HB0001ham001 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Rep. Lou Lang

Filed: 3/2/2015

09900HB0001ham001 LRB099 00249 KTG 31307 a

AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 1

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 1 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 5. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings or portions of meetings of the Advisory Committee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff. 8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, and 356z.22 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, and 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 15. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 and adding Sections 5-24 and 20-20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose to and education about administration by individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid overdose.

The Medical Director of the Department of Public Health shall write a standing order for the dispensing by pharmacists in any willing pharmacy of an opioid antidote as defined in subsection (d) of this Section to individuals who may or may not be personally at risk for opioid overdose. All pharmacies and pharmacists who are willing to dispense an opioid antidote in this situation shall dispense the drug and appropriate administration device and provide training or counseling to the individual as required under this Section, accompanied by an educational brochure developed by the Department and the Department of Public Health describing the proper response to an opioid overdose, including, but not limited to, the proper administration of the product dispensed. No pharmacy or pharmacist shall be mandated to dispense an opioid antidote, but no pharmacy or pharmacist shall inhibit, discourage, or disparage individuals from seeking to purchase these products. Opioid antidotes and administration devices purchased for the treatment of opioid overdose must be paid for by the requesting individual or his or her insurance carrier.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response.

(E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose treatment medication.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be liable for civil damages, and shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid antidote.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant who has been delegated the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by his or her supervising physician, an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote, or an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antidote.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antidote dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antidotes and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antidotes and to provide training in the administration of opioid antidotes.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned provider of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency medical services, including, but not limited to, vehicle service providers, stretcher van providers, and ambulance service providers, that employs an emergency medical technician or an emergency medical responder must possess opioid antidotes and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antidotes and to provide training in the administration of opioid antidotes. Each location from which emergency medical technicians or emergency medical responders are dispatched must possess opioid antidotes. As used in this subsection, "vehicle service providers", "stretcher van providers", "ambulance service providers", "emergency medical technician", and "emergency medical responder" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antidotes may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antidotes and training programs on the administration of opioid antidotes.

(Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)

(20 ILCS 301/5-24 new)

Sec. 5-24. Opiate prescriptions; educational materials. The Department shall develop educational materials to educate holders of opiate prescriptions about the dangers of children and teens gaining access to these medications. The materials shall include information regarding the means by which the abuse of opiate prescriptions can lead to the illegal use of heroin. The Department shall also develop a method of distribution for such educational materials.

(20 ILCS 301/20-20 new)

Sec. 20-20. Immunity from prosecution; drugs; public education program. The Department shall develop and implement a public education program to educate the public about the provisions set forth in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, also referred to as the Good Samaritan Overdose Law, granting limited immunity from prosecution for drug overdose victims or persons seeking help for drug overdose victims if the only evidence for the possession charge was obtained as a result of the person seeking or obtaining emergency medical assistance.

Section 20. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by adding Section 10-80 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/10-80 new)

Sec. 10-80. Medication take-back program.

The Department of Human Services shall establish, by rule, a medication take-back program to allow for the collection and disposal of unused medications. The rules adopted under this Section must require every pharmacy in the State to maintain a secure container for the collection and disposal of unused medications by January 1, 2017. Medications collected and disposed of under the program shall include controlled substances approved for collection by federal law, prescription drugs, and over-the-counter medications. All medications collected and disposed of under the program must be managed in accordance with all applicable federal and State laws and regulations.

The program must allow individuals to dispose of unused medications at any pharmacy in the State, to the extent allowed by federal law, and must provide the manner by which such medications will be disposed of, in accordance with federal and State laws. The program must also allow individuals to dispose of unused medications at any pharmacy during any time the pharmacy is open to the public.

Section 25. The Department of State Police Law is amended by adding Section 2605-97 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-97 new)

Sec. 2605-97. Training; opioid antidotes. The Department shall conduct or approve a training program for State police officers in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 2605-97, the term "State police officers" includes full-time or part-time State troopers, police officers, investigators, or any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a peace officer.

Section 30. The State Finance Act is amended by adding Section 5.866 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.866 new)

Sec. 5.866. The Parity Education Fund.

Section 35. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 7 and by adding Section 10.17 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include but not be limited to the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include but not be limited to courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil rights, human relations, cultural diversity, including racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions which require immediate assistance and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.17 new)

Sec. 10.17. Training; administration of opioid antidotes. The Board shall conduct or approve an in-service training program for police officers in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 10.17, the term "police officers" includes full-time or part-time probationary police officers, permanent or part-time police officers, law enforcement officers, recruits, permanent or probationary county corrections officers, permanent or probationary county security officers, and court security officers. The term does not include auxiliary police officers as defined in Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

Section 40. The Illinois Fire Protection Training Act is amended by changing Section 8 and by adding Section 12.5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 740/8) (from Ch. 85, par. 538)

Sec. 8. Rules and minimum standards for schools. The Office shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include but not be limited to the following:

a. Minimum courses of study, resources, facilities, apparatus, equipment, reference material, established records and procedures as determined by the Office.

b. Minimum requirements for instructors.

c. Minimum basic training requirements, which a trainee must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a fire fighter in the fire department of a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation) and training in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-661, eff. 1-1-95.)

(50 ILCS 740/12.5 new)

Sec. 12.5. In-service training; opioid antidotes. The Office shall conduct or approve an in-service training program for fire fighters in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 12.5, the term "fire fighters" includes full-time or part-time fire fighters, but does not include auxiliary, reserve, or volunteer firefighters.

Section 45. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3013 and 5-1069.3 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as soon as he knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal or accidental, including but not limited to deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any death due to a sex crime or a crime against nature;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician;

shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician the body may be moved with the coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the accident causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner or deputy coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, blood, and whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents and other tissues. When the coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by and the manner of death of decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. Within 45 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall deliver those specimens, dried, to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings to be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgement which the coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Department of State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State, the coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-484, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1059, eff. 7-14-10.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 50. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Section 10-4-2.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 55. The School Code is amended by changing Section 22-30 and adding Section 22-80 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an opioid antidote.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe asthma medications by his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates the authority to prescribe asthma medications, for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors by his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates authority to issue a standing protocol for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) administer an opioid antidote to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, or of an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antidote regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, or of an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antidote regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, or of an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antidote regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(c-5) When Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, or administers an opioid antidote to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid antidote regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antidote to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antidote on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antidote in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antidotes in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act may prescribe opioid antidotes in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antidotes shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antidote, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antidote, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antidote of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to his or her school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to his or her school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antidote, trained personnel must submit to his or her school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and its related facilities;

(3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antidote, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antidote dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 9-1-1;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antidote;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antidote; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and manner prescribed by the Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the Board.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antidote by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the Board, in a form and manner prescribed by the Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antidote (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antidote (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antidote administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80 new)

Sec. 22-80. Heroin and opioid prevention pilot program.

By January 1, 2017, the State Board of Education and the Department of Human Services shall develop and establish a 3-year heroin and opioid drug prevention pilot program that offers educational materials and instruction on heroin and opioid abuse to all school districts in the State for use at their respective public elementary and secondary schools. A school district's participation in the pilot program shall be voluntary. If a school district decides to participate in the pilot program, the Department of Human Services shall reimburse the school district for any costs the school district incurs in connection with its participation in the pilot program. Each school district that participates in the pilot program shall have the discretion to determine which grade levels the school district will instruct under the program.

The pilot program must use effective, research-proven, interactive teaching methods and technologies, and must provide students, parents, and school staff with scientific, social, and emotional learning content to help them understand the risk of drug use. Such learning content must specifically target the dangers of prescription pain medication and heroin abuse. The Department may contract with a health education organization to fulfill the requirements of the pilot program.

The State Board of Education, the Department of Human Services, and any contracted organization shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly that includes: (i) a list of school districts participating in the pilot program; (ii) the grade levels each school district instructs under the pilot program; and (iii) any findings regarding the effectiveness of the pilot program.

Section 60. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.50)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure levels.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or "EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course in intermediate life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in advanced life support care as approved by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires.

(c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in emergency medical response as approved by the Department and provides emergency medical response services prior to the arrival of an ambulance or specialized emergency medical services vehicle, in accordance with the level of care established by the National EMS Educational Standards Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the Department. An Emergency Medical Responder who provides services as part of an EMS System response plan shall comply with the applicable sections of the Program Plan, as approved by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency Medical Responders.

On the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, a person who is licensed by the Department as a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other standards previously recognized by the Department shall be eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an application to the Department. A valid First Responder license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the First Responder license expires.

(c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 months after the adoption of the administrative rules.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the appropriate licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the Department's examination, but are responsible for making their own arrangements for taking the National Registry examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States under this paragraph (2), the Department shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are recognized.

(2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meets such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination for the level of license for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the level of EMS personnel license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure levels.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) Prescribe education and training requirements for EMT and EMR personnel in the administration of opioid antidotes as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that are in accordance with that Section.

(d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section on a form prescribed by the Department.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this Section must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-509, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1014, eff. 1-1-13; 98-53, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14.)

Section 65. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by adding Section 6.14g as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.14g new)

Sec. 6.14g. Reports to the Department; opioid overdoses.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Overdose" has the same meaning as provided in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Health care professional" includes a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse licensed in the State.

