase.

(b) The Illinois Department may conduct special projects, which may be known as Grant Diversion Projects, under which recipients of financial aid under this Article are placed in jobs and their grants are diverted to the employer who in turn makes payments to the recipients in the form of salary or other employment benefits. The Illinois Department shall by rule specify the terms and conditions of such Grant Diversion Projects. Such projects shall take into consideration and be coordinated with the programs administered under the Illinois Emergency Employment Development Act.

(c) The amount and nature of the financial aid for a child requiring care outside his own home shall be determined in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, with due regard to the needs and requirements of the child in the foster home or institution in which he has been placed.

(d) If the Department establishes grants for family units consisting exclusively of a pregnant woman with no dependent child or including her husband if living with her, the grant amount for such a unit shall be equal to the grant amount for an assistance unit consisting of one adult, or 2 persons if the husband is included. Other than as herein described, an unborn child shall not be counted in determining the size of an assistance unit or for calculating grants.

Payments for basic maintenance requirements of a child or children and the relative with whom the child or children are living shall be prescribed, by rule, by the Illinois Department.

Grants under this Article shall not be supplemented by General Assistance provided under Article VI.

(e) Grants shall be paid to the parent or other person with whom the child or children are living, except for such amount as is paid in behalf of the child or his parent or other relative to other persons or agencies pursuant to this Code or the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department.

(f) Subject to subsection (f-5), an assistance unit, receiving financial aid under this Article or temporarily ineligible to receive aid under this Article under a penalty imposed by the Illinois Department for failure to comply with the eligibility requirements or that voluntarily requests termination of financial assistance under this Article and becomes subsequently eligible for assistance within 9 months, shall not receive any increase in the amount of aid solely on account of the birth of a child; except that an increase is not prohibited when the birth is (i) of a child of a pregnant woman who became eligible for aid under this Article during the pregnancy, or (ii) of a child born within 10 months after the date of implementation of this subsection, or (iii) of a child conceived after a family became ineligible for assistance due to income or marriage and at least 3 months of ineligibility expired before any reapplication for assistance. This subsection does not, however, prevent a unit from receiving a general increase in the amount of aid that is provided to all recipients of aid under this Article.

The Illinois Department is authorized to transfer funds, and shall use any budgetary savings attributable to not increasing the grants due to the births of additional children, to supplement existing funding for employment and training services for recipients of aid under this Article IV. The Illinois Department shall target, to the extent the supplemental funding allows, employment and training services to the families who do not receive a grant increase after the birth of a child. In addition, the Illinois Department shall provide, to the extent the supplemental funding allows, such families with up to 24 months of transitional child care pursuant to Illinois Department rules. All remaining supplemental funds shall be used for employment and training services or transitional child care support.

In making the transfers authorized by this subsection, the Illinois Department shall first determine, pursuant to regulations adopted by the Illinois Department for this purpose, the amount of savings attributable to not increasing the grants due to the births of additional children. Transfers may be made from General Revenue Fund appropriations for distributive purposes authorized by Article IV of this Code only to General Revenue Fund appropriations for employability development services including operating and administrative costs and related distributive purposes under Article IXA of this Code. The Director, with the approval of the Governor, shall certify the amount and affected line item appropriations to the State Comptroller.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit the Illinois Department from using funds under this Article IV to provide assistance in the form of vouchers that may be used to pay for goods and services deemed by the Illinois Department, by rule, as suitable for the care of the child such as diapers, clothing, school supplies, and cribs.

(f-5) Subsection (f) shall not apply to affect the monthly assistance amount of any family as a result of the birth of a child on or after January 1, 2004. As resources permit after January 1, 2004, the Department may cease applying subsection (f) to limit assistance to families receiving assistance under this Article on January 1, 2004, with respect to children born prior to that date. In any event, subsection (f) shall be completely inoperative on and after July 1, 2007.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department is authorized to reduce payment levels used to determine cash grants under this Article after December 31 of any fiscal year if the Illinois Department determines that the caseload upon which the appropriations for the current fiscal year are based have increased by more than 5% and the appropriation is not sufficient to ensure that cash benefits under this Article do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those cash benefits. Reductions in payment levels may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply. Increases in payment levels shall be accomplished only in accordance with Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Before any rule to increase payment levels promulgated under this Section shall become effective, a joint resolution approving the rule must be adopted by a roll call vote by a majority of the members elected to each chamber of the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-3a) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-3a)

Sec. 4-3a. No otherwise qualified child with a disability handicapped child receiving special education and related services under Article 14 of The School Code shall solely by reason of his or her disability handicap be excluded from the participation in or be denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity provided by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 80-1403.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-1)

Sec. 5-1. Declaration of purpose. It is the purpose of this Article to provide a program of essential medical care and rehabilitative services for persons receiving basic maintenance grants under this Code and for other persons who are unable, because of inadequate resources, to meet their essential medical needs.

Preservation of health, alleviation of sickness, and correction of disabling handicapping conditions for persons requiring maintenance support are essential if they are to have an opportunity to become self-supporting or to attain a greater capacity for self-care. For persons who are medically indigent but otherwise able to provide themselves with a livelihood, it is of special importance to maintain their incentives for continued independence and preserve their limited resources for ordinary maintenance needs to prevent their total or substantial dependency.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 122.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-1.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-1.1)

Sec. 5-1.1. Definitions. The terms defined in this Section shall have the meanings ascribed to them, except when the context otherwise requires.

(a) "Nursing facility" means a facility, licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, that provides nursing facility services within the meaning of Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(b) "Intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled" or "ICF/DD" means a facility, licensed by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act, that is an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(c) "Standard services" means those services required for the care of all patients in the facility and shall, as a minimum, include the following: (1) administration; (2) dietary (standard); (3) housekeeping; (4) laundry and linen; (5) maintenance of property and equipment, including utilities; (6) medical records; (7) training of employees; (8) utilization review; (9) activities services; (10) social services; (11) disability services; and all other similar services required by either the laws of the State of Illinois or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities or by Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(d) "Patient services" means those which vary with the number of personnel; professional and para-professional skills of the personnel; specialized equipment, and reflect the intensity of the medical and psycho-social needs of the patients. Patient services shall as a minimum include: (1) physical services; (2) nursing services, including restorative nursing; (3) medical direction and patient care planning; (4) health related supportive and habilitative services and all similar services required by either the laws of the State of Illinois or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities or by Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(e) "Ancillary services" means those services which require a specific physician's order and defined as under the medical assistance program as not being routine in nature for skilled nursing facilities and ICF/DDs. Such services generally must be authorized prior to delivery and payment as provided for under the rules of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(f) "Capital" means the investment in a facility's assets for both debt and non-debt funds. Non-debt capital is the difference between an adjusted replacement value of the assets and the actual amount of debt capital.

(g) "Profit" means the amount which shall accrue to a facility as a result of its revenues exceeding its expenses as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.

(h) "Non-institutional services" means those services provided under paragraph (f) of Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act and those services provided under Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging.

(i) (Blank).

(j) "Institutionalized person" means an individual who is an inpatient in an ICF/DD or nursing facility, or who is an inpatient in a medical institution receiving a level of care equivalent to that of an ICF/DD or nursing facility, or who is receiving services under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act.

(k) "Institutionalized spouse" means an institutionalized person who is expected to receive services at the same level of care for at least 30 days and is married to a spouse who is not an institutionalized person.

(l) "Community spouse" is the spouse of an institutionalized spouse.

(m) "Health Benefits Service Package" means, subject to federal approval, benefits covered by the medical assistance program as determined by the Department by rule for individuals eligible for medical assistance under paragraph 18 of Section 5-2 of this Code.

(n) "Federal poverty level" means the poverty guidelines updated periodically in the Federal Register by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. These guidelines set poverty levels by family size.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-820, eff. 7-17-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of Persons Eligible.

Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him. If changes made in this Section 5-2 require federal approval, they shall not take effect until such approval has been received:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Beginning January 1, 2014, persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including but not limited to the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 100% of the federal poverty level; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 100% of the federal poverty level.

(b) (Blank).

3. (Blank).

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Women during pregnancy and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants, whose income is at or below 200% of the federal poverty level. Until September 30, 2019, or sooner if the maintenance of effort requirements under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act are eliminated or may be waived before then, women during pregnancy and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, whose countable monthly income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care as specified in administrative rule, is equal to or less than the Medical Assistance-No Grant(C) (MANG(C)) Income Standard in effect on April 1, 2013 as set forth in administrative rule.

(b) The plan for coverage shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant women during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 200% of the federal poverty level, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant women, together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. (a) Children younger than age 19 when countable income is at or below 133% of the federal poverty level. Until September 30, 2019, or sooner if the maintenance of effort requirements under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act are eliminated or may be waived before then, children younger than age 19 whose countable monthly income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care as specified in administrative rule, is equal to or less than the Medical Assistance-No Grant(C) (MANG(C)) Income Standard in effect on April 1, 2013 as set forth in administrative rule.

(b) Children and youth who are under temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services or who receive financial assistance in support of an adoption or guardianship placement from the Department of Children and Family Services.

7. (Blank).

8. As required under federal law, persons who are eligible for Transitional Medical Assistance as a result of an increase in earnings or child or spousal support received. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage to the extent required by federal law; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered under Illinois' State Medicaid Plan;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, and, subject to federal approval, persons with a medically improved disability who are employed and eligible for Medicaid pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xvi) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Services Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

In addition to the persons who are eligible for medical assistance pursuant to subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph 12, and to be paid from funds appropriated to the Department for its medical programs, any uninsured person as defined by the Department in rules residing in Illinois who is younger than 65 years of age, who has been screened for breast and cervical cancer in accordance with standards and procedures adopted by the Department of Public Health for screening, and who is referred to the Department by the Department of Public Health as being in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer is eligible for medical assistance benefits that are consistent with the benefits provided to those persons described in subparagraphs (1) and (2). Medical assistance coverage for the persons who are eligible under the preceding sentence is not dependent on federal approval, but federal moneys may be used to pay for services provided under that coverage upon federal approval.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

15. Family Care Eligibility.

(a) On and after July 1, 2012, a parent or other caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 133% of the federal poverty level. A person may not spend down to become eligible under this paragraph 15.

(b) Eligibility shall be reviewed annually.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Following termination of an individual's coverage under this paragraph 15, the individual must be determined eligible before the person can be re-enrolled.

16. Subject to appropriation, uninsured persons who are not otherwise eligible under this Section who have been certified and referred by the Department of Public Health as having been screened and found to need diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment, for prostate or testicular cancer. For the purposes of this paragraph 16, uninsured persons are those who do not have creditable coverage, as defined under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, or have otherwise exhausted any insurance benefits they may have had, for prostate or testicular cancer diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment. To be eligible, a person must furnish a Social Security number. A person's assets are exempt from consideration in determining eligibility under this paragraph 16. Such persons shall be eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 16 for so long as they need treatment for the cancer. A person shall be considered to need treatment if, in the opinion of the person's treating physician, the person requires therapy directed toward cure or palliation of prostate or testicular cancer, including recurrent metastatic cancer that is a known or presumed complication of prostate or testicular cancer and complications resulting from the treatment modalities themselves. Persons who require only routine monitoring services are not considered to need treatment. "Medical assistance" under this paragraph 16 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department (i) does not have a claim against the estate of a deceased recipient of services under this paragraph 16 and (ii) does not have a lien against any homestead property or other legal or equitable real property interest owned by a recipient of services under this paragraph 16.

17. Persons who, pursuant to a waiver approved by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, are eligible for medical assistance under Title XIX or XXI of the federal Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and consistent with the terms of the approved waiver, the Illinois Department, may by rule:

(a) Limit the geographic areas in which the waiver program operates.

(b) Determine the scope, quantity, duration, and quality, and the rate and method of reimbursement, of the medical services to be provided, which may differ from those for other classes of persons eligible for assistance under this Article.

(c) Restrict the persons' freedom in choice of providers.

18. Beginning January 1, 2014, persons aged 19 or older, but younger than 65, who are not otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Section 5-2, who qualify for medical assistance pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII) and applicable federal regulations, and who have income at or below 133% of the federal poverty level plus 5% for the applicable family size as determined pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e)(14) and applicable federal regulations. Persons eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 18 shall receive coverage for the Health Benefits Service Package as that term is defined in subsection (m) of Section 5-1.1 of this Code. If Illinois' federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP) is reduced below 90% for persons eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 18, eligibility under this paragraph 18 shall cease no later than the end of the third month following the month in which the reduction in FMAP takes effect.

19. Beginning January 1, 2014, as required under 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(IX), persons older than age 18 and younger than age 26 who are not otherwise eligible for medical assistance under paragraphs (1) through (17) of this Section who (i) were in foster care under the responsibility of the State on the date of attaining age 18 or on the date of attaining age 21 when a court has continued wardship for good cause as provided in Section 2-31 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and (ii) received medical assistance under the Illinois Title XIX State Plan or waiver of such plan while in foster care.

In implementing the provisions of Public Act 96-20, the Department is authorized to adopt only those rules necessary, including emergency rules. Nothing in Public Act 96-20 permits the Department to adopt rules or issue a decision that expands eligibility for the FamilyCare Program to a person whose income exceeds 185% of the Federal Poverty Level as determined from time to time by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, unless the Department is provided with express statutory authority.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if the United States Supreme Court holds Title II, Subtitle A, Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148 to be unconstitutional, or if a holding of Public Law 111-148 makes Medicaid eligibility allowed under Section 2001(a) inoperable, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if an Act of Congress that becomes a Public Law eliminates Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

Effective October 1, 2013, the determination of eligibility of persons who qualify under paragraphs 5, 6, 8, 15, 17, and 18 of this Section shall comply with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e)(14) and applicable federal regulations.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Illinois health insurance marketplace shall work cooperatively to assist persons who would otherwise lose health benefits as a result of changes made under this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly to transition to other health insurance coverage.

(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-687, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-4)

Sec. 5-4. Amount and nature of medical assistance.

(a) The amount and nature of medical assistance shall be determined in accordance with the standards, rules, and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, with due regard to the requirements and conditions in each case, including contributions available from legally responsible relatives. However, the amount and nature of such medical assistance shall not be affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The amount and nature of medical assistance shall not be affected by the receipt of donations or benefits from fundraisers in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

In determining the income and resources available to the institutionalized spouse and to the community spouse, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall follow the procedures established by federal law. If an institutionalized spouse or community spouse refuses to comply with the requirements of Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act and the regulations duly promulgated thereunder by failing to provide the total value of assets, including income and resources, to the extent either the institutionalized spouse or community spouse has an ownership interest in them pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396r-5, such refusal may result in the institutionalized spouse being denied eligibility and continuing to remain ineligible for the medical assistance program based on failure to cooperate.

Subject to federal approval, the community spouse resource allowance shall be established and maintained at the higher of $109,560 or the minimum level permitted pursuant to Section 1924(f)(2) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or an amount set after a fair hearing, whichever is greater. The monthly maintenance allowance for the community spouse shall be established and maintained at the higher of $2,739 per month or the minimum level permitted pursuant to Section 1924(d)(3) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or an amount set after a fair hearing, whichever is greater. Subject to the approval of the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the provisions of this Section shall be extended to persons who but for the provision of home or community-based services under Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, would require the level of care provided in an institution, as is provided for in federal law.

(b) Spousal support for institutionalized spouses receiving medical assistance.

(i) The Department may seek support for an institutionalized spouse, who has assigned his or her right of support from his or her spouse to the State, from the resources and income available to the community spouse.

(ii) The Department may bring an action in the circuit court to establish support orders or itself establish administrative support orders by any means and procedures authorized in this Code, as applicable, except that the standard and regulations for determining ability to support in Section 10-3 shall not limit the amount of support that may be ordered.

(iii) Proceedings may be initiated to obtain support, or for the recovery of aid granted during the period such support was not provided, or both, for the obtainment of support and the recovery of the aid provided. Proceedings for the recovery of aid may be taken separately or they may be consolidated with actions to obtain support. Such proceedings may be brought in the name of the person or persons requiring support or may be brought in the name of the Department, as the case requires.

(iv) The orders for the payment of moneys for the support of the person shall be just and equitable and may direct payment thereof for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require, including support for a period before the date the order for support is entered. In no event shall the orders reduce the community spouse resource allowance below the level established in subsection (a) of this Section or an amount set after a fair hearing, whichever is greater, or reduce the monthly maintenance allowance for the community spouse below the level permitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4f)

Sec. 5-5.4f. Intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled quality workforce initiative.

(a) Legislative intent. Individuals with developmental disabilities who live in community-based settings rely on direct support staff for a variety of supports and services essential to the ability to reach their full potential. A stable, well-trained direct support workforce is critical to the well-being of these individuals. State and national studies have documented high rates of turnover among direct support workers and confirmed that improvements in wages can help reduce turnover and develop a more stable and committed workforce. This Section would increase the wages and benefits for direct care workers supporting individuals with developmental disabilities and provide accountability by ensuring that additional resources go directly to these workers.

(b) Reimbursement. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5.4, in order to attract and retain a stable, qualified, and healthy workforce, beginning July 1, 2010, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may reimburse an individual intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled for spending incurred to provide improved wages and benefits to its employees serving the individuals residing in the facility. Reimbursement shall be based upon patient days reported in the facility's most recent cost report. Subject to available appropriations, this reimbursement shall be made according to the following criteria:

(1) The Department shall reimburse the facility to compensate for spending on improved wages and benefits for its eligible employees. Eligible employees include employees engaged in direct care work.

(2) In order to qualify for reimbursement under this Section, a facility must submit to the Department, before January 1 of each year, documentation of a written, legally binding commitment to increase spending for the purpose of providing improved wages and benefits to its eligible employees during the next year. The commitment must be binding as to both existing and future staff. The commitment must include a method of enforcing the commitment that is available to the employees or their representative and is expeditious, uses a neutral decision-maker, and is economical for the employees. The Department must also receive documentation of the facility's provision of written notice of the commitment and the availability of the enforcement mechanism to the employees or their representative.

(3) Reimbursement shall be based on the amount of increased spending to be incurred by the facility for improving wages and benefits that exceeds the spending reported in the cost report currently used by the Department. Reimbursement shall be calculated as follows: the per diem equivalent of the quarterly difference between the cost to provide improved wages and benefits for covered eligible employees as identified in the legally binding commitment and the previous period cost of wages and benefits as reported in the cost report currently used by the Department, subject to the limitations identified in paragraph (2) of this subsection. In no event shall the per diem increase be in excess of $5.00 for any 12 month period for an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled with more than 16 beds, or in excess of $6.00 for any 12 month period for an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled with 16 beds or less.

(4) Any intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled is eligible to receive reimbursement under this Section. A facility's eligibility to receive reimbursement shall continue as long as the facility maintains eligibility under paragraph (2) of this subsection and the reimbursement program continues to exist.

(c) Audit. Reimbursement under this Section is subject to audit by the Department and shall be reduced or eliminated in the case of any facility that does not honor its commitment to increase spending to improve the wages and benefits of its employees or that decreases such spending.

(Source: P.A. 96-1124, eff. 7-20-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.17) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.17)

Sec. 5-5.17. Separate reimbursement rate. The Illinois Department may by rule establish a separate reimbursement rate to be paid to long term care facilities for adult developmental training services as defined in Section 15.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which are provided to intellectually disabled residents of such facilities who have intellectual disabilities and who receive aid under this Article. Any such reimbursement shall be based upon cost reports submitted by the providers of such services and shall be paid by the long term care facility to the provider within such time as the Illinois Department shall prescribe by rule, but in no case less than 3 business days after receipt of the reimbursement by such facility from the Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may impose a penalty upon a facility which does not make payment to the provider of adult developmental training services within the time so prescribed, up to the amount of payment not made to the provider.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5a) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5a)

Sec. 5-5a. Waiver for home and community-based services. The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow payment for home and community-based services under this Article.

The Department, in cooperation with the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services and any other relevant State, local or federal government agency, may establish a nursing home pre-screening program to determine whether the applicant, eligible for medical assistance under this Article, may use home and community-based services as a reasonable, lower-cost alternative form of care. For the purpose of this Section, "home and community-based services" may include, but are not limited to, those services provided under subsection (f) of Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act and Section 4 of the Illinois Act on the Aging.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-13) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-13)

Sec. 5-13. Claim against estate of recipients. To the extent permitted under the federal Social Security Act, the amount expended under this Article (1) for a person of any age who is an inpatient in a nursing facility, an intermediate care facility for persons with intellectual disabilities the intellectually disabled, or other medical institution, or (2) for a person aged 55 or more, shall be a claim against the person's estate or a claim against the estate of the person's spouse, regardless of the order of death, but no recovery may be had thereon until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21, or blind, or is a child with a permanent total disability permanently and totally disabled. This Section, however, shall not bar recovery at the death of the person of amounts of medical assistance paid to or in his behalf to which he was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. The term "estate", as used in this Section, with respect to a deceased person, means all real and personal property and other assets included within the person's estate, as that term is used in the Probate Act of 1975; however, in the case of a deceased person who has received (or is entitled to receive) benefits under a long-term care insurance policy in connection with which assets or resources are disregarded to the extent that payments are made or because the deceased person received (or was entitled to receive) benefits under a long-term care insurance policy, "estate" also includes any other real and personal property and other assets in which the deceased person had any legal title or interest at the time of his or her death (to the extent of that interest), including assets conveyed to a survivor, heir, or assignee of the deceased person through joint tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living trust, or other arrangement. The term "homestead", as used in this Section, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, regardless of the value of the property.

A claim arising under this Section against assets conveyed to a survivor, heir, or assignee of the deceased person through joint tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living trust, or other arrangement is not effective until the claim is recorded or filed in the manner provided for a notice of lien in Section 3-10.2. The claim is subject to the same requirements and conditions to which liens on real property interests are subject under Sections 3-10.1 through 3-10.10. A claim arising under this Section attaches to interests owned or subsequently acquired by the estate of a recipient or the estate of a recipient's surviving spouse. The transfer or conveyance of any real or personal property of the estate as defined in this Section shall be subject to the fraudulent transfer conditions that apply to real property in Section 3-11 of this Code.

The provisions of this Section shall not affect the validity of claims against estates for medical assistance provided prior to January 1, 1966 to aged or , blind persons or persons with disabilities , or disabled persons receiving aid under Articles V, VII and VII-A of the 1949 Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/Art. V-C heading)

ARTICLE V-C.

CARE PROVIDER FUNDING FOR PERSONS WITH A DEVELOPMENTAL

DISABILITY DEVELOPMENTALLY DISABLED CARE PROVIDER FUNDING

(305 ILCS 5/5C-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-1)

Sec. 5C-1. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Fund" means the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

"Care facility for persons with a developmental disability Developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any facility operated by the State.

"Care provider for persons with a developmental disability Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person conducting, operating, or maintaining a facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility. For this purpose, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue" shall be computed separately for each facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility conducted, operated, or maintained by a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider, and means the developmentally disabled care provider's total revenue of the care provider for persons with a developmental disability for inpatient residential services less contractual allowances and discounts on patients' accounts, but does not include non-patient revenue from sources such as contributions, donations or bequests, investments, day training services, television and telephone service, and rental of facility space.

"Long-term care facility for persons under 22 years of age serving clinically complex residents" means a facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a long-term care facility for persons under 22 meeting the qualifications of Section 5-5.4h of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-2)

Sec. 5C-2. Assessment; no local authorization to tax.

(a) For the privilege of engaging in the occupation of care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider, an assessment is imposed upon each care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider in an amount equal to 6%, or the maximum allowed under federal regulation, whichever is less, of its adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue for the prior State fiscal year. Notwithstanding any provision of any other Act to the contrary, this assessment shall be construed as a tax, but may not be added to the charges of an individual's nursing home care that is paid for in whole, or in part, by a federal, State, or combined federal-state medical care program, except those individuals receiving Medicare Part B benefits solely.

(b) Nothing in this amendatory Act of 1995 shall be construed to authorize any home rule unit or other unit of local government to license for revenue or impose a tax or assessment upon a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider or the occupation of care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider, or a tax or assessment measured by the income or earnings of a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider.

(c) Effective July 1, 2013, for the privilege of engaging in the occupation of long-term care facility for persons under 22 years of age serving clinically complex residents provider, an assessment is imposed upon each long-term care facility for persons under 22 years of age serving clinically complex residents provider in the same amount and upon the same conditions and requirements as imposed in Article V-B of this Code and a license fee is imposed in the same amount and upon the same conditions and requirements as imposed in Article V-E of this Code. Notwithstanding any provision of any other Act to the contrary, the assessment and license fee imposed by this subsection (c) shall be construed as a tax, but may not be added to the charges of an individual's nursing home care that is paid for in whole, or in part, by a federal, State, or combined federal-State medical care program, except for those individuals receiving Medicare Part B benefits solely.

(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-3) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-3)

Sec. 5C-3. Payment of assessment; penalty.

(a) The assessment imposed by Section 5C-2 for a State fiscal year shall be due and payable in quarterly installments, each equalling one-fourth of the assessment for the year, on September 30, December 31, March 31, and May 31 of the year.

(b) The Illinois Department is authorized to establish delayed payment schedules for care providers for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care providers that are unable to make installment payments when due under this Section due to financial difficulties, as determined by the Illinois Department.

(c) If a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider fails to pay the full amount of an installment when due (including any extensions granted under subsection (b)), there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment imposed by Section 5C-2 for the State fiscal year a penalty assessment equal to the lesser of (i) 5% of the amount of the installment not paid on or before the due date plus 5% of the portion thereof remaining unpaid on the last day of each month thereafter or (ii) 100% of the installment amount not paid on or before the due date. For purposes of this subsection, payments will be credited first to unpaid installment amounts (rather than to penalty or interest), beginning with the most delinquent installments.

(Source: P.A. 87-861; 88-88.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-4)

Sec. 5C-4. Reporting; penalty; maintenance of records.

(a) After June 30 of each State fiscal year, and on or before September 30 of the succeeding State fiscal year, every care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider subject to assessment under this Article shall file a return with the Illinois Department. The return shall report the adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue from the State fiscal year just ended and shall be utilized by the Illinois Department to calculate the assessment for the State fiscal year commencing on the preceding July 1. The return shall be on a form prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the following:

(1) The name of the care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider.

(2) The address of the care provider's developmentally disabled care provider's principal place of business from which the provider engages in the occupation of care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider in this State, and the name and address of all care facilities for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facilities operated or maintained by the provider in this State.

(3) The adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue for the State fiscal year just ended, the amount of assessment imposed under Section 5C-2 for the State fiscal year for which the return is filed, and the amount of each quarterly installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.

(4) The amount of penalty due, if any.

(5) Other reasonable information the Illinois Department requires.

(b) If a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider operates or maintains more than one care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility in this State, the provider may not file a single return covering all those care facilities for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facilities, but shall file a separate return for each care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility and shall compute and pay the assessment for each care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility separately.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or maintain a care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility in respect of which the person is subject to assessment under this Article as a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider, the assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed under Section 5C-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of months in the year during which the provider conducts, operates, or maintains the care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility and the denominator of which is 12. The person shall file a final, amended return with the Illinois Department not more than 90 days after the cessation reflecting the adjustment and shall pay with the final return the assessment for the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, a provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility shall file an initial return for the State fiscal year in which the commencement occurs within 90 days thereafter and shall pay the assessment computed under Section 5C-2 and subsection (e) in equal installments on the due date of the return and on the regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year occurring after the due date of the initial return.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, in the case of a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility throughout the prior State fiscal year, the assessment for that State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue for the prior year as determined by rules adopted by the Illinois Department (which may be based on annualization of the provider's actual revenues for a portion of the State fiscal year, or revenues of a comparable facility for such year, including revenues realized by a prior provider from the same facility during such year).

(f) In the case of a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider existing as a corporation or legal entity other than an individual, the return filed by it shall be signed by its president, vice-president, secretary, or treasurer or by its properly authorized agent.

(g) If a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider fails to file its return for a State fiscal year on or before the due date of the return, there shall, unless waived by the Illinois Department for reasonable cause, be added to the assessment imposed by Section 5C-2 for the State fiscal year a penalty assessment equal to 25% of the assessment imposed for the year.

(h) Every care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider subject to assessment under this Article shall keep records and books that will permit the determination of adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue on a State fiscal year basis. All such books and records shall be kept in the English language and shall, at all times during business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and employees.

(Source: P.A. 87-861.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-5)

Sec. 5C-5. Disposition of proceeds. The Illinois Department shall pay all moneys received from care providers for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care providers under this Article into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Upon certification by the Illinois Department to the State Comptroller of its intent to withhold from a provider under Section 5C-6(b), the State Comptroller shall draw a warrant on the treasury or other fund held by the State Treasurer, as appropriate. The warrant shall state the amount for which the provider is entitled to a warrant, the amount of the deduction, and the reason therefor and shall direct the State Treasurer to pay the balance to the provider, all in accordance with Section 10.05 of the State Comptroller Act. The warrant also shall direct the State Treasurer to transfer the amount of the deduction so ordered from the treasury or other fund into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-6) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-6)

Sec. 5C-6. Administration; enforcement provisions.

(a) To the extent practicable, the Illinois Department shall administer and enforce this Article and collect the assessments, interest, and penalty assessments imposed under this Article, using procedures employed in its administration of this Code generally and, as it deems appropriate, in a manner similar to that in which the Department of Revenue administers and collects the retailers' occupation tax pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act ("ROTA"). Instead of certificates of registration, the Illinois Department shall establish and maintain a listing of all care providers for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care providers appearing in the licensing records of the Department of Public Health, which shall show each provider's name, principal place of business, and the name and address of each care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility operated or maintained by the provider in this State. In addition, the following Retailers' Occupation Tax Act provisions are incorporated by reference into this Section, except that the Illinois Department and its Director (rather than the Department of Revenue and its Director) and every care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider subject to assessment measured by adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue and to the return filing requirements of this Article (rather than persons subject to retailers' occupation tax measured by gross receipts from the sale of tangible personal property at retail and to the return filing requirements of ROTA) shall have the powers, duties, and rights specified in these ROTA provisions, as modified in this Section or by the Illinois Department in a manner consistent with this Article and except as manifestly inconsistent with the other provisions of this Article:

(1) ROTA, Section 4 (examination of return; notice of correction; evidence; limitations; protest and hearing), except that (i) the Illinois Department shall issue notices of assessment liability (rather than notices of tax liability as provided in ROTA, Section 4); (ii) in the case of a fraudulent return or in the case of an extended period agreed to by the Illinois Department and the care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider before the expiration of the limitation period, no notice of assessment liability shall be issued more than 3 years after the later of the due date of the return required by Section 5C-5 or the date the return (or an amended return) was filed (rather within the period stated in ROTA, Section 4); and (iii) the penalty provisions of ROTA, Section 4 shall not apply.

(2) ROTA, Section 5 (failure to make return; failure to pay assessment), except that the penalty and interest provisions of ROTA, Section 5 shall not apply.

(3) ROTA, Section 5a (lien; attachment; termination; notice; protest; review; release of lien; status of lien).

(4) ROTA, Section 5b (State lien notices; State lien index; duties of recorder and registrar of titles).

(5) ROTA, Section 5c (liens; certificate of release).

(6) ROTA, Section 5d (Department not required to furnish bond; claim to property attached or levied upon).

(7) ROTA, Section 5e (foreclosure on liens; enforcement).

(8) ROTA, Section 5f (demand for payment; levy and sale of property; limitation).

(9) ROTA, Section 5g (sale of property; redemption).

(10) ROTA, Section 5j (sales on transfers outside usual course of business; report; payment of assessment; rights and duties of purchaser; penalty).

(11) ROTA, Section 6 (erroneous payments; credit or refund), provided that (i) the Illinois Department may only apply an amount otherwise subject to credit or refund to a liability arising under this Article; (ii) except in the case of an extended period agreed to by the Illinois Department and the care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider prior to the expiration of this limitation period, a claim for credit or refund must be filed no more than 3 years after the due date of the return required by Section 5C-5 (rather than the time limitation stated in ROTA, Section 6); and (iii) credits or refunds shall not bear interest.

(12) ROTA, Section 6a (claims for credit or refund).

(13) ROTA, Section 6b (tentative determination of claim; notice; hearing; review), provided that a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider or its representative shall have 60 days (rather than 20 days) within which to file a protest and request for hearing in response to a tentative determination of claim.

(14) ROTA, Section 6c (finality of tentative determinations).

(15) ROTA, Section 8 (investigations and hearings).

(16) ROTA, Section 9 (witness; immunity).

(17) ROTA, Section 10 (issuance of subpoenas; attendance of witnesses; production of books and records).

(18) ROTA, Section 11 (information confidential; exceptions).

(19) ROTA, Section 12 (rules and regulations; hearing; appeals), except that a care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider shall not be required to file a bond or be subject to a lien in lieu thereof in order to seek court review under the Administrative Review Law of a final assessment or revised final assessment or the equivalent thereof issued by the Illinois Department under this Article.

(b) In addition to any other remedy provided for and without sending a notice of assessment liability, the Illinois Department may collect an unpaid assessment by withholding, as payment of the assessment, reimbursements or other amounts otherwise payable by the Illinois Department to the provider.

(Source: P.A. 87-861.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-7)

Sec. 5C-7. Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving and disbursing assessment moneys in accordance with this Article. Disbursements from the Fund shall be made only as follows:

(1) For payments to intermediate care facilities for persons with a developmental disability the developmentally disabled under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department through error or mistake, and to make required payments under Section 5-4.28(a)(1) of this Code if there are no moneys available for such payments in the Medicaid Provider for Persons with a Developmental Disability Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Department of Human Services or its agent or the Illinois Department or its agent in performing the activities authorized by this Article.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

(6) For making refunds as required under Section 5C-10 of this Article.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers to the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the care provider for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(4) Any balance in the Medicaid Care Provider for Persons With a Developmental Disability Developmentally Disabled Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund in the State Treasury. The balance shall be transferred to the Fund upon certification by the Illinois Department to the State Comptroller that all of the disbursements required by Section 5-4.21(b) of this Code have been made.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-8)

Sec. 5C-8. Applicability. The assessment imposed by Section 5C-2 shall cease to be imposed if the amount of matching federal funds under Title XIX of the Social Security Act is eliminated or significantly reduced on account of the assessment. Assessments imposed prior thereto shall be disbursed in accordance with Section 5C-7 to the extent federal matching is not reduced by the assessments, and any remaining assessments shall be refunded to care providers for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care providers in proportion to the amounts paid by them.

(Source: P.A. 87-861.)

(305 ILCS 5/5C-10)

Sec. 5C-10. Adjustments. For long-term care facilities for persons under 22 years of age serving clinically complex residents previously classified as care facilities for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facilities under this Article, the Department shall refund any amounts paid under this Article in State fiscal year 2014 by the end of State fiscal year 2015 with at least half the refund amount being made prior to December 31, 2014. The amounts refunded shall be based on amounts paid by the facilities to the Department as the assessment under subsection (a) of Section 5C-2 less any assessment and license fee due for State fiscal year 2014.

(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-1.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-1.2)

Sec. 6-1.2. Need. Income available to the person, when added to contributions in money, substance, or services from other sources, including contributions from legally responsible relatives, must be insufficient to equal the grant amount established by Department regulation (or by local governmental unit in units which do not receive State funds) for such a person.

In determining income to be taken into account:

(1) The first $75 of earned income in income assistance units comprised exclusively of one adult person shall be disregarded, and for not more than 3 months in any 12 consecutive months that portion of earned income beyond the first $75 that is the difference between the standard of assistance and the grant amount, shall be disregarded.

(2) For income assistance units not comprised exclusively of one adult person, when authorized by rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, a portion of earned income, not to exceed the first $25 a month plus 50% of the next $75, may be disregarded for the purpose of stimulating and aiding rehabilitative effort and self-support activity.

"Earned income" means money earned in self-employment or wages, salary, or commission for personal services performed as an employee. The eligibility of any applicant for or recipient of public aid under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the "Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act", any refund or payment of the federal Earned Income Tax Credit, or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-2)

Sec. 6-2. Amount of aid. The amount and nature of General Assistance for basic maintenance requirements shall be determined in accordance with local budget standards for local governmental units which do not receive State funds. For local governmental units which do receive State funds, the amount and nature of General Assistance for basic maintenance requirements shall be determined in accordance with the standards, rules and regulations of the Illinois Department. However, the amount and nature of any financial aid is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. Due regard shall be given to the requirements and the conditions existing in each case, and to the income, money contributions and other support and resources available, from whatever source. In local governmental units which do not receive State funds, the grant shall be sufficient when added to all other income, money contributions and support in excess of any excluded income or resources, to provide the person with a grant in the amount established for such a person by the local governmental unit based upon standards meeting basic maintenance requirements. In local governmental units which do receive State funds, the grant shall be sufficient when added to all other income, money contributions and support in excess of any excluded income or resources, to provide the person with a grant in the amount established for such a person by Department regulation based upon standards providing a livelihood compatible with health and well-being, as directed by Section 12-4.11 of this Code.

The Illinois Department may conduct special projects, which may be known as Grant Diversion Projects, under which recipients of financial aid under this Article are placed in jobs and their grants are diverted to the employer who in turn makes payments to the recipients in the form of salary or other employment benefits. The Illinois Department shall by rule specify the terms and conditions of such Grant Diversion Projects. Such projects shall take into consideration and be coordinated with the programs administered under the Illinois Emergency Employment Development Act.

The allowances provided under Article IX for recipients participating in the training and rehabilitation programs shall be in addition to such maximum payment.

Payments may also be made to provide persons receiving basic maintenance support with necessary treatment, care and supplies required because of illness or disability or with acute medical treatment, care, and supplies. Payments for necessary or acute medical care under this paragraph may be made to or in behalf of the person. Obligations incurred for such services but not paid for at the time of a recipient's death may be paid, subject to the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, after the death of the recipient.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-11)

Sec. 6-11. General Assistance.

(a) Effective July 1, 1992, all State funded General Assistance and related medical benefits shall be governed by this Section, provided that, notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012, the State shall not fund the programs outlined in this Section. Other parts of this Code or other laws related to General Assistance shall remain in effect to the extent they do not conflict with the provisions of this Section. If any other part of this Code or other laws of this State conflict with the provisions of this Section, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(b) General Assistance may consist of 2 separate programs. One program shall be for adults with no children and shall be known as Transitional Assistance. The other program may be for families with children and for pregnant women and shall be known as Family and Children Assistance.

(c) (1) To be eligible for Transitional Assistance on or after July 1, 1992, an individual must be ineligible for assistance under any other Article of this Code, must be determined chronically needy, and must be one of the following:

(A) age 18 or over or

(B) married and living with a spouse, regardless of age.

(2) The local governmental unit shall determine whether individuals are chronically needy as follows:

(A) Individuals who have applied for Supplemental Security Income (SSI) and are awaiting a decision on eligibility for SSI who are determined to be a person with a disability disabled by the Illinois Department using the SSI standard shall be considered chronically needy, except that individuals whose disability is based solely on substance addictions (drug abuse and alcoholism) and whose disability would cease were their addictions to end shall be eligible only for medical assistance and shall not be eligible for cash assistance under the Transitional Assistance program.

(B) (Blank).

(C) The unit of local government may specify other categories of individuals as chronically needy; nothing in this Section, however, shall be deemed to require the inclusion of any specific category other than as specified in paragraph (A).

(3) For individuals in Transitional Assistance, medical assistance may be provided by the unit of local government in an amount and nature determined by the unit of local government. Nothing in this paragraph (3) shall be construed to require the coverage of any particular medical service. In addition, the amount and nature of medical assistance provided may be different for different categories of individuals determined chronically needy.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(d) (1) To be eligible for Family and Children Assistance, a family unit must be ineligible for assistance under any other Article of this Code and must contain a child who is:

(A) under age 18 or

(B) age 18 and a full-time student in a secondary school or the equivalent level of vocational or technical training, and who may reasonably be expected to complete the program before reaching age 19.

Those children shall be eligible for Family and Children Assistance.

(2) The natural or adoptive parents of the child living in the same household may be eligible for Family and Children Assistance.

(3) A pregnant woman whose pregnancy has been verified shall be eligible for income maintenance assistance under the Family and Children Assistance program.

(4) The amount and nature of medical assistance provided under the Family and Children Assistance program shall be determined by the unit of local government. The amount and nature of medical assistance provided need not be the same as that provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section, and nothing in this paragraph (4) shall be construed to require the coverage of any particular medical service.

(5) (Blank).

(e) A local governmental unit that chooses to participate in a General Assistance program under this Section shall provide funding in accordance with Section 12-21.13 of this Act. Local governmental funds used to qualify for State funding may only be expended for clients eligible for assistance under this Section 6-11 and related administrative expenses.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-20) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-20)

Sec. 11-20. Employment registration; duty to accept employment. This Section applies to employment and training programs other than those for recipients of assistance under Article IV.

(1) Each applicant or recipient and dependent member of the family age 16 or over who is able to engage in employment and who is unemployed, or employed for less than the full working time for the occupation in which he or she is engaged, shall maintain a current registration for employment or additional employment with the system of free public employment offices maintained in this State by the State Department of Employment Security under the Public Employment Office Act and shall utilize the job placement services and other facilities of such offices unless the Illinois Department otherwise provides by rule for programs administered by the Illinois Department.

(2) Every person age 16 or over shall be deemed "able to engage in employment", as that term is used herein, unless (a) the person has an illness certified by the attending practitioner as precluding his or her engagement in employment of any type for a time period stated in the practitioner's certification; or (b) the person has a medically determinable physical or mental impairment, disease or loss of indefinite duration and of such severity that he or she cannot perform labor or services in any type of gainful work which exists in the national economy, including work adjusted for persons with physical or mental disabilities handicap; or (c) the person is among the classes of persons exempted by paragraph 5 of this Section. A person described in clauses (a), (b) or (c) of the preceding sentence shall be classified as "temporarily unemployable". The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for periodic review of the circumstances of persons classified as "temporarily unemployable".

(3) The Illinois Department shall provide through rules and regulations for sanctions against applicants and recipients of aid under this Code who fail or refuse to cooperate, without good cause, as defined by rule of the Illinois Department, to accept a bona fide offer of employment in which he or she is able to engage either in the community of the person's residence or within reasonable commuting distance therefrom.

The Illinois Department may provide by rule for the grant or continuation of aid for a temporary period, if federal law or regulation so permits or requires, to a person who refuses employment without good cause if he or she accepts counseling or other services designed to increase motivation and incentives for accepting employment.

(4) Without limiting other criteria which the Illinois Department may establish, it shall be good cause of refusal if

(a) the wage does not meet applicable minimum wage requirements,

(b) there being no applicable minimum wage as determined in (a), the wage is certified by the Illinois Department of Labor as being less than that which is appropriate for the work to be performed, or

(c) acceptance of the offer involves a substantial threat to the health or safety of the person or any of his or her dependents.

(5) The requirements of registration and acceptance of employment shall not apply (a) to a parent or other person needed at home to provide personal care and supervision to a child or children unless, in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, suitable arrangements have been or can be made for such care and supervision during the hours of the day the parent or other person is out of the home because of employment; (b) to a person age 16 or over in regular attendance in school, as defined in Section 4-1.1; or (c) to a person whose presence in the home on a substantially continuous basis is required because of the illness or incapacity of another member of the household.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; 92-111, eff. 1-1-02.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.42)

Sec. 12-4.42. Medicaid Revenue Maximization.

(a) Purpose. The General Assembly finds that there is a need to make changes to the administration of services provided by State and local governments in order to maximize federal financial participation.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Community Medicaid mental health services" means all mental health services outlined in Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code that are funded through DHS, eligible for federal financial participation, and provided by a community-based provider.

"Community-based provider" means an entity enrolled as a provider pursuant to Sections 140.11 and 140.12 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code and certified to provide community Medicaid mental health services in accordance with Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

"DCFS" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

"Care facility for persons with a developmental disability Developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for persons with an intellectual disability the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any facility operated by the State.

"Care provider for persons with a developmental disability Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person conducting, operating, or maintaining a care facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"DHS" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.

"Hospital" means an institution, place, building, or agency located in this State that is licensed as a general acute hospital by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Hospital Licensing Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit.

"Long term care facility" means (i) a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, including a county nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided; except that the term "long term care facility" does not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

"Long term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility or (ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"State-operated facility for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facility" means an intermediate care facility for persons with an intellectual disability the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act operated by the State.

(c) Administration and deposit of Revenues. The Department shall coordinate the implementation of changes required by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly amongst the various State and local government bodies that administer programs referred to in this Section.

Revenues generated by program changes mandated by any provision in this Section, less reasonable administrative costs associated with the implementation of these program changes, which would otherwise be deposited into the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

The Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly detailing the implementation progress of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly as a part of the Department's Medical Programs annual report for fiscal years 2010 and 2011.

(d) Acceleration of payment vouchers. To the extent practicable and permissible under federal law, the Department shall create all vouchers for long term care facilities and facilities for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facilities for dates of service in the month in which the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP) originally set forth in the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) expires and for dates of service in the month prior to that month and shall, no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires, submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

The Department of Human Services shall create the necessary documentation for State-operated facilities for persons with a developmental disability developmentally disabled care facilities so that the necessary data for all dates of service before the expiration of the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA can be adjudicated by the Department no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires.

(e) Billing of DHS community Medicaid mental health services. No later than July 1, 2011, community Medicaid mental health services provided by a community-based provider must be billed directly to the Department.

(f) DCFS Medicaid services. The Department shall work with DCFS to identify existing programs, pending qualifying services, that can be converted in an economically feasible manner to Medicaid in order to secure federal financial revenue.

(g) Third Party Liability recoveries. The Department shall contract with a vendor to support the Department in coordinating benefits for Medicaid enrollees. The scope of work shall include, at a minimum, the identification of other insurance for Medicaid enrollees and the recovery of funds paid by the Department when another payer was liable. The vendor may be paid a percentage of actual cash recovered when practical and subject to federal law.

(h) Public health departments. The Department shall identify unreimbursed costs for persons covered by Medicaid who are served by the Chicago Department of Public Health.

The Department shall assist the Chicago Department of Public Health in determining total unreimbursed costs associated with the provision of healthcare services to Medicaid enrollees.

The Department shall determine and draw the maximum allowable federal matching dollars associated with the cost of Chicago Department of Public Health services provided to Medicaid enrollees.

(i) Acceleration of hospital-based payments. The Department shall, by the 10th day of the month in which the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA expires, create vouchers for all State fiscal year 2011 hospital payments exempt from the prompt payment requirements of the ARRA. The Department shall submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1405, eff. 7-29-10; 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-5)

Sec. 12-5. Appropriations; uses; federal grants; report to General Assembly. From the sums appropriated by the General Assembly, the Illinois Department shall order for payment by warrant from the State Treasury grants for public aid under Articles III, IV, and V, including grants for funeral and burial expenses, and all costs of administration of the Illinois Department and the County Departments relating thereto. Moneys appropriated to the Illinois Department for public aid under Article VI may be used, with the consent of the Governor, to co-operate with federal, State, and local agencies in the development of work projects designed to provide suitable employment for persons receiving public aid under Article VI. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds or commodities for public aid purposes under Article VI and for related purposes in which the co-operation of the Illinois Department is sought by the federal government, and, in connection therewith, may make necessary expenditures from moneys appropriated for public aid under any Article of this Code and for administration. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 and may make necessary expenditures from monies appropriated to it for operations, administration, and grants, including payment to the Health Insurance Reserve Fund for group insurance costs at the rate certified by the Department of Central Management Services. All amounts received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 shall be deposited in the Immigration Reform and Control Fund. All amounts received into the Immigration Reform and Control Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

All grants received by the Illinois Department for programs funded by the Federal Social Services Block Grant shall be deposited in the Social Services Block Grant Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant fund for reimbursement for expenditure out of the Local Initiative Fund shall be transferred into the Local Initiative Fund. Any other federal funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund shall be transferred to the Special Purposes Trust Fund. All federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for Employment and Training Programs for expenditures made by the Illinois Department from grants, gifts, or legacies as provided in Section 12-4.18 or made by an entity other than the Illinois Department shall be deposited into the Employment and Training Fund, except that federal funds received as reimbursement as a result of the appropriation made for the costs of providing adult education to public assistance recipients under the "Adult Education, Public Assistance Fund" shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund; provided, however, that all funds, except those that are specified in an interagency agreement between the Illinois Community College Board and the Illinois Department, that are received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement under Title IV-A of the Social Security Act for expenditures that are made by the Illinois Community College Board or any public community college of this State shall be credited to a special account that the State Treasurer shall establish and maintain within the Employment and Training Fund for the purpose of segregating the reimbursements received for expenditures made by those entities. As reimbursements are deposited into the Employment and Training Fund, the Illinois Department shall certify to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer the amount that is to be credited to the special account established within that Fund as a reimbursement for expenditures under Title IV-A of the Social Security Act made by the Illinois Community College Board or any of the public community colleges. All amounts credited to the special account established and maintained within the Employment and Training Fund as provided in this Section shall be held for transfer to the TANF Opportunities Fund as provided in subsection (d) of Section 12-10.3, and shall not be transferred to any other fund or used for any other purpose.

Eighty percent of the federal financial participation funds received by the Illinois Department under the Title IV-A Emergency Assistance program as reimbursement for expenditures made from the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services appropriations for the costs of providing services in behalf of Department of Children and Family Services clients shall be deposited into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

All federal funds, except those covered by the foregoing 3 paragraphs, received as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund for administrative and distributive expenditures properly chargeable by federal law or regulation to aid programs established under Articles III through XII and Titles IV, XVI, XIX and XX of the Federal Social Security Act. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department under Sections 12-4.6, 12-4.18 and 12-4.19 that are required by Section 12-10 of this Code to be paid into the Special Purposes Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Special Purposes Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be deposited in the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund as required under Section 12-10.2 or in the Child Support Administrative Fund as required under Section 12-10.2a of this Code. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5-4.21 of this Code to be paid into the Medicaid Provider for Persons with a Developmental Disability Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Medicaid Provider for Persons with a Developmental Disability Developmentally Disabled Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5-4.31 of this Code to be paid into the Medicaid Long Term Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Medicaid Long Term Care Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for hospital inpatient, hospital ambulatory care, and disproportionate share hospital expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 14-2 of this Code to be paid into the Hospital Services Trust Fund shall be deposited into the Hospital Services Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Articles V and VI of this Code that are required by Section 15-2 of this Code to be paid into the County Provider Trust Fund shall be deposited into the County Provider Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for hospital inpatient, hospital ambulatory care, and disproportionate share hospital expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5A-8 of this Code to be paid into the Hospital Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Hospital Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5B-8 of this Code to be paid into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5C-7 of this Code to be paid into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability shall be deposited into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for trauma center adjustment payments that are required by Section 5-5.03 of this Code and made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for expenses for early intervention services paid from the Early Intervention Services Revolving Fund shall be deposited into that Fund.

The Illinois Department shall report to the General Assembly at the end of each fiscal quarter the amount of all funds received and paid into the Social Service Block Grant Fund and the Local Initiative Fund and the expenditures and transfers of such funds for services, programs and other purposes authorized by law. Such report shall be filed with the Speaker, Minority Leader and Clerk of the House, with the President, Minority Leader and Secretary of the Senate, with the Chairmen of the House and Senate Appropriations Committees, the House Human Resources Committee and the Senate Public Health, Welfare and Corrections Committee, or the successor standing Committees of each as provided by the rules of the House and Senate, respectively, with the Legislative Research Unit and with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

Section 645. The Energy Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(305 ILCS 20/6) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1406)

Sec. 6. Eligibility, Conditions of Participation, and Energy Assistance.

(a) Any person who is a resident of the State of Illinois and whose household income is not greater than an amount determined annually by the Department, in consultation with the Policy Advisory Council, may apply for assistance pursuant to this Act in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Department. In setting the annual eligibility level, the Department shall consider the amount of available funding and may not set a limit higher than 150% of the federal nonfarm poverty level as established by the federal Office of Management and Budget; except that for the period ending June 30, 2013, the Department may not establish limits higher than 200% of that poverty level or the maximum level provided for by federal guidelines.

(b) Applicants who qualify for assistance pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall, subject to appropriation from the General Assembly and subject to availability of funds to the Department, receive energy assistance as provided by this Act. The Department, upon receipt of monies authorized pursuant to this Act for energy assistance, shall commit funds for each qualified applicant in an amount determined by the Department. In determining the amounts of assistance to be provided to or on behalf of a qualified applicant, the Department shall ensure that the highest amounts of assistance go to households with the greatest energy costs in relation to household income. The Department shall include factors such as energy costs, household size, household income, and region of the State when determining individual household benefits. In setting assistance levels, the Department shall attempt to provide assistance to approximately the same number of households who participated in the 1991 Residential Energy Assistance Partnership Program. Such assistance levels shall be adjusted annually on the basis of funding availability and energy costs. In promulgating rules for the administration of this Section the Department shall assure that a minimum of 1/3 of funds available for benefits to eligible households with the lowest incomes and that elderly households and households with persons with disabilities and disabled households are offered a priority application period.

(c) If the applicant is not a customer of record of an energy provider for energy services or an applicant for such service, such applicant shall receive a direct energy assistance payment in an amount established by the Department for all such applicants under this Act; provided, however, that such an applicant must have rental expenses for housing greater than 30% of household income.

(c-1) This subsection shall apply only in cases where: (1) the applicant is not a customer of record of an energy provider because energy services are provided by the owner of the unit as a portion of the rent; (2) the applicant resides in housing subsidized or developed with funds provided under the Rental Housing Support Program Act or under a similar locally funded rent subsidy program, or is the voucher holder who resides in a rental unit within the State of Illinois and whose monthly rent is subsidized by the tenant-based Housing Choice Voucher Program under Section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937; and (3) the rental expenses for housing are no more than 30% of household income. In such cases, the household may apply for an energy assistance payment under this Act and the owner of the housing unit shall cooperate with the applicant by providing documentation of the energy costs for that unit. Any compensation paid to the energy provider who supplied energy services to the household shall be paid on behalf of the owner of the housing unit providing energy services to the household. The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the number of households receiving energy assistance under this subsection and the cost of such assistance. The provisions of this subsection (c-1), other than this sentence, are inoperative after August 31, 2012.

(d) If the applicant is a customer of an energy provider, such applicant shall receive energy assistance in an amount established by the Department for all such applicants under this Act, such amount to be paid by the Department to the energy provider supplying winter energy service to such applicant. Such applicant shall:

(i) make all reasonable efforts to apply to any other appropriate source of public energy assistance; and

(ii) sign a waiver permitting the Department to receive income information from any public or private agency providing income or energy assistance and from any employer, whether public or private.

(e) Any qualified applicant pursuant to this Section may receive or have paid on such applicant's behalf an emergency assistance payment to enable such applicant to obtain access to winter energy services. Any such payments shall be made in accordance with regulations of the Department.

(f) The Department may, if sufficient funds are available, provide additional benefits to certain qualified applicants:

(i) for the reduction of past due amounts owed to energy providers; and

(ii) to assist the household in responding to excessively high summer temperatures or energy costs. Households containing elderly members, children, a person with a disability, or a person with a medical need for conditioned air shall receive priority for receipt of such benefits.

(Source: P.A. 96-154, eff. 1-1-10; 96-157, eff. 9-1-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-721, eff. 6-29-12.)

Section 650. The Medicaid Revenue Act is amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:

(305 ILCS 35/1-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 7051-2)

Sec. 1-2. Legislative finding and declaration. The General Assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares:

(1) It is in the public interest and it is the public policy of this State to provide for and improve the basic medical care and long-term health care services of its indigent, most vulnerable citizens.

(2) Preservation of health, alleviation of sickness, and correction of disabling handicapping conditions for persons requiring maintenance support are essential if those persons are to have an opportunity to become self-supporting or to attain a greater capacity for self-care.

(3) For persons who are medically indigent but otherwise able to provide themselves a livelihood, it is of special importance to maintain their incentives for continued independence and preserve their limited resources for ordinary maintenance needed to prevent their total or substantial dependence on public support.

(4) The State has historically provided for care and services, in conjunction with the federal government, through the establishment and funding of a medical assistance program administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) and approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, that program being commonly referred to as "Medicaid".

(5) The Medicaid program is a funding partnership between the State of Illinois and the federal government, with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services being designated as the single State agency responsible for the administration of the program, but with the State historically receiving 50% of the amounts expended as medical assistance under the Medicaid program from the federal government.

(6) To raise a portion of Illinois' share of the Medicaid funds after July 1, 1991, the General Assembly enacted Public Act 87-13 to provide for the collection of provider participation fees from designated health care providers receiving Medicaid payments.

(7) On September 12, 1991, the Secretary of Health and Human Services proposed regulations that could have reduced the federal matching of Medicaid expenditures incurred on or after January 1, 1992 by the portion of the expenditures paid from funds raised through the provider participation fees.

(8) To prevent the Secretary from enacting those regulations but at the same time to impose certain statutory limitations on the means by which states may raise Medicaid funds eligible for federal matching, Congress enacted the Medicaid Voluntary Contribution and Provider-Specific Tax Amendments of 1991, Public Law 102-234.

(9) Public Law 102-234 provides for a state's share of Medicaid funding eligible for federal matching to be raised through "broad-based health care related taxes", meaning, generally, a tax imposed with respect to a class of health care items or services (or providers thereof) specified therein, which (i) is imposed on all items or services or providers in the class in the state, except federal or public providers, and (ii) is imposed uniformly on all providers in the class at the same rate with respect to the same base.

(10) The separate classes of health care items and services established by P.L. 102-234 include inpatient and outpatient hospital services, nursing facility services, and services of intermediate care facilities for persons with intellectual disabilities the intellectually disabled.

(11) The provider participation fees imposed under P.A. 87-13 may not meet the standards under P.L. 102-234.

(12) The resulting hospital Medicaid reimbursement reductions may force the closure of some hospitals now serving a disproportionately high number of the needy, who would then have to be cared for by remaining hospitals at substantial cost to those remaining hospitals.

(13) The hospitals in the State are all part of and benefit from a hospital system linked together in a number of ways, including common licensing and regulation, health care standards, education, research and disease control reporting, patient transfers for specialist care, and organ donor networks.

(14) Each hospital's patient population demographics, including the proportion of patients whose care is paid by Medicaid, is subject to change over time.

(15) Hospitals in the State have a special interest in the payment of adequate reimbursement levels for hospital care by Medicaid.

(16) Most hospitals are exempt from payment of most federal, State, and local income, sales, property, and other taxes.

(17) The hospital assessment enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 is the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for hospital care reimbursement.

(18) Cook County Hospital and Oak Forest Hospital are public hospitals owned and operated by Cook County with unique fiscal problems, including a patient population that is primarily Medicaid or altogether nonpaying, that make an intergovernmental transfer payment arrangement a more appropriate means of financing than the regular hospital assessment and reimbursement provisions.

(19) Sole community hospitals provide access to essential care that would otherwise not be reasonably available in the community they serve, such that imposition of assessments on them in their precarious financial circumstances may force their closure and have the effect of reducing access to health care.

(20) Each nursing home's resident population demographics, including the proportion of residents whose care is paid by Medicaid, is subject to change over time in that, among other things, residents currently able to pay the cost of nursing home care may become dependent on Medicaid support for continued care and services as resources are depleted.

(21) As the citizens of the State age, increased pressures will be placed on limited facilities to provide reasonable levels of care for a greater number of geriatric residents, and all involved in the nursing home industry, providers and residents, have a special interest in the maintenance of adequate Medicaid support for all nursing facilities.

(22) The assessments on nursing homes enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for nursing home care reimbursement.

(23) All intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities receive a high degree of Medicaid support and benefits and therefore have a special interest in the maintenance of adequate Medicaid support.

(24) The assessments on intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities enacted by this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds needed for reimbursement of providers of intermediate care for persons with developmental disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 655. The Nutrition Outreach and Public Education Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(305 ILCS 42/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

"At-risk populations" means populations including but not limited to families with children receiving aid under Article IV of the Illinois Public Aid Code, households receiving federal supplemental security income payments, households with incomes at or below 185% of the poverty guidelines updated annually in the Federal Register by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under authority of Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, recipients of emergency food, elderly persons or persons with disabilities or disabled persons, homeless persons, unemployed persons, and families and persons residing in rural households who are at risk of nutritional deficiencies.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

"Food assistance programs" means programs including but not limited to the food stamp program, school breakfast and lunch programs, child care food programs, summer food service programs, the special supplemental programs for women, infants and children, congregate meal programs, and home-delivered meal programs.

"High-risk area" means any county or urban area where a significant percentage or number of those potentially eligible for food assistance programs are not participating in such programs.

(Source: P.A. 93-555, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 660. The Housing Authorities Act is amended by changing Section 8.15 as follows:

(310 ILCS 10/8.15) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 8.15)

Sec. 8.15. A Housing Authority may, subject to written approval by the Department, acquire by purchase, condemnation or otherwise any improved or unimproved real property, the acquisition of which is necessary or appropriate for the implementation of a conservation plan for a conservation area as defined in this Act; to remove or demolish substandard or other buildings and structures from the property so acquired; to hold, improve, mortgage and manage such properties; and to sell, lease, or exchange such properties, provided that contracts for repair, improvement or rehabilitation of existing improvements as may be required by the conservation plan to be done by the Authority involving in excess of $1,000 shall be let by free and competitive bidding to the lowest responsible bidder upon such bond and subject to such regulations as may be set by the Department and to the written approval of the Department, and provided further that all new construction for occupancy and use other than by any municipal corporation or county or subdivision thereof shall be on land privately owned.

The acquisition, use or disposition of any real property must conform to a conservation plan developed and approved as provided in Section 8.14. In case of the sale or lease of any real property acquired under a conservation plan, the buyer or lessee must as a condition of sale or lease agree to improve and use the property according to the conservation plan, and such agreement may be made a covenant running with the land, and on order of the Authority and written approval from the Department the agreement shall be made a covenant running with the land. No lease or deed of conveyance either by the Authority or any subsequent owner shall contain a covenant running with the land or other provision prohibiting occupancy of the premises by any person because of race, creed, color, religion, mental or physical disability handicap, national origin or sex.

The Authority shall by public notice by publication once a week for 2 consecutive weeks in a newspaper having general circulation in the municipality or county prior to the execution of any contract to sell, lease or otherwise transfer real property and prior to the delivery of any instrument of conveyance with respect thereto, invite proposals from and make available all pertinent information to redevelopers or any person interested in undertaking to redevelop or rehabilitate a conservation area, or any part thereof; provided that, in municipalities or counties in which no newspaper is published, publication may be made by posting a notice in 3 prominent places within the municipality or county. The notice shall contain a description of the conservation area, the details of the conservation plan relating to the property which the purchaser shall undertake in writing to carry out, and such undertakings as the Authority and the Department may deem necessary to obligate the purchaser, his or her successors and assigns (1) to use the property for the purposes designated in the conservation plan, (2) to commence and complete the improvement, repair, rehabilitation or construction of the improvements within the periods of time which the Authority with written approval from the Department fixes as reasonable and (3) to comply with such other conditions as are necessary to carry out the purpose of the conservation project.

The Authority may negotiate with any persons for proposals for the purchase, lease or other transfer of any real property acquired by it and shall consider all redevelopment and rehabilitation proposals submitted to it and the financial and legal ability of the persons making such proposals to carry them out. The Authority subject to written approval from the Department, at a public meeting, notice of which shall have been published in a newspaper of general circulation within the municipality or county at least 15 but not more than 30 days prior to such meeting, may accept such proposals as it deems to be in the public interest and in furtherance of the purposes of this Act.

All sales or leases of real property shall be made at not less than fair use value. No sale of real property acquired pursuant to this section shall be made without the approval of a majority of the Commissioners of the Authority and written approval from the Department. No property shall be held for more than 5 years, after which the property shall be sold to the highest bidder at public sale. The Authority may employ competent real estate management firms to manage such properties as may be required, or the Authority may manage such properties.

(Source: P.A. 81-1509.)

Section 665. The Illinois Affordable Housing Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(310 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1258)

Sec. 8. Uses of Trust Fund.

(a) Subject to annual appropriation to the Funding Agent and subject to the prior dedication, allocation, transfer and use of Trust Fund Moneys as provided in Sections 8(b), 8(c) and 9 of this Act, the Trust Fund may be used to make grants, mortgages, or other loans to acquire, construct, rehabilitate, develop, operate, insure, and retain affordable single-family and multi-family housing in this State for low-income and very low-income households. The majority of monies appropriated to the Trust Fund in any given year are to be used for affordable housing for very low-income households. For the fiscal years 2007, 2008, and 2009 only, the Department of Human Services is authorized to receive appropriations and spend moneys from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund for the purpose of developing and coordinating public and private resources targeted to meet the affordable housing needs of low-income, very low-income, and special needs households in the State of Illinois.

(b) For each fiscal year commencing with fiscal year 1994, the Program Administrator shall certify from time to time to the Funding Agent, the Comptroller and the State Treasurer amounts, up to an aggregate in any fiscal year of $10,000,000, of Trust Fund Moneys expected to be used or pledged by the Program Administrator during the fiscal year for the purposes and uses specified in Sections 8(c) and 9 of this Act. Subject to annual appropriation, upon receipt of such certification, the Funding Agent and the Comptroller shall dedicate and the State Treasurer shall transfer not less often than monthly to the Program Administrator or its designated payee, without requisition or further request therefor, all amounts accumulated in the Trust Fund within the State Treasury and not already transferred to the Loan Commitment Account prior to the Funding Agent's receipt of such certification, until the Program Administrator has received the aggregate amount certified by the Program Administrator, to be used solely for the purposes and uses authorized and provided in Sections 8(c) and 9 of this Act. Neither the Comptroller nor the Treasurer shall transfer, dedicate or allocate any of the Trust Fund Moneys transferred or certified for transfer by the Program Administrator as provided above to any other fund, nor shall the Governor authorize any such transfer, dedication or allocation, nor shall any of the Trust Fund Moneys so dedicated, allocated or transferred be used, temporarily or otherwise, for interfund borrowing, or be otherwise used or appropriated, except as expressly authorized and provided in Sections 8(c) and 9 of this Act for the purposes and subject to the priorities, limitations and conditions provided for therein until such obligations, uses and dedications as therein provided, have been satisfied.

(c) Notwithstanding Section 5(b) of this Act, any Trust Fund Moneys transferred to the Program Administrator pursuant to Section 8(b) of this Act, or otherwise obtained, paid to or held by or for the Program Administrator, or pledged pursuant to resolution of the Program Administrator, for Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes under the Illinois Housing Development Act, and all proceeds, payments and receipts from investments or use of such moneys, including any residual or additional funds or moneys generated or obtained in connection with any of the foregoing, may be held, pledged, applied or dedicated by the Program Administrator as follows:

(1) as required by the terms of any pledge of or resolution of the Program Administrator authorized under Section 9 of this Act in connection with Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act;

(2) to or for costs of issuance and administration and the payments of any principal, interest, premium or other amounts or expenses incurred or accrued in connection with Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes, including rate protection contracts and credit support arrangements pertaining thereto, and, provided such expenses, fees and charges are obligations, whether recourse or nonrecourse, and whether financed with or paid from the proceeds of Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes, of the developers, mortgagors or other users, the Program Administrator's expenses and servicing, administration and origination fees and charges in connection with any loans, mortgages, or developments funded or financed or expected to be funded or financed, in whole or in part, from the issuance of Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes;

(3) to or for costs of issuance and administration and the payments of principal, interest, premium, loan fees, and other amounts or other obligations of the Program Administrator, including rate protection contracts and credit support arrangements pertaining thereto, for loans, commercial paper or other notes or bonds issued by the Program Administrator pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act, provided that the proceeds of such loans, commercial paper or other notes or bonds are paid or expended in connection with, or refund or repay, loans, commercial paper or other notes or bonds issued or made in connection with bridge loans or loans for the construction, renovation, redevelopment, restructuring, reorganization of Affordable Housing and related expenses, including development costs, technical assistance, or other amounts to construct, preserve, improve, renovate, rehabilitate, refinance, or assist Affordable Housing, including financially troubled Affordable Housing, permanent or other financing for which has been funded or financed or is expected to be funded or financed in whole or in part by the Program Administrator through the issuance of or use of proceeds from Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes;

(4) to or for direct expenditures or reimbursement for development costs, technical assistance, or other amounts to construct, preserve, improve, renovate, rehabilitate, refinance, or assist Affordable Housing, including financially troubled Affordable Housing, permanent or other financing for which has been funded or financed or is expected to be funded or financed in whole or in part by the Program Administrator through the issuance of or use of proceeds from Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes; and

(5) for deposit into any residual, sinking, reserve or revolving fund or pool established by the Program Administrator, whether or not pledged to secure Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes, to support or be utilized for the issuance, redemption, or payment of the principal, interest, premium or other amounts payable on or with respect to any existing, additional or future Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes, or to or for any other expenditure authorized by this Section 8(c).

(d) All or a portion of the Trust Fund Moneys on deposit or to be deposited in the Trust Fund not already certified for transfer or transferred to the Program Administrator pursuant to Section 8(b) of this Act may be used to secure the repayment of Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes, or otherwise to supplement or support Affordable Housing funded or financed or intended to be funded or financed, in whole or in part, by Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes.

(e) Assisted housing may include housing for special needs populations such as the homeless, single-parent families, the elderly, or persons with disabilities the physically and mentally disabled. The Trust Fund shall be used to implement a demonstration congregate housing project for any such special needs population.

(f) Grants from the Trust Fund may include, but are not limited to, rental assistance and security deposit subsidies for low and very low-income households.

(g) The Trust Fund may be used to pay actual and reasonable costs for Commission members to attend Commission meetings, and any litigation costs and expenses, including legal fees, incurred by the Program Administrator in any litigation related to this Act or its action as Program Administrator.

(h) The Trust Fund may be used to make grants for (1) the provision of technical assistance, (2) outreach, and (3) building an organization's capacity to develop affordable housing projects.

(i) Amounts on deposit in the Trust Fund may be used to reimburse the Program Administrator and the Funding Agent for costs incurred in the performance of their duties under this Act, excluding costs and fees of the Program Administrator associated with the Program Escrow to the extent withheld pursuant to paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of Section 5.

(Source: P.A. 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08.)