(b) A health care professional who attends or treats, or who is requested to attend or treat, a drug overdose or the administrator or other person in charge of a hospital in which a drug overdose is attended or treated, or in which the attention or treatment is requested, shall report the case within 48 hours to the Department of Public Health. The Department shall by rule create a form for this purpose, which shall include an inquiry as to whether an opioid antidote, as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, was administered. If possible, the health care professional or hospital administrator making the report shall report the cause of the overdose. The health care professional or hospital administrator making the report shall provide demographic information of the person treated, but may not disclose the person's name, address, or any other personal information.

(c) The Department shall provide a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of drug overdose figures. The figures shall be organized by the overdose location, the age of the victim, the cause of the overdose, and any other factors the Department deems appropriate.

Section 70. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 352, 370c, and 370c.1 and by adding Section 356z.23 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/352) (from Ch. 73, par. 964)

Sec. 352. Scope of Article.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e), this Article shall apply to all companies transacting in this State the kinds of business enumerated in clause (b) of Class 1 and clause (a) of Class 2 of section 4. Nothing in this Article shall apply to, or in any way affect policies or contracts described in clause (a) of Class 1 of Section 4; however, this Article shall apply to policies and contracts which contain benefits providing reimbursement for the expenses of long term health care which are certified or ordered by a physician including but not limited to professional nursing care, custodial nursing care, and non-nursing custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a residence of the insured.

(b) This Article does not apply to policies of accident and health insurance issued in compliance with Article XIXB of this Code.

(c) A policy issued and delivered in this State that provides coverage under that policy for certificate holders who are neither residents of nor employed in this State does not need to provide to those nonresident certificate holders who are not employed in this State the coverages or services mandated by this Article.

(d) Stop-loss insurance is exempt from all Sections of this Article, except this Section and Sections 353a, 354, 357.30, and 370. For purposes of this exemption, stop-loss insurance is further defined as follows:

(1) The policy must be issued to and insure an employer, trustee, or other sponsor of the plan, or the plan itself, but not employees, members, or participants.

(2) Payments by the insurer must be made to the employer, trustee, or other sponsors of the plan, or the plan itself, but not to the employees, members, participants, or health care providers.

(e) A policy issued or delivered in this State to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) and providing coverage, under clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a) of Class 2 as described in Section 4, to persons who are enrolled under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act is exempt from all restrictions, limitations, standards, rules, or regulations respecting benefits imposed by or under authority of this Code, except those specified by subsection (1) of Section 143 and Section 370c. Nothing in this subsection, however, affects the total medical services available to persons eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.23 new)

Sec. 356z.23. Coverage for opioid antidotes.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs must provide coverage for opioid antidotes, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy administration fees related to the dispensing of the opioid antidote.

(b) As used in this Section, "opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a) (1) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, every insurer which amends, delivers, issues, or renews group accident and health policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer to the applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurer's standards of insurability, coverage for reasonable and necessary treatment and services for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious mental illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act of his choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician and the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act has provided written notification to the patient's primary care physician, if any, that services are being provided to the patient. That notification may, however, be waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall be retained by the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act for a period of not less than 5 years.

(b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or medical expenses under a group policy of accident and health insurance or health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall provide coverage under the policy for treatment of serious mental illness and substance use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to any group policy of accident and health insurance or health care plan for any plan year of a small employer as defined in Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

(2) "Serious mental illness" means the following psychiatric illnesses as defined in the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association:

(A) schizophrenia;

(B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;

(C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive, and mixed);

(D) major depressive disorders (single episode or recurrent);

(E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);

(F) pervasive developmental disorders;

(G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;

(H) depression in childhood and adolescence;

(I) panic disorder;

(J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic, or with delayed onset); and

(K) anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

(2.5) "Substance use disorder" means the following mental disorders as defined in the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association:

(A) substance abuse disorders;

(B) substance dependence disorders; and

(C) substance induced disorders.

(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code, the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of serious mental illness or substance use disorder shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for serious mental illness or substance use disorder, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with appropriate patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria may be used to make medical necessity determinations for serious mental illness or substance use disorders.

(4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly:

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the treatment of mental illness and substance use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the following:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan.

(C) (Blank).

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall provide coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and medically necessary clinical stabilization services for up to a total of 21 days before initiating utilization review procedures and shall not require preauthorization prior to obtaining acute treatment services or clinical stabilization services. Medical necessity shall be determined by the substance use disorder treatment facility or the treating clinician in consultation with the patient.

As used in this subsection:

"Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational groups, and discharge planning.

"Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, usually following acute treatment services for substance abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in recovery from addiction.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) With respect to substance use disorders and mental illness, coverage for inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a residential treatment center licensed or certified by the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services, Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse.

(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for those individuals covered under Section 356z.15 of this Code.

(d) If an external independent review decision made pursuant to the Health Carrier External Review Act upholds a determination adverse to a covered person in violation of this Section or Section 370c.1 of this Code, such person may appeal the benefit denial to the Department; if the external review decision is found by the Director to have been arbitrary and capricious, then the Director, with consultation from a licensed medical professional, may overturn the external review decision and require the health carrier to pay for the health care service or treatment.

(e) The Department shall enforce the requirements of State and federal parity law, which includes ensuring compliance by individual and group policies; detecting violations of the law by individual and group policies; proactively monitoring discriminatory practices; accepting, evaluating, and responding to complaints regarding such violations; and ensuring violations are appropriately remedied and deterred. The Department shall adopt rules with detailed standards ensuring plan compliance.

(f) In the event of uncertainty or disagreement with respect to the application, interpretation, implementation, or enforcement of the parity law's provisions, the Department may request a formal written opinion from the Attorney General. Such requests and opinions shall be issued in accordance with State law and policies of the Attorney General.

(g) All individual and group policies of accident and health insurance covered under this Section shall annually report to the Department the percentages of premiums spent on reimbursement for clinical services, including mental health and substance use disorder services, and activities that improve health care quality. Such policies must have a loss ratio of at least 80%.

Medicaid managed care plans that receive capitated payments from the State are required to annually report to the Department the percentages of such capitated payments for mental health and substance use disorder services spent on reimbursement for mental health and substance use disorder services. Such policies must have a loss ratio of at least 90%.

The Department shall adopt rules that cover the penalization, in the reasonable discretion of the Department, of policies who do not meet the applicable loss ratio requirements. For purposes of this subsection, "loss ratio" means the percentage of premium that is used to pay losses.

(h) Each insurance plan subject to this Act shall electronically submit an annual report to the Department no later than April 1st every year. The report shall include the following information for the previous plan year:

(1) The number and percentage of times a benefit limit is exceeded for a mental health benefit and for a substance use disorder benefit and the number and percentage of times a benefit limit is exceeded for other medical benefits.

(2) The number and percentage of times a co-pay or co-insurance limit for a mental health benefit and for a substance use disorder benefit is different from other medical benefits.

(3) The number and percentage of claim denials for mental health and substance use disorder benefits due to benefit limits and the number and percentage of claim denials for other medical benefits due to benefit limits.

(4) The number and percentage of denials for experimental benefits or the use of unproven technology for a mental health benefit and for a substance use disorder benefit and the number and percentage of denials for experimental benefits or the use of unproven technology for other medical benefits.

(5) The number and percentage of administrative denials for no prior authorization for a mental health benefit and for a substance use disorder benefit and the number and percentage of administrative denials for no prior authorization for other medical benefits.

(6) The number and percentage of denials due to a mental health benefit and a substance use disorder benefit not being a covered benefit and the number and percentage of denials for other medical benefits not being a covered benefit.

(7) The number and percentage of denials due to a mental health benefit and a substance use disorder benefit not meeting medical necessity and the number and percentage of denials for other medical benefits not meeting medical necessity.

(8) The number and percentage of denials upheld on appeal for a mental health benefit and for a substance use disorder benefit for not meeting medical necessity and the number and percentage of those for other medical benefits.

(9) The number and percentage of denials of mental health benefits and of substance use benefits that went to the plan's external quality review organization, or similar reviewing body, and were upheld and those that were overturned for medical necessity.

(10) The number and percentage of continued stay review denials for mental health and substance use disorder benefits.

(11) A summary of the plan's pharmacy management processes for mental health and substance use benefits compared to those for other medical benefits.

(12) A summary of the internal processes of review for experimental benefits and unproven technology for mental health and substance use disorder benefits and those for other medical benefits.

(13) A summary of how the plan's policies and procedures for utilization management for mental health and substance use disorder benefits compare to those for other medical benefits.

The Department shall develop a specific electronic form for insurance plans to use in reporting this data. The Department shall post the data reported under this Section to its website annually by August 1st each year.

(i) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) all employer-sponsored group health insurance plans written in Illinois, including self-insured plans; (2) Illinois Medicaid managed care organization plans covering individuals enrolled in any of Illinois' Medicaid managed care entity models, including managed care community networks, independent physician associations, accountable care entities, and care coordination entities as of the date they begin receiving full-risk capitated payments from the State; (3) State employee health plans; and (4) local government health plans.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c.1)

Sec. 370c.1. Mental health parity.

(a) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace, Children's Health Insurance Program plan, Medicaid managed care organization plan, or Medicaid Alternative Benefit plan policy of accident and health insurance in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall ensure that:

(1) the financial requirements applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant financial requirements applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing requirements that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; and

(2) the treatment limitations applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant treatment limitations applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate treatment limitations that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits.

(b) The following provisions shall apply concerning aggregate lifetime limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace, Children's Health Insurance Program plan, Medicaid managed care organization plan, or Medicaid Alternative Benefit plan policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable lifetime limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable lifetime limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable lifetime limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section and that includes no or different aggregate lifetime limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable lifetime limit an average aggregate lifetime limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime limits applicable to such categories.

(c) The following provisions shall apply concerning annual limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace, Children's Health Insurance Program plan, Medicaid managed care organization plan, or Medicaid Alternative Benefit plan policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any annual limits on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable annual limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable annual limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any annual limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable annual limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section and that includes no or different annual limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable annual limit an average annual limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the annual limits applicable to such categories.

(d) With respect to substance use disorders, an insurer shall use policies and procedures for the election and placement of substance abuse treatment drugs on their formulary that are no less favorable to the insured as those policies and procedures the insurer uses for the selection and placement of other drugs and shall follow the expedited coverage determination requirements for substance abuse treatment drugs set forth in Section 45.2 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(e) (d) This Section shall be interpreted in a manner consistent with the interim final regulations promulgated by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services at 75 FR 5410, including the prohibition against applying a cumulative financial requirement or cumulative quantitative treatment limitation for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder benefits that accumulates separately from any cumulative financial requirement or cumulative quantitative treatment limitation established for hospital and medical benefits in the same classification.

(f) (e) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this Section shall not be interpreted to allow the use of lifetime or annual limits otherwise prohibited by State or federal law.

(f) This Section shall not apply to individual health insurance coverage as defined in Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

(g) As used in this Section:

"Financial requirement" includes deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums, but does not include an aggregate lifetime limit or an annual limit subject to subsections (b) and (c).

"Treatment limitation" includes limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. "Treatment limitation" includes both quantitative treatment limitations, which are expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), and nonquantitative treatment limitations, which include restrictions based on geographic location, facility type, provider specialty, network adequacy standards, and any other criteria that otherwise limit the scope or duration of treatment. A permanent exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder shall not be considered a treatment limitation.

(h) The Department of Insurance shall implement the following education initiatives:

(1) By January 1, 2016, the Department shall develop a plan for a Consumer Education Campaign on parity. The Consumer Education Campaign shall focus its efforts throughout the State and include trainings in the northern, southern, and central regions of the State, as defined by the Department, as well as each of the 5 managed care regions of the State as identified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Under this Consumer Education Campaign, the Department shall: (1) by January 1, 2017, provide at least one live training in each region on parity for consumers and providers and one webinar training to be posted on the Department website and (2) establish a consumer hotline to assist consumers in navigating the parity process by March 1, 2016. By January 1, 2018 the Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on the success of the consumer education campaign, which shall indicate whether additional training is necessary or would be recommended.

(2) The Department, in coordination with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall convene a working group of health care insurance carriers, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and provider groups for the purpose of discussing issues related to the treatment and coverage of substance abuse disorders. The working group shall meet once before January 1, 2016 and shall meet semiannually thereafter. The Department shall issue an annual report to the General Assembly that includes a list of the health care insurance carriers, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and provider groups that participated in the working group meetings, details on the issues and topics covered, and any legislative recommendations.

(i) The Parity Education Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department of Insurance shall be used for the purpose of providing financial support of the Consumer Education Campaign.

(Source: P.A. 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)

Section 75. The Health Carrier External Review Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 35 as follows:

(215 ILCS 180/20)

Sec. 20. Notice of right to external review.

(a) At the same time the health carrier sends written notice of a covered person's right to appeal a coverage decision upon an adverse determination or a final adverse determination, a health carrier shall notify a covered person, the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and a covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered person's right to request an external review as provided by this Act. The written notice required shall include the following, or substantially equivalent, language: "We have denied your request for the provision of or payment for a health care service or course of treatment. You have the right to have our decision reviewed by an independent review organization not associated with us by submitting a written request for an external review to the Department of Insurance, Office of Consumer Health Information, 320 West Washington Street, 4th Floor, Springfield, Illinois, 62767.". The written notice shall include a copy of the Department's Request for External Review form.

(a-5) The Department may prescribe the form and content of the notice required under this Section.

(b) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a), for a notice related to an adverse determination, the health carrier shall include a statement informing the covered person of all of the following:

(1) If the covered person has a medical condition where the timeframe for completion of (A) an expedited internal review of an appeal involving an adverse determination, (B) a final adverse determination, or (C) a standard external review as established in this Act, would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the covered person or would jeopardize the covered person's ability to regain maximum function, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file a request for an expedited external review.

(2) The covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file an appeal under the health carrier's internal appeal process, but if the health carrier has not issued a written decision to the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative 30 days following the date the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative files an appeal of an adverse determination that involves a concurrent or prospective review request or 60 days following the date the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative files an appeal of an adverse determination that involves a retrospective review request with the health carrier and the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative has not requested or agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file a request for external review and shall be considered to have exhausted the health carrier's internal appeal process for purposes of this Act.

(3) If the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative filed a request for an expedited internal review of an adverse determination and has not received a decision on such request from the health carrier within 48 hours, except to the extent the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative requested or agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file a request for external review and shall be considered to have exhausted the health carrier's internal appeal process for the purposes of this Act.

(4) If an adverse determination concerns a denial of coverage based on a determination that the recommended or requested health care service or treatment is experimental or investigational and the covered person's health care provider certifies in writing that the recommended or requested health care service or treatment that is the subject of the request would be significantly less effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may request an expedited external review at the same time the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative files a request for an expedited internal appeal involving an adverse determination. The independent review organization assigned to conduct the expedited external review shall determine whether the covered person is required to complete the expedited review of the appeal prior to conducting the expedited external review.

(c) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a), for a notice related to a final adverse determination, the health carrier shall include a statement informing the covered person of all of the following:

(1) if the covered person has a medical condition where the timeframe for completion of a standard external review would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the covered person or would jeopardize the covered person's ability to regain maximum function, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file a request for an expedited external review; or

(2) if a final adverse determination concerns an admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health care service for which the covered person received emergency services, but has not been discharged from a facility, then the covered person, or the covered person's authorized representative, may request an expedited external review; or

(3) if a final adverse determination concerns a denial of coverage based on a determination that the recommended or requested health care service or treatment is experimental or investigational, and the covered person's health care provider certifies in writing that the recommended or requested health care service or treatment that is the subject of the request would be significantly less effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may request an expedited external review.

(d) In addition to the information to be provided pursuant to subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, the health carrier shall include a copy of the description of both the required standard and expedited external review procedures. The description shall highlight the external review procedures that give the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative the opportunity to submit additional information, including any forms used to process an external review.

(e) As part of any forms provided under subsection (d) of this Section, the health carrier shall include an authorization form, or other document approved by the Director, by which the covered person, for purposes of conducting an external review under this Act, authorizes the health carrier and the covered person's treating health care provider to disclose protected health information, including medical records, concerning the covered person that is pertinent to the external review, as provided in the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11.)

(215 ILCS 180/35)

Sec. 35. Standard external review.

(a) Within 4 months after the date of receipt of a notice of an adverse determination or final adverse determination, a covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may file a request for an external review with the Director. Within one business day after the date of receipt of a request for external review, the Director shall send a copy of the request to the health carrier.

(b) Within 5 business days following the date of receipt of the external review request, the health carrier shall complete a preliminary review of the request to determine whether:

(1) the individual is or was a covered person in the health benefit plan at the time the health care service was requested or at the time the health care service was provided;

(2) the health care service that is the subject of the adverse determination or the final adverse determination is a covered service under the covered person's health benefit plan, but the health carrier has determined that the health care service is not covered;

(3) the covered person has exhausted the health carrier's internal appeal process unless the covered person is not required to exhaust the health carrier's internal appeal process pursuant to this Act;

(4) (blank); and

(5) the covered person has provided all the information and forms required to process an external review, as specified in this Act.

(c) Within one business day after completion of the preliminary review, the health carrier shall notify the Director and covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative in writing whether the request is complete and eligible for external review. If the request:

(1) is not complete, the health carrier shall inform the Director and covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative in writing and include in the notice what information or materials are required by this Act to make the request complete; or

(2) is not eligible for external review, the health carrier shall inform the Director and covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative in writing and include in the notice the reasons for its ineligibility.

The Department may specify the form for the health carrier's notice of initial determination under this subsection (c) and any supporting information to be included in the notice.

The notice of initial determination of ineligibility shall include a statement informing the covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative that a health carrier's initial determination that the external review request is ineligible for review may be appealed to the Director by filing a complaint with the Director.

Notwithstanding a health carrier's initial determination that the request is ineligible for external review, the Director may determine that a request is eligible for external review and require that it be referred for external review. In making such determination, the Director's decision shall be in accordance with the terms of the covered person's health benefit plan, unless such terms are inconsistent with applicable law, and shall be subject to all applicable provisions of this Act.

(d) Whenever the Director receives notice that a request is eligible for external review following the preliminary review conducted pursuant to this Section, within one business day after the date of receipt of the notice, the Director shall:

(1) assign an independent review organization from the list of approved independent review organizations compiled and maintained by the Director pursuant to this Act and notify the health carrier of the name of the assigned independent review organization; and

(2) notify in writing the covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative of the request's eligibility and acceptance for external review and the name of the independent review organization.