Section 670. The Subsidized Housing Joint Occupancy Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, and 4 as follows:

(310 ILCS 75/2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1352)

Sec. 2. Legislative findings. The General Assembly makes the following findings:

(1) Elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons frequently desire to share a residence (i) to maximize the effectiveness of the portion of their often limited incomes that is spent for housing; (ii) for protection; and (iii) for assistance in performing necessary daily tasks of life such as cooking and cleaning.

(2) Many elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons desire to live in federally subsidized housing units because of their limited incomes.

(3) Rules of the federal Department of Housing and Urban Development permit 2 or more unrelated elderly persons or persons with disabilities or handicapped persons to occupy the same unit in federally subsidized housing, although local housing authorities frequently do not permit those persons to occupy the same unit.

(4) The State of Illinois should do all it can to assist its elderly persons and persons with disabilities and handicapped persons in maximizing the effectiveness of their incomes and to insure that those citizens are not unnecessarily burdened in accomplishing the daily tasks of life.

(Source: P.A. 87-243.)

(310 ILCS 75/3) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1353)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

"Elderly person" means a person 62 years of age or older.

"Person with a disability Handicapped person" means a person having a physical or mental impairment that:

(1) is expected to be of long-continued and indefinite duration,

(2) substantially impedes the person's ability to live independently, and

(3) is of such a nature that this ability could be improved by more suitable housing conditions.

"Subsidized housing" means any housing or unit of housing financed by a loan or mortgage held by the Illinois Housing Development Authority, a local housing authority, or the federal Department of Housing and Urban Development ("HUD") under one of the following circumstances:

(1) Insured or held by HUD under Section 221(d)(3) of the National Housing Act and assisted under Section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 or Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937.

(2) Insured or held by HUD and bears interest at a rate determined under the proviso of Section 221(d)(3) of the National Housing Act.

(3) Insured, assisted, or held by HUD under Section 202 or 236 of the National Housing Act.

(4) Insured or held by HUD under Section 514 or 515 of the Housing Act of 1949.

(5) Insured or held by HUD under the United States Housing Act of 1937.

(6) Held by HUD and formerly insured under a program listed in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5).

(Source: P.A. 87-243.)

(310 ILCS 75/4) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 1354)

Sec. 4. Joint occupancy of subsidized housing. Two elderly persons or two persons with disabilities or handicapped persons who are not related to each other by blood or marriage shall not be prohibited from jointly occupying subsidized housing or a unit of subsidized housing solely because they are not related, provided they have filed a form for such joint occupation with the clerk of the county in which the housing they seek to occupy is located and otherwise meet all other eligibility requirements. A member of the joint occupancy may withdraw from the joint occupancy at any time.

(Source: P.A. 87-243.)

Section 675. The Accessible Housing Demonstration Grant Program Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 20 as follows:

(310 ILCS 95/10)

Sec. 10. Accessibility demonstration grant program. Subject to appropriation for this purpose, the Authority shall establish a demonstration grant program to encourage the building of spec homes that are accessible to persons with disabilities the disabled. Through the program the Authority shall provide grants to builders who build spec homes meeting the basic access standards described in Section 15. The goal of the demonstration program shall be that at least 10% of all new spec homes within a development participating in the demonstration grant program for which construction begins 6 or more months after the effective date of this Act meet the minimum standards for basic access as described in Section 15.

Builders who wish to participate in the demonstration grant program shall submit a grant application to the Authority in accordance with rules promulgated by the Authority. The Authority shall prescribe by rule standards and procedures for the provision of demonstration grant funds in relation to each grant application.

(Source: P.A. 91-451, eff. 8-6-99.)

(310 ILCS 95/20)

Sec. 20. Task Force on Housing Accessibility. There is created a Task Force on Housing Accessibility. The Task Force shall consist of 7 members who shall be appointed by the Governor as follows: the executive vice president of the Illinois Association of Realtors or his or her designee, the executive vice president of the Home Builders Association of Illinois or his or her designee, an architect with expertise and experience in designing accessible housing for persons with disabilities, a senior citizen, a person with disabilities, a representative from the Attorney General's Office, and the Director of the Authority or his or her designee. The terms of the Task Force members shall last 4 years and shall begin 60 days after the effective date of this Act, or as soon thereafter as all members of the Board have been appointed. At the expiration of the term of each Task Force member, and of each succeeding Task Force member, or in the event of a vacancy, the Governor shall appoint a Task Force member to hold office, in the case of a vacancy, for the unexpired term, or in the case of expiration, for a term of 4 years or until a successor is appointed by the Governor. The members shall receive no compensation for their services on the Task Force but shall be reimbursed by the Authority for any ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

The Task Force shall provide recommendations to builders regarding the types of accommodations needed in new housing stock for persons with disabilities disabled persons. The recommendations shall include provisions on how to build homes that will retain their resale and aesthetic value.

(Source: P.A. 91-451, eff. 8-6-99.)

Section 680. The Prevention of Unnecessary Institutionalization Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(310 ILCS 100/25)

Sec. 25. Eligibility. Persons age 60 or over and adults and children with disabilities shall be eligible for grants or loans or both under the Program established by this Act if they have one or more verifiable impairments that substantially limits one or more of life's major activities for which some modification of their dwelling or assistive technology devices, or both, are required which they are unable to afford because of limited resources. Preference shall be given to applicants who: (1) are at imminent risk of institutionalization or who are already in an institutional setting but are ready to return to the community and who would be able to live in the community if modifications are made or they have the needed assistive technology devices, (2) have inadequate resources or no current access to resources as a result of the geographic location of their dwelling, the lack of other available State or federal funds such as the Community Development Block Grant or rural housing assistance programs or income limitations such as the inability to qualify for a low-interest loan, or (3) have access to other resources, but those resources are insufficient to complete the necessary modifications or acquire the needed assistive technology devices. Adults under 60 years of age with disabilities and children with disabilities shall receive services under the component of the Program administered by the Department of Human Services. An adult 60 years of age or older may elect to receive services under the component administered by the Department of Human Services if, at the time he or she reached age 60, he or she was already receiving Home Services under subsection (f) of Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act or he or she was already receiving services under the component of the Program administered by the Department of Human Services. All other adults 60 years of age or older receiving services under the Program shall receive services under the component administered by the Department on Aging.

(Source: P.A. 92-122, eff. 7-20-01.)

Section 685. The Blighted Areas Redevelopment Act of 1947 is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(315 ILCS 5/20) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 82)

Sec. 20. The sale of any real property by a Land Clearance Commission where required to be made for a monetary consideration, except public sales as provided in the last paragraph of Section 19, shall be subject to the approval of the Department and the governing body of the municipality in which the real property is located.

All deeds of conveyances shall be executed in the name of the Land Clearance Commission by the Chairman and Secretary of the Commission and the seal of the Commission shall be attached thereto. Any deed of conveyance by the Commission may provide such restrictions as are required by the plan for redevelopment and the building and zoning ordinances, but no deed of conveyance either by the Commission or any subsequent owner shall contain a covenant running with the land or other provision prohibiting occupancy of the premises by any person because of race, creed, color, religion, physical or mental disability handicap, national origin or sex.

(Source: P.A. 81-1509.)

Section 690. The Urban Community Conservation Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(315 ILCS 25/6) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 91.13)

Sec. 6. Real property necessary or appropriate for the conservation of urban residential areas-Acquisition, use and disposition.) The Conservation Board of a municipality shall have the power to acquire by purchase, condemnation or otherwise any improved or unimproved real property the acquisition of which is necessary or appropriate for the implementation of a conservation plan for a Conservation Area as defined herein; to remove or demolish substandard or other buildings and structures from the property so acquired; to hold, improve, mortgage and manage such properties; and to sell, lease, or exchange such properties, provided that contracts for repair, improvement or rehabilitation of existing improvements as may be required by the Conservation Plan to be done by the Board involving in excess of $1,000.00 shall be let by free and competitive bidding to the lowest responsible bidder upon such bond and subject to such regulations as may be set by the Board, and provided further that all new construction for occupancy and use other than by any municipal corporation or subdivision thereof shall be on land privately owned. The acquisition, use, or disposition of any real property in pursuance of this section must conform to a conservation plan developed in the manner hereinafter set forth. In case of the sale or lease of any real property acquired under the provisions of this Act such buyer or lessee must as a condition of sale or lease, agree to improve and use such property according to the conservation plan, and such agreement may be made a covenant running with the land and on order of the governing body such agreement shall be made a covenant running with the land. No lease or deed of conveyance either by the Board or any subsequent owner shall contain a covenant running with the land or other provision prohibiting occupancy of the premises by any person because of race, creed, color, religion, physical or mental disability handicap, sex or national origin. The Conservation Board shall by public notice by publication once each week for 2 consecutive weeks in a newspaper having general circulation in the municipality prior to the execution of any contract to sell, lease or otherwise transfer real property and prior to the delivery of any instrument of conveyance with respect thereto, invite proposals from and make available all pertinent information to redevelopers or any person interested in undertaking to redevelop or rehabilitate a Conservation Area, or any part thereof, provided that, in municipalities in which no newspaper is published, publication may be made by posting a notice in 3 prominent places within the municipality. Such notice shall contain a description of the Conservation Area, the details of the conservation plan relating to the property which the purchaser shall undertake in writing to carry out and such undertakings as the Board may deem necessary to obligate the purchaser, his or her successors and assigns (1) to use the property for the purposes designated in the Conservation Plan, (2) to commence and complete the improvement, repair, rehabilitation or construction of the improvements within the periods of time which the Board fixes as reasonable and (3) to comply with such other conditions as are necessary to carry out the purposes of the Act. The Conservation Board may negotiate with any persons for proposals for the purchase, lease or other transfer of any real property acquired pursuant to this Act and shall consider all redevelopment and rehabilitation proposals submitted to it and the financial and legal ability of the persons making such proposals to carry them out. The Conservation Board, as agent for the Municipality, at a public meeting, notice of which shall have been published in a newspaper of general circulation within the municipality at least 15 but not more than 30 days prior to such meeting, may accept such proposals as it deems to be in the public interest and in furtherance of the purposes of this Act; provided that, all sales or leases of real property shall be made at not less than fair use value. No sale of real property acquired pursuant to this section shall be made without the approval of a majority of the governing body. The disposition of real property acquired pursuant to this section shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 11-76-1 and 11-76-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as heretofore and hereafter amended. All deeds of conveyance of real property acquired pursuant to this section shall be executed as provided in Section 11-76-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as heretofore and hereafter amended. No property shall be held for more than 5 years, after which period such property shall be sold to the highest bidder at public sale. The Board may employ competent private real estate management firms to manage such properties as may be acquired, or the Board may manage such properties.

(Source: P.A. 80-341.)

Section 695. The Urban Renewal Consolidation Act of 1961 is amended by changing Section 26 as follows:

(315 ILCS 30/26) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 91.126)

Sec. 26. The sale of any real property by a Department where required to be made for a monetary consideration except public sales of real property not sold within the 5-year period as provided in Section 18, shall be subject to the approval of the governing body of the municipality in which the real property is located; provided, however, that no new or additional approval of a sale by the governing body shall be required in any case where a sale by a land clearance commission has heretofore been approved by the State Housing Board and the governing body pursuant to the "Blighted Areas Redevelopment Act of 1947," approved July 2, 1947, as amended.

The disposition of real property acquired pursuant to the provisions of this Act shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 11-76-1 and 11-76-2 of the "Illinois Municipal Code", approved May 29, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended. All deeds of conveyances of real property shall be executed as provided in Section 11-76-3 of said Illinois Municipal Code. Any deed of conveyance may provide such restrictions as are required by the plan for development or conservation plan and the building and zoning ordinances, but no deed of conveyance or lease either by the municipality or any subsequent owner shall contain a covenant running with the land or other provisions prohibiting occupancy of the premises by any person because of race, creed, color, religion, physical or mental disability handicap, national origin or sex.

(Source: P.A. 80-342.)

Section 700. The Respite Program Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 1.5, 2, 3, 5, and 11 as follows:

(320 ILCS 10/Act title)

An Act to create the Respite Program which gives families relief from their responsibilities of caring for frail adults and adults with disabilities and disabled adults.

(320 ILCS 10/1.5) (from Ch. 23, par. 6201.5)

Sec. 1.5. Purpose. It is hereby found and determined by the General Assembly that respite care provides relief and support to the primary care-giver of a frail adult or an adult with a disability or disabled adult and provides a break for the caregiver from the continuous responsibilities of care-giving. Without this support, the primary care-giver's ability to continue in his or her role would be jeopardized; thereby increasing the risk of institutionalization of the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult.

By providing respite care through intermittent planned or emergency relief to the care-giver during the regular week-day, evening, and weekend hours, both the special physical and psychological needs of the primary care-giver and the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult, who is the recipient of continuous care, shall be met reducing or preventing the need for institutionalization.

Furthermore, the primary care-giver providing continuous care is frequently under substantial financial stress. Respite care and other supportive services sustain and preserve the primary care-giver and family caregiving unit. It is the intent of the General Assembly that this Act ensure that Illinois primary care-givers of frail adults or adults with disabilities or disabled adults have access to affordable, appropriate in-home respite care services.

(Source: P.A. 93-864, eff. 8-5-04.)

(320 ILCS 10/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6202)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Respite care" means the provision of intermittent and temporary substitute care or supervision of frail adults or adults with disabilities or disabled adults on behalf of and in the absence of the primary care-giver, for the purpose of providing relief from the stress or responsibilities concomitant with providing constant care, so as to enable the care-giver to continue the provision of care in the home. Respite care should be available to sustain the care-giver throughout the period of care-giving, which can vary from several months to a number of years. Respite care can be provided in the home, in a day care setting during the day, overnight, in a substitute residential setting such as a long-term care facility required to be licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or for more extended periods of time on a temporary basis.

(1.5) "In-home respite care" means care provided by an appropriately trained paid worker providing short-term intermittent care, supervision, or companionship to the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult in the home while relieving the care-giver, by permitting a short-term break from the care-giver's care-giving role. This support may contribute to the delay, reduction, and prevention of institutionalization by enabling the care-giver to continue in his or her care-giving role. In-home respite care should be flexible and available in a manner that is responsive to the needs of the care-giver. This may consist of evening respite care services that are available from 6:00 p.m. to 8:00 a.m. Monday through Friday and weekend respite care services from 6:00 p.m. Friday to 8:00 a.m. Monday.

(2) "Care-giver" shall mean the family member or other natural person who normally provides the daily care or supervision of a frail adult or an adult with a disability or disabled adult. Such care-giver may, but need not, reside in the same household as the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult.

(3) (Blank).

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) "Department" shall mean the Department on Aging.

(7) (Blank).

(8) "Frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult" shall mean any person who is 60 years of age or older and who either (i) suffers from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder or (ii) is unable to attend to his or her daily needs without the assistance or regular supervision of a care-giver due to mental or physical impairment and who is otherwise eligible for services on the basis of his or her level of impairment.

(9) "Emergency respite care" means the immediate placement of a trained, in-home respite care worker in the home during an emergency or unplanned event, or during a temporary placement outside the home, to substitute for the care-giver. Emergency respite care may be provided on one or more occasions unless an extension is deemed necessary by the case coordination unit or by another agency designated by the Department and area agencies on aging to conduct needs assessments for respite care services. When there is an urgent need for emergency respite care, procedures to accommodate this need must be determined. An emergency is:

(a) An unplanned event that results in the immediate and unavoidable absence of the care-giver from the home in an excess of 4 hours at a time when no other qualified care-giver is available.

(b) An unplanned situation that prevents the care-giver from providing the care required by a frail adult or an adult with a disability or disabled adult living at home.

(c) An unplanned event that threatens the health and safety of the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult.

(d) An unplanned event that threatens the health and safety of the care-giver thereby placing the frail adult or adult with a disability or disabled adult in danger.

(10) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 93-864, eff. 8-5-04.)

(320 ILCS 10/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 6203)

Sec. 3. Respite Program. The Director is hereby authorized to administer a program of assistance to persons in need and to deter the institutionalization of frail adults or adults with disabilities or disabled adults.

(Source: P.A. 93-864, eff. 8-5-04.)

(320 ILCS 10/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 6205)

Sec. 5. Eligibility. The Department may establish eligibility standards for respite services taking into consideration the unique economic and social needs of the population for whom they are to be provided. The population identified for the purposes of this Act includes persons suffering from Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder and persons who are 60 years of age or older with an identified service need. Priority shall be given in all cases to frail adults or adults with disabilities or disabled adults.

(Source: P.A. 93-864, eff. 8-5-04.)

(320 ILCS 10/11) (from Ch. 23, par. 6211)

Sec. 11. Respite Care Worker Training.

(a) A respite care worker shall be an appropriately trained individual whose duty it is to provide in-home supervision and assistance to a frail adult or an adult with a disability or disabled adult in order to allow the care-giver a break from his or her continuous care-giving responsibilities.

(b) The Director may prescribe minimum training guidelines for respite care workers to ensure that the special needs of persons receiving services under this Act and their caregivers will be met. The Director may designate Alzheimer's disease associations and community agencies to conduct such training. Nothing in this Act should be construed to exempt any individual providing a service subject to licensure or certification under State law from these requirements.

(Source: P.A. 93-864, eff. 8-5-04.)

Section 705. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Sections 3.5, 8, 9.5, and 15.5 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/3.5)

Sec. 3.5. Other responsibilities. The Department shall also be responsible for the following activities, contingent upon adequate funding; implementation shall be expanded to adults with disabilities upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, except those responsibilities under subsection (a), which shall be undertaken as soon as practicable:

(a) promotion of a wide range of endeavors for the purpose of preventing abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect, including, but not limited to, promotion of public and professional education to increase awareness of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect; to increase reports; to establish access to and use of the Registry established under Section 7.5; and to improve response by various legal, financial, social, and health systems;

(b) coordination of efforts with other agencies, councils, and like entities, to include but not be limited to, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, the Office of the Attorney General, the State Police, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the State Triad, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, and Human Services, the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the Family Violence Coordinating Council, the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, and other entities which may impact awareness of, and response to, abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect;

(c) collection and analysis of data;

(d) monitoring of the performance of regional administrative agencies and adult protective services agencies;

(e) promotion of prevention activities;

(f) establishing and coordinating an aggressive training program on the unique nature of adult abuse cases with other agencies, councils, and like entities, to include but not be limited to the Office of the Attorney General, the State Police, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the State Triad, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the State Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, and Human Services, the Family Violence Coordinating Council, the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and other entities that may impact awareness of and response to abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect;

(g) solicitation of financial institutions for the purpose of making information available to the general public warning of financial exploitation of adults and related financial fraud or abuse, including such information and warnings available through signage or other written materials provided by the Department on the premises of such financial institutions, provided that the manner of displaying or distributing such information is subject to the sole discretion of each financial institution;

(g-1) developing by joint rulemaking with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation minimum training standards which shall be used by financial institutions for their current and new employees with direct customer contact; the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall retain sole visitation and enforcement authority under this subsection (g-1); the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall provide bi-annual reports to the Department setting forth aggregate statistics on the training programs required under this subsection (g-1); and

(h) coordinating efforts with utility and electric companies to send notices in utility bills to explain to persons 60 years of age or older their rights regarding telemarketing and home repair fraud.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14.)

(320 ILCS 20/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 6608)

Sec. 8. Access to records. All records concerning reports of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect and all records generated as a result of such reports shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed except as specifically authorized by this Act or other applicable law. In accord with established law and Department protocols, procedures, and policies, access to such records, but not access to the identity of the person or persons making a report of alleged abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect as contained in such records, shall be provided, upon request, to the following persons and for the following persons:

(1) Department staff, provider agency staff, other aging network staff, and regional administrative agency staff, including staff of the Chicago Department on Aging while that agency is designated as a regional administrative agency, in the furtherance of their responsibilities under this Act;

(2) A law enforcement agency investigating known or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. Where a provider agency has reason to believe that the death of an eligible adult may be the result of abuse or neglect, including any reports made after death, the agency shall immediately provide the appropriate law enforcement agency with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(2.5) A law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district having proper jurisdiction pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district under which the provider agency may furnish to the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(3) A physician who has before him or her or who is involved in the treatment of an eligible adult whom he or she reasonably suspects may be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected or who has been referred to the Adult Protective Services Program;

(4) An eligible adult reported to be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected, or such adult's authorized guardian or agent, unless such guardian or agent is the abuser or the alleged abuser;

(4.5) An executor or administrator of the estate of an eligible adult who is deceased;

(5) In cases regarding abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, a court or a guardian ad litem, upon its or his or her finding that access to such records may be necessary for the determination of an issue before the court. However, such access shall be limited to an in camera inspection of the records, unless the court determines that disclosure of the information contained therein is necessary for the resolution of an issue then pending before it;

(5.5) In cases regarding self-neglect, a guardian ad litem;

(6) A grand jury, upon its determination that access to such records is necessary in the conduct of its official business;

(7) Any person authorized by the Director, in writing, for audit or bona fide research purposes;

(8) A coroner or medical examiner who has reason to believe that an eligible adult has died as the result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. The provider agency shall immediately provide the coroner or medical examiner with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(8.5) A coroner or medical examiner having proper jurisdiction, pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the coroner or medical examiner, under which the provider agency may furnish to the office of the coroner or medical examiner a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of death as a result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(9) Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff and members of the Illinois Medical Disciplinary Board or the Social Work Examining and Disciplinary Board in the course of investigating alleged violations of the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act by provider agency staff or other licensing bodies at the discretion of the Director of the Department on Aging;

(9-a) Department of Healthcare and Family Services staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(9-b) Department of Human Services staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult or is providing reimbursement for services provided by the abuser or alleged abuser, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(10) Hearing officers in the course of conducting an administrative hearing under this Act; parties to such hearing shall be entitled to discovery as established by rule;

(11) A caregiver who challenges placement on the Registry shall be given the statement of allegations in the abuse report and the substantiation decision in the final investigative report; and

(12) The Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act shall have access, through the Department, to records, including the findings, pertaining to a completed or closed investigation of a report of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult.

(Source: P.A. 97-864, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14.)

(320 ILCS 20/9.5)

Sec. 9.5. Commencement of action for ex parte authorization orders; filing fees; process.

(a) Actions for ex parte authorization orders are commenced:

(1) independently, by filing a petition for an ex parte authorization order in the circuit court;

(2) in conjunction with other civil proceedings, by filing a petition for an ex parte authorization order under the same case number as a guardianship proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975 where the eligible adult is the alleged adult with a disability disabled adult.

(b) No fee shall be charged by the clerk for filing petitions or certifying orders. No fee shall be charged by a sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(c) Any action for an ex parte authorization order commenced independently is a distinct cause of action and requires that a separate summons be issued and served. Service of summons is not required prior to entry of emergency ex parte authorization orders.

(d) Summons may be served by a private person over 18 years of age and not a party to the action. The return by that private person shall be by affidavit. The summons may be served by a sheriff or other law enforcement officer, and if summons is placed for service by the sheriff, it shall be made at the earliest time practicable and shall take precedence over other summonses except those of a similar emergency nature.

(Source: P.A. 91-731, eff. 6-2-00.)

(320 ILCS 20/15.5)

Sec. 15.5. Independent monitor. Subject to appropriation, to ensure the effectiveness and accountability of the adult protective services system, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act shall monitor the system and provide to the Department review and evaluation of the system in accordance with administrative rules promulgated by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13.)

Section 710. The Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 1, 2, 3.14, 4, and 9 as follows:

(320 ILCS 25/Act title)

An Act in relation to the payment of grants to enable the elderly and persons with disabilities the disabled to acquire or retain private housing.

(320 ILCS 25/1) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 401)

Sec. 1. Short title; common name. This Article shall be known and may be cited as the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act. Common references to the "Circuit Breaker Act" mean this Article. As used in this Article, "this Act" means this Article.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(320 ILCS 25/2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 402)

Sec. 2. Purpose. The purpose of this Act is to provide incentives to the senior citizens and persons with disabilities in disabled persons of this State to acquire and retain private housing of their choice and at the same time to relieve those citizens from the burdens of extraordinary property taxes against their increasingly restricted earning power, and thereby to reduce the requirements for public housing in this State.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(320 ILCS 25/3.14) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 403.14)

Sec. 3.14. "Person with a disability Disabled person" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities Disabled persons filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of the disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of the disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability disabled person for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability disabled person not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting a Disabled Person Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability disabled person determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(320 ILCS 25/4) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 404)

Sec. 4. Amount of Grant.

(a) In general. Any individual 65 years or older or any individual who will become 65 years old during the calendar year in which a claim is filed, and any surviving spouse of such a claimant, who at the time of death received or was entitled to receive a grant pursuant to this Section, which surviving spouse will become 65 years of age within the 24 months immediately following the death of such claimant and which surviving spouse but for his or her age is otherwise qualified to receive a grant pursuant to this Section, and any person with a disability disabled person whose annual household income is less than the income eligibility limitation, as defined in subsection (a-5) and whose household is liable for payment of property taxes accrued or has paid rent constituting property taxes accrued and is domiciled in this State at the time he or she files his or her claim is entitled to claim a grant under this Act. With respect to claims filed by individuals who will become 65 years old during the calendar year in which a claim is filed, the amount of any grant to which that household is entitled shall be an amount equal to 1/12 of the amount to which the claimant would otherwise be entitled as provided in this Section, multiplied by the number of months in which the claimant was 65 in the calendar year in which the claim is filed.

(a-5) Income eligibility limitation. For purposes of this Section, "income eligibility limitation" means an amount for grant years 2008 and thereafter:

(1) less than $22,218 for a household containing one person;

(2) less than $29,480 for a household containing 2 persons; or

(3) less than $36,740 for a household containing 3 or more persons.

For 2009 claim year applications submitted during calendar year 2010, a household must have annual household income of less than $27,610 for a household containing one person; less than $36,635 for a household containing 2 persons; or less than $45,657 for a household containing 3 or more persons.

The Department on Aging may adopt rules such that on January 1, 2011, and thereafter, the foregoing household income eligibility limits may be changed to reflect the annual cost of living adjustment in Social Security and Supplemental Security Income benefits that are applicable to the year for which those benefits are being reported as income on an application.

If a person files as a surviving spouse, then only his or her income shall be counted in determining his or her household income.

(b) Limitation. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (a) and (f) of this Section, the maximum amount of grant which a claimant is entitled to claim is the amount by which the property taxes accrued which were paid or payable during the last preceding tax year or rent constituting property taxes accrued upon the claimant's residence for the last preceding taxable year exceeds 3 1/2% of the claimant's household income for that year but in no event is the grant to exceed (i) $700 less 4.5% of household income for that year for those with a household income of $14,000 or less or (ii) $70 if household income for that year is more than $14,000.

(c) Public aid recipients. If household income in one or more months during a year includes cash assistance in excess of $55 per month from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) which was determined under regulations of that Department on a measure of need that included an allowance for actual rent or property taxes paid by the recipient of that assistance, the amount of grant to which that household is entitled, except as otherwise provided in subsection (a), shall be the product of (1) the maximum amount computed as specified in subsection (b) of this Section and (2) the ratio of the number of months in which household income did not include such cash assistance over $55 to the number twelve. If household income did not include such cash assistance over $55 for any months during the year, the amount of the grant to which the household is entitled shall be the maximum amount computed as specified in subsection (b) of this Section. For purposes of this paragraph (c), "cash assistance" does not include any amount received under the federal Supplemental Security Income (SSI) program.

(d) Joint ownership. If title to the residence is held jointly by the claimant with a person who is not a member of his or her household, the amount of property taxes accrued used in computing the amount of grant to which he or she is entitled shall be the same percentage of property taxes accrued as is the percentage of ownership held by the claimant in the residence.

(e) More than one residence. If a claimant has occupied more than one residence in the taxable year, he or she may claim only one residence for any part of a month. In the case of property taxes accrued, he or she shall prorate 1/12 of the total property taxes accrued on his or her residence to each month that he or she owned and occupied that residence; and, in the case of rent constituting property taxes accrued, shall prorate each month's rent payments to the residence actually occupied during that month.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Effective January 1, 2006, there is hereby established a program of pharmaceutical assistance to the aged and to persons with disabilities disabled, entitled the Illinois Seniors and Disabled Drug Coverage Program, which shall be administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department on Aging in accordance with this subsection, to consist of coverage of specified prescription drugs on behalf of beneficiaries of the program as set forth in this subsection. Notwithstanding any provisions of this Act to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012, pharmaceutical assistance under this Act shall no longer be provided, and on July 1, 2012 the Illinois Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Pharmaceutical Assistance Program shall terminate. The following provisions that concern the Illinois Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Pharmaceutical Assistance Program shall continue to apply on and after July 1, 2012 to the extent necessary to pursue any actions authorized by subsection (d) of Section 9 of this Act with respect to acts which took place prior to July 1, 2012.

To become a beneficiary under the program established under this subsection, a person must:

(1) be (i) 65 years of age or older or (ii) a person with a disability disabled; and

(2) be domiciled in this State; and

(3) enroll with a qualified Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan if eligible and apply for all available subsidies under Medicare Part D; and

(4) for the 2006 and 2007 claim years, have a maximum household income of (i) less than $21,218 for a household containing one person, (ii) less than $28,480 for a household containing 2 persons, or (iii) less than $35,740 for a household containing 3 or more persons; and

(5) for the 2008 claim year, have a maximum household income of (i) less than $22,218 for a household containing one person, (ii) $29,480 for a household containing 2 persons, or (iii) $36,740 for a household containing 3 or more persons; and

(6) for 2009 claim year applications submitted during calendar year 2010, have annual household income of less than (i) $27,610 for a household containing one person; (ii) less than $36,635 for a household containing 2 persons; or (iii) less than $45,657 for a household containing 3 or more persons; and

(7) as of September 1, 2011, have a maximum household income at or below 200% of the federal poverty level.

All individuals enrolled as of December 31, 2005, in the pharmaceutical assistance program operated pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section and all individuals enrolled as of December 31, 2005, in the SeniorCare Medicaid waiver program operated pursuant to Section 5-5.12a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall be automatically enrolled in the program established by this subsection for the first year of operation without the need for further application, except that they must apply for Medicare Part D and the Low Income Subsidy under Medicare Part D. A person enrolled in the pharmaceutical assistance program operated pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section as of December 31, 2005, shall not lose eligibility in future years due only to the fact that they have not reached the age of 65.

To the extent permitted by federal law, the Department may act as an authorized representative of a beneficiary in order to enroll the beneficiary in a Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan if the beneficiary has failed to choose a plan and, where possible, to enroll beneficiaries in the low-income subsidy program under Medicare Part D or assist them in enrolling in that program.

Beneficiaries under the program established under this subsection shall be divided into the following 4 eligibility groups:

(A) Eligibility Group 1 shall consist of beneficiaries who are not eligible for Medicare Part D coverage and who are:

(i) a person with a disability disabled and under age 65; or

(ii) age 65 or older, with incomes over 200% of the Federal Poverty Level; or

(iii) age 65 or older, with incomes at or below 200% of the Federal Poverty Level and not eligible for federally funded means-tested benefits due to immigration status.

(B) Eligibility Group 2 shall consist of beneficiaries who are eligible for Medicare Part D coverage.

(C) Eligibility Group 3 shall consist of beneficiaries age 65 or older, with incomes at or below 200% of the Federal Poverty Level, who are not barred from receiving federally funded means-tested benefits due to immigration status and are not eligible for Medicare Part D coverage.

If the State applies and receives federal approval for a waiver under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, persons in Eligibility Group 3 shall continue to receive benefits through the approved waiver, and Eligibility Group 3 may be expanded to include persons with disabilities who are disabled persons under age 65 with incomes under 200% of the Federal Poverty Level who are not eligible for Medicare and who are not barred from receiving federally funded means-tested benefits due to immigration status.

(D) Eligibility Group 4 shall consist of beneficiaries who are otherwise described in Eligibility Group 2 who have a diagnosis of HIV or AIDS.

The program established under this subsection shall cover the cost of covered prescription drugs in excess of the beneficiary cost-sharing amounts set forth in this paragraph that are not covered by Medicare. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may establish by emergency rule changes in cost-sharing necessary to conform the cost of the program to the amounts appropriated for State fiscal year 2012 and future fiscal years except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act shall not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

For purposes of the program established under this subsection, the term "covered prescription drug" has the following meanings:

For Eligibility Group 1, "covered prescription drug" means: (1) any cardiovascular agent or drug; (2) any insulin or other prescription drug used in the treatment of diabetes, including syringe and needles used to administer the insulin; (3) any prescription drug used in the treatment of arthritis; (4) any prescription drug used in the treatment of cancer; (5) any prescription drug used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease; (6) any prescription drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease; (7) any prescription drug used in the treatment of glaucoma; (8) any prescription drug used in the treatment of lung disease and smoking-related illnesses; (9) any prescription drug used in the treatment of osteoporosis; and (10) any prescription drug used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis. The Department may add additional therapeutic classes by rule. The Department may adopt a preferred drug list within any of the classes of drugs described in items (1) through (10) of this paragraph. The specific drugs or therapeutic classes of covered prescription drugs shall be indicated by rule.

For Eligibility Group 2, "covered prescription drug" means those drugs covered by the Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan in which the beneficiary is enrolled.

For Eligibility Group 3, "covered prescription drug" means those drugs covered by the Medical Assistance Program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

For Eligibility Group 4, "covered prescription drug" means those drugs covered by the Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan in which the beneficiary is enrolled.

Any person otherwise eligible for pharmaceutical assistance under this subsection whose covered drugs are covered by any public program is ineligible for assistance under this subsection to the extent that the cost of those drugs is covered by the other program.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall establish by rule the methods by which it will provide for the coverage called for in this subsection. Those methods may include direct reimbursement to pharmacies or the payment of a capitated amount to Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plans.

For a pharmacy to be reimbursed under the program established under this subsection, it must comply with rules adopted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services regarding coordination of benefits with Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plans. A pharmacy may not charge a Medicare-enrolled beneficiary of the program established under this subsection more for a covered prescription drug than the appropriate Medicare cost-sharing less any payment from or on behalf of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department on Aging, as appropriate, may adopt rules regarding applications, counting of income, proof of Medicare status, mandatory generic policies, and pharmacy reimbursement rates and any other rules necessary for the cost-efficient operation of the program established under this subsection.

(h) A qualified individual is not entitled to duplicate benefits in a coverage period as a result of the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(320 ILCS 25/9) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 409)

Sec. 9. Fraud; error.

(a) Any person who files a fraudulent claim for a grant under this Act, or who for compensation prepares a claim for a grant and knowingly enters false information on an application for any claimant under this Act, or who fraudulently files multiple applications, or who fraudulently states that a person without a disability is a person with a disability a nondisabled person is disabled, or who, prior to July 1, 2012, fraudulently procures pharmaceutical assistance benefits, or who fraudulently uses such assistance to procure covered prescription drugs, or who, on behalf of an authorized pharmacy, files a fraudulent request for payment, is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense and is guilty of a Class 3 felony for each subsequent offense.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Department on Aging may recover from a claimant any amount paid to that claimant under this Act on account of an erroneous or fraudulent claim, together with 6% interest per year. Amounts recoverable from a claimant by the Department on Aging under this Act may, but need not, be recovered by offsetting the amount owed against any future grant payable to the person under this Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may recover for acts prior to July 1, 2012 from an authorized pharmacy any amount paid to that pharmacy under the pharmaceutical assistance program on account of an erroneous or fraudulent request for payment under that program, together with 6% interest per year. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may recover from a person who erroneously or fraudulently obtains benefits under the pharmaceutical assistance program the value of the benefits so obtained, together with 6% interest per year.

(d) A prosecution for a violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 3 years of the commission of that violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-804, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 715. The Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 8 as follows:

(320 ILCS 30/2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 452)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Taxpayer" means an individual whose household income for the year is no greater than: (i) $40,000 through tax year 2005; (ii) $50,000 for tax years 2006 through 2011; and (iii) $55,000 for tax year 2012 and thereafter.

(b) "Tax deferred property" means the property upon which real estate taxes are deferred under this Act.

(c) "Homestead" means the land and buildings thereon, including a condominium or a dwelling unit in a multidwelling building that is owned and operated as a cooperative, occupied by the taxpayer as his residence or which are temporarily unoccupied by the taxpayer because such taxpayer is temporarily residing, for not more than 1 year, in a licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(d) "Real estate taxes" or "taxes" means the taxes on real property for which the taxpayer would be liable under the Property Tax Code, including special service area taxes, and special assessments on benefited real property for which the taxpayer would be liable to a unit of local government.

(e) "Department" means the Department of Revenue.

(f) "Qualifying property" means a homestead which (a) the taxpayer or the taxpayer and his spouse own in fee simple or are purchasing in fee simple under a recorded instrument of sale, (b) is not income-producing property, (c) is not subject to a lien for unpaid real estate taxes when a claim under this Act is filed, and (d) is not held in trust, other than an Illinois land trust with the taxpayer identified as the sole beneficiary, if the taxpayer is filing for the program for the first time effective as of the January 1, 2011 assessment year or tax year 2012 and thereafter.

(g) "Equity interest" means the current assessed valuation of the qualified property times the fraction necessary to convert that figure to full market value minus any outstanding debts or liens on that property. In the case of qualifying property not having a separate assessed valuation, the appraised value as determined by a qualified real estate appraiser shall be used instead of the current assessed valuation.

(h) "Household income" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(i) "Collector" means the county collector or, if the taxes to be deferred are special assessments, an official designated by a unit of local government to collect special assessments.

(Source: P.A. 97-481, eff. 8-22-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(320 ILCS 30/8) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 458)

Sec. 8. Nothing in this Act (a) affects any provision of any mortgage or other instrument relating to land requiring a person to pay real estate taxes or (b) affects the eligibility of any person to receive any grant pursuant to the "Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act".

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 720. The Senior Pharmaceutical Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(320 ILCS 50/5)

Sec. 5. Findings. The General Assembly finds:

(1) Senior citizens identify pharmaceutical assistance as the single most critical factor to their health, well-being, and continued independence.

(2) The State of Illinois currently operates 2 pharmaceutical assistance programs that benefit seniors: (i) the program of pharmaceutical assistance under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act and (ii) the Aid to the Aged, Blind, or Disabled program under the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State has been given authority to establish a third program, SeniorRx Care, through a federal Medicaid waiver.

(3) Each year, numerous pieces of legislation are filed seeking to establish additional pharmaceutical assistance benefits for seniors or to make changes to the existing programs.

(4) Establishment of a pharmaceutical assistance review committee will ensure proper coordination of benefits, diminish the likelihood of duplicative benefits, and ensure that the best interests of seniors are served.

(5) In addition to the State pharmaceutical assistance programs, several private entities, such as drug manufacturers and pharmacies, also offer prescription drug discount or coverage programs.

(6) Many seniors are unaware of the myriad of public and private programs available to them.

(7) Establishing a pharmaceutical clearinghouse with a toll-free hot-line and local outreach workers will educate seniors about the vast array of options available to them and enable seniors to make an educated and informed choice that is best for them.

(8) Estimates indicate that almost one-third of senior citizens lack prescription drug coverage. The federal government, states, and the pharmaceutical industry each have a role in helping these uninsured seniors gain access to life-saving medications.

(9) The State of Illinois has recognized its obligation to assist Illinois' neediest seniors in purchasing prescription medications, and it is now time for pharmaceutical manufacturers to recognize their obligation to make their medications affordable to seniors.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 725. The Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(320 ILCS 55/30)

Sec. 30. Manufacturer rebate agreements.

(a) Taking into consideration the extent to which the State pays for prescription drugs under various State programs and the provision of assistance to persons with disabilities disabled persons or eligible seniors under patient assistance programs, prescription drug discount programs, or other offers for free or reduced price medicine, clinical research projects, limited supply distribution programs, compassionate use programs, or programs of research conducted by or for a drug manufacturer, the Department, its agent, or the program administrator shall negotiate and enter into rebate agreements with drug manufacturers, as defined in this Act, to effect prescription drug price discounts. The Department or program administrator may exclude certain medications from the list of covered medications and may establish a preferred drug list as a basis for determining the discounts, administrative fees, or other fees or rebates under this Section.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Receipts from rebates shall be used to provide discounts for prescription drugs purchased by cardholders and to cover the cost of administering the program. Any receipts to be allocated to the Department shall be deposited into the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund, a trust fund created outside the State Treasury with the State Treasurer acting as ex officio custodian. Disbursements from the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Fund shall be made upon the direction of the Director of Central Management Services.

(Source: P.A. 94-86, eff. 1-1-06; 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 730. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 4.4a, 7.1, 11.1, 11.5, and 11.7 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4.4a)

Sec. 4.4a. Department of Children and Family Services duty to report to Department of Human Services' Office of Inspector General. Whenever the Department receives, by means of its statewide toll-free telephone number established under Section 7.6 for the purpose of reporting suspected child abuse or neglect or by any other means or from any mandated reporter under Section 4 of this Act, a report of suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an adult with a disability a disabled adult between the ages of 18 and 59 and who is not residing in a DCFS licensed facility, the Department shall instruct the reporter to contact the Department of Human Services' Office of the Inspector General and shall provide the reporter with the statewide, 24-hour toll-free telephone number established and maintained by the Department of Human Services' Office of the Inspector General.

(Source: P.A. 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.1)

Sec. 7.1. (a) To the fullest extent feasible, the Department shall cooperate with and shall seek the cooperation and involvement of all appropriate public and private agencies, including health, education, social service and law enforcement agencies, religious institutions, courts of competent jurisdiction, and agencies, organizations, or programs providing or concerned with human services related to the prevention, identification or treatment of child abuse or neglect.

Such cooperation and involvement shall include joint consultation and services, joint planning, joint case management, joint public education and information services, joint utilization of facilities, joint staff development and other training, and the creation of multidisciplinary case diagnostic, case handling, case management, and policy planning teams. Such cooperation and involvement shall also include consultation and planning with the Illinois Department of Human Services regarding referrals to designated perinatal centers of newborn children requiring protective custody under this Act, whose life or development may be threatened by a developmental disability or disabling handicapping condition.

For implementing such intergovernmental cooperation and involvement, units of local government and public and private agencies may apply for and receive federal or State funds from the Department under this Act or seek and receive gifts from local philanthropic or other private local sources in order to augment any State funds appropriated for the purposes of this Act.

(b) The Department may establish up to 5 demonstrations of multidisciplinary teams to advise, review and monitor cases of child abuse and neglect brought by the Department or any member of the team. The Director shall determine the criteria by which certain cases of child abuse or neglect are brought to the multidisciplinary teams. The criteria shall include but not be limited to geographic area and classification of certain cases where allegations are of a severe nature. Each multidisciplinary team shall consist of 7 to 10 members appointed by the Director, including, but not limited to representatives from the medical, mental health, educational, juvenile justice, law enforcement and social service fields.

(Source: P.A. 92-801, eff. 8-16-02.)

(325 ILCS 5/11.1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2061.1)

Sec. 11.1. Access to records.

(a) A person shall have access to the records described in Section 11 only in furtherance of purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act or the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984. Those persons and purposes for access include:

(1) Department staff in the furtherance of their responsibilities under this Act, or for the purpose of completing background investigations on persons or agencies licensed by the Department or with whom the Department contracts for the provision of child welfare services.

(2) A law enforcement agency investigating known or suspected child abuse or neglect, known or suspected involvement with child pornography, known or suspected criminal sexual assault, known or suspected criminal sexual abuse, or any other sexual offense when a child is alleged to be involved.

(3) The Department of State Police when administering the provisions of the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984.

(4) A physician who has before him a child whom he reasonably suspects may be abused or neglected.

(5) A person authorized under Section 5 of this Act to place a child in temporary protective custody when such person requires the information in the report or record to determine whether to place the child in temporary protective custody.

(6) A person having the legal responsibility or authorization to care for, treat, or supervise a child, or a parent, prospective adoptive parent, foster parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's welfare, who is the subject of a report.

(7) Except in regard to harmful or detrimental information as provided in Section 7.19, any subject of the report, and if the subject of the report is a minor, his guardian or guardian ad litem.

(8) A court, upon its finding that access to such records may be necessary for the determination of an issue before such court; however, such access shall be limited to in camera inspection, unless the court determines that public disclosure of the information contained therein is necessary for the resolution of an issue then pending before it.

(8.1) A probation officer or other authorized representative of a probation or court services department conducting an investigation ordered by a court under the Juvenile Court Act of l987.

(9) A grand jury, upon its determination that access to such records is necessary in the conduct of its official business.

(10) Any person authorized by the Director, in writing, for audit or bona fide research purposes.

(11) Law enforcement agencies, coroners or medical examiners, physicians, courts, school superintendents and child welfare agencies in other states who are responsible for child abuse or neglect investigations or background investigations.

(12) The Department of Professional Regulation, the State Board of Education and school superintendents in Illinois, who may use or disclose information from the records as they deem necessary to conduct investigations or take disciplinary action, as provided by law.

(13) A coroner or medical examiner who has reason to believe that a child has died as the result of abuse or neglect.

(14) The Director of a State-operated facility when an employee of that facility is the perpetrator in an indicated report.

(15) The operator of a licensed child care facility or a facility licensed by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) in which children reside when a current or prospective employee of that facility is the perpetrator in an indicated child abuse or neglect report, pursuant to Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(16) Members of a multidisciplinary team in the furtherance of its responsibilities under subsection (b) of Section 7.1. All reports concerning child abuse and neglect made available to members of such multidisciplinary teams and all records generated as a result of such reports shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed, except as specifically authorized by this Act or other applicable law. It is a Class A misdemeanor to permit, assist or encourage the unauthorized release of any information contained in such reports or records. Nothing contained in this Section prevents the sharing of reports or records relating or pertaining to the death of a minor under the care of or receiving services from the Department of Children and Family Services and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court with the juvenile court, the State's Attorney, and the minor's attorney.

(17) The Department of Human Services, as provided in Section 17 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.

(18) Any other agency or investigative body, including the Department of Public Health and a local board of health, authorized by State law to conduct an investigation into the quality of care provided to children in hospitals and other State regulated care facilities. The access to and release of information from such records shall be subject to the approval of the Director of the Department or his designee.

(19) The person appointed, under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as the guardian ad litem of a minor who is the subject of a report or records under this Act.

(20) The Department of Human Services, as provided in Section 10 of the Early Intervention Services System Act, and the operator of a facility providing early intervention services pursuant to that Act, for the purpose of determining whether a current or prospective employee who provides or may provide direct services under that Act is the perpetrator in an indicated report of child abuse or neglect filed under this Act.

(b) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(c) To the extent that persons or agencies are given access to information pursuant to this Section, those persons or agencies may give this information to and receive this information from each other in order to facilitate an investigation conducted by those persons or agencies.

(Source: P.A. 93-147, eff. 1-1-04; 94-1010, eff. 10-1-06.)

(325 ILCS 5/11.5) (from Ch. 23, par. 2061.5)

Sec. 11.5. Within the appropriation available, the Department shall conduct a continuing education and training program for State and local staff, persons and officials required to report, the general public, and other persons engaged in or intending to engage in the prevention, identification, and treatment of child abuse and neglect. The program shall be designed to encourage the fullest degree of reporting of known and suspected child abuse and neglect, and to improve communication, cooperation, and coordination among all agencies in the identification, prevention, and treatment of child abuse and neglect. The program shall inform the general public and professionals of the nature and extent of child abuse and neglect and their responsibilities, obligations, powers and immunity from liability under this Act. It may include information on the diagnosis of child abuse and neglect and the roles and procedures of the Child Protective Service Unit, the Department and central register, the courts and of the protective, treatment, and ameliorative services available to children and their families. Such information may also include special needs of mothers at risk of delivering a child whose life or development may be threatened by a disabling handicapping condition, to ensure informed consent to treatment of the condition and understanding of the unique child care responsibilities required for such a child. The program may also encourage parents and other persons having responsibility for the welfare of children to seek assistance on their own in meeting their child care responsibilities and encourage the voluntary acceptance of available services when they are needed. It may also include publicity and dissemination of information on the existence and number of the 24 hour, State-wide, toll-free telephone service to assist persons seeking assistance and to receive reports of known and suspected abuse and neglect.

Within the appropriation available, the Department also shall conduct a continuing education and training program for State and local staff involved in investigating reports of child abuse or neglect made under this Act. The program shall be designed to train such staff in the necessary and appropriate procedures to be followed in investigating cases which it appears may result in civil or criminal charges being filed against a person. Program subjects shall include but not be limited to the gathering of evidence with a view toward presenting such evidence in court and the involvement of State or local law enforcement agencies in the investigation. The program shall be conducted in cooperation with State or local law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys and other components of the criminal justice system as the Department deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 85-984.)

(325 ILCS 5/11.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2061.7)

Sec. 11.7. (a) The Director shall appoint the chairperson and members of a "State-wide Citizen's Committee on Child Abuse and Neglect" to consult with and advise the Director. The Committee shall be composed of individuals of distinction in human services, neonatal medical care, needs and rights of persons with disabilities the disabled, law and community life, broadly representative of social and economic communities across the State, who shall be appointed to 3 year staggered terms. The chairperson and members of the Committee shall serve without compensation, although their travel and per diem expenses shall be reimbursed in accordance with standard State procedures. Under procedures adopted by the Committee, it may meet at any time, confer with any individuals, groups, and agencies; and may issue reports or recommendations on any aspect of child abuse or neglect it deems appropriate.

(b) The Committee shall advise the Director on setting priorities for the administration of child abuse prevention, shelters and service programs, as specified in Section 4a of "An Act creating the Department of Children and Family Services, codifying its powers and duties, and repealing certain Acts and Sections herein named", approved June 4, 1963, as amended.

(c) The Committee shall advise the Director on policies and procedures with respect to the medical neglect of newborns and infants.

(Source: P.A. 84-611.)

Section 735. The High Risk Youth Career Development Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(325 ILCS 25/1) (from Ch. 23, par. 6551)

Sec. 1. The Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act), in cooperation with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Illinois State Board of Education, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Employment Services and other appropriate State and local agencies, may establish and administer, on an experimental basis and subject to appropriation, community-based programs providing comprehensive, long-term intervention strategies to increase future employability and career development among high risk youth. The Department of Human Services, and the other cooperating agencies, shall establish provisions for community involvement in the design, development, implementation and administration of these programs. The programs may provide the following services: teaching of basic literacy and remedial reading and writing; vocational training programs which are realistic in terms of producing lifelong skills necessary for career development; and supportive services including transportation and child care during the training period and for up to one year after placement in a job. The programs shall be targeted to high risk youth residing in the geographic areas served by the respective programs. "High risk" means that a person is at least 16 years of age but not yet 21 years of age and possesses one or more of the following characteristics:

(1) Has low income;

(2) Is a member of a minority;

(3) Is illiterate;

(4) Is a school drop out;

(5) Is homeless;

(6) Is a person with a disability disabled;

(7) Is a parent; or

(8) Is a ward of the State.

The Department of Human Services and other cooperating State agencies shall promulgate rules and regulations, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, for the implementation of this Act, including procedures and standards for determining whether a person possesses any of the characteristics specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06.)

Section 740. The War on Terrorism Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(330 ILCS 32/20)

Sec. 20. Legal disability. If a person to whom compensation is payable under this Act is under a legal disability, the compensation shall be paid to the person legally vested with the care of the person under a legal disability legally disabled person under the laws of his or her state of residence. If no such person has been so designated for the person under a legal disability legally disabled person, payment shall be made to the chief officer of any hospital or institution under the supervision or control of any state or of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs in which the person under a legal disability legally disabled person is placed, if that officer is authorized to accept moneys for the benefit of the person under a legal disability legally disabled person. Any payments so made shall be held or used solely for the benefit of the person under a legal disability legally disabled person.

As used in this Section, a person under a legal disability means a person found to be so by a court of competent jurisdiction of any state or the District of Columbia or by any adjudication officer of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 96-76, eff. 7-24-09.)

Section 745. The Prisoner of War Bonus Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(330 ILCS 35/4) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 57.64)

Sec. 4. The Department of Veterans' Affairs has complete charge and control of the general scheme of payments authorized by this Act and shall adopt general rules for the making of such payments, the ascertainment and selection of proper beneficiaries and the amount to which such beneficiaries are entitled, and for procedure.

If the person to whom compensation is payable under this Act is a person under a legal disability, it shall be paid to the person legally vested with the care of such person under a legal disability legally disabled person under the laws of this State of residence. If no such person has been so designated for the person under a legal disability legally disabled person, payment shall be made to the chief officer of any hospital or institution under the supervision or control of any State or of the Veterans Administration of the United States in which such person under a legal disability legally disabled person is placed, if such officer is authorized to accept moneys for the benefit of the person under a legal disability legally disabled person. Any payments so made shall be held or used solely for the benefit of the person under a legal disability legally disabled person.

As used in this Section, a person under a legal disability means any person found to be so disabled by a court of competent jurisdiction of any State or the District of Columbia or by any adjudication officer of the Veterans Administration of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 85-169.)

Section 750. The Military Veterans Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(330 ILCS 45/6) (from Ch. 23, par. 3086)

Sec. 6. Overseers of military veterans assistance are hereby prohibited from sending military veterans (or their families or the families of those deceased) to any almshouse (or orphan asylum) without the full concurrence and consent of the commander and assistance committee of the post or camp of a military veterans organization having jurisdiction as provided in Sections 2 and 3 of this Act. Military veterans with families and the families of deceased veterans, shall, whenever practicable, be provided for and assisted at their homes in such city or town in which they shall have a residence, in the manner provided in Sections 2 and 3 of this Act. Needy veterans or veterans with disabilities or disabled veterans of the classes specified in Section 2 of this Act, who are not mentally ill, and who have no families or friends with which they may be domiciled, may be sent to any veterans home. Any less fortunate veteran of either of the classes specified in Section 2 of this Act or any member of the family of any living or deceased veteran of said classes, who may be mentally ill, shall, upon the recommendation of the commander and assistance committee of such post or camp of a military veterans organization, within the jurisdiction of which the case may occur, be sent to any mental health facility and cared for as provided for indigent persons who are mentally ill.

(Source: P.A. 87-796.)

Section 755. The Disabled Veterans Housing Act is amended by changing Section 0.01 as follows:

(330 ILCS 65/0.01) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 57.90)

Sec. 0.01. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Housing for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans Housing Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

Section 760. The Children of Deceased Veterans Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(330 ILCS 105/1) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 26)

Sec. 1. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall provide, insofar as moneys are appropriated for those purposes, for matriculation and tuition fees, board, room rent, books and supplies for the use and benefit of children, not under 10 and not over 18 years of age, except extension of time may be granted for a child to complete high school but in no event beyond the 19th birthday who have for 12 months immediately preceding their application for these benefits had their domicile in the State of Illinois, of World War I veterans who were killed in action or who died between April 6, 1917, and July 2, 1921, and of World War II veterans who were killed in action or died after December 6, 1941, and on or before December 31, 1946, and of Korean conflict veterans who were killed in action or died between June 27, 1950 and January 31, 1955, and of Vietnam conflict veterans who were killed in action or died between January 1, 1961 and May 7, 1975, as a result of service in the Armed Forces of the United States or from other causes of World War I, World War II, the Korean conflict or the Vietnam conflict, who died, whether before or after the cessation of hostilities, from service-connected disability, and of any veterans who died during the induction periods specified below or died of a service-connected disability incurred during such induction periods, such periods to be those beginning September 16, 1940, and ending December 6, 1941, and beginning January 1, 1947 and ending June 26, 1950 and the period beginning February 1, 1955, and ending on the day before the first day thereafter on which individuals (other than individuals liable for induction by reason of prior deferment) are no longer liable for induction for training and service into the Armed Forces under the Universal Military Training and Service Act, and beginning January 1, 1961 and ending May 7, 1975 and of any veterans who are persons with a total and permanent disability totally and permanently disabled as a result of a service-connected disability (or who died while a disability so evaluated was in existence); which children are attending or may attend a state or private educational institution of elementary or high school grade or a business college, vocational training school, or other educational institution in this State where courses of instruction are provided in subjects which would tend to enable such children to engage in any useful trade, occupation or profession. As used in this Act "service-connected" means, with respect to disability or death, that such disability was incurred or aggravated, or that the death resulted from a disability incurred or aggravated, in the performance of active duty or active duty for training in the military services. Such children shall be admitted to state educational institutions free of tuition. No more than $250.00 may be paid under this Act for any one child for any one school year.

(Source: P.A. 94-106, eff. 7-1-05.)

Section 765. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 1-106, 1-125, 2-101, 2-108, 2-114, 3-200, 3-400, 4-201, 4-201.1, 4-400, 4-500, 4-701, 5-105, 6-103.1, and 6-103.2 and by changing the headings of Chapter IV, Article III of Chapter IV, Article IV of Chapter IV, and Article V of Chapter IV as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/1-106) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-106)

Sec. 1-106. "Developmental disability" means a disability which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or (b) any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled persons. Such disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability handicap.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/1-125) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-125)

Sec. 1-125. "Restraint" means direct restriction through mechanical means or personal physical force of the limbs, head or body of a recipient. The partial or total immobilization of a recipient for the purpose of performing a medical, surgical or dental procedure or as part of a medically prescribed procedure for the treatment of an existing physical disorder or the amelioration of a physical disability handicap shall not constitute restraint, provided that the duration, nature and purposes of the procedures or immobilization are properly documented in the recipient's record and, that if the procedures or immobilization are applied continuously or regularly for a period in excess of 24 hours, and for every 24 hour period thereafter during which the immobilization may continue, they are authorized in writing by a physician or dentist; and provided further, that any such immobilization which extends for more than 30 days be reviewed by a physician or dentist other than the one who originally authorized the immobilization.

Momentary periods of physical restriction by direct person-to-person contact, without the aid of material or mechanical devices, accomplished with limited force, and that are designed to prevent a recipient from completing an act that would result in potential physical harm to himself or another shall not constitute restraint, but shall be documented in the recipient's clinical record.

(Source: P.A. 86-1402; 87-124.)

(405 ILCS 5/2-101) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-101)

Sec. 2-101. No recipient of services shall be presumed to be a person under a legal disability legally disabled, nor shall such person be held to be a person under a legal disability legally disabled except as determined by a court. Such determination shall be separate from a judicial proceeding held to determine whether a person is subject to involuntary admission or meets the standard for judicial admission.

(Source: P.A. 85-971.)

(405 ILCS 5/2-108) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-108)

Sec. 2-108. Use of restraint. Restraint may be used only as a therapeutic measure to prevent a recipient from causing physical harm to himself or physical abuse to others. Restraint may only be applied by a person who has been trained in the application of the particular type of restraint to be utilized. In no event shall restraint be utilized to punish or discipline a recipient, nor is restraint to be used as a convenience for the staff.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, restraint shall be employed only upon the written order of a physician, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, clinical professional counselor, or registered nurse with supervisory responsibilities. No restraint shall be ordered unless the physician, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, clinical professional counselor, or registered nurse with supervisory responsibilities, after personally observing and examining the recipient, is clinically satisfied that the use of restraint is justified to prevent the recipient from causing physical harm to himself or others. In no event may restraint continue for longer than 2 hours unless within that time period a nurse with supervisory responsibilities or a physician confirms, in writing, following a personal examination of the recipient, that the restraint does not pose an undue risk to the recipient's health in light of the recipient's physical or medical condition. The order shall state the events leading up to the need for restraint and the purposes for which restraint is employed. The order shall also state the length of time restraint is to be employed and the clinical justification for that length of time. No order for restraint shall be valid for more than 16 hours. If further restraint is required, a new order must be issued pursuant to the requirements provided in this Section.

(b) In the event there is an emergency requiring the immediate use of restraint, it may be ordered temporarily by a qualified person only where a physician, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, clinical professional counselor, or registered nurse with supervisory responsibilities is not immediately available. In that event, an order by a nurse, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, clinical professional counselor, or physician shall be obtained pursuant to the requirements of this Section as quickly as possible, and the recipient shall be examined by a physician or supervisory nurse within 2 hours after the initial employment of the emergency restraint. Whoever orders restraint in emergency situations shall document its necessity and place that documentation in the recipient's record.

(c) The person who orders restraint shall inform the facility director or his designee in writing of the use of restraint within 24 hours.

(d) The facility director shall review all restraint orders daily and shall inquire into the reasons for the orders for restraint by any person who routinely orders them.

(e) Restraint may be employed during all or part of one 24 hour period, the period commencing with the initial application of the restraint. However, once restraint has been employed during one 24 hour period, it shall not be used again on the same recipient during the next 48 hours without the prior written authorization of the facility director.

(f) Restraint shall be employed in a humane and therapeutic manner and the person being restrained shall be observed by a qualified person as often as is clinically appropriate but in no event less than once every 15 minutes. The qualified person shall maintain a record of the observations. Specifically, unless there is an immediate danger that the recipient will physically harm himself or others, restraint shall be loosely applied to permit freedom of movement. Further, the recipient shall be permitted to have regular meals and toilet privileges free from the restraint, except when freedom of action may result in physical harm to the recipient or others.

(g) Every facility that employs restraint shall provide training in the safe and humane application of each type of restraint employed. The facility shall not authorize the use of any type of restraint by an employee who has not received training in the safe and humane application of that type of restraint. Each facility in which restraint is used shall maintain records detailing which employees have been trained and are authorized to apply restraint, the date of the training and the type of restraint that the employee was trained to use.

(h) Whenever restraint is imposed upon any recipient whose primary mode of communication is sign language, the recipient shall be permitted to have his hands free from restraint for brief periods each hour, except when freedom may result in physical harm to the recipient or others.

(i) A recipient who is restrained may only be secluded at the same time pursuant to an explicit written authorization as provided in Section 2-109 of this Code. Whenever a recipient is restrained, a member of the facility staff shall remain with the recipient at all times unless the recipient has been secluded. A recipient who is restrained and secluded shall be observed by a qualified person as often as is clinically appropriate but in no event less than every 15 minutes.

(j) Whenever restraint is used, the recipient shall be advised of his right, pursuant to Sections 2-200 and 2-201 of this Code, to have any person of his choosing, including the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission or the agency designated pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act notified of the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may request that any person of his choosing be notified of the restraint whether or not the guardian approves of the notice. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is notified that a recipient has been restrained, it shall contact that recipient to determine the circumstances of the restraint and whether further action is warranted.

(Source: P.A. 98-137, eff. 8-2-13.)

(405 ILCS 5/2-114) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-114)

Sec. 2-114. (a) Whenever an attorney or other advocate from the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission or the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act or any other attorney advises a facility in which a recipient is receiving inpatient mental health services that he is presently representing the recipient, or has been appointed by any court or administrative agency to do so or has been requested to represent the recipient by a member of the recipient's family, the facility shall, subject to the provisions of Section 2-113 of this Code, disclose to the attorney or advocate whether the recipient is presently residing in the facility and, if so, how the attorney or advocate may communicate with the recipient.

(b) The facility may take reasonable precautions to identify the attorney or advocate. No further information shall be disclosed to the attorney or advocate except in conformity with the authorization procedures contained in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(c) Whenever the location of the recipient has been disclosed to an attorney or advocate, the facility director shall inform the recipient of that fact and shall note this disclosure in the recipient's records.

(d) An attorney or advocate who receives any information under this Section may not disclose this information to anyone else without the written consent of the recipient obtained pursuant to Section 5 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(405 ILCS 5/3-200) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-200)

Sec. 3-200. (a) A person may be admitted as an inpatient to a mental health facility for treatment of mental illness only as provided in this Chapter, except that a person may be transferred by the Department of Corrections pursuant to the Unified Code of Corrections. A person transferred by the Department of Corrections in this manner may be released only as provided in the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) No person who is diagnosed as a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled or a person with a developmental disability may be admitted or transferred to a Department mental health facility or, any portion thereof, except as provided in this Chapter. However, the evaluation and placement of such persons shall be governed by Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/3-400) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-400)

Sec. 3-400. Voluntary admission to mental health facility.

(a) Any person 16 or older, including a person adjudicated a person with a disability disabled person, may be admitted to a mental health facility as a voluntary recipient for treatment of a mental illness upon the filing of an application with the facility director of the facility if the facility director determines and documents in the recipient's medical record that the person (1) is clinically suitable for admission as a voluntary recipient and (2) has the capacity to consent to voluntary admission.

(b) For purposes of consenting to voluntary admission, a person has the capacity to consent to voluntary admission if, in the professional judgment of the facility director or his or her designee, the person is able to understand that:

(1) He or she is being admitted to a mental health facility.

(2) He or she may request discharge at any time. The request must be in writing, and discharge is not automatic.

(3) Within 5 business days after receipt of the written request for discharge, the facility must either discharge the person or initiate commitment proceedings.

(c) No mental health facility shall require the completion of a petition or certificate as a condition of accepting the admission of a recipient who is being transported to that facility from any other inpatient or outpatient healthcare facility if the recipient has completed an application for voluntary admission to the receiving facility pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-612, eff. 1-1-10; 97-375, eff. 8-15-11.)

(405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV heading)

CHAPTER IV

ADMISSION, TRANSFER, AND DISCHARGE PROCEDURES

FOR PERSONS WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES THE

DEVELOPMENTALLY DISABLED

(405 ILCS 5/4-201) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-201)

Sec. 4-201. (a) A person with an intellectual disability An intellectually disabled person shall not reside in a Department mental health facility unless the person is evaluated and is determined to be a person with mental illness and the facility director determines that appropriate treatment and habilitation are available and will be provided to such person on the unit. In all such cases the Department mental health facility director shall certify in writing within 30 days of the completion of the evaluation and every 30 days thereafter, that the person has been appropriately evaluated, that services specified in the treatment and habilitation plan are being provided, that the setting in which services are being provided is appropriate to the person's needs, and that provision of such services fully complies with all applicable federal statutes and regulations concerning the provision of services to persons with a developmental disability. Those regulations shall include, but not be limited to the regulations which govern the provision of services to persons with a developmental disability in facilities certified under the Social Security Act for federal financial participation, whether or not the facility or portion thereof in which the recipient has been placed is presently certified under the Social Security Act or would be eligible for such certification under applicable federal regulations. The certifications shall be filed in the recipient's record and with the office of the Secretary of the Department. A copy of the certification shall be given to the person, an attorney or advocate who is representing the person and the person's guardian.

(b) Any person admitted to a Department mental health facility who is reasonably suspected of having a mild or moderate intellectual disability being mildly or moderately intellectually disabled, including those who also have a mental illness, shall be evaluated by a multidisciplinary team which includes a qualified intellectual disabilities professional designated by the Department facility director. The evaluation shall be consistent with Section 4-300 of Article III in this Chapter, and shall include: (1) a written assessment of whether the person needs a habilitation plan and, if so, (2) a written habilitation plan consistent with Section 4-309, and (3) a written determination whether the admitting facility is capable of providing the specified habilitation services. This evaluation shall occur within a reasonable period of time, but in no case shall that period exceed 14 days after admission. In all events, a treatment plan shall be prepared for the person within 3 days of admission, and reviewed and updated every 30 days, consistent with Section 3-209 of this Code.

(c) Any person admitted to a Department mental health facility with an admitting diagnosis of a severe or profound intellectual disability shall be transferred to an appropriate facility or unit for persons with a developmental disability within 72 hours of admission unless transfer is contraindicated by the person's medical condition documented by appropriate medical personnel. Any person diagnosed with a severe or profound intellectual disability as severely or profoundly intellectually disabled while in a Department mental health facility shall be transferred to an appropriate facility or unit for persons with a developmental disability within 72 hours of such diagnosis unless transfer is contraindicated by the person's medical condition documented by appropriate medical personnel.

(d) The Secretary of the Department shall designate a qualified intellectual disabilities professional in each of its mental health facilities who has responsibility for insuring compliance with the provisions of Sections 4-201 and 4-201.1.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/4-201.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-201.1)

Sec. 4-201.1. (a) A person residing in a Department mental health facility who is evaluated as having a mild or moderate intellectual disability being mildly or moderately intellectually disabled, an attorney or advocate representing the person, or a guardian of such person may object to the Department facility director's certification required in Section 4-201, the treatment and habilitation plan, or appropriateness of setting, and obtain an administrative decision requiring revision of a treatment or habilitation plan or change of setting, by utilization review as provided in Sections 3-207 and 4-209 of this Code. As part of this utilization review, the Committee shall include as one of its members a qualified intellectual disabilities professional.

(b) The mental health facility director shall give written notice to each person evaluated as having a mild or moderate intellectual disability being mildly or moderately intellectually disabled, the person's attorney and guardian, if any, or in the case of a minor, to his or her attorney, to the parent, guardian or person in loco parentis and to the minor if 12 years of age or older, of the person's right to request a review of the facility director's initial or subsequent determination that such person is appropriately placed or is receiving appropriate services. The notice shall also provide the address and phone number of the Legal Advocacy Service of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, which the person or guardian can contact for legal assistance. If requested, the facility director shall assist the person or guardian in contacting the Legal Advocacy Service. This notice shall be given within 24 hours of Department's evaluation that the person has a mild or moderate intellectual disability is mildly or moderately intellectually disabled.

(c) Any recipient of services who successfully challenges a final decision of the Secretary of the Department (or his or her designee) reviewing an objection to the certification required under Section 4-201, the treatment and habilitation plan, or the appropriateness of the setting shall be entitled to recover reasonable attorney's fees incurred in that challenge, unless the Department's position was substantially justified.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV Art. III heading)

ARTICLE III. ADMINISTRATIVE AND TEMPORARY ADMISSION

OF PERSONS WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES THE DEVELOPMENTALLY

DISABLED

(405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV Art. IV heading)

ARTICLE IV. EMERGENCY ADMISSION

OF PERSONS WITH INTELLECTUAL DISABILITIES THE INTELLECTUALLY

DISABLED

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/4-400) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-400)

Sec. 4-400. (a) A person 18 years of age or older may be admitted on an emergency basis to a facility under this Article if the facility director of the facility determines: (1) that he is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled; (2) that he is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another in the near future; and (3) that immediate admission is necessary to prevent such harm.

(b) Persons with a developmental disability under 18 years of age and persons with a developmental disability 18 years of age or over who are under guardianship or who are seeking admission on their own behalf may be admitted for emergency care under Section 4-311.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV Art. V heading)

ARTICLE V. JUDICIAL ADMISSION FOR THE

PERSONS WITH INTELLECTUAL DISABILITIES INTELLECTUALLY DISABLED

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/4-500) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-500)

Sec. 4-500. A person 18 years of age or older may be admitted to a facility upon court order under this Article if the court determines: (1) that he is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled; and (2) that he is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another in the near future.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 5/4-701) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-701)

Sec. 4-701. (a) Any client admitted to a developmental disabilities facility under this Chapter may be discharged whenever the facility director determines that he is suitable for discharge.