The Director shall include in the notice provided to the covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative a statement that the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may, within 5 business days following the date of receipt of the notice provided pursuant to item (2) of this subsection (d), submit in writing to the assigned independent review organization additional information that the independent review organization shall consider when conducting the external review. The independent review organization is not required to, but may, accept and consider additional information submitted after 5 business days.

(e) The assignment by the Director of an approved independent review organization to conduct an external review in accordance with this Section shall be done on a random basis among those independent review organizations approved by the Director pursuant to this Act.

(f) Within 5 business days after the date of receipt of the notice provided pursuant to item (1) of subsection (d) of this Section, the health carrier or its designee utilization review organization shall provide to the assigned independent review organization the documents and any information considered in making the adverse determination or final adverse determination; in such cases, the following provisions shall apply:

(1) Except as provided in item (2) of this subsection (f), failure by the health carrier or its utilization review organization to provide the documents and information within the specified time frame shall not delay the conduct of the external review.

(2) If the health carrier or its utilization review organization fails to provide the documents and information within the specified time frame, the assigned independent review organization may terminate the external review and make a decision to reverse the adverse determination or final adverse determination.

(3) Within one business day after making the decision to terminate the external review and make a decision to reverse the adverse determination or final adverse determination under item (2) of this subsection (f), the independent review organization shall notify the Director, the health carrier, the covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative, of its decision to reverse the adverse determination.

(g) Upon receipt of the information from the health carrier or its utilization review organization, the assigned independent review organization shall review all of the information and documents and any other information submitted in writing to the independent review organization by the covered person and the covered person's authorized representative.

(h) Upon receipt of any information submitted by the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative, the independent review organization shall forward the information to the health carrier within 1 business day.

(1) Upon receipt of the information, if any, the health carrier may reconsider its adverse determination or final adverse determination that is the subject of the external review.

(2) Reconsideration by the health carrier of its adverse determination or final adverse determination shall not delay or terminate the external review.

(3) The external review may only be terminated if the health carrier decides, upon completion of its reconsideration, to reverse its adverse determination or final adverse determination and provide coverage or payment for the health care service that is the subject of the adverse determination or final adverse determination. In such cases, the following provisions shall apply:

(A) Within one business day after making the decision to reverse its adverse determination or final adverse determination, the health carrier shall notify the Director, the covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative, and the assigned independent review organization in writing of its decision.

(B) Upon notice from the health carrier that the health carrier has made a decision to reverse its adverse determination or final adverse determination, the assigned independent review organization shall terminate the external review.

(i) In addition to the documents and information provided by the health carrier or its utilization review organization and the covered person and the covered person's authorized representative, if any, the independent review organization, to the extent the information or documents are available and the independent review organization considers them appropriate, shall consider the following in reaching a decision:

(1) the covered person's pertinent medical records;

(2) the covered person's health care provider's recommendation;

(3) consulting reports from appropriate health care providers and other documents submitted by the health carrier or its designee utilization review organization, the covered person, the covered person's authorized representative, or the covered person's treating provider;

(4) the terms of coverage under the covered person's health benefit plan with the health carrier to ensure that the independent review organization's decision is not contrary to the terms of coverage under the covered person's health benefit plan with the health carrier, unless the terms are inconsistent with applicable law;

(5) the most appropriate practice guidelines, which shall include applicable evidence-based standards and may include any other practice guidelines developed by the federal government, national or professional medical societies, boards, and associations;

(6) any applicable clinical review criteria developed and used by the health carrier or its designee utilization review organization;

(7) the opinion of the independent review organization's clinical reviewer or reviewers after considering items (1) through (6) of this subsection (i) to the extent the information or documents are available and the clinical reviewer or reviewers considers the information or documents appropriate; and

(8) (blank); and .

(9) in the case of medically necessary determinations for substance use disorders, the patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

(j) Within 5 days after the date of receipt of all necessary information, but in no event more than 45 days after the date of receipt of the request for an external review, the assigned independent review organization shall provide written notice of its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse determination or the final adverse determination to the Director, the health carrier, the covered person, and, if applicable, the covered person's authorized representative. In reaching a decision, the assigned independent review organization is not bound by any claim determinations reached prior to the submission of information to the independent review organization. In such cases, the following provisions shall apply:

(1) The independent review organization shall include in the notice:

(A) a general description of the reason for the request for external review;

(B) the date the independent review organization received the assignment from the Director to conduct the external review;

(C) the time period during which the external review was conducted;

(D) references to the evidence or documentation, including the evidence-based standards, considered in reaching its decision;

(E) the date of its decision;

(F) the principal reason or reasons for its decision, including what applicable, if any, evidence-based standards that were a basis for its decision; and

(G) the rationale for its decision.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) Upon receipt of a notice of a decision reversing the adverse determination or final adverse determination, the health carrier immediately shall approve the coverage that was the subject of the adverse determination or final adverse determination.

(Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 96-967, eff. 1-1-11; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11.)

Section 80. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)

Sec. 20. Continuing education.

(a) The Department shall promulgate rules of continuing education for persons licensed under this Act that require an average of 50 hours of continuing education per license year. These rules shall be consistent with requirements of relevant professional associations, specialty societies, or boards. The rules shall also address variances in part or in whole for good cause, including, but not limited to, temporary illness or hardship. In establishing these rules, the Department shall consider educational requirements for medical staffs, requirements for specialty society board certification or for continuing education requirements as a condition of membership in societies representing the 2 categories of licensee under this Act. These rules shall assure that licensees are given the opportunity to participate in those programs sponsored by or through their professional associations or hospitals which are relevant to their practice. Each licensee is responsible for maintaining records of completion of continuing education and shall be prepared to produce the records when requested by the Department.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules that require physicians licensed under this Act that prescribe controlled substances, as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, to complete a certain number of continuing education hours on the abuse of controlled substances as a condition of license renewal. This education may include, but is not limited to, the following topics: best prescribing practices for pain management, the risks of overprescribing and underprescribing, medication abuse, screening and signs of addition, and responding to addiction. These controlled substances continuing education hours shall be included in, and not in addition to, the hours of continuing education required under subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11.)

Section 85. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5 and 5-16.8 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013, (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, admission documents shall be submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, injectable naltrexone prescribed by a physician for the treatment of alcohol dependence or the prevention of a relapse to opioid dependence shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any utilization control or prior authorization mandate that requires a person to first receive oral naltrexone medication before receiving a prescription for injectable naltrexone.

On or after July 1, 2015, methadone prescribed by a physician for the treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antidotes prescribed by a physician for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy administration fees related to the dispensing of the opioid antidote, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, and 356z.6 of the Illinois Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, and 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 90. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 29B-1, 33G-6, and 33G-9 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)

Sec. 29B-1. (a) A person commits the offense of money laundering:

(1) when, knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves criminally derived property:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) where he or she knows or reasonably should know that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer a monetary instrument:

(A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of the unlawful activity from which the criminally derived property was obtained; or

(B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the financial transaction is designed in whole or in part:

(i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the location, the source, the ownership or the control of the criminally derived property; or

(ii) to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law; or

(2) when, with the intent to:

(A) promote the carrying on of a specified criminal activity as defined in this Article; or

(B) conceal or disguise the nature, location, source, ownership, or control of property believed to be the proceeds of a specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6); or

(C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement under State law,

he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial transaction involving property he or she believes to be the proceeds of specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6) or property used to conduct or facilitate specified criminal activity as defined by subdivision (b)(6).

(b) As used in this Section:

(0.5) "Knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the property involved in the transaction represented proceeds from some form, though not necessarily which form, of activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(1) "Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale, loan, pledge, gift, transfer, delivery or other disposition utilizing criminally derived property, and with respect to financial institutions, includes a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment, transfer or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution. For purposes of clause (a)(2) of this Section, the term "financial transaction" also means a transaction which without regard to whether the funds, monetary instruments, or real or personal property involved in the transaction are criminally derived, any transaction which in any way or degree: (1) involves the movement of funds by wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more monetary instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or personal property. The receipt by an attorney of bona fide fees for the purpose of legal representation is not a financial transaction for purposes of this Section.

(2) "Financial institution" means any bank; saving and loan association; trust company; agency or branch of a foreign bank in the United States; currency exchange; credit union, mortgage banking institution; pawnbroker; loan or finance company; operator of a credit card system; issuer, redeemer or cashier of travelers checks, checks or money orders; dealer in precious metals, stones or jewels; broker or dealer in securities or commodities; investment banker; or investment company.

(3) "Monetary instrument" means United States coins and currency; coins and currency of a foreign country; travelers checks; personal checks, bank checks, and money orders; investment securities; bearer negotiable instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer securities and certificates of stock in such form that title thereto passes upon delivery.

(4) "Criminally derived property" means: (A) any property, real or personal, constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law; or (B) any property represented to be property constituting or derived from proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign law.

(5) "Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to its ordinary meaning, initiating, concluding, or participating in initiating or concluding a transaction.

(6) "Specified criminal activity" means any violation of Section 29D-15.1 (720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) and any violation of Article 29D of this Code.

(7) "Director" means the Director of State Police or his or her designated agents.

(8) "Department" means the Department of State Police of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(9) "Transaction reporting requirement under State law" means any violation as defined under the Currency Reporting Act.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(4) Money laundering in violation of subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class X felony;

(5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony;

(6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of this Section, the sentences are as follows:

(A) Laundering of property of a value not exceeding $10,000 is a Class 3 felony;

(B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony;

(C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 felony;

(D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(d) Evidence. In a prosecution under this Article, either party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some form of criminally derived property or from some form of unlawful activity:

(1) A financial transaction was conducted or structured or attempted in violation of the reporting requirements of any State or federal law; or

(2) A financial transaction was conducted or attempted with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged instrument; or

(3) A falsely altered or completed written instrument or a written instrument that contains any materially false personal identifying information was made, used, offered or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a financial transaction; or

(4) A financial transaction was structured or attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the actual consideration or value of the transaction; or

(5) A money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade or business or any employee of a money transmitter or a person engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should know that false personal identifying information has been presented and incorporates the false personal identifying information into any report or record; or

(6) The criminally derived property is transported or possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or usual means of transportation or possession of such property and where the property is discovered in the absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate origin or right to such property; or

(7) A person pays or receives substantially less than face value for one or more monetary instruments; or

(8) A person engages in a transaction involving one or more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it apparent that they are not the product of bona fide business or financial transactions.

(e) Duty to enforce this Article.

(1) It is the duty of the Department of State Police, and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all provisions of this Article, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent, officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the authority of this State.

(2) Any agent, officer, investigator, or peace officer designated by the Director may: (A) make seizure of property pursuant to the provisions of this Article; and (B) perform such other law enforcement duties as the Director designates. It is the duty of all State's Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and institute legal proceedings as authorized under this Article.

(f) Protective orders.

(1) Upon application of the State, the court may enter a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action to preserve the availability of property described in subsection (h) for forfeiture under this Article:

(A) upon the filing of an indictment, information, or complaint charging a violation of this Article for which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and alleging that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Article; or

(B) prior to the filing of such an indictment, information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons appearing to have an interest in the property and opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that:

(i) there is probable cause to believe that the State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and that failure to enter the order will result in the property being destroyed, removed from the jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made unavailable for forfeiture; and

(ii) the need to preserve the availability of the property through the entry of the requested order outweighs the hardship on any party against whom the order is to be entered.

Provided, however, that an order entered pursuant to subparagraph (B) shall be effective for not more than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good cause shown or unless an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has been filed.

(2) A temporary restraining order under this subsection may be entered upon application of the State without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an indictment, information, complaint, or administrative notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property, if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to believe that the property with respect to which the order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Section and that provision of notice will jeopardize the availability of the property for forfeiture. Such a temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing requested concerning an order entered under this paragraph shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to the expiration of the temporary order.

(3) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing held pursuant to this subsection (f), evidence and information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois rules of evidence.

(4) Order to repatriate and deposit.

(A) In general. Pursuant to its authority to enter a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the court may order a defendant to repatriate any property that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that property pending trial with the Illinois State Police or another law enforcement agency designated by the Illinois State Police.

(B) Failure to comply. Failure to comply with an order under this subsection (f) is punishable as a civil or criminal contempt of court.

(g) Warrant of seizure. The State may request the issuance of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in subsection (h) in the same manner as provided for a search warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the seizure of such property.

(h) Forfeiture.

(1) The following are subject to forfeiture:

(A) any property, real or personal, constituting, derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person obtained directly or indirectly, as a result of a violation of this Article;

(B) any of the person's property used, or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to facilitate the commission of, a violation of this Article;

(C) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to transport, or in any manner to facilitate the transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or concealment of property described in subparagraphs (A) and (B), but:

(i) no conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this Article;

(ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any act or omission which the owner proves to have been committed or omitted without his or her knowledge or consent;

(iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he or she neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission;

(D) all real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, which is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of any violation or act that constitutes a violation of this Article.

(2) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon process or seizure warrant issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or any peace officer without process may be made:

(A) if the seizure is incident to a seizure warrant;

(B) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Article;

(C) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety;

(D) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Article and the property is seized under circumstances in which a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or

(E) in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(3) In the event of seizure pursuant to paragraph (2), forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance with subsections (i) through (r).

(4) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's Attorney under this Article. When property is seized under this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an inventory of the seized property and estimate the property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory of seized property and the estimate of the property's value to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the Director may:

(A) place the property under seal;

(B) remove the property to a place designated by the Director;

(C) keep the property in the possession of the seizing agency;

(D) remove the property to a storage area for safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account;

(E) place the property under constructive seizure by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and interest holders, or by filing notice of pending forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating to the property; or

(F) provide for another agency or custodian, including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to take custody of the property upon the terms and conditions set by the Director.

(5) When property is forfeited under this Article, the Director shall sell all such property unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with paragraph (6). However, upon the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws, if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in its enforcement efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with paragraph (6).

(6) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be distributed as follows:

(A) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or participated in the investigation resulting in the forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable relationship to the degree of direct participation of the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of the property forfeited and the total law enforcement effort with respect to the violation of the law upon which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to the agency or agencies shall be used for the enforcement of laws.

(B)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over 3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General for use in the enforcement of laws.

(ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund of that office to be used for additional expenses incurred in the investigation, prosecution and appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall not receive distribution from cases brought in counties with over 3,000,000 population.

(C) 10% shall be retained by the Department of State Police for expenses related to the administration and sale of seized and forfeited property.

Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the Department of State Police under this Article shall be deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund created in the State treasury and shall be used by the Department of State Police for State law enforcement purposes.

(7) All moneys and sale proceeds of property forfeited and seized under this Article and distributed according to paragraph (6) may also be used to purchase opioid antidotes as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(i) Notice to owner or interest holder.

(1) Whenever notice of pending forfeiture or service of an in rem complaint is required under the provisions of this Article, such notice or service shall be given as follows:

(A) If the owner's or interest holder's name and current address are known, then by either personal service or mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address. For purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the forfeiture, then the address provided to the arresting agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner or interest holder's address changes prior to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the seizing agency of the change in address or, if the owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent to the effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in address; or

(B) If the property seized is a conveyance, to the address reflected in the office of the agency or official in which title or interest to the conveyance is required by law to be recorded, then by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to that address; or

(C) If the owner's or interest holder's address is not known, and is not on record as provided in paragraph (B), then by publication for 3 successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred.

(2) Notice served under this Article is effective upon personal service, the last date of publication, or the mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier.

(j) Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, within 90 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with the inventory of the property and its estimated value. When the property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are pending regarding such vehicle.

(k) Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or if real property is seized under the provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings as described in subsection (l) of this Section within 45 days from receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency under subsection (j) of this Section. However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the following procedure shall be used:

(1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 days after the receipt of notice of seizure from the seizing agency, the State's Attorney shall cause notice of pending forfeiture to be given to the owner of the property and all known interest holders of the property in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.

(2) The notice of pending forfeiture must include a description of the property, the estimated value of the property, the date and place of seizure, the conduct giving rise to forfeiture or the violation of law alleged, and a summary of procedures and procedural rights applicable to the forfeiture action.

(3)(A) Any person claiming an interest in property which is the subject of notice under paragraph (1) of this subsection (k), must, in order to preserve any rights or claims to the property, within 45 days after the effective date of notice as described in subsection (i) of this Section, file a verified claim with the State's Attorney expressing his or her interest in the property. The claim must set forth:

(i) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(ii) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(iii) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(iv) the date, identity of the transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(v) the name and address of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(vi) the specific provision of law relied on in asserting the property is not subject to forfeiture;

(vii) all essential facts supporting each assertion; and

(viii) the relief sought.

(B) If a claimant files the claim and deposits with the State's Attorney a cost bond, in the form of a cashier's check payable to the clerk of the court, in the sum of 10% of the reasonable value of the property as alleged by the State's Attorney or the sum of $100, whichever is greater, upon condition that, in the case of forfeiture, the claimant must pay all costs and expenses of forfeiture proceedings, then the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings and deposit the cost bond with the clerk of the court as described in subsection (l) of this Section within 45 days after receipt of the claim and cost bond. In lieu of a cost bond, a person claiming interest in the seized property may file, under penalty of perjury, an indigency affidavit which has been approved by a circuit court judge.

(C) If none of the seized property is forfeited in the judicial in rem proceeding, the clerk of the court shall return to the claimant, unless the court orders otherwise, 90% of the sum which has been deposited and shall retain as costs 10% of the money deposited. If any of the seized property is forfeited under the judicial forfeiture proceeding, the clerk of the court shall transfer 90% of the sum which has been deposited to the State's Attorney prosecuting the civil forfeiture to be applied to the costs of prosecution and the clerk shall retain as costs 10% of the sum deposited.

(4) If no claim is filed or bond given within the 45 day period as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (k), the State's Attorney shall declare the property forfeited and shall promptly notify the owner and all known interest holders of the property and the Director of State Police of the declaration of forfeiture and the Director shall dispose of the property in accordance with law.

(l) Judicial in rem procedures. If property seized under the provisions of this Article is non-real property that exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, or is real property, or a claimant has filed a claim and a cost bond under paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section, the following judicial in rem procedures shall apply:

(1) If, after a review of the facts surrounding the seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 days of the receipt of notice of seizure by the seizing agency or the filing of the claim and cost bond, whichever is later, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial forfeiture proceedings by filing a verified complaint for forfeiture and, if the claimant has filed a claim and cost bond, by depositing the cost bond with the clerk of the court. When authorized by law, a forfeiture must be ordered by a court on an action in rem brought by a State's Attorney under a verified complaint for forfeiture.

(2) During the probable cause portion of the judicial in rem proceeding wherein the State presents its case-in-chief, the court must receive and consider, among other things, all relevant hearsay evidence and information. The laws of evidence relating to civil actions apply to all other portions of the judicial in rem proceeding.