(b) Any client admitted to a facility or program of nonresidential services upon court order under Article V of this Chapter or admitted upon court order as a person with an intellectual disability or as intellectually disabled or mentally deficient under any prior statute shall be discharged whenever the facility director determines that he no longer meets the standard for judicial admission. When the facility director believes that continued residence is advisable for such a client, he shall inform the client and his guardian, if any, that the client may remain at the facility on administrative admission status. When a facility director discharges or changes the status of such client, he shall promptly notify the clerk of the court who shall note the action in the court record.

(c) When the facility director discharges a client pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, he shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the client resided immediately prior to his admission to a developmental disabilities facility. Upon receipt of such notice, the State's Attorney may notify such peace officers that he deems appropriate.

(d) The facility director may grant a temporary release to any client when such release is appropriate and consistent with the habilitation needs of the client.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(405 ILCS 5/5-105) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 5-105)

Sec. 5-105. Each recipient of services provided directly or funded by the Department and the estate of that recipient is liable for the payment of sums representing charges for services to the recipient at a rate to be determined by the Department in accordance with this Act. If a recipient is a beneficiary of a trust described in Section 15.1 of the Trusts and Trustees Act, the trust shall not be considered a part of the recipient's estate and shall not be subject to payment for services to the recipient under this Section except to the extent permitted under Section 15.1 of the Trusts and Trustees Act. If the recipient is unable to pay or if the estate of the recipient is insufficient, the responsible relatives are severally liable for the payment of those sums or for the balance due in case less than the amount prescribed under this Act has been paid. If the recipient is under the age of 18, the recipient and responsible relative shall be liable for medical costs on a case-by-case basis for services for the diagnosis and treatment of conditions other than that child's disabling handicapping condition. The liability shall be the lesser of the cost of medical care or the amount of responsible relative liability established by the Department under Section 5-116. Any person 18 through 21 years of age who is receiving services under the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975 (Public Law 94-142) or that person's responsible relative shall only be liable for medical costs on a case-by-case basis for services for the diagnosis and treatment of conditions other than the person's disabling handicapping condition. The liability shall be the lesser of the cost of medical care or the amount of responsible relative liability established by the Department under Section 5-116. In the case of any person who has received residential services from the Department, whether directly from the Department or through a public or private agency or entity funded by the Department, the liability shall be the same regardless of the source of services. The maximum services charges for each recipient assessed against responsible relatives collectively may not exceed financial liability determined from income in accordance with Section 5-116. Where the recipient is placed in a nursing home or other facility outside the Department, the Department may pay the actual cost of services in that facility and may collect reimbursement for the entire amount paid from the recipient or an amount not to exceed those amounts determined under Section 5-116 from responsible relatives according to their proportionate ability to contribute to those charges. The liability of each responsible relative for payment of services charges ceases when payments on the basis of financial ability have been made for a total of 12 years for any recipient, and any portion of that 12 year period during which a responsible relative has been determined by the Department to be financially unable to pay any services charges must be included in fixing the total period of liability. No child is liable under this Act for services to a parent. No spouse is liable under this Act for the services to the other spouse who wilfully failed to contribute to the spouse's support for a period of 5 years immediately preceding his or her admission. Any spouse claiming exemption because of wilful failure to support during any such 5 year period must furnish the Department with clear and convincing evidence substantiating the claim. No parent is liable under this Act for the services charges incurred by a child after the child reaches the age of majority. Nothing in this Section shall preclude the Department from applying federal benefits that are specifically provided for the care and treatment of a person with a disability disabled person toward the cost of care provided by a State facility or private agency.

(Source: P.A. 87-311; 88-380.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)

Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person. When a person has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, including, but not limited to, an adjudication as a person with a disability disabled person as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department no later than 7 days after the entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the Department of State Police shall provide notification to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.2)

Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. For purposes of this Section, if a person is determined to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether practicing at a public or by a private mental health facility or developmental disability facility, the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human Services within 24 hours of making the determination that the person has a developmental disability. The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. Information disclosed under this Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report.

The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the determination and his or her employer may not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Section 770. The Community Mental Health Act is amended by changing the title of the Act as follows:

(405 ILCS 20/Act title)

An Act relating to community mental health facilities and services, including those for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled and the substance abusers abuser.

Section 775. The Specialized Living Centers Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and by changing Section 2.03 as follows:

(405 ILCS 25/Act title)

An Act in relation to specialized living centers for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled and to amend Acts therein named in connection therewith.

(405 ILCS 25/2.03) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 602.03)

Sec. 2.03. "Person with a developmental disability" means individuals whose disability is attributable to an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or other neurological condition which generally originates before such individuals attain age 18 which had continued or can be expected to continue indefinitely and which constitutes a substantial disability handicap to such individuals.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 780. The Community Services Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 1, 2, 3, and 4.4 as follows:

(405 ILCS 30/Act title)

An Act to facilitate the establishment of community services for persons who are mentally ill, developmentally disabled, alcohol dependent, or addicted or who are persons with developmental disabilities.

(405 ILCS 30/1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 901)

Sec. 1. Purpose. It is declared to be the policy and intent of the Illinois General Assembly that the Department of Human Services assume leadership in facilitating the establishment of comprehensive and coordinated arrays of private and public services for persons with mental illness, persons with a developmental disability, and alcohol and drug dependent citizens residing in communities throughout the state. The Department shall work in partnership with local government entities, direct service providers, voluntary associations and communities to create a system that is sensitive to the needs of local communities and which complements existing family and other natural supports, social institutions and programs.

The goals of the service system shall include but not be limited to the following: to strengthen the disabled individual's independence, self-esteem, and ability of the individual with a disability to participate in and contribute to community life; to insure continuity of care for clients; to enable persons with disabilities disabled persons to access needed services, commensurate with their individual wishes and needs, regardless of where they reside in the state; to prevent unnecessary institutionalization and the dislocation of individuals from their home communities; to provide a range of services so that persons can receive these services in settings which do not unnecessarily restrict their liberty; and to encourage clients to move among settings as their needs change.

The system shall include provision of services in the areas of prevention, client assessment and diagnosis, case coordination, crisis and emergency care, treatment and habilitation and support services, and community residential alternatives to institutional settings. The General Assembly recognizes that community programs are an integral part of the larger service system, which includes state-operated facilities for persons who cannot receive appropriate services in the community.

Towards achievement of these ends, the Department of Human Services, working in coordination with other State agencies, shall assume responsibilities pursuant to this Act, which includes activities in the areas of planning, quality assurance, program evaluation, community education, and the provision of financial and technical assistance to local provider agencies.

(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(405 ILCS 30/2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 902)

Sec. 2. Community Services System. Services should be planned, developed, delivered and evaluated as part of a comprehensive and coordinated system. The Department of Human Services shall encourage the establishment of services in each area of the State which cover the services categories described below. What specific services are provided under each service category shall be based on local needs; special attention shall be given to unserved and underserved populations, including children and youth, racial and ethnic minorities, and the elderly. The service categories shall include:

(a) Prevention: services designed primarily to reduce the incidence and ameliorate the severity of developmental disabilities, mental illness and alcohol and drug dependence;

(b) Client Assessment and Diagnosis: services designed to identify persons with developmental disabilities, mental illness and alcohol and drug dependency; to determine the extent of the disability and the level of functioning; to ensure that the individual's need for treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring substance use and mental health disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria; for purposes of this subsection (b), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; information obtained through client evaluation can be used in individual treatment and habilitation plans; to assure appropriate placement and to assist in program evaluation;

(c) Case Coordination: services to provide information and assistance to persons with disabilities to ensure disabled persons to insure that they obtain needed services provided by the private and public sectors; case coordination services should be available to individuals whose functioning level or history of institutional recidivism or long-term care indicate that such assistance is required for successful community living;

(d) Crisis and Emergency: services to assist individuals and their families through crisis periods, to stabilize individuals under stress and to prevent unnecessary institutionalization;

(e) Treatment, Habilitation and Support: services designed to help individuals develop skills which promote independence and improved levels of social and vocational functioning and personal growth; and to provide non-treatment support services which are necessary for successful community living;

(f) Community Residential Alternatives to Institutional Settings: services to provide living arrangements for persons unable to live independently; the level of supervision, services provided and length of stay at community residential alternatives will vary by the type of program and the needs and functioning level of the residents; other services may be provided in a community residential alternative which promote the acquisition of independent living skills and integration with the community.

(Source: P.A. 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12.)

(405 ILCS 30/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 903)

Sec. 3. Responsibilities for Community Services. Pursuant to this Act, the Department of Human Services shall facilitate the establishment of a comprehensive and coordinated array of community services based upon a federal, State and local partnership. In order to assist in implementation of this Act, the Department shall prescribe and publish rules and regulations. The Department may request the assistance of other State agencies, local government entities, direct services providers, trade associations, and others in the development of these regulations or other policies related to community services.

The Department shall assume the following roles and responsibilities for community services:

(a) Service Priorities. Within the service categories described in Section 2 of this Act, establish and publish priorities for community services to be rendered, and priority populations to receive these services.

(b) Planning. By January 1, 1994 and by January 1 of each third year thereafter, prepare and publish a Plan which describes goals and objectives for community services state-wide and for regions and subregions needs assessment, steps and time-tables for implementation of the goals also shall be included; programmatic goals and objectives for community services shall cover the service categories defined in Section 2 of this Act; the Department shall insure local participation in the planning process.

(c) Public Information and Education. Develop programs aimed at improving the relationship between communities and their residents with disabilities; prepare and disseminate public information and educational materials on the prevention of developmental disabilities, mental illness, and alcohol or drug dependence, and on available treatment and habilitation services for persons with these disabilities.

(d) Quality Assurance. Promulgate minimum program standards, rules and regulations to insure that Department funded services maintain acceptable quality and assure enforcement of these standards through regular monitoring of services and through program evaluation; this applies except where this responsibility is explicitly given by law to another State agency.

(d-5) Accreditation requirements for providers of mental health and substance abuse treatment services. Except when the federal or State statutes authorizing a program, or the federal regulations implementing a program, are to the contrary, accreditation shall be accepted by the Department in lieu of the Department's facility or program certification or licensure onsite review requirements and shall be accepted as a substitute for the Department's administrative and program monitoring requirements, except as required by subsection (d-10), in the case of:

(1) Any organization from which the Department purchases mental health or substance abuse services and that is accredited under any of the following: the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Behavioral Health Care (Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)); the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals (JCAHO); the Standards Manual for the Council on Accreditation for Children and Family Services (Council on Accreditation for Children and Family Services (COA)); or the Standards Manual for Organizations Serving People with Disabilities (the Rehabilitation Accreditation Commission (CARF)).

(2) Any mental health facility or program licensed or certified by the Department, or any substance abuse service licensed by the Department, that is accredited under any of the following: the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Behavioral Health Care (JCAHO); the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals (JCAHO); the Standards Manual for the Council on Accreditation for Children and Family Services (COA); or the Standards Manual for Organizations Serving People with Disabilities (CARF).

(3) Any network of providers from which the Department purchases mental health or substance abuse services and that is accredited under any of the following: the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Behavioral Health Care (JCAHO); the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals (JCAHO); the Standards Manual for the Council on Accreditation for Children and Family Services (COA); the Standards Manual for Organizations Serving People with Disabilities (CARF); or the National Committee for Quality Assurance. A provider organization that is part of an accredited network shall be afforded the same rights under this subsection.

(d-10) For mental health and substance abuse services, the Department may develop standards or promulgate rules that establish additional standards for monitoring and licensing accredited programs, services, and facilities that the Department has determined are not covered by the accreditation standards and processes. These additional standards for monitoring and licensing accredited programs, services, and facilities and the associated monitoring must not duplicate the standards and processes already covered by the accrediting bodies.

(d-15) The Department shall be given proof of compliance with fire and health safety standards, which must be submitted as required by rule.

(d-20) The Department, by accepting the survey or inspection of an accrediting organization, does not forfeit its rights to perform inspections at any time, including contract monitoring to ensure that services are provided in accordance with the contract. The Department reserves the right to monitor a provider of mental health and substance abuse treatment services when the survey or inspection of an accrediting organization has established any deficiency in the accreditation standards and processes.

(d-25) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the accreditation requirements of this Section apply to contracted organizations that are already accredited.

(e) Program Evaluation. Develop a system for conducting evaluation of the effectiveness of community services, according to preestablished performance standards; evaluate the extent to which performance according to established standards aids in achieving the goals of this Act; evaluation data also shall be used for quality assurance purposes as well as for planning activities.

(f) Research. Conduct research in order to increase understanding of mental illness, developmental disabilities and alcohol and drug dependence.

(g) Technical Assistance. Provide technical assistance to provider agencies receiving funds or serving clients in order to assist these agencies in providing appropriate, quality services; also provide assistance and guidance to other State agencies and local governmental bodies serving persons with disabilities the disabled in order to strengthen their efforts to provide appropriate community services; and assist provider agencies in accessing other available funding, including federal, State, local, third-party and private resources.

(h) Placement Process. Promote the appropriate placement of clients in community services through the development and implementation of client assessment and diagnostic instruments to assist in identifying the individual's service needs; client assessment instruments also can be utilized for purposes of program evaluation; whenever possible, assure that placements in State-operated facilities are referrals from community agencies.

(i) Interagency Coordination. Assume leadership in promoting cooperation among State health and human service agencies to insure that a comprehensive, coordinated community services system is in place; to insure persons with a disability access to needed services; and to insure continuity of care and allow clients to move among service settings as their needs change; also work with other agencies to establish effective prevention programs.

(j) Financial Assistance. Provide financial assistance to local provider agencies through purchase-of-care contracts and grants, pursuant to Section 4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-682, eff. 10-11-07.)

(405 ILCS 30/4.4)

Sec. 4.4. Funding reinvestment.

(a) The purposes of this Section are as follows:

(1) The General Assembly recognizes that the United States Supreme Court in Olmstead v. L.C. ex Rel. Zimring, 119 S. Ct. 2176 (1999), affirmed that the unjustifiable institutionalization of a person with a disability who could live in the community with proper support, and wishes to do so, is unlawful discrimination in violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). The State of Illinois, along with all other states, is required to provide appropriate residential and community-based support services to persons with disabilities who wish to live in a less restrictive setting.

(2) It is the purpose of this Section to help fulfill the State's obligations under the Olmstead decision by maximizing the level of funds for both developmental disability and mental health services and supports in order to maintain and create an array of residential and supportive services for people with mental health needs and developmental disabilities whenever they are transferred into another facility or a community-based setting.

(b) In this Section:

"Office of Developmental Disabilities" means the Office of Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human Services.

"Office of Mental Health" means the Office of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services.

(c) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, every appropriation of State moneys relating to funding for the Office of Developmental Disabilities or the Office of Mental Health must comply with this Section.

(d) Whenever any appropriation, or any portion of an appropriation, for any fiscal year relating to the funding of any State-operated facility operated by the Office of Developmental Disabilities or any mental health facility operated by the Office of Mental Health is reduced because of any of the reasons set forth in the following items (1) through (3), to the extent that savings are realized from these items, those moneys must be directed toward providing other services and supports for persons with developmental disabilities or mental health needs:

(1) The closing of any such State-operated facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled or mental health facility.

(2) Reduction in the number of units or available beds in any such State-operated facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled or mental health facility.

(3) Reduction in the number of staff employed in any such State-operated facility for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled or mental health facility.

In determining whether any savings are realized from items (1) through (3), sufficient moneys shall be made available to ensure that there is an appropriate level of staffing and that life, safety, and care concerns are addressed so as to provide for the remaining persons with developmental disabilities or mental illness at any facility in the case of item (2) or (3) or, in the case of item (1), such remaining persons at the remaining State-operated facilities that will be expected to handle the individuals previously served at the closed facility.

(e) The purposes of redirecting this funding shall include, but not be limited to, providing the following services and supports for individuals with developmental disabilities and mental health needs:

(1) Residence in the most integrated setting possible, whether independent living in a private residence, a Community Integrated Living Arrangement (CILA), a supported residential program, an Intermediate Care Facility for persons with Developmental Disabilities (ICFDD), a supervised residential program, or supportive housing, as appropriate.

(2) Residence in another State-operated facility.

(3) Rehabilitation and support services, including assertive community treatment, case management, supportive and supervised day treatment, and psychosocial rehabilitation.

(4) Vocational or developmental training, as appropriate, that contributes to the person's independence and employment potential.

(5) Employment or supported employment, as appropriate, free from discrimination pursuant to the Constitution and laws of this State.

(6) In-home family supports, such as respite services and client and family supports.

(7) Periodic reevaluation, as needed.

(f) An appropriation may not circumvent the purposes of this Section by transferring moneys within the funding system for services and supports for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled and the mentally ill and then compensating for this transfer by redirecting other moneys away from these services to provide funding for some other governmental purpose or to relieve other State funding expenditures.

(Source: P.A. 94-498, eff. 8-8-05.)

Section 785. The Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act is amended by changing Section 0.01 as follows:

(405 ILCS 40/0.01) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1150)

Sec. 0.01. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

Section 790. The Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2-1, 2-2, 2-3, 2-4, 2-5, 2-6, 2-8, 2-10, 2-11, 2-16, 3-1, 3-2, 3-3, 3-4, 3-9.1, 3-11, 4-1, and 5-1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 80/2-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-1)

Sec. 2-1. This Article may be cited as the Home-Based Support Services Law for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-2)

Sec. 2-2. The purpose of this Article is to authorize the Department of Human Services to encourage, develop, sponsor and fund home-based and community-based services for adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults in order to provide alternatives to institutionalization and to permit adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults to remain in their own homes.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-3)

Sec. 2-3. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

(c) "Home-based services" means services provided to an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult who lives in his or her own home. These services include but are not limited to:

(1) home health services;

(2) case management;

(3) crisis management;

(4) training and assistance in self-care;

(5) personal care services;

(6) habilitation and rehabilitation services;

(7) employment-related services;

(8) respite care; and

(9) other skill training that enables a person to become self-supporting.

(d) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult.

(e) "Adult with a mental disability Mentally disabled adult" means a person over the age of 18 years who lives in his or her own home; who needs home-based services, but does not require 24-hour-a-day supervision; and who has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(f) In one's "own home" means that an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult lives alone; or that an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult is in full-time residence with his or her parents, legal guardian, or other relatives; or that an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult is in full-time residence in a setting not subject to licensure under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended, with 3 or fewer other adults unrelated to the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult who do not provide home-based services to the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult.

(g) "Parent" means the biological or adoptive parent of an adult with a mental disability a mentally disabled adult, or a person licensed as a foster parent under the laws of this State who acts as a mentally disabled adult's foster parent to an adult with a mental disability.

(h) "Relative" means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.

(i) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:

(1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

(2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; repertoire of activities and interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(j) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A primary diagnosis of one of the major mental disorders in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders listed below:

(A) Schizophrenia disorder.

(B) Delusional disorder.

(C) Schizo-affective disorder.

(D) Bipolar affective disorder.

(E) Atypical psychosis.

(F) Major depression, recurrent.

(2) The individual's mental illness must substantially impair his or her functioning in at least 2 of the following areas:

(A) Self-maintenance.

(B) Social functioning.

(C) Activities of community living.

(D) Work skills.

(3) Disability must be present or expected to be present for at least one year.

A determination of severe mental illness shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(k) "Severe or profound intellectual disability" means a manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(2) A severe or profound level of disturbed adaptive behavior. This must be measured by a standardized adaptive behavior scale or informal appraisal by the professional in keeping with illustrations in Classification in Mental Retardation, 1983.

(3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.

A determination of a severe or profound intellectual disability shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or certified school psychologist or a psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(l) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) The evaluation determines the presence of a developmental disability which is expected to continue indefinitely, constitutes a substantial disability handicap and is attributable to any of the following:

(A) Intellectual disability, which is defined as general intellectual functioning that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean. Assessment of the individual's intellectual functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(B) Cerebral palsy.

(C) Epilepsy.

(D) Autism.

(E) Any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities intellectually disabled persons.

(2) The evaluation determines multiple disabilities handicaps in physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning which constitute a severe or profound impairment attributable to one or more of the following:

(A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs the individual's motor performance that may be due to:

(i) Neurological, psychological or physical involvement resulting in a variety of disabling conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or ataxia,

(ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as congenital heart defect,

(iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or confined to bed and receiving assistance in transferring, or

(iv) The need for regular medical or nursing supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.

Assessment of physical functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due to hearing or visual impairment limiting the individual's movement and creating dependence in completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is destructive to property by deliberately breaking, destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit social integration. Assessment of behavioral functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or informal appraisal by a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

(D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(3) The evaluation determines that development is substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive, affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:

(A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(B) Affective behavior, which involves over and under responding to stimuli in the environment and may be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that seriously limit integration into society. Affective behavior must be based on clinical assessment using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so that development in self-care, social interaction, communication or physical activity will be greatly delayed or restricted.

(4) A determination that the disability originated before the age of 18 years.

A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

If the examiner is a licensed clinical psychologist, ancillary evaluation of physical impairment, cerebral palsy or epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of clinical competency.

The only exception to the above is in the case of a person with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may serve as the examiner.

(m) "Twenty-four-hour-a-day supervision" means 24-hour-a-day care by a trained mental health or developmental disability professional on an ongoing basis.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-4)

Sec. 2-4. The Department shall establish a Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults ("the Program") under this Article. The purpose of the Program is to provide alternatives to institutionalization of adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults and to permit these individuals to live in their own homes. The Department shall implement the purpose of the Program by providing home-based services to adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults who need home-based services and who live in their own homes.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-5) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-5)

Sec. 2-5. The Department shall establish eligibility standards for the Program, taking into consideration the disability levels and service needs of the target population. The Department shall create application forms which shall be used to determine the eligibility of adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults to participate in the Program. The forms shall be made available by the Department and shall require at least the following items of information which constitute eligibility criteria for participation in the Program:

(a) A statement that the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult resides in the State of Illinois and is over the age of 18 years.

(b) Verification that the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(c) Verification that the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult has applied and is eligible for federal Supplemental Security Income or federal Social Security Disability Income benefits.

(d) Verification that the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult resides full-time in his or her own home or that, within 2 months of receipt of services under this Article, he or she will reside full-time in his or her own home.

The Department may by rule adopt provisions establishing liability of responsible relatives of a recipient of services under this Article for the payment of sums representing charges for services to such recipient. Such rules shall be substantially similar to the provisions for such liability contained in Chapter V of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, and rules adopted pursuant thereto.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-6) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-6)

Sec. 2-6. An application for the Program shall be submitted to the Department by the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult or, if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult requires a guardian, by his or her legal guardian. If the application for participation in the Program is approved by the Department and the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult is eligible to receive services under this Article, the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult shall be made aware of the availability of a community support team and shall be offered case management services. The amount of the home-based services provided by the Department in any month shall be determined by the service plan of the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult, but in no case shall it be more than either:

(a) three hundred percent of the monthly federal Supplemental Security Income payment for an individual residing alone if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult is not enrolled in a special education program by a local education agency, or

(b) two hundred percent of the monthly Supplemental Security Income payment for an individual residing alone if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult is enrolled in a special education program by a local education agency.

Upon approval of the Department, all or part of the monthly amount approved for home-based services to participating adults may be used as a one-time or continuing payment to the eligible adult or the adult's parent or guardian to pay for specified tangible items that are directly related to meeting basic needs related to the person's mental disabilities.

Tangible items include, but are not limited to: adaptive equipment, medication not covered by third-party payments, nutritional supplements, and residential modifications.

(Source: P.A. 88-388.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-8) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-8)

Sec. 2-8. Services provided by the Department under the Program shall be denied:

(a) if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult no longer meets the eligibility criteria,

(b) if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult submits false information in an application or reapplication for participation in the Program, or

(c) if the adult with a mental disability mentally disabled adult fails to request or access any services after 120 days. Prior to making the decision, if the adult with mental disabilities has failed to request or access any services within 90 days, the Department shall give written notice to the person who signed the application that participation in the Program will be denied if services are not requested or accessed within 30 days.

Whenever services provided by the Department under the Program are denied for the reasons in paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this Section, the Department shall give written notice of the decision and the reasons for denial of services to the person who signed the application. Such notice shall contain information on requesting an appeal under Section 2-13.

(Source: P.A. 86-921; 87-1158.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Before eligible adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults receive services under this Article, they shall maximize use of other services provided by other governmental agencies, including but not limited to educational and vocational services.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-11) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-11)

Sec. 2-11. The Department, as successor to any agreements between the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities and the Department of Rehabilitation Services for the provision of training, employment placement, and employment referral services for the adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults served under this Article, shall carry out the responsibilities, if any, incurred by its predecessor agencies under those agreements.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(405 ILCS 80/2-16) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-16)

Sec. 2-16. The Department shall adopt rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults. The rules shall include the intake procedures, application process and eligibility requirements for adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled adults who apply for services under the Program.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-1)

Sec. 3-1. This Article shall be known and may be cited as the Family Assistance Law for Children with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Children.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-2)

Sec. 3-2. The purpose of this Article is to create a mandate for the Department of Human Services to strengthen and promote families who provide care within the family home for children whose level of mental illness or developmental disability constitutes a risk of out-of-home placement. It is the intent of this Article to strengthen, promote and empower families to determine the most appropriate use of resources to address the unique and changing needs of those families' children with mental disabilities mentally disabled children.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-3)

Sec. 3-3. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

(c) "Department-funded out-of-home placement services" means those services for which the Department pays the partial or full cost of care of the residential placement.

(d) "Family" or "families" means a family member or members and his, her or their parents or legal guardians.

(e) "Family member" means a child 17 years old or younger who has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe emotional disturbance, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(f) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of a family member and with whom the family member resides.

(g) "Parent" means a biological or adoptive parent with whom the family member resides, or a person licensed as a foster parent under the laws of this State, acting as a family member's foster parent, and with whom the family member resides.

(h) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:

(1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders;

(2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(i) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) a severe mental illness characterized by the presence of a mental disorder in children or adolescents, classified in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (Third Edition - Revised), as now or hereafter revised, excluding V-codes (as that term is used in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders), adjustment disorders, the presence of an intellectual disability when no other mental disorder is present, alcohol or substance abuse, or other forms of dementia based upon organic or physical disorders; and

(2) a functional disability of an extended duration which results in substantial limitations in major life activities.

A determination of severe mental illness shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or a psychiatrist.

(j) "Severe or profound intellectual disability" means a manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(2) A severe or profound level of adaptive behavior. This must be measured by a standardized adaptive behavior scale or informal appraisal by the professional in keeping with illustrations in Classification in Mental Retardation, 1983.

(3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.

A determination of a severe or profound intellectual disability shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist, certified school psychologist, a psychiatrist or other physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(k) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the manifestation of all the following characteristics:

(1) The evaluation determines the presence of a developmental disability which is expected to continue indefinitely, constitutes a substantial disability handicap and is attributable to any of the following:

(A) Intellectual disability, which is defined as general intellectual functioning that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean. Assessment of the individual's intellectual functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(B) Cerebral palsy.

(C) Epilepsy.

(D) Autism.

(E) Any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities intellectually disabled persons.

(2) The evaluation determines multiple disabilities handicaps in physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning which constitute a severe or profound impairment attributable to one or more of the following:

(A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs the individual's motor performance that may be due to:

(i) Neurological, psychological or physical involvement resulting in a variety of disabling conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or ataxia,

(ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as congenital heart defect,

(iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or confined to bed and receiving assistance in transferring, or

(iv) The need for regular medical or nursing supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.

Assessment of physical functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment, using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due to hearing or visual impairment limiting the individual's movement and creating dependence in completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is destructive to property by deliberately breaking, destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit social integration. Assessment of behavioral functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or informal appraisal by the medical professional.

(D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(3) The evaluation determines that development is substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive, affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:

(A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(B) Affective behavior, which involves over and under responding to stimuli in the environment and may be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that seriously limit integration into society. Affective behavior must be based on clinical medical and psychiatric assessment using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so that development in self-care, social interaction, communication or physical activity will be greatly delayed or restricted.

(4) A determination that the disability originated before the age of 18 years.

A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist. If the examiner is a licensed clinical psychologist, ancillary evaluation of physical impairment, cerebral palsy or epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of clinical competency.

The only exception to the above is in the case of a person with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may serve as the examiner.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-4)

Sec. 3-4. The Department shall establish a Family Assistance Program for Children with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Children ("the Program") under this Article. The purpose of the Program is to strengthen and promote the family and to prevent the out-of-home placement of children with mental disabilities mentally disabled children. The Department shall implement the purpose of the Program by providing funds directly to families to defray some of the costs of caring for family members who have mental disabilities mentally disabled family members, thereby preventing or delaying the out-of-home placement of family members.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-9.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-9.1)

Sec. 3-9.1. If an individual is terminated from the Program solely because the individual has attained the age of 18 years, the individual shall be allowed, through a transition process, to enter the Home-Based Support Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities Mentally Disabled Adults if he or she meets the eligibility requirements set forth in Article II for that program.

(Source: P.A. 87-447.)

(405 ILCS 80/3-11) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-11)

Sec. 3-11. Families will be required to provide assurances that the stipend will be used for the benefit of the person with a disability disabled person such that it will insure their continued successive development. Annually, the family shall submit to the Department a written statement signed by the family member's parent or legal guardian which states that the stipend was used to meet the special needs of the family.

(Source: P.A. 86-921.)

(405 ILCS 80/4-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1804-1)

Sec. 4-1. The Department of Human Services may provide access to home-based and community-based services for children and adults with mental disabilities mentally disabled children and adults through the designation of local screening and assessment units and community support teams. The screening and assessment units shall provide comprehensive assessment; develop individual service plans; link the persons with mental disabilities and their families to community providers for implementation of the plan; and monitor the plan's implementation for the time necessary to insure that the plan is appropriate and acceptable to the persons with mental disabilities and their families. The Department also will make available community support services in each local geographic area for persons with severe mental disabilities. Community support teams will provide case management, ongoing guidance and assistance for persons with mental disabilities mentally disabled persons; will offer skills training, crisis/behavioral intervention, client/family support, and access to medication management; and provide individual client assistance to access housing, financial benefits, and employment-related services.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

(405 ILCS 80/5-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1805-1)

Sec. 5-1. As the mental health and developmental disabilities or intellectual disabilities authority for the State of Illinois, the Department of Human Services shall have the authority to license, certify and prescribe standards governing the programs and services provided under this Act, as well as all other agencies or programs which provide home-based or community-based services to persons with mental disabilities the mentally disabled, except those services, programs or agencies established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

Section 795. The Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 15, and 40 as follows:

(405 ILCS 82/5)

Sec. 5. Legislative Findings. The General Assembly finds all of the following:

(a) As a result of decades of significant under-funding of Illinois' developmental disabilities and mental health service delivery system, the quality of life of individuals with disabilities has been negatively impacted and, in an unacceptable number of instances, has resulted in serious health consequences and even death.

(b) In response to growing concern over the safety of the State-operated developmental disability facilities, following a series of resident deaths, the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act opened a systemic investigation to examine all such deaths for a period of time, including the death of a young man in his twenties, Brian Kent, on October 30, 2002, and released a public report, "Life and Death in State-Operated Developmental Disability Institutions," which included findings and recommendations aimed at preventing such tragedies in the future.

(c) The documentation of substandard medical care and treatment of individual residents living in the State-operated facilities cited in that report necessitate that the State of Illinois take immediate action to prevent further injuries and deaths.

(d) The agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act has also reviewed conditions and deaths of individuals with disabilities living in or transferred to community-based facilities and found similar problems in some of those settings.

(e) The circumstances associated with deaths in both State-operated facilities and community-based facilities, and review of the State's investigations and findings regarding these incidents, demonstrate that the current federal and State oversight and investigatory systems are seriously under-funded.

(f) An effective mortality review process enables state service systems to focus on individual deaths and consider the broader issues, policies, and practices that may contribute to these tragedies. This critical information, when shared with public and private facilities, can help to reduce circumstances that place individuals at high risk of serious harm and even death.

(g) The purpose of this Act is to establish within the Department of Human Services a low-cost, volunteer-based mortality review process conducted by an independent team of experts that will enhance the health and safety of the individuals served by Illinois' developmental disability and mental health service delivery systems.

(h) This independent team of experts will be comparable to 2 existing types of oversight teams: the Abuse Prevention Review Team created under the jurisdiction of the Department of Public Health, which examines deaths of individuals living in long-term care facilities, and Child Death Review Teams created under the jurisdiction of the Department of Children and Family Services, which reviews the deaths of children.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11.)

(405 ILCS 82/15)

Sec. 15. Mortality Review Process.

(a) The Department of Human Services shall develop an independent team of experts from the academic, private, and public sectors to examine all deaths at facilities and community agencies.

(b) The Secretary of Human Services, in consultation with the Director of Public Health, shall appoint members to the independent team of experts, which shall consist of at least one member from each of the following categories:

1. Physicians experienced in providing medical care to individuals with developmental disabilities.

2. Physicians experienced in providing medical care to individuals with mental illness.

3. Registered nurses experienced in providing medical care to individuals with developmental disabilities.

4. Registered nurses experienced in providing medical care to individuals with mental illness.

5. Psychiatrists.

6. Psychologists.

7. Representatives of the Department of Human Services who are not employed at the facility at which the death occurred.

8. Representatives of the Department of Public Health.

9. Representatives of the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act.

10. State's Attorneys or State's Attorneys' representatives.

11. Coroners or forensic pathologists.

12. Representatives of local hospitals, trauma centers, or providers of emergency medical services.

13. Other categories of persons, as the Secretary of Human Services may see fit.

The independent team of experts may make recommendations to the Secretary of Human Services concerning additional appointments. Each team member must have demonstrated experience and an interest in investigating, treating, or preventing the deaths of individuals with disabilities. The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint additional teams if the Secretary or the existing team determines that more teams are necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act. The members of a team shall be appointed for 2-year staggered terms and shall be eligible for reappointment upon the expiration of their terms. Each independent team shall select a Chairperson from among its members.

(c) The independent team of experts shall examine the deaths of all individuals who have died while under the care of a facility or community agency.

(d) The purpose of the independent team of experts' examination of such deaths is to do the following:

1. Review the cause and manner of the individual's death.

2. Review all actions taken by the facility, State agencies, or other entities to address the cause or causes of death and the adequacy of medical care and treatment.

3. Evaluate the means, if any, by which the death might have been prevented.

4. Report its observations and conclusions to the Secretary of Human Services and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of unnecessary deaths.

5. Promote continuing education for professionals involved in investigating and preventing the unnecessary deaths of individuals under the care of a facility or community agency.

6. Make specific recommendations to the Secretary of Human Services concerning the prevention of unnecessary deaths of individuals under the care of facilities and community agencies, including changes in policies and practices that will prevent harm to individuals with disabilities, and the establishment of protocols for investigating the deaths of these individuals.

(e) The independent team of experts must examine the cases submitted to it on a quarterly basis. The team shall meet at least once in each calendar quarter if there are cases to be examined. The Department of Human Services shall forward cases within 90 days after completion of a review or an investigation into the death of an individual residing at a facility or community agency.

(f) Within 90 days after receiving recommendations made by the independent team of experts under subsection (d) of this Section, the Secretary of Human Services must review those recommendations, as feasible and appropriate, and shall respond to the team in writing to explain the implementation of those recommendations.

(g) The Secretary of Human Services shall establish protocols governing the operation of the independent team. Those protocols shall include the creation of sub-teams to review the case records or portions of the case records and report to the full team. The members of a sub-team shall be composed of team members specially qualified to examine those records. In any instance in which the independent team does not operate in accordance with established protocol, the Secretary of Human Services shall take any necessary actions to bring the team into compliance with the protocol.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11.)

(405 ILCS 82/40)

Sec. 40. Rights information. The Department of Human Services shall ensure that individuals with disabilities and their guardians and families receive sufficient information regarding their rights, including the right to be safe, the right to be free from abuse and neglect, the right to receive quality services, and the right to an adequate discharge plan and timely transition to the least restrictive setting to meet their individual needs and desires. The Department shall provide this information, which shall be developed in collaboration with the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, in order to allow individuals with disabilities and their guardians and families to make informed decisions regarding the provision of services that can meet the individual's needs and desires. The Department shall provide this information to all facilities and community agencies to be made available upon admission and at least annually thereafter for as long as the individual remains in the facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 800. The Home Environment Living Program Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(405 ILCS 85/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2003)

Sec. 3. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.

(b) "Project HELP" means the Home Environment Living Program.

(c) "Home caregiver" means a substitute family home which provides services and care to a child or adult who is a person with a severe disability severely disabled.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)

Section 805. The Elevator Tactile Identification Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 30/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 3901)

Sec. 1. In each building, including commercial, residential and institutional structures, served during regular business hours by an unsupervised automatic passenger elevator for use by the general public, the elevator, or at least the left elevator where there is more than one elevator in any bank of elevators, shall be equipped with elevator controls, within the elevator and at each floor level served by the elevator, which have tactile identification or braille markings, pursuant to the following schedule:

(a) New elevators for which building permits are issued after the effective date of this Act or October 1, 1977, whichever date is later - immediately;

(b) Existing elevators undergoing renovation of the control panel for which building permits are issued after the effective date of this Act or October 1, 1977, whichever date is later - immediately;

(c) Existing elevators not undergoing renovation, the earlier of:

(1) 90 days after the effective date of Federal standards governing elevator control markings applicable to privately owned buildings, or

(2) June 30, 1980.

All tactile identification except braille shall be in contrasting colors and consist of raised letters, numbers, labels or plaques for persons with a visual disability the visually handicapped.

(Source: P.A. 80-384.)

Section 810. The Child Vision and Hearing Test Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 205/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 2333)

Sec. 3. Vision and hearing screening services shall be administered to all children as early as possible, but no later than their first year in any public or private education program, licensed day care center or residential facility for children with disabilities handicapped children; and periodically thereafter, to identify those children with vision or hearing impairments or both so that such conditions can be managed or treated.

(Source: P.A. 81-174.)

(410 ILCS 205/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2337)

Sec. 7. The Director shall appoint a Children's Hearing Services Advisory Committee and a Children's Vision Services Advisory Committee. The membership of each committee shall not exceed 10 individuals. In making appointments to the Children's Hearing Services Advisory Committee, the Director shall appoint individuals with knowledge of or experience in the problems of children with a hearing disability hearing handicapped children and shall appoint at least 2 licensed physicians who specialize in the field of otolaryngology and are recommended by that organization representing the largest number of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois, and at least 2 audiologists. In making appointments to the Children's Vision Services Advisory Committee, the Director shall appoint 2 members (and one alternate) recommended by the Illinois Society for the Prevention of Blindness, 2 licensed physicians (and one alternate) who specialize in ophthalmology and are recommended by that organization representing the largest number of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois, and 2 licensed optometrists (and one alternate) recommended by that organization representing the largest number of licensed optometrists in the State of Illinois, as members of the Children's Vision Services Advisory Committee.

The Children's Hearing Services Advisory Committee shall advise the Department in the implementation and administration of the hearing services program and in the development of rules and regulations pertaining to that program. The Children's Vision Services Advisory Committee shall advise the Department in the development of rules and regulations pertaining to that program. Each committee shall select a chairman from its membership and shall meet at least once in each calendar year.

The members of the Advisory Committees shall receive no compensation for their services; however, the nongovernmental members shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties in accordance with the State of Illinois travel regulations.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

Section 815. The Developmental Disability Prevention Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 2, 3, and 11 as follows:

(410 ILCS 250/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2101)

Sec. 1.

It is hereby declared to be the policy of the State of Illinois that the prevention of perinatal mortality and conditions leading to developmental disabilities and other handicapping disabilities is a high priority for attention. Efforts to reduce the incidence of perinatal risk factors by early identification and management of the high risk woman of childbearing age, fetus and newborn will not only decrease the predisposition to disability but will also prove to be a cost-effective endeavor, reducing State and private expenditures for the care and maintenance of those persons whose disability was a result of disabled from perinatal risk factors.

(Source: P.A. 78-557.)

(410 ILCS 250/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2102)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

a "perinatal" means the period of time between the conception of an infant and the end of the first month of life;

b "congenital" means those intrauterine factors which influence the growth, development and function of the fetus;

c "environmental" means those extrauterine factors which influence the adaptation, well being or life of the newborn and may lead to disability;

d "high risk" means an increased level of risk of harm or mortality to the woman of childbearing age, fetus or newborn from congenital and/or environmental factors;

e "perinatal center" means a referral facility intended to care for the high risk patient before, during, or after labor and delivery and characterized by sophistication and availability of personnel, equipment, laboratory, transportation techniques, consultation and other support services;

f "developmental disability" means an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or other neurological disabling handicapping conditions of an individual found to be closely related to an intellectual disability or to require treatment similar to that required by individuals with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled individuals, and the disability originates before such individual attains age 18, and has continued, or can be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitutes a substantial disability handicap of such individuals;

g "disability" means a condition characterized by temporary or permanent, partial or complete impairment of physical, mental or physiological function;

h "Department" means the Department of Public Health.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(410 ILCS 250/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2103)

Sec. 3. By January 1, 1974, the Department, in conjunction with its appropriate advisory planning committee, shall develop standards for all levels of hospital perinatal care to include regional perinatal centers. Such standards shall recognize and correlate with the Hospital Licensing Act approved July 1, 1953, as amended. The standards shall assure that:

(a) facilities are equipped and prepared to stabilize infants prior to transport;

(b) coordination exists between general maternity care and perinatal centers;

(c) unexpected complications during delivery can be properly managed;

(d) all high risk pregnancies and childbirths are reviewed at each hospital or maternity center to determine if such children are born with a disabling handicapping condition or developmental disability that threatens life or development;

(e) procedures are implemented to identify and report to the Department all births of children with disabling handicapping conditions or developmental disabilities that threaten life or development;

(f) children identified as having a disabling handicapping condition or developmental disability that threatens life or development are promptly evaluated in consultation with designated regional perinatal centers and referred, when appropriate, to such centers, or to other medical specialty services, as approved by the Department and in accordance with the level of perinatal care authorized for each hospital or maternity care center for the proper management and treatment of such condition or disability;

(g) hospital or maternity centers conduct postnatal reviews of all perinatal deaths as well as reviews of the births of children born with disabling handicapping conditions or developmental disabilities that threaten life or development, utilizing criteria of case selection developed by such hospitals or maternity centers, or the appropriate medical staff committees thereof, in order to determine the appropriateness of diagnosis and treatment and the adequacy of procedures to prevent such disabilities or the loss of life;

(h) high risk mothers and their spouses are provided information, referral and counseling services to ensure informed consent to the treatment of children born with disabling handicapping conditions or developmental disabilities;

(i) parents and families are provided information, referral and counseling services to assist in obtaining habilitation, rehabilitation and special education services for children born with disabling handicapping conditions or developmental disabilities, so that such children have an opportunity to realize full potential. Such standards shall include, but not be limited to, the establishment of procedures for notification of the appropriate State and local educational service agencies regarding children who may require evaluation and assessment under such agencies;

(j) consultation when indicated is provided for and available. Perinatal centers shall provide care for the high risk expectant mother who may deliver a distressed infant or infant with a disability or disabled infant. Such centers shall also provide intensive care to the high risk newborn whose life or physical well-being is in jeopardy. Standards shall include the availability of: 1 trained personnel; 2 trained neonatal nursing staff; 3 x-ray and laboratory equipment available on a 24-hour basis; 4 infant monitoring equipment; 5 transportation of mothers and/or infants; 6 genetic services; 7 surgical and cardiology consultation; and 8 other support services as may be required.

The standards under this Section shall be established by rules and regulations of the Department. Such standards shall be deemed sufficient for the purposes of this Act if they require the perinatal care facilities to submit plans or enter into agreements with the Department which adequately address the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (j) above.

(Source: P.A. 84-1308.)

(410 ILCS 250/11) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2111)

Sec. 11.

The Department shall develop by July 1, 1974, and revise as necessary each year thereafter, criteria for the identification of mothers at risk of delivering a child whose life or development may be threatened by a disabling handicapping condition. Such criteria shall include but need not be limited to: (1) history of premature births; (2) complications in pregnancy including toxemia; (3) onset of rubella during pregnancy; (4) extreme age; and (5) incompatible blood group.

(Source: P.A. 78-557.)

Section 820. The Space Heating Safety Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(425 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 709)

Sec. 9. Prohibited Use of Kerosene Heaters. The use of kerosene fueled heaters will be prohibited under any circumstances in the following types of structures:

(i) Nursing homes or convalescent centers;

(ii) Day-care centers having children present;

(iii) Any type of center for persons with disabilities the handicapped;

(iv) Common areas of multifamily dwellings;

(v) Hospitals;

(vi) Structures more than 3 stories in height; and

(vii) Structures open to the public which have a capacity for 50 or more persons.

(Source: P.A. 84-834.)

Section 825. The Illinois Poison Prevention Packaging Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(430 ILCS 40/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 294)

Sec. 4.

(a) For the purpose of making any household substance which is subject to a standard established under Section 3 readily available to elderly persons or persons with disabilities or handicapped persons unable to use such substance when packaged in compliance with such standard, the manufacturer or packer, as the case may be, may package any household substance, subject to such a standard, in packaging of a single size which does not comply with such standard if:

(1) the manufacturer or packer also supplies such substance in packages which comply with such standard; and

(2) the packages of such substance which do not meet such standard bear conspicuous labeling stating: "This package for households without young children"; except that the Director may by regulation prescribe a substitute statement to the same effect for packaging too small to accommodate such labeling.

(b) In the case of a household substance which is subject to such a standard and which is dispensed pursuant to an order of a physician, dentist, or other licensed medical practitioner authorized to prescribe, such substance may be dispensed in noncomplying packages only when directed in such order or when requested by the purchaser.

(c) In the case of a household substance subject to such a standard which is packaged under subsection (a) in a noncomplying package, if the Director determines that such substance is not also being supplied by a manufacturer or packer in popular size packages which comply with such standard, he may, after giving the manufacturer or packer an opportunity to comply with the purposes of this Act, by order require such substance to be packaged by such manufacturer or packer exclusively in special packaging complying with such standard if he finds, after opportunity for hearing, that such exclusive use of special packaging is necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 77-2158.)

Section 830. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 4, 8, and 8.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" mentally disabled person" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability disabled person as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by intellectually disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial handicap.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or private mental health facility, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a public or private mental health facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability.

"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with a significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)

Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card must:

(1) Make application on blank forms prepared and furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if and when made available by the Department of State Police; and

(2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police that:

(i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental health facility within the past 5 years or, if he or she has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;

(v) He or she is not a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled;

(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of Illinois;

(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person;

(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; and

(xvii) He or she is not a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled; and

(3) Upon request by the Department of State Police, sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police of limited mental health institution admission information from another state, the District of Columbia, any other territory of the United States, or a foreign nation concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a mental health institution and disqualified because of that status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be requested. The information received shall be destroyed within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as provided in subsection (a-10).

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. The Department of State Police may adopt rules to enforce the provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card moves from the residence address named in the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that change of address.

(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement must furnish with the application an approved copy of United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form 4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by the Department with his or her application.

(b) Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4, paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons or the community;

(g) A person who has an intellectual disability is intellectually disabled;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person;

(s) A person who has been found to have a developmental disability be developmentally disabled;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; or

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act.

Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(430 ILCS 65/8.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8.1)

Sec. 8.1. Notifications to the Department of State Police.

(a) The Circuit Clerk shall, in the form and manner required by the Supreme Court, notify the Department of State Police of all final dispositions of cases for which the Department has received information reported to it under Sections 2.1 and 2.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b) Upon adjudication of any individual as a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person as defined in Section 1.1 of this Act or a finding that a person has been involuntarily admitted, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, report all information collected under subsection (b) of Section 12 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act for the purpose of determining whether a person who may be or may have been a patient in a mental health facility is disqualified under State or federal law from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or purchasing a weapon.

(d) If a person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others:

(1) by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, or is determined to have a developmental disability be developmentally disabled by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the State or privately, then the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Department of Human Services that the person poses a clear and present danger or has a developmental disability is developmentally disabled; or

(2) by a law enforcement official or school administrator, then the law enforcement official or school administrator shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Department of State Police that the person poses a clear and present danger.

The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall determine whether to revoke the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act. Any information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of this Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond what is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school administrator making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

Section 835. The Emergency Evacuation Plan for People with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(430 ILCS 130/10)

Sec. 10. Emergency evacuation plan for persons with disabilities required. By January 1, 2004, every high rise building owner must establish and maintain an emergency evacuation plan for occupants of the building who have a disability and disabled occupants of the building who have notified the owner of their need for assistance. The evacuation plan must be established even if the owner has not been notified of a need for evacuation assistance by an occupant of the building who has a disability a disabled occupant of the building. As used in this Act, "high rise building" means any building 80 feet or more in height. The owner is responsible for maintaining and updating the plan as necessary to ensure that the plan continues to comply with the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-705, eff. 7-19-02; 93-345, eff. 7-24-03.)

(430 ILCS 130/15)

Sec. 15. Plan requirements.

(a) Each plan must establish procedures for evacuating persons with disabilities from the building in the event of an emergency, when those persons have notified the owner of their need for assistance.

(b) Each plan must provide for a list to be maintained of persons who have notified the owner that they have a disability they are disabled and would require special assistance in the event of an emergency. The list must include the unit, office, or room number location that the person with a disability disabled person occupies in the building. It is the intent of this Act that these lists must be maintained for the sole purpose of emergency evacuation. The lists may not be used or disseminated for any other purpose.

(c) The plan must provide for a means to notify occupants of the building that a list identifying persons with a disability in need of emergency evacuation assistance is maintained by the owner, and the method by which occupants can place their name on the list.

(d) In hotels and motels, each plan must provide an opportunity for a guest to identify himself or herself as a person with a disability in need of emergency evacuation assistance.

(e) The plan must identify the location and type of any evacuation assistance devices or assistive technologies that are available in the building.

If the plan provides for areas of rescue assistance, the plan must provide that these areas are to be identified by signs that state "Area of Rescue Assistance" and display the international symbol of accessibility. Lettering must be permanent and must comply with Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines.

(f) Each plan must include recommended procedures to be followed by building employees, tenants, or guests to assist persons with disabilities in need of emergency evacuation assistance.

(g) A copy of the plan must be maintained at all times in a place that is easily accessible by law enforcement or fire safety personnel, such as in the management office of the high rise building, at the security desk, or in the vicinity of the fireman's elevator recall key, the life safety panel, or the fire pump room.

(Source: P.A. 92-705, eff. 7-19-02; 93-345, eff. 7-24-03.)

Section 840. The Illinois Premise Alert Program (PAP) Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(430 ILCS 132/15)

Sec. 15. Reporting of Special Needs Individuals.

(a) Public safety agencies and suppliers of oxygen containers used for medical purposes shall make reasonable efforts to publicize the Premise Alert Program (PAP) database. Means of publicizing the database include, but are not limited to, pamphlets and websites.

(b) Families, caregivers, or the individuals with disabilities or special needs may contact their local law enforcement agency or fire department or fire protection district.

(c) Public safety workers are to be cognizant of special needs individuals they may come across when they respond to calls. If workers are able to identify individuals who have special needs, they shall try to ascertain as specifically as possible what that special need might be. The public safety worker should attempt to verify the special need as provided in item (2) of subsection (d).

(d) The disabled individual's name, date of birth, phone number, residential address or place of employment of the individual with a disability, and a description of whether oxygen canisters are kept at that location for medical purposes should also be obtained for possible entry into the PAP database.

(1) Whenever possible, it is preferable that written permission is obtained from a parent, guardian, family member, or caregiver of the individual themselves prior to being entered into the PAP database.

(2) No individual may be entered into a PAP database unless the special need has been verified. Acceptable means of verifying a special need for purposes of this program shall include statements by:

(A) the individual,

(B) family members,

(C) friends,

(D) caregivers, or

(E) medical personnel familiar with the individual.

(e) For public safety agencies that share the same CAD database, information collected by one agency serviced by the CAD database is to be disseminated to all agencies utilizing that database.

(f) Information received at an incorrect public safety agency shall be accepted and forwarded to the correct agency as soon as possible.

(g) All information entered into the PAP database must be updated every 2 years or when such information changes.

(Source: P.A. 96-788, eff. 8-28-09; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-476, eff. 8-22-11.)

Section 845. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 15.1 as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/15) (from Ch. 8, par. 365)

Sec. 15. (a) In order to have a dog deemed "vicious", the Administrator, Deputy Administrator, or law enforcement officer must give notice of the infraction that is the basis of the investigation to the owner, conduct a thorough investigation, interview any witnesses, including the owner, gather any existing medical records, veterinary medical records or behavioral evidence, and make a detailed report recommending a finding that the dog is a vicious dog and give the report to the States Attorney's Office and the owner. The Administrator, State's Attorney, Director or any citizen of the county in which the dog exists may file a complaint in the circuit court in the name of the People of the State of Illinois to deem a dog to be a vicious dog. Testimony of a certified applied behaviorist, a board certified veterinary behaviorist, or another recognized expert may be relevant to the court's determination of whether the dog's behavior was justified. The petitioner must prove the dog is a vicious dog by clear and convincing evidence. The Administrator shall determine where the animal shall be confined during the pendency of the case.

A dog may not be declared vicious if the court determines the conduct of the dog was justified because:

(1) the threat, injury, or death was sustained by a person who at the time was committing a crime or offense upon the owner or custodian of the dog, or was committing a willful trespass or other tort upon the premises or property owned or occupied by the owner of the animal;

(2) the injured, threatened, or killed person was abusing, assaulting, or physically threatening the dog or its offspring, or has in the past abused, assaulted, or physically threatened the dog or its offspring; or

(3) the dog was responding to pain or injury, or was protecting itself, its owner, custodian, or member of its household, kennel, or offspring.

No dog shall be deemed "vicious" if it is a professionally trained dog for law enforcement or guard duties. Vicious dogs shall not be classified in a manner that is specific as to breed.

If the burden of proof has been met, the court shall deem the dog to be a vicious dog.

If a dog is found to be a vicious dog, the owner shall pay a $100 public safety fine to be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund, the dog shall be spayed or neutered within 10 days of the finding at the expense of its owner and microchipped, if not already, and the dog is subject to enclosure. If an owner fails to comply with these requirements, the animal control agency shall impound the dog and the owner shall pay a $500 fine plus impoundment fees to the animal control agency impounding the dog. The judge has the discretion to order a vicious dog be euthanized. A dog found to be a vicious dog shall not be released to the owner until the Administrator, an Animal Control Warden, or the Director approves the enclosure. No owner or keeper of a vicious dog shall sell or give away the dog without approval from the Administrator or court. Whenever an owner of a vicious dog relocates, he or she shall notify both the Administrator of County Animal Control where he or she has relocated and the Administrator of County Animal Control where he or she formerly resided.

(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to keep or maintain any dog which has been found to be a vicious dog unless the dog is kept in an enclosure. The only times that a vicious dog may be allowed out of the enclosure are (1) if it is necessary for the owner or keeper to obtain veterinary care for the dog, (2) in the case of an emergency or natural disaster where the dog's life is threatened, or (3) to comply with the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, provided that the dog is securely muzzled and restrained with a leash not exceeding 6 feet in length, and shall be under the direct control and supervision of the owner or keeper of the dog or muzzled in its residence.

Any dog which has been found to be a vicious dog and which is not confined to an enclosure shall be impounded by the Administrator, an Animal Control Warden, or the law enforcement authority having jurisdiction in such area.

If the owner of the dog has not appealed the impoundment order to the circuit court in the county in which the animal was impounded within 15 working days, the dog may be euthanized.

Upon filing a notice of appeal, the order of euthanasia shall be automatically stayed pending the outcome of the appeal. The owner shall bear the burden of timely notification to animal control in writing.

Guide dogs for the blind or hearing impaired, support dogs for persons with physical disabilities the physically handicapped, accelerant detection dogs, and sentry, guard, or police-owned dogs are exempt from this Section; provided, an attack or injury to a person occurs while the dog is performing duties as expected. To qualify for exemption under this Section, each such dog shall be currently inoculated against rabies in accordance with Section 8 of this Act. It shall be the duty of the owner of such exempted dog to notify the Administrator of changes of address. In the case of a sentry or guard dog, the owner shall keep the Administrator advised of the location where such dog will be stationed. The Administrator shall provide police and fire departments with a categorized list of such exempted dogs, and shall promptly notify such departments of any address changes reported to him.

(c) If the animal control agency has custody of the dog, the agency may file a petition with the court requesting that the owner be ordered to post security. The security must be in an amount sufficient to secure payment of all reasonable expenses expected to be incurred by the animal control agency or animal shelter in caring for and providing for the dog pending the determination. Reasonable expenses include, but are not limited to, estimated medical care and boarding of the animal for 30 days. If security has been posted in accordance with this Section, the animal control agency may draw from the security the actual costs incurred by the agency in caring for the dog.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition, the court must set a hearing on the petition, to be conducted within 5 business days after the petition is filed. The petitioner must serve a true copy of the petition upon the defendant.

(e) If the court orders the posting of security, the security must be posted with the clerk of the court within 5 business days after the hearing. If the person ordered to post security does not do so, the dog is forfeited by operation of law and the animal control agency must dispose of the animal through adoption or humane euthanization.

(Source: P.A. 96-1171, eff. 7-22-10.)

(510 ILCS 5/15.1)

Sec. 15.1. Dangerous dog determination.

(a) After a thorough investigation including: sending, within 10 business days of the Administrator or Director becoming aware of the alleged infraction, notifications to the owner of the alleged infractions, the fact of the initiation of an investigation, and affording the owner an opportunity to meet with the Administrator or Director prior to the making of a determination; gathering of any medical or veterinary evidence; interviewing witnesses; and making a detailed written report, an animal control warden, deputy administrator, or law enforcement agent may ask the Administrator, or his or her designee, or the Director, to deem a dog to be "dangerous". No dog shall be deemed a "dangerous dog" unless shown to be a dangerous dog by a preponderance of evidence. The owner shall be sent immediate notification of the determination by registered or certified mail that includes a complete description of the appeal process.

(b) A dog shall not be declared dangerous if the Administrator, or his or her designee, or the Director determines the conduct of the dog was justified because:

(1) the threat was sustained by a person who at the time was committing a crime or offense upon the owner or custodian of the dog or was committing a willful trespass or other tort upon the premises or property occupied by the owner of the animal;

(2) the threatened person was abusing, assaulting, or physically threatening the dog or its offspring;

(3) the injured, threatened, or killed companion animal was attacking or threatening to attack the dog or its offspring; or

(4) the dog was responding to pain or injury or was protecting itself, its owner, custodian, or a member of its household, kennel, or offspring.

(c) Testimony of a certified applied behaviorist, a board certified veterinary behaviorist, or another recognized expert may be relevant to the determination of whether the dog's behavior was justified pursuant to the provisions of this Section.

(d) If deemed dangerous, the Administrator, or his or her designee, or the Director shall order (i) the dog's owner to pay a $50 public safety fine to be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund, (ii) the dog to be spayed or neutered within 14 days at the owner's expense and microchipped, if not already, and (iii) one or more of the following as deemed appropriate under the circumstances and necessary for the protection of the public:

(1) evaluation of the dog by a certified applied behaviorist, a board certified veterinary behaviorist, or another recognized expert in the field and completion of training or other treatment as deemed appropriate by the expert. The owner of the dog shall be responsible for all costs associated with evaluations and training ordered under this subsection; or

(2) direct supervision by an adult 18 years of age or older whenever the animal is on public premises.

(e) The Administrator may order a dangerous dog to be muzzled whenever it is on public premises in a manner that will prevent it from biting any person or animal, but that shall not injure the dog or interfere with its vision or respiration.

(f) Guide dogs for the blind or hearing impaired, support dogs for persons with a physical disability the physically handicapped, and sentry, guard, or police-owned dogs are exempt from this Section; provided, an attack or injury to a person occurs while the dog is performing duties as expected. To qualify for exemption under this Section, each such dog shall be currently inoculated against rabies in accordance with Section 8 of this Act and performing duties as expected. It shall be the duty of the owner of the exempted dog to notify the Administrator of changes of address. In the case of a sentry or guard dog, the owner shall keep the Administrator advised of the location where such dog will be stationed. The Administrator shall provide police and fire departments with a categorized list of the exempted dogs, and shall promptly notify the departments of any address changes reported to him or her.

(g) An animal control agency has the right to impound a dangerous dog if the owner fails to comply with the requirements of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-548, eff. 8-19-03; 94-639, eff. 8-22-05.)

Section 850. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Sections 2.01c and 7.15 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/2.01c)

Sec. 2.01c. Service animal. "Service animal" means an animal trained in obedience and task skills to meet the needs of a person with a disability disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 92-454, eff. 1-1-02.)

(510 ILCS 70/7.15)

Sec. 7.15. Guide, hearing, and support dogs.

(a) A person may not willfully and maliciously annoy, taunt, tease, harass, torment, beat, or strike a guide, hearing, or support dog or otherwise engage in any conduct directed toward a guide, hearing, or support dog that is likely to impede or interfere with the dog's performance of its duties or that places the blind, hearing impaired, or person with a physical disability physically handicapped person being served or assisted by the dog in danger of injury.

(b) A person may not willfully and maliciously torture, injure, or kill a guide, hearing, or support dog.

(c) A person may not willfully and maliciously permit a dog that is owned, harbored, or controlled by the person to cause injury to or the death of a guide, hearing, or support dog while the guide, hearing, or support dog is in discharge of its duties.

(d) A person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of violating subsection (b) or (c) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the dog is killed or totally disabled, and may be ordered by the court to make restitution to the person with a disability disabled person having custody or ownership of the dog for veterinary bills and replacement costs of the dog.

(Source: P.A. 92-650, eff. 7-11-02.)

Section 855. The Fish and Aquatic Life Code is amended by changing Sections 15-5 and 20-5 as follows:

(515 ILCS 5/15-5) (from Ch. 56, par. 15-5)

Sec. 15-5. Commercial fisherman; license requirement.

(a) A "commercial fisherman" is defined as any individual who uses any of the commercial fishing devices as defined by this Code for the taking of any aquatic life, except mussels, protected by the terms of this Code.

(b) All commercial fishermen shall have a commercial fishing license. In addition to a commercial fishing license, a commercial fisherman shall also obtain a sport fishing license. All individuals assisting a licensed commercial fisherman in taking aquatic life, except mussels, from any waters of the State must have a commercial fishing license unless these individuals are under the direct supervision of and aboard the same watercraft as the licensed commercial fisherman. An individual assisting a licensed commercial fisherman must first obtain a sport fishing license.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, blind residents or residents with a disability or disabled residents may fish with commercial fishing devices without holding a sports fishing license. For the purpose of this Section, an individual is blind or has a disability disabled if that individual has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, an Illinois person with a Disability Identification Card issued under the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the individual named on the card has a Class 2 disability shall be adequate documentation of a disability.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a veteran who, according to the determination of the federal Veterans' Administration as certified by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, is at least 10% disabled with service-related disabilities or in receipt of total disability pensions may fish with commercial fishing devices without holding a sports fishing license during those periods of the year that it is lawful to fish with commercial fishing devices, if the respective disabilities do not prevent the veteran from fishing in a manner that is safe to him or herself and others.

(e) A "Lake Michigan commercial fisherman" is defined as an individual who resides in this State or an Illinois corporation who uses any of the commercial fishing devices as defined by this Code for the taking of aquatic life, except mussels, protected by the terms of this Code.

(f) For purposes of this Section, an act or omission that constitutes a violation committed by an officer, employee, or agent of a corporation shall be deemed the act or omission of the corporation.

(Source: P.A. 98-336, eff. 1-1-14; 98-898, eff. 1-1-15.)

(515 ILCS 5/20-5) (from Ch. 56, par. 20-5)

Sec. 20-5. Necessity of license; exemptions.

(a) Any person taking or attempting to take any fish, including minnows for commercial purposes, turtles, mussels, crayfish, or frogs by any means whatever in any waters or lands wholly or in part within the jurisdiction of the State, including that part of Lake Michigan under the jurisdiction of this State, shall first obtain a license to do so, and shall do so only during the respective periods of the year when it shall be lawful as provided in this Code. Individuals under 16, blind residents or residents with a disability or disabled residents, or individuals fishing at fee fishing areas licensed by the Department, however, may fish with sport fishing devices without being required to have a license. For the purpose of this Section an individual is blind or has a disability disabled if that individual has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued under the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the individual named on the card has a Class 2 disability shall be adequate documentation of a disability.

(b) A courtesy non-resident sport fishing license or stamp may be issued at the discretion of the Director, without fee, to (i) any individual officially employed in the wildlife and fish or conservation department of another state or of the United States who is within the State to assist or consult or cooperate with the Director or (ii) the officials of other states, the United States, foreign countries, or officers or representatives of conservation organizations or publications while in the State as guests of the Governor or Director.

(c) The Director may issue special fishing permits without cost to groups of hospital patients or to individuals with disabilities handicapped individuals for use on specified dates in connection with supervised fishing for therapy.

(d) Veterans who, according to the determination of the Veterans' Administration as certified by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, are at least 10% disabled with service-related disabilities or in receipt of total disability pensions may fish with sport fishing devices during those periods of the year it is lawful to do so without being required to have a license, on the condition that their respective disabilities do not prevent them from fishing in a manner which is safe to themselves and others.

(e) Each year the Director may designate a period, not to exceed 4 days in duration, when sport fishermen may fish waters wholly or in part within the jurisdiction of the State, including that part of Lake Michigan under the jurisdiction of the State, and not be required to obtain the license or stamp required by subsection (a) of this Section, Section 20-10 or subsection (a) of Section 20-55. The term of any such period shall be established by administrative rule. This subsection shall not apply to commercial fishing.

(f) The Director may issue special fishing permits without cost for a group event, restricted to specific dates and locations if it is determined by the Department that the event is beneficial in promoting sport fishing in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 860. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.5, 2.33, and 3.1 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Crossbow conditions. A person may use a crossbow if one or more of the following conditions are met:

(1) the user is a person age 62 and older;

(2) the user is a person with a disability handicapped person to whom the Director has issued a permit to use a crossbow, as provided by administrative rule; or

(3) the date of using the crossbow is during the period of the second Monday following the Thanksgiving holiday through the last day of the archery deer hunting season (both inclusive) set annually by the Director.

As used in this Section, "person with a disability handicapped person" means a person who has a physical impairment due to injury or disease, congenital or acquired, which renders the person them so severely disabled as to be unable to use a longbow, recurve bow, or compound bow. Permits must be issued only after the receipt of a physician's statement confirming the applicant is a person with a disability handicapped as defined above.

(Source: P.A. 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; revised 12-10-14.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.33) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33)

Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.

(a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.

(b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any species, except that snares not powered by springs or other mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is located underwater at all times.

(c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as provided in Section 2.37.

(d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any mammals from their dens or hiding places.

(e) (Blank).

(f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks or any like device to take any species protected by this Act.

(g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals or explosives for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.

(h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat, grass, brush or other inflammable substance when it is burning.

(i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or aid of any vehicle or conveyance, except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. It is also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance or any light from or any light connected to the vehicle or conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the purpose of driving upon a roadway. Striped skunk, opossum, red fox, gray fox, raccoon and coyote may be taken during the open season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.

(j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected by this Act.

(k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer), wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection (l) or administrative rule.

(l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by administrative rule.

(m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with a one piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.

(n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance or aircraft, unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act, unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only, may be carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or otherwise made inoperable.

(o) It is unlawful to use any crossbow for the purpose of taking any wild birds or mammals, except as provided for in Section 2.5.

(p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun.

(q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun on, over or into any waters of this State, including frozen waters.

(r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or highway in this State.

(s) It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting from the firing of any gun.

(t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of another without first obtaining permission from the owner or the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a written authorization and the authorization must contain (i) the legal or common description of property for such authority is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing this Section the law enforcement officer must have received notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the required notice.

(u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant, except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with shotgun using shot shells only, or providing outfitting services under a waterfowl outfitter permit, or on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department owned, managed, leased, or controlled lands, a 100 yard restriction shall apply.

(v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps owned by another person without written authorization of the owner to do so.

(w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to knowingly or wantonly allow his or her dog to pursue, harass or kill deer, except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of Section 2.26 of this Code.

(x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or personal property on the land of another while engaged in hunting or trapping thereon.

(y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise, except that hunting hours between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise may be established by administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.

(z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight. Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.

(aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may be used for tree climbing or cutting, while hunting fur-bearing mammals, excluding coyotes.

(bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so from the Director.

(cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act during the season closed for taking.

(dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative rule.

(ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field during gun deer season except as provided in Section 2.26 and administrative rules.

(ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color, with such articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches of blaze orange material.

(gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color. For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern Cottontail and Swamp Rabbit.

(hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or highway or on public or private property, including a waterway or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined to be unfit for human consumption.

(ii) This Section shall apply only to those species protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36 and 3.21.

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other persons with disabilities disabled persons who meet the requirements set forth in administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with this Act.

(ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power. However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be used to take species protected by this Act.

(mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20 gauge, with a rifled barrel.

(nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife or wildlife parts is indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until 2 years after the possession has permanently ended.

(Source: P.A. 97-645, eff. 12-30-11; 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; 98-119, eff. 1-1-14; 98-181, eff. 8-5-13; 98-183, eff. 1-1-14; 98-290, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-914, eff. 1-1-15.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.1) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.1)

Sec. 3.1. License and stamps required.

(a) Before any person shall take or attempt to take any of the species protected by Section 2.2 for which an open season is established under this Act, he shall first have procured and possess a valid hunting license, except as provided in Section 3.1-5 of this Code.

Before any person 16 years of age or older shall take or attempt to take any bird of the species defined as migratory waterfowl by Section 2.2, including coots, he shall first have procured a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp.