(3) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property may file an answer asserting a claim against the property in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant. Upon motion of the State, the court shall first hold a hearing, wherein any claimant must establish by a preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has a lawful, legitimate ownership interest in the property and that it was obtained through a lawful source.

(4) The answer must be signed by the owner or interest holder under penalty of perjury and must set forth:

(A) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the claimant;

(B) the address at which the claimant will accept mail;

(C) the nature and extent of the claimant's interest in the property;

(D) the date, identity of transferor, and circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the interest in the property;

(E) the name and address of all other persons known to have an interest in the property;

(F) all essential facts supporting each assertion; and

(G) the precise relief sought.

(5) The answer must be filed with the court within 45 days after service of the civil in rem complaint.

(6) The hearing must be held within 60 days after filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.

(7) The State shall show the existence of probable cause for forfeiture of the property. If the State shows probable cause, the claimant has the burden of showing by a preponderance of the evidence that the claimant's interest in the property is not subject to forfeiture.

(8) If the State does not show existence of probable cause, the court shall order the interest in the property returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all other property forfeited to the State. If the State does show existence of probable cause, the court shall order all property forfeited to the State.

(9) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is precluded from later denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However, evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible.

(10) An acquittal or dismissal in a criminal proceeding does not preclude civil proceedings under this Article; however, for good cause shown, on a motion by the State's Attorney, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment or information alleging a money laundering violation. Such a stay shall not be available pending an appeal. Property subject to forfeiture under this Article shall not be subject to return or release by a court exercising jurisdiction over a criminal case involving the seizure of such property unless such return or release is consented to by the State's Attorney.

(11) All property declared forfeited under this Article vests in this State on the commission of the conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the proceeds of the property after that time. Any such property or proceeds subsequently transferred to any person remain subject to forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered forfeited.

(12) A civil action under this Article must be commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5 years after the forfeitable property is discovered, whichever is later, excluding any time during which either the property or claimant is out of the State or in confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating to the same conduct are in progress.

(m) Stay of time periods. If property is seized for evidence and for forfeiture, the time periods for instituting judicial and non-judicial forfeiture proceedings shall not begin until the property is no longer necessary for evidence.

(n) Settlement of claims. Notwithstanding other provisions of this Article, the State's Attorney and a claimant of seized property may enter into an agreed-upon settlement concerning the seized property in such an amount and upon such terms as are set out in writing in a settlement agreement.

(o) Property constituting attorney fees. Nothing in this Article applies to property which constitutes reasonable bona fide attorney's fees paid to an attorney for services rendered or to be rendered in the forfeiture proceeding or criminal proceeding relating directly thereto where such property was paid before its seizure, before the issuance of any seizure warrant or court order prohibiting transfer of the property and where the attorney, at the time he or she received the property did not know that it was property subject to forfeiture under this Article.

(p) Construction. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the forfeiture provisions of this Article be liberally construed so as to effect their remedial purpose. The forfeiture of property and other remedies hereunder shall be considered to be in addition to, and not exclusive of, any sentence or other remedy provided by law.

(q) Judicial review. If property has been declared forfeited under subsection (k) of this Section, any person who has an interest in the property declared forfeited may, within 30 days after the effective date of the notice of the declaration of forfeiture, file a claim and cost bond as described in paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section. If a claim and cost bond is filed under this Section, then the procedures described in subsection (l) of this Section apply.

(r) Burden of proof of exemption or exception. It is not necessary for the State to negate any exemption or exception in this Article in any complaint, information, indictment or other pleading or in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding under this Article. The burden of proof of any exemption or exception is upon the person claiming it.

(s) Review of administrative decisions. All administrative findings, rulings, final determinations, findings, and conclusions of the State's Attorney's Office under this Article are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the decision pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and the rules adopted pursuant to that Law. Pending final decision on such review, the administrative acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such review, the acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order of court. However, no stay of any decision of the administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that good cause exists for the stay. In determining good cause, the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the general public.

(Source: P.A. 96-275, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1234, eff. 7-23-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-6. Remedial proceedings, procedures, and forfeiture. Under this Article:

(a) The circuit court shall have jurisdiction to prevent and restrain violations of this Article by issuing appropriate orders, including:

(1) ordering any person to disgorge illicit proceeds obtained by a violation of this Article or divest himself or herself of any interest, direct or indirect, in any enterprise or real or personal property of any character, including money, obtained, directly or indirectly, by a violation of this Article;

(2) imposing reasonable restrictions on the future activities or investments of any person or enterprise, including prohibiting any person or enterprise from engaging in the same type of endeavor as the person or enterprise engaged in, that violated this Article; or

(3) ordering dissolution or reorganization of any enterprise, making due provision for the rights of innocent persons.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall, for any violation of this Article, order criminal or civil forfeiture, in personam or in rem, jointly and severally, of any interest or property the person has acquired or maintained in violation of this Article, or any interest in, security of, or claim against, or property or contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence of any degree over, any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in, in violation of this Article, and any property constituting, or derived from, any proceeds, including money, that the person obtained, directly or indirectly, from predicate activity or unlawful debt collection in violation of this Article. Any court, in imposing sentence on the person, shall order, in addition to any other sentence imposed under this Article, that the person forfeit to the State all property described in this subsection (c). The property and interests subject to criminal or civil forfeiture under this Article include any real property, including things growing on, affixed to, and found in land, and any tangible and intangible personal property, including rights, privileges, interests, claims, and securities. All right, title, and interest in property described in this Article vests in the State upon the inception of the illicit agreement or commission of any act otherwise giving rise to forfeiture under this Article. The court shall further order the criminal or civil forfeiture of any other property of the defendant up to the value of the property described in this subsection (c) if, as a result of any act or omission of the defendant, the property subject to forfeiture:

(1) cannot be located upon the exercise of due diligence;

(2) has been transferred or sold to, or deposited with, a third party;

(3) has been placed beyond the jurisdiction of the court;

(4) has been substantially diminished in value; or

(5) has been commingled with other property that cannot be divided without difficulty.

(d) Any property subject to criminal or civil forfeiture under this Article that is subsequently transferred to a person other than a defendant may be the subject of a special verdict of forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered forfeited to the State, unless the transferee petitions the court and establishes in a hearing before the court, without a jury, that he or she is a bona fide purchaser for value of the property who at the time of purchase was reasonably without cause to believe that the property was subject to forfeiture under this Article. The petition shall be signed by the petitioner under penalty of perjury and shall set forth the nature and extent of the petitioner's right, title, or interest in the property, the time and circumstances of the petitioner's acquisition of the right, title, or interest in the property, any additional facts supporting the petitioner's claim, and the relief sought. The hearing on the petition shall, to the extent practicable and consistent with the interests of justice, be held as soon as possible after completion of the criminal proceedings, if any, under this Article. The court may consolidate the hearing on the petition with a hearing on any other petition filed by a person other than the defendant under this Article. Following the court's disposition of all petitions filed under this Article, or if no petitions are filed then within 90 days of the completion of criminal or civil proceedings under this Article, the State shall have clear title to property that is the subject of the order of forfeiture and may warrant good title to any subsequent purchaser or transferee. In addition to testimony and evidence presented at the hearing, the court shall consider the relevant portions of the record of any criminal case that resulted in, or relates to, the order of forfeiture. After the hearing, the court shall amend the order of forfeiture if the court determines that the petitioner has established by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(1) the petitioner has a legal right, title, or interest in the property, and the right, title, or interest renders the order of forfeiture invalid in whole or in part because the right, title, or interest was vested in the petitioner rather than the defendant or was superior to any right, title, or interest of the defendant at the time of the commission of the acts that gave rise to the forfeiture of the property under this Article; or

(2) the petitioner is a bona fide purchaser for value of the right, title, or interest in the property and was at the time of purchase reasonably without cause to believe that the property was subject to forfeiture under this Article.

(e) Upon application of a prosecutor, the court may enter a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action to preserve the availability of property described in this Section for forfeiture under this Article:

(1) upon the filing of an indictment or information charging a violation of this Article and alleging that the property with respect to which the order is sought would, in the event of conviction, be subject to forfeiture under this Article; or

(2) prior to the filing of an indictment or information, if, after notice to persons appearing to have an interest in the property and opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that:

(A) there is a substantial probability that the State's Attorney will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and that failure to enter the order will result in the property being destroyed, removed from the jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made unavailable for forfeiture; and

(B) the need to preserve the availability of the property through the entry of the requested order outweighs the hardship on any party against whom the order is to be entered; provided that any order entered shall be effective for not more than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good cause shown or unless an indictment or information described in this Section has been filed.

A temporary restraining order under this Article may be entered upon application of the State's Attorney without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an information or indictment has not yet been filed with respect to the property, if the State's Attorney demonstrates that there is probable cause to believe that the property with respect to which the order is sought would, in the event of conviction, be subject to forfeiture under this Article and that provision of notice will jeopardize the integrity of an investigation, the safety of any persons, or the availability of the property for forfeiture. A temporary order shall expire not more than 10 days after the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing requested concerning an order entered under this Article shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to the expiration of the temporary order. The court may receive and consider, at a hearing held under this Article, evidence and information that would be otherwise inadmissible under the rules of evidence, and a hearing shall be held by the court without a jury.

(f) Upon conviction of a person under this Article or upon the completion of appropriate civil proceedings under this Article, the court shall enter a judgment of forfeiture of the property to the State and shall authorize the State's Attorney or his or her agent to seize all property ordered forfeited upon the terms and conditions as the court shall deem proper. Following the entry of an order declaring the property forfeited, the court may, upon application of the State's Attorney, enter the appropriate restraining orders or injunctions, require the execution of satisfactory performance bonds, appoint receivers, conservators, appraisers, accountants, or trustees, or take any other action to protect the interest of the State in the property ordered forfeited. Any income accruing to, or derived from, an enterprise or an interest in an enterprise that has been ordered forfeited under this Article may be used to offset ordinary and necessary expenses to the enterprise which are required by law, or which are necessary to protect the interests of the State or third parties.

(g) Following the seizure of property ordered forfeited under this Article, the State's Attorney or his or her agent shall direct the disposition of the property by sale or any other commercially feasible means, making due provision for the rights of any innocent persons. Any property right or interest not exercisable by, or transferable for value to, the State shall expire and shall not revert to the defendant, nor shall the defendant or any person acting in concert with or on behalf of the defendant be eligible to purchase forfeited property at any sale held by the State's Attorney or his or her agent. Upon application of a person, other than the defendant or a person acting in concert with or on behalf of the defendant, the court may restrain or stay the sale or disposition of the property pending the conclusion of any appeal of the criminal case giving rise to the forfeiture, if the applicant demonstrates that proceeding with the sale or disposition of the property will result in irreparable injury, harm, or loss to him or her. At the direction of the court, the proceeds of any sale or other disposition of property forfeited under this Article and any moneys forfeited shall be used to pay all proper expenses consisting of the costs of the investigation, the prosecution, and any related remedial proceedings under this Article, and for the forfeiture and sale, including any expenses of seizure, maintenance, or custody of the property pending its disposition, advertising and court costs. The State's Attorney shall deposit in the treasury of the State 50% of any amounts of the proceeds or moneys remaining after the payment of the proper expenses, which money or proceeds shall thereafter be disposed of as prescribed by law, and the State's Attorney shall deposit 25% of the proceeds or moneys into the Drug Treatment Fund, to be expended as provided in Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and the State's Attorney shall retain directly the final 25% of the proceeds or moneys for the general purposes of fulfilling the duties of his or her office, or for equitable sharing, as directed by the State's Attorney, among those law enforcement agencies participating in the investigation, the prosecution, and any related remedial proceedings under this Article.

(h) With respect to property ordered forfeited under this Article, the court is authorized to:

(1) grant petitions for mitigation or remission of forfeiture, restore forfeited property to victims of a violation of this Article, or take any other action to protect the rights of innocent persons that is in the interest of justice and that is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Article;

(2) compromise claims arising under this Article;

(3) award compensation to persons providing information resulting in a forfeiture under this Article;

(4) direct the disposition by public sale by the State's Attorney or his or her agent of all property ordered forfeited under this Article or direct any other commercially feasible means, making due provision for the rights of innocent persons; and

(5) take appropriate measures necessary to safeguard and maintain property ordered forfeited under this Article pending its disposition.

(i) Except as provided in this Section, no party claiming an interest in property subject to forfeiture under this Article may:

(1) intervene in any trial or appeal of a criminal case involving the forfeiture of the property under this Article; or

(2) commence an action at law or equity against the State, or against any State's Attorney or law enforcement agency, concerning the actions taken under this Article or concerning the validity of an alleged interest in the property subsequent to the filing of an indictment or information alleging that the property is subject to forfeiture under this Article.

(j) In order to facilitate the identification or location of property declared forfeited and to facilitate the disposition of petitions for remission or mitigation of forfeiture, and the entry of an order declaring property forfeited to the State, the court may, upon application of the State's Attorney, order that the testimony of any witness relating to the property forfeited be taken by deposition and that any designated book, paper, document, record, recording, or other material not privileged be produced at the same time and place, in the same manner as provided for the taking of depositions in civil proceedings under the laws of this State.

(b) Any violation of this Article is subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in subsections (f) through (s) of Section 29B-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-9)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-9. Repeal. This Article is repealed on June 11, 2022 5 years after it becomes law.

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

Section 95. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/10) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 710)

Sec. 10. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for, any offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis, or controlled substances as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of violating Sections 4(a), 4(b), 4(c), 5(a), 5(b), 5(c) or 8 of this Act, the court may, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, sentence him to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(7-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge such person and dismiss the proceedings against him.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime (including the additional penalty imposed for subsequent offenses under Section 4(c), 4(d), 5(c) or 5(d) of this Act).

(h) Discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 may occur only once with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as a factor in aggravation.

(j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person may be sentenced to probation under this Section, the court shall refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully completing a sentence of probation under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a severe substance abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section.

(k) If a person is sentenced to probation under this Section, then the drug court program established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act shall administer the sentence and supervise the person's compliance with the terms and conditions of probation. A person sentenced to probation shall pay a monthly fee of $25 to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fee established in this subsection and must remit the fee to the drug court, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court, and shall deposit the fee into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the drug court, including the supervision of defendants sentenced to probation under this Section, as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 100. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102, 312, 314.5, 316, 317, 318, 319, 320, 406, and 410 and by adding Sections 303.06 and 317.5 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means a systematic collection of electronic health information about individual patients in a digital format that is capable of being shared across different health care settings.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.06 new)

Sec. 303.06. Pain clinic registration and licensing.

(a) In this Section, "pain clinic" means a facility in which the primary component of the practice is treatment of pain or chronic pain, and a majority of the patients at the facility are provided treatment for pain or chronic pain that includes the use of controlled substances or other drugs specified in rules by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(b) By January 1, 2016, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall adopt rules for the registration and licensing of pain clinics in this State. Department rules may include, but are not limited to, license application procedures, fees and fines related to licensing, pain clinic ownership qualifications, operational and personnel requirements, training and education prerequisites, standards of professional conduct regarding pain management practices, prescribing or dispensing restrictions, health and safety requirements, recordkeeping and patient billing procedures, procedures for initial or annual investigations or inspections, complaint procedures and the process for denial or revocation of a license, interaction and compliance with the Prescription Monitoring Program, licensing exemptions for certain types of entities, and penalties for violation of the rules.

(720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)

Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled substances.

(a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address and registry number under the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or she is required by those laws to be registered. If the prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber. A pharmacy shall maintain a policy regarding the type of identification necessary or the type of information required, if any, to receive a prescription in accordance with State and federal law. The pharmacy must post such information where prescriptions are filled.

(a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance, the physician must meet both of the following conditions:

(1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician acting in the usual course of professional practice.

(2) The individual physician must provide written instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that prescription.

(a-10) A pharmacy may only fill a 10-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance at one time and must receive authorization from the prescriber before filling any subsequent 10-day supply. However, a prescriber may authorize the pharmacy to fill up to 3 sequential 10-day supplies, up to one 30-day supply, or as provided under subsection (a-5) of this Section up to 3 sequential 30-day supplies, if the prescriber describes on the prescription form or indicates via telephone, fax, or electronic communication to the pharmacy to be entered on or attached to the prescription the medical reason for the larger supply and, if applicable, the written instructions required under paragraph (2) of subsection (a-5).

(a-15) Before issuing the first prescription in a single course of treatment for a Schedule II controlled substance, a prescriber shall conduct an assessment of the patient regarding possible addiction tendencies and predisposition for substance abuse. This shall include an assessment of whether the patient has ever suffered, or is currently suffering, from a mental health or substance abuse disorder and whether the patient has taken or is currently taking prescription drugs for treatment of any of those disorders. This requirement is fulfilled if the patient has undergone a physical examination with that prescriber within the past year. Completion of this assessment must be indicated on the prescription.

(b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the law of the United States relating to controlled substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the face of such written memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.

(c) Except for any non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act, and then:

(1) only personally by a person registered to dispense a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or her patients, or

(2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents of identification.

(3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.

(4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately preceding 96 hours.

(5) (Blank).

(6) all records of purchases and sales shall be maintained for not less than 2 years.

(7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled substance.

(8) a person qualified to dispense controlled substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one week in the previous year. These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.

(9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human body for euphoric or physical effect.

(d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of controlled substances received by him or her and a record of all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or professionally used by him or her otherwise than by prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him or her other than those controlled substances which are administered by the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a prescriber.

(e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed.

(f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall affix to the container in which such substance is sold or dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the specific medication remains in the container.

(g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such substance only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person dispensing such substance.

(h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or dispensing of controlled substances that are under the prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and which is intended to provide that individual with controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction, habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law relating to controlled substances.

(i) A prescriber shall not pre-print preprint or cause to be pre-printed preprinted a prescription for any controlled substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or filled, a pre-printed preprinted prescription for any controlled substance.

(i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device to individually generate a printed prescription, but the prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual signature.

(j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or cause to be administered under his or her direction any anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional practice.

(k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The controlled substances are not outwardly dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause injury to a person's life or health.

(2) The inner container of a parcel containing controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.

(3) If the controlled substances consist of prescription medicines, the inner container must be labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner dispensing the prescription.

(4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.

(Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)

(720 ILCS 570/314.5)

Sec. 314.5. Medication shopping; pharmacy shopping.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance from a prescriber or dispenser while being supplied with any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance by another prescriber or dispenser, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance to the prescriber or dispenser from whom the subsequent controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance is sought.