Before any person 16 years of age or older takes, attempts to take, or pursues any species of wildlife protected by this Code, except migratory waterfowl, coots, and hand-reared birds on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas and state controlled pheasant hunting areas, he or she shall first obtain a State Habitat Stamp. Veterans with disabilities Disabled veterans and former prisoners of war shall not be required to obtain State Habitat Stamps. Any person who obtained a lifetime license before January 1, 1993, shall not be required to obtain State Habitat Stamps. Income from the sale of State Furbearer Stamps and State Pheasant Stamps received after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1992 shall be deposited into the State Furbearer Fund and State Pheasant Fund, respectively.

Before any person 16 years of age or older shall take, attempt to take, or sell the green hide of any mammal of the species defined as fur-bearing mammals by Section 2.2 for which an open season is established under this Act, he shall first have procured a State Habitat Stamp.

(b) Before any person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois shall take or attempt to take any of the species protected by Section 2.2 for which an open season is established under this Act, he shall, unless specifically exempted by law, first procure a non-resident license as provided by this Act for the taking of any wild game.

Before a nonresident shall take or attempt to take white-tailed deer, he shall first have procured a Deer Hunting Permit as defined in Section 2.26 of this Code.

Before a nonresident shall take or attempt to take wild turkeys, he shall have procured a Wild Turkey Hunting Permit as defined in Section 2.11 of this Code.

(c) The owners residing on, or bona fide tenants of, farm lands and their children, parents, brothers, and sisters actually permanently residing on their lands shall have the right to hunt any of the species protected by Section 2.2 upon their lands and waters without procuring hunting licenses; but the hunting shall be done only during periods of time and with devices and by methods as are permitted by this Act. Any person on active duty with the Armed Forces of the United States who is now and who was at the time of entering the Armed Forces a resident of Illinois and who entered the Armed Forces from this State, and who is presently on ordinary or emergency leave from the Armed Forces, and any resident of Illinois who has a disability is disabled may hunt any of the species protected by Section 2.2 without procuring a hunting license, but the hunting shall be done only during such periods of time and with devices and by methods as are permitted by this Act. For the purpose of this Section a person is a person with a disability disabled when that person has a Type 1 or Type 4, Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person named has a Type 1 or Type 4, Class 2 disability shall be adequate documentation of the disability.

(d) A courtesy non-resident license, permit, or stamp for taking game may be issued at the discretion of the Director, without fee, to any person officially employed in the game and fish or conservation department of another state or of the United States who is within the State to assist or consult or cooperate with the Director; or to the officials of other states, the United States, foreign countries, or officers or representatives of conservation organizations or publications while in the State as guests of the Governor or Director. The Director may provide to nonresident participants and official gunners at field trials an exemption from licensure while participating in a field trial.

(e) State Migratory Waterfowl Stamps shall be required for those persons qualifying under subsections (c) and (d) who intend to hunt migratory waterfowl, including coots, to the extent that hunting licenses of the various types are authorized and required by this Section for those persons.

(f) Registration in the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Migratory Bird Harvest Information Program shall be required for those persons who are required to have a hunting license before taking or attempting to take any bird of the species defined as migratory game birds by Section 2.2, except that this subsection shall not apply to crows in this State or hand-reared birds on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, for which an open season is established by this Act. Persons registering with the Program must carry proof of registration with them while migratory bird hunting.

The Department shall publish suitable prescribed regulations pertaining to registration by the migratory bird hunter in the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Migratory Bird Harvest Information Program.

(Source: P.A. 96-1226, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 865. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-609, 3-611, 3-616, 3-623, 3-626, 3-667, 3-683, 3-806.3, 6-205, 6-206, 11-208, 11-209, 11-501.7, 11-1301.1, 11-1301.2, 11-1301.3, 11-1301.4, 11-1301.5, 11-1301.6, 11-1301.7, and 12-401 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-609) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-609)

Sec. 3-609. Plates for Veterans with Disabilities Disabled Veterans' Plates.

(a) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and who has obtained certification from a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse that the service-connected disability qualifies the veteran for issuance of registration plates or decals to a person with disabilities in accordance with Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary of State for license plates for veterans with disabilities disabled veterans license plates displaying the international symbol of access, for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(b) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and whose degree of disability has been declared to be 50% or more, but whose disability does not qualify the veteran for a plate or decal for persons with disabilities under Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary for a special registration plate without the international symbol of access for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(c) Renewal of such registration must be accompanied with documentation for eligibility of registration without fee unless the applicant has a permanent qualifying disability, and such registration plates may not be issued to any person not eligible therefor. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs may assist in providing the documentation of disability.

(d) The design and color of the plates shall be within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates issued under subsection (b) of this Section shall not contain the international symbol of access. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. Registration shall be for a multi-year period and may be issued staggered registration.

(e) Any person eligible to receive license plates under this Section who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, or who has claimed and received a grant under that Act, shall pay a fee of $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, for motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), or for recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b), for a second set of plates under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-918, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-611) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-611)

Sec. 3-611. Special designations. The Secretary of State, in his discretion, may make special designations of certain designs or combinations of designs, or alphabetical letters or combination of letters, or colors or combination of colors pertaining to registration plates issued to vehicles owned by governmental agencies, vehicles owned and registered by State and federal elected officials, retired Illinois Supreme Court justices, and appointed federal cabinet officials, vehicles operated by taxi or livery businesses, operated in connection with mileage weight registrations, or operated by a dealer, transporter, or manufacturer as the Secretary of State may deem necessary for the proper administration of this Act. In the case of registration plates issued for vehicles operated by or for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, under Section 3-616 of this Act, the Secretary of State, upon request, shall make such special designations so that automobiles bearing such plates are easily recognizable thru use of the international accessibility symbol as automobiles driven by or for such persons. In the case of registration plates issued for vehicles operated by a person with a disability disabled person with a type four hearing disability, as defined pursuant to Section 4A of The Illinois Identification Card Act, the Secretary of State, upon request, shall make such special designations so that a motor vehicle bearing such plate is easily recognizable by a special symbol indicating that such vehicle is driven by a person with a hearing disability. Registration plates issued to a person who is deaf or hard of hearing under this Section shall not entitle a motor vehicle bearing such plates to those parking privileges established for persons with disabilities under this Code. In the case of registration plates issued for State owned vehicles, they shall be manufactured in compliance with Section 2 of "An Act relating to identification and use of motor vehicles of the State, approved August 9, 1951, as amended". In the case of plates issued for State officials, such plates may be issued for a 2 year period beginning January 1st of each odd-numbered year and ending December 31st of the subsequent even-numbered year.

(Source: P.A. 87-829; 87-832; 87-1249; 88-685, eff. 1-24-95.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)

Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.

(a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State, if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further provided that any person making such a request must submit a statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this certification by his or her supervising physician, or by an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this certification, to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such a disability.

(b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances qualifying for issuance of special plates under this subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.

(c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided such person with disabilities making such a request has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement certified by a licensed physician, or by a physician assistant or an advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this subsection.

(d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates, decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person is certified as meeting the definition of a person with disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months from the date of certification or recertification.

(e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as provided under Section 3-405.1.

(f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue disability registration plates or a parking decal to corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall be placed on qualifying vehicles.

(g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to permanently disabled residents of this State with disabilities who display a special license plate or parking device that contains the International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this State with disabilities to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in another state, district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state, district, territory or foreign country.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-623) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-623)

Sec. 3-623. Purple Heart Plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue to recipients awarded the Purple Heart by a branch of the armed forces of the United States who reside in Illinois, special registration plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of the proper application, may also issue these special registration plates to an Illinois resident who is the surviving spouse of a person who was awarded the Purple Heart by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The special plates issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the 1st division, including motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles.

(b) The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application, except:

(1) a person eligible to be issued Purple Heart plates may display the plates on one vehicle without the payment of any registration or registration renewal fee; and

(2) for an individual who has been issued Purple Heart plates for an additional vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, the annual fee for the registration of the vehicle shall be as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-902, eff. 1-1-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-626)

Sec. 3-626. Korean War Veteran license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Korean War Veteran license plates to residents of Illinois who participated in the United States Armed Forces during the Korean War. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Korean War Memorial Construction Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Korean War Memorial Construction Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Veteran Affairs to provide grants for construction of the Korean War Memorial to be located at Oak Ridge Cemetery in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial, the Department of Veteran Affairs shall certify to the State Treasurer that the construction of the Memorial has been completed. Upon the certification by the Department of Veteran Affairs, the State Treasurer shall transfer all moneys in the Fund and any future deposits into the Fund into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(e) An individual who has been issued Korean War Veteran license plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act shall pay the original issuance and the regular annual fee for the registration of the vehicle as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code in addition to the fees specified in subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1409, eff. 1-1-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-667)

Sec. 3-667. Korean Service license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Korean Service license plates to residents of Illinois who, on or after July 27, 1954, participated in the United States Armed Forces in Korea. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $2 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Korean War Memorial Construction Fund a special fund in the State treasury.

(d) An individual who has been issued Korean Service license plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act shall pay the original issuance and the regular annual fee for the registration of the vehicle as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code in addition to the fees specified in subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-306, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-683)

Sec. 3-683. Distinguished Service Cross license plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, shall issue special registration plates to any Illinois resident who has been awarded the Distinguished Service Cross by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The Secretary, upon receipt of the proper application, shall also issue these special registration plates to an Illinois resident who is the surviving spouse of a person who was awarded the Distinguished Service Cross by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The special plates issued under this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application. However, for an individual who has been issued Distinguished Service Cross plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, the annual fee for the registration of the vehicle shall be as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806.3)

Sec. 3-806.3. Senior Citizens. Commencing with the 2009 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-609, 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, or 3-663, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

Commencing with the 2009 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-607, 3-609, 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-663, or 3-664, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

No more than one reduced registration fee under this Section shall be allowed during any 12 month period based on the primary eligibility of any individual, whether such reduced registration fee is allowed to the individual or to the spouse, widow or widower of such individual. This Section does not apply to the fee paid in addition to the registration fee for motor vehicles displaying vanity or special license plates.

(Source: P.A. 96-554, eff. 1-1-10; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; Hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing;

15. A second or subsequent conviction of driving while the person's driver's license, permit or privileges was revoked for reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense;

16. Any offense against any provision in this Code, or any local ordinance, regulating the movement of traffic when that offense was the proximate cause of the death of any person. Any person whose driving privileges have been revoked pursuant to this paragraph may seek to have the revocation terminated or to have the length of revocation reduced by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State prior to the projected driver's license application eligibility date;

17. Violation of subsection (a-2) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

18. A second or subsequent conviction of illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. A defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court. Upon the direction of the court, the Secretary shall issue the person a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1, except that the court may direct that a JDP issued under this subdivision (b)(3) be effective immediately.

(c)(1) Whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide where the use of alcohol or other drugs was recited as an element of the offense, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of these offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-6) If a person is convicted of a second violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person's driving privileges shall be revoked pursuant to subdivision (a)(15) of this Section. The person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of five years from the effective date of the revocation or the expiration of five years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment, whichever is later.

(c-7) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person may never apply for a license or permit.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 12 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1305, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois or in another state of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code; or

47. Has committed a violation of Section 11-502.1 of this Code.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of those offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-103, eff. 1-1-14; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-726, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208)

Sec. 11-208. Powers of local authorities.

(a) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction and within the reasonable exercise of the police power from:

1. Regulating the standing or parking of vehicles, except as limited by Sections 11-1306 and 11-1307 of this Act;

2. Regulating traffic by means of police officers or traffic control signals;

3. Regulating or prohibiting processions or assemblages on the highways; and certifying persons to control traffic for processions or assemblages;

4. Designating particular highways as one-way highways and requiring that all vehicles thereon be moved in one specific direction;

5. Regulating the speed of vehicles in public parks subject to the limitations set forth in Section 11-604;

6. Designating any highway as a through highway, as authorized in Section 11-302, and requiring that all vehicles stop before entering or crossing the same or designating any intersection as a stop intersection or a yield right-of-way intersection and requiring all vehicles to stop or yield the right-of-way at one or more entrances to such intersections;

7. Restricting the use of highways as authorized in Chapter 15;

8. Regulating the operation of bicycles and requiring the registration and licensing of same, including the requirement of a registration fee;

9. Regulating or prohibiting the turning of vehicles or specified types of vehicles at intersections;

10. Altering the speed limits as authorized in Section 11-604;

11. Prohibiting U-turns;

12. Prohibiting pedestrian crossings at other than designated and marked crosswalks or at intersections;

13. Prohibiting parking during snow removal operation;

14. Imposing fines in accordance with Section 11-1301.3 as penalties for use of any parking place reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, or veterans with disabilities disabled veterans by any person using a motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or a veteran with a disability disabled veteran;

15. Adopting such other traffic regulations as are specifically authorized by this Code; or

16. Enforcing the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 3-413 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(b) No ordinance or regulation enacted under subsections 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11 or 13 of paragraph (a) shall be effective until signs giving reasonable notice of such local traffic regulations are posted.

(c) The provisions of this Code shall not prevent any municipality having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants from prohibiting any person from driving or operating any motor vehicle upon the roadways of such municipality with headlamps on high beam or bright.

(d) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities within the reasonable exercise of their police power from prohibiting, on private property, the unauthorized use of parking spaces reserved for persons with disabilities.

(e) No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact or enforce an ordinance that applies only to motorcycles if the principal purpose for that ordinance is to restrict the access of motorcycles to any highway or portion of a highway for which federal or State funds have been used for the planning, design, construction, or maintenance of that highway. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact an ordinance requiring motorcycle users to wear protective headgear. Nothing in this subsection (e) shall affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate motorcycles for traffic control purposes or in accordance with Section 12-602 of this Code. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may regulate motorcycles in a manner inconsistent with this Code. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.6 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(g) A municipality or county, as provided in Section 11-1201.1, may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1201 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(h) A municipality designated in Section 11-208.8 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated speed enforcement system to enforce violations of Article VI of Chapter 11 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(i) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.9 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1414 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-29, eff. 1-1-12; 97-672, eff. 7-1-12; 98-396, eff. 1-1-14; 98-556, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-209) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-209)

Sec. 11-209. Powers of municipalities and counties - Contract with school boards, hospitals, churches, condominium complex unit owners' associations, and commercial and industrial facility, shopping center, and apartment complex owners for regulation of traffic.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality or the county board of any county, and a school board, hospital, church, condominium complex unit owners' association, or owner of any commercial and industrial facility, shopping center, or apartment complex which controls a parking area located within the limits of the municipality, or outside the limits of the municipality and within the boundaries of the county, may, by contract, empower the municipality or county to regulate the parking of automobiles and the traffic at such parking area. Such contract shall empower the municipality or county to accomplish all or any part of the following:

1. The erection of stop signs, flashing signals, person with disabilities parking area signs or yield signs at specified locations in a parking area and the adoption of appropriate regulations thereto pertaining, or the designation of any intersection in the parking area as a stop intersection or as a yield intersection and the ordering of like signs or signals at one or more entrances to such intersection, subject to the provisions of this Chapter.

2. The prohibition or regulation of the turning of vehicles or specified types of vehicles at intersections or other designated locations in the parking area.

3. The regulation of a crossing of any roadway in the parking area by pedestrians.

4. The designation of any separate roadway in the parking area for one-way traffic.

5. The establishment and regulation of loading zones.

6. The prohibition, regulation, restriction or limitation of the stopping, standing or parking of vehicles in specified areas of the parking area.

7. The designation of safety zones in the parking area and fire lanes.

8. Providing for the removal and storage of vehicles parked or abandoned in the parking area during snowstorms, floods, fires, or other public emergencies, or found unattended in the parking area, (a) where they constitute an obstruction to traffic, or (b) where stopping, standing or parking is prohibited, and for the payment of reasonable charges for such removal and storage by the owner or operator of any such vehicle.

9. Providing that the cost of planning, installation, maintenance and enforcement of parking and traffic regulations pursuant to any contract entered into under the authority of this paragraph (a) of this Section be borne by the municipality or county, or by the school board, hospital, church, property owner, apartment complex owner, or condominium complex unit owners' association, or that a percentage of the cost be shared by the parties to the contract.

10. Causing the installation of parking meters on the parking area and establishing whether the expense of installing said parking meters and maintenance thereof shall be that of the municipality or county, or that of the school board, hospital, church, condominium complex unit owners' association, shopping center or apartment complex owner. All moneys obtained from such parking meters as may be installed on any parking area shall belong to the municipality or county.

11. Causing the installation of parking signs in accordance with Section 11-301 in areas of the parking lots covered by this Section and where desired by the person contracting with the appropriate authority listed in paragraph (a) of this Section, indicating that such parking spaces are reserved for persons with disabilities.

12. Contracting for such additional reasonable rules and regulations with respect to traffic and parking in a parking area as local conditions may require for the safety and convenience of the public or of the users of the parking area.

(b) No contract entered into pursuant to this Section shall exceed a period of 20 years. No lessee of a shopping center or apartment complex shall enter into such a contract for a longer period of time than the length of his lease.

(c) Any contract entered into pursuant to this Section shall be recorded in the office of the recorder in the county in which the parking area is located, and no regulation made pursuant to the contract shall be effective or enforceable until 3 days after the contract is so recorded.

(d) At such time as parking and traffic regulations have been established at any parking area pursuant to the contract as provided for in this Section, then it shall be a petty offense for any person to do any act forbidden or to fail to perform any act required by such parking or traffic regulation. If the violation is the parking in a parking space reserved for persons with disabilities under paragraph (11) of this Section, by a person without special registration plates issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Section 3-616 of this Code, or to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran pursuant to Section 3-609 of this Code, the local police of the contracting corporate municipal authorities shall issue a parking ticket to such parking violator and issue a fine in accordance with Section 11-1301.3.

(e) The term "shopping center", as used in this Section, means premises having one or more stores or business establishments in connection with which there is provided on privately-owned property near or contiguous thereto an area, or areas, of land used by the public as the means of access to and egress from the stores and business establishments on such premises and for the parking of motor vehicles of customers and patrons of such stores and business establishments on such premises.

(f) The term "parking area", as used in this Section, means an area, or areas, of land near or contiguous to a school, church, or hospital building, shopping center, apartment complex, or condominium complex, but not the public highways or alleys, and used by the public as the means of access to and egress from such buildings and the stores and business establishments at a shopping center and for the parking of motor vehicles.

(g) The terms "owner", "property owner", "shopping center owner", and "apartment complex owner", as used in this Section, mean the actual legal owner of the shopping center parking area or apartment complex, the trust officer of a banking institution having the right to manage and control such property, or a person having the legal right, through lease or otherwise, to manage or control the property.

(g-5) The term "condominium complex unit owners' association", as used in this Section, means a "unit owners' association" as defined in Section 2 of the Condominium Property Act.

(h) The term "fire lane", as used in this Section, means travel lanes for the fire fighting equipment upon which there shall be no standing or parking of any motor vehicle at any time so that fire fighting equipment can move freely thereon.

(i) The term "apartment complex", as used in this Section, means premises having one or more apartments in connection with which there is provided on privately-owned property near or contiguous thereto an area, or areas, of land used by occupants of such apartments or their guests as a means of access to and egress from such apartments or for the parking of motor vehicles of such occupants or their guests.

(j) The term "condominium complex", as used in this Section, means the units, common elements, and limited common elements that are located on the parcels, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Condominium Property Act.

(k) The term "commercial and industrial facility", as used in this Section, means a premises containing one or more commercial and industrial facility establishments in connection with which there is provided on privately-owned property near or contiguous to the premises an area or areas of land used by the public as the means of access to and egress from the commercial and industrial facility establishment on the premises and for the parking of motor vehicles of customers, patrons, and employees of the commercial and industrial facility establishment on the premises.

(l) The provisions of this Section shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities from enforcing, on private property, local ordinances imposing fines, in accordance with Section 11-1301.3, as penalties for use of any parking place reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, or veterans with disabilities disabled veterans by any person using a motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or a veteran with a disability disabled veteran.

This amendatory Act of 1972 is not a prohibition upon the contractual and associational powers granted by Article VII, Section 10 of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 95-167, eff. 1-1-08; 96-79, eff. 1-1-10.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.7) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.7)

Sec. 11-501.7. (a) As a condition of probation or discharge of a person convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, who was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense, or a person adjudicated delinquent pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act, for violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, the Court may order the offender to participate in the Youthful Intoxicated Drivers' Visitation Program. The Program shall consist of a supervised visitation as provided by this Section by the person to at least one of the following, to the extent that personnel and facilities are available:

(1) A State or private rehabilitation facility that cares for victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol.

(2) A facility which cares for advanced alcoholics to observe persons in the terminal stages of alcoholism, under the supervision of appropriately licensed medical personnel.

(3) If approved by the coroner of the county where the person resides, the county coroner's office or the county morgue to observe appropriate victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol, under the supervision of the coroner or deputy coroner.

(b) The Program shall be operated by the appropriate probation authorities of the courts of the various circuits. The youthful offender ordered to participate in the Program shall bear all costs associated with participation in the Program. A parent or guardian of the offender may assume the obligation of the offender to pay the costs of the Program. The court may waive the requirement that the offender pay the costs of participation in the Program upon a finding of indigency.

(c) As used in this Section, "appropriate victims" means victims whose condition is determined by the visit supervisor to demonstrate the results of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol without being excessively gruesome or traumatic to the observer.

(d) Any visitation shall include, before any observation of victims or persons with disabilities disabled persons, a comprehensive counseling session with the visitation supervisor at which the supervisor shall explain and discuss the experiences which may be encountered during the visitation in order to ascertain whether the visitation is appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 86-1242.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.1)

Sec. 11-1301.1. Persons with disabilities - Parking privileges - Exemptions.

(a) A motor vehicle bearing registration plates issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Section 3-616 or to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 3-609 or a special decal or device issued pursuant to Section 3-616 or pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of this Code or a motor vehicle registered in another jurisdiction, state, district, territory or foreign country upon which is displayed a registration plate, special decal or device issued by the other jurisdiction designating the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities shall be exempt from the payment of parking meter fees until January 1, 2014, and exempt from any statute or ordinance imposing time limitations on parking, except limitations of one-half hour or less, on any street or highway zone, a parking area subject to regulation under subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or any parking lot or parking place which are owned, leased or owned and leased by a municipality or a municipal parking utility; and shall be recognized by state and local authorities as a valid license plate or parking device and shall receive the same parking privileges as residents of this State; but, such vehicle shall be subject to the laws which prohibit parking in "no stopping" and "no standing" zones in front of or near fire hydrants, driveways, public building entrances and exits, bus stops and loading areas, and is prohibited from parking where the motor vehicle constitutes a traffic hazard, whereby such motor vehicle shall be moved at the instruction and request of a law enforcement officer to a location designated by the officer.

(b) Any motor vehicle bearing registration plates or a special decal or device specified in this Section or in Section 3-616 of this Code or such parking device as specifically authorized in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or bearing registration plates issued to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under subsection (a) of Section 3-609 may park, in addition to any other lawful place, in any parking place specifically reserved for such vehicles by the posting of an official sign as provided under Section 11-301. Parking privileges granted by this Section are strictly limited to the person to whom the special registration plates, special decal or device were issued and to qualified operators acting under his or her express direction while the person with disabilities is present. A person to whom privileges were granted shall, at the request of a police officer or any other person invested by law with authority to direct, control, or regulate traffic, present an identification card with a picture as verification that the person is the person to whom the special registration plates, special decal or device was issued.

(c) Such parking privileges granted by this Section are also extended to motor vehicles of not-for-profit organizations used for the transportation of persons with disabilities when such motor vehicles display the decal or device issued pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of this Code.

(d) No person shall use any area for the parking of any motor vehicle pursuant to Section 11-1303 of this Code or where an official sign controlling such area expressly prohibits parking at any time or during certain hours.

(e) Beginning January 1, 2014, a vehicle displaying a decal or device issued under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-1301.2 of this Code shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking in a metered space or in a publicly owned parking area.

(Source: P.A. 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; 97-918, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-577, eff. 1-1-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.2)

Sec. 11-1301.2. Special decals for parking; persons with disabilities.

(a) The Secretary of State shall provide for, by administrative rules, the design, size, color, and placement of a person with disabilities motorist decal or device and shall provide for, by administrative rules, the content and form of an application for a person with disabilities motorist decal or device, which shall be used by local authorities in the issuance thereof to a person with temporary disabilities, provided that the decal or device is valid for no more than 90 days, subject to renewal for like periods based upon continued disability, and further provided that the decal or device clearly sets forth the date that the decal or device expires. The application shall include the requirement of an Illinois Identification Card number or a State of Illinois driver's license number. This decal or device may be used by the authorized holder to designate and identify a vehicle not owned or displaying a registration plate as provided in Sections 3-609 and 3-616 of this Act to designate when the vehicle is being used to transport said person or persons with disabilities, and thus is entitled to enjoy all the privileges that would be afforded a person with disabilities licensed vehicle. Person with disabilities decals or devices issued and displayed pursuant to this Section shall be recognized and honored by all local authorities regardless of which local authority issued such decal or device.

The decal or device shall be issued only upon a showing by adequate documentation that the person for whose benefit the decal or device is to be used has a disability as defined in Section 1-159.1 of this Code and the disability is temporary.

(b) The local governing authorities shall be responsible for the provision of such decal or device, its issuance and designated placement within the vehicle. The cost of such decal or device shall be at the discretion of such local governing authority.

(c) The Secretary of State may, pursuant to Section 3-616(c), issue a person with disabilities parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. Any person with disabilities parking decal or device issued by the Secretary of State shall be registered to that person with disabilities in the form to be prescribed by the Secretary of State. The person with disabilities parking decal or device shall not display that person's address. One additional decal or device may be issued to an applicant upon his or her written request and with the approval of the Secretary of State. The written request must include a justification of the need for the additional decal or device.

(c-5) Beginning January 1, 2014, the Secretary shall provide by administrative rule for the issuance of a separate and distinct parking decal or device for persons with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code and who meet the qualifications under this subsection. The authorized holder of a decal or device issued under this subsection (c-5) shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking in a metered space, a parking area subject to paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or a publicly owned parking area.

The Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person with disabilities who: (i) has been issued registration plates under subsection (a) of Section 3-609 or Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, (ii) holds a valid Illinois driver's license, and (iii) is unable to do one or more of the following:

(1) manage, manipulate, or insert coins, or obtain tickets or tokens in parking meters or ticket machines in parking lots, due to the lack of fine motor control of both hands;

(2) reach above his or her head to a height of 42 inches from the ground, due to a lack of finger, hand, or upper extremity strength or mobility;

(3) approach a parking meter due to his or her use of a wheelchair or other device for mobility; or

(4) walk more than 20 feet due to an orthopedic, neurological, cardiovascular, or lung condition in which the degree of debilitation is so severe that it almost completely impedes the ability to walk.

The application for a meter-exempt parking decal or device shall contain a statement certified by a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse attesting to the permanent nature of the applicant's condition and verifying that the applicant meets the physical qualifications specified in this subsection (c-5).

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c-5), the Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person who has been issued registration plates under Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, if the applicant is the parent or guardian of a person with disabilities who is under 18 years of age and incapable of driving.

(d) Replacement decals or devices may be issued for lost, stolen, or destroyed decals upon application and payment of a $10 fee. The replacement fee may be waived for individuals that have claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(e) A person classified as a veteran under subsection (e) of Section 6-106 of this Code that has been issued a decal or device under this Section shall not be required to submit evidence of disability in order to renew that decal or device if, at the time of initial application, he or she submitted evidence from his or her physician or the Department of Veterans' Affairs that the disability is of a permanent nature. However, the Secretary shall take reasonable steps to ensure the veteran still resides in this State at the time of the renewal. These steps may include requiring the veteran to provide additional documentation or to appear at a Secretary of State facility. To identify veterans who are eligible for this exemption, the Secretary shall compare the list of the persons who have been issued a decal or device to the list of persons who have been issued a disabled veteran vehicle registration plate for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code, or who are identified as a veteran on their driver's license under Section 6-110 of this Code or on their identification card under Section 4 of the Illinois Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-577, eff. 1-1-14; 98-879, eff. 1-1-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.3)

Sec. 11-1301.3. Unauthorized use of parking places reserved for persons with disabilities.

(a) It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle which is not properly displaying registration plates or decals issued to a person with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, pursuant to Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1 or 11-1301.2, or to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran pursuant to Section 3-609 of this Act, as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or a veteran with a disability disabled veteran, in any parking place, including any private or public offstreet parking facility, specifically reserved, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. It shall be prohibited to park any motor vehicle in a designated access aisle adjacent to any parking place specifically reserved for persons with disabilities, by the posting of an official sign as designated under Section 11-301, for motor vehicles displaying such registration plates. When using the parking privileges for persons with disabilities, the parking decal or device must be displayed properly in the vehicle where it is clearly visible to law enforcement personnel, either hanging from the rearview mirror or placed on the dashboard of the vehicle in clear view. Disability license plates and parking decals and devices are not transferable from person to person. Proper usage of the disability license plate or parking decal or device requires the authorized holder to be present and enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. It is a violation of this Section to park in a space reserved for a person with disabilities if the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device does not enter or exit the vehicle at the time the parking privileges are being used. Any motor vehicle properly displaying a disability license plate or a parking decal or device containing the International symbol of access issued to persons with disabilities by any local authority, state, district, territory or foreign country shall be recognized by State and local authorities as a valid license plate or device and receive the same parking privileges as residents of this State.

(a-1) An individual with a vehicle displaying disability license plates or a parking decal or device issued to a qualified person with a disability under Sections 3-616, 11-1301.1, or 11-1301.2 or to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under Section 3-609 is in violation of this Section if (i) the person using the disability license plate or parking decal or device is not the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device or is not transporting the authorized holder of the disability license plate or parking decal or device to or from the parking location and (ii) the person uses the disability license plate or parking decal or device to exercise any privileges granted through the disability license plate or parking decals or devices under this Code.

(a-2) A driver of a vehicle displaying disability license plates or a parking decal or device issued to a qualified person with a disability under Section 3-616, 11-1301.1, or 11-1301.2 or to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under Section 3-609 is in violation of this Section if (i) the person to whom the disability license plate or parking decal or device was issued is deceased and (ii) the driver uses the disability license plate or parking decal or device to exercise any privileges granted through a disability license plate or parking decal or device under this Code.

(b) Any person or local authority owning or operating any public or private offstreet parking facility may, after notifying the police or sheriff's department, remove or cause to be removed to the nearest garage or other place of safety any vehicle parked within a stall or space reserved for use by a person with disabilities which does not display person with disabilities registration plates or a special decal or device as required under this Section.

(c) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a) shall be fined $250 in addition to any costs or charges connected with the removal or storage of any motor vehicle authorized under this Section; but municipalities by ordinance may impose a fine up to $350 and shall display signs indicating the fine imposed. If the amount of the fine is subsequently changed, the municipality shall change the sign to indicate the current amount of the fine. It shall not be a defense to a charge under this Section that either the sign posted pursuant to this Section or the intended accessible parking place does not comply with the technical requirements of Section 11-301, Department regulations, or local ordinance if a reasonable person would be made aware by the sign or notice on or near the parking place that the place is reserved for a person with disabilities.

(c-1) Any person found guilty of violating the provisions of subsection (a-1) a first time shall be fined $600. Any person found guilty of violating subsection (a-1) a second or subsequent time shall be fined $1,000. Any person who violates subsection (a-2) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined $2,500. The circuit clerk shall distribute 50% of the fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, the 50% of the fine imposed shall be shared equally. If an officer of the Secretary of State Department of Police arrested a person for a violation of this Section, 50% of the fine imposed shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police Services Fund.

(d) Local authorities shall impose fines as established in subsections (c) and (c-1) for violations of this Section.

(e) As used in this Section, "authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code, an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a disabled veteran's license plate for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(f) Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a-1) or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a-2) or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall have his or her driving privileges revoked by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may also suspend or revoke the disability license plates or parking decal or device for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State.

(g) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.4) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.4)

Sec. 11-1301.4. Reciprocal agreements with other jurisdictions. The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to permanently disabled residents of this State with disabilities who display a special license plate or parking device that contains the International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this State with disabilities to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in another state, district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle displays the International symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state, district, territory or foreign country.

(Source: P.A. 86-539.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.5)

Sec. 11-1301.5. Fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device" means any issued disability license plate or parking decal or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under Section 3-609 of this Code, that has been issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that was issued based upon false information contained on the required application.

"False information" means any incorrect or inaccurate information concerning the name, date of birth, social security number, driver's license number, physician certification, or any other information required on the Persons with Disabilities Certification for Plate or Parking Placard, on the Application for Replacement Disability Parking Placard, or on the application for license plates issued to veterans with disabilities disabled veterans under Section 3-609 of this Code, that falsifies the content of the application.

"Unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking permit or device" means any disability license plate or parking permit or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under Section 3-609 of this Code, issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that has been physically altered or changed in such manner that false information appears on the license plate or parking decal or device.

"Authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code or an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a disabled veteran's license plate for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(b) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

(1) to knowingly possess any fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(2) to knowingly issue or assist in the issuance of, by the Secretary of State or unit of local government, any fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(3) to knowingly alter any disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(4) to knowingly manufacture, possess, transfer, or provide any documentation used in the application process whether real or fictitious, for the purpose of obtaining a fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(5) to knowingly provide any false information to the Secretary of State or a unit of local government in order to obtain a disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(6) to knowingly transfer a disability license plate or parking decal or device for the purpose of exercising the privileges granted to an authorized holder of a disability license plate or parking decal or device under this Code in the absence of the authorized holder; or

(7) who is a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse to knowingly falsify a certification that a person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and fined not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. Any person convicted of a violation of subdivision (b)(6) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. The circuit clerk shall distribute one-half of any fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, one-half of the fine imposed shall be shared equally.

(2) Any person who commits a violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(3) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-845, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.6)

Sec. 11-1301.6. Fraudulent disability license plate or parking decal or device.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Fraudulent disability license plate or parking decal or device" means any disability license plate or parking decal or device that purports to be an official disability license plate or parking decal or device and that has not been issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government.

"Disability license plate or parking decal or device-making implement" means any implement specially designed or primarily used in the manufacture, assembly, or authentication of a disability license plate or parking decal or device, or a license plate issued to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran under Section 3-609 of this Code, issued by the Secretary of State or a unit of local government.

(b) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

(1) to knowingly possess any fraudulent disability license plate or parking decal;

(2) to knowingly possess without authority any disability license plate or parking decal or device-making implement;

(3) to knowingly duplicate, manufacture, sell, or transfer any fraudulent or stolen disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(4) to knowingly assist in the duplication, manufacturing, selling, or transferring of any fraudulent, stolen, or reported lost or damaged disability license plate or parking decal or device; or

(5) to advertise or distribute a fraudulent disability license plate or parking decal or device.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and fined not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. The circuit clerk shall distribute half of any fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, one-half of the fine imposed shall be shared equally.

(2) Any person who commits a violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State.

(3) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-79, eff. 1-1-10; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.7)

Sec. 11-1301.7. Appointed volunteers and contracted entities; parking violations for persons with disabilities disabled person parking violations.

(a) The chief of police of a municipality and the sheriff of a county authorized to enforce parking laws may appoint volunteers or contract with public or private entities to issue parking violation notices for violations of Section 11-1301.3 or ordinances dealing with parking privileges for persons with disabilities. Volunteers appointed under this Section and any employees of public or private entities that the chief of police or sheriff has contracted with under this Section who are issuing these parking violation notices must be at least 21 years of age. The chief of police or sheriff appointing the volunteers or contracting with public or private entities may establish any other qualifications that he or she deems desirable.

(b) The chief of police or sheriff appointing volunteers under this Section shall provide training to the volunteers before authorizing them to issue parking violation notices.

(c) A parking violation notice issued by a volunteer appointed under this Section or by a public or private entity that the chief of police or sheriff has contracted with under this Section shall have the same force and effect as a parking violation notice issued by a police officer for the same offense.

(d) All funds collected as a result of the payment of the parking violation notices issued under this Section shall go to the municipality or county where the notice is issued.

(e) An appointed volunteer or private or public entity under contract pursuant to this Section is not liable for his or her or its act or omission in the execution or enforcement of laws or ordinances if acting within the scope of the appointment or contract authorized by this Section, unless the act or omission constitutes willful and wanton conduct.

(f) Except as otherwise provided by statute, a local government, a chief of police, sheriff, or employee of a police department or sheriff, as such and acting within the scope of his or her employment, is not liable for an injury caused by the act or omission of an appointed volunteer or private or public entity under contract pursuant to this Section. No local government, chief of police, sheriff, or an employee of a local government, police department or sheriff shall be liable for any actions regarding the supervision or direction, or the failure to supervise and direct, an appointed volunteer or private or public entity under contract pursuant to this Section unless the act or omission constitutes willful and wanton conduct.

(g) An appointed volunteer or private or public entity under contract pursuant to this Section shall assume all liability for and hold the property owner and his agents and employees harmless from any and all claims of action resulting from the work of the appointed volunteer or public or private entity.

(Source: P.A. 90-181, eff. 7-23-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-401) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-401)

Sec. 12-401. Restriction as to tire equipment. No metal tired vehicle, including tractors, motor vehicles of the second division, traction engines and other similar vehicles, shall be operated over any improved highway of this State, if such vehicle has on the periphery of any of the road wheels any block, stud, flange, cleat, ridge, lug or any projection of metal or wood which projects radially beyond the tread or traffic surface of the tire. This prohibition does not apply to pneumatic tires with metal studs used on vehicles operated by rural letter carriers who are employed or enjoy a contract with the United States Postal Service for the purpose of delivering mail if such vehicle is actually used for such purpose during operations between November 15 of any year and April 1 of the following year, or to motor vehicles displaying a disability license plate or a or disabled veteran license plate for veterans with disabilities whose owner resides in an unincorporated area located upon a county or township highway or road and possesses a valid driver's license and operates the vehicle with such tires only during the period heretofore described, or to tracked type motor vehicles when that part of the vehicle coming in contact with the road surface does not contain any projections of any kind likely to injure the surface of the road; however, tractors, traction engines, and similar vehicles may be operated which have upon their road wheels V-shaped, diagonal or other cleats arranged in such a manner as to be continuously in contact with the road surface, provided that the gross weight upon such wheels per inch of width of such cleats in contact with the road surface, when measured in the direction of the axle of the vehicle, does not exceed 800 pounds.

All motor vehicles and all other vehicles in tow thereof, or thereunto attached, operating upon any roadway, shall have tires of rubber or some material of equal resiliency. Solid tires shall be considered defective and shall not be permitted to be used if the rubber or other material has been worn or otherwise reduced to a thickness of less than three-fourths of an undue vibration when the vehicle is in motion or to cause undue concentration of the wheel load on the surface of the road. The requirements of this Section do not apply to agricultural tractors or traction engines or to agricultural machinery, including wagons being used for agricultural purposes in tow thereof, or to road rollers or road building machinery operated at a speed not in excess of 10 miles per hour. All motor vehicles of the second division, operating upon any roadway shall have pneumatic tires, unless exempted herein.

Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prohibit the use of tire chains of reasonable proportion upon any vehicle when required for safety because of snow, ice or other conditions tending to cause a vehicle to skid.

(Source: P.A. 94-619, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 870. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 3A-15 as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/3A-15) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 313A-15)

Sec. 3A-15. Transfer by operation of law.

(a) If the interest of an owner in a watercraft passes to another other than by voluntary transfer, the transferee shall, except as provided in subsection (b), promptly mail or deliver within 15 days to the Department of Natural Resources the last certificate of title, if available, proof of the transfer, and his or her application for a new certificate in the form the Department prescribes. It shall be unlawful for any person having possession of a certificate of title for a watercraft by reason of his or her having a lien or encumbrance on such watercraft, to fail or refuse to deliver such certificate to the owner, upon the satisfaction or discharge of the lien or encumbrance, indicated upon such certificate of title.

(b) If the interest of an owner in a watercraft passes to another under the provisions of the Small Estates provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as amended, the transferee shall promptly mail or deliver to the Department of Natural Resources, within 120 days, the last certificate of title, if available, the documentation required under the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as amended, and an application for certificate of title. The transfer may be to the transferee or to the nominee of the transferee.

(c) If the interest of an owner in a watercraft passes to another under other provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as amended, and the transfer is made by an executor, administrator, or guardian for a person with a disability disabled person, such transferee shall promptly mail or deliver to the Department of Natural Resources, the last certificate of title, if available, and a certified copy of the letters testamentary, letters of administration or letters of guardianship, as the case may be, and an application for certificate of title. Such application shall be made before the estate is closed. The transfer may be to the transferee or to the nominee of the transferee.

(d) If the interest of an owner in joint tenancy passes to the other joint tenant with survivorship rights as provided by law, the transferee shall promptly mail or deliver to the Department of Natural Resources, the last certificate of title, if available, proof of death of the one joint tenant and survivorship of the surviving joint tenant, and an application for certificate of title. Such application shall be made within 120 days after the death of the joint tenant. The transfer may be to the transferee or to the nominee of the transferee.

(e) If the interest of the owner is terminated or the watercraft is sold under a security agreement by a lienholder named in the certificate of title, the transferee shall promptly mail or deliver within 15 days to the Department of Natural Resources the last certificate of title, his or her application for a new certificate in the form the Department prescribes, and an affidavit made by or on behalf of the lienholder that the watercraft was repossessed and that the interest of the owner was lawfully terminated or sold pursuant to the terms of the security agreement. In all cases wherein a lienholder has found it necessary to repossess a watercraft and desires to obtain certificate of title for such watercraft in the name of such lienholder, the Department of Natural Resources shall not issue a certificate of title to such lienholder unless the person from whom such watercraft has been repossessed, is shown to be the last registered owner of such watercraft and such lienholder establishes to the satisfaction of the Department that he or she is entitled to such certificate of title.

(f) A person holding a certificate of title whose interest in the watercraft has been extinguished or transferred other than by voluntary transfer shall mail or deliver the certificate within 15 days upon request of the Department of Natural Resources. The delivery of the certificate pursuant to the request of the Department of Natural Resources does not affect the rights of the person surrendering the certificate, and the action of the Department in issuing a new certificate of title as provided herein is not conclusive upon the rights of an owner or lienholder named in the old certificate.

(g) The Department of Natural Resources may decline to process any application for a transfer of an interest hereunder if any fees or taxes due under this Act from the transferor or the transferee have not been paid upon reasonable notice and demand.

(h) The Department of Natural Resources shall not be held civilly or criminally liable to any person because any purported transferor may not have had the power or authority to make a transfer of any interest in any watercraft.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96.)

Section 875. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 2-3 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-3)

Sec. 2-3. Neglected or abused minor.

(1) Those who are neglected include:

(a) any minor under 18 years of age who is not receiving the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a minor's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter, or who is abandoned by his or her parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare, except that a minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor's parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare have left the minor in the care of an adult relative for any period of time, who the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare know is both a mentally capable adult relative and physically capable adult relative, as defined by this Act; or

(b) any minor under 18 years of age whose environment is injurious to his or her welfare; or

(c) any newborn infant whose blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as now or hereafter amended, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant is the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; or

(d) any minor under the age of 14 years whose parent or other person responsible for the minor's welfare leaves the minor without supervision for an unreasonable period of time without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor; or

(e) any minor who has been provided with interim crisis intervention services under Section 3-5 of this Act and whose parent, guardian, or custodian refuses to permit the minor to return home unless the minor is an immediate physical danger to himself, herself, or others living in the home.

Whether the minor was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor or the period of time was unreasonable shall be determined by considering the following factors, including but not limited to:

(1) the age of the minor;

(2) the number of minors left at the location;

(3) special needs of the minor, including whether the minor is a person with a physical or mental disability physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the minor was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the minor was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the minor was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the minor was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent or guardian at the time the minor was left without supervision, the physical distance the minor was from the parent or guardian at the time the minor was without supervision;

(9) whether the minor's movement was restricted, or the minor was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the minor was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the minor was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the minor;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the minor;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the minor;

(14) whether the minor was left under the supervision of another person;

(15) any other factor that would endanger the health and safety of that particular minor.

A minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(2) Those who are abused include any minor under 18 years of age whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the minor's welfare, or any person who is in the same family or household as the minor, or any individual residing in the same home as the minor, or a paramour of the minor's parent:

(i) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon such minor physical injury, by other than accidental means, which causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(ii) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to such minor by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(iii) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against such minor, as such sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or in the Wrongs to Children Act, and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include minors under 18 years of age;

(iv) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon such minor;

(v) inflicts excessive corporal punishment;

(vi) commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, upon such minor; or

(vii) allows, encourages or requires a minor to commit any act of prostitution, as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and extending those definitions to include minors under 18 years of age.

A minor shall not be considered abused for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(3) This Section does not apply to a minor who would be included herein solely for the purpose of qualifying for financial assistance for himself, his parents, guardian or custodian.

(Source: P.A. 96-168, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 880. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 2-10.1, 2-15a, 9-1, 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-14.1, 11-14.4, 11-18.1, 11-20.1, 12-0.1, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12C-10, 16-30, 17-2, 17-6, 17-6.5, 17-10.2, 18-1, 18-4, 24-3, 24-3.1, and 48-10 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-10.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-10.1)

Sec. 2-10.1. "Person with a severe or profound intellectual disability" Severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person" means a person (i) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 55 and who suffers from significant mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired. In any proceeding in which the defendant is charged with committing a violation of Section 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.3, 12-14, or 12-16, or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, of this Code against a victim who is alleged to be a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, any findings concerning the victim's status as a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, made by a court after a judicial admission hearing concerning the victim under Articles V and VI of Chapter IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall be admissible.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-15a) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-15a)

Sec. 2-15a. "Person with a physical disability" Physically handicapped person". "Person with a physical disability" Physically handicapped person" means a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition.

(Source: P.A. 85-691.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. First degree Murder - Death penalties - Exceptions - Separate Hearings - Proof - Findings - Appellate procedures - Reversals.

(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:

(1) he either intends to kill or do great bodily harm to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he knows that such acts create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) he is attempting or committing a forcible felony other than second degree murder.

(b) Aggravating Factors. A defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to death if:

(1) the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman; or

(2) the murdered individual was an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, or the murdered individual was an inmate at such institution or facility and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof; or

(3) the defendant has been convicted of murdering two or more individuals under subsection (a) of this Section or under any law of the United States or of any state which is substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section regardless of whether the deaths occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts so long as the deaths were the result of either an intent to kill more than one person or of separate acts which the defendant knew would cause death or create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; or

(4) the murdered individual was killed as a result of the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus or other public conveyance; or

(5) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a contract, agreement or understanding by which he was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value; or

(6) the murdered individual was killed in the course of another felony if:

(a) the murdered individual:

(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or

(ii) received physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and

(b) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (a) of paragraph (6) of subsection (b) of this Section, the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(c) the other felony was an inherently violent crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this subparagraph (c), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion; or

(7) the murdered individual was under 12 years of age and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(8) the defendant committed the murder with intent to prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this paragraph (8), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors; or

(9) the defendant, while committing an offense punishable under Sections 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407 or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(10) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(11) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom; or

(12) the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; or

(13) the defendant was a principal administrator, organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person; or

(14) the murder was intentional and involved the infliction of torture. For the purpose of this Section torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering or agony of the victim; or

(15) the murder was committed as a result of the intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle; or

(16) the murdered individual was 60 years of age or older and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(17) the murdered individual was a person with a disability disabled person and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a person with a disability disabled. For purposes of this paragraph (17), "person with a disability disabled person" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care; or

(18) the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(19) the murdered individual was subject to an order of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; or

(20) the murdered individual was known by the defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes; or

(21) the murder was committed by the defendant in connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code.

(b-5) Aggravating Factor; Natural Life Imprisonment. A defendant who has been found guilty of first degree murder and who at the time of the commission of the offense had attained the age of 18 years or more may be sentenced to natural life imprisonment if (i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, (ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, and (iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.

(c) Consideration of factors in Aggravation and Mitigation.

The court shall consider, or shall instruct the jury to consider any aggravating and any mitigating factors which are relevant to the imposition of the death penalty. Aggravating factors may include but need not be limited to those factors set forth in subsection (b). Mitigating factors may include but need not be limited to the following:

(1) the defendant has no significant history of prior criminal activity;

(2) the murder was committed while the defendant was under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance, although not such as to constitute a defense to prosecution;

(3) the murdered individual was a participant in the defendant's homicidal conduct or consented to the homicidal act;

(4) the defendant acted under the compulsion of threat or menace of the imminent infliction of death or great bodily harm;

(5) the defendant was not personally present during commission of the act or acts causing death;

(6) the defendant's background includes a history of extreme emotional or physical abuse;

(7) the defendant suffers from a reduced mental capacity.

(d) Separate sentencing hearing.

Where requested by the State, the court shall conduct a separate sentencing proceeding to determine the existence of factors set forth in subsection (b) and to consider any aggravating or mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). The proceeding shall be conducted:

(1) before the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(2) before a jury impanelled for the purpose of the proceeding if:

A. the defendant was convicted upon a plea of guilty; or

B. the defendant was convicted after a trial before the court sitting without a jury; or

C. the court for good cause shown discharges the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(3) before the court alone if the defendant waives a jury for the separate proceeding.

(e) Evidence and Argument.

During the proceeding any information relevant to any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) may be presented by either the State or the defendant under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. Any information relevant to any additional aggravating factors or any mitigating factors indicated in subsection (c) may be presented by the State or defendant regardless of its admissibility under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. The State and the defendant shall be given fair opportunity to rebut any information received at the hearing.

(f) Proof.

The burden of proof of establishing the existence of any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) is on the State and shall not be satisfied unless established beyond a reasonable doubt.

(g) Procedure - Jury.

If at the separate sentencing proceeding the jury finds that none of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. If there is a unanimous finding by the jury that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exist, the jury shall consider aggravating and mitigating factors as instructed by the court and shall determine whether the sentence of death shall be imposed. If the jury determines unanimously, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to death. If the court does not concur with the jury determination that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall set forth reasons in writing including what facts or circumstances the court relied upon, along with any relevant documents, that compelled the court to non-concur with the sentence. This document and any attachments shall be part of the record for appellate review. The court shall be bound by the jury's sentencing determination.

If after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, one or more jurors determines that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h) Procedure - No Jury.

In a proceeding before the court alone, if the court finds that none of the factors found in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

If the Court determines that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the Court shall consider any aggravating and mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). If the Court determines, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the Court shall sentence the defendant to death.

If the court finds that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h-5) Decertification as a capital case.

In a case in which the defendant has been found guilty of first degree murder by a judge or jury, or a case on remand for resentencing, and the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, on the court's own motion or the written motion of the defendant, the court may decertify the case as a death penalty case if the court finds that the only evidence supporting the defendant's conviction is the uncorroborated testimony of an informant witness, as defined in Section 115-21 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, concerning the confession or admission of the defendant or that the sole evidence against the defendant is a single eyewitness or single accomplice without any other corroborating evidence. If the court decertifies the case as a capital case under either of the grounds set forth above, the court shall issue a written finding. The State may pursue its right to appeal the decertification pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604(a)(1). If the court does not decertify the case as a capital case, the matter shall proceed to the eligibility phase of the sentencing hearing.

(i) Appellate Procedure.

The conviction and sentence of death shall be subject to automatic review by the Supreme Court. Such review shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Supreme Court. The Illinois Supreme Court may overturn the death sentence, and order the imposition of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if the court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case. If the Illinois Supreme Court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case, independent of any procedural grounds for relief, the Illinois Supreme Court shall issue a written opinion explaining this finding.

(j) Disposition of reversed death sentence.

In the event that the death penalty in this Act is held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, any person convicted of first degree murder shall be sentenced by the court to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

In the event that any death sentence pursuant to the sentencing provisions of this Section is declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, the court having jurisdiction over a person previously sentenced to death shall cause the defendant to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(k) Guidelines for seeking the death penalty.

The Attorney General and State's Attorneys Association shall consult on voluntary guidelines for procedures governing whether or not to seek the death penalty. The guidelines do not have the force of law and are only advisory in nature.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1475, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-1)

Sec. 10-1. Kidnapping.

(a) A person commits the offense of kidnapping when he or she knowingly:

(1) and secretly confines another against his or her will;

(2) by force or threat of imminent force carries another from one place to another with intent secretly to confine that other person against his or her will; or

(3) by deceit or enticement induces another to go from one place to another with intent secretly to confine that other person against his or her will.

(b) Confinement of a child under the age of 13 years, or of a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, is against that child's or person's will within the meaning of this Section if that confinement is without the consent of that child's or person's parent or legal guardian.

(c) Sentence. Kidnapping is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-2)

Sec. 10-2. Aggravated kidnaping.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated kidnaping when he or she commits kidnapping and:

(1) kidnaps with the intent to obtain ransom from the person kidnaped or from any other person;

(2) takes as his or her victim a child under the age of 13 years, or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person;

(3) inflicts great bodily harm, other than by the discharge of a firearm, or commits another felony upon his or her victim;

(4) wears a hood, robe, or mask or conceals his or her identity;

(5) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, as defined in Section 33A-1 of this Code;

(6) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a firearm;

(7) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm; or

(8) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

As used in this Section, "ransom" includes money, benefit, or other valuable thing or concession.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated kidnaping in violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(7) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated kidnaping shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment; except that a sentence of natural life imprisonment shall not be imposed under this Section unless the second or subsequent offense was committed after conviction on the first offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Child abduction.

(a) For purposes of this Section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) "Child" means a person who, at the time the alleged violation occurred, was under the age of 18 or was a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled.

(2) "Detains" means taking or retaining physical custody of a child, whether or not the child resists or objects.

(2.1) "Express consent" means oral or written permission that is positive, direct, and unequivocal, requiring no inference or implication to supply its meaning.

(2.2) "Luring" means any knowing act to solicit, entice, tempt, or attempt to attract the minor.

(3) "Lawful custodian" means a person or persons granted legal custody of a child or entitled to physical possession of a child pursuant to a court order. It is presumed that, when the parties have never been married to each other, the mother has legal custody of the child unless a valid court order states otherwise. If an adjudication of paternity has been completed and the father has been assigned support obligations or visitation rights, such a paternity order should, for the purposes of this Section, be considered a valid court order granting custody to the mother.

(4) "Putative father" means a man who has a reasonable belief that he is the father of a child born of a woman who is not his wife.

(5) "Unlawful purpose" means any misdemeanor or felony violation of State law or a similar federal or sister state law or local ordinance.

(b) A person commits the offense of child abduction when he or she does any one of the following:

(1) Intentionally violates any terms of a valid court order granting sole or joint custody, care, or possession to another by concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(2) Intentionally violates a court order prohibiting the person from concealing or detaining the child or removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.

(3) Intentionally conceals, detains, or removes the child without the consent of the mother or lawful custodian of the child if the person is a putative father and either: (A) the paternity of the child has not been legally established or (B) the paternity of the child has been legally established but no orders relating to custody have been entered. Notwithstanding the presumption created by paragraph (3) of subsection (a), however, a mother commits child abduction when she intentionally conceals or removes a child, whom she has abandoned or relinquished custody of, from an unadjudicated father who has provided sole ongoing care and custody of the child in her absence.

(4) Intentionally conceals or removes the child from a parent after filing a petition or being served with process in an action affecting marriage or paternity but prior to the issuance of a temporary or final order determining custody.

(5) At the expiration of visitation rights outside the State, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes the return of the child to the lawful custodian in Illinois.

(6) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of that child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals the child for 15 days, and fails to make reasonable attempts within the 15-day period to notify the other parent as to the specific whereabouts of the child, including a means by which to contact the child, or to arrange reasonable visitation or contact with the child. It is not a violation of this Section for a person fleeing domestic violence to take the child with him or her to housing provided by a domestic violence program.

(7) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of the child are or have been married and there has been no court order of custody, knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child with physical force or threat of physical force.

(8) Knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child for payment or promise of payment at the instruction of a person who has no legal right to custody.

(9) Knowingly retains in this State for 30 days a child removed from another state without the consent of the lawful custodian or in violation of a valid court order of custody.

(10) Intentionally lures or attempts to lure a child: (A) under the age of 17 or (B) while traveling to or from a primary or secondary school into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian for other than a lawful purpose. For the purposes of this item (10), the trier of fact may infer that luring or attempted luring of a child under the age of 17 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place without the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian or with the intent to avoid the express consent of the child's parent or lawful custodian was for other than a lawful purpose.

(11) With the intent to obstruct or prevent efforts to locate the child victim of a child abduction, knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or disguises physical evidence or furnishes false information.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section that:

(1) the person had custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights that existed at the time of the alleged violation;

(2) the person had physical custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights and failed to return the child as a result of circumstances beyond his or her control, and the person notified and disclosed to the other parent or legal custodian the specific whereabouts of the child and a means by which the child could be contacted or made a reasonable attempt to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of the child of those circumstances and made the disclosure within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and returned the child as soon as possible;

(3) the person was fleeing an incidence or pattern of domestic violence; or

(4) the person lured or attempted to lure a child under the age of 17 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place for a lawful purpose in prosecutions under paragraph (10) of subsection (b).

(d) A person convicted of child abduction under this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) shall undergo a sex offender evaluation prior to a sentence being imposed. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of child abduction under subsection (b)(10) when the person has a prior conviction of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign government offense is guilty of a Class 2 felony. It is a factor in aggravation under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this Section for which a court may impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if, upon sentencing, the court finds evidence of any of the following aggravating factors:

(1) that the defendant abused or neglected the child following the concealment, detention, or removal of the child;

(2) that the defendant inflicted or threatened to inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of the child or on the child with intent to cause that parent or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution of the defendant under this Section;

(3) that the defendant demanded payment in exchange for return of the child or demanded that he or she be relieved of the financial or legal obligation to support the child in exchange for return of the child;

(4) that the defendant has previously been convicted of child abduction;

(5) that the defendant committed the abduction while armed with a deadly weapon or the taking of the child resulted in serious bodily injury to another; or

(6) that the defendant committed the abduction while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; in a playground; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school or playground. For purposes of this paragraph (6), "playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation; and "school" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(e) The court may order the child to be returned to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed. In addition to any sentence imposed, the court may assess any reasonable expense incurred in searching for or returning the child against any person convicted of violating this Section.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to limit the court's contempt power.

(g) Every law enforcement officer investigating an alleged incident of child abduction shall make a written police report of any bona fide allegation and the disposition of that investigation. Every police report completed pursuant to this Section shall be compiled and recorded within the meaning of Section 5.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(h) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reasons to believe a child abduction has occurred, she or he shall provide the lawful custodian a summary of her or his rights under this Code, including the procedures and relief available to her or him.

(i) If during the course of an investigation under this Section the child is found in the physical custody of the defendant or another, the law enforcement officer shall return the child to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed, detained, or removed, unless there is good cause for the law enforcement officer or the Department of Children and Family Services to retain temporary protective custody of the child pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-160, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-998, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.30) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14)

Sec. 11-1.30. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits criminal sexual assault and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist during the commission of the offense or, for purposes of paragraph (7), occur as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:

(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim, except as provided in paragraph (10);

(3) the person acts in a manner that threatens or endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(4) the person commits the criminal sexual assault during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony;

(5) the victim is 60 years of age or older;

(6) the victim is a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person;

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception for other than medical purposes;

(8) the person is armed with a firearm;

(9) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense; or

(10) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense, and that discharge proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 13 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (a) or in violation of subsection (b) or (c) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony for which 10 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(9) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(10) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted under the laws of this or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual assault, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.60) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-16)

Sec. 11-1.60. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Abuse.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits criminal sexual abuse and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist (i) during the commission of the offense or (ii) for purposes of paragraph (7), as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:

(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a dangerous weapon or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim;

(3) the victim is 60 years of age or older;

(4) the victim is a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person;

(5) the person acts in a manner that threatens or endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(6) the person commits the criminal sexual abuse during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony; or

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim for other than medical purposes without the victim's consent or by threat or deception.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 18 years of age and the person is a family member.

(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if:

(1) that person is 17 years of age or over and: (i) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 13 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act; or

(2) that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(d) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person is at least 5 years older than the victim.

(e) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(f) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 18 years of age and the person is 17 years of age or over and holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim.

(g) Sentence. Aggravated criminal sexual abuse is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-14.1)

Sec. 11-14.1. Solicitation of a sexual act.

(a) Any person who offers a person not his or her spouse any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value for that person or any other person not his or her spouse to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification, commits solicitation of a sexual act.

(b) Sentence. Solicitation of a sexual act is a Class A misdemeanor. Solicitation of a sexual act from a person who is under the age of 18 or who is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled is a Class 4 felony. If the court imposes a fine under this subsection (b), it shall be collected and distributed to the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund in accordance with Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b-5) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of solicitation of a sexual act with a person who is under the age of 18 or who is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(c) This Section does not apply to a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age.

(d) A person cannot be convicted under this Section if the practice of prostitution underlying the offense consists exclusively of the accused's own acts of prostitution under Section 11-14 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-14.4)

Sec. 11-14.4. Promoting juvenile prostitution.

(a) Any person who knowingly performs any of the following acts commits promoting juvenile prostitution:

(1) advances prostitution as defined in Section 11-0.1, where the minor engaged in prostitution, or any person engaged in prostitution in the place, is under 18 years of age or is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled at the time of the offense;

(2) profits from prostitution by any means where the prostituted person is under 18 years of age or is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled at the time of the offense;

(3) profits from prostitution by any means where the prostituted person is under 13 years of age at the time of the offense;

(4) confines a child under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person against his or her will by the infliction or threat of imminent infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement or by administering to the child or the person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, without his or her consent or by threat or deception and for other than medical purposes, any alcoholic intoxicant or a drug as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act or methamphetamine as defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and:

(A) compels the child or the person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to engage in prostitution;

(B) arranges a situation in which the child or the person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person may practice prostitution; or

(C) profits from prostitution by the child or the person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(b) For purposes of this Section, administering drugs, as defined in subdivision (a)(4), or an alcoholic intoxicant to a child under the age of 13 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person shall be deemed to be without consent if the administering is done without the consent of the parents or legal guardian or if the administering is performed by the parents or legal guardian for other than medical purposes.

(c) If the accused did not have a reasonable opportunity to observe the prostituted person, it is an affirmative defense to a charge of promoting juvenile prostitution, except for a charge under subdivision (a)(4), that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(3) is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(4) is a Class X felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3), or any combination of convictions under subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is a Class X felony.

(e) Forfeiture. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section that involves promoting juvenile prostitution by keeping a place of juvenile prostitution or convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(4) is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "prostituted person" means any person who engages in, or agrees or offers to engage in, any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-18.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-18.1)

Sec. 11-18.1. Patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(a) Any person who engages in an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code with a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age or is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(a-5) Any person who engages in any touching or fondling, with a person engaged in prostitution who either is under 18 years of age or is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, of the sex organs of one person by the other person, with the intent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification, commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to the charge of patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution that the accused reasonably believed that the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(c) Sentence. A person who commits patronizing a juvenile prostitute is guilty of a Class 3 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section, or of any combination of such number of convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fact of such conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.1)

Sec. 11-20.1. Child pornography.

(a) A person commits child pornography who:

(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or any person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person where such child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or to be a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces, a person to provide a child under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(a-5) The possession of each individual film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation. This subsection (a-5) does not apply to multiple copies of the same film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer that are identical to each other.

(b)(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.

(1.5) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The charge of child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.

(4) If the defendant possessed more than one of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted, then the trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.

(5) The charge of child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.

(6) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.

(c) If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(c-5) Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Where the child depicted is under the age of 13, a person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. The issue of whether the child depicted is under the age of 13 is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact.

(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.

(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) or paragraph 1 of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.

In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.

(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute, exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise, publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.

(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create, or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) For the purposes of this Section, "child pornography" includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is, or appears to be, that of a person, either in part, or in total, under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such. "Child pornography" also includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is advertised, promoted, presented, described, or distributed in such a manner that conveys the impression that the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is of a person under the age of 18 or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(g) Re-enactment; findings; purposes.

(1) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(i) Section 50-5 of Public Act 88-680, effective January 1, 1995, contained provisions amending the child pornography statute, Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. Section 50-5 also contained other provisions.

(ii) In addition, Public Act 88-680 was entitled "AN ACT to create a Safe Neighborhoods Law". (A) Article 5 was entitled JUVENILE JUSTICE and amended the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. (B) Article 15 was entitled GANGS and amended various provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Unified Code of Corrections. (C) Article 20 was entitled ALCOHOL ABUSE and amended various provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code. (D) Article 25 was entitled DRUG ABUSE and amended the Cannabis Control Act and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. (E) Article 30 was entitled FIREARMS and amended the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. (F) Article 35 amended the Criminal Code of 1961, the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections. (G) Article 40 amended the Criminal Code of 1961 to increase the penalty for compelling organization membership of persons. (H) Article 45 created the Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act and amended the State Finance Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Unified Code of Corrections, and the Private Correctional Facility Moratorium Act. (I) Article 50 amended the WIC Vendor Management Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Criminal Code of 1961, the Wrongs to Children Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections.

(iii) On September 22, 1998, the Third District Appellate Court in People v. Dainty, 701 N.E. 2d 118, ruled that Public Act 88-680 violates the single subject clause of the Illinois Constitution (Article IV, Section 8 (d)) and was unconstitutional in its entirety. As of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was still subject to appeal.

(iv) Child pornography is a vital concern to the people of this State and the validity of future prosecutions under the child pornography statute of the Criminal Code of 1961 is in grave doubt.

(2) It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1999 to prevent or minimize any problems relating to prosecutions for child pornography that may result from challenges to the constitutional validity of Public Act 88-680 by re-enacting the Section relating to child pornography that was included in Public Act 88-680.

(3) This amendatory Act of 1999 re-enacts Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as it has been amended. This re-enactment is intended to remove any question as to the validity or content of that Section; it is not intended to supersede any other Public Act that amends the text of the Section as set forth in this amendatory Act of 1999. The material is shown as existing text (i.e., without underscoring) because, as of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was subject to appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court.

(4) The re-enactment by this amendatory Act of 1999 of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to child pornography that was amended by Public Act 88-680 is not intended, and shall not be construed, to imply that Public Act 88-680 is invalid or to limit or impair any legal argument concerning whether those provisions were substantially re-enacted by other Public Acts.

(Source: P.A. 97-157, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-995, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-437, eff. 1-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-0.1)

Sec. 12-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

"Bona fide labor dispute" means any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions, or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

"Coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducts an athletic contest.

"Correctional institution employee" means a person employed by a penal institution.

"Emergency medical technician" includes a paramedic, ambulance driver, first aid worker, hospital worker, or other medical assistance worker.

"Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren, and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in Section 12-4.4a of this Code. For purposes of this Article, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

"In the presence of a child" means in the physical presence of a child or knowing or having reason to know that a child is present and may see or hear an act constituting an offense.

"Park district employee" means a supervisor, director, instructor, or other person employed by a park district.

"Person with a physical disability Physically handicapped person" means a person who suffers from a permanent and disabling physical characteristic, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition.

"Private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

"Probation officer" means a person as defined in the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

"Sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee.

"Sports venue" means a publicly or privately owned sports or entertainment arena, stadium, community or convention hall, special event center, or amusement facility, or a special event center in a public park, during the 12 hours before or after the sanctioned sporting event.

"Streetgang", "streetgang member", and "criminal street gang" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

"Transit employee" means a driver, operator, or employee of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire.

"Transit passenger" means a passenger of any transportation facility or system engaged in the business of transporting the public for hire, including a passenger using any area designated by a transportation facility or system as a vehicle boarding, departure, or transfer location.

"Utility worker" means any of the following:

(1) A person employed by a public utility as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.

(2) An employee of a municipally owned utility.

(3) An employee of a cable television company.

(4) An employee of an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3-119 of the Public Utilities Act.

(5) An independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a cable television company, public utility, municipally owned utility, or electric cooperative.

(6) An employee of a telecommunications carrier as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telecommunications carrier.

(7) An employee of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, or an independent contractor or an employee of an independent contractor working on behalf of a telephone or telecommunications cooperative.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.

(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:

(1) A person with a physical disability physically handicapped person or a person 60 years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Act the Air Rifle Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-225, eff. 7-28-11; 97-313, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or has a physical disability physically handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her duties as a nurse.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-369, eff. 1-1-14; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)

Sec. 12C-10. Child abandonment.

(a) A person commits child abandonment when he or she, as a parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly leaves that child who is under the age of 13 without supervision by a responsible person over the age of 14 for a period of 24 hours or more. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the following factors:

(1) the age of the child;

(2) the number of children left at the location;

(3) special needs of the child, including whether the child is a person with a physical or mental disability is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the child was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the child was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the child was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the child was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was left without supervision, the physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was without supervision;

(9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or the child was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the child was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the child;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the child;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the child;

(14) any other factor that would endanger the health or safety of that particular child;

(15) whether the child was left under the supervision of another person.

(c) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3 felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-30)

Sec. 16-30. Identity theft; aggravated identity theft.

(a) A person commits identity theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property;

(2) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a);

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony;

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identification information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority;

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony;

(6) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identification information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person;

(7.5) uses, possesses, or transfers a radio frequency identification device capable of obtaining or processing personal identifying information from a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag or transponder with knowledge that the device will be used by the person or another to commit a felony violation of State law or any violation of this Article; or

(8) in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a roofing or fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing or fire sprinkler portion of the project; it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this paragraph (8) that the building permit applicant promptly informed the unit of local government that issued the building permit of any change in the roofing or fire sprinkler contractor.

(b) Aggravated identity theft. A person commits aggravated identity theft when he or she commits identity theft as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) against a person 60 years of age or older or a person with a disability; or

(2) in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang.

A defense to aggravated identity theft does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age. For the purposes of this subsection, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.

(d) When a charge of identity theft or aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Identity theft.

(A) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(i) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 3 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly person or person with a disability or disabled person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(ii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 2 felony.

(iii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 1 felony.

(iv) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class X felony.

(v) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(B) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(C) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(D) A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(E) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony for a first offense and a Class X felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(F) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Aggravated identity theft.

(A) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(B) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(C) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 in value and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(D) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(E) Aggravated identity theft for a violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(F) Aggravated identity theft when a person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) of subsection (a) of this Section with identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is a Class 1 felony.

(G) A person who has been previously convicted of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-333, eff. 8-12-11, and 97-388, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.5) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) another actual person and does an act in such assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) a representative of an actual person or organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(7.5) The legal guardian, including any representative of a State or public guardian, of a person with a disability disabled person appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:

(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform, badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(3), or (b)(7.5) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5), (a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(g) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.

(Source: P.A. 97-219, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates change to Sec. 32-5 from 97-219; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1125, eff. 1-1-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-6)

Sec. 17-6. State benefits fraud.

(a) A person commits State benefits fraud when he or she obtains or attempts to obtain money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof through the knowing use of false identification documents or through the knowing misrepresentation of his or her age, place of residence, number of dependents, marital or family status, employment status, financial status, or any other material fact upon which his eligibility for or degree of participation in any benefit program might be based.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of State law to the contrary, every application or other document submitted to an agency or department of the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof to establish or determine eligibility for money or benefits from the State of Illinois or from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, shall be made available upon request to any law enforcement agency for use in the investigation or prosecution of State benefits fraud or for use in the investigation or prosecution of any other crime arising out of the same transaction or occurrence. Except as otherwise permitted by law, information disclosed pursuant to this subsection shall be used and disclosed only for the purposes provided herein. The provisions of this Section shall be operative only to the extent that they do not conflict with any federal law or regulation governing federal grants to this State.

(c) Any employee of the State of Illinois or any agency or political subdivision thereof may seize as evidence any false or fraudulent document presented to him or her in connection with an application for or receipt of money or benefits from the State of Illinois, from any political subdivision thereof, or from any program funded or administered in whole or in part by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof.

(d) Sentence.

(1) State benefits fraud is a Class 4 felony except when more than $300 is obtained, in which case State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony.

(2) If a person knowingly misrepresents oneself as a veteran or as a dependent of a veteran with the intent of obtaining benefits or privileges provided by the State or its political subdivisions to veterans or their dependents, then State benefits fraud is a Class 3 felony when $300 or less is obtained and a Class 2 felony when more than $300 is obtained. For the purposes of this paragraph (2), benefits and privileges include, but are not limited to, those benefits and privileges available under the Veterans' Employment Act, the Viet Nam Veterans Compensation Act, the Prisoner of War Bonus Act, the War Bonus Extension Act, the Military Veterans Assistance Act, the Veterans' Employment Representative Act, the Veterans Preference Act, the Service Member's Employment Tenure Act, the Housing for Veterans with Disabilities Act Disabled Veterans Housing Act, the Under Age Veterans Benefits Act, the Survivors Compensation Act, the Children of Deceased Veterans Act, the Veterans Burial Places Act, the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, or any other loans, assistance in employment, monetary payments, or tax exemptions offered by the State or its political subdivisions for veterans or their dependents.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-6.5)

Sec. 17-6.5. Persons under deportation order; ineligibility for benefits.

(a) An individual against whom a United States Immigration Judge has issued an order of deportation which has been affirmed by the Board of Immigration Review, as well as an individual who appeals such an order pending appeal, under paragraph 19 of Section 241(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act relating to persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies, shall be ineligible for the following benefits authorized by State law:

(1) The homestead exemptions and homestead improvement exemption under Sections 15-170, 15-175, 15-176, and 15-180 of the Property Tax Code.

(2) Grants under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act.

(3) The double income tax exemption conferred upon persons 65 years of age or older by Section 204 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(4) Grants provided by the Department on Aging.

(5) Reductions in vehicle registration fees under Section 3-806.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(6) Free fishing and reduced fishing license fees under Sections 20-5 and 20-40 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(7) Tuition free courses for senior citizens under the Senior Citizen Courses Act.

(8) Any benefits under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) If a person has been found by a court to have knowingly received benefits in violation of subsection (a) and:

(1) the total monetary value of the benefits received is less than $150, the person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony;

(2) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $150 or more but less than $1,000, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony;

(3) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $1,000 or more but less than $5,000, the person is guilty of a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony;

(4) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $5,000 or more but less than $10,000, the person is guilty of a Class 2 felony; a second or subsequent violation is a Class 1 felony; or

(5) the total monetary value of the benefits received is $10,000 or more, the person is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(c) For purposes of determining the classification of an offense under this Section, all of the monetary value of the benefits received as a result of the unlawful act, practice, or course of conduct may be accumulated.

(d) Any grants awarded to persons described in subsection (a) may be recovered by the State of Illinois in a civil action commenced by the Attorney General in the circuit court of Sangamon County or the State's Attorney of the county of residence of the person described in subsection (a).

(e) An individual described in subsection (a) who has been deported shall be restored to any benefits which that individual has been denied under State law pursuant to subsection (a) if (i) the Attorney General of the United States has issued an order cancelling deportation and has adjusted the status of the individual to that of an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States or (ii) the country to which the individual has been deported adjudicates or exonerates the individual in a judicial or administrative proceeding as not being guilty of the persecution of others on account of race, religion, national origin, or political opinion under the direction of or in association with the Nazi government of Germany or its allies.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.2) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-29)

Sec. 17-10.2. Businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; fraudulent contracts with governmental units.

(a) In this Section:

"Minority person" means a person who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Female" means a person who is of the female gender.

"Person with a disability" means a person who is a person qualifying as having a disability being disabled.

"Disability Disabled" means a severe physical or mental disability that: (1) results from: amputation, arthritis, autism, blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy, cystic fibrosis, deafness, head injury, heart disease, hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction, an intellectual disability, mental illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders, neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy, paraplegia, quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions, sickle cell anemia, specific learning disabilities, or end stage renal failure disease; and (2) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

"Minority owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

"Female owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

"Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

"Governmental unit" means the State, a unit of local government, or school district.

(b) In addition to any other penalties imposed by law or by an ordinance or resolution of a unit of local government or school district, any individual or entity that knowingly obtains, or knowingly assists another to obtain, a contract with a governmental unit, or a subcontract or written commitment for a subcontract under a contract with a governmental unit, by falsely representing that the individual or entity, or the individual or entity assisted, is a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony, regardless of whether the preference for awarding the contract to a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability was established by statute or by local ordinance or resolution.

(c) In addition to any other penalties authorized by law, the court shall order that an individual or entity convicted of a violation of this Section must pay to the governmental unit that awarded the contract a penalty equal to one and one-half times the amount of the contract obtained because of the false representation.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 18-1)

Sec. 18-1. Robbery; aggravated robbery.

(a) Robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly takes property, except a motor vehicle covered by Section 18-3 or 18-4, from the person or presence of another by the use of force or by threatening the imminent use of force.

(b) Aggravated robbery.

(1) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she violates subsection (a) while indicating verbally or by his or her actions to the victim that he or she is presently armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon. This offense shall be applicable even though it is later determined that he or she had no firearm or other dangerous weapon, including a knife, club, ax, or bludgeon, in his or her possession when he or she committed the robbery.

(2) A person commits aggravated robbery when he or she knowingly takes property from the person or presence of another by delivering (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any controlled substance.

(c) Sentence.

Robbery is a Class 2 felony, unless the victim is 60 years of age or over or is a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person, or the robbery is committed in a school, day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, or place of worship, in which case robbery is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated robbery is a Class 1 felony.

(d) Regarding penalties prescribed in subsection (c) for violations committed in a day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility, the time of day, time of year, and whether children under 18 years of age were present in the day care center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child care facility are irrelevant.

(Source: P.A. 96-556, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/18-4)

Sec. 18-4. Aggravated vehicular hijacking.

(a) A person commits aggravated vehicular hijacking when he or she violates Section 18-3; and

(1) the person from whose immediate presence the motor vehicle is taken is a person with a physical disability physically handicapped person or a person 60 years of age or over; or

(2) a person under 16 years of age is a passenger in the motor vehicle at the time of the offense; or

(3) he or she carries on or about his or her person, or is otherwise armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm; or

(4) he or she carries on or about his or her person or is otherwise armed with a firearm; or

(5) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm; or

(6) he or she, during the commission of the offense, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated vehicular hijacking in violation of subsections (a)(1) or (a)(2) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years shall be imposed. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)

Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm ammunition.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:

(1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or

(2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(4) He has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession. For purposes of this paragraph (4):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(5) He is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.

For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap.

(b) Sentence.

Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-10)

Sec. 48-10. Dangerous animals.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Dangerous animal" means a lion, tiger, leopard, ocelot, jaguar, cheetah, margay, mountain lion, lynx, bobcat, jaguarundi, bear, hyena, wolf or coyote. Dangerous animal does not mean any herptiles included in the Herptiles-Herps Act.

"Owner" means any person who (1) has a right of property in a dangerous animal or primate, (2) keeps or harbors a dangerous animal or primate, (3) has a dangerous animal or primate in his or her care, or (4) acts as custodian of a dangerous animal or primate.

"Person" means any individual, firm, association, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity, any public or private institution, the State, or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of the State.

"Primate" means a nonhuman member of the order primate, including but not limited to chimpanzee, gorilla, orangutan, bonobo, gibbon, monkey, lemur, loris, aye-aye, and tarsier.

(b) Dangerous animal or primate offense. No person shall have a right of property in, keep, harbor, care for, act as custodian of or maintain in his or her possession any dangerous animal or primate except at a properly maintained zoological park, federally licensed exhibit, circus, college or university, scientific institution, research laboratory, veterinary hospital, hound running area, or animal refuge in an escape-proof enclosure.

(c) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not prohibit a person who had lawful possession of a primate before January 1, 2011, from continuing to possess that primate if the person registers the animal by providing written notification to the local animal control administrator on or before April 1, 2011. The notification shall include:

(A) the person's name, address, and telephone number; and

(B) the type of primate, the age, a photograph, a description of any tattoo, microchip, or other identifying information, and a list of current inoculations.

(2) This Section does not prohibit a person who has a permanent disability is permanently disabled with a severe mobility impairment from possessing a single capuchin monkey to assist the person in performing daily tasks if:

(A) the capuchin monkey was obtained from and trained at a licensed nonprofit organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, the nonprofit tax status of which was obtained on the basis of a mission to improve the quality of life of severely mobility-impaired individuals; and

(B) the person complies with the notification requirements as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c).

(d) A person who registers a primate shall notify the local animal control administrator within 30 days of a change of address. If the person moves to another locality within the State, the person shall register the primate with the new local animal control administrator within 30 days of moving by providing written notification as provided in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) and shall include proof of the prior registration.

(e) A person who registers a primate shall notify the local animal control administrator immediately if the primate dies, escapes, or bites, scratches, or injures a person.

(f) It is no defense to a violation of subsection (b) that the person violating subsection (b) has attempted to domesticate the dangerous animal. If there appears to be imminent danger to the public, any dangerous animal found not in compliance with the provisions of this Section shall be subject to seizure and may immediately be placed in an approved facility. Upon the conviction of a person for a violation of subsection (b), the animal with regard to which the conviction was obtained shall be confiscated and placed in an approved facility, with the owner responsible for all costs connected with the seizure and confiscation of the animal. Approved facilities include, but are not limited to, a zoological park, federally licensed exhibit, humane society, veterinary hospital or animal refuge.

(g) Sentence. Any person violating this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor. Any corporation or partnership, any officer, director, manager or managerial agent of the partnership or corporation who violates this Section or causes the partnership or corporation to violate this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor. Each day of violation constitutes a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-752, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 885. The Discrimination in Sale of Real Estate Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 590/1) (from Ch. 38, par. 70-51)

Sec. 1. Inducements to sell or purchase by reason of race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, creed, physical or mental disability handicap, or sex - Prohibition of Solicitation.

It shall be unlawful for any person or corporation knowingly:

(a) To solicit for sale, lease, listing or purchase any residential real estate within the State of Illinois, on the grounds of loss of value due to the present or prospective entry into the vicinity of the property involved of any person or persons of any particular race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, creed, physical or mental disability handicap, or sex.

(b) To distribute or cause to be distributed, written material or statements designed to induce any owner of residential real estate in the State of Illinois to sell or lease his or her property because of any present or prospective changes in the race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, creed, physical or mental disability handicap, or sex, of residents in the vicinity of the property involved.

(c) To intentionally create alarm, among residents of any community, by transmitting in any manner including a telephone call whether or not conversation thereby ensues, with a design to induce any owner of residential real estate in the State of Illinois to sell or lease his or her property because of any present or prospective entry into the vicinity of the property involved of any person or persons of any particular race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, creed, physical or mental disability handicap, or sex.

(d) To solicit any owner of residential property to sell or list such residential property at any time after such person or corporation has notice that such owner does not desire to sell such residential property. For the purpose of this subsection, notice must be provided as follows:

(1) The notice may be given by the owner personally or by a third party in the owner's name, either in the form of an individual notice or a list, provided it complies with this subsection.

(2) Such notice shall be explicit as to whether each owner on the notice seeks to avoid both solicitation for listing and sale, or only for listing, or only for sale, as well as the period of time for which any avoidance is desired. The notice shall be dated and either of the following shall apply: (A) each owner shall have signed the notice or (B) the person or entity preparing the notice shall provide an accompanying affidavit to the effect that all the names on the notice are, in fact, genuine as to the identity of the persons listed and that such persons have requested not to be solicited as indicated.

(3) The individual notice, or notice in the form of a list with the accompanying affidavit, shall be served personally or by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested.

(Source: P.A. 80-338; 80-920; 80-1364.)

Section 890. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Section 102-23 and the heading of Article 106B and Sections 106B-5, 110-5, 114-15, 115-10, and 122-2.2 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/102-23)

Sec. 102-23. "Person with a moderate intellectual disability Moderately intellectually disabled person" means a person whose intelligence quotient is between 41 and 55 and who does not suffer from significant mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/Art. 106B heading)

ARTICLE 106B. VICTIMS OF SEXUAL ABUSE: CHILDREN AND PERSONS

WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES CHILD AND DEVELOPMENTALLY

DISABLED VICTIMS OF SEXUAL ABUSE

(Source: P.A. 95-897, eff. 1-1-09.)

(725 ILCS 5/106B-5)

Sec. 106B-5. Testimony by a victim who is a child or a person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or a person affected by a developmental disability.

(a) In a proceeding in the prosecution of an offense of criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, a court may order that the testimony of a victim who is a child under the age of 18 years or a person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or a person affected by a developmental disability be taken outside the courtroom and shown in the courtroom by means of a closed circuit television if:

(1) the testimony is taken during the proceeding; and

(2) the judge determines that testimony by the child victim or victim with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled victim or victim affected by a developmental disability in the courtroom will result in the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability suffering serious emotional distress such that the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability cannot reasonably communicate or that the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability will suffer severe emotional distress that is likely to cause the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability to suffer severe adverse effects.

(b) Only the prosecuting attorney, the attorney for the defendant, and the judge may question the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability.

(c) The operators of the closed circuit television shall make every effort to be unobtrusive.

(d) Only the following persons may be in the room with the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability when the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability testifies by closed circuit television:

(1) the prosecuting attorney;

(2) the attorney for the defendant;

(3) the judge;

(4) the operators of the closed circuit television equipment; and

(5) any person or persons whose presence, in the opinion of the court, contributes to the well-being of the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability, including a person who has dealt with the child in a therapeutic setting concerning the abuse, a parent or guardian of the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability, and court security personnel.

(e) During the child's or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability's moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person's or person affected by a developmental disability's testimony by closed circuit television, the defendant shall be in the courtroom and shall not communicate with the jury if the cause is being heard before a jury.

(f) The defendant shall be allowed to communicate with the persons in the room where the child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person or person affected by a developmental disability is testifying by any appropriate electronic method.

(g) The provisions of this Section do not apply if the defendant represents himself pro se.

(h) This Section may not be interpreted to preclude, for purposes of identification of a defendant, the presence of both the victim and the defendant in the courtroom at the same time.

(i) This Section applies to prosecutions pending on or commenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1994.

(j) For the purposes of this Section, "developmental disability" includes, but is not limited to, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and autism.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-5)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining the amount of monetary bail or conditions of release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of bail, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as the nature and circumstances of the offense charged, whether the evidence shows that as part of the offense there was a use of violence or threatened use of violence, whether the offense involved corruption of public officials or employees, whether there was physical harm or threats of physical harm to any public official, public employee, judge, prosecutor, juror or witness, senior citizen, child, or person with a disability handicapped person, whether evidence shows that during the offense or during the arrest the defendant possessed or used a firearm, machine gun, explosive or metal piercing ammunition or explosive bomb device or any military or paramilitary armament, whether the evidence shows that the offense committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, the condition of the victim, any written statement submitted by the victim or proffer or representation by the State regarding the impact which the alleged criminal conduct has had on the victim and the victim's concern, if any, with further contact with the defendant if released on bail, whether the offense was based on racial, religious, sexual orientation or ethnic hatred, the likelihood of the filing of a greater charge, the likelihood of conviction, the sentence applicable upon conviction, the weight of the evidence against such defendant, whether there exists motivation or ability to flee, whether there is any verification as to prior residence, education, or family ties in the local jurisdiction, in another county, state or foreign country, the defendant's employment, financial resources, character and mental condition, past conduct, prior use of alias names or dates of birth, and length of residence in the community, the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing in accordance with Section 110-6.5, whether a foreign national defendant is lawfully admitted in the United States of America, whether the government of the foreign national maintains an extradition treaty with the United States by which the foreign government will extradite to the United States its national for a trial for a crime allegedly committed in the United States, whether the defendant is currently subject to deportation or exclusion under the immigration laws of the United States, whether the defendant, although a United States citizen, is considered under the law of any foreign state a national of that state for the purposes of extradition or non-extradition to the United States, the amount of unrecovered proceeds lost as a result of the alleged offense, the source of bail funds tendered or sought to be tendered for bail, whether from the totality of the court's consideration, the loss of funds posted or sought to be posted for bail will not deter the defendant from flight, whether the evidence shows that the defendant is engaged in significant possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or cannabis, either individually or in consort with others, whether at the time of the offense charged he or she was on bond or pre-trial release pending trial, probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge pursuant to this Code or the comparable Code of any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is on bond or pre-trial release pending the imposition or execution of sentence or appeal of sentence for any offense under the laws of Illinois or any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is under parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or work release from the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or any penal institution or corrections department of any state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's record of convictions, whether the defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or ordinance offense in Illinois or similar offense in other state or federal jurisdiction within the 10 years preceding the current charge or convicted of a felony in Illinois, whether the defendant was convicted of an offense in another state or federal jurisdiction that would be a felony if committed in Illinois within the 20 years preceding the current charge or has been convicted of such felony and released from the penitentiary within 20 years preceding the current charge if a penitentiary sentence was imposed in Illinois or other state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's records of juvenile adjudication of delinquency in any jurisdiction, any record of appearance or failure to appear by the defendant at court proceedings, whether there was flight to avoid arrest or prosecution, whether the defendant escaped or attempted to escape to avoid arrest, whether the defendant refused to identify himself or herself, or whether there was a refusal by the defendant to be fingerprinted as required by law. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. If the State presents evidence that the offense committed by the defendant was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, and if the court determines that the evidence may be substantiated, the court shall prohibit the defendant from associating with other members of the organized gang as a condition of bail or release. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(b) The amount of bail shall be:

(1) Sufficient to assure compliance with the conditions set forth in the bail bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding any change in his or her address. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(2) Not oppressive.

(3) Considerate of the financial ability of the accused.

(4) When a person is charged with a drug related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the full street value of the drugs seized shall be considered. "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of a proffer by the State based upon reliable information of a law enforcement official contained in a written report as to the amount seized and such proffer may be used by the court as to the current street value of the smallest unit of the drug seized.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a written request demonstrating reasonable cause, the State's Attorney may request a source of bail hearing either before or after the posting of any funds. If the hearing is granted, before the posting of any bail, the accused must file a written notice requesting that the court conduct a source of bail hearing. The notice must be accompanied by justifying affidavits stating the legitimate and lawful source of funds for bail. At the hearing, the court shall inquire into any matters stated in any justifying affidavits, and may also inquire into matters appropriate to the determination which shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of any surety; and

(2) the source of any money or property deposited by any surety, and whether any such money or property constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(3) the source of any money posted as cash bail, and whether any such money constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(4) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of the person posting cash bail.

Upon setting the hearing, the court shall examine, under oath, any persons who may possess material information.

The State's Attorney has a right to attend the hearing, to call witnesses and to examine any witness in the proceeding. The court shall, upon request of the State's Attorney, continue the proceedings for a reasonable period to allow the State's Attorney to investigate the matter raised in any testimony or affidavit. If the hearing is granted after the accused has posted bail, the court shall conduct a hearing consistent with this subsection (b-5). At the conclusion of the hearing, the court must issue an order either approving of disapproving the bail.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense punishable by fine only the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the maximum penalty.

(d) When a person has been convicted of an offense and only a fine has been imposed the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the fine.

(e) The State may appeal any order granting bail or setting a given amount for bail.

(f) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or when a person is charged with domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint, stalking, aggravated stalking, cyberstalking, harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or an attempt to commit first degree murder committed against an intimate partner regardless whether an order of protection has been issued against the person,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved the use of a weapon, physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(12) based on any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint,

the court may, in its discretion, order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation using a recognized, evidence-based instrument conducted by an Illinois Department of Human Services approved partner abuse intervention program provider, pretrial service, probation, or parole agency. These agencies shall have access to summaries of the defendant's criminal history, which shall not include victim interviews or information, for the risk evaluation. Based on the information collected from the 12 points to be considered at a bail hearing under this subsection (f), the results of any risk evaluation conducted and the other circumstances of the violation, the court may order that the person, as a condition of bail, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Upon making a determination whether or not to order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation or to be placed under electronic surveillance and risk assessment, the court shall document in the record the court's reasons for making those determinations. The cost of the electronic surveillance and risk assessment shall be paid by, or on behalf, of the defendant. As used in this subsection (f), "intimate partner" means a spouse or a current or former partner in a cohabitation or dating relationship.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1012, eff. 1-1-15.)

(725 ILCS 5/114-15)

Sec. 114-15. Intellectual disability.

(a) In a first degree murder case in which the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, any party may raise the issue of the defendant's intellectual disabilities by motion. A defendant wishing to raise the issue of his or her intellectual disabilities shall provide written notice to the State and the court as soon as the defendant reasonably believes such issue will be raised.

(b) The issue of the defendant's intellectual disabilities shall be determined in a pretrial hearing. The court shall be the fact finder on the issue of the defendant's intellectual disabilities and shall determine the issue by a preponderance of evidence in which the moving party has the burden of proof. The court may appoint an expert in the field of intellectual disabilities. The defendant and the State may offer experts from the field of intellectual disabilities. The court shall determine admissibility of evidence and qualification as an expert.

(c) If after a plea of guilty to first degree murder, or a finding of guilty of first degree murder in a bench trial, or a verdict of guilty for first degree murder in a jury trial, or on a matter remanded from the Supreme Court for sentencing for first degree murder, and the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, the defendant may raise the issue of defendant's intellectual disabilities not at eligibility but at aggravation and mitigation. The defendant and the State may offer experts from the field of intellectual disabilities. The court shall determine admissibility of evidence and qualification as an expert.

(d) In determining whether the defendant is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled, the intellectual disability must have manifested itself by the age of 18. IQ tests and psychometric tests administered to the defendant must be the kind and type recognized by experts in the field of intellectual disabilities. In order for the defendant to be considered a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled, a low IQ must be accompanied by significant deficits in adaptive behavior in at least 2 of the following skill areas: communication, self-care, social or interpersonal skills, home living, self-direction, academics, health and safety, use of community resources, and work. An intelligence quotient (IQ) of 75 or below is presumptive evidence of an intellectual disability.

(e) Evidence of an intellectual disability that did not result in disqualifying the case as a capital case, may be introduced as evidence in mitigation during a capital sentencing hearing. A failure of the court to determine that the defendant is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled does not preclude the court during trial from allowing evidence relating to mental disability should the court deem it appropriate.

(f) If the court determines at a pretrial hearing or after remand that a capital defendant is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled, and the State does not appeal pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604, the case shall no longer be considered a capital case and the procedural guidelines established for capital cases shall no longer be applicable to the defendant. In that case, the defendant shall be sentenced under the sentencing provisions of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-10)

Sec. 115-10. Certain hearsay exceptions.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical or sexual act perpetrated upon or against a child under the age of 13, or a person who was a person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person as defined in this Code and in Section 2-10.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 at the time the act was committed, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3 (unlawful restraint), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5 (child abduction), 10-6 (harboring a runaway), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction), 11-9 (public indecency), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-1 (assault), 12-2 (aggravated assault), 12-3 (battery), 12-3.2 (domestic battery), 12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery), 12-3.05 or 12-4 (aggravated battery), 12-4.1 (heinous battery), 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm), 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child), 12-4.7 (drug induced infliction of great bodily harm), 12-5 (reckless conduct), 12-6 (intimidation), 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.1 (hate crime), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-10 or 12C-35 (tattooing the body of a minor), 12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion), 12-21.5 or 12C-10 (child abandonment), 12-21.6 or 12C-5 (endangering the life or health of a child) or 12-32 (ritual mutilation) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or any sex offense as defined in subsection (B) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by the victim of an out of court statement made by the victim that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the victim describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a sexual or physical act against that victim.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The child or person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement; and

(3) In a case involving an offense perpetrated against a child under the age of 13, the out of court statement was made before the victim attained 13 years of age or within 3 months after the commission of the offense, whichever occurs later, but the statement may be admitted regardless of the age of the victim at the time of the proceeding.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the age and maturity of the child, or the intellectual capabilities of the person with a moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(e) Statements described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) shall not be excluded on the basis that they were obtained as a result of interviews conducted pursuant to a protocol adopted by a Child Advocacy Advisory Board as set forth in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of Section 3 of the Children's Advocacy Center Act or that an interviewer or witness to the interview was or is an employee, agent, or investigator of a State's Attorney's office.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/122-2.2)

Sec. 122-2.2. Intellectual disability and post-conviction relief.

(a) In cases where no determination of an intellectual disability was made and a defendant has been convicted of first-degree murder, sentenced to death, and is in custody pending execution of the sentence of death, the following procedures shall apply:

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or rule of court, a defendant may seek relief from the death sentence through a petition for post-conviction relief under this Article alleging that the defendant was a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled as defined in Section 114-15 at the time the offense was alleged to have been committed.

(2) The petition must be filed within 180 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or within 180 days of the issuance of the mandate by the Illinois Supreme Court setting the date of execution, whichever is later.

(b) (3) All other provisions of this Article governing petitions for post-conviction relief shall apply to a petition for post-conviction relief alleging an intellectual disability.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 895. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. The terms used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Crime victim" and "victim" mean (1) a person physically injured in this State as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (2) a person who suffers injury to or loss of property as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (3) a single representative who may be the spouse, parent, child or sibling of a person killed as a result of a violent crime perpetrated against the person killed or the spouse, parent, child or sibling of any person granted rights under this Act who is physically or mentally incapable of exercising such rights, except where the spouse, parent, child or sibling is also the defendant or prisoner or (4) any person against whom a violent crime has been committed or (5) any person who has suffered personal injury as a result of a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or of a similar provision of a local ordinance, or of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or (6) in proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, both parents, legal guardians, foster parents, or a single adult representative of a minor or person with a disability disabled person who is a crime victim.

(b) "Witness" means any person who personally observed the commission of a violent crime and who will testify on behalf of the State of Illinois in the criminal prosecution of the violent crime.

(c) "Violent Crime" means any felony in which force or threat of force was used against the victim, or any offense involving sexual exploitation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration, or a violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, or any misdemeanor which results in death or great bodily harm to the victim or any violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the violation resulted in personal injury or death, and includes any action committed by a juvenile that would be a violent crime if committed by an adult. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal injury" shall include any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) "Sentencing Hearing" means any hearing where a sentence is imposed by the court on a convicted defendant and includes hearings conducted pursuant to Sections 5-6-4, 5-6-4.1, 5-7-2 and 5-7-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) "Court proceedings" includes the preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of the defendant from custody or to alter the conditions of bond, the trial, sentencing hearing, notice of appeal, any modification of sentence, probation revocation hearings, aftercare release or parole hearings.

(f) "Concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(Source: P.A. 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 900. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/90)

Sec. 90. Committed persons ability to pay for services.

Each person committed or detained under this Act who receives services provided directly or funded by the Department and the estate of that person is liable for the payment of sums representing charges for services to the person at a rate to be determined by the Department. Services charges against that person take effect on the date of admission or the effective date of this Section. The Department in its rules may establish a maximum rate for the cost of services. In the case of any person who has received residential services from the Department, whether directly from the Department or through a public or private agency or entity funded by the Department, the liability shall be the same regardless of the source of services. When the person is placed in a facility outside the Department, the facility shall collect reimbursement from the person. The Department may supplement the contribution of the person to private facilities after all other sources of income have been utilized; however the supplement shall not exceed the allowable rate under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act for those persons eligible for those respective programs. The Department may pay the actual costs of services or maintenance in the facility and may collect reimbursement for the entire amount paid from the person or an amount not to exceed the maximum. Lesser or greater amounts may be accepted by the Department when conditions warrant that action or when offered by persons not liable under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall preclude the Department from applying federal benefits that are specifically provided for the care and treatment of a person with a disability disabled person toward the cost of care provided by a State facility or private agency. The Department may investigate the financial condition of each person committed under this Act, may make determinations of the ability of each such person to pay sums representing services charges, and for those purposes may set a standard as a basis of judgment of ability to pay. The Department shall by rule make provisions for unusual and exceptional circumstances in the application of that standard. The Department may issue to any person liable under this Act a statement of amount due as treatment charges requiring him or her to pay monthly, quarterly, or otherwise as may be arranged, an amount not exceeding that required under this Act, plus fees to which the Department may be entitled under this Act.

(a) Whenever an individual is covered, in part or in whole, under any type of insurance arrangement, private or public, for services provided by the Department, the proceeds from the insurance shall be considered as part of the individual's ability to pay notwithstanding that the insurance contract was entered into by a person other than the individual or that the premiums for the insurance were paid for by a person other than the individual. Remittances from intermediary agencies under Title XVIII of the Federal Social Security Act for services to committed persons shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and placed in the Mental Health Fund. Payments received from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act for services to those persons shall be deposited with the State Treasurer and shall be placed in the General Revenue Fund.

(b) Any person who has been issued a Notice of Determination of sums due as services charges may petition the Department for a review of that determination. The petition must be in writing and filed with the Department within 90 days from the date of the Notice of Determination. The Department shall provide for a hearing to be held on the charges for the period covered by the petition. The Department may after the hearing, cancel, modify, or increase the former determination to an amount not to exceed the maximum provided for the person by this Act. The Department at its expense shall take testimony and preserve a record of all proceedings at the hearing upon any petition for a release from or modification of the determination. The petition and other documents in the nature of pleadings and motions filed in the case, a transcript of testimony, findings of the Department, and orders of the Secretary constitute the record. The Secretary shall furnish a transcript of the record to any person upon payment of 75¢ per page for each original transcript and 25¢ per page for each copy of the transcript. Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Department upon a hearing may, within 30 days thereafter, file a petition with the Department for review of the decision by the Board of Reimbursement Appeals established in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Board of Reimbursement Appeals may approve action taken by the Department or may remand the case to the Secretary with recommendation for redetermination of charges.

(c) Upon receiving a petition for review under subsection (b) of this Section, the Department shall thereupon notify the Board of Reimbursement Appeals which shall render its decision thereon within 30 days after the petition is filed and certify such decision to the Department. Concurrence of a majority of the Board is necessary in any such decision. Upon request of the Department, the State's Attorney of the county in which a client who is liable under this Act for payment of sums representing services charges resides, shall institute appropriate legal action against any such client, or within the time provided by law shall file a claim against the estate of the client who fails or refuses to pay those charges. The court shall order the payment of sums due for services charges for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require. The order may be entered against any defendant and may be based upon the proportionate ability of each defendant to contribute to the payment of sums representing services charges including the actual charges for services in facilities outside the Department where the Department has paid those charges. Orders for the payment of money may be enforced by attachment as for contempt against the persons of the defendants and, in addition, as other judgments for the payment of money, and costs may be adjudged against the defendants and apportioned among them.

(d) The money collected shall be deposited into the Mental Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 905. The State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act is amended by changing Section 4.10 as follows:

(725 ILCS 210/4.10) (from Ch. 14, par. 204.10)

Sec. 4.10. The Office may conduct and charge tuition for training programs for State's Attorneys, Assistant State's Attorneys and other law enforcement officers. The Office shall conduct training programs and provide technical trial assistance for Illinois State's Attorneys, Assistant State's Attorneys, and law enforcement officers on: (1) constitutional, statutory, and case law issues; (2) forensic evidence; (3) prosecutorial ethics and professional responsibility; and (4) a continuum of trial advocacy techniques and methods, including an emphasis on the elimination of or reduction in the trauma of testifying in criminal proceedings for vulnerable populations including seniors, persons with disabilities disabled persons, and children who serve as witnesses in such proceedings. The Office may make grants for these purposes. In addition, the Office may publish, disseminate and sell publications and newsletters which digest current Appellate and Supreme Court cases and legislative developments of importance to prosecutors and law enforcement officials. The moneys collected by the Office from the programs and publications provided for in this Section shall be deposited in the Continuing Legal Education Trust Fund, which special fund is hereby created in the State Treasury. In addition, such appropriations, gifts or grants of money as the Office may secure from any public or private source for the purposes described in this Section shall be deposited in the Continuing Legal Education Trust Fund. The General Assembly shall make appropriations from the Continuing Legal Education Trust Fund for the expenses of the Office incident to conducting the programs and publishing the materials provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-641, eff. 12-19-11.)

Section 910. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-12-16, 5-1-8, 5-1-13, 5-5-3, 5-5-3.1, 5-5-3.2, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, and 5-7-1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-12-16)

Sec. 3-12-16. Helping Paws Service Dog Program.

(a) In this Section:

"Person with a disability Disabled person" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.

"Program" means the Helping Paws Service Dog Program created by this Section.

"Service dog" means a dog trained in obedience and task skills to meet the needs of a person with a disability disabled person.

"Animal care professional" means a person certified to work in animal care related services, such as grooming, kenneling, and any other related fields.

"Service dog professional" means a person certified to train service dogs by an agency, organization, or school approved by the Department.

(b) The Department may establish the Helping Paws Service Dog Program to train committed persons to be service dog trainers and animal care professionals. The Department shall select committed persons in various correctional institutions and facilities to participate in the Program.

(c) Priority for participation in the Program must be given to committed persons who either have a high school diploma or have passed high school equivalency testing.

(d) The Department may contract with service dog professionals to train committed persons to be certified service dog trainers. Service dog professionals shall train committed persons in dog obedience training, service dog training, and animal health care. Upon successful completion of the training, a committed person shall receive certification by an agency, organization, or school approved by the Department.

(e) The Department may designate a non-profit organization to select animals from humane societies and shelters for the purpose of being trained as service dogs and for participation in any program designed to train animal care professionals.

(f) After a dog is trained by the committed person as a service dog, a review committee consisting of an equal number of persons from the Department and the non-profit organization shall select a person with a disability disabled person to receive the service dog free of charge.

(g) Employees of the Department shall periodically visit persons with disabilities disabled persons who have received service dogs from the Department under this Section to determine whether the needs of the persons with disabilities disabled persons have been met by the service dogs trained by committed persons.

(h) Employees of the Department shall periodically visit committed persons who have been certified as service dog trainers or animal care professionals and who have been paroled or placed on mandatory supervised release to determine whether the committed persons are using their skills as certified service dog trainers or animal care professionals.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-1-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-1-8)

Sec. 5-1-8. Defendant in Need of Mental Treatment. "Defendant in need of mental treatment" means any defendant afflicted with a mental disorder, not including a person with an intellectual disability who is intellectually disabled, if that defendant, as a result of such mental disorder, is reasonably expected at the time of determination or within a reasonable time thereafter to intentionally or unintentionally physically injure himself or other persons, or is unable to care for himself so as to guard himself from physical injury or to provide for his own physical needs.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-1-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-1-13)

Sec. 5-1-13. Intellectual disability Intellectually Disabled. "Intellectual disability" means Intellectually disabled" and "intellectual disability" mean sub-average general intellectual functioning generally originating during the developmental period and associated with impairment in adaptive behavior reflected in delayed maturation or reduced learning ability or inadequate social adjustment.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of high school equivalency testing. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional sentence credit for good conduct as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 97-159, eff. 7-21-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-917, eff. 8-9-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.1)

Sec. 5-5-3.1. Factors in Mitigation.

(a) The following grounds shall be accorded weight in favor of withholding or minimizing a sentence of imprisonment:

(1) The defendant's criminal conduct neither caused nor threatened serious physical harm to another.

(2) The defendant did not contemplate that his criminal conduct would cause or threaten serious physical harm to another.

(3) The defendant acted under a strong provocation.

(4) There were substantial grounds tending to excuse or justify the defendant's criminal conduct, though failing to establish a defense.

(5) The defendant's criminal conduct was induced or facilitated by someone other than the defendant.

(6) The defendant has compensated or will compensate the victim of his criminal conduct for the damage or injury that he sustained.

(7) The defendant has no history of prior delinquency or criminal activity or has led a law-abiding life for a substantial period of time before the commission of the present crime.

(8) The defendant's criminal conduct was the result of circumstances unlikely to recur.

(9) The character and attitudes of the defendant indicate that he is unlikely to commit another crime.

(10) The defendant is particularly likely to comply with the terms of a period of probation.

(11) The imprisonment of the defendant would entail excessive hardship to his dependents.

(12) The imprisonment of the defendant would endanger his or her medical condition.

(13) The defendant was a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled as defined in Section 5-1-13 of this Code.

(14) The defendant sought or obtained emergency medical assistance for an overdose and was convicted of a Class 3 felony or higher possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substance or a controlled substance analog under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a Class 2 felony or higher possession, manufacture or delivery of methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) If the court, having due regard for the character of the offender, the nature and circumstances of the offense and the public interest finds that a sentence of imprisonment is the most appropriate disposition of the offender, or where other provisions of this Code mandate the imprisonment of the offender, the grounds listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection shall be considered as factors in mitigation of the term imposed.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-678, eff. 6-1-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who has a physical disability is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm or who was a person with a disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person or person with a disability;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit; or

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person who had a physical disability physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-693, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-14, eff. 1-1-14; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) if convicted of a felony or of any misdemeanor violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that was determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to trigger the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession. The Court shall return to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses; and

(12) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the probation and court services fund.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred, or which has agreed to provide supervision, may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). For all transfer cases, as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act, the probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer. After the transfer all probation fees shall be paid to the probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-575, eff. 1-1-14; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(c-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution payments unpaid at least 90 days before the supervision expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the supervision period or in a revocation of supervision. If the court does not extend supervision, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or her last known address written notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-7-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-7-1)

Sec. 5-7-1. Sentence of Periodic Imprisonment.

(a) A sentence of periodic imprisonment is a sentence of imprisonment during which the committed person may be released for periods of time during the day or night or for periods of days, or both, or if convicted of a felony, other than first degree murder, a Class X or Class 1 felony, committed to any county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility in this State for such periods of time as the court may direct. Unless the court orders otherwise, the particular times and conditions of release shall be determined by the Department of Corrections, the sheriff, or the Superintendent of the house of corrections, who is administering the program.

(b) A sentence of periodic imprisonment may be imposed to permit the defendant to:

(1) seek employment;

(2) work;

(3) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation including housekeeping;

(4) attend to family needs;

(5) attend an educational institution, including vocational education;

(6) obtain medical or psychological treatment;

(7) perform work duties at a county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility;

(8) continue to reside at home with or without supervision involving the use of an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V; or

(9) for any other purpose determined by the court.

(c) Except where prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court may impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment for a felony or misdemeanor on a person who is 17 years of age or older. The court shall not impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment if it imposes a sentence of imprisonment upon the defendant in excess of 90 days.

(d) A sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be for a definite term of from 3 to 4 years for a Class 1 felony, 18 to 30 months for a Class 2 felony, and up to 18 months, or the longest sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed for the offense, whichever is less, for all other offenses; however, no person shall be sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment longer than one year if he is committed to a county correctional institution or facility, and in conjunction with that sentence participate in a county work release program comparable to the work and day release program provided for in Article 13 of the Unified Code of Corrections in State facilities. The term of the sentence shall be calculated upon the basis of the duration of its term rather than upon the basis of the actual days spent in confinement. No sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be subject to the good time credit provisions of Section 3-6-3 of this Code.

(e) When the court imposes a sentence of periodic imprisonment, it shall state:

(1) the term of such sentence;

(2) the days or parts of days which the defendant is to be confined;

(3) the conditions.

(f) The court may issue an order of protection pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 as a condition of a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 shall govern the issuance, enforcement and recording of orders of protection issued under this Section. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency having responsibility for the case.

(f-5) An offender sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(g) An offender sentenced to periodic imprisonment who undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all offenders with a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) All fees and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(i) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or a felony and who is sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment may as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward receiving a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant sentenced to periodic imprisonment must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (i). The defendant sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the sentence of periodic imprisonment of the defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (i). The court shall resentence the defendant whose sentence of periodic imprisonment has been revoked as provided in Section 5-7-2. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 915. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 13-114 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/13-114) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-114)

Sec. 13-114. Seventy-five year limitation. No deed, will, estate, proof of heirship, plat, affidavit or other instrument or document, or any court proceeding, order or judgment, or any agreement, written or unwritten, sealed or unsealed, or any fact, event, or statement, or any part or copy of any of the foregoing, relating to or affecting the title to real estate in the State of Illinois, which happened, was administered, or was executed, dated, delivered, recorded or entered into more than 75 years prior to July 1, 1872, or such subsequent date as the same is offered, presented, urged, claimed, asserted, or appears against any person hereafter becoming interested in the title to any real estate, or to any agent or attorney thereof, shall adversely to the party or parties hereafter coming into possession of such real estate under claim or color of title or persons claiming under him, her or them, constitute notice, either actual or constructive of any right, title, interest or claim in and to such real estate, or any part thereof, or be, or be considered to be evidence or admissible in evidence or be held or urged to make any title unmarketable in part or in whole, or be required or allowed to be alleged or proved as a basis for any action, or any statutory proceeding affecting directly or indirectly the title to such real estate.

The limitation of this Section, however, shall be deferred from and after the expiration of such 75 year period for an additional period of 10 years, if a claim in writing in and to real estate therein particularly described, incorporating the terms or substance of any such deed, will, estate, proof of heirship, plat, affidavit, or other instrument or document, or any court proceeding, order or judgment or any agreement, written or unwritten, sealed or unsealed, or any fact, event or statement, or any part or copy thereof in such claim, is filed in the office of the recorder in the county or counties in which such real estate is located:

1. within 3 years prior to the expiration of such 75 year period; or

2. after the expiration of such 75 year period, by a minor or a claimant under a legal disability who became under such disability during such 75 year period and within 2 years after the disability of such minor or of the claimant a under legal disability has been removed; or

3. after the expiration of such 75 year period, by a guardian of a minor or person who was determined by a court to be under a legal disability became legally disabled during such 75 year period and within 2 years after such guardian has been appointed for such minor or person under a legal disability.

The provisions of this Section shall not apply to or operate against the United States of America or the State of Illinois or any other state of the United States of America; or as to real estate held for a public purpose by any municipality or other political subdivision of the State of Illinois; or against any person under whom the party or parties in possession during the period herein permitted for reassertion of title claim by lease or other privity of contract; or against any person who during the entire period herein permitted for reassertion of title, or prior thereto, has not had the right to sue for and protect his or her claim, interest or title.

(Source: P.A. 83-1362.)

Section 920. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/6.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 76.1)

Sec. 6.1. Right to compensation. A person is entitled to compensation under this Act if:

(a) Within 2 years of the occurrence of the crime, or within one year after a criminal charge of a person for an offense, upon which the claim is based, he files an application, under oath, with the Court of Claims and on a form prescribed in accordance with Section 7.1 furnished by the Attorney General. If the person entitled to compensation is under 18 years of age or under other legal disability at the time of the occurrence or is determined by a court to be under a legal disability becomes legally disabled as a result of the occurrence, he may file the application required by this subsection within 2 years after he attains the age of 18 years or the disability is removed, as the case may be. Legal disability includes a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder.

(b) For all crimes of violence, except those listed in subsection (b-1) of this Section, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 72 hours of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing the death or injury to the victim or, in the event such notification was made more than 72 hours after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that such notice was timely under the circumstances.

(b-1) For victims of offenses defined in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 7 days of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing death or injury to the victim or, in the event that the notification was made more than 7 days after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that the notice was timely under the circumstances. If the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order, or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute appropriate notification under this subsection (b-1) or subsection (b) of this Section.

(c) The applicant has cooperated with law enforcement officials in the apprehension and prosecution of the assailant. If the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute cooperation under this subsection (c).

(d) The applicant is not the offender or an accomplice of the offender and the award would not unjustly benefit the offender or his accomplice.

(e) The injury to or death of the victim was not substantially attributable to his own wrongful act and was not substantially provoked by the victim.

(f) For victims of offenses defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim submits a statement under oath on a form prescribed by the Attorney General attesting that the removed tattoo was applied in connection with the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-435, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 925. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 804)

Sec. 4. (a) The following persons shall be entitled, upon request, to inspect and copy a recipient's record or any part thereof:

(1) the parent or guardian of a recipient who is under 12 years of age;

(2) the recipient if he is 12 years of age or older;

(3) the parent or guardian of a recipient who is at least 12 but under 18 years, if the recipient is informed and does not object or if the therapist does not find that there are compelling reasons for denying the access. The parent or guardian who is denied access by either the recipient or the therapist may petition a court for access to the record. Nothing in this paragraph is intended to prohibit the parent or guardian of a recipient who is at least 12 but under 18 years from requesting and receiving the following information: current physical and mental condition, diagnosis, treatment needs, services provided, and services needed, including medication, if any;

(4) the guardian of a recipient who is 18 years or older;

(5) an attorney or guardian ad litem who represents a minor 12 years of age or older in any judicial or administrative proceeding, provided that the court or administrative hearing officer has entered an order granting the attorney this right;

(6) an agent appointed under a recipient's power of attorney for health care or for property, when the power of attorney authorizes the access;

(7) an attorney-in-fact appointed under the Mental Health Treatment Preference Declaration Act; or

(8) any person in whose care and custody the recipient has been placed pursuant to Section 3-811 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(b) Assistance in interpreting the record may be provided without charge and shall be provided if the person inspecting the record is under 18 years of age. However, access may in no way be denied or limited if the person inspecting the record refuses the assistance. A reasonable fee may be charged for duplication of a record. However, when requested to do so in writing by any indigent recipient, the custodian of the records shall provide at no charge to the recipient, or to the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Developmentally Disabled Persons Act or to any other not-for-profit agency whose primary purpose is to provide free legal services or advocacy for the indigent and who has received written authorization from the recipient under Section 5 of this Act to receive his records, one copy of any records in its possession whose disclosure is authorized under this Act.

(c) Any person entitled to access to a record under this Section may submit a written statement concerning any disputed or new information, which statement shall be entered into the record. Whenever any disputed part of a record is disclosed, any submitted statement relating thereto shall accompany the disclosed part. Additionally, any person entitled to access may request modification of any part of the record which he believes is incorrect or misleading. If the request is refused, the person may seek a court order to compel modification.

(d) Whenever access or modification is requested, the request and any action taken thereon shall be noted in the recipient's record.

(Source: P.A. 96-1399, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1453, eff. 8-20-10.)

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police requests information from a mental health or developmental disability facility, as defined in Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the facility director determines that disclosure of such information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public official, or a person under the protection of the United States Secret Service, only the following information may be disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any information which would indicate whether or not the recipient has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or is a public official.

For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28 U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or children of a public official.

(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such information as may be required for the sole purpose of determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or falls within the federal prohibitors under subsection (e), (f), (g), (r), (s), or (t) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or falls within the federal prohibitors in 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All physicians, clinical psychologists, or qualified examiners at public or private mental health facilities or parts thereof as defined in this subsection shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, provide notice directly to the Department of Human Services, or to his or her employer who shall then report to the Department, within 24 hours after determining that a patient as described in clause (2) of the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others, or is determined to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled. This information shall be furnished within 24 hours after the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner has made a determination, or within 7 days after admission to a public or private hospital or mental health facility or the provision of services to a patient described in clause (1) of the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required by subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of such information shall guarantee that no information is released beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be provided by the Department within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to provide the necessary information within the prescribed time period, which may include periodically providing lists to the Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card applicants on which the Department or hospital shall indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its knowledge disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card for reasons described herein. The Department may provide for a centralized source of information for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction. The identity of the person reporting under this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. For the purposes of this subsection, the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of records and communications otherwise in accordance with this provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.

For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following terms shall have the meaning prescribed:

(1) (Blank).

(1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(1.5) "Person with a developmental disability" Developmentally disabled" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(2) "Patient" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(3) "Mental health facility" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person into custody and transports such person to a mental health or developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or 4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or who transports a person from such facility, a facility director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address, age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported to or from the mental health or developmental disability facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis, treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical health.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer" and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency participating in good faith in disclosing such information in accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Section 930. The Sports Volunteer Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(745 ILCS 80/1) (from Ch. 70, par. 701)

Sec. 1. Manager, coach, umpire or referee negligence standard.

(a) General rule. Except as provided otherwise in this Section, no person who, without compensation and as a volunteer, renders services as a manager, coach, instructor, umpire or referee or who, without compensation and as a volunteer, assists a manager, coach, instructor, umpire or referee in a sports program of a nonprofit association, shall be liable to any person for any civil damages as a result of any acts or omissions in rendering such services or in conducting or sponsoring such sports program, unless the conduct of such person falls substantially below the standards generally practiced and accepted in like circumstances by similar persons rendering such services or conducting or sponsoring such sports programs, and unless it is shown that such person did an act or omitted the doing of an act which such person was under a recognized duty to another to do, knowing or having reason to know that such act or omission created a substantial risk of actual harm to the person or property of another. It shall be insufficient to impose liability to establish only that the conduct of such person fell below ordinary standards of care.

(b) Exceptions.

(1) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting or modifying the liability of such person or a nonprofit association for any of the following:

(i) Acts or omissions relating to the transportation of participants in a sports program or others to or from a game, event or practice.

(ii) Acts or omissions relating to the care and maintenance of real estate unrelated to the practice or playing areas which such persons or nonprofit associations own, possess or control.

(2) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting or modifying any existing legal basis for determining the liability, or any defense thereto, of any person not covered by the standard of negligence established by this Section.

(c) Assumption of risk or comparative fault. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting or modifying the doctrine of assumption of risk or comparative fault on the part of the participant.

(d) Definitions. As used in this Act the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:

"Compensation" means any payment for services performed but does not include reimbursement for reasonable expenses actually incurred or to be incurred or, solely in the case of umpires or referees, a modest honorarium.

"Nonprofit association" means an entity which is organized as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of this State or the United States or a nonprofit unincorporated association or any entity which is authorized to do business in this State as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of this State, including, but not limited to, youth or athletic associations, volunteer fire, ambulance, religious, charitable, fraternal, veterans, civic, county fair or agricultural associations, or any separately chartered auxiliary of the foregoing, if organized and operated on a nonprofit basis.

"Sports program" means baseball (including softball), football, basketball, soccer or any other competitive sport formally recognized as a sport by the United States Olympic Committee as specified by and under the jurisdiction of the Amateur Sports Act of 1978 (36 U.S.C. 371 et seq.), the Amateur Athletic Union or the National Collegiate Athletic Association. The term shall be limited to a program or that portion of a program that is organized for recreational purposes and whose activities are substantially for such purposes and which is primarily for participants who are 18 years of age or younger or whose 19th birthday occurs during the year of participation or the competitive season, whichever is longer. There shall, however, be no age limitation for programs operated for persons with physical or intellectual disabilities the physically handicapped or intellectually disabled.

(e) Nothing in this Section is intended to bar any cause of action against a nonprofit association or change the liability of such an association which arises out of an act or omission of any person exempt from liability under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 935. The Predator Accountability Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(740 ILCS 128/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Sex trade" means any act, which if proven beyond a reasonable doubt could support a conviction for a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution); 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution); 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute); 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute); 11-16 (pandering); 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution); 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution); 11-19 (pimping); 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping); 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child); 11-20 (obscenity); 11-20.1 (child pornography); or 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography); or Section 10-9 (trafficking in persons and involuntary servitude).

"Sex trade" activity may involve adults and youth of all genders and sexual orientations.

"Victim of the sex trade" means, for the following sex trade acts, the person or persons indicated:

(1) soliciting for a prostitute: the prostitute who is the object of the solicitation;

(2) soliciting for a juvenile prostitute: the juvenile prostitute, or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who is the object of the solicitation;

(3) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or pandering: the person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute;

(4) keeping a place of prostitution: any person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(5) keeping a place of juvenile prostitution: any juvenile intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(6) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or pimping: the prostitute from whom anything of value is received;

(7) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping: the juvenile, or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(8) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or exploitation of a child: the juvenile, or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, intended or compelled to act as a prostitute or from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(9) obscenity: any person who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material;

(10) child pornography or aggravated child pornography: any child, or person with a severe or profound intellectual disability severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material; or

(11) trafficking of persons or involuntary servitude: a "trafficking victim" as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 940. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 216, 513, 601, and 607 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/216) (from Ch. 40, par. 216)

Sec. 216. Prohibited Marriages Void if Contracted in Another State.) That if any person residing and intending to continue to reside in this state and who is a person with a disability disabled or prohibited from contracting marriage under the laws of this state, shall go into another state or country and there contract a marriage prohibited and declared void by the laws of this state, such marriage shall be null and void for all purposes in this state with the same effect as though such prohibited marriage had been entered into in this state.

(Source: P.A. 80-923.)

(750 ILCS 5/513) (from Ch. 40, par. 513)

Sec. 513. Support for Non-minor Children and Educational Expenses.

(a) The court may award sums of money out of the property and income of either or both parties or the estate of a deceased parent, as equity may require, for the support of the child or children of the parties who have attained majority in the following instances:

(1) When the child is a person with a mental or physical disability mentally or physically disabled and not otherwise emancipated, an application for support may be made before or after the child has attained majority.

(2) The court may also make provision for the educational expenses of the child or children of the parties, whether of minor or majority age, and an application for educational expenses may be made before or after the child has attained majority, or after the death of either parent. The authority under this Section to make provision for educational expenses extends not only to periods of college education or professional or other training after graduation from high school, but also to any period during which the child of the parties is still attending high school, even though he or she attained the age of 19. The educational expenses may include, but shall not be limited to, room, board, dues, tuition, transportation, books, fees, registration and application costs, medical expenses including medical insurance, dental expenses, and living expenses during the school year and periods of recess, which sums may be ordered payable to the child, to either parent, or to the educational institution, directly or through a special account or trust created for that purpose, as the court sees fit.

If educational expenses are ordered payable, each parent and the child shall sign any consents necessary for the educational institution to provide the supporting parent with access to the child's academic transcripts, records, and grade reports. The consents shall not apply to any non-academic records. Failure to execute the required consent may be a basis for a modification or termination of any order entered under this Section. Unless the court specifically finds that the child's safety would be jeopardized, each parent is entitled to know the name of the educational institution the child attends. This amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly applies to all orders entered under this paragraph (2) on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

The authority under this Section to make provision for educational expenses, except where the child is a person with a mental or physical disability mentally or physically disabled and not otherwise emancipated, terminates when the child receives a baccalaureate degree.

(b) In making awards under paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a), or pursuant to a petition or motion to decrease, modify, or terminate any such award, the court shall consider all relevant factors that appear reasonable and necessary, including:

(1) The financial resources of both parents.

(2) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved.

(3) The financial resources of the child.

(4) The child's academic performance.

(Source: P.A. 95-954, eff. 8-29-08.)

(750 ILCS 5/601) (from Ch. 40, par. 601)

Sec. 601. Jurisdiction; Commencement of Proceeding.

(a) A court of this State competent to decide child custody matters has jurisdiction to make a child custody determination in original or modification proceedings as provided in Section 201 of the Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act as adopted by this State.

(b) A child custody proceeding is commenced in the court:

(1) by a parent, by filing a petition:

(i) for dissolution of marriage or legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage; or

(ii) for custody of the child, in the county in which he is permanently resident or found;

(2) by a person other than a parent, by filing a petition for custody of the child in the county in which he is permanently resident or found, but only if he is not in the physical custody of one of his parents; or

(3) by a stepparent, by filing a petition, if all of the following circumstances are met:

(A) the child is at least 12 years old;

(B) the custodial parent and stepparent were married for at least 5 years during which the child resided with the parent and stepparent;

(C) the custodial parent is deceased or is a person with a disability disabled and cannot perform the duties of a parent to the child;

(D) the stepparent provided for the care, control, and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of custody proceedings;

(E) the child wishes to live with the stepparent; and

(F) it is alleged to be in the best interests and welfare of the child to live with the stepparent as provided in Section 602 of this Act; or .

(4) when When one of the parents is deceased, by a grandparent who is a parent or stepparent of a deceased parent, by filing a petition, if one or more of the following existed at the time of the parent's death:

(A) the surviving parent had been absent from the marital abode for more than one month without the deceased spouse knowing his or her whereabouts;

(B) the surviving parent was in State or federal custody; or

(C) the surviving parent had: (i) received supervision for or been convicted of any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-35, 12C-40, 12C-45, 18-6, 19-6, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 directed towards the deceased parent or the child; or (ii) received supervision or been convicted of violating an order of protection entered under Section 217, 218, or 219 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 for the protection of the deceased parent or the child.

(c) Notice of a child custody proceeding, including an action for modification of a previous custody order, shall be given to the child's parents, guardian and custodian, who may appear, be heard, and file a responsive pleading. The court, upon showing of good cause, may permit intervention of other interested parties.

(d) Proceedings for modification of a previous custody order commenced more than 30 days following the entry of a previous custody order must be initiated by serving a written notice and a copy of the petition for modification upon the child's parent, guardian and custodian at least 30 days prior to hearing on the petition. Nothing in this Section shall preclude a party in custody modification proceedings from moving for a temporary order under Section 603 of this Act.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The court shall, at the court's discretion or upon the request of any party entitled to petition for custody of the child, appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the best interest of the child for the duration of the custody proceeding or for any modifications of any custody orders entered. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the court from appointing the same guardian ad litem for 2 or more children that are siblings or half-siblings.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)

(750 ILCS 5/607) (from Ch. 40, par. 607)

Sec. 607. Visitation.

(a) A parent not granted custody of the child is entitled to reasonable visitation rights unless the court finds, after a hearing, that visitation would endanger seriously the child's physical, mental, moral or emotional health. If the custodian's street address is not identified, pursuant to Section 708, the court shall require the parties to identify reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation by a non-custodial parent, including but not limited to visitation of the minor child at the residence of another person or at a local public or private facility.

(1) "Visitation" means in-person time spent between a child and the child's parent. In appropriate circumstances, it may include electronic communication under conditions and at times determined by the court.

(2) "Electronic communication" means time that a parent spends with his or her child during which the child is not in the parent's actual physical custody, but which is facilitated by the use of communication tools such as the telephone, electronic mail, instant messaging, video conferencing or other wired or wireless technologies via the Internet, or another medium of communication.

(a-3) Grandparents, great-grandparents, and siblings of a minor child, who is one year old or older, have standing to bring an action in circuit court by petition, requesting visitation in accordance with this Section. The term "sibling" in this Section means a brother, sister, stepbrother, or stepsister of the minor child. Grandparents, great-grandparents, and siblings also have standing to file a petition for visitation and any electronic communication rights in a pending dissolution proceeding or any other proceeding that involves custody or visitation issues, requesting visitation in accordance with this Section. A petition for visitation with a child by a person other than a parent must be filed in the county in which the child resides. Nothing in this subsection (a-3) and subsection (a-5) of this Section shall apply to a child in whose interests a petition is pending under Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or a petition to adopt an unrelated child is pending under the Adoption Act.

(a-5)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (a-5), any grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling may file a petition for visitation rights to a minor child if there is an unreasonable denial of visitation by a parent and at least one of the following conditions exists:

(A) (Blank);

(A-5) the child's other parent is deceased or has been missing for at least 3 months. For the purposes of this Section a parent is considered to be missing if the parent's location has not been determined and the parent has been reported as missing to a law enforcement agency;

(A-10) a parent of the child is incompetent as a matter of law;

(A-15) a parent has been incarcerated in jail or prison during the 3 month period preceding the filing of the petition;

(B) the child's mother and father are divorced or have been legally separated from each other or there is pending a dissolution proceeding involving a parent of the child or another court proceeding involving custody or visitation of the child (other than any adoption proceeding of an unrelated child) and at least one parent does not object to the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling having visitation with the child. The visitation of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling must not diminish the visitation of the parent who is not related to the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling seeking visitation;

(C) (Blank);

(D) the child is born out of wedlock, the parents are not living together, and the petitioner is a maternal grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child born out of wedlock; or

(E) the child is born out of wedlock, the parents are not living together, the petitioner is a paternal grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling, and the paternity has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) Any visitation rights granted pursuant to this Section before the filing of a petition for adoption of a child shall automatically terminate by operation of law upon the entry of an order terminating parental rights or granting the adoption of the child, whichever is earlier. If the person or persons who adopted the child are related to the child, as defined by Section 1 of the Adoption Act, any person who was related to the child as grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling prior to the adoption shall have standing to bring an action pursuant to this Section requesting visitation with the child.

(3) In making a determination under this subsection (a-5), there is a rebuttable presumption that a fit parent's actions and decisions regarding grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation are not harmful to the child's mental, physical, or emotional health. The burden is on the party filing a petition under this Section to prove that the parent's actions and decisions regarding visitation times are harmful to the child's mental, physical, or emotional health.

(4) In determining whether to grant visitation, the court shall consider the following:

(A) the preference of the child if the child is determined to be of sufficient maturity to express a preference;

(B) the mental and physical health of the child;

(C) the mental and physical health of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling;

(D) the length and quality of the prior relationship between the child and the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling;

(E) the good faith of the party in filing the petition;

(F) the good faith of the person denying visitation;

(G) the quantity of the visitation time requested and the potential adverse impact that visitation would have on the child's customary activities;

(H) whether the child resided with the petitioner for at least 6 consecutive months with or without the current custodian present;

(I) whether the petitioner had frequent or regular contact or visitation with the child for at least 12 consecutive months;

(J) any other fact that establishes that the loss of the relationship between the petitioner and the child is likely to harm the child's mental, physical, or emotional health; and

(K) whether the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling was a primary caretaker of the child for a period of not less than 6 consecutive months.

(5) The court may order visitation rights for the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling that include reasonable access without requiring overnight or possessory visitation.

(a-7)(1) Unless by stipulation of the parties, no motion to modify a grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation order may be made earlier than 2 years after the date the order was filed, unless the court permits it to be made on the basis of affidavits that there is reason to believe the child's present environment may endanger seriously the child's mental, physical, or emotional health.

(2) The court shall not modify an order that grants visitation to a grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling unless it finds by clear and convincing evidence, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior visitation order or that were unknown to the court at the time of entry of the prior visitation, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child or his or her custodian, and that the modification is necessary to protect the mental, physical, or emotional health of the child. The court shall state in its decision specific findings of fact in support of its modification or termination of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation. A child's parent may always petition to modify visitation upon changed circumstances when necessary to promote the child's best interest.

(3) Attorney fees and costs shall be assessed against a party seeking modification of the visitation order if the court finds that the modification action is vexatious and constitutes harassment.

(4) Notice under this subsection (a-7) shall be given as provided in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 601.

(b) (1) (Blank.)

(1.5) The Court may grant reasonable visitation privileges to a stepparent upon petition to the court by the stepparent, with notice to the parties required to be notified under Section 601 of this Act, if the court determines that it is in the best interests and welfare of the child, and may issue any necessary orders to enforce those visitation privileges. A petition for visitation privileges may be filed under this paragraph (1.5) whether or not a petition pursuant to this Act has been previously filed or is currently pending if the following circumstances are met:

(A) the child is at least 12 years old;

(B) the child resided continuously with the parent and stepparent for at least 5 years;

(C) the parent is deceased or is a person with a disability disabled and is unable to care for the child;

(D) the child wishes to have reasonable visitation with the stepparent; and

(E) the stepparent was providing for the care, control, and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of the petition for visitation.

(2)(A) A petition for visitation privileges shall not be filed pursuant to this subsection (b) by the parents or grandparents of a putative father if the paternity of the putative father has not been legally established.

(B) A petition for visitation privileges may not be filed under this subsection (b) if the child who is the subject of the grandparents' or great-grandparents' petition has been voluntarily surrendered by the parent or parents, except for a surrender to the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services or a foster care facility, or has been previously adopted by an individual or individuals who are not related to the biological parents of the child or is the subject of a pending adoption petition by an individual or individuals who are not related to the biological parents of the child.

(3) (Blank).

(c) The court may modify an order granting or denying visitation rights of a parent whenever modification would serve the best interest of the child; but the court shall not restrict a parent's visitation rights unless it finds that the visitation would endanger seriously the child's physical, mental, moral or emotional health.

(d) If any court has entered an order prohibiting a non-custodial parent of a child from any contact with a child or restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child, the following provisions shall apply:

(1) If an order has been entered granting visitation privileges with the child to a grandparent or great-grandparent who is related to the child through the non-custodial parent, the visitation privileges of the grandparent or great-grandparent may be revoked if:

(i) a court has entered an order prohibiting the non-custodial parent from any contact with the child, and the grandparent or great-grandparent is found to have used his or her visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the non-custodial parent; or

(ii) a court has entered an order restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child, and the grandparent or great-grandparent is found to have used his or her visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the non-custodial parent in a manner that violates the terms of the order restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child.

Nothing in this subdivision (1) limits the authority of the court to enforce its orders in any manner permitted by law.

(2) Any order granting visitation privileges with the child to a grandparent or great-grandparent who is related to the child through the non-custodial parent shall contain the following provision:

"If the (grandparent or great-grandparent, whichever is applicable) who has been granted visitation privileges under this order uses the visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the child's non-custodial parent, the visitation privileges granted under this order shall be permanently revoked."

(e) No parent, not granted custody of the child, or grandparent, or great-grandparent, or stepparent, or sibling of any minor child, convicted of any offense involving an illegal sex act perpetrated upon a victim less than 18 years of age including but not limited to offenses for violations of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, is entitled to visitation rights while incarcerated or while on parole, probation, conditional discharge, periodic imprisonment, or mandatory supervised release for that offense, and upon discharge from incarceration for a misdemeanor offense or upon discharge from parole, probation, conditional discharge, periodic imprisonment, or mandatory supervised release for a felony offense, visitation shall be denied until the person successfully completes a treatment program approved by the court.

(f) Unless the court determines, after considering all relevant factors, including but not limited to those set forth in Section 602(a), that it would be in the best interests of the child to allow visitation, the court shall not enter an order providing visitation rights and pursuant to a motion to modify visitation shall revoke visitation rights previously granted to any person who would otherwise be entitled to petition for visitation rights under this Section who has been convicted of first degree murder of the parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child who is the subject of the order. Until an order is entered pursuant to this subsection, no person shall visit, with the child present, a person who has been convicted of first degree murder of the parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child without the consent of the child's parent, other than a parent convicted of first degree murder as set forth herein, or legal guardian.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Upon motion, the court may allow a parent who is deployed or who has orders to be deployed as a member of the United States Armed Forces to designate a person known to the child to exercise reasonable substitute visitation on behalf of the deployed parent, if the court determines that substitute visitation is in the best interest of the child. In determining whether substitute visitation is in the best interest of the child, the court shall consider all of the relevant factors listed in subsection (a) of Section 602 and apply those factors to the person designated as a substitute for the deployed parent for visitation purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-331, eff. 1-1-10; 97-659, eff. 6-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 945. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/12) (from Ch. 40, par. 1514)

Sec. 12. Consent of child or adult. If, upon the date of the entry of the judgment the person sought to be adopted is of the age of 14 years or upwards, the adoption shall not be made without the consent of such person. Such consent shall be in writing and shall be acknowledged by such person as provided in Section 10 of this Act, provided, that if such person is in need of mental treatment or is a person with an intellectual disability intellectually disabled, the court may waive the provisions of this Section. No consent shall be required under this Section if the person sought to be adopted has died before giving such consent.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 950. The Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(750 ILCS 61/15)

Sec. 15. Address confidentiality program; application; certification.

(a) An adult person, a parent or guardian acting on behalf of a minor, or a guardian acting on behalf of a person with a disability disabled person, as defined in Article 11a of the Probate Act of 1975, may apply to the Attorney General to have an address designated by the Attorney General serve as the person's address or the address of the minor or person with a disability disabled person. The Attorney General shall approve an application if it is filed in the manner and on the form prescribed by him or her and if it contains:

(1) a sworn statement by the applicant that the applicant has good reason to believe (i) that the applicant, or the minor or person with a disability disabled person on whose behalf the application is made, is a victim of domestic violence; and (ii) that the applicant fears for his or her safety or his or her children's safety, or the safety of the minor or person with a disability disabled person on whose behalf the application is made;

(2) a designation of the Attorney General as agent for purposes of service of process and receipt of mail;

(3) the mailing address where the applicant can be contacted by the Attorney General, and the phone number or numbers where the applicant can be called by the Attorney General;

(4) the new address or addresses that the applicant requests not be disclosed for the reason that disclosure will increase the risk of domestic violence; and

(5) the signature of the applicant and of any individual or representative of any office designated in writing under Section 40 of this Act who assisted in the preparation of the application, and the date on which the applicant signed the application.

(b) Applications shall be filed with the office of the Attorney General.

(c) Upon filing a properly completed application, the Attorney General shall certify the applicant as a program participant. Applicants shall be certified for 4 years following the date of filing unless the certification is withdrawn or invalidated before that date. The Attorney General shall by rule establish a renewal procedure.