(b) It shall be unlawful for a person knowingly or intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to obtain any controlled substance from a pharmacy while being supplied with any controlled substance by another pharmacy, without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled substance to the pharmacy from which the subsequent controlled substance is sought.

(c) A person may be in violation of Section 3.23 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act or Section 406 of this Act when medication shopping or pharmacy shopping, or both.

(d) When a person has been identified as having 3 6 or more prescribers or 3 6 or more pharmacies, or both, that do not utilize a common electronic file as specified in Section 20 of the Pharmacy Practice Act for controlled substances within the course of a continuous 30-day period, the Prescription Monitoring Program shall may issue an unsolicited report to the prescribers informing them of the potential medication shopping. A prescriber who receives the report, either personally or through an agent at his or her place of practice, shall be prohibited from issuing a controlled substance to that same person unless the prescriber signs a statement on the prescription acknowledging receipt of the report. If a pharmacy or pharmacist receives a prescription for a person he or she knows or should know to be the subject of the report, and the prescriber fails to provide the required acknowledgement, the pharmacy or pharmacist must contact the prescriber and obtain a signature on the acknowledgement before filling the prescription.

(e) (Blank). Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a requirement that any prescriber, dispenser, or pharmacist request any patient medication disclosure, report any patient activity, or prescribe or refuse to prescribe or dispense any medications.

(f) This Section shall not be construed to apply to inpatients or residents at hospitals or other institutions or to institutional pharmacies.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/316)

Sec. 316. Prescription monitoring program.

(a) The Department must provide for a prescription monitoring program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that includes the following components and requirements:

(1) The dispenser must transmit to the central repository, in a form and manner specified by the Department, the following information:

(A) The recipient's name.

(B) The recipient's address.

(C) The national drug code number of the controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The date the controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantity of the controlled substance dispensed.

(F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(G) The prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(J-1) Whether the prescriber acknowledged a report under subsection (d) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(J-2) Whether the prescriber authorized the filling of a larger supply of Schedule II controlled substances under subsection (a-10) of Section 312 of this Act.

(J-3) Whether the prescriber completed an assessment as required under subsection (a-15) of Section 312 of this Act.

(K) Any additional information that may be required by the department by administrative rule, including but not limited to information required for compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or its successor.

(2) The information required to be transmitted under this Section must be transmitted not more than one day 7 days after the date on which a controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time as may be required by the Department by administrative rule.

(3) A dispenser must transmit the information required under this Section by:

(A) an electronic device compatible with the receiving device of the central repository;

(B) a computer diskette;

(C) a magnetic tape; or

(D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy Inventory Control form;

(4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the number of days from the time the report was required to be made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(b) The Department, by rule, may include in the monitoring program certain other select drugs that are not included in Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The prescription monitoring program does not apply to controlled substance prescriptions as exempted under Section 313.

(c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently as established by administrative rule.

(d) Within one year of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Department shall adopt rules requiring all Electronic Health Records Systems to interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program application program on or before January 1, 2019 to ensure that all providers have access to specific patient records during the treatment of their patients. These rules shall also address the electronic integration of pharmacy records with the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster transmission of the information required under this Section. The Department shall establish actions to be taken if a prescriber's Electronic Health Records System does not effectively interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program within the required timeline.

(e) The Department, in consultation with the Advisory Committee, shall adopt rules allowing licensed prescribers or pharmacists who have registered to access the Prescription Monitoring Program to authorize a designee to consult the Prescription Monitoring Program on their behalf. The rules shall include reasonable parameters concerning a practitioner's authority to authorize a designee, and the eligibility of a person to be selected as a designee.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/317)

Sec. 317. Central repository for collection of information.

(a) The Department must designate a central repository for the collection of information transmitted under Section 316 and former Section 321.

(b) The central repository must do the following:

(1) Create a database for information required to be transmitted under Section 316 in the form required under rules adopted by the Department, including search capability for the following:

(A) A recipient's name.

(B) A recipient's address.

(C) The national drug code number of a controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The dates a controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantities of a controlled substance dispensed.

(F) A dispenser's Administration registration number.

(G) A prescriber's Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for controlled substance prescriptions other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(K) Whether the prescriber acknowledged a report under subsection (d) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(L) Whether the prescriber authorized the filling of a larger supply of Schedule II controlled substances under subsection (a-10) of Section 312 of this Act.

(M) Whether the physician completed an assessment as required under subsection (a-15) of Section 312 of this Act.

(1.5) Create a searchable list of reports issued under subsection (d) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(2) Provide the Department with a database maintained by the central repository. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation must provide the Department with electronic access to the license information of a prescriber or dispenser.

(3) Secure the information collected by the central repository and the database maintained by the central repository against access by unauthorized persons.

No fee shall be charged for access by a prescriber or dispenser.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/317.5 new)

Sec. 317.5. Prescriber oversight. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, in consultation with the Department and the Advisory Committee, shall adopt rules on or before January 1, 2016 regarding the oversight of prescriber practices as reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The rules shall include a monitoring plan that details how information transmitted to the central repository shall be reviewed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. This review shall include examination of prescribers who prescribe controlled substances upon acknowledging receipt of a report sent under subsection (d) of Section 314.5 of this Act. The rules shall include appropriate actions to be taken should the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation identify a prescriber who is prescribing or dispensing large quantities of controlled substances outside the scope of his or her practice, pharmacy, or business. The actions may include additional mandatory professional education or suspension or forfeiture of a controlled substance license.

(720 ILCS 570/318)

Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.

(a) Information received by the central repository under Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential.

(b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the confidentiality of the information described in subsection (a). The Department may disclose the information to another person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the information.

(c) The Department may disclose confidential information described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in receiving, processing, or storing the information.

(d) The Department may release confidential information described in subsection (a) to the following persons:

(1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the following activities involving controlled substances:

(A) an investigation;

(B) an adjudication; or

(C) a prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(3) A law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or the office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or municipal police department of Illinois to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; or

(B) approved by the Department to receive information of the type requested for the purpose of investigations involving controlled substances; and

(C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(e) Before the Department releases confidential information under subsection (d), the applicant must demonstrate in writing to the Department that:

(1) the applicant has reason to believe that a violation under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance has occurred; and

(2) the requested information is reasonably related to the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the violation described in subdivision (1).

(f) The Department may receive and release prescription record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:

(1) a governing body that licenses practitioners;

(2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection Division of the office of the Attorney General, a prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the Attorney General;

(3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:

(A) authorized to receive the type of information released; and

(B) approved by the Department to receive the type of information released; or

(4) prescription monitoring entities in other states per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) below; confidential prescription record information collected under Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.

(g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and until that employee has certified that further investigation is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).

(h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as evidence in the following:

(1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that involves a controlled substance.

(2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile court that involves a controlled substance.

(i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the information described in subsection (a). The reports must not include information that identifies, by name, license or address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person administering a controlled substance.

(j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to assist the health care community in its goal of effective clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or abusing medications. As a condition of obtaining or renewing a license to prescribe controlled substances under this Act, a prescriber must apply to access the inquiry system as provided in Departmental rules.

(1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a stand-alone database which shall contain records for the previous 12 months.

(2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the federal HIPAA law.

(3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical assistance shall also be provided.

(4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement Administration license number and submitted upon the requestor's business stationery.

(5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or patient may be used for clinical studies.

(6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used per administrative rule.

(7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use of this inquiry system.

(8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall be held harmless from any civil liability.

(k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL).

(l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of establishing a patient specific identifier.

(m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their personal prescription history pursuant to the validation process as set forth by administrative rule.

(n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to develop operational push reports to entities with compatible electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within administrative rule established by the Department.

(o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/319)

Sec. 319. Rules. The Department must adopt rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement Sections 316 through 321, including the following:

(1) Information collection and retrieval procedures for the central repository, including the controlled substances to be included in the program required under Section 316 and Section 321 (now repealed).

(2) Design for the creation of the database required under Section 317.

(3) Requirements for the development and installation of on-line electronic access by the Department to information collected by the central repository.

(4) Requirements for the interface of Electronic Health Records Systems with the Prescription Monitoring Program as required under Section 316.

(5) Authorization of a designee under Section 316.

(6) Required qualifications for appointment to the Advisory Committee.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/320)

Sec. 320. Advisory committee.

(a) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services must appoint an advisory committee to assist the Department in implementing the controlled substance prescription monitoring program created by Section 316 and former Section 321 of this Act. The Advisory Committee consists of prescribers and dispensers, who must be qualified professionals as defined by the Department through rule.

(b) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services or his or her designee must determine the number of members to serve on the advisory committee. The Secretary must choose one of the members of the advisory committee to serve as chair of the committee.

(c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers as it deems appropriate.

(d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.

(e) The advisory committee shall:

(1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly.

(2) review current drug schedules in order to manage changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/406) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1406)

Sec. 406. (a) It is unlawful for any person:

(1) who is subject to Article III knowingly to distribute or dispense a controlled substance in violation of Sections 308 through 314.5 of this Act; or

(2) who is a registrant, to manufacture a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration, or to distribute or dispense a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration to another registrant or other authorized person; or

(3) to refuse or fail to make, keep or furnish any record, notification, order form, statement, invoice or information required under this Act; or

(4) to refuse an entry into any premises for any inspection authorized by this Act; or

(5) knowingly to keep or maintain any store, shop, warehouse, dwelling, building