(d) A person who falsely attests in an application that disclosure of the applicant's address would endanger the applicant's safety or the safety of the applicant's children or the minor or incapacitated person on whose behalf the application is made, or who knowingly provides false or incorrect information upon making an application, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 91-494, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 955. The Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 70/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of a child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Actual notice" means the giving of notice directly, in person, or by telephone.

"Adult family member" means a person over 21 years of age who is the parent, grandparent, step-parent living in the household, or legal guardian.

"Constructive notice" means notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person entitled to notice with delivery deemed to have occurred 48 hours after the certified notice is mailed.

"Incompetent" means any person who has been adjudged as mentally ill or as a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled and who, because of her mental illness or developmental disability, is not fully able to manage her person and for whom a guardian of the person has been appointed under Section 11a-3(a)(1) of the Probate Act of 1975.

"Medical emergency" means a condition that, on the basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial and irreversible impairment of major bodily function.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age who is not or has not been married or who has not been emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

"Neglect" means the failure of an adult family member to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care when reasonably able to do so or the failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that imminently and seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so.

"Physical abuse" means any physical injury intentionally inflicted by an adult family member on a child.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Illinois Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that is prohibited by the criminal laws of the State of Illinois and committed against a minor by an adult family member as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 960. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 1-2.17, 1-2.23, 1-2.24, 2-6.2, 2-6.6, 6-2, 6-6, 6-10, 6-12, 6-13, 6-20, 9-1, 9-3, 9-4, 9-5, 9-6, 9-8, and 11-3 and the heading of Article XIa and Sections 11a-1, 11a-2, 11a-3, 11a-3.1, 11a-3.2, 11a-4, 11a-5, 11a-6, 11a-8, 11a-8.1, 11a-10, 11a-10.2, 11a-11, 11a-12, 11a-13, 11a-16, 11a-17, 11a-18, 11a-18.1, 11a-18.2, 11a-18.3, 11a-20, 11a-22, 11a-24, 12-2, 12-4, 13-2, 13-3.1, 13-5, 18-1.1, 18-8, 23-2, 26-3, 28-2, 28-3, and 28-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/1-2.17) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 1-2.17)

Sec. 1-2.17. "Ward" includes a minor or a person with a disability and disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 81-213.)

(755 ILCS 5/1-2.23)

Sec. 1-2.23. "Standby guardian" means: (i) a guardian of the person or estate, or both, of a minor, as appointed by the court under Section 11-5.3, to become effective at a later date under Section 11-13.1 or (ii) a guardian of the person or estate, or both, of a person with a disability disabled person, as appointed by the court under Section 11a-3.1, to become effective at a later date under Section 11a-18.2.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/1-2.24)

Sec. 1-2.24. "Short-term guardian" means a guardian of the person of a minor as appointed by a parent of the minor under Section 11-5.4 or a guardian of the person of a person with a disability disabled person as appointed by the guardian of the person with a disability disabled person under Section 11a-3.2.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.2)

Sec. 2-6.2. Financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(a) In this Section:

"Abuse" means any offense described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Financial exploitation" means any offense or act described or defined in Section 16-1.3 or 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and, in the context of civil proceedings, the taking, use, or other misappropriation of the assets or resources of an elderly person or a person with a disability contrary to law, including, but not limited to, misappropriation of assets or resources by undue influence, breach of a fiduciary relationship, fraud, deception, extortion, and conversion.

"Neglect" means any offense described in Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) Persons convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability or persons who have been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation shall not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of that elderly person or person with a disability, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, survivor, appointee, claimant under Section 18-1.1, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. Except as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, the property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect or person found civilly liable for financial exploitation died before the decedent, provided that with respect to joint tenancy property the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect shall not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability or a person who has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this subsection (b) if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction or finding of civil liability and subsequent to the conviction or finding of civil liability expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability or the person found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation in any manner contemplated by this subsection (b).

(c)(1) The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section shall not be liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability or the person who has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation if the distribution or release occurs prior to the conviction or finding of civil liability.

(2) If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the person who has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted or found civilly liable after first having received actual written notice of the conviction in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

(d) If the holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section knows that a potential beneficiary has been convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability or has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation within the scope of this Section, the holder shall fully cooperate with law enforcement authorities and judicial officers in connection with any investigation of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect. If the holder is a person or entity that is subject to regulation by a regulatory agency pursuant to the laws of this or any other state or pursuant to the laws of the United States, including but not limited to the business of a financial institution, corporate fiduciary, or insurance company, then such person or entity shall not be deemed to be in violation of this Section to the extent that privacy laws and regulations applicable to such person or entity prevent it from voluntarily providing law enforcement authorities or judicial officers with information.

(e) A civil action against a person for financial exploitation may be brought by an interested person, pursuant to this Section, after the death of the victim or during the lifetime of the victim if the victim is adjudicated a person with a disability disabled. A guardian is under no duty to bring a civil action under this subsection during the ward's lifetime, but may do so if the guardian believes it is in the best interests of the ward.

(f) The court may, in its discretion, consider such facts and circumstances as it deems appropriate to allow the person found civilly liable for financial exploitation to receive a reduction in interest or benefit rather than no interest or benefit as stated under subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-833, eff. 8-1-14.)

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.6)

Sec. 2-6.6. Person convicted of or found civilly liable for certain offenses against the elderly or a person with a disability.

(a) A person who is convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person who has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, may not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of the victim of that offense, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, joint tenant, tenant by the entirety, survivor, appointee, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. Except as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, the property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the person found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, died before the decedent; provided that with respect to joint tenancy property or property held in tenancy by the entirety, the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted or found civilly liable may not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person who has been found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this Section if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction or finding of civil liability and subsequent to the conviction or finding of civil liability expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the person found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, in any manner contemplated by this Section.

(b) The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section is not liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of violating Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or to the person found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act.

(c) If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or person found by a preponderance of the evidence to be civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted or found civilly liable after first having received actual written notice of the conviction or finding of civil liability in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

(d) The Department of State Police shall have access to State of Illinois databases containing information that may help in the identification or location of persons convicted of or found civilly liable for the offenses enumerated in this Section. Interagency agreements shall be implemented, consistent with security and procedures established by the State agency and consistent with the laws governing the confidentiality of the information in the databases. Information shall be used only for administration of this Section.

(e) A civil action against a person for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, may be brought by an interested person, pursuant to this Section, after the death of the victim or during the lifetime of the victim if the victim is adjudicated a person with a disability disabled. A guardian is under no duty to bring a civil action under this subsection during the ward's lifetime, but may do so if the guardian believes it is in the best interests of the ward.

(f) The court may, in its discretion, consider such facts and circumstances as it deems appropriate to allow the person convicted or found civilly liable for financial exploitation, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 2-6.2 of this Act, to receive a reduction in interest or benefit rather than no interest or benefit as stated under subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-833, eff. 8-1-14.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-2)

Sec. 6-2. Petition to admit will or to issue letters.) Anyone desiring to have a will admitted to probate must file a petition therefor in the court of the proper county. The petition must state, if known: (a) the name and place of residence of the testator at the time of his death; (b) the date and place of death; (c) the date of the will and the fact that petitioner believes the will to be the valid last will of the testator; (d) the approximate value of the testator's real and personal estate in this State; (e) the names and post office addresses of all heirs and legatees of the testator and whether any of them is a minor or a person with a disability disabled person; (f) the name and post office address of the executor; and (g) unless supervised administration is requested, the name and address of any personal fiduciary acting or designated to act pursuant to Section 28-3. When the will creates or adds to a trust and the petition states the name and address of the trustee, the petition need not state the name and address of any beneficiary of the trust who is not an heir or legatee. If letters of administration with the will annexed are sought, the petition must also state, if known: (a) the reason for the issuance of the letters, (b) facts showing the right of the petitioner to act as, or to nominate, the administrator with the will annexed, (c) the name and post office address of the person nominated and of each person entitled either to administer or to nominate a person to administer equally with or in preference to the petitioner and (d) if the will has been previously admitted to probate, the date of admission. If a petition for letters of administration with the will annexed states that there are one or more persons entitled either to administer or to nominate a person to administer equally with or in preference to the petitioner, the petitioner must mail a copy of the petition to each such person as provided in Section 9-5 and file proof of mailing with the clerk of the court.

(Source: P.A. 84-555; 84-690.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-6) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-6)

Sec. 6-6. Proof of handwriting of a deceased, disabled or inaccessible witness or a witness with a disability.) (a) If a witness to a will (1) is dead, (2) is blind, (3) is mentally or physically incapable of testifying, (4) cannot be found, (5) is in active service of the armed forces of the United States or (6) is outside this State, the court may admit proof of the handwriting of the witness and such other secondary evidence as is admissible in any court of record to establish written contracts and may admit the will to probate as though it had been proved by the testimony of the witness. On motion of any interested person or on its own motion, the court may require that the deposition of any such witness, who can be found, is mentally and physically capable of testifying and is not in the active service of the armed forces of the United States outside of the continental United States, be taken as the best evidence thereof.

(b) As used in this Section, "continental United States" means the States of the United States and the District of Columbia.

(Source: P.A. 81-213.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-10)

Sec. 6-10. Notice - waiver.) (a) Not more than 14 days after entry of an order admitting or denying admission of a will to probate or appointing a representative, the representative or, if none, the petitioner must mail a copy of the petition to admit the will or for letters and a copy of the order showing the date of entry to each of the testator's heirs and legatees whose names and post office addresses are stated in the petition. If the name or post office address of any heir or legatee is not stated in the petition, the representative or, if none, the petitioner must publish a notice once a week for 3 successive weeks, the first publication to be not more than 14 days after entry of the order, describing the order and the date of entry. The notice shall be published in a newspaper published in the county where the order was entered and may be combined with a notice under Section 18-3. When the petition names a trustee of a trust, it is not necessary to publish for or mail copies of the petition and order to any beneficiary of the trust who is not an heir or legatee. The information mailed or published under this Section must include an explanation, in form prescribed by rule of the Supreme Court of this State, of the rights of heirs and legatees to require formal proof of will under Section 6-21 and to contest the admission or denial of admission of the will to probate under Section 8-1 or 8-2. The petitioner or representative must file proof of mailing and publication, if publication is required, with the clerk of the court.

(b) A copy of the petition and of the order need not be sent to and notice need not be published for any person who is not designated in the petition as a minor or person with a disability disabled person and who personally appeared before the court at the hearing or who filed his waiver of notice.

(Source: P.A. 81-1453.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-12) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-12)

Sec. 6-12. Appointment of guardian ad litem.) When an heir or legatee of a testator is a minor or person with a disability disabled person who is entitled to notice under Section 6-10 at the time an order is entered admitting or denying admission of a will to probate or who is entitled to notice under Section 6-20 or 6-21 of the hearing on the petition to admit the will, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem to protect the interests of the ward with respect to the admission or denial, or to represent the ward at the hearing, if the court finds that (a) the interests of the ward are not adequately represented by a personal fiduciary acting or designated to act pursuant to Section 28-3 or by another party having a substantially identical interest in the proceedings and the ward is not represented by a guardian of his estate and (b) the appointment of a guardian ad litem is necessary to protect the ward's interests.

(Source: P.A. 81-213.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-13) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-13)

Sec. 6-13. Who may act as executor.) (a) A person who has attained the age of 18 years and is a resident of the United States, is not of unsound mind, is not an adjudged person with a disability disabled person as defined in this Act and has not been convicted of a felony, is qualified to act as executor.

(b) If a person named as executor in a will is not qualified to act at the time of admission of the will to probate but thereafter becomes qualified and files a petition for the issuance of letters, takes oath and gives bond as executor, the court may issue letters testamentary to him as co-executor with the executor who has qualified or if no executor has qualified the court may issue letters testamentary to him and revoke the letters of administration with the will annexed.

The court may in its discretion require a nonresident executor to furnish a bond in such amount and with such surety as the court determines notwithstanding any contrary provision of the will.

(Source: P.A. 85-692.)

(755 ILCS 5/6-20) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 6-20)

Sec. 6-20. Petition to admit will to probate on presumption of death of testator - notice.) (a) Anyone desiring to have a will admitted to probate on the presumption of death of the testator must file a petition therefor in the court of the proper county. The petition must state, in addition to the information required by Section 6-2 (other than clauses (a) and (b)), the facts and circumstances raising the presumption, the name and last known post office address of the testator and, if known, the name and post office address of each person in possession or control of any property of the testator.

(b) Not less than 30 days before the hearing on the petition the petitioner must (1) mail a copy of the petition to the testator at his last known address, to each of the testator's heirs and legatees whose names and post office addresses are stated in the petition and to each person shown by the petition to be in possession or control of any property of the testator, and (2) publish a notice of the hearing on the petition once a week for 3 successive weeks, the first publication to be not less than 30 days before the hearing. The notice must state the time and place of the hearing, the name of the testator and, when known, the names of the heirs and legatees. The petitioner shall endorse the time and place of the hearing on each copy of the petition mailed by him. When the petition names a trustee of a trust, it is not necessary to mail a copy of the petition to any beneficiary of the trust who is not an heir or legatee, or to include the name of such beneficiary in the published notice. If any person objects to the admission of the will to probate, the court may require that such notice of the time and place of the hearing as it directs be given to any beneficiary of the trust not previously notified. The petitioner must file proof of mailing and proof of publication with the clerk of the court.

(c) A copy of the petition need not be sent to any person not designated in the petition as a minor or person with a disability disabled person who personally appears before the court at the hearing or who files his waiver of notice.

(d) When a will is admitted to probate on presumption of the testator's death, the notice provided for in Section 6-10 is not required.

(Source: P.A. 81-1453.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. Who may act as administrator. A person who has attained the age of 18 years, is a resident of the United States, is not of unsound mind, is not an adjudged person with a disability disabled person as defined in this Act and has not been convicted of a felony, is qualified to act as administrator.

(Source: P.A. 90-430, eff. 8-16-97; 90-472, eff. 8-17-97.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-3)

Sec. 9-3. Persons entitled to preference in obtaining letters. The following persons are entitled to preference in the following order in obtaining the issuance of letters of administration and of administration with the will annexed:

(a) The surviving spouse or any person nominated by the surviving spouse.

(b) The legatees or any person nominated by them, with preference to legatees who are children.

(c) The children or any person nominated by them.

(d) The grandchildren or any person nominated by them.

(e) The parents or any person nominated by them.

(f) The brothers and sisters or any person nominated by them.

(g) The nearest kindred or any person nominated by them.

(h) The representative of the estate of a deceased ward.

(i) The Public Administrator.

(j) A creditor of the estate.

Only a person qualified to act as administrator under this Act may nominate, except that the guardian of the estate, if any, otherwise the guardian of the person, of a person who is not qualified to act as administrator solely because of minority or legal disability may nominate on behalf of the minor or person with a disability disabled person in accordance with the order of preference set forth in this Section. A person who has been removed as representative under this Act loses the right to name a successor.

When several persons are claiming and are equally entitled to administer or to nominate an administrator, the court may grant letters to one or more of them or to the nominee of one or more of them.

(Source: P.A. 90-430, eff. 8-16-97; 90-472, eff. 8-17-97; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-4) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-4)

Sec. 9-4. Petition to issue letters.) Anyone desiring to have letters of administration issued on the estate of an intestate decedent shall file a petition therefor in the court of the proper county. The petition shall state, if known: (a) the name and place of residence of the decedent at the time of his death; (b) the date and place of death; (c) the approximate value of the decedent's real and personal estate in this State; (d) the names and post office addresses of all heirs of the decedent and whether any of them is a minor or person with a disability disabled person and whether any of them is entitled either to administer or to nominate a person to administer equally with or in preference to the petitioner; (e) the name and post office address of the person nominated as administrator; (f) the facts showing the right of the petitioner to act as or to nominate the administrator; (g) when letters of administration de bonis non are sought, the reason for the issuance of the letters; and (h) unless supervised administration is requested, the name and address of any personal fiduciary acting or designated to act pursuant to Section 28-3.

(Source: P.A. 84-555; 84-690.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-5) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-5)

Sec. 9-5. Notice-Waiver.) (a) Not less than 30 days before the hearing on the petition to issue letters, the petitioner shall mail a copy of the petition, endorsed with the time and place of the hearing, to each person named in the petition whose post office address is stated and who is entitled either to administer or to nominate a person to administer equally with or in preference to the petitioner.

(b) Not more than 14 days after entry of an order directing that original letters of office issue to an administrator, the administrator shall mail a copy of the petition to issue letters and a copy of the order showing the date of its entry to each of the decedent's heirs who was not entitled to notice of the hearing on the petition under subsection (a). If the name or post office address of any heir is not stated in the petition, the administrator shall publish a notice once a week for 3 successive weeks, the first publication to be not more than 14 days after entry of the order, describing the order and the date of entry. The notice shall be published in a newspaper published in the county where the order was entered and may be combined with a notice under Section 18-3. The administrator shall file proof of mailing and publication, if publication is required, with the clerk of the court.

(c) A copy of the petition and of the order need not be sent to, nor notice published for, any person not designated in the petition as a minor or as a person with a disability disabled person and who personally appeared before the court at the hearing or who files his waiver of notice.

(Source: P.A. 84-555; 84-690.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-6) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-6)

Sec. 9-6. Petition to issue letters on presumption of death of decedent - notice - waiver.) (a) Anyone desiring to have original letters of administration issued on the presumption of death of the decedent shall file a petition therefor in the court of the proper county. The petition shall state, in addition to the information required by clauses (c) through (h) of Section 9-4, the facts and circumstances raising the presumption, the name and last known post office address of the decedent and, if known, the name and post office address of each person in possession or control of any property of the decedent.

(b) Not less than 30 days before the hearing on the petition the petitioner shall (1) mail a copy of the petition to the decedent at his last known address, to each heir whose name and post office address are stated in the petition and to each person shown by the petition to be in possession or control of any property of the decedent, and (2) publish a notice of the hearing on the petition once a week for 3 successive weeks, the first publication to be not less than 30 days before the hearing. The notice shall be published in a newspaper published in the county where the petition is filed. The notice shall state the time and place of the hearing, the name of the decedent and, when known, the names of the heirs. The petitioner shall endorse the time and place of the hearing on each copy of the petition mailed by him. The petitioner shall file a proof of mailing and of publication with the clerk of the court.

(c) A copy of the petition need not be sent to any person not designated in the petition as a minor or as a person with a disability disabled person and who personally appeared before the court at the hearing or who filed his waiver of notice.

(Source: P.A. 84-555; 84-690.)

(755 ILCS 5/9-8) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 9-8)

Sec. 9-8. Distribution on summary administration. Upon the filing of a petition therefor in the court of the proper county by any interested person and after ascertainment of heirship of the decedent and admission of the will, if any, to probate, if it appears to the court that:

(a) the gross value of the decedent's real and personal estate subject to administration in this State as itemized in the petition does not exceed $100,000;

(b) there is no unpaid claim against the estate, or all claimants known to the petitioner, with the amount known by him to be due to each of them, are listed in the petition;

(c) no tax will be due to the United States or to this State by reason of the death of the decedent or all such taxes have been paid or provided for or are the obligation of another fiduciary;

(d) no person is entitled to a surviving spouse's or child's award under this Act, or a surviving spouse's or child's award is allowable under this Act, and the name and age of each person entitled to an award, with the minimum award allowable under this Act to the surviving spouse or child, or each of them, and the amount, if any, theretofore paid to the spouse or child on such award, are listed in the petition;

(e) all heirs and legatees of the decedent have consented in writing to distribution of the estate on summary administration (and if an heir or legatee is a minor or person with a disability disabled person, the consent may be given on his behalf by his parent, spouse, adult child, person in loco parentis, guardian or guardian ad litem);

(f) each distributee gives bond in the value of his distributive share, conditioned to refund the due proportion of any claim entitled to be paid from the estate distributed, including the claim of any person having a prior right to such distribution, together with expenses of recovery, including reasonable attorneys' fees, with surety to be approved by the court. If at any time after payment of a distributive share it becomes necessary for all or any part of the distributive share to be refunded for the payment of any claim entitled to be paid from the estate distributed or to provide for a distribution to any person having a prior right thereto, upon petition of any interested person the court shall order the distributee to refund that portion of his distributive share which is necessary for such purposes. If there is more than one distributee, the court shall apportion among the distributees the amount to be refunded according to the amount received by each of them, but specific and general legacies need not be refunded unless the residue is insufficient to satisfy the claims entitled to be paid from the estate distributed. If a distributee refuses to refund within 60 days after being ordered by the court to do so and upon demand, the refusal is deemed a breach of the bond and a civil action may be maintained by the claimant or person having a prior right to a distribution against the distributee and the surety or either of them for the amount due together with the expenses of recovery, including reasonable attorneys' fees. The order of the court is evidence of the amount due;

(g) the petitioner has published a notice informing all persons of the death of the decedent, of the filing of the petition for distribution of the estate on summary administration and of the date, time and place of the hearing on the petition (the notice having been published once a week for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper published in the county where the petition has been filed, the first publication having been made not less than 30 days prior to the hearing) and has filed proof of publication with the clerk of the court;

the court may determine the rights of claimants and other persons interested in the estate, direct payment of claims and distribution of the estate on summary administration and excuse the issuance of letters of office or revoke the letters which have been issued and discharge the representative.

Any claimant may file his claim in the proceeding at or before the hearing on the petition, but failure to do so does not deprive the claimant of his right to enforce his claim in any other manner provided by law.

A petition for distribution on summary administration may be combined with or filed separately from a petition for probate of a will or for administration of an estate.

(Source: P.A. 93-277, eff. 1-1-04.)

(755 ILCS 5/11-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11-3)

Sec. 11-3. Who may act as guardian.

(a) A person is qualified to act as guardian of the person and as guardian of the estate if the court finds that the proposed guardian is capable of providing an active and suitable program of guardianship for the minor and that the proposed guardian:

(1) has attained the age of 18 years;

(2) is a resident of the United States;

(3) is not of unsound mind;

(4) is not an adjudged person with a disability disabled person as defined in this Act; and

(5) has not been convicted of a felony, unless the court finds appointment of the person convicted of a felony to be in the minor's best interests, and as part of the best interest determination, the court has considered the nature of the offense, the date of offense, and the evidence of the proposed guardian's rehabilitation. No person shall be appointed who has been convicted of a felony involving harm or threat to a child, including a felony sexual offense. One person may be appointed guardian of the person and another person appointed guardian of the estate.

(b) The Department of Human Services or the Department of Children and Family Services may with the approval of the court designate one of its employees to serve without fees as guardian of the estate of a minor patient in a State mental hospital or a resident in a State institution when the value of the personal estate does not exceed $1,000.

(Source: P.A. 94-579, eff. 8-12-05.)

(755 ILCS 5/Art. XIa heading)

ARTICLE XIa

GUARDIANS FOR ADULTS WITH DISABILITIES DISABLED ADULTS

(755 ILCS 5/11a-1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-1)

Sec. 11a-1. Developmental disability defined.) "Developmental disability" means a disability which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or to (b) any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities intellectually disabled persons. Such disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability handicap.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-2)

Sec. 11a-2. "Person with a disability Disabled person" defined.) "Person with a disability Disabled person" means a person 18 years or older who (a) because of mental deterioration or physical incapacity is not fully able to manage his person or estate, or (b) is a person with mental illness or a person with a developmental disability and who because of his mental illness or developmental disability is not fully able to manage his person or estate, or (c) because of gambling, idleness, debauchery or excessive use of intoxicants or drugs, so spends or wastes his estate as to expose himself or his family to want or suffering, or (d) is diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome or fetal alcohol effects.

(Source: P.A. 95-561, eff. 1-1-08.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-3)

Sec. 11a-3. Adjudication of disability; Power to appoint guardian.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition by a reputable person or by the alleged person with a disability disabled person himself or on its own motion, the court may adjudge a person to be a person with a disability disabled person, but only if it has been demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the person is a person with a disability disabled person as defined in Section 11a-2. If the court adjudges a person to be a person with a disability disabled person, the court may appoint (1) a guardian of his person, if it has been demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that because of his disability he lacks sufficient understanding or capacity to make or communicate responsible decisions concerning the care of his person, or (2) a guardian of his estate, if it has been demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that because of his disability he is unable to manage his estate or financial affairs, or (3) a guardian of his person and of his estate.

(b) Guardianship shall be utilized only as is necessary to promote the well-being of the person with a disability disabled person, to protect him from neglect, exploitation, or abuse, and to encourage development of his maximum self-reliance and independence. Guardianship shall be ordered only to the extent necessitated by the individual's actual mental, physical and adaptive limitations.

(Source: P.A. 93-435, eff. 1-1-04.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-3.1)

Sec. 11a-3.1. Appointment of standby guardian.

(a) The guardian of a person with a disability disabled person may designate in any writing, including a will, a person qualified to act under Section 11a-5 to be appointed as standby guardian of the person or estate, or both, of the person with a disability disabled person. The guardian may designate in any writing, including a will, a person qualified to act under Section 11a-5 to be appointed as successor standby guardian of the disabled person's person or estate of the person with a disability, or both. The designation must be witnessed by 2 or more credible witnesses at least 18 years of age, neither of whom is the person designated as the standby guardian. The designation may be proved by any competent evidence. If the designation is executed and attested in the same manner as a will, it shall have prima facie validity. Prior to designating a proposed standby guardian, the guardian shall consult with the person with a disability disabled person to determine the disabled person's preference of the person with a disability as to the person who will serve as standby guardian. The guardian shall give due consideration to the preference of the person with a disability disabled person in selecting a standby guardian.

(b) Upon the filing of a petition for the appointment of a standby guardian, the court may appoint a standby guardian of the person or estate, or both, of the person with a disability disabled person as the court finds to be in the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person. The court shall apply the same standards used in determining the suitability of a plenary or limited guardian in determining the suitability of a standby guardian, giving due consideration to the preference of the person with a disability disabled person as to a standby guardian. The court may not appoint the Office of State Guardian, pursuant to Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act, or a public guardian, pursuant to Section 13-5 of this Act, as a standby guardian, without the written consent of the State Guardian or public guardian or an authorized representative of the State Guardian or public guardian.

(c) The standby guardian shall take and file an oath or affirmation that the standby guardian will faithfully discharge the duties of the office of standby guardian according to law, and shall file in and have approved by the court a bond binding the standby guardian so to do, but shall not be required to file a bond until the standby guardian assumes all duties as guardian of the person with a disability disabled person under Section 11a-18.2.

(d) The designation of a standby guardian may, but need not, be in the following form:

DESIGNATION OF STANDBY GUARDIAN

[IT IS IMPORTANT TO READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS:

A standby guardian is someone who has been appointed by the court as the person who will act as guardian of the person with a disability disabled person when the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability dies or is no longer willing or able to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning the person with a disability disabled person. By properly completing this form, a guardian is naming the person that the guardian wants to be appointed as the standby guardian of the person with a disability disabled person. Signing the form does not appoint the standby guardian; to be appointed, a petition must be filed in and approved by the court.]

1. Guardian and Ward. I, (insert name of designating guardian), currently residing at (insert address of designating guardian), am the guardian of the following person with a disability disabled person: (insert name of ward).

2. Standby Guardian. I hereby designate the following person to be appointed as standby guardian for my ward listed above: (insert name and address of person designated).

3. Successor Standby Guardian. If the person named in item 2 above cannot or will not act as standby guardian, I designate the following person to be appointed as successor standby guardian for my ward: (insert name and address of person designated).

4. Date and Signature. This designation is made this (insert day) day of (insert month and year).

Signed: (designating guardian)

5. Witnesses. I saw the guardian sign this designation or the guardian told me that the guardian signed this designation. Then I signed the designation as a witness in the presence of the guardian. I am not designated in this instrument to act as a standby guardian for the guardian's ward. (insert space for names, addresses, and signatures of 2 witnesses)

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-3.2)

Sec. 11a-3.2. Short-term guardian.

(a) The guardian of a person with a disability disabled person may appoint in writing, without court approval, a short-term guardian of the person with a disability disabled person to take over the guardian's duties, to the extent provided in Section 11a-18.3, each time the guardian is unavailable or unable to carry out those duties. The guardian shall consult with the person with a disability disabled person to determine the disabled person's preference of the person with a disability concerning the person to be appointed as short-term guardian and the guardian shall give due consideration to the disabled person's preference of the person with a disability in choosing a short-term guardian. The written instrument appointing a short-term guardian shall be dated and shall identify the appointing guardian, the person with a disability disabled person, the person appointed to be the short-term guardian, and the termination date of the appointment. The written instrument shall be signed by, or at the direction of, the appointing guardian in the presence of at least 2 credible witnesses at least 18 years of age, neither of whom is the person appointed as the short-term guardian. The person appointed as the short-term guardian shall also sign the written instrument, but need not sign at the same time as the appointing guardian. A guardian may not appoint the Office of State Guardian or a public guardian as a short-term guardian, without the written consent of the State Guardian or public guardian or an authorized representative of the State Guardian or public guardian.

(b) The appointment of the short-term guardian is effective immediately upon the date the written instrument is executed, unless the written instrument provides for the appointment to become effective upon a later specified date or event. A short-term guardian appointed by the guardian shall have authority to act as guardian of the person with a disability disabled person for a cumulative total of 60 days during any 12 month period. Only one written instrument appointing a short-term guardian may be in force at any given time.

(c) Every appointment of a short-term guardian may be amended or revoked by the appointing guardian at any time and in any manner communicated to the short-term guardian or to any other person. Any person other than the short-term guardian to whom a revocation or amendment is communicated or delivered shall make all reasonable efforts to inform the short-term guardian of that fact as promptly as possible.

(d) The appointment of a short-term guardian or successor short-term guardian does not affect the rights in the person with a disability disabled person of any guardian other than the appointing guardian.

(e) The written instrument appointing a short-term guardian may, but need not, be in the following form:

APPOINTMENT OF SHORT-TERM GUARDIAN

[IT IS IMPORTANT TO READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS:

By properly completing this form, a guardian is appointing a short-term guardian of the person with a disability disabled person for a cumulative total of up to 60 days during any 12 month period. A separate form shall be completed each time a short-term guardian takes over guardianship duties. The person or persons appointed as the short-term guardian shall sign the form, but need not do so at the same time as the guardian.]

1. Guardian and Ward. I, (insert name of appointing guardian), currently residing at (insert address of appointing guardian), am the guardian of the following person with a disability disabled person: (insert name of ward).

2. Short-term Guardian. I hereby appoint the following person as the short-term guardian for my ward: (insert name and address of appointed person).

3. Effective date. This appointment becomes effective: (check one if you wish it to be applicable)

( ) On the date that I state in writing that I am no longer either willing or able to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning my ward.

( ) On the date that a physician familiar with my condition certifies in writing that I am no longer willing or able to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning my ward.

( ) On the date that I am admitted as an in-patient to a hospital or other health care institution.

( ) On the following date: (insert date).

( ) Other: (insert other).

[NOTE: If this item is not completed, the appointment is effective immediately upon the date the form is signed and dated below.]

4. Termination. This appointment shall terminate on: (enter a date corresponding to 60 days from the current date, less the number of days within the past 12 months that any short-term guardian has taken over guardianship duties), unless it terminates sooner as determined by the event or date I have indicated below: (check one if you wish it to be applicable)

( ) On the date that I state in writing that I am willing and able to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning my ward.

( ) On the date that a physician familiar with my condition certifies in writing that I am willing and able to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning my ward.

( ) On the date that I am discharged from the hospital or other health care institution where I was admitted as an in-patient, which established the effective date.

( ) On the date which is (state a number of days) days after the effective date.

( ) Other: (insert other).

[NOTE: If this item is not completed, the appointment will be effective until the 60th day within the past year during which time any short-term guardian of this ward had taken over guardianship duties from the guardian, beginning on the effective date.]

5. Date and signature of appointing guardian. This appointment is made this (insert day) day of (insert month and year).

Signed: (appointing guardian)

6. Witnesses. I saw the guardian sign this instrument or I saw the guardian direct someone to sign this instrument for the guardian. Then I signed this instrument as a witness in the presence of the guardian. I am not appointed in this instrument to act as the short-term guardian for the guardian's ward. (insert space for names, addresses, and signatures of 2 witnesses)

7. Acceptance of short-term guardian. I accept this appointment as short-term guardian on this (insert day) day of (insert month and year).

Signed: (short-term guardian)

(f) Each time the guardian appoints a short-term guardian, the guardian shall: (i) provide the person with a disability disabled person with the name, address, and telephone number of the short-term guardian; (ii) advise the person with a disability disabled person that he has the right to object to the appointment of the short-term guardian by filing a petition in court; and (iii) notify the person with a disability disabled person when the short-term guardian will be taking over guardianship duties and the length of time that the short-term guardian will be acting as guardian.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-4) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-4)

Sec. 11a-4. Temporary guardian.

(a) Prior to the appointment of a guardian under this Article, pending an appeal in relation to the appointment, or pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3 of this Act, or upon a guardian's death, incapacity, or resignation, the court may appoint a temporary guardian upon a showing of the necessity therefor for the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability disabled person or his or her estate on such notice and subject to such conditions as the court may prescribe. In determining the necessity for temporary guardianship, the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability disabled person and his or her estate shall be of paramount concern, and the interests of the petitioner, any care provider, or any other party shall not outweigh the interests of the alleged person with a disability disabled person. The temporary guardian shall have all of the powers and duties of a guardian of the person or of the estate which are specifically enumerated by court order. The court order shall state the actual harm identified by the court that necessitates temporary guardianship or any extension thereof.

(b) The temporary guardianship shall expire within 60 days after the appointment or whenever a guardian is regularly appointed, whichever occurs first. No extension shall be granted except:

(1) In a case where there has been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted:

(i) pending the disposition on appeal of an adjudication of disability;

(ii) pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3;

(iii) pending the appointment of a successor guardian in a case where the former guardian has resigned, has become incapacitated, or is deceased; or

(iv) where the guardian's powers have been suspended pursuant to a court order.

(2) In a case where there has not been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted pending the disposition of a petition brought pursuant to Section 11a-8 so long as the court finds it is in the best interest of the alleged person with a disability disabled person to extend the temporary guardianship so as to protect the alleged person with a disability disabled person from any potential abuse, neglect, self-neglect, exploitation, or other harm and such extension lasts no more than 120 days from the date the temporary guardian was originally appointed.

The ward shall have the right any time after the appointment of a temporary guardian is made to petition the court to revoke the appointment of the temporary guardian.

(Source: P.A. 97-614, eff. 1-1-12.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-5) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-5)

Sec. 11a-5. Who may act as guardian.

(a) A person is qualified to act as guardian of the person and as guardian of the estate of a person with a disability disabled person if the court finds that the proposed guardian is capable of providing an active and suitable program of guardianship for the person with a disability disabled person and that the proposed guardian:

(1) has attained the age of 18 years;

(2) is a resident of the United States;

(3) is not of unsound mind;

(4) is not an adjudged person with a disability disabled person as defined in this Act; and

(5) has not been convicted of a felony, unless the court finds appointment of the person convicted of a felony to be in the disabled person's best interests of the person with a disability, and as part of the best interest determination, the court has considered the nature of the offense, the date of offense, and the evidence of the proposed guardian's rehabilitation. No person shall be appointed who has been convicted of a felony involving harm or threat to a minor or an elderly person or a person with a disability or disabled person, including a felony sexual offense.

(b) Any public agency, or not-for-profit corporation found capable by the court of providing an active and suitable program of guardianship for the person with a disability disabled person, taking into consideration the nature of such person's disability and the nature of such organization's services, may be appointed guardian of the person or of the estate, or both, of the person with a disability disabled person. The court shall not appoint as guardian an agency which is directly providing residential services to the ward. One person or agency may be appointed guardian of the person and another person or agency appointed guardian of the estate.

(c) Any corporation qualified to accept and execute trusts in this State may be appointed guardian of the estate of a person with a disability disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 98-120, eff. 1-1-14.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-6) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-6)

Sec. 11a-6. Designation of Guardian.) A person, while of sound mind and memory, may designate in writing a person, corporation or public agency qualified to act under Section 11a-5, to be appointed as guardian or as successor guardian of his person or of his estate or both, in the event he is adjudged to be a person with a disability disabled person. The designation may be proved by any competent evidence, but if it is executed and attested in the same manner as a will, it shall have prima facie validity. If the court finds that the appointment of the one designated will serve the best interests and welfare of the ward, it shall make the appointment in accordance with the designation. The selection of the guardian shall be in the discretion of the court whether or not a designation is made.

(Source: P.A. 81-795.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-8) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-8)

Sec. 11a-8. Petition. The petition for adjudication of disability and for the appointment of a guardian of the estate or the person or both of an alleged person with a disability disabled person must state, if known or reasonably ascertainable: (a) the relationship and interest of the petitioner to the respondent; (b) the name, date of birth, and place of residence of the respondent; (c) the reasons for the guardianship; (d) the name and post office address of the respondent's guardian, if any, or of the respondent's agent or agents appointed under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, if any; (e) the name and post office addresses of the nearest relatives of the respondent in the following order: (1) the spouse and adult children, parents and adult brothers and sisters, if any; if none, (2) nearest adult kindred known to the petitioner; (f) the name and address of the person with whom or the facility in which the respondent is residing; (g) the approximate value of the personal and real estate; (h) the amount of the anticipated annual gross income and other receipts; (i) the name, post office address and in case of an individual, the age, relationship to the respondent and occupation of the proposed guardian. In addition, if the petition seeks the appointment of a previously appointed standby guardian as guardian of the person with a disability disabled person, the petition must also state: (j) the facts concerning the standby guardian's previous appointment and (k) the date of death of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability or the facts concerning the consent of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to the appointment of the standby guardian as guardian, or the willingness and ability of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning the person with a disability disabled person. A petition for adjudication of disability and the appointment of a guardian of the estate or the person or both of an alleged person with a disability disabled person may not be dismissed or withdrawn without leave of the court.

(Source: P.A. 89-396, eff. 8-20-95; 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-8.1)

Sec. 11a-8.1. Petition for standby guardian of the person with a disability disabled person. The petition for appointment of a standby guardian of the person or the estate, or both, of a person with a disability disabled person must state, if known: (a) the name, date of birth, and residence of the person with a disability disabled person; (b) the names and post office addresses of the nearest relatives of the person with a disability disabled person in the following order: (1) the spouse and adult children, parents and adult brothers and sisters, if any; if none, (2) nearest adult kindred known to the petitioner; (c) the name and post office address of the person having guardianship of the person with a disability disabled person, and of any person or persons acting as agents of the person with a disability disabled person under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; (d) the name, post office address, and, in case of any individual, the age and occupation of the proposed standby guardian; (e) the preference of the person with a disability disabled person as to the choice of standby guardian; (f) the facts concerning the consent of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to the appointment of the standby guardian, or the willingness and ability of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning the person with a disability disabled person; (g) the facts concerning the execution or admission to probate of the written designation of the standby guardian, if any, a copy of which shall be attached to or filed with the petition; (h) the facts concerning any guardianship court actions pending concerning the person with a disability disabled person; and (i) the facts concerning the willingness of the proposed standby guardian to serve, and in the case of the Office of State Guardian and any public guardian, evidence of a written acceptance to serve signed by the State Guardian or public guardian or an authorized representative of the State Guardian or public guardian, consistent with subsection (b) of Section 11a-3.1.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)

Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section 11a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best interests consistent with the provisions of this Section, except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be required when the court determines that such appointment is not necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by training or experience, to work with or advocate for persons with developmental disabilities the developmentally disabled, the mentally ill, persons with physical disabilities physically disabled, the elderly, or persons with a disability due to disabled because of mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may consult with a person who by training or experience is qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability, persons with mental illness, or persons with physical disabilities physically disabled persons, or persons with a disability due to disabled because of mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of the petition and of his rights under Section 11a-11. The guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's position concerning the adjudication of disability, the proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement, changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court. Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem shall file a written report detailing his or her observations of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of the inquires detailed in this Section, the opinion of the guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her report.

(b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent, if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel upon respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.

(c) If the respondent is unable to pay the fee of the guardian ad litem or appointed counsel, or both, the court may enter an order for the petitioner to pay all such fees or such amounts as the respondent or the respondent's estate may be unable to pay. However, in cases where the Office of State Guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act, where the public guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 13-5 of the Probate Act of 1975, where an adult protective services agency is the petitioner, pursuant to Section 9 of the Adult Protective Services Act, or where the Department of Children and Family Services is the petitioner under subparagraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 2-27 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, no guardian ad litem or legal fees shall be assessed against the Office of State Guardian, the public guardian, the adult protective services agency, or the Department of Children and Family Services.

(d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent resides.

(e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be printed in large, bold type and shall include the following notice:

NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT

You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship petition asking that you be declared a person with a disability disabled person. If the court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your convenience.

The date and time of the hearing are: The place where the hearing will occur is: The Judge's name and phone number is:

If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be given the right to make all important personal decisions for you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your money and other property, including your home, if you own one. You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.

You have the following legal rights:

(1) You have the right to be present at the court hearing.

(2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer, either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.

(3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons to hear your case.

(4) You have the right to present evidence to the court and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

(5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about your need for a guardian.

(6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be closed to the public.

(7) You have the right to tell the court whom you prefer to have for your guardian.

You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do not attend.

IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN. IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OF IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND TELL THE JUDGE.

Service of summons and the petition may be made by a private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the action.

(f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons, including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 97-375, eff. 8-15-11; 97-1095, eff. 8-24-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-89, eff. 7-15-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10.2)

Sec. 11a-10.2. Procedure for appointment of a standby guardian or a guardian of a person with a disability disabled person. In any proceeding for the appointment of a standby guardian or a guardian the court may appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the person with a disability disabled person in the proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-11) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-11)

Sec. 11a-11. Hearing.

(a) The respondent is entitled to be represented by counsel, to demand a jury of 6 persons, to present evidence, and to confront and cross-examine all witnesses. The hearing may be closed to the public on request of the respondent, the guardian ad litem, or appointed or other counsel for the respondent. Unless excused by the court upon a showing that the respondent refuses to be present or will suffer harm if required to attend, the respondent shall be present at the hearing.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) In an uncontested proceeding for the appointment of a guardian the person who prepared the report required by Section 11a-9 will only be required to testify at trial upon order of court for cause shown.

(e) At the hearing the court shall inquire regarding: (1) the nature and extent of respondent's general intellectual and physical functioning; (2) the extent of the impairment of his adaptive behavior if he is a person with a developmental disability, or the nature and severity of his mental illness if he is a person with mental illness; (3) the understanding and capacity of the respondent to make and communicate responsible decisions concerning his person; (4) the capacity of the respondent to manage his estate and his financial affairs; (5) the appropriateness of proposed and alternate living arrangements; (6) the impact of the disability upon the respondent's functioning in the basic activities of daily living and the important decisions faced by the respondent or normally faced by adult members of the respondent's community; and (7) any other area of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court.

(f) An authenticated transcript of the evidence taken in a judicial proceeding concerning the respondent under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is admissible in evidence at the hearing.

(g) If the petition is for the appointment of a guardian for a beneficiary disabled beneficiary of the Veterans Administration who has a disability, a certificate of the Administrator of Veterans Affairs or his representative stating that the beneficiary has been determined to be incompetent by the Veterans Administration on examination in accordance with the laws and regulations governing the Veterans Administration in effect upon the date of the issuance of the certificate and that the appointment of a guardian is a condition precedent to the payment of any money due the beneficiary by the Veterans Administration, is admissible in evidence at the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 98-1094, eff. 1-1-15.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-12) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-12)

Sec. 11a-12. Order of appointment.)

(a) If basis for the appointment of a guardian as specified in Section 11a-3 is not found, the court shall dismiss the petition.

(b) If the respondent is adjudged to be a person with a disability disabled and to lack some but not all of the capacity as specified in Section 11a-3, and if the court finds that guardianship is necessary for the protection of the person with a disability disabled person, his or her estate, or both, the court shall appoint a limited guardian for the respondent's person or estate or both. The court shall enter a written order stating the factual basis for its findings and specifying the duties and powers of the guardian and the legal disabilities to which the respondent is subject.

(c) If the respondent is adjudged to be a person with a disability disabled and to be totally without capacity as specified in Section 11a-3, and if the court finds that limited guardianship will not provide sufficient protection for the person with a disability disabled person, his or her estate, or both, the court shall appoint a plenary guardian for the respondent's person or estate or both. The court shall enter a written order stating the factual basis for its findings.

(d) The selection of the guardian shall be in the discretion of the court, which shall give due consideration to the preference of the person with a disability disabled person as to a guardian, as well as the qualifications of the proposed guardian, in making its appointment. However, the paramount concern in the selection of the guardian is the best interest and well-being of the person with a disability disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 97-1093, eff. 1-1-13; 98-1094, eff. 1-1-15.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-13) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-13)

Sec. 11a-13. Costs in certain cases.) (a) No costs may be taxed or charged by any public officer in any proceeding for the appointment of a guardian or for any subsequent proceeding or report made in pursuance of the appointment when the primary purpose of the appointment is as set forth in Section 11-11 or is the management of the estate of a person with a mental disability mentally disabled person who resides in a state mental health or developmental disabilities facility when the value of the personal estate does not exceed $1,000.

(b) No costs shall be taxed or charged against the Office of the State Guardian by any public officer in any proceeding for the appointment of a guardian or for any subsequent proceeding or report made in pursuance of the appointment.

(Source: P.A. 80-1415.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-16) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-16)

Sec. 11a-16. Testamentary guardian.) A parent of a person with a disability disabled person may designate by will a person, corporation or public agency qualified to act under Section 11a-5, to be appointed as guardian or as successor guardian of the person or of the estate or both of that person. If a conservator appointed under a prior law or a guardian appointed under this Article is acting at the time of the death of the parent, the designation shall become effective only upon the death, incapacity, resignation or removal of the conservator or guardian. If no conservator or guardian is acting at the time of the death of the parent, the person, corporation or public agency so designated or any other person may petition the court having jurisdiction over the person or estate or both of the child for the appointment of the one so designated. The designation shall be proved in the manner provided for proof of will. Admission of the will to probate in any other jurisdiction shall be conclusive proof of the validity of the designation. If the court finds that the appointment of the one so designated will serve the best interests and welfare of the ward, it shall appoint the one so designated. The selection of a guardian shall be in the discretion of the court, whether or not a designation is made.

(Source: P.A. 81-795.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-17) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-17)

Sec. 11a-17. Duties of personal guardian.

(a) To the extent ordered by the court and under the direction of the court, the guardian of the person shall have custody of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children and shall procure for them and shall make provision for their support, care, comfort, health, education and maintenance, and professional services as are appropriate, but the ward's spouse may not be deprived of the custody and education of the ward's minor and adult dependent children, without the consent of the spouse, unless the court finds that the spouse is not a fit and competent person to have that custody and education. The guardian shall assist the ward in the development of maximum self-reliance and independence. The guardian of the person may petition the court for an order directing the guardian of the estate to pay an amount periodically for the provision of the services specified by the court order. If the ward's estate is insufficient to provide for education and the guardian of the ward's person fails to provide education, the court may award the custody of the ward to some other person for the purpose of providing education. If a person makes a settlement upon or provision for the support or education of a ward, the court may make an order for the visitation of the ward by the person making the settlement or provision as the court deems proper. A guardian of the person may not admit a ward to a mental health facility except at the ward's request as provided in Article IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code and unless the ward has the capacity to consent to such admission as provided in Article IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(a-5) If the ward filed a petition for dissolution of marriage under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act before the ward was adjudicated a person with a disability disabled person under this Article, the guardian of the ward's person and estate may maintain that action for dissolution of marriage on behalf of the ward. Upon petition by the guardian of the ward's person or estate, the court may authorize and direct a guardian of the ward's person or estate to file a petition for dissolution of marriage or to file a petition for legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act on behalf of the ward if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the relief sought is in the ward's best interests. In making its determination, the court shall consider the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section.

(a-10) Upon petition by the guardian of the ward's person or estate, the court may authorize and direct a guardian of the ward's person or estate to consent, on behalf of the ward, to the ward's marriage pursuant to Part II of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the marriage is in the ward's best interests. In making its determination, the court shall consider the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon presentation of a court order authorizing and directing a guardian of the ward's person and estate to consent to the ward's marriage, the county clerk shall accept the guardian's application, appearance, and signature on behalf of the ward for purposes of issuing a license to marry under Section 203 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(b) If the court directs, the guardian of the person shall file with the court at intervals indicated by the court, a report that shall state briefly: (1) the current mental, physical, and social condition of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children; (2) their present living arrangement, and a description and the address of every residence where they lived during the reporting period and the length of stay at each place; (3) a summary of the medical, educational, vocational, and other professional services given to them; (4) a resume of the guardian's visits with and activities on behalf of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children; (5) a recommendation as to the need for continued guardianship; (6) any other information requested by the court or useful in the opinion of the guardian. The Office of the State Guardian shall assist the guardian in filing the report when requested by the guardian. The court may take such action as it deems appropriate pursuant to the report.

(c) Absent court order pursuant to the Illinois Power of Attorney Act directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian has no power, duty, or liability with respect to any personal or health care matters covered by the agency. This subsection (c) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(d) A guardian acting as a surrogate decision maker under the Health Care Surrogate Act shall have all the rights of a surrogate under that Act without court order including the right to make medical treatment decisions such as decisions to forgo or withdraw life-sustaining treatment. Any decisions by the guardian to forgo or withdraw life-sustaining treatment that are not authorized under the Health Care Surrogate Act shall require a court order. Nothing in this Section shall prevent an agent acting under a power of attorney for health care from exercising his or her authority under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act without further court order, unless a court has acted under Section 2-10 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act. If a guardian is also a health care agent for the ward under a valid power of attorney for health care, the guardian acting as agent may execute his or her authority under that act without further court order.

(e) Decisions made by a guardian on behalf of a ward shall be made in accordance with the following standards for decision making. Decisions made by a guardian on behalf of a ward may be made by conforming as closely as possible to what the ward, if competent, would have done or intended under the circumstances, taking into account evidence that includes, but is not limited to, the ward's personal, philosophical, religious and moral beliefs, and ethical values relative to the decision to be made by the guardian. Where possible, the guardian shall determine how the ward would have made a decision based on the ward's previously expressed preferences, and make decisions in accordance with the preferences of the ward. If the ward's wishes are unknown and remain unknown after reasonable efforts to discern them, the decision shall be made on the basis of the ward's best interests as determined by the guardian. In determining the ward's best interests, the guardian shall weigh the reason for and nature of the proposed action, the benefit or necessity of the action, the possible risks and other consequences of the proposed action, and any available alternatives and their risks, consequences and benefits, and shall take into account any other information, including the views of family and friends, that the guardian believes the ward would have considered if able to act for herself or himself.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the person with a disability disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 98-1107, eff. 8-26-14.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-18)

Sec. 11a-18. Duties of the estate guardian.

(a) To the extent specified in the order establishing the guardianship, the guardian of the estate shall have the care, management and investment of the estate, shall manage the estate frugally and shall apply the income and principal of the estate so far as necessary for the comfort and suitable support and education of the ward, his minor and adult dependent children, and persons related by blood or marriage who are dependent upon or entitled to support from him, or for any other purpose which the court deems to be for the best interests of the ward, and the court may approve the making on behalf of the ward of such agreements as the court determines to be for the ward's best interests. The guardian may make disbursement of his ward's funds and estate directly to the ward or other distributee or in such other manner and in such amounts as the court directs. If the estate of a ward is derived in whole or in part from payments of compensation, adjusted compensation, pension, insurance or other similar benefits made directly to the estate by the Veterans Administration, notice of the application for leave to invest or expend the ward's funds or estate, together with a copy of the petition and proposed order, shall be given to the Veterans' Administration Regional Office in this State at least 7 days before the hearing on the application.

(a-5) The probate court, upon petition of a guardian, other than the guardian of a minor, and after notice to all other persons interested as the court directs, may authorize the guardian to exercise any or all powers over the estate and business affairs of the ward that the ward could exercise if present and not under disability. The court may authorize the taking of an action or the application of funds not required for the ward's current and future maintenance and support in any manner approved by the court as being in keeping with the ward's wishes so far as they can be ascertained. The court must consider the permanence of the ward's disabling condition and the natural objects of the ward's bounty. In ascertaining and carrying out the ward's wishes the court may consider, but shall not be limited to, minimization of State or federal income, estate, or inheritance taxes; and providing gifts to charities, relatives, and friends that would be likely recipients of donations from the ward. The ward's wishes as best they can be ascertained shall be carried out, whether or not tax savings are involved. Actions or applications of funds may include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) making gifts of income or principal, or both, of the estate, either outright or in trust;

(2) conveying, releasing, or disclaiming his or her contingent and expectant interests in property, including marital property rights and any right of survivorship incident to joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety;

(3) releasing or disclaiming his or her powers as trustee, personal representative, custodian for minors, or guardian;

(4) exercising, releasing, or disclaiming his or her powers as donee of a power of appointment;

(5) entering into contracts;

(6) creating for the benefit of the ward or others, revocable or irrevocable trusts of his or her property that may extend beyond his or her disability or life;

(7) exercising options of the ward to purchase or exchange securities or other property;

(8) exercising the rights of the ward to elect benefit or payment options, to terminate, to change beneficiaries or ownership, to assign rights, to borrow, or to receive cash value in return for a surrender of rights under any one or more of the following:

(i) life insurance policies, plans, or benefits,

(ii) annuity policies, plans, or benefits,

(iii) mutual fund and other dividend investment plans,

(iv) retirement, profit sharing, and employee welfare plans and benefits;

(9) exercising his or her right to claim or disclaim an elective share in the estate of his or her deceased spouse and to renounce any interest by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transfer;

(10) changing the ward's residence or domicile; or

(11) modifying by means of codicil or trust amendment the terms of the ward's will or any revocable trust created by the ward, as the court may consider advisable in light of changes in applicable tax laws.

The guardian in his or her petition shall briefly outline the action or application of funds for which he or she seeks approval, the results expected to be accomplished thereby, and the tax savings, if any, expected to accrue. The proposed action or application of funds may include gifts of the ward's personal property or real estate, but transfers of real estate shall be subject to the requirements of Section 20 of this Act. Gifts may be for the benefit of prospective legatees, devisees, or heirs apparent of the ward or may be made to individuals or charities in which the ward is believed to have an interest. The guardian shall also indicate in the petition that any planned disposition is consistent with the intentions of the ward insofar as they can be ascertained, and if the ward's intentions cannot be ascertained, the ward will be presumed to favor reduction in the incidents of various forms of taxation and the partial distribution of his or her estate as provided in this subsection. The guardian shall not, however, be required to include as a beneficiary or fiduciary any person who he has reason to believe would be excluded by the ward. A guardian shall be required to investigate and pursue a ward's eligibility for governmental benefits.

(b) Upon the direction of the court which issued his letters, a guardian may perform the contracts of his ward which were legally subsisting at the time of the commencement of the ward's disability. The court may authorize the guardian to execute and deliver any bill of sale, deed or other instrument.

(c) The guardian of the estate of a ward shall appear for and represent the ward in all legal proceedings unless another person is appointed for that purpose as guardian or next friend. This does not impair the power of any court to appoint a guardian ad litem or next friend to defend the interests of the ward in that court, or to appoint or allow any person as the next friend of a ward to commence, prosecute or defend any proceeding in his behalf. Without impairing the power of the court in any respect, if the guardian of the estate of a ward and another person as next friend shall appear for and represent the ward in a legal proceeding in which the compensation of the attorney or attorneys representing the guardian and next friend is solely determined under a contingent fee arrangement, the guardian of the estate of the ward shall not participate in or have any duty to review the prosecution of the action, to participate in or review the appropriateness of any settlement of the action, or to participate in or review any determination of the appropriateness of any fees awarded to the attorney or attorneys employed in the prosecution of the action.

(d) Adjudication of disability shall not revoke or otherwise terminate a trust which is revocable by the ward. A guardian of the estate shall have no authority to revoke a trust that is revocable by the ward, except that the court may authorize a guardian to revoke a Totten trust or similar deposit or withdrawable capital account in trust to the extent necessary to provide funds for the purposes specified in paragraph (a) of this Section. If the trustee of any trust for the benefit of the ward has discretionary power to apply income or principal for the ward's benefit, the trustee shall not be required to distribute any of the income or principal to the guardian of the ward's estate, but the guardian may bring an action on behalf of the ward to compel the trustee to exercise the trustee's discretion or to seek relief from an abuse of discretion. This paragraph shall not limit the right of a guardian of the estate to receive accountings from the trustee on behalf of the ward.

(e) Absent court order pursuant to the Illinois Power of Attorney Act directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian will have no power, duty or liability with respect to any property subject to the agency. This subsection (e) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the person with a disability disabled person.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18.1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-18.1)

Sec. 11a-18.1. Conditional gifts. (a) The court may authorize and direct the guardian of the estate to make conditional gifts from the estate of a person with a disability disabled person to any spouse, parent, brother or sister of the person with a disability disabled person who dedicates himself or herself to the care of the person with a disability disabled person by living with and personally caring for the person with a disability disabled person for at least 3 years. It shall be presumed that the person with a disability disabled person intends to make such conditional gifts.

(b) A conditional gift shall not be distributed to the donee until the death of the person with a disability disabled person. The court may impose such other conditions on the gift as the court deems just and reasonable. The court may provide for an alternate disposition of the gift should the donee die before the person with a disability disabled person; provided that if no such alternate disposition is made, the conditional gift shall lapse upon the death of the donee prior to the death of the person with a disability disabled person. A conditional gift may be modified or revoked by the court at any time.

(c) The guardian of the estate, the spouse, parent, brother or sister of a person with a disability disabled person, or any other interested person may petition the court to authorize and direct the guardian of the estate to make a conditional gift or to modify, revoke or distribute a conditional gift. All persons who would be heirs of the person with a disability disabled person if the person with a disability disabled person died on the date the petition is filed (or the heirs if the person with a disability disabled person is deceased) and all legatees under any known last will of the person with a disability disabled person shall be given reasonable notice of the hearing on the petition by certified U. S. mail, return receipt requested. If a trustee is a legatee, notice shall be given to the trustee and need not be given to the trust beneficiaries. Any person entitled to notice of the hearing may appear and object to the petition. The giving of the notice of the hearing to those persons entitled to notice shall cause the decision and order of the court to be binding upon all other persons who otherwise may be interested or may become interested in the estate of the person with a disability disabled person.

(d) The guardian of the estate shall set aside conditional gifts in a separate fund for each donee and shall hold and invest each fund as part of the estate of the person with a disability disabled person. Upon order of the court, any conditional gift may be revoked or modified in whole or part so that the assets may be used for the care and comfort of the person with a disability disabled person should funds otherwise available for such purposes be inadequate.

(e) Upon the death of the person with a disability disabled person, the guardian of the estate shall hold each special fund as trustee and shall petition the court for authorization to distribute the special fund and for any other appropriate relief. The court shall order distribution upon such terms and conditions as the court deems just and reasonable.

(Source: P.A. 85-1417.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18.2)

Sec. 11a-18.2. Duties of standby guardian of a person with a disability disabled person.

(a) Before a standby guardian of a person with a disability disabled person may act, the standby guardian must be appointed by the court of the proper county and, in the case of a standby guardian of the disabled person's estate of the person with a disability, the standby guardian must give the bond prescribed in subsection (c) of Section 11a-3.1 and Section 12-2.

(b) The standby guardian shall not have any duties or authority to act until the standby guardian receives knowledge of the death or consent of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability, or the inability of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning the person with a disability disabled person for whom the standby guardian has been appointed. This inability of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions may be communicated either by the guardian's own admission or by the written certification of the guardian's attending physician. Immediately upon receipt of that knowledge, the standby guardian shall assume all duties as guardian of the person with a disability disabled person as previously determined by the order appointing the standby guardian, and as set forth in Sections 11a-17 and 11a-18, and the standby guardian of the person shall have the authority to act as guardian of the person without direction of court for a period of up to 60 days, provided that the authority of the standby guardian may be limited or terminated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) Within 60 days of the standby guardian's receipt of knowledge of the death or consent of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability, or the inability of the disabled person's guardian of the person with a disability to make and carry out day-to-day care decisions concerning the person with a disability disabled person, the standby guardian shall file or cause to be filed a petition for the appointment of a guardian of the person or estate, or both, of the person with a disability disabled person under Section 11a-3.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18.3)

Sec. 11a-18.3. Duties of short-term guardian of a person with a disability disabled person.

(a) Immediately upon the effective date of the appointment of a short-term guardian, the short-term guardian shall assume all duties as short-term guardian of the person with a disability disabled person as provided in this Section. The short-term guardian of the person shall have authority to act as short-term guardian, without direction of the court, for the duration of the appointment, which in no case shall exceed a cumulative total of 60 days in any 12 month period for all short-term guardians appointed by the guardian. The authority of the short-term guardian may be limited or terminated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(b) Unless further specifically limited by the instrument appointing the short-term guardian, a short-term guardian shall have the authority to act as a guardian of the person of a person with a disability disabled person as prescribed in Section 11a-17, but shall not have any authority to act as guardian of the estate of a person with a disability disabled person, except that a short-term guardian shall have the authority to apply for and receive on behalf of the person with a disability disabled person benefits to which the person with a disability disabled person may be entitled from or under federal, State, or local organizations or programs.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-20) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-20)

Sec. 11a-20. Termination of adjudication of disability - Revocation of letters - modification.)

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), upon the filing of a petition by or on behalf of a person with a disability disabled person or on its own motion, the court may terminate the adjudication of disability of the ward, revoke the letters of guardianship of the estate or person, or both, or modify the duties of the guardian if the ward's capacity to perform the tasks necessary for the care of his person or the management of his estate has been demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence. A report or testimony by a licensed physician is not a prerequisite for termination, revocation or modification of a guardianship order under this subsection (a).

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), a request by the ward or any other person on the ward's behalf, under this Section may be communicated to the court or judge by any means, including but not limited to informal letter, telephone call or visit. Upon receipt of a request from the ward or another person, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem to investigate and report to the court concerning the allegations made in conjunction with said request, and if the ward wishes to terminate, revoke, or modify the guardianship order, to prepare the ward's petition and to render such other services as the court directs.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a verified petition by the guardian of the person with a disability disabled person or the person with a disability disabled person, the court may terminate the adjudication of disability of the ward, revoke the letters of guardianship of the estate or person, or both, or modify the duties of the guardian if: (i) a report completed in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 11a-9 states that the person with a disability disabled person is no longer in need of guardianship or that the type and scope of guardianship should be modified; (ii) the person with a disability disabled person no longer wishes to be under guardianship or desires that the type and scope of guardianship be modified; and (iii) the guardian of the person with a disability disabled person states that it is in the best interest of the person with a disability disabled person to terminate the adjudication of disability of the ward, revoke the letters of guardianship of the estate or person, or both, or modify the duties of the guardian, and provides the basis thereof. In a proceeding brought pursuant to this subsection (b-5), the court may terminate the adjudication of disability of the ward, revoke the letters of guardianship of the estate or person, or both, or modify the duties of the guardian, unless it has been demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the ward is incapable of performing the tasks necessary for the care of his or her person or the management of his or her estate.

(c) Notice of the hearing on a petition under this Section, together with a copy of the petition, shall be given to the ward, unless he is the petitioner, and to each and every guardian to whom letters of guardianship have been issued and not revoked, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 97-1093, eff. 1-1-13.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-22) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-22)

Sec. 11a-22. Trade and contracts with a person with a disability disabled person.

(a) Anyone who by trading with, bartering, gaming or any other device, wrongfully possesses himself of any property of a person known to be a person with a disability disabled person commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Every note, bill, bond or other contract by any person for whom a plenary guardian has been appointed or who is adjudged to be unable to so contract is void as against that person and his estate, but a person making a contract with the person so adjudged is bound thereby.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-24)

Sec. 11a-24. Notification; Department of State Police. When a court adjudges a respondent to be a person with a disability disabled person under this Article, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department no later than 7 days after the entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the Department of State Police shall provide notification to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(755 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Individual representative; oath and bond.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), before undertaking the representative's duties, every individual representative shall take and file an oath or affirmation that the individual will faithfully discharge the duties of the office of the representative according to law and shall file in and have approved by the court a bond binding the individual representative so to do. The court may waive the filing of a bond of a representative of the person of a ward or of a standby guardian of a minor or person with a disability disabled person.

(b) Where bond or security is excused by the will or as provided in subsection (b) of Section 12-4, the bond of the representative in the amount from time to time required under this Article shall be in full force and effect without writing, unless the court requires the filing of a written bond.

(Source: P.A. 90-796, eff. 12-15-98.)

(755 ILCS 5/12-4) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 12-4)

Sec. 12-4. When security excused or specified.)

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of Section 6-13 with respect to a nonresident executor, no security is required of a person who is excused by the will from giving bond or security and no greater security than is specified by the will is required, unless in either case the court, from its own knowledge or the suggestion of any interested person, has cause to suspect the representative of fraud or incompetence or believes that the estate of the decedent will not be sufficient to discharge all the claims against the estate, or in the case of a testamentary guardian of the estate, that the rights of the ward will be prejudiced by failure to give security.

(b) If a person designates a guardian of his person or estate or both to be appointed in the event he is adjudged a person with a disability disabled person as provided in Section 11a-6 and excuses the guardian from giving bond or security, or if the guardian is the Office of State Guardian, the guardian's bond in the amount from time to time required under this Article shall be in full force and effect without writing, unless the court requires the filing of a written bond.

(c) The Office of State Guardian shall not be required to have sureties or surety companies as security on its bonds. The oath and bond of the representative without surety shall be sufficient.

(Source: P.A. 89-396, eff. 8-20-95.)

(755 ILCS 5/13-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 13-2)

Sec. 13-2. Bond and oath.) Before entering upon the performance of his duties, every public administrator and every public guardian shall take and file in the court an oath or affirmation that he will support the Constitution of the United States and the Constitution of the State of Illinois and will faithfully discharge the duties of his office and shall enter into a bond payable to the people of the State of Illinois in a sum of not less than $5,000 with security as provided by this Act and approved by the court of the county in which he is appointed, conditioned that he will faithfully discharge the duties of his office. The court may from time to time require additional security of the public administrator or guardian and may require him to give the usual bond required of representatives of estates of decedents, or persons with disabilities disabled persons in other cases. In default of his giving bond within 60 days after receiving his commission or of his giving additional security within 60 days after being ordered by the court to do so, his office is deemed vacant and upon certificate of a judge of the court of that fact the Governor or the Circuit Court shall fill the vacancy.

(Source: P.A. 81-1052.)

(755 ILCS 5/13-3.1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 13-3.1)

Sec. 13-3.1.Compensation of public guardian.

(a) In counties having a population in excess of 1,000,000 the public guardian shall be paid an annual salary, to be set by the County Board at a figure not to exceed the salary of the public defender for the county. All expenses connected with the operation of the office shall be subject to the approval of the County Board and shall be paid from the county treasury. All fees collected shall be paid into the county treasury.

(b) In counties having a population of 1,000,000 or less the public guardian shall receive all the fees of his office and bear the expenses connected with the operation of the office. A public guardian shall be entitled to reasonable and appropriate compensation for services related to guardianship duties but all fees must be reviewed and approved by the court. A public guardian may petition the court for the payment of reasonable and appropriate fees. In counties having a population of 1,000,000 or less, the public guardian shall do so on not less than a yearly basis, or sooner as approved by the court. Any fees or expenses charged by a public guardian shall be documented through billings and maintained by the guardian and supplied to the court for review. In considering the reasonableness of any fee petition brought by a public guardian under this Section, the court shall consider the following:

(1) the powers and duties assigned to the public guardian by the court;

(2) the necessity of any services provided;

(3) the time required, the degree of difficulty, and the experience needed to complete the task;

(4) the needs of the ward and the costs of alternatives; and

(5) other facts and circumstances material to the best interests of the ward or his or her estate.

(c) When the public guardian is appointed as the temporary guardian of an adult with a disability a disabled adult pursuant to an emergency petition under circumstances when the court finds that the immediate establishment of a temporary guardianship is necessary to protect the disabled adult's health, welfare, or estate of the adult with a disability, the public guardian shall be entitled to reasonable and appropriate fees, as determined by the court, for the period of the temporary guardianship, including fees directly associated with establishing the temporary guardianship.

(Source: P.A. 96-752, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(755 ILCS 5/13-5) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 13-5)

Sec. 13-5. Powers and duties of public guardian.) The court may appoint the public guardian as the guardian of any adult with a disability disabled adult who is in need of a public guardian and whose estate exceeds $25,000. When an adult with a disability a disabled adult who has a smaller estate is in need of guardianship services, the court shall appoint the State guardian pursuant to Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act. If the public guardian is appointed guardian of an adult with a disability a disabled adult and the estate of the adult with a disability the disabled adult is thereafter reduced to less than $25,000, the court may, upon the petition of the public guardian and the approval by the court of a final accounting of the disabled adult's estate of the adult with a disability, discharge the public guardian and transfer the guardianship to the State guardian. The public guardian shall serve not less than 14 days' notice to the State guardian of the hearing date regarding the transfer. When appointed by the court, the public guardian has the same powers and duties as other guardians appointed under this Act, with the following additions and modifications:

(a) The public guardian shall monitor the ward and his care and progress on a continuous basis. Monitoring shall at minimum consist of monthly contact with the ward, and the receipt of periodic reports from all individuals and agencies, public or private, providing care or related services to the ward.

(b) Placement of a ward outside of the ward's home may be made only after the public guardian or his representative has visited the facility in which placement is proposed.

(c) The public guardian shall prepare an inventory of the ward's belongings and assets and shall maintain insurance on all of the ward's real and personal property, unless the court determines, and issues an order finding, that (1) the real or personal property lacks sufficient equity, (2) the estate lacks sufficient funds to pay for insurance, or (3) the property is otherwise uninsurable. No personal property shall be removed from the ward's possession except for storage pending final placement or for liquidation in accordance with this Act.

(d) The public guardian shall make no substantial distribution of the ward's estate without a court order.

(e) The public guardian may liquidate assets of the ward to pay for the costs of the ward's care and for storage of the ward's personal property only after notice of such pending action is given to all potential heirs at law, unless notice is waived by the court; provided, however, that a person who has been so notified may elect to pay for care or storage or to pay fair market value of the asset or assets sought to be sold in lieu of liquidation.

(f) Real property of the ward may be sold at fair market value after an appraisal of the property has been made by a licensed appraiser; provided, however, that the ward's residence may be sold only if the court finds that the ward is not likely to be able to return home at a future date.

(g) The public guardian shall, at such intervals as the court may direct, submit to the court an affidavit setting forth in detail the services he has provided for the benefit of the ward.

(h) Upon the death of the ward, the public guardian shall turn over to the court-appointed administrator all of the ward's assets and an account of his receipt and administration of the ward's property. A guardian ad litem shall be appointed for an accounting when the estate exceeds the amount set in Section 25-1 of this Act for administration of small estates.

(i)(1) On petition of any person who appears to have an interest in the estate, the court by temporary order may restrain the public guardian from performing specified acts of administration, disbursement or distribution, or from exercise of any powers or discharge of any duties of his office, or make any other order to secure proper performance of his duty, if it appears to the court that the public guardian might otherwise take some action contrary to the best interests of the ward. Persons with whom the public guardian may transact business may be made parties.

(2) The matter shall be set for hearing within 10 days unless the parties otherwise agree or unless for good cause shown the court determines that additional time is required. Notice as the court directs shall be given to the public guardian and his attorney of record, if any, and to any other parties named defendant in the petition.

(j) On petition of the public guardian, the court in its discretion may for good cause shown transfer guardianship to the State guardian.

(k) No later than January 31 of each year, the public guardian shall file an annual report with the clerk of the Circuit Court, indicating, with respect to the period covered by the report, the number of cases which he has handled, the date on which each case was assigned, the date of termination of each case which has been closed during the period, the disposition of each terminated case, and the total amount of fees collected during the period from each ward.

(l) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-752, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1094, eff. 8-24-12.)

(755 ILCS 5/18-1.1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 18-1.1)

Sec. 18-1.1. Statutory custodial claim. Any spouse, parent, brother, sister, or child of a person with a disability disabled person who dedicates himself or herself to the care of the person with a disability disabled person by living with and personally caring for the person with a disability disabled person for at least 3 years shall be entitled to a claim against the estate upon the death of the person with a disability disabled person. The claim shall take into consideration the claimant's lost employment opportunities, lost lifestyle opportunities, and emotional distress experienced as a result of personally caring for the person with a disability disabled person. Notwithstanding the statutory claim amounts stated in this Section, a court may reduce an amount to the extent that the living arrangements were intended to and did in fact also provide a physical or financial benefit to the claimant. The factors a court may consider in determining whether to reduce a statutory custodial claim amount may include but are not limited to: (i) the free or low cost of housing provided to the claimant; (ii) the alleviation of the need for the claimant to be employed full time; (iii) any financial benefit provided to the claimant; (iv) the personal care received by the claimant from the decedent or others; and (v) the proximity of the care provided by the claimant to the decedent to the time of the decedent's death. The claim shall be in addition to any other claim, including without limitation a reasonable claim for nursing and other care. The claim shall be based upon the nature and extent of the person's disability and, at a minimum but subject to the extent of the assets available, shall be in the amounts set forth below:

1. 100% disability, $180,000

2. 75% disability, $135,000

3. 50% disability, $90,000

4. 25% disability, $45,000

(Source: P.A. 95-315, eff. 1-1-08.)

(755 ILCS 5/18-8) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 18-8)

Sec. 18-8. Claim of representative or his attorney.) If a representative or the representative's attorney has a claim against the estate, that person must file a claim as other persons and the court may appoint a special administrator to appear and defend for the estate. The court may permit the special administrator to prosecute or defend an appeal from the allowance or disallowance of the claim. In the administration of the a disabled person's estate of a person with a disability, notice of the claim of a representative or his or her attorney shall be given by mail or in person to the ward and to all other representatives of the ward's person or estate, within 10 days of filing.

(Source: P.A. 89-396, eff. 8-20-95.)

(755 ILCS 5/23-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 23-2)

Sec. 23-2. Removal.

(a) On petition of any interested person or on the court's own motion, the court may remove a representative if:

(1) the representative is acting under letters secured by false pretenses;

(2) the representative is adjudged a person subject to involuntary admission under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or is adjudged a person with a disability a disabled person;

(3) the representative is convicted of a felony;

(4) the representative wastes or mismanages the estate;

(5) the representative conducts himself or herself in such a manner as to endanger any co-representative or the surety on the representative's bond;

(6) the representative fails to give sufficient bond or security, counter security or a new bond, after being ordered by the court to do so;

(7) the representative fails to file an inventory or accounting after being ordered by the court to do so;

(8) the representative conceals himself or herself so that process cannot be served upon the representative or notice cannot be given to the representative;

(9) the representative becomes incapable of or unsuitable for the discharge of the representative's duties; or

(10) there is other good cause.

(b) If the representative becomes a nonresident of the United States, the court may remove the representative as such representative.

(Source: P.A. 90-430, eff. 8-16-97; 90-472, eff. 8-17-97; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(755 ILCS 5/26-3)

Sec. 26-3. Effect of post-judgment motions. Unless stayed by the court, an order adjudicating a person as a person with a disability disabled and appointing a plenary, limited, or successor guardian pursuant to Section 11a-3, 11a-12, 11a-14, or 11a-15 of this Act shall not be suspended or the enforcement thereof stayed pending the filing and resolution of any post-judgment motion.

(Source: P.A. 97-1095, eff. 8-24-12.)

(755 ILCS 5/28-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 28-2)

Sec. 28-2. Order for independent administration - notice of appointment of independent administrator.) (a) Unless the will, if any, expressly forbids independent administration or supervised administration is required under subsection (b), the court shall grant independent administration (1) when an order is entered appointing a representative pursuant to a petition which does not request supervised administration and which is filed under Section 6-2, 6-9, 6-20, 7-2, 8-2, 9-4 or 9-6 and (2) on petition by the representative at any time or times during supervised administration and such notice to interested persons as the court directs. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the preceding sentence, if there is an interested person who is a minor or person with a disability disabled person, the court may require supervised administration (or may grant independent administration on such conditions as its deems adequate to protect the ward's interest) whenever the court finds that (1) the interests of the ward are not adequately represented by a personal fiduciary acting or designated to act pursuant to Section 28-3 or by another party having a substantially identical interest in the estate and the ward is not represented by a guardian of his estate and (2) supervised administration is necessary to protect the ward's interests. When independent administration is granted, the independent representative shall include with each notice required to be mailed to heirs or legatees under Section 6-10 or Section 9-5 an explanation of the rights of heirs and legatees under this Article and the form of petition which may be used to terminate independent administration under subsection 28-4(a). The form and substance of the notice of rights and the petition to terminate shall be prescribed by rule of the Supreme Court of this State. Each order granting independent administration and the letters shall state that the representative is appointed as independent executor or independent administrator, as the case may be. The independent representative shall file proof of mailing with the clerk of the court.

(b) If an interested person objects to the grant of independent administration under subsection (a), the court shall require supervised administration, except:

(1) If the will, if any, directs independent administration, supervised administration shall be required only if the court finds there is good cause to require supervised administration.

(2) If the objector is a creditor or a legatee other than a residuary legatee, supervised administration shall be required only if the court finds it is necessary to protect the objector's interest, and instead of ordering supervised administration, the court may require such other action as it deems adequate to protect the objector's interest.

(Source: P.A. 84-555; 84-690.)

(755 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 28-3)

Sec. 28-3. Protection of persons under disability during independent administration.) (a) A personal fiduciary acting pursuant to this Article has full power and the responsibility to protect the interests of his ward during independent administration and to do all acts necessary or appropriate for that purpose which the ward might do if not under disability. Approval of any act of the independent representative or of his final report by the personal fiduciary, or failure of the personal fiduciary to object after notice pursuant to this Article, binds the ward. Unless the ward is bound under the preceding sentence, the independent representative is accountable to the ward for damages incurred as a consequence of willful default by the independent representative until the expiration of a period of 6 months after the ward's disability is removed, and any action must be commenced before the expiration of that period. Upon the entry of an order pursuant to Section 28-4 terminating independent administration status, the personal fiduciary's powers and responsibility for continuing to protect the ward's interest terminate. The fact that a personal fiduciary is acting does not limit the right of any person as next friend of the ward to inform the court of any circumstances that may adversely affect the ward's interests in the estate.

(b) The following persons are entitled to act as personal fiduciary for a ward in the order of preference indicated:

(1) The representative of the ward's estate acting in Illinois or, if none, the representative of the ward's estate acting in any other jurisdiction.

(2) The person designated as personal fiduciary in the decedent's will, if any.

(3) The person designated as personal fiduciary by the independent representative in a petition for letters of office or other instrument filed with the clerk of the court.

No person may act as personal fiduciary who is a minor or person with a disability disabled person, who has been convicted of a felony or whose interests conflict with the ward's interests in the decedent's estate. A personal fiduciary designated under subparagraph (3) above shall be a spouse, descendant, parent, grandparent, brother, sister, uncle or aunt of the ward, a guardian of the person of the ward or a party having an interest in the estate substantially identical to that of the ward. The responsibility of a personal fiduciary begins on delivery of his written acceptance of the office to the independent representative. Any personal fiduciary may refuse to act or may resign at any time by instrument delivered to the independent representative. When a personal fiduciary has been appointed and there is a change of personal fiduciary or a vacancy in that office, the independent representative shall inform the court; and the court may designate any suitable person as personal fiduciary when there is a vacancy that has not been filled by the independent representative in accordance with this Section 28-3.

(c) A personal fiduciary is entitled to such reasonable compensation for his services as may be approved by the independent representative or, in the absence of approval, as may be fixed by the court, to be paid out of the estate as an expense of administration.

(d) A personal fiduciary is liable to the ward only for willful default and not for errors in judgment.

(Source: P.A. 85-692.)

(755 ILCS 5/28-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 28-10)

Sec. 28-10. Distribution.) (a) If it appears to the independent representative that there are sufficient assets to pay all claims, the independent representative may at any time or times distribute the estate to the persons entitled thereto. As a condition of any distribution, the independent representative may require the distributee to give him a refunding bond in any amount the independent representative deems reasonable, with surety approved by the independent representative or without surety. If the distribution is made before the expiration of the period when claims are barred under Section 18-12, the independent representative must require the distributee to give him a refunding bond as provided in Section 24-4. If the estate includes an interest in real estate that has not been sold by the independent representative, the independent representative must record and deliver to the persons entitled thereto an instrument which contains the legal description of the real estate and releases the estate's interest.

(b) If abatement or equalization of legacies pursuant to subsection 24-3(b) or (c) is required, the independent representative shall determine the amount of the respective contributions, the manner in which they are paid and whether security is required.

(c) If it appears to the independent representative that the value of the estate of the decedent remaining after payment of 1st class claims does not exceed the amount of the surviving spouse's and child's awards due, the independent representative may deliver the personal estate to the persons entitled to the awards and close the estate as provided in Section 28-11, without waiting until the expiration of the period when claims are barred under Section 18-12.

(d) If property distributed in kind, or a security interest therein, is acquired in good faith by a purchaser or lender for value from a distributee (or from the successors in interest to a distributee) who has received physical delivery or an assignment, deed, release or other instrument of distribution from an independent representative, the purchaser or lender takes title free of the rights of all persons having an interest in the estate and incurs no liability to the estate, whether or not the distribution was proper.

(e) If a distributee is a minor or a person with a disability disabled person, the independent representative may make distribution to the ward's representative, if any, to a custodian for the ward under the Illinois Uniform Transfers to Minors Act or the corresponding statute of any other state in which the ward or the custodian resides, by deposit or investment of the ward's property subject to court order under Section 24-21 or in any other manner authorized by law.

(Source: P.A. 84-1308.)

Section 965. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Sections 2-3, 2-6, 3-3, and 4-1 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/2-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-3)

Sec. 2-3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Agency" means the written power of attorney or other instrument of agency governing the relationship between the principal and agent or the relationship, itself, as appropriate to the context, and includes agencies dealing with personal or health care as well as property. An agency is subject to this Act to the extent it may be controlled by the principal, excluding agencies and powers for the benefit of the agent.

(b) "Agent" means the attorney-in-fact or other person designated to act for the principal in the agency.

(c) "Person with a disability Disabled person" has the same meaning as in the "Probate Act of 1975", as now or hereafter amended. To be under a "disability" or "disabled" means to be a person with a disability disabled person.

(c-5) "Incapacitated", when used to describe a principal, means that the principal is under a legal disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975. A principal shall also be considered incapacitated if: (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches has examined the principal and has determined that the principal lacks decision making capacity; (ii) that physician has made a written record of this determination and has signed the written record within 90 days after the examination; and (iii) the written record has been delivered to the agent. The agent may rely conclusively on the written record.

(d) "Person" means an individual, corporation, trust, partnership or other entity, as appropriate to the agency.

(e) "Principal" means an individual (including, without limitation, an individual acting as trustee, representative or other fiduciary) who signs a power of attorney or other instrument of agency granting powers to an agent.

(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11.)

(755 ILCS 45/2-6) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-6)

Sec. 2-6. Effect of disability-divorce. (a) All acts of the agent within the scope of the agency during any period of disability, incapacity or incompetency of the principal have the same effect and inure to the benefit of and bind the principal and his or her successors in interest as if the principal were competent and not a person with a disability disabled.

(b) If a court enters a judgement of dissolution of marriage or legal separation between the principal and his or her spouse after the agency is signed, the spouse shall be deemed to have died at the time of the judgment for all purposes of the agency.

(Source: P.A. 85-701.)

(755 ILCS 45/3-3) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 803-3)

Sec. 3-3. Statutory short form power of attorney for property.

(a) The form prescribed in this Section may be known as "statutory property power" and may be used to grant an agent powers with respect to property and financial matters. The "statutory property power" consists of the following: (1) Notice to the Individual Signing the Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property; (2) Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property; and (3) Notice to Agent. When a power of attorney in substantially the form prescribed in this Section is used, including all 3 items above, with item (1), the Notice to Individual Signing the Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property, on a separate sheet (coversheet) in 14-point type and the notarized form of acknowledgment at the end, it shall have the meaning and effect prescribed in this Act.

(b) A power of attorney shall also be deemed to be in substantially the same format as the statutory form if the explanatory language throughout the form (the language following the designation "NOTE:") is distinguished in some way from the legal paragraphs in the form, such as the use of boldface or other difference in typeface and font or point size, even if the "Notice" paragraphs at the beginning are not on a separate sheet of paper or are not in 14-point type, or if the principal's initials do not appear in the acknowledgement at the end of the "Notice" paragraphs.

The validity of a power of attorney as meeting the requirements of a statutory property power shall not be affected by the fact that one or more of the categories of optional powers listed in the form are struck out or the form includes specific limitations on or additions to the agent's powers, as permitted by the form. Nothing in this Article shall invalidate or bar use by the principal of any other or different form of power of attorney for property. Nonstatutory property powers (i) must be executed by the principal, (ii) must designate the agent and the agent's powers, (iii) must be signed by at least one witness to the principal's signature, and (iv) must indicate that the principal has acknowledged his or her signature before a notary public. However, nonstatutory property powers need not conform in any other respect to the statutory property power.

(c) The Notice to the Individual Signing the Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property shall be substantially as follows:

"NOTICE TO THE INDIVIDUAL SIGNING THE ILLINOIS

STATUTORY SHORT FORM POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR PROPERTY.

PLEASE READ THIS NOTICE CAREFULLY. The form that you will be signing is a legal document. It is governed by the Illinois Power of Attorney Act. If there is anything about this form that you do not understand, you should ask a lawyer to explain it to you.

The purpose of this Power of Attorney is to give your designated "agent" broad powers to handle your financial affairs, which may include the power to pledge, sell, or dispose of any of your real or personal property, even without your consent or any advance notice to you. When using the Statutory Short Form, you may name successor agents, but you may not name co-agents.

This form does not impose a duty upon your agent to handle your financial affairs, so it is important that you select an agent who will agree to do this for you. It is also important to select an agent whom you trust, since you are giving that agent control over your financial assets and property. Any agent who does act for you has a duty to act in good faith for your benefit and to use due care, competence, and diligence. He or she must also act in accordance with the law and with the directions in this form. Your agent must keep a record of all receipts, disbursements, and significant actions taken as your agent.

Unless you specifically limit the period of time that this Power of Attorney will be in effect, your agent may exercise the powers given to him or her throughout your lifetime, both before and after you become incapacitated. A court, however, can take away the powers of your agent if it finds that the agent is not acting properly. You may also revoke this Power of Attorney if you wish.

This Power of Attorney does not authorize your agent to appear in court for you as an attorney-at-law or otherwise to engage in the practice of law unless he or she is a licensed attorney who is authorized to practice law in Illinois.

The powers you give your agent are explained more fully in Section 3-4 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act. This form is a part of that law. The "NOTE" paragraphs throughout this form are instructions.

You are not required to sign this Power of Attorney, but it will not take effect without your signature. You should not sign this Power of Attorney if you do not understand everything in it, and what your agent will be able to do if you do sign it.

Please place your initials on the following line indicating that you have read this Notice:

.....................

Principal's initials"

(d) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property shall be substantially as follows:

"ILLINOIS STATUTORY SHORT FORM

POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR PROPERTY

1. I, ..............., (insert name and address of principal) hereby revoke all prior powers of attorney for property executed by me and appoint:

.............................................................

(insert name and address of agent)

(NOTE: You may not name co-agents using this form.) as my attorney-in-fact (my "agent") to act for me and in my name (in any way I could act in person) with respect to the following powers, as defined in Section 3-4 of the "Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Property Law" (including all amendments), but subject to any limitations on or additions to the specified powers inserted in paragraph 2 or 3 below:

(NOTE: You must strike out any one or more of the following categories of powers you do not want your agent to have. Failure to strike the title of any category will cause the powers described in that category to be granted to the agent. To strike out a category you must draw a line through the title of that category.)

(a) Real estate transactions.

(b) Financial institution transactions.

(c) Stock and bond transactions.

(d) Tangible personal property transactions.

(e) Safe deposit box transactions.

(f) Insurance and annuity transactions.

(g) Retirement plan transactions.

(h) Social Security, employment and military service benefits.

(i) Tax matters.

(j) Claims and litigation.

(k) Commodity and option transactions.

(l) Business operations.

(m) Borrowing transactions.

(n) Estate transactions.

(o) All other property transactions.

(NOTE: Limitations on and additions to the agent's powers may be included in this power of attorney if they are specifically described below.)

2. The powers granted above shall not include the following powers or shall be modified or limited in the following particulars:

(NOTE: Here you may include any specific limitations you deem appropriate, such as a prohibition or conditions on the sale of particular stock or real estate or special rules on borrowing by the agent.)

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

3. In addition to the powers granted above, I grant my agent the following powers:

(NOTE: Here you may add any other delegable powers including, without limitation, power to make gifts, exercise powers of appointment, name or change beneficiaries or joint tenants or revoke or amend any trust specifically referred to below.)

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

.............................................................

(NOTE: Your agent will have authority to employ other persons as necessary to enable the agent to properly exercise the powers granted in this form, but your agent will have to make all discretionary decisions. If you want to give your agent the right to delegate discretionary decision-making powers to others, you should keep paragraph 4, otherwise it should be struck out.)

4. My agent shall have the right by written instrument to delegate any or all of the foregoing powers involving discretionary decision-making to any person or persons whom my agent may select, but such delegation may be amended or revoked by any agent (including any successor) named by me who is acting under this power of attorney at the time of reference.

(NOTE: Your agent will be entitled to reimbursement for all reasonable expenses incurred in acting under this power of attorney. Strike out paragraph 5 if you do not want your agent to also be entitled to reasonable compensation for services as agent.)

5. My agent shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for services rendered as agent under this power of attorney.

(NOTE: This power of attorney may be amended or revoked by you at any time and in any manner. Absent amendment or revocation, the authority granted in this power of attorney will become effective at the time this power is signed and will continue until your death, unless a limitation on the beginning date or duration is made by initialing and completing one or both of paragraphs 6 and 7:)

6. ( ) This power of attorney shall become effective on

.............................................................

(NOTE: Insert a future date or event during your lifetime, such as a court determination of your disability or a written determination by your physician that you are incapacitated, when you want this power to first take effect.)

7. ( ) This power of attorney shall terminate on

.............................................................

(NOTE: Insert a future date or event, such as a court determination that you are not under a legal disability or a written determination by your physician that you are not incapacitated, if you want this power to terminate prior to your death.)

(NOTE: If you wish to name one or more successor agents, insert the name and address of each successor agent in paragraph 8.)

8. If any agent named by me shall die, become incompetent, resign or refuse to accept the office of agent, I name the following (each to act alone and successively, in the order named) as successor(s) to such agent:

.............................................................

.............................................................

For purposes of this paragraph 8, a person shall be considered to be incompetent if and while the person is a minor or an adjudicated incompetent or a person with a disability disabled person or the person is unable to give prompt and intelligent consideration to business matters, as certified by a licensed physician. (NOTE: If you wish to, you may name your agent as guardian of your estate if a court decides that one should be appointed. To do this, retain paragraph 9, and the court will appoint your agent if the court finds that this appointment will serve your best interests and welfare. Strike out paragraph 9 if you do not want your agent to act as guardian.)

9. If a guardian of my estate (my property) is to be appointed, I nominate the agent acting under this power of attorney as such guardian, to serve without bond or security.

10. I am fully informed as to all the contents of this form and understand the full import of this grant of powers to my agent.

(NOTE: This form does not authorize your agent to appear in court for you as an attorney-at-law or otherwise to engage in the practice of law unless he or she is a licensed attorney who is authorized to practice law in Illinois.)

11. The Notice to Agent is incorporated by reference and included as part of this form. Dated: ................

Signed ..........................................

(principal)

(NOTE: This power of attorney will not be effective unless it is signed by at least one witness and your signature is notarized, using the form below. The notary may not also sign as a witness.)

The undersigned witness certifies that ..............., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as principal to the foregoing power of attorney, appeared before me and the notary public and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as the free and voluntary act of the principal, for the uses and purposes therein set forth. I believe him or her to be of sound mind and memory. The undersigned witness also certifies that the witness is not: (a) the attending physician or mental health service provider or a relative of the physician or provider; (b) an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or operator of a health care facility in which the principal is a patient or resident; (c) a parent, sibling, descendant, or any spouse of such parent, sibling, or descendant of either the principal or any agent or successor agent under the foregoing power of attorney, whether such relationship is by blood, marriage, or adoption; or (d) an agent or successor agent under the foregoing power of attorney.

Dated: ................

..............................

Witness

(NOTE: Illinois requires only one witness, but other jurisdictions may require more than one witness. If you wish to have a second witness, have him or her certify and sign here:)

(Second witness) The undersigned witness certifies that ................, known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as principal to the foregoing power of attorney, appeared before me and the notary public and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as the free and voluntary act of the principal, for the uses and purposes therein set forth. I believe him or her to be of sound mind and memory. The undersigned witness also certifies that the witness is not: (a) the attending physician or mental health service provider or a relative of the physician or provider; (b) an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or operator of a health care facility in which the principal is a patient or resident; (c) a parent, sibling, descendant, or any spouse of such parent, sibling, or descendant of either the principal or any agent or successor agent under the foregoing power of attorney, whether such relationship is by blood, marriage, or adoption; or (d) an agent or successor agent under the foregoing power of attorney. Dated: .......................

..............................

Witness

State of ............) ) SS. County of ...........)

The undersigned, a notary public in and for the above county and state, certifies that ......................., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as principal to the foregoing power of attorney, appeared before me and the witness(es) ............. (and ..............) in person and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as the free and voluntary act of the principal, for the uses and purposes therein set forth (, and certified to the correctness of the signature(s) of the agent(s)).

Dated: ................

..............................

Notary Public

My commission expires .................

(NOTE: You may, but are not required to, request your agent and successor agents to provide specimen signatures below. If you include specimen signatures in this power of attorney, you must complete the certification opposite the signatures of the agents.)

Specimen signatures of I certify that the signatures agent (and successors) of my agent (and successors) are genuine. .......................... ............................. (agent) (principal) .......................... ............................. (successor agent) (principal) .......................... ............................. (successor agent) (principal)

(NOTE: The name, address, and phone number of the person preparing this form or who assisted the principal in completing this form should be inserted below.)

Name: ....................... Address: .................... .............................. .............................. Phone: .................... "

(e) Notice to Agent. The following form may be known as "Notice to Agent" and shall be supplied to an agent appointed under a power of attorney for property.

"NOTICE TO AGENT

When you accept the authority granted under this power of attorney a special legal relationship, known as agency, is created between you and the principal. Agency imposes upon you duties that continue until you resign or the power of attorney is terminated or revoked.

As agent you must:

(1) do what you know the principal reasonably expects you to do with the principal's property;

(2) act in good faith for the best interest of the principal, using due care, competence, and diligence;

(3) keep a complete and detailed record of all receipts, disbursements, and significant actions conducted for the principal;

(4) attempt to preserve the principal's estate plan, to the extent actually known by the agent, if preserving the plan is consistent with the principal's best interest; and

(5) cooperate with a person who has authority to make health care decisions for the principal to carry out the principal's reasonable expectations to the extent actually in the principal's best interest.

As agent you must not do any of the following:

(1) act so as to create a conflict of interest that is inconsistent with the other principles in this Notice to Agent;

(2) do any act beyond the authority granted in this power of attorney;

(3) commingle the principal's funds with your funds;

(4) borrow funds or other property from the principal, unless otherwise authorized;

(5) continue acting on behalf of the principal if you learn of any event that terminates this power of attorney or your authority under this power of attorney, such as the death of the principal, your legal separation from the principal, or the dissolution of your marriage to the principal.

If you have special skills or expertise, you must use those special skills and expertise when acting for the principal. You must disclose your identity as an agent whenever you act for the principal by writing or printing the name of the principal and signing your own name "as Agent" in the following manner:

"(Principal's Name) by (Your Name) as Agent"

The meaning of the powers granted to you is contained in Section 3-4 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, which is incorporated by reference into the body of the power of attorney for property document.

If you violate your duties as agent or act outside the authority granted to you, you may be liable for any damages, including attorney's fees and costs, caused by your violation.

If there is anything about this document or your duties that you do not understand, you should seek legal advice from an attorney."

(f) The requirement of the signature of a witness in addition to the principal and the notary, imposed by Public Act 91-790, applies only to instruments executed on or after June 9, 2000 (the effective date of that Public Act).

(NOTE: This amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly deletes provisions that referred to the one required witness as an "additional witness", and it also provides for the signature of an optional "second witness".)

(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11.)

(755 ILCS 45/4-1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-1)

Sec. 4-1. Purpose. The General Assembly recognizes the right of the individual to control all aspects of his or her personal care and medical treatment, including the right to decline medical treatment or to direct that it be withdrawn, even if death ensues. The right of the individual to decide about personal care overrides the obligation of the physician and other health care providers to render care or to preserve life and health.

However, if the individual becomes a person with a disability disabled, her or his right to control treatment may be denied unless the individual, as principal, can delegate the decision making power to a trusted agent and be sure that the agent's power to make personal and health care decisions for the principal will be effective to the same extent as though made by the principal.

The Illinois statutory recognition of the right of delegation for health care purposes needs to be restated to make it clear that its scope is intended to be as broad as the comparable right of delegation for property and financial matters. However, the General Assembly recognizes that powers concerning life and death and the other issues involved in health care agencies are more sensitive than property matters and that particular rules and forms are necessary for health care agencies to insure their validity and efficacy and to protect health care providers so that they will honor the authority of the agent at all times. For purposes of emphasis and their particular application to health care, the General Assembly restates the purposes and public policy announced in Article II, Section 2-1 of this Act as if those purposes and public policies were set forth verbatim in this Section.

In furtherance of these purposes, the General Assembly adopts this Article, setting forth general principles governing health care agencies and a statutory short form power of attorney for health care, intending that when a power in substantially the form set forth in this Article is used, health care providers and other third parties who rely in good faith on the acts and decisions of the agent within the scope of the power may do so without fear of civil or criminal liability to the principal, the State or any other person. However, the form of health care agency in this Article is not intended to be exclusive and other forms of powers of attorney chosen by the principal that comply with Section 4-5 of this Article may offer powers and protection similar to the statutory short form power of attorney for health care.

(Source: P.A. 85-1395.)

Section 970. The Trusts and Trustees Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 15.1, 16.1, and 16.4 as follows:

(760 ILCS 5/15) (from Ch. 17, par. 1685)

Sec. 15. Minor or person with a disability disabled person-Authority of Representative. The representative of the estate of a beneficiary under legal disability or a spouse, parent, adult child, or guardian of the person of a beneficiary for whose estate no representative has been appointed, may act for the beneficiary in receiving and approving any account of the trustee appointing a successor trustee and executing any receipt and receiving any notice from the trustee.

(Source: P.A. 82-354.)

(760 ILCS 5/15.1) (from Ch. 17, par. 1685.1)

Sec. 15.1. Trust for a beneficiary with a disability disabled beneficiary. A discretionary trust for the benefit of an individual who has a disability that substantially impairs the individual's ability to provide for his or her own care or custody and constitutes a substantial disability handicap shall not be liable to pay or reimburse the State or any public agency for financial aid or services to the individual except to the extent the trust was created by the individual or trust property has been distributed directly to or is otherwise under the control of the individual, provided that such exception shall not apply to a trust created with the disabled individual's own property of the individual with a disability or property within his or her control if the trust complies with Medicaid reimbursement requirements of federal law. Notwithstanding any other provisions to the contrary, a trust created with the disabled individual's own property of the individual with a disability or property within his or her control shall be liable, after reimbursement of Medicaid expenditures, to the State for reimbursement of any other service charges outstanding at the death of the individual with a disability disabled individual. Property, goods and services purchased or owned by a trust for and used or consumed by a beneficiary with a disability disabled beneficiary shall not be considered trust property distributed to or under the control of the beneficiary. A discretionary trust is one in which the trustee has discretionary power to determine distributions to be made under the trust.

(Source: P.A. 89-205, eff. 1-1-96.)

(760 ILCS 5/16.1)

Sec. 16.1. Virtual representation.

(a) Representation by a beneficiary with a substantially similar interest, by the primary beneficiaries and by others.

(1) To the extent there is no conflict of interest between the representative and the represented beneficiary with respect to the particular question or dispute, a beneficiary who is a minor or a beneficiary with a disability or an disabled or unborn beneficiary, or a beneficiary whose identity or location is unknown and not reasonably ascertainable (hereinafter referred to as an "unascertainable beneficiary"), may for all purposes be represented by and bound by another beneficiary having a substantially similar interest with respect to the particular question or dispute; provided, however, that the represented beneficiary is not otherwise represented by a guardian or agent in accordance with subdivision (a)(4) or by a parent in accordance with subdivision (a)(5).

(2) If all primary beneficiaries of a trust either have legal capacity or have representatives in accordance with this subsection (a) who have legal capacity, the actions of such primary beneficiaries, in each case either by the beneficiary or by the beneficiary's representative, shall represent and bind all other beneficiaries who have a successor, contingent, future, or other interest in the trust.

(3) For purposes of this Act:

(A) "Primary beneficiary" means a beneficiary of a trust who as of the date of determination is either: (i) currently eligible to receive income or principal from the trust, or (ii) a presumptive remainder beneficiary.

(B) "Presumptive remainder beneficiary" means a beneficiary of a trust, as of the date of determination and assuming nonexercise of all powers of appointment, who either: (i) would be eligible to receive a distribution of income or principal if the trust terminated on that date, or (ii) would be eligible to receive a distribution of income or principal if the interests of all beneficiaries currently eligible to receive income or principal from the trust ended on that date without causing the trust to terminate.

(C) "Person with a disability" Disabled person" as of any date means either a person with a disability disabled person within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975 or a person who, within the 365 days immediately preceding that date, was examined by a licensed physician who determined that the person lacked the capacity to make prudent financial decisions, and the physician made a written record of the physician's determination and signed the written record within 90 days after the examination.

(D) A person has legal capacity unless the person is a minor or a person with a disability disabled person.

(4) If a trust beneficiary is represented by a court appointed guardian of the estate or, if none, guardian of the person, the guardian shall represent and bind the beneficiary. If a trust beneficiary is a person with a disability disabled person, an agent under a power of attorney for property who has authority to act with respect to the particular question or dispute and who does not have a conflict of interest with respect to the particular question or dispute may represent and bind the principal. An agent is deemed to have such authority if the power of attorney grants the agent the power to settle claims and to exercise powers with respect to trusts and estates, even if the powers do not include powers to make a will, to revoke or amend a trust, or to require the trustee to pay income or principal. Absent a court order pursuant to the Illinois Power of Attorney Act directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, an agent under a power of attorney for property who in accordance with this subdivision has authority to represent and bind a principal with a disability disabled principal takes precedence over a court appointed guardian unless the court specifies otherwise. This subdivision applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(5) If a trust beneficiary is a minor or a person with a disability or an disabled or unborn person and is not represented by a guardian or agent in accordance with subdivision (a)(4), then a parent of the beneficiary may represent and bind the beneficiary, provided that there is no conflict of interest between the represented person and either of the person's parents with respect to the particular question or dispute. If a disagreement arises between parents who otherwise qualify to represent a child in accordance with this subsection (a) and who are seeking to represent the same child, the parent who is a lineal descendant of the settlor of the trust that is the subject of the representation is entitled to represent the child; or if none, the parent who is a beneficiary of the trust is entitled to represent the child.

(6) A guardian, agent or parent who is the representative for a beneficiary under subdivision (a)(4) or (a)(5) may, for all purposes, represent and bind any other beneficiary who is a minor or a beneficiary with a disability or an disabled, unborn, or unascertainable beneficiary who has an interest, with respect to the particular question or dispute, that is substantially similar to the interest of the beneficiary represented by the representative, but only to the extent that there is no conflict of interest between the beneficiary represented by the representative and the other beneficiary with respect to the particular question or dispute; provided, however, that the other beneficiary is not otherwise represented by a guardian or agent in accordance with subdivision (a)(4) or by a parent in accordance with subdivision (a)(5).

(7) The action or consent of a representative who may represent and bind a beneficiary in accordance with this Section is binding on the beneficiary represented, and notice or service of process to the representative has the same effect as if the notice or service of process were given directly to the beneficiary represented.

(8) Nothing in this Section limits the discretionary power of a court in a judicial proceeding to appoint a guardian ad litem for any beneficiary who is a minor, beneficiary who has a disability, unborn beneficiary, or unascertainable beneficiary minor, disabled, unborn, or unascertainable beneficiary with respect to a particular question or dispute, but appointment of a guardian ad litem need not be considered and is not necessary if such beneficiary is otherwise represented in accordance with this Section.

(b) Total return trusts. This Section shall apply to enable conversion to a total return trust by agreement in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 5.3 of this Act, by agreement between the trustee and all primary beneficiaries of the trust, in each case either by the beneficiary or by the beneficiary's representative in accordance with this Section.

(c) Representation of charity. If a trust provides a beneficial interest or expectancy for one or more charities or charitable purposes that are not specifically named or otherwise represented (the "charitable interest"), the Illinois Attorney General may, in accordance with this Section, represent, bind, and act on behalf of the charitable interest with respect to any particular question or dispute, including without limitation representing the charitable interest in a nonjudicial settlement agreement or in an agreement to convert a trust to a total return trust in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 5.3 of this Act. A charity that is specifically named as beneficiary of a trust or that otherwise has an express beneficial interest in a trust may act for itself. Notwithstanding any other provision, nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or affect the Illinois Attorney General's authority to file an action or take other steps as he or she deems advisable at any time to enforce or protect the general public interest as to a trust that provides a beneficial interest or expectancy for one or more charities or charitable purposes whether or not a specific charity is named in the trust. This subsection (c) shall be construed as being declarative of existing law and not as a new enactment.

(d) Nonjudicial settlement agreements.

(1) For purposes of this Section, "interested persons" means the trustee and all beneficiaries, or their respective representatives determined after giving effect to the preceding provisions of this Section, whose consent or joinder would be required in order to achieve a binding settlement were the settlement to be approved by the court. "Interested persons" also includes a trust advisor, investment advisor, distribution advisor, trust protector or other holder, or committee of holders, of fiduciary or nonfiduciary powers, if the person then holds powers material to a particular question or dispute to be resolved or affected by a nonjudicial settlement agreement in accordance with this Section or by the court.

(2) Interested persons, or their respective representatives determined after giving effect to the preceding provisions of this Section, may enter into a binding nonjudicial settlement agreement with respect to any matter involving a trust as provided in this Section.

(3) (Blank).

(4) The following matters may be resolved by a nonjudicial settlement agreement:

(A) Validity, interpretation, or construction of the terms of the trust.

(B) Approval of a trustee's report or accounting.

(C) Exercise or nonexercise of any power by a trustee.

(D) The grant to a trustee of any necessary or desirable administrative power, provided the grant does not conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust.

(E) Questions relating to property or an interest in property held by the trust, provided the resolution does not conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust.

(F) Removal, appointment, or removal and appointment of a trustee, trust advisor, investment advisor, distribution advisor, trust protector or other holder, or committee of holders, of fiduciary or nonfiduciary powers, including without limitation designation of a plan of succession or procedure to determine successors to any such office.

(G) Determination of a trustee's compensation.

(H) Transfer of a trust's principal place of administration, including without limitation to change the law governing administration of the trust.

(I) Liability or indemnification of a trustee for an action relating to the trust.

(J) Resolution of bona fide disputes related to administration, investment, distribution or other matters.

(K) Modification of terms of the trust pertaining to administration of the trust.

(L) Termination of the trust, provided that court approval of such termination must be obtained in accordance with subdivision (d)(5) of this Section, and the court must conclude continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any clear material purpose of the trust. The court may consider spendthrift provisions as a factor in making a decision under this subdivision, but a spendthrift provision is not necessarily a clear material purpose of a trust, and the court is not precluded from modifying or terminating a trust because the trust instrument contains a spendthrift provision. Upon such termination the court may order the trust property distributed as agreed by the parties to the agreement or otherwise as the court determines equitable consistent with the purposes of the trust.

(M) Any other matter involving a trust to the extent the terms and conditions of the nonjudicial settlement agreement could be properly approved under applicable law by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(4.5) If a charitable interest or a specifically named charity is a current beneficiary, is a presumptive remainder beneficiary, or has any vested interest in a trust, the parties to any proposed nonjudicial settlement agreement affecting the trust shall deliver to the Attorney General's Charitable Trust Bureau written notice of the proposed agreement at least 60 days prior to its effective date. The Bureau need take no action, but if it objects in a writing delivered to one or more of the parties prior to the proposed effective date, the agreement shall not take effect unless the parties obtain court approval.

(5) Any beneficiary or other interested person may request the court to approve any part or all of a nonjudicial settlement agreement, including whether any representation is adequate and without conflict of interest, provided that the petition for such approval must be filed before or within 60 days after the effective date of the agreement.

(6) An agreement entered into in accordance with this Section shall be final and binding on the trustee, on all beneficiaries of the trust, both current and future, and on all other interested persons as if ordered by a court with competent jurisdiction over the trust, the trust property, and all parties in interest.

(7) In the trustee's sole discretion, the trustee may, but is not required to, obtain and rely upon an opinion of counsel on any matter relevant to this Section, including without limitation: (i) where required by this Section, that the agreement proposed to be made in accordance with this Section does not conflict with a clear material purpose of the trust or could be properly approved by the court under applicable law; (ii) in the case of a trust termination, that continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any clear material purpose of the trust; (iii) that there is no conflict of interest between a representative and the person represented with respect to the particular question or dispute; or (iv) that the representative and the person represented have substantially similar interests with respect to the particular question or dispute.

(e) Application. On and after its effective date, this Section applies to all existing and future trusts, judicial proceedings, or agreements entered into in accordance with this Section on or after the effective date.

(f) This Section shall be construed as pertaining to the administration of a trust and shall be available to any trust that is administered in this State or that is governed by Illinois law with respect to the meaning and effect of its terms, except to the extent the governing instrument expressly prohibits the use of this Section by specific reference to this Section. A provision in the governing instrument in the form: "Neither the provisions of Section 16.1 of the Illinois Trusts and Trustees Act nor any corresponding provision of future law may be used in the administration of this trust", or a similar provision demonstrating that intent, is sufficient to preclude the use of this Section.

(g) The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to all trusts in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly or created after that date, and are applicable to judicial proceedings and nonjudicial matters involving such trusts. For purposes of this Section:

(i) judicial proceedings include any proceeding before a court or administrative tribunal of this State and any arbitration or mediation proceedings; and

(ii) nonjudicial matters include, but are not limited to, nonjudicial settlement agreements entered into in accordance with this Section and the grant of any consent, release, ratification, or indemnification.

(Source: P.A. 98-946, eff. 1-1-15.)

(760 ILCS 5/16.4)

Sec. 16.4. Distribution of trust principal in further trust.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

"Absolute discretion" means the right to distribute principal that is not limited or modified in any manner to or for the benefit of one or more beneficiaries of the trust, whether or not the term "absolute" is used. A power to distribute principal that includes purposes such as best interests, welfare, or happiness shall constitute absolute discretion.

"Authorized trustee" means an entity or individual, other than the settlor, who has authority under the terms of the first trust to distribute the principal of the trust for the benefit of one or more current beneficiaries.

"Code" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended from time to time, including corresponding provisions of subsequent internal revenue laws and corresponding provisions of State law.

"Current beneficiary" means a person who is currently receiving or eligible to receive a distribution of principal or income from the trustee on the date of the exercise of the power.

"Distribute" means the power to pay directly to the beneficiary of a trust or make application for the benefit of the beneficiary.

"First trust" means an existing irrevocable inter vivos or testamentary trust part or all of the principal of which is distributed in further trust under subsection (c) or (d).

"Presumptive remainder beneficiary" means a beneficiary of a trust, as of the date of determination and assuming non-exercise of all powers of appointment, who either (i) would be eligible to receive a distribution of income or principal if the trust terminated on that date, or (ii) would be eligible to receive a distribution of income or principal if the interests of all beneficiaries currently eligible to receive income or principal from the trust ended on that date without causing the trust to terminate.

"Principal" includes the income of the trust at the time of the exercise of the power that is not currently required to be distributed, including accrued and accumulated income.

"Second trust" means any irrevocable trust to which principal is distributed in accordance with subsection (c) or (d).

"Successor beneficiary" means any beneficiary other than the current and presumptive remainder beneficiaries, but does not include a potential appointee of a power of appointment held by a beneficiary.

(b) Purpose. An independent trustee who has discretion to make distributions to the beneficiaries shall exercise that discretion in the trustee's fiduciary capacity, whether the trustee's discretion is absolute or limited to ascertainable standards, in furtherance of the purposes of the trust.

(c) Distribution to second trust if absolute discretion. An authorized trustee who has the absolute discretion to distribute the principal of a trust may distribute part or all of the principal of the trust in favor of a trustee of a second trust for the benefit of one, more than one, or all of the current beneficiaries of the first trust and for the benefit of one, more than one, or all of the successor and remainder beneficiaries of the first trust.

(1) If the authorized trustee exercises the power under this subsection, the authorized trustee may grant a power of appointment (including a presently exercisable power of appointment) in the second trust to one or more of the current beneficiaries of the first trust, provided that the beneficiary granted a power to appoint could receive the principal outright under the terms of the first trust.

(2) If the authorized trustee grants a power of appointment, the class of permissible appointees in favor of whom a beneficiary may exercise the power of appointment granted in the second trust may be broader than or otherwise different from the current, successor, and presumptive remainder beneficiaries of the first trust.

(3) If the beneficiary or beneficiaries of the first trust are described as a class of persons, the beneficiary or beneficiaries of the second trust may include one or more persons of such class who become includible in the class after the distribution to the second trust.

(d) Distribution to second trust if no absolute discretion. An authorized trustee who has the power to distribute the principal of a trust but does not have the absolute discretion to distribute the principal of the trust may distribute part or all of the principal of the first trust in favor of a trustee of a second trust, provided that the current beneficiaries of the second trust shall be the same as the current beneficiaries of the first trust and the successor and remainder beneficiaries of the second trust shall be the same as the successor and remainder beneficiaries of the first trust.

(1) If the authorized trustee exercises the power under this subsection (d), the second trust shall include the same language authorizing the trustee to distribute the income or principal of a trust as set forth in the first trust.

(2) If the beneficiary or beneficiaries of the first trust are described as a class of persons, the beneficiary or beneficiaries of the second trust shall include all persons who become includible in the class after the distribution to the second trust.

(3) If the authorized trustee exercises the power under this subsection (d) and if the first trust grants a power of appointment to a beneficiary of the trust, the second trust shall grant such power of appointment in the second trust and the class of permissible appointees shall be the same as in the first trust.

(4) Supplemental Needs Trusts.

(i) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this subsection (d), the authorized trustee may distribute part or all of the principal of the interest of a beneficiary who has a disability a disabled beneficiary's interest in the first trust in favor of a trustee of a second trust which is a supplemental needs trust if the authorized trustee determines that to do so would be in the best interests of the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary.

(ii) Definitions. For purposes of this subsection (d):

"Best interests" of a beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary include, without limitation, consideration of the financial impact to the disabled beneficiary's family of the beneficiary who has a disability.

"Beneficiary who has a disability Disabled beneficiary" means a current beneficiary, presumptive remainder beneficiary, or successor beneficiary of the first trust who the authorized trustee determines has a disability that substantially impairs the beneficiary's ability to provide for his or her own care or custody and that constitutes a substantial disability handicap, whether or not the beneficiary has been adjudicated a "person with a disability" disabled person".

"Governmental benefits" means financial aid or services from any State, Federal, or other public agency.

"Supplemental needs second trust" means a trust that complies with paragraph (iii) of this paragraph (4) and that relative to the first trust contains either lesser or greater restrictions on the trustee's power to distribute trust income or principal and which the trustee believes would, if implemented, allow the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary to receive a greater degree of governmental benefits than the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary will receive if no distribution is made.

(iii) Remainder beneficiaries. A supplemental needs second trust may name remainder and successor beneficiaries other than the disabled beneficiary's estate of the beneficiary with a disability, provided that the second trust names the same presumptive remainder beneficiaries and successor beneficiaries to the disabled beneficiary's interest of the beneficiary who has a disability, and in the same proportions, as exist in the first trust. In addition to the foregoing, where the first trust was created by the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary or the trust property has been distributed directly to or is otherwise under the control of the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary, the authorized trustee may distribute to a "pooled trust" as defined by federal Medicaid law for the benefit of the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary or the supplemental needs second trust must contain pay back provisions complying with Medicaid reimbursement requirements of federal law.

(iv) Reimbursement. A supplemental needs second trust shall not be liable to pay or reimburse the State or any public agency for financial aid or services to the beneficiary who has a disability disabled beneficiary except as provided in the supplemental needs second trust.

(e) Notice. An authorized trustee may exercise the power to distribute in favor of a second trust under subsections (c) and (d) without the consent of the settlor or the beneficiaries of the first trust and without court approval if:

(1) there are one or more legally competent current beneficiaries and one or more legally competent presumptive remainder beneficiaries and the authorized trustee sends written notice of the trustee's decision, specifying the manner in which the trustee intends to exercise the power and the prospective effective date for the distribution, to all of the legally competent current beneficiaries and presumptive remainder beneficiaries, determined as of the date the notice is sent and assuming non-exercise of all powers of appointment; and

(2) no beneficiary to whom notice was sent objects to the distribution in writing delivered to the trustee within 60 days after the notice is sent ("notice period").

A trustee is not required to provide a copy of the notice to a beneficiary who is known to the trustee but who cannot be located by the trustee after reasonable diligence or who is not known to the trustee.

If a charity is a current beneficiary or presumptive remainder beneficiary of the trust, the notice shall also be given to the Attorney General's Charitable Trust Bureau.

(f) Court involvement.

(1) The trustee may for any reason elect to petition the court to order the distribution, including, without limitation, the reason that the trustee's exercise of the power to distribute under this Section is unavailable, such as:

(a) a beneficiary timely objects to the distribution in a writing delivered to the trustee within the time period specified in the notice; or

(b) there are no legally competent current beneficiaries or legally competent presumptive remainder beneficiaries.

(2) If the trustee receives a written objection within the notice period, either the trustee or the beneficiary may petition the court to approve, modify, or deny the exercise of the trustee's powers. The trustee has the burden of proving the proposed exercise of the power furthers the purposes of the trust.

(3) In a judicial proceeding under this subsection (f), the trustee may, but need not, present the trustee's opinions and reasons for supporting or opposing the proposed distribution, including whether the trustee believes it would enable the trustee to better carry out the purposes of the trust. A trustee's actions in accordance with this Section shall not be deemed improper or inconsistent with the trustee's duty of impartiality unless the court finds from all the evidence that the trustee acted in bad faith.

(g) Term of the second trust. The second trust to which an authorized trustee distributes the assets of the first trust may have a term that is longer than the term set forth in the first trust, including, but not limited to, a term measured by the lifetime of a current beneficiary; provided, however, that the second trust shall be limited to the same permissible period of the rule against perpetuities that applied to the first trust, unless the first trust expressly permits the trustee to extend or lengthen its perpetuities period.

(h) Divided discretion. If an authorized trustee has absolute discretion to distribute the principal of a trust and the same trustee or another trustee has the power to distribute principal under the trust instrument which power is not absolute discretion, such authorized trustee having absolute discretion may exercise the power to distribute under subsection (c).

(i) Later discovered assets. To the extent the authorized trustee does not provide otherwise:

(1) The distribution of all of the assets comprising the principal of the first trust in favor of a second trust shall be deemed to include subsequently discovered assets otherwise belonging to the first trust and undistributed principal paid to or acquired by the first trust subsequent to the distribution in favor of the second trust.

(2) The distribution of part but not all of the assets comprising the principal of the first trust in favor of a second trust shall not include subsequently discovered assets belonging to the first trust and principal paid to or acquired by the first trust subsequent to the distribution in favor of a second trust; such assets shall remain the assets of the first trust.

(j) Other authority to distribute in further trust. This Section shall not be construed to abridge the right of any trustee to distribute property in further trust that arises under the terms of the governing instrument of a trust, any provision of applicable law, or a court order. In addition, distribution of trust principal to a second trust may be made by agreement between a trustee and all primary beneficiaries of a first trust, acting either individually or by their respective representatives in accordance with Section 16.1 of this Act.

(k) Need to distribute not required. An authorized trustee may exercise the power to distribute in favor of a second trust under subsections (c) and (d) whether or not there is a current need to distribute principal under the terms of the first trust.

(l) No duty to distribute. Nothing in this Section is intended to create or imply a duty to exercise a power to distribute principal, and no inference of impropriety shall be made as a result of an authorized trustee not exercising the power conferred under subsection (c) or (d). Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a trustee has no duty to inform beneficiaries about the availability of this Section and no duty to review the trust to determine whether any action should be taken under this Section.

(m) Express prohibition. A power authorized by subsection (c) or (d) may not be exercised if expressly prohibited by the terms of the governing instrument, but a general prohibition of the amendment or revocation of the first trust or a provision that constitutes a spendthrift clause shall not preclude the exercise of a power under subsection (c) or (d).

(n) Restrictions. An authorized trustee may not exercise a power authorized by subsection (c) or (d) to affect any of the following:

(1) to reduce, limit or modify any beneficiary's current right to a mandatory distribution of income or principal, a mandatory annuity or unitrust interest, a right to withdraw a percentage of the value of the trust or a right to withdraw a specified dollar amount provided that such mandatory right has come into effect with respect to the beneficiary, except with respect to a second trust which is a supplemental needs trust;

(2) to decrease or indemnify against a trustee's liability or exonerate a trustee from liability for failure to exercise reasonable care, diligence, and prudence; except to indemnify or exonerate one party from liability for actions of another party with respect to distribution that unbundles the governance structure of a trust to divide and separate fiduciary and nonfiduciary responsibilities among several parties, including without limitation one or more trustees, distribution advisors, investment advisors, trust protectors, or other parties, provided however that such modified governance structure may reallocate fiduciary responsibilities from one party to another but may not reduce them;

(3) to eliminate a provision granting another person the right to remove or replace the authorized trustee exercising the power under subsection (c) or (d); provided, however, such person's right to remove or replace the authorized trustee may be eliminated if a separate independent, non-subservient individual or entity, such as a trust protector, acting in a nonfiduciary capacity has the right to remove or replace the authorized trustee;

(4) to reduce, limit or modify the perpetuities provision specified in the first trust in the second trust, unless the first trust expressly permits the trustee to do so.

(o) Exception. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of subsection (n) but subject to the other limitations in this Section, an authorized trustee may exercise a power authorized by subsection (c) or (d) to distribute to a second trust; provided, however, that the exercise of such power does not subject the second trust to claims of reimbursement by any private or governmental body and does not at any time interfere with, reduce the amount of, or jeopardize an individual's entitlement to government benefits.

(p) Tax limitations. If any contribution to the first trust qualified for the annual exclusion under Section 2503(b) of the Code, the marital deduction under Section 2056(a) or 2523(a) of the Code, or the charitable deduction under Section 170(a), 642(c), 2055(a) or 2522(a) of the Code, is a direct skip qualifying for treatment under Section 2642(c) of the Code, or qualified for any other specific tax benefit that would be lost by the existence of the authorized trustee's authority under subsection (c) or (d) for income, gift, estate, or generation-skipping transfer tax purposes under the Code, then the authorized trustee shall not have the power to distribute the principal of a trust pursuant to subsection (c) or (d) in a manner that would prevent the contribution to the first trust from qualifying for or would reduce the exclusion, deduction, or other tax benefit that was originally claimed with respect to that contribution.

(1) Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (p), the authorized trustee may exercise the power to pay the first trust to a trust as to which the settlor of the first trust is not considered the owner under Subpart E of Part I of Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Code even if the settlor is considered such owner of the first trust. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as preventing the authorized trustee from distributing part or all of the first trust to a second trust that is a trust as to which the settlor of the first trust is considered the owner under Subpart E of Part I of Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Code.

(2) During any period when the first trust owns subchapter S corporation stock, an authorized trustee may not exercise a power authorized by paragraph (c) or (d) to distribute part or all of the S corporation stock to a second trust that is not a permitted shareholder under Section 1361(c)(2) of the Code.

(3) During any period when the first trust owns an interest in property subject to the minimum distribution rules of Section 401(a)(9) of the Code, an authorized trustee may not exercise a power authorized by subsection (c) or (d) to distribute part or all of the interest in such property to a second trust that would result in the shortening of the minimum distribution period to which the property is subject in the first trust.

(q) Limits on compensation of trustee.

(1) Unless the court upon application of the trustee directs otherwise, an authorized trustee may not exercise a power authorized by subsection (c) or (d) solely to change the provisions regarding the determination of the compensation of any trustee; provided, however, an authorized trustee may exercise the power authorized in subsection (c) or (d) in conjunction with other valid and reasonable purposes to bring the trustee's compensation into accord with reasonable limits in accord with Illinois law in effect at the time of the exercise.

(2) The compensation payable to the trustee or trustees of the first trust may continue to be paid to the trustees of the second trust during the terms of the second trust and may be determined in the same manner as otherwise would have applied in the first trust; provided, however, that no trustee shall receive any commission or other compensation imposed upon assets distributed due to the distribution of property from the first trust to a second trust pursuant to subsection (c) or (d).

(r) Written instrument. The exercise of a power to distribute principal under subsection (c) or (d) must be made by an instrument in writing, signed and acknowledged by the trustee, and filed with the records of the first trust and the second trust.

(s) Terms of second trust. Any reference to the governing instrument or terms of the governing instrument in this Act includes the terms of a second trust established in accordance with this Section.

(t) Settlor. The settlor of a first trust is considered for all purposes to be the settlor of any second trust established in accordance with this Section. If the settlor of a first trust is not also the settlor of a second trust, then the settlor of the first trust shall be considered the settlor of the second trust, but only with respect to the portion of second trust distributed from the first trust in accordance with this Section.

(u) Remedies. A trustee who reasonably and in good faith takes or omits to take any action under this Section is not liable to any person interested in the trust. An act or omission by a trustee under this Section is presumed taken or omitted reasonably and in good faith unless it is determined by the court to have been an abuse of discretion. If a trustee reasonably and in good faith takes or omits to take any action under this Section and a person interested in the trust opposes the act or omission, the person's exclusive remedy is to obtain an order of the court directing the trustee to exercise authority in accordance with this Section in such manner as the court determines necessary or helpful for the proper functioning of the trust, including without limitation prospectively to modify or reverse a prior exercise of such authority. Any claim by any person interested in the trust that an act or omission by a trustee under this Section was an abuse of discretion is barred if not asserted in a proceeding commenced by or on behalf of the person within 2 years after the trustee has sent to the person or the person's personal representative a notice or report in writing sufficiently disclosing facts fundamental to the claim such that the person knew or reasonably should have known of the claim. Except for a distribution of trust principal from a first trust to a second trust made by agreement in accordance with Section 16.1 of this Act, the preceding sentence shall not apply to a person who was under a legal disability at the time the notice or report was sent and who then had no personal representative. For purposes of this subsection (u), a personal representative refers to a court appointed guardian or conservator of the estate of a person.

(v) Application. This Section is available to trusts in existence on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly or created on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. This Section shall be construed as pertaining to the administration of a trust and shall be available to any trust that is administered in Illinois under Illinois law or that is governed by Illinois law with respect to the meaning and effect of its terms, including a trust whose governing law has been changed to the laws of this State, unless the governing instrument expressly prohibits use of this Section by specific reference to this Section. A provision in the governing instrument in the form: "Neither the provisions of Section 16.4 of the Trusts and Trustees Act nor any corresponding provision of future law may be used in the administration of this trust" or a similar provision demonstrating that intent is sufficient to preclude the use of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-920, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 975. The Illinois Uniform Transfers to Minors Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(760 ILCS 20/19) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 269)

Sec. 19. Renunciation, Resignation, Death, or Removal of Custodian; Designation of Successor Custodian. (a) A person nominated under Section 4 or designated under Section 6 or Section 10 as custodian may decline to serve by delivering a valid disclaimer to the person who made the nomination or designation or to the transferor or the transferor's representative. If the event giving rise to a transfer has not occurred and no substitute custodian able, willing, and eligible to serve was nominated under Section 4, the person who made the nomination or designation may nominate a substitute custodian; otherwise the transferor or the transferor's representative shall designate a substitute custodian at the time of the transfer in either case from among the persons eligible to serve as custodian for that kind of property under Section 10(a). The custodian so designated has the rights of a successor custodian.

(b) At any time or times a transferor or his representative may designate an adult or a trust company as successor custodian, single or successive, by executing and dating an instrument of designation and delivering it to the custodian or if he is deceased or is a person with a disability disabled to his representative. A custodian at any time when a vacancy would otherwise occur may designate a trust company or an adult as successor custodian by executing and dating an instrument of designation. If an instrument of designation does not contain or is not accompanied by the resignation of the custodian, the designation of the successor does not take effect until the custodian resigns, dies, becomes a person with a disability disabled, or is removed. If a transferor or a custodian has executed more than one instrument of designation, the instrument dated on the earlier date shall be treated as revoked by the instrument dated on the later date; however, a designation by a transferor or his representative shall not be revoked by a custodian. A successor custodian has all the powers, duties and immunities of a custodian designated in a manner prescribed by this Act.

(c) A custodian may resign at any time by delivering written notice to the minor if the minor has attained the age of 14 years and to the successor custodian and by delivering the custodial property to the successor custodian.

(d) If a custodian is ineligible, dies, or becomes a person with a disability disabled and no successor has been effectively designated and the minor has attained the age of 14 years, the minor may designate as successor custodian, in the manner prescribed in subsection (b), an adult member of the minor's family, a guardian of the minor, or a trust company. If the minor has not attained the age of 14 years or fails to act within 60 days after the ineligibility, death, or incapacity, the guardian of the minor becomes successor custodian. If the minor has no guardian or the guardian declines to act, the transferor, the representative of the transferor or of the custodian, an adult member of the minor's family, or any other interested person may petition the court to designate a successor custodian.

(e) A custodian who declines to serve under subsection (a) or resigns under subsection (c), or the representative of a deceased custodian or a custodian with a disability or disabled custodian, as soon as practicable, shall put the custodial property and records in the possession and control of the successor custodian. The successor custodian by action may enforce the obligations to deliver custodial property and records and becomes responsible for each item as received.

(f) A transferor, the representative of a transferor, an adult member of the minor's family, a guardian of the person of the minor, the guardian of the minor, or the minor if the minor has attained the age of 14 years may petition the court to remove the custodian for cause and to designate a successor custodian not inconsistent with an effective designation or to require the custodian to give appropriate bond.

(Source: P.A. 84-1129.)

Section 980. The Charitable Trust Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(760 ILCS 55/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Charitable trust for the benefit of a minor or person with a disability disabled person; report.

(a) In the case of a charitable trust established for the benefit of a minor or person with a disability disabled person, the person or trustee responsible for the trust, if not the guardian or parent, shall report its existence by certified or registered United States mail to the parent or guardian of the minor or person with a disability disabled person within 30 days after formation of the trust and every 6 months thereafter. The written report shall include the name and address of the trustee or trustees responsible for the trust, the name and address of the financial institution at which funds for the trust are held, the amount of funds raised for the trust, and an itemized list of expenses for administration of the trust.

The guardian of the estate of the minor or person with a disability disabled person shall report the existence of the trust as part of the ward's estate to the court that appointed the guardian as part of its responsibility to manage the ward's estate as established under Section 11-13 of the Probate Act of 1975. Compliance with this Section in no way affects other requirements for trustee registration and reporting under this Act or any accountings or authorizations required by the court handling the ward's estate.

(b) If a person or trustee fails to report the existence of the trust to the minor's or disabled person's parent or guardian or to the parent or guardian of the person with a disability as required in this Section, the person or trustee is subject to injunction, to removal, to account, and to other appropriate relief before a court of competent jurisdiction exercising chancery jurisdiction.

(c) For the purpose of this Section, a charitable trust for the benefit of a minor or person with a disability disabled person is a trust, including a special needs trust, that receives funds solicited from the public under representations that such will (i) benefit a needy minor or person with a disability disabled person, (ii) pay the medical or living expenses of the minor or person with a disability disabled person, or (iii) be used to assist in family expenses of the minor or person with a disability disabled person.

(d) Each and every trustee of a charitable trust for the benefit of a minor or person with a disability disabled person must register under this Act and in addition must file an annual report as required by Section 7 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-620, eff. 8-19-99.)

Section 985. The Real Estate Timeshare Act of 1999 is amended by changing Section 1-25 as follows:

(765 ILCS 101/1-25)

Sec. 1-25. Local powers; construction.

(a) Except as specifically provided in this Section, the regulation of timeshare plans and exchange programs is an exclusive power and function of the State. A unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may not regulate timeshare plans and exchange programs. This subsection is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), no provision of this Act invalidates or modifies any provision of any zoning, subdivision, or building code or other real estate use law, ordinance, or regulation.

Further, nothing in this Act shall be construed to affect or impair the validity of Section 11-11.1-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or to deny to the corporate authorities of any municipality the powers granted in that Code to enact ordinances (i) prescribing fair housing practices, (ii) defining unfair housing practices, (iii) establishing fair housing or human relations commissions and standards for the operation of such commissions in the administration and enforcement of such ordinances, (iv) prohibiting discrimination based on age, ancestry, color, creed, mental or physical disability handicap, national origin, race, religion, or sex in the listing, sale, assignment, exchange, transfer, lease, rental, or financing of real property for the purpose of the residential occupancy thereof, and (v) prescribing penalties for violations of such ordinances.

(Source: P.A. 91-585, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 990. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 18.4 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18.4) (from Ch. 30, par. 318.4)

Sec. 18.4. Powers and duties of board of managers. The board of managers shall exercise for the association all powers, duties and authority vested in the association by law or the condominium instruments except for such powers, duties and authority reserved by law to the members of the association. The powers and duties of the board of managers shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) To provide for the operation, care, upkeep, maintenance, replacement and improvement of the common elements. Nothing in this subsection (a) shall be deemed to invalidate any provision in a condominium instrument placing limits on expenditures for the common elements, provided, that such limits shall not be applicable to expenditures for repair, replacement, or restoration of existing portions of the common elements. The term "repair, replacement or restoration" means expenditures to deteriorated or damaged portions of the property related to the existing decorating, facilities, or structural or mechanical components, interior or exterior surfaces, or energy systems and equipment with the functional equivalent of the original portions of such areas. Replacement of the common elements may result in an improvement over the original quality of such elements or facilities; provided that, unless the improvement is mandated by law or is an emergency as defined in item (iv) of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of Section 18, if the improvement results in a proposed expenditure exceeding 5% of the annual budget, the board of managers, upon written petition by unit owners with 20% of the votes of the association delivered to the board within 14 days of the board action to approve the expenditure, shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the date of delivery of the petition to consider the expenditure. Unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the expenditure, it is ratified.

(b) To prepare, adopt and distribute the annual budget for the property.

(c) To levy and expend assessments.

(d) To collect assessments from unit owners.

(e) To provide for the employment and dismissal of the personnel necessary or advisable for the maintenance and operation of the common elements.

(f) To obtain adequate and appropriate kinds of insurance.

(g) To own, convey, encumber, lease, and otherwise deal with units conveyed to or purchased by it.

(h) To adopt and amend rules and regulations covering the details of the operation and use of the property, after a meeting of the unit owners called for the specific purpose of discussing the proposed rules and regulations. Notice of the meeting shall contain the full text of the proposed rules and regulations, and the meeting shall conform to the requirements of Section 18(b) of this Act, except that no quorum is required at the meeting of the unit owners unless the declaration, bylaws or other condominium instrument expressly provides to the contrary. However, no rule or regulation may impair any rights guaranteed by the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States or Section 4 of Article I of the Illinois Constitution including, but not limited to, the free exercise of religion, nor may any rules or regulations conflict with the provisions of this Act or the condominium instruments. No rule or regulation shall prohibit any reasonable accommodation for religious practices, including the attachment of religiously mandated objects to the front-door area of a condominium unit.

(i) To keep detailed, accurate records of the receipts and expenditures affecting the use and operation of the property.

(j) To have access to each unit from time to time as may be necessary for the maintenance, repair or replacement of any common elements or for making emergency repairs necessary to prevent damage to the common elements or to other units.

(k) To pay real property taxes, special assessments, and any other special taxes or charges of the State of Illinois or of any political subdivision thereof, or other lawful taxing or assessing body, which are authorized by law to be assessed and levied upon the real property of the condominium.

(l) To impose charges for late payment of a unit owner's proportionate share of the common expenses, or any other expenses lawfully agreed upon, and after notice and an opportunity to be heard, to levy reasonable fines for violation of the declaration, by-laws, and rules and regulations of the association.

(m) Unless the condominium instruments expressly provide to the contrary, by a majority vote of the entire board of managers, to assign the right of the association to future income from common expenses or other sources, and to mortgage or pledge substantially all of the remaining assets of the association.

(n) To record the dedication of a portion of the common elements to a public body for use as, or in connection with, a street or utility where authorized by the unit owners under the provisions of Section 14.2.

(o) To record the granting of an easement for the laying of cable television or high speed Internet cable where authorized by the unit owners under the provisions of Section 14.3; to obtain, if available and determined by the board to be in the best interests of the association, cable television or bulk high speed Internet service for all of the units of the condominium on a bulk identical service and equal cost per unit basis; and to assess and recover the expense as a common expense and, if so determined by the board, to assess each and every unit on the same equal cost per unit basis.

(p) To seek relief on behalf of all unit owners when authorized pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 10 from or in connection with the assessment or levying of real property taxes, special assessments, and any other special taxes or charges of the State of Illinois or of any political subdivision thereof or of any lawful taxing or assessing body.

(q) To reasonably accommodate the needs of a unit owner who is a person with a disability handicapped unit owner as required by the federal Civil Rights Act of 1968, the Human Rights Act and any applicable local ordinances in the exercise of its powers with respect to the use of common elements or approval of modifications in an individual unit.

(r) To accept service of a notice of claim for purposes of the Mechanics Lien Act on behalf of each respective member of the Unit Owners' Association with respect to improvements performed pursuant to any contract entered into by the Board of Managers or any contract entered into prior to the recording of the condominium declaration pursuant to this Act, for a property containing more than 8 units, and to distribute the notice to the unit owners within 7 days of the acceptance of the service by the Board of Managers. The service shall be effective as if each individual unit owner had been served individually with notice.

(s) To adopt and amend rules and regulations (l) authorizing electronic delivery of notices and other communications required or contemplated by this Act to each unit owner who provides the association with written authorization for electronic delivery and an electronic address to which such communications are to be electronically transmitted; and (2) authorizing each unit owner to designate an electronic address or a U.S. Postal Service address, or both, as the unit owner's address on any list of members or unit owners which an association is required to provide upon request pursuant to any provision of this Act or any condominium instrument.

In the performance of their duties, the officers and members of the board, whether appointed by the developer or elected by the unit owners, shall exercise the care required of a fiduciary of the unit owners.

The collection of assessments from unit owners by an association, board of managers or their duly authorized agents shall not be considered acts constituting a collection agency for purposes of the Collection Agency Act.

The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument which contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any such instrument that fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 97-751, eff. 1-1-13; 98-735, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 995. The Notice of Prepayment of Federally Subsidized Mortgage Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(765 ILCS 925/4) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 904)

Sec. 4. (a) An owner of subsidized housing shall provide to the clerk of the unit of local government and to IHDA notice of the earliest date upon which he may exercise prepayment of mortgage. Such notice shall be delivered at least 12 months prior to the date upon which the owner may prepay the mortgage. The notice shall include the following information:

(1) the name and address of the owner or managing agent of the building;

(2) the earliest date of allowed prepayment;

(3) the number of subsidized housing units in the building subject to prepayment, and the number of subsidized housing units occupied by persons age 62 or older, or by persons with disabilities disabled persons, and households with children;

(4) the rental payment paid by each household occupying a subsidized housing unit, not including any federal subsidy received by the owner for such subsidized housing unit; and

(5) the rent schedule for the subsidized housing units as approved by HUD or FmHA.

Such notice shall be available to the public upon request.

(b) Twelve months prior to the date upon which an owner may exercise prepayment of mortgage, the owner shall:

(1) post a copy of such notice in a prominent location in the affected building and leave the notice posted during the entire notice period, and

(2) deliver, personally or by certified mail, copies of the notice to all tenants residing in the building.

The owner shall provide a copy of the notice to all prospective tenants. Such notices shall be on forms prescribed by IHDA.

(Source: P.A. 85-1438.)

Section 1000. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 3-104.1 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/3-104.1) (from Ch. 68, par. 3-104.1)

Sec. 3-104.1. Refusal to sell or rent because a person has a guide, hearing or support dog. It is a civil rights violation for the owner or agent of any housing accommodation to:

(A) refuse to sell or rent after the making of a bonafide offer, or to refuse to negotiate for the sale or rental of, or otherwise make unavailable or deny property to any blind or , hearing impaired person or person with a physical disability or physically disabled person because he has a guide, hearing or support dog; or

(B) discriminate against any blind or , hearing impaired person or person with a physical disability or physically disabled person in the terms, conditions, or privileges of sale or rental property, or in the provision of services or facilities in connection therewith, because he has a guide, hearing or support dog; or

(C) require, because a blind or , hearing impaired person or person with a physical disability or physically disabled person has a guide, hearing or support dog, an extra charge in a lease, rental agreement, or contract of purchase or sale, other than for actual damage done to the premises by the dog.

(Source: P.A. 95-668, eff. 10-10-07.)

Section 1005. The Public Works Employment Discrimination Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 8 as follows:

(775 ILCS 10/4) (from Ch. 29, par. 20)

Sec. 4. No contractor, subcontractor, nor any person on his or her behalf shall, in any manner, discriminate against or intimidate any employee hired for the performance of work for the benefit of the State or for any department, bureau, commission, board, other political subdivision or agency, officer or agent thereof, on account of race, color, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin; and there may be deducted from the amount payable to the contractor by the State of Illinois or by any municipal corporation thereof, under this contract, a penalty of five dollars for each person for each calendar day during which such person was discriminated against or intimidated in violation of the provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 80-336.)

(775 ILCS 10/8) (from Ch. 29, par. 24)

Sec. 8. The invalidity or unconstitutionality of any one or more provisions, parts, or sections of this Act shall not be held or construed to invalidate the whole or any other provision, part, or section thereof, it being intended that this Act shall be sustained and enforced to the fullest extent possible and that it shall be construed as liberally as possible to prevent refusals, denials, and discriminations of and with reference to the award of contracts and employment thereunder, on the ground of race, color, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin.

(Source: P.A. 80-336.)

Section 1010. The Defense Contract Employment Discrimination Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 3, and 7 as follows:

(775 ILCS 20/1) (from Ch. 29, par. 24a)

Sec. 1. In the construction of this act the public policy of the state of Illinois is hereby declared as follows: To facilitate the rearmament and defense program of the Federal government by the integration into the war defense industries of the state of Illinois all available types of labor, skilled, semi-skilled and common shall participate without discrimination as to race, color, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin whatsoever.

(Source: P.A. 80-337.)

(775 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 29, par. 24c)

Sec. 3. It shall be unlawful for any war defense contractor, its officers or agents or employees to discriminate against any citizen of the state of Illinois because of race, color, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin in the hiring of employees and training for skilled or semi-skilled employment, and every such discrimination shall be deemed a violation of this act.

(Source: P.A. 80-337.)

(775 ILCS 20/7) (from Ch. 29, par. 24g)

Sec. 7. Whereas, each day a national defense emergency exists, persons of health, ability and skill are hourly being deprived of training and employment solely because of discrimination of color, race, creed, sex, religion, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to ability, or national origin. The penalty set out in paragraph 6 shall be a separate offense for each day and the offender shall be fined for each day's violation separately.

(Source: P.A. 80-337.)

Section 1015. The White Cane Law is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 as follows:

(775 ILCS 30/Act title)

An Act in relation to the rights of persons who are blind or who have other disabilities otherwise physically disabled.

(775 ILCS 30/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 3362)

Sec. 2. It is the policy of this State to encourage and enable persons who are blind, persons who have a visual disability, and persons who have other physical disabilities the blind, the visually handicapped and the otherwise physically disabled to participate fully in the social and economic life of the State and to engage in remunerative employment.

(Source: P.A. 76-663.)

(775 ILCS 30/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 3363)

Sec. 3. The blind, persons who have a visual disability the visually handicapped, the hearing impaired, persons who are subject to epilepsy or other seizure disorders, and persons who have other physical disabilities the otherwise physically disabled have the same right as the able-bodied to the full and free use of the streets, highways, sidewalks, walkways, public buildings, public facilities and other public places.

The blind, persons who have a visual disability the visually handicapped, the hearing impaired, persons who are subject to epilepsy or other seizure disorders, and persons who have other physical disabilities the otherwise physically disabled are entitled to full and equal accommodations, advantages, facilities and privileges of all common carriers, airplanes, motor vehicles, railroad trains, motor buses, street cars, boats or any other public conveyances or modes of transportation, hotels, lodging places, places of public accommodation, amusement or resort and other places to which the general public is invited, subject only to the conditions and limitations established by law and applicable alike to all persons.

Every totally or partially blind or , hearing impaired person, person who is subject to epilepsy or other seizure disorders, or person who has any other physical disability otherwise physically disabled person or a trainer of support dogs, guide dogs, seizure-alert dogs, seizure-response dogs, or hearing dogs shall have the right to be accompanied by a support dog or guide dog especially trained for the purpose, or a dog that is being trained to be a support dog, guide dog, seizure-alert dog, seizure-response dog, or hearing dog, in any of the places listed in this Section without being required to pay an extra charge for the guide, support, seizure-alert, seizure-response, or hearing dog; provided that he shall be liable for any damage done to the premises or facilities by such dog.

(Source: P.A. 92-187, eff. 1-1-02; 93-532, eff. 1-1-04.)

(775 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 3364)

Sec. 4. Any person or persons, firm or corporation, or the agent of any person or persons, firm or corporation who denies or interferes with admittance to or enjoyment of the public facilities enumerated in Section 3 of this Act or otherwise interferes with the rights of a totally or partially blind person or a person who has any other disability or otherwise disabled person under Section 3 of this Act shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2830.)

(775 ILCS 30/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 3365)

Sec. 5. It is the policy of this State that persons who are blind, persons who have a visual disability, and persons with other physical disabilities the blind, the visually handicapped and the otherwise physically disabled shall be employed in the State Service, the service of the political subdivisions of the State, in the public schools and in all other employment supported in whole or in part by public funds on the same terms and conditions as the able-bodied, unless it is shown that the particular disability prevents the performance of the work involved.

(Source: P.A. 76-663.)

(775 ILCS 30/6) (from Ch. 23, par. 3366)

Sec. 6. Each year, the Governor is authorized and requested to designate and take suitable public notice of White Cane Safety Day and to issue a proclamation in which:

(a) he comments upon the significance of the white cane;

(b) he calls upon the citizens of the State to observe the provisions of the White Cane Law and to take precautions necessary to the safety of persons with disabilities the disabled;

(c) he reminds the citizens of the State of the policies with respect to the disabled herein declared and urges the citizens to cooperate in giving effect to them;

(d) he emphasizes the need of the citizens to be aware of the presence of disabled persons in the community and to keep safe and functional for the disabled the streets, highways, sidewalks, walkways, public buildings, public facilities, other public places, places of public accommodation, amusement and resort, and other places to which the public is invited, and to offer assistance to disabled persons upon appropriate occasions.

(Source: P.A. 76-663.)

Section 1020. The Disposition of Remains Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 65/10)

Sec. 10. Form. The written instrument authorizing the disposition of remains under paragraph (1) of Section 5 of this Act shall be in substantially the following form:

"APPOINTMENT OF AGENT TO CONTROL DISPOSITION OF REMAINS

I, ................................, being of sound mind, willfully and voluntarily make known my desire that, upon my death, the disposition of my remains shall be controlled by ................... (name of agent first named below) and, with respect to that subject only, I hereby appoint such person as my agent (attorney-in-fact). All decisions made by my agent with respect to the disposition of my remains, including cremation, shall be binding.

SPECIAL DIRECTIONS:

Set forth below are any special directions limiting the power granted to my agent:

..............................

..............................

..............................

If the disposition of my remains is by cremation, then:

( ) I do not wish to allow any of my survivors the option of canceling my cremation and selecting alternative arrangements, regardless of whether my survivors deem a change to be appropriate.

( ) I wish to allow only the survivors I have designated below the option of canceling my cremation and selecting alternative arrangements, if they deem a change to be appropriate:

......................................................

......................................................

......................................................

ASSUMPTION:

THE AGENT, AND EACH SUCCESSOR AGENT, BY ACCEPTING THIS APPOINTMENT, AGREES TO AND ASSUMES THE OBLIGATIONS PROVIDED HEREIN. AN AGENT MAY SIGN AT ANY TIME, BUT AN AGENT'S AUTHORITY TO ACT IS NOT EFFECTIVE UNTIL THE AGENT SIGNS BELOW TO INDICATE THE ACCEPTANCE OF APPOINTMENT. ANY NUMBER OF AGENTS MAY SIGN, BUT ONLY THE SIGNATURE OF THE AGENT ACTING AT ANY TIME IS REQUIRED.

AGENT:

Name: ......................................

Address: ...................................

Telephone Number: ..........................

Signature Indicating Acceptance of Appointment: .........

Date of Signature: .........................

SUCCESSORS:

If my agent dies, is determined by a court to be under a legal disability becomes legally disabled, resigns, or refuses to act, I hereby appoint the following persons (each to act alone and successively, in the order named) to serve as my agent (attorney-in-fact) to control the disposition of my remains as authorized by this document:

1. First Successor

Name: ......................................

Address: ...................................

Telephone Number: ..........................

Signature Indicating Acceptance of Appointment: .........

Date of Signature: ....................

2. Second Successor

Name: ......................................

Address: ...................................

Telephone Number: ..........................

Signature Indicating Acceptance of Appointment: .........

Date of Signature: .............

DURATION:

This appointment becomes effective upon my death.

PRIOR APPOINTMENTS REVOKED:

I hereby revoke any prior appointment of any person to control the disposition of my remains.

RELIANCE:

I hereby agree that any hospital, cemetery organization, business operating a crematory or columbarium or both, funeral director or embalmer, or funeral establishment who receives a copy of this document may act under it. Any modification or revocation of this document is not effective as to any such party until that party receives actual notice of the modification or revocation. No such party shall be liable because of reliance on a copy of this document.

Signed this ...... day of .............., ...........

.........................................

STATE OF ..................

COUNTY OF .................

BEFORE ME, the undersigned, a Notary Public, on this day personally appeared ...................., proved to me on the basis of satisfactory evidence to be the person whose name is subscribed to the foregoing instrument and acknowledged to me that he/she executed the same for the purposes and consideration therein expressed.

GIVEN UNDER MY HAND AND SEAL OF OFFICE this ..... day

of ................, 2........

..........................................

Printed Name: .............................

Notary Public, State of ...................

My Commission Expires:

....................".

(Source: P.A. 94-561, eff. 1-1-06; 94-1051, eff. 7-24-06.)

Section 1025. The Credit Card Issuance Act is amended by changing Section 1b as follows:

(815 ILCS 140/1b) (from Ch. 17, par. 6003)

Sec. 1b. All credit card applications shall contain the following words verbatim:

a. No applicant may be denied a credit card on account of race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age (between 40 and 70), sex, marital status, physical or mental disability handicap unrelated to the ability to pay or unfavorable discharge from military service.

b. The applicant may request the reason for rejection of his or her application for a credit card.

c. No person need reapply for a credit card solely because of a change in marital status unless the change in marital status has caused a deterioration in the person's financial position.

d. A person may hold a credit card in any name permitted by law that he or she regularly uses and is generally known by, so long as no fraud is intended thereby.

(Source: P.A. 81-1216.)

Section 1030. The Motor Fuel Sales Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(815 ILCS 365/2) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 1502)

Sec. 2. Assistance at stations with self-service and full-service islands.

(a) Any attendant on duty at a gasoline station or service station offering to the public retail sales of motor fuel at both self-service and full-service islands shall, upon request, dispense motor fuel for the driver of a car which is parked at a self-service island and displays: (1) registration plates issued to a person with a physical disability physically disabled person pursuant to Section 3-616 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (2) registration plates issued to a veteran with a disability disabled veteran pursuant to Section 3-609 or 3-609.01 of such Code; or (3) a special decal or device issued pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of such Code; and shall only charge such driver prices as offered to the general public for motor fuel dispensed at the self-service island. However, such attendant shall not be required to perform other services which are offered at the full-service island.

(b) Gasoline stations and service stations in this State are subject to the federal Americans with Disabilities Act and must:

(1) provide refueling assistance upon the request of an individual with a disability (A gasoline station or service station is not required to provide such service at any time that it is operating on a remote control basis with a single employee on duty at the motor fuel site, but is encouraged to do so, if feasible.);

(2) by January 1, 2014, provide and display at least one ADA compliant motor fuel dispenser with a direct telephone number to the station that allows an a disabled operator of a motor vehicle who has a disability to request refueling assistance, with the telephone number posted in close proximity to the International Symbol of Accessibility required by the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, however, if the station does not have at least one ADA compliant motor fuel dispenser, the station must display on at least one motor fuel dispenser a direct telephone number to the station that allows an a disabled operator of a motor vehicle who has a disability to request refueling assistance; and

(3) provide the refueling assistance without any charge beyond the self-serve price.

(c) The signage required under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) shall be designated by the station owner and shall be posted in a prominently visible place. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers.

(d) The Secretary of State shall provide to persons with disabilities information regarding the availability of refueling assistance under this Section by the following methods:

(1) by posting information about that availability on the Secretary of State's Internet website, along with a link to the Department of Human Services website; and

(2) by publishing a brochure containing information about that availability, which shall be made available at all Secretary of State offices throughout the State.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall post on its Internet website information regarding the availability of refueling assistance for persons with disabilities and the addresses and telephone numbers of all gasoline and service stations in Illinois.

(f) A person commits a Class C misdemeanor if he or she telephones a gasoline station or service station to request refueling assistance and he or she:

(1) is not actually physically present at the gasoline or service station; or

(2) is physically present at the gasoline or service station but does not actually require refueling assistance.

(g) The Department of Transportation shall work in cooperation with appropriate representatives of gasoline and service station trade associations and the petroleum industry to increase the signage at gasoline and service stations on interstate highways in this State with regard to the availability of refueling assistance for persons with disabilities.

(h) If an owner of a gas station or service station is found by the Illinois Department of Agriculture, Bureau of Weights and Measures, to be in violation of this Act, the owner shall pay an administrative fine of $250. Any moneys collected by the Department shall be deposited into the Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Fund. The Department of Agriculture shall have the same authority and powers as provided for in the Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Act in enforcing this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1152, eff. 6-1-13.)

Section 1035. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 2FF and 2MM as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2FF)

Sec. 2FF. Electric service fraud; elderly persons or persons with disabilities disabled persons; additional penalties. With respect to the advertising, sale, provider selection, billings, or collections relating to the provision of electric service, where the consumer is an elderly person or person with a disability disabled person, a civil penalty of $50,000 may be imposed for each violation. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older.

(2) "Person with a disability Disabled person" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition.

(3) "Electric service" shall have the meaning given that term in Section 6.5 of the Attorney General Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 12-16-97.)

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a person with a disability disabled person:

(1) a guardian of the person with a disability disabled person that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975; and

(2) an agent of the person with a disability disabled person that is the subject of the request, under a written durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a minor:

(1) a guardian of the minor that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XI of the Probate Act of 1975;

(2) a parent of the minor that is the subject of the request; and

(3) a guardian appointed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a minor under the age of 18 who is the subject of the request or, with a court order authorizing the guardian consent power, for a youth who is the subject of the request who has attained the age of 18, but who is under the age of 21.

This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

A security freeze for a minor may not be temporarily lifted. This Section does not require a consumer reporting agency to provide to a minor or a parent or guardian of a minor on behalf of the minor a unique personal identification number, password, or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency for the minor, or parent or guardian of the minor, to use to authorize the consumer reporting agency to release information from a minor.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer or person authorized under subsection (c) to act on behalf of the minor or person with a disability disabled person that is the subject of the security freeze requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze and may require proper identification and proper authority from the person making the request to place or remove a freeze on behalf of the person with a disability disabled person or minor.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper authority" means documentation that shows that a parent, guardian, or agent has authority to act on behalf of a minor or person with a disability disabled person. "Proper authority" includes (1) an order issued by a court of law that shows that a guardian has authority to act on behalf of a minor or person with a disability disabled person, (2) a written, notarized statement signed by a parent that expressly describes the authority of the parent to act on behalf of the minor, or (3) a durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-486, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 1040. The Home Repair Fraud Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 515/5) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 1605)

Sec. 5. Aggravated Home Repair Fraud. A person commits the offense of aggravated home repair fraud when he commits home repair fraud:

(i) against an elderly person or a person with a disability as defined in Section 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(ii) in connection with a home repair project intended to assist a person with a disability disabled person.

(a) Aggravated violation of paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 2 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $500, a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less, and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less. If 2 or more contracts or agreements for home repair exceed an aggregate amount of $500 or more and such contracts or agreements are entered into with the same victim by one or more of the defendants as part of or in furtherance of a common fraudulent scheme, design or intention, the violation shall be a Class 2 felony.

(b) Aggravated violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 2 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $5,000 and a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $5,000 or less.

(c) Aggravated violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $500, a Class 4 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less.

(d) Aggravated violation of paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 3 felony.

(e) If a person commits aggravated home repair fraud, then any State or local license or permit held by that person that relates to the business of home repair may be appropriately suspended or revoked by the issuing authority, commensurate with the severity of the offense.

(f) A defense to aggravated home repair fraud does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 96-1026, eff. 7-12-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 1045. The Motor Vehicle Franchise Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(815 ILCS 710/4) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 754)

Sec. 4. Unfair competition and practices.

(a) The unfair methods of competition and unfair and deceptive acts or practices listed in this Section are hereby declared to be unlawful. In construing the provisions of this Section, the courts may be guided by the interpretations of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45 et seq.), as from time to time amended.

(b) It shall be deemed a violation for any manufacturer, factory branch, factory representative, distributor or wholesaler, distributor branch, distributor representative or motor vehicle dealer to engage in any action with respect to a franchise which is arbitrary, in bad faith or unconscionable and which causes damage to any of the parties or to the public.

(c) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer:

(1) to accept, buy or order any motor vehicle or vehicles, appliances, equipment, parts or accessories therefor, or any other commodity or commodities or service or services which such motor vehicle dealer has not voluntarily ordered or requested except items required by applicable local, state or federal law; or to require a motor vehicle dealer to accept, buy, order or purchase such items in order to obtain any motor vehicle or vehicles or any other commodity or commodities which have been ordered or requested by such motor vehicle dealer;

(2) to order or accept delivery of any motor vehicle with special features, appliances, accessories or equipment not included in the list price of the motor vehicles as publicly advertised by the manufacturer thereof, except items required by applicable law; or

(3) to order for anyone any parts, accessories, equipment, machinery, tools, appliances or any commodity whatsoever, except items required by applicable law.

(d) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to adopt, change, establish or implement a plan or system for the allocation and distribution of new motor vehicles to motor vehicle dealers which is arbitrary or capricious or to modify an existing plan so as to cause the same to be arbitrary or capricious;

(2) to fail or refuse to advise or disclose to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement, upon written request therefor, the basis upon which new motor vehicles of the same line make are allocated or distributed to motor vehicle dealers in the State and the basis upon which the current allocation or distribution is being made or will be made to such motor vehicle dealer;

(3) to refuse to deliver in reasonable quantities and within a reasonable time after receipt of dealer's order, to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement for the retail sale of new motor vehicles sold or distributed by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division, any such motor vehicles as are covered by such franchise or selling agreement specifically publicly advertised in the State by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division to be available for immediate delivery. However, the failure to deliver any motor vehicle shall not be considered a violation of this Act if such failure is due to an act of God, a work stoppage or delay due to a strike or labor difficulty, a shortage of materials, a lack of manufacturing capacity, a freight embargo or other cause over which the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler, or any agent thereof has no control;

(4) to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer to enter into any agreement with such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, or to do any other act prejudicial to the dealer by threatening to reduce his allocation of motor vehicles or cancel any franchise or any selling agreement existing between such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, and the dealer. However, notice in good faith to any motor vehicle dealer of the dealer's violation of any terms or provisions of such franchise or selling agreement or of any law or regulation applicable to the conduct of a motor vehicle dealer shall not constitute a violation of this Act;

(5) to require a franchisee to participate in an advertising campaign or contest or any promotional campaign, or to purchase or lease any promotional materials, training materials, show room or other display decorations or materials at the expense of the franchisee;

(6) to cancel or terminate the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; to fail or refuse to extend the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer upon its expiration without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; or, to offer a renewal, replacement or succeeding franchise or selling agreement containing terms and provisions the effect of which is to substantially change or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of the motor vehicle dealer arbitrarily and without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided notwithstanding any term or provision of a franchise or selling agreement.

(A) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to cancel or terminate a franchise or selling agreement or intends not to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement on its expiration, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the effective date of the proposed action, or not later than 10 days before the proposed action when the reason for the action is based upon either of the following:

(i) the business operations of the franchisee have been abandoned or the franchisee has failed to conduct customary sales and service operations during customary business hours for at least 7 consecutive business days unless such closing is due to an act of God, strike or labor difficulty or other cause over which the franchisee has no control; or

(ii) the conviction of or plea of nolo contendere by the motor vehicle dealer or any operator thereof in a court of competent jurisdiction to an offense punishable by imprisonment for more than two years.

Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed cancellation, termination, or refusal to extend or renew and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(B) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement of such motor vehicle dealer, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the date of expiration of the franchise or selling agreement. Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed action and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(C) Within 30 days from receipt of the notice under subparagraphs (A) and (B), the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When the protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting dealer or franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer or franchisee, and to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to cancel, terminate, or refuse to renew or extend the franchise or selling agreement, or to change or modify the obligations of the dealer as a condition to offer renewal, replacement, or succession shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12 of this Act.

(D) Notwithstanding the terms, conditions, or provisions of a franchise or selling agreement, the following shall not constitute good cause for cancelling or terminating or failing to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement: (i) the change of ownership or executive management of the franchisee's dealership; or (ii) the fact that the franchisee or owner of an interest in the franchise owns, has an investment in, participates in the management of, or holds a license for the sale of the same or any other line make of new motor vehicles.

(E) The manufacturer may not cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement or change or modify the obligations of the franchisee as a condition to offering a renewal, replacement, or succeeding franchise or selling agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter, if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the proposed action;

(7) notwithstanding the terms of any franchise agreement, to fail to indemnify and hold harmless its franchised dealers against any judgment or settlement for damages, including, but not limited to, court costs, expert witness fees, reasonable attorneys' fees of the new motor vehicle dealer, and other expenses incurred in the litigation, so long as such fees and costs are reasonable, arising out of complaints, claims or lawsuits including, but not limited to, strict liability, negligence, misrepresentation, warranty (express or implied), or recision of the sale as defined in Section 2-608 of the Uniform Commercial Code, to the extent that the judgment or settlement relates to the alleged defective or negligent manufacture, assembly or design of new motor vehicles, parts or accessories or other functions by the manufacturer, beyond the control of the dealer; provided that, in order to provide an adequate defense, the manufacturer receives notice of the filing of a complaint, claim, or lawsuit within 60 days after the filing;

(8) to require or otherwise coerce a motor vehicle dealer to underutilize the motor vehicle dealer's facilities by requiring or otherwise coercing the motor vehicle dealer to exclude or remove from the motor vehicle dealer's facilities operations for selling or servicing of any vehicles for which the motor vehicle dealer has a franchise agreement with another manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distribution branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof; provided, however, that, in light of all existing circumstances, (i) the motor vehicle dealer maintains a reasonable line of credit for each make or line of new motor vehicle, (ii) the new motor vehicle dealer remains in compliance with any reasonable facilities requirements of the manufacturer, (iii) no change is made in the principal management of the new motor vehicle dealer, and (iv) the addition of the make or line of new motor vehicles would be reasonable. The reasonable facilities requirement set forth in item (ii) of subsection (d)(8) shall not include any requirement that a franchisee establish or maintain exclusive facilities, personnel, or display space. Any decision by a motor vehicle dealer to sell additional makes or lines at the motor vehicle dealer's facility shall be presumed to be reasonable, and the manufacturer shall have the burden to overcome that presumption. A motor vehicle dealer must provide a written notification of its intent to add a make or line of new motor vehicles to the manufacturer. If the manufacturer does not respond to the motor vehicle dealer, in writing, objecting to the addition of the make or line within 60 days after the date that the motor vehicle dealer sends the written notification, then the manufacturer shall be deemed to have approved the addition of the make or line; or

(9) to use or consider the performance of a motor vehicle dealer relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's vehicles or the motor vehicle dealer's ability to satisfy any minimum sales or market share quota or responsibility relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's new vehicles in determining:

(A) the motor vehicle dealer's eligibility to purchase program, certified, or other used motor vehicles from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(B) the volume, type, or model of program, certified, or other used motor vehicles that a motor vehicle dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(C) the price of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle that the dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler; or

(D) the availability or amount of any discount, credit, rebate, or sales incentive that the dealer is eligible to receive from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for the purchase of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle offered for sale by the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler.

(e) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to resort to or use any false or misleading advertisement in connection with his business as such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof;

(2) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any motor vehicle dealer at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered to any other motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device including, but not limited to, sales promotion plans or programs which result in such lesser actual price or fail to make available to any motor vehicle dealer any preferential pricing, incentive, rebate, finance rate, or low interest loan program offered to competing motor vehicle dealers in other contiguous states. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(3) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any person, except a wholesaler, distributor or manufacturer's employees at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered and charged to a motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device which results in such lesser actual price. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(4) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or franchisee from changing the executive management control of the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such change of executive management will result in executive management control by a person or persons who are not of good moral character or who do not meet the franchiser's existing and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However where the manufacturer rejects a proposed change in executive management control, the manufacturer shall give written notice of his reasons to the dealer within 60 days of notice to the manufacturer by the dealer of the proposed change. If the manufacturer does not send a letter to the franchisee by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 60 days from receipt by the manufacturer of the proposed change, then the change of the executive management control of the franchisee shall be deemed accepted as proposed by the franchisee, and the manufacturer shall give immediate effect to such change;

(5) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer from establishing or changing the capital structure of his dealership or the means by or through which he finances the operation thereof; provided the dealer meets any reasonable capital standards agreed to between the dealer and the manufacturer, distributor or wholesaler, who may require that the sources, method and manner by which the dealer finances or intends to finance its operation, equipment or facilities be fully disclosed;

(6) to refuse to give effect to or prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or any officer, partner or stockholder of any motor vehicle dealer from selling or transferring any part of the interest of any of them to any other person or persons or party or parties unless such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under "The Illinois Vehicle Code" or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law:

(A) If the manufacturer intends to refuse to approve the sale or transfer of all or a part of the interest, then it shall, within 60 days from receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, advising the franchisee of any refusal to approve the sale or transfer of all or part of the interest and shall state that the dealer only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth specific criteria used to evaluate the prospective transferee and the grounds for refusing to approve the sale or transfer to that transferee. Within 30 days from the franchisee's receipt of the manufacturer's notice, the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing the date (within 60 days of the date of such order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer shall be made by the Board under subdivisions (6)(B). The manufacturer shall not refuse to approve the sale or transfer by a dealer or an officer, partner, or stockholder of a franchise or any part of the interest to any person or persons before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee.

(B) Good cause to refuse to approve such sale or transfer under this Section is established when such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under "The Illinois Vehicle Code" or such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area.

(7) to obtain money, goods, services, anything of value, or any other benefit from any other person with whom the motor vehicle dealer does business, on account of or in relation to the transactions between the dealer and the other person as compensation, except for services actually rendered, unless such benefit is promptly accounted for and transmitted to the motor vehicle dealer;

(8) to grant an additional franchise in the relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make or to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership within or into a relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make. However, if the manufacturer wishes to grant such an additional franchise to an independent person in a bona fide relationship in which such person is prepared to make a significant investment subject to loss in such a dealership, or if the manufacturer wishes to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership, then the manufacturer shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to each existing dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise at least 60 days before the manufacturer grants an additional franchise or relocates an existing franchise of the same line make within or into the relevant market area of an existing franchisee of the same line make. Each notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the proposed grant of an additional or relocation of an existing franchise and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. Unless the parties agree upon the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the existing franchisee of the same line make or any person entitled to receive such notice, the franchisee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the grant or establishment of the proposed additional or relocated franchise.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention to grant or establish the proposed additional or relocated franchise and to the protesting dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise.

When more than one protest is filed against the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise of the same line make, the Board may consolidate the hearings to expedite disposition of the matter. The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to allow the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise. The manufacturer may not grant or establish the additional franchise or relocate the existing franchise before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the grant or establishment of the additional franchise or relocation of the existing franchise.

The determination whether good cause exists for allowing the grant or establishment of an additional franchise or relocated existing franchise, shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12 of this Act. If the manufacturer seeks to enter into a contract, agreement or other arrangement with any person, establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility, limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles, then the manufacturer shall follow the notice procedures set forth in this Section and the determination whether good cause exists for allowing the proposed agreement shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12, with the manufacturer having the burden of proof.

A. (Blank).

B. For the purposes of this Section, appointment of a successor motor vehicle dealer at the same location as its predecessor, or within 2 miles of such location, or the relocation of an existing dealer or franchise within 2 miles of the relocating dealer's or franchisee's existing location, shall not be construed as a grant, establishment or the entering into of an additional franchise or selling agreement, or a relocation of an existing franchise. The reopening of a motor vehicle dealership that has not been in operation for 18 months or more shall be deemed the grant of an additional franchise or selling agreement.

C. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 7 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 12 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. A dealer that would be farther away from the new location of an existing dealership or franchise of the same line make after a relocation may not file a written protest against the relocation with the Motor Vehicle Review Board.

D. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(9) to require a motor vehicle dealer to assent to a release, assignment, novation, waiver or estoppel which would relieve any person from liability imposed by this Act;

(10) to prevent or refuse to give effect to the succession to the ownership or management control of a dealership by any legatee under the will of a dealer or to an heir under the laws of descent and distribution of this State unless the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise. Unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that the successor is a person who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area, any designated successor of a dealer or franchisee may succeed to the ownership or management control of a dealership under the existing franchise if:

(i) The designated successor gives the franchiser written notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, of his or her intention to succeed to the ownership of the dealer within 60 days of the dealer's death or incapacity; and

(ii) The designated successor agrees to be bound by all the terms and conditions of the existing franchise.

Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the event the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee and manufacturer have duly executed an agreement concerning succession rights prior to the dealer's death or incapacitation, the agreement shall be observed.

(A) If the franchiser intends to refuse to honor the successor to the ownership of a deceased or incapacitated dealer or franchisee under an existing franchise agreement, the franchiser shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the designated successor within 60 days from receipt of a proposal advising of its intent to refuse to honor the succession and to discontinue the existing franchise agreement and shall state that the designated successor only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the refusal to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

If notice of refusal is not timely served upon the designated successor, the franchise agreement shall continue in effect subject to termination only as otherwise permitted by paragraph (6) of subsection (d) of Section 4 of this Act.

Within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the designated successor or any other person entitled to notice, the designee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the franchiser that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting designee or such other person.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession shall be made by the Board under subdivision (B) of this paragraph (10). The manufacturer shall not refuse to honor the succession or discontinue the existing franchise agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that it has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

(B) No manufacturer shall impose any conditions upon honoring the succession and continuing the existing franchise agreement with the designated successor other than that the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise, or that the designated successor is of good moral character or meets the reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area;

(11) to prevent or refuse to approve a proposal to establish a successor franchise at a location previously approved by the franchiser when submitted with the voluntary termination by the existing franchisee unless the successor franchisee would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealer's license under the Illinois Vehicle Code or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such proposed successor is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, when such a rejection of a proposal is made, the manufacturer shall give written notice of its reasons to the franchisee within 60 days of receipt by the manufacturer of the proposal. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities, or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(12) to prevent or refuse to grant a franchise to a person because such person owns, has investment in or participates in the management of or holds a franchise for the sale of another make or line of motor vehicles within 7 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons, or within 12 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons; or

(13) to prevent or attempt to prevent any new motor vehicle dealer from establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles or otherwise offering for sale factory repurchase vehicles of the same line make at an existing franchise by failing to make available any contract, agreement or other arrangement which is made available or otherwise offered to any person.

(f) It is deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesale, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent, broker, shareholder, except a shareholder of 1% or less of the outstanding shares of any class of securities of a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler which is a publicly traded corporation, or other representative, directly or indirectly, to own or operate a place of business as a motor vehicle franchisee or motor vehicle financing affiliate, except that, this subsection shall not prohibit the ownership or operation of a place of business by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for a period, not to exceed 18 months, during the transition from one motor vehicle franchisee to another; or the investment in a motor vehicle franchisee by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler if the investment is for the sole purpose of enabling a partner or shareholder in that motor vehicle franchisee to acquire an interest in that motor vehicle franchisee and that partner or shareholder is not otherwise employed by or associated with the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler and would not otherwise have the requisite capital investment funds to invest in the motor vehicle franchisee, and has the right to purchase the entire equity interest of the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler in the motor vehicle franchisee within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 5 years.

(g) Notwithstanding the terms, provisions, or conditions of any agreement or waiver, it shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to directly or indirectly condition the awarding of a franchise to a prospective new motor vehicle dealer, the addition of a line make or franchise to an existing dealer, the renewal of a franchise of an existing dealer, the approval of the relocation of an existing dealer's facility, or the approval of the sale or transfer of the ownership of a franchise on the willingness of a dealer, proposed new dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility to enter into a site control agreement or exclusive use agreement unless separate and reasonable consideration was offered and accepted for that agreement.

For purposes of this subsection (g), the terms "site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" include any agreement that has the effect of either (i) requiring that the dealer establish or maintain exclusive dealership facilities; or (ii) restricting the ability of the dealer, or the ability of the dealer's lessor in the event the dealership facility is being leased, to transfer, sell, lease, or change the use of the dealership premises, whether by sublease, lease, collateral pledge of lease, or other similar agreement. "Site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" also include a manufacturer restricting the ability of a dealer to transfer, sell, or lease the dealership premises by right of first refusal to purchase or lease, option to purchase, or option to lease if the transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises is to a person who is an immediate family member of the dealer. For the purposes of this subsection (g), "immediate family member" means a spouse, parent, son, daughter, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother, and sister.

If a manufacturer exercises any right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease with regard to a transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises to a person who is not an immediate family member of the dealer, then (1) within 60 days from the receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, the manufacturer must notify the dealer of its intent to exercise the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease and (2) the exercise of the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease must result in the dealer receiving consideration, terms, and conditions that either are the same as or greater than that which they have contracted to receive in connection with the proposed transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises.

Any provision contained in any agreement entered into on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly that is inconsistent with the provisions of this subsection (g) shall be voidable at the election of the affected dealer, prospective dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility.

(h) For purposes of this subsection:

"Successor manufacturer" means any motor vehicle manufacturer that, on or after January 1, 2009, acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of another manufacturer, referred to as the "predecessor manufacturer", as the result of any of the following:

(i) A change in ownership, operation, or control of the predecessor manufacturer by sale or transfer of assets, corporate stock or other equity interest, assignment, merger, consolidation, combination, joint venture, redemption, court-approved sale, operation of law or otherwise.

(ii) The termination, suspension, or cessation of a part or all of the business operations of the predecessor manufacturer.

(iii) The discontinuance of the sale of the product line.

(iv) A change in distribution system by the predecessor manufacturer, whether through a change in distributor or the predecessor manufacturer's decision to cease conducting business through a distributor altogether.

"Former Franchisee" means a new motor vehicle dealer that has entered into a franchise with a predecessor manufacturer and that has either:

(i) entered into a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer related to such franchise; or

(ii) has had such franchise canceled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended.

For a period of 3 years from: (i) the date that a successor manufacturer acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of a predecessor manufacturer; (ii) the last day that a former franchisee is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise under a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer; (iii) the last day that a former franchisee that was cancelled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended by a predecessor or successor manufacturer is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise; or (iv) the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is latest, it shall be unlawful for such successor manufacturer to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing same line make franchise, for a line make of the predecessor manufacturer that would be located or relocated within the relevant market area of a former franchisee who owned or leased a dealership facility in that relevant market area without first offering the additional or relocated franchise to the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability disabled, at no cost and without any requirements or restrictions other than those imposed generally on the manufacturer's other franchisees at that time, unless one of the following applies:

(1) As a result of the former franchisee's cancellation, termination, noncontinuance, or nonrenewal of the franchise, the predecessor manufacturer had consolidated the line make with another of its line makes for which the predecessor manufacturer had a franchisee with a then-existing dealership facility located within that relevant market area.

(2) The successor manufacturer has paid the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability disabled, the fair market value of the former franchisee's franchise on (i) the date the franchisor announces the action which results in the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal; or (ii) the date the action which results in termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal first became general knowledge; or (iii) the day 12 months prior to the date on which the notice of termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is issued, whichever amount is higher. Payment is due within 90 days of the effective date of the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal. If the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is due to a manufacturer's change in distributors, the manufacturer may avoid paying fair market value to the dealer if the new distributor or the manufacturer offers the dealer a franchise agreement with terms acceptable to the dealer.

(3) The successor manufacturer proves that it would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee under item (e)(10) in the event that the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability disabled. The determination of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12. A successor manufacturer that seeks to assert that it would have had good cause to terminate a former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, must file a petition seeking a hearing on this issue before the Board and shall have the burden of proving that it would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee or the successor of the former franchisee. No successor dealer, other than the former franchisee, may be appointed or franchised by the successor manufacturer within the relevant market area of the former franchisee until the Board has held a hearing and rendered a determination on the issue of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee.

In the event that a successor manufacturer attempts to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing line make franchise under this subsection (h) at a location that is within the relevant market area of 2 or more former franchisees, then the successor manufacturer may not offer it to any person other than one of those former franchisees unless the successor manufacturer can prove that at least one of the 3 exceptions in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (h) applies to each of those former franchisees.

(Source: P.A. 96-11, eff. 5-22-09; 96-824, eff. 11-25-09.)

Section 1050. The Minimum Wage Law is amended by changing Sections 4 and 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 105/4) (from Ch. 48, par. 1004)

Sec. 4. (a)(1) Every employer shall pay to each of his employees in every occupation wages of not less than $2.30 per hour or in the case of employees under 18 years of age wages of not less than $1.95 per hour, except as provided in Sections 5 and 6 of this Act, and on and after January 1, 1984, every employer shall pay to each of his employees in every occupation wages of not less than $2.65 per hour or in the case of employees under 18 years of age wages of not less than $2.25 per hour, and on and after October 1, 1984 every employer shall pay to each of his employees in every occupation wages of not less than $3.00 per hour or in the case of employees under 18 years of age wages of not less than $2.55 per hour, and on or after July 1, 1985 every employer shall pay to each of his employees in every occupation wages of not less than $3.35 per hour or in the case of employees under 18 years of age wages of not less than $2.85 per hour, and from January 1, 2004 through December 31, 2004 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $5.50 per hour, and from January 1, 2005 through June 30, 2007 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $6.50 per hour, and from July 1, 2007 through June 30, 2008 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $7.50 per hour, and from July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2009 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $7.75 per hour, and from July 1, 2009 through June 30, 2010 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $8.00 per hour, and on and after July 1, 2010 every employer shall pay to each of his or her employees who is 18 years of age or older in every occupation wages of not less than $8.25 per hour.

(2) Unless an employee's wages are reduced under Section 6, then in lieu of the rate prescribed in item (1) of this subsection (a), an employer may pay an employee who is 18 years of age or older, during the first 90 consecutive calendar days after the employee is initially employed by the employer, a wage that is not more than 50¢ less than the wage prescribed in item (1) of this subsection (a); however, an employer shall pay not less than the rate prescribed in item (1) of this subsection (a) to:

(A) a day or temporary laborer, as defined in Section 5 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act, who is 18 years of age or older; and

(B) an employee who is 18 years of age or older and whose employment is occasional or irregular and requires not more than 90 days to complete.

(3) At no time shall the wages paid to any employee under 18 years of age be more than 50¢ less than the wage required to be paid to employees who are at least 18 years of age under item (1) of this subsection (a).

(b) No employer shall discriminate between employees on the basis of sex or mental or physical disability handicap, except as otherwise provided in this Act by paying wages to employees at a rate less than the rate at which he pays wages to employees for the same or substantially similar work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and which are performed under similar working conditions, except where such payment is made pursuant to (1) a seniority system; (2) a merit system; (3) a system which measures earnings by quantity or quality of production; or (4) a differential based on any other factor other than sex or mental or physical disability handicap, except as otherwise provided in this Act.

(c) Every employer of an employee engaged in an occupation in which gratuities have customarily and usually constituted and have been recognized as part of the remuneration for hire purposes is entitled to an allowance for gratuities as part of the hourly wage rate provided in Section 4, subsection (a) in an amount not to exceed 40% of the applicable minimum wage rate. The Director shall require each employer desiring an allowance for gratuities to provide substantial evidence that the amount claimed, which may not exceed 40% of the applicable minimum wage rate, was received by the employee in the period for which the claim of exemption is made, and no part thereof was returned to the employer.

(d) No camp counselor who resides on the premises of a seasonal camp of an organized not-for-profit corporation shall be subject to the adult minimum wage if the camp counselor (1) works 40 or more hours per week, and (2) receives a total weekly salary of not less than the adult minimum wage for a 40-hour week. If the counselor works less than 40 hours per week, the counselor shall be paid the minimum hourly wage for each hour worked. Every employer of a camp counselor under this subsection is entitled to an allowance for meals and lodging as part of the hourly wage rate provided in Section 4, subsection (a), in an amount not to exceed 25% of the minimum wage rate.

(e) A camp counselor employed at a day camp is not subject to the adult minimum wage if the camp counselor is paid a stipend on a onetime or periodic basis and, if the camp counselor is a minor, the minor's parent, guardian or other custodian has consented in writing to the terms of payment before the commencement of such employment.

(Source: P.A. 94-1072, eff. 7-1-07; 94-1102, eff. 7-1-07; 95-945, eff. 1-1-09.)

(820 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 48, par. 1010)

Sec. 10. (a) The Director shall make and revise administrative regulations, including definitions of terms, as he deems appropriate to carry out the purposes of this Act, to prevent the circumvention or evasion thereof, and to safeguard the minimum wage established by the Act. Regulations governing employment of learners may be issued only after notice and opportunity for public hearing, as provided in subsection (c) of this Section.

(b) In order to prevent curtailment of opportunities for employment, avoid undue hardship, and safeguard the minimum wage rate under this Act, the Director may also issue regulations providing for the employment of workers with disabilities handicapped workers at wages lower than the wage rate applicable under this Act, under permits and for such periods of time as specified therein; and providing for the employment of learners at wages lower than the wage rate applicable under this Act. However, such regulation shall not permit lower wages for persons with disabilities the handicapped on any basis that is unrelated to such person's ability resulting from his disability handicap, and such regulation may be issued only after notice and opportunity for public hearing as provided in subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) Prior to the adoption, amendment or repeal of any rule or regulation by the Director under this Act, except regulations which concern only the internal management of the Department of Labor and do not affect any public right provided by this Act, the Director shall give proper notice to persons in any industry or occupation that may be affected by the proposed rule or regulation, and hold a public hearing on his proposed action at which any such affected person, or his duly authorized representative, may attend and testify or present other evidence for or against such proposed rule or regulation. Rules and regulations adopted under this Section shall be filed with the Secretary of State in compliance with "An Act concerning administrative rules", as now or hereafter amended. Such adopted and filed rules and regulations shall become effective 10 days after copies thereof have been mailed by the Department to persons in industries affected thereby at their last known address.

(d) The commencement of proceedings by any person aggrieved by an administrative regulation issued under this Act does not, unless specifically ordered by the Court, operate as a stay of that administrative regulation against other persons. The Court shall not grant any stay of an administrative regulation unless the person complaining of such regulation files in the Court an undertaking with a surety or sureties satisfactory to the Court for the payment to the employees affected by the regulation, in the event such regulation is affirmed, of the amount by which the compensation such employees are entitled to receive under the regulation exceeds the compensation they actually receive while such stay is in effect.

(Source: P.A. 77-1451.)

Section 1055. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 17 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/6) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.6)

Sec. 6. (a) Every employer within the provisions of this Act, shall, under the rules and regulations prescribed by the Commission, post printed notices in their respective places of employment in such number and at such places as may be determined by the Commission, containing such information relative to this Act as in the judgment of the Commission may be necessary to aid employees to safeguard their rights under this Act in event of injury.

In addition thereto, the employer shall post in a conspicuous place on the place of the employment a printed or typewritten notice stating whether he is insured or whether he has qualified and is operating as a self-insured employer. In the event the employer is insured, the notice shall state the name and address of his insurance carrier, the number of the insurance policy, its effective date and the date of termination. In the event of the termination of the policy for any reason prior to the termination date stated, the posted notice shall promptly be corrected accordingly. In the event the employer is operating as a self-insured employer the notice shall state the name and address of the company, if any, servicing the compensation payments of the employer, and the name and address of the person in charge of making compensation payments.

(b) Every employer subject to this Act shall maintain accurate records of work-related deaths, injuries and illness other than minor injuries requiring only first aid treatment and which do not involve medical treatment, loss of consciousness, restriction of work or motion, or transfer to another job and file with the Commission, in writing, a report of all accidental deaths, injuries and illnesses arising out of and in the course of the employment resulting in the loss of more than 3 scheduled work days. In the case of death such report shall be made no later than 2 working days following the accidental death. In all other cases such report shall be made between the 15th and 25th of each month unless required to be made sooner by rule of the Commission. In case the injury results in permanent disability, a further report shall be made as soon as it is determined that such permanent disability has resulted or will result from the injury. All reports shall state the date of the injury, including the time of day or night, the nature of the employer's business, the name, address, age, sex, conjugal condition of the injured person, the specific occupation of the injured person, the direct cause of the injury and the nature of the accident, the character of the injury, the length of disability, and in case of death the length of disability before death, the wages of the injured person, whether compensation has been paid to the injured person, or to his or her legal representative or his heirs or next of kin, the amount of compensation paid, the amount paid for physicians', surgeons' and hospital bills, and by whom paid, and the amount paid for funeral or burial expenses if known. The reports shall be made on forms and in the manner as prescribed by the Commission and shall contain such further information as the Commission shall deem necessary and require. The making of these reports releases the employer from making such reports to any other officer of the State and shall satisfy the reporting provisions as contained in the Safety Inspection and Education Act, the Health and Safety Act, and the Occupational Safety and Health Act. The reports filed with the Commission pursuant to this Section shall be made available by the Commission to the Director of Labor or his representatives and to all other departments of the State of Illinois which shall require such information for the proper discharge of their official duties. Failure to file with the Commission any of the reports required in this Section is a petty offense.

Except as provided in this paragraph, all reports filed hereunder shall be confidential and any person having access to such records filed with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission as herein required, who shall release any information therein contained including the names or otherwise identify any persons sustaining injuries or disabilities, or give access to such information to any unauthorized person, shall be subject to discipline or discharge, and in addition shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The Commission shall compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate statistics, taken from the reports filed hereunder. The aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the employer of any injured person or person with a disability or disabled person.

(c) Notice of the accident shall be given to the employer as soon as practicable, but not later than 45 days after the accident. Provided:

(1) In case of the legal disability of the employee or any dependent of a deceased employee who may be entitled to compensation under the provisions of this Act, the limitations of time by this Act provided do not begin to run against such person under legal disability until a guardian has been appointed.

(2) In cases of injuries sustained by exposure to radiological materials or equipment, notice shall be given to the employer within 90 days subsequent to the time that the employee knows or suspects that he has received an excessive dose of radiation.

No defect or inaccuracy of such notice shall be a bar to the maintenance of proceedings on arbitration or otherwise by the employee unless the employer proves that he is unduly prejudiced in such proceedings by such defect or inaccuracy.

Notice of the accident shall give the approximate date and place of the accident, if known, and may be given orally or in writing.

(d) Every employer shall notify each injured employee who has been granted compensation under the provisions of Section 8 of this Act of his rights to rehabilitation services and advise him of the locations of available public rehabilitation centers and any other such services of which the employer has knowledge.

In any case, other than one where the injury was caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos unless the application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of the accident, where no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation, where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, the right to file such application shall be barred.

In any case of injury caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, unless application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 25 years after the last day that the employee was employed in an environment of hazardous radiological activity or asbestos, the right to file such application shall be barred.

If in any case except one where the injury was caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, the accidental injury results in death application for compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of death where no compensation has been paid or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, but not thereafter.

If an accidental injury caused by exposure to radiological material or equipment or asbestos results in death within 25 years after the last day that the employee was so exposed application for compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of death, where no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, but not thereafter.

(e) Any contract or agreement made by any employer or his agent or attorney with any employee or any other beneficiary of any claim under the provisions of this Act within 7 days after the injury shall be presumed to be fraudulent.

(f) Any condition or impairment of health of an employee employed as a firefighter, emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced emergency medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic which results directly or indirectly from any bloodborne pathogen, lung or respiratory disease or condition, heart or vascular disease or condition, hypertension, tuberculosis, or cancer resulting in any disability (temporary, permanent, total, or partial) to the employee shall be rebuttably presumed to arise out of and in the course of the employee's firefighting, EMT, or paramedic employment and, further, shall be rebuttably presumed to be causally connected to the hazards or exposures of the employment. This presumption shall also apply to any hernia or hearing loss suffered by an employee employed as a firefighter, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic. However, this presumption shall not apply to any employee who has been employed as a firefighter, EMT, or paramedic for less than 5 years at the time he or she files an Application for Adjustment of Claim concerning this condition or impairment with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission. The rebuttable presumption established under this subsection, however, does not apply to an emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced emergency medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic employed by a private employer if the employee spends the preponderance of his or her work time for that employer engaged in medical transfers between medical care facilities or non-emergency medical transfers to or from medical care facilities. The changes made to this subsection by Public Act 98-291 shall be narrowly construed. The Finding and Decision of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under only the rebuttable presumption provision of this subsection shall not be admissible or be deemed res judicata in any disability claim under the Illinois Pension Code arising out of the same medical condition; however, this sentence makes no change to the law set forth in Krohe v. City of Bloomington, 204 Ill.2d 392.

(Source: P.A. 98-291, eff. 1-1-14; 98-874, eff. 1-1-15; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(820 ILCS 305/17) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.17)

Sec. 17. The Commission shall cause to be printed and furnish free of charge upon request by any employer or employee such blank forms as may facilitate or promote efficient administration and the performance of the duties of the Commission. It shall provide a proper record in which shall be entered and indexed the name of any employer who shall file a notice of declination or withdrawal under this Act, and the date of the filing thereof; and a proper record in which shall be entered and indexed the name of any employee who shall file such notice of declination or withdrawal, and the date of the filing thereof; and such other notices as may be required by this Act; and records in which shall be recorded all proceedings, orders and awards had or made by the Commission or by the arbitration committees, and such other books or records as it shall deem necessary, all such records to be kept in the office of the Commission.

The Commission may destroy all papers and documents which have been on file for more than 5 years where there is no claim for compensation pending or where more than 2 years have elapsed since the termination of the compensation period.

The Commission shall compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate statistics, taken from any records and reports in the possession of the Commission. The aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the employer of any injured person or person with a disability or disabled person.

The Commission is authorized to establish reasonable fees and methods of payment limited to covering only the costs to the Commission for processing, maintaining and generating records or data necessary for the computerized production of documents, records and other materials except to the extent of any salaries or compensation of Commission officers or employees.

All fees collected by the Commission under this Section shall be deposited in the Statistical Services Revolving Fund and credited to the account of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-721, eff. 1-1-05.)

Section 1060. The Workers' Occupational Diseases Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 6, 10, and 17 as follows:

(820 ILCS 310/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.40)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 89-7, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 5. (a) There is no common law or statutory right to recover compensation or damages from the employer, his insurer, his broker, any service organization retained by the employer, his insurer or his broker to provide safety service, advice or recommendations for the employer or the agents or employees of any of them for or on account of any injury to health, disease, or death therefrom, other than for the compensation herein provided or for damages as provided in Section 3 of this Act. This Section shall not affect any right to compensation under the "Workers' Compensation Act".

No compensation is payable under this Act for any condition of physical or mental ill-being, disability, disablement, or death for which compensation is recoverable on account of accidental injury under the "Workers' Compensation Act".

(b) Where the disablement or death for which compensation is payable under this Act was caused under circumstances creating a legal liability for damages on the part of some person other than his employer to pay damages, then legal proceedings may be taken against such other person to recover damages notwithstanding such employer's payment of or liability to pay compensation under this Act. In such case, however, if the action against such other person is brought by the employee with a disability disabled employee or his personal representative and judgment is obtained and paid or settlement is made with such other person, either with or without suit, then from the amount received by such employee or personal representative there shall be paid to the employer the amount of compensation paid or to be paid by him to such employee or personal representative, including amounts paid or to be paid pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 8 of the Workers' Compensation Act as required under Section 7 of this Act. If the employee or personal representative brings an action against another person and the other person then brings an action for contribution against the employer, the amount, if any, that shall be paid to the employer by the employee or personal representative pursuant to this Section shall be reduced by an amount equal to the amount found by the trier of fact to be the employer's pro rata share of the common liability in the action.

Out of any reimbursement received by the employer, pursuant to this Section the employer shall pay his pro rata share of all costs and reasonably necessary expenses in connection with such third party claim, action or suit, and where the services of an attorney at law of the employee or dependents have resulted in or substantially contributed to the procurement by suit, settlement or otherwise of the proceeds out of which the employer is reimbursed, then, in the absence of other agreement, the employer shall pay such attorney 25% of the gross amount of such reimbursement.

If the employee with a disability disabled employee or his personal representative agrees to receive compensation from the employer or accept from the employer any payment on account of such compensation, or to institute proceedings to recover the same, the employer may have or claim a lien upon any award, judgment or fund out of which such employee might be compensated from such third party.

In such actions brought by the employee or his personal representative, he shall forthwith notify his employer by personal service or registered mail, of such fact and of the name of the court in which the suit is brought, filing proof thereof in the action. The employer may, at any time thereafter join in the action upon his motion so that all orders of court after hearing and judgment shall be made for his protection. No release or settlement of claim for damages by reason of such disability or death, and no satisfaction of judgment in such proceedings, are valid without the written consent of both employer and employee or his personal representative, except in the case of the employers, such consent is not required where the employer has been fully indemnified or protected by court order.

In the event the employee or his personal representative fails to institute a proceeding against such third person at any time prior to 3 months before such action would be barred at law the employer may in his own name, or in the name of the employee or his personal representative, commence a proceeding against such other person for the recovery of damages on account of such disability or death to the employee, and out of any amount recovered the employer shall pay over to the injured employee or his personal representative all sums collected from such other person by judgment or otherwise in excess of the amount of such compensation paid or to be paid under this Act, including amounts paid or to be paid pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 8 of the Workers' Compensation Act as required by Section 7 of this Act, and costs, attorney's fees and reasonable expenses as may be incurred by such employer in making such collection or in enforcing such liability.

This amendatory Act of 1995 applies to causes of action accruing on or after its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 89-7, eff. 3-9-95.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 89-7, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 5. (a) There is no common law or statutory right to recover compensation or damages from the employer, his insurer, his broker, any service organization retained by the employer, his insurer or his broker to provide safety service, advice or recommendations for the employer or the agents or employees of any of them for or on account of any injury to health, disease, or death therefrom, other than for the compensation herein provided or for damages as provided in Section 3 of this Act. This Section shall not affect any right to compensation under the "Workers' Compensation Act".

No compensation is payable under this Act for any condition of physical or mental ill-being, disability, disablement, or death for which compensation is recoverable on account of accidental injury under the "Workers' Compensation Act".

(b) Where the disablement or death for which compensation is payable under this Act was caused under circumstances creating a legal liability for damages on the part of some person other than his employer to pay damages, then legal proceedings may be taken against such other person to recover damages notwithstanding such employer's payment of or liability to pay compensation under this Act. In such case, however, if the action against such other person is brought by the employee with a disability disabled employee or his personal representative and judgment is obtained and paid or settlement is made with such other person, either with or without suit, then from the amount received by such employee or personal representative there shall be paid to the employer the amount of compensation paid or to be paid by him to such employee or personal representative, including amounts paid or to be paid pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

Out of any reimbursement received by the employer, pursuant to this Section the employer shall pay his pro rata share of all costs and reasonably necessary expenses in connection with such third party claim, action or suit, and where the services of an attorney at law of the employee or dependents have resulted in or substantially contributed to the procurement by suit, settlement or otherwise of the proceeds out of which the employer is reimbursed, then, in the absence of other agreement, the employer shall pay such attorney 25% of the gross amount of such reimbursement.

If the employee with a disability disabled employee or his personal representative agrees to receive compensation from the employer or accept from the employer any payment on account of such compensation, or to institute proceedings to recover the same, the employer may have or claim a lien upon any award, judgment or fund out of which such employee might be compensated from such third party.

In such actions brought by the employee or his personal representative, he shall forthwith notify his employer by personal service or registered mail, of such fact and of the name of the court in which the suit is brought, filing proof thereof in the action. The employer may, at any time thereafter join in the action upon his motion so that all orders of court after hearing and judgment shall be made for his protection. No release or settlement of claim for damages by reason of such disability or death, and no satisfaction of judgment in such proceedings, are valid without the written consent of both employer and employee or his personal representative, except in the case of the employers, such consent is not required where the employer has been fully indemnified or protected by court order.

In the event the employee or his personal representative fails to institute a proceeding against such third person at any time prior to 3 months before such action would be barred at law the employer may in his own name, or in the name of the employee or his personal representative, commence a proceeding against such other person for the recovery of damages on account of such disability or death to the employee, and out of any amount recovered the employer shall pay over to the injured employee or his personal representative all sums collected from such other person by judgment or otherwise in excess of the amount of such compensation paid or to be paid under this Act, including amounts paid or to be paid pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 8 of this Act, and costs, attorney's fees and reasonable expenses as may be incurred by such employer in making such collection or in enforcing such liability.

(Source: P.A. 81-992.)

(820 ILCS 310/6) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.41)

Sec. 6. (a) Every employer operating under the compensation provisions of this Act, shall post printed notices in their respective places of employment in conspicuous places and in such number and at such places as may be determined by the Commission, containing such information relative to this Act as in the judgment of the Commission may be necessary to aid employees to safeguard their rights under this Act.

In addition thereto, the employer shall post in a conspicuous place on the premises of the employment a printed or typewritten notice stating whether he is insured or whether he has qualified and is operating as a self-insured employer. In the event the employer is insured, the notice shall state the name and address of his or her insurance carrier, the number of the insurance policy, its effective date and the date of termination. In the event of the termination of the policy for any reason prior to the termination date stated, the posted notice shall promptly be corrected accordingly. In the event the employer is operating as a self-insured employer the notice shall state the name and address of the company, if any, servicing the compensation payments of the employer, and the name and address of the person in charge of making compensation payments.

(b) Every employer subject to this Act shall maintain accurate records of work-related deaths, injuries and illnesses other than minor injuries requiring only first aid treatment and which do not involve medical treatment, loss of consciousness, restriction of work or motion or transfer to another job and file with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, in writing, a report of all occupational diseases arising out of and in the course of the employment and resulting in death, or disablement or illness resulting in the loss of more than 3 scheduled work days. In the case of death such report shall be made no later than 2 working days following the occupational death. In all other cases such report shall be made between the 15th and 25th of each month unless required to be made sooner by rule of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission. In case the occupational disease results in permanent disability, a further report shall be made as soon as it is determined that such permanent disability has resulted or will result therefrom. All reports shall state the date of the disablement, the nature of the employer's business, the name, address, the age, sex, conjugal condition of the person with a disability disabled person, the specific occupation of the person, the nature and character of the occupational disease, the length of disability, and, in case of death, the length of disability before death, the wages of the employee, whether compensation has been paid to the employee, or to his legal representative or his heirs or next of kin, the amount of compensation paid, the amount paid for physicians', surgeons' and hospital bills, and by whom paid, and the amount paid for funeral or burial expenses, if known. The reports shall be made on forms and in the manner as prescribed by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission and shall contain such further information as the Commission shall deem necessary and require. The making of such reports releases the employer from making such reports to any other officer of the State and shall satisfy the reporting provisions as contained in the Safety Inspection and Education Act, the Health And Safety Act, and the Occupational Safety and Health Act. The report filed with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be made available by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission to the Director of Labor or his representatives, to the Department of Public Health pursuant to the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act, and to all other departments of the State of Illinois which shall require such information for the proper discharge of their official duties. Failure to file with the Commission any of the reports required in this Section is a petty offense.

Except as provided in this paragraph, all reports filed hereunder shall be confidential and any person having access to such records filed with the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission as herein required, who shall release the names or otherwise identify any persons sustaining injuries or disabilities, or gives access to such information to any unauthorized person, shall be subject to discipline or discharge, and in addition shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The Commission shall compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate statistics, taken from the reports filed hereunder. The aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the employer of any injured person or person with a disability or disabled person.

(c) There shall be given notice to the employer of disablement arising from an occupational disease as soon as practicable after the date of the disablement. If the Commission shall find that the failure to give such notice substantially prejudices the rights of the employer the Commission in its discretion may order that the right of the employee to proceed under this Act shall be barred.

In case of legal disability of the employee or any dependent of a deceased employee who may be entitled to compensation, under the provisions of this Act, the limitations of time in this Section of this Act provided shall not begin to run against such person who is under legal disability until a conservator or guardian has been appointed. No defect or inaccuracy of such notice shall be a bar to the maintenance of proceedings on arbitration or otherwise by the employee unless the employer proves that he or she is unduly prejudiced in such proceedings by such defect or inaccuracy. Notice of the disabling disease may be given orally or in writing. In any case, other than injury or death caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, unless application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of the disablement, where no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of compensation, where any has been paid, whichever shall be later, the right to file such application shall be barred. If the occupational disease results in death, application for compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within 3 years after the date of death where no compensation has been paid, or within 3 years after the last payment of compensation, where any has been paid, whichever is later, but not thereafter.

Effective July 1, 1973 in cases of disability caused by coal miners pneumoconiosis unless application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 5 years after the employee was last exposed where no compensation has been paid, or within 5 years after the last payment of compensation where any has been paid, the right to file such application shall be barred.

In cases of disability caused by exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos, unless application for compensation is filed with the Commission within 25 years after the employee was so exposed, the right to file such application shall be barred.

In cases of death occurring within 25 years from the last exposure to radiological material or equipment or asbestos, application for compensation must be filed within 3 years of death where no compensation has been paid, or within 3 years, after the date of the last payment where any has been paid, but not thereafter.

(d) Any contract or agreement made by any employer or his agent or attorney with any employee or any other beneficiary of any claim under the provisions of this Act within 7 days after the disablement shall be presumed to be fraudulent.

(Source: P.A. 98-874, eff. 1-1-15.)

(820 ILCS 310/10) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.45)

Sec. 10. The basis for computing the compensation provided for in Sections 7 and 8 of the Act shall be as follows:

(a) The compensation shall be computed on the basis of the annual earnings which the person with a disability disabled person received as salary, wages or earnings if in the employment of the same employer continuously during the year next preceding the day of last exposure.

(b) Employment by the same employer shall be taken to mean employment by the same employer in the grade in which the employee was employed at the time of the last day of the last exposure, uninterrupted by absence from work due to illness or any other unavoidable cause.

(c) If such person has not been engaged in the employment of the same employer for the full year immediately preceding the last day of the last exposure, the compensation shall be computed according to the annual earnings which persons of the same class in the same employment and same location, (or if that be impracticable, of neighboring employments of the same kind) have earned during such period.

(d) As to employees in employments in which it is the custom to operate throughout the working days of the year, the annual earnings, if not otherwise determinable, shall be regarded as 300 times the average daily earnings in such computation.

(e) As to employees in employments in which it is the custom to operate for a part of the whole number of working days in each year, such number, if the annual earnings are not otherwise determinable, shall be used instead of 300 as a basis for computing the annual earnings, provided the minimum number of days which shall be so used for the basis of the year's work shall be not less than 200.

(f) In the case of injured employees who earn either no wage or less than the earnings of adult day laborers in the same line of employment in that locality, the yearly wage shall be reckoned according to the average annual earnings of adults of the same class in the same (or if that is impracticable, then of neighboring) employments.

(g) Earnings, for the purpose of this section, shall be based on the earnings for the number of hours commonly regarded as a day's work for that employment, and shall include overtime earnings. The earnings shall not include any sum which the employer has been accustomed to pay the employee to cover any special expense entailed on him by the nature of his employment.

(h) In computing the compensation to be paid to any employee, who, before the disablement for which he claims compensation, was a person with a disability disabled and drawing compensation under the terms of this Act, the compensation for each subsequent disablement shall be apportioned according to the proportion of incapacity and disability caused by the respective disablements which he may have suffered.

(i) To determine the amount of compensation for each installment period, the amount per annum shall be ascertained pursuant hereto, and such amount divided by the number of installment periods per annum.

(Source: P.A. 79-78.)

(820 ILCS 310/17) (from Ch. 48, par. 172.52)

Sec. 17. The Commission shall cause to be printed and shall furnish free of charge upon request by any employer or employee such blank forms as it shall deem requisite to facilitate or promote the efficient administration of this Act, and the performance of the duties of the Commission. It shall provide a proper record in which shall be entered and indexed the name of any employer who shall file a notice of election under this Act, and the date of the filing thereof; and a proper record in which shall be entered and indexed the name of any employee who shall file a notice of election, and the date of the filing thereof; and such other notices as may be required by this Act; and records in which shall be recorded all proceedings, orders and awards had or made by the Commission, or by the arbitration committees, and such other books or records as it shall deem necessary, all such records to be kept in the office of the Commission. The Commission, in its discretion, may destroy all papers and documents except notices of election and waivers which have been on file for more than five years where there is no claim for compensation pending, or where more than two years have elapsed since the termination of the compensation period.

The Commission shall compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate statistics, taken from any records and reports in the possession of the Commission. The aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the employer of any injured person or person with a disability or disabled person.

The Commission is authorized to establish reasonable fees and methods of payment limited to covering only the costs to the Commission for processing, maintaining and generating records or data necessary for the computerized production of documents, records and other materials except to the extent of any salaries or compensation of Commission officers or employees.

All fees collected by the Commission under this Section shall be deposited in the Statistical Services Revolving Fund and credited to the account of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission.

(Source: P.A. 93-721, eff. 1-1-05.)

Section 1065. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 601 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/601) (from Ch. 48, par. 431)

Sec. 601. Voluntary leaving.

A. An individual shall be ineligible for benefits for the week in which he or she has left work voluntarily without good cause attributable to the employing unit and, thereafter, until he or she has become reemployed and has had earnings equal to or in excess of his or her current weekly benefit amount in each of four calendar weeks which are either for services in employment, or have been or will be reported pursuant to the provisions of the Federal Insurance Contributions Act by each employing unit for which such services are performed and which submits a statement certifying to that fact.

B. The provisions of this Section shall not apply to an individual who has left work voluntarily:

1. Because he or she is deemed physically unable to perform his or her work by a licensed and practicing physician, or because the individual's assistance is necessary for the purpose of caring for his or her spouse, child, or parent who, according to a licensed and practicing physician or as otherwise reasonably verified, is in poor physical or mental health or is a person with a mental or physical disability mentally or physically disabled and the employer is unable to accommodate the individual's need to provide such assistance;

2. To accept other bona fide work and, after such acceptance, the individual is either not unemployed in each of 2 weeks, or earns remuneration for such work equal to at least twice his or her current weekly benefit amount;

3. In lieu of accepting a transfer to other work offered to the individual by the employing unit under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement or pursuant to an established employer plan, program, or policy, if the acceptance of such other work by the individual would require the separation from that work of another individual currently performing it;

4. Solely because of the sexual harassment of the individual by another employee. Sexual harassment means (1) unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, sexually motivated physical contact or other conduct or communication which is made a term or condition of the employment or (2) the employee's submission to or rejection of such conduct or communication which is the basis for decisions affecting employment, or (3) when such conduct or communication has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment and the employer knows or should know of the existence of the harassment and fails to take timely and appropriate action;

5. Which he or she had accepted after separation from other work, and the work which he or she left voluntarily would be deemed unsuitable under the provisions of Section 603;

6. (a) Because the individual left work due to verified domestic violence as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 where the domestic violence caused the individual to reasonably believe that his or her continued employment would jeopardize his or her safety or the safety of his or her spouse, minor child, or parent

if the individual provides the following:

(i) notice to the employing unit of the reason for the individual's voluntarily leaving; and

(ii) to the Department provides:

(A) an order of protection or other documentation of equitable relief issued by a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(B) a police report or criminal charges documenting the domestic violence; or

(C) medical documentation of the domestic violence; or

(D) evidence of domestic violence from a member of the clergy, attorney, counselor, social worker, health worker or domestic violence shelter worker.

(b) If the individual does not meet the provisions of subparagraph (a), the individual shall be held to have voluntarily terminated employment for the purpose of determining the individual's eligibility for benefits pursuant to subsection A.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, evidence of domestic violence experienced by an individual, or his or her spouse, minor child, or parent, including the individual's statement and corroborating evidence, shall not be disclosed by the Department unless consent for disclosure is given by the individual.

7. Because, due to a change in location of employment of the individual's spouse, the individual left work to accompany his or her spouse to a place from which it is impractical to commute or because the individual left employment to accompany a spouse who has been reassigned from one military assignment to another. The employer's account, however, shall not be charged for any benefits paid out to the individual who leaves work under a circumstance described in this paragraph.

C. Within 90 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Department shall promulgate rules, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and consistent with Section 903(f)(3)(B) of the Social Security Act, to clarify and provide guidance regarding eligibility and the prevention of fraud.

(Source: P.A. 95-736, eff. 7-16-08; 96-30, eff. 6-30-09.)

Section 9999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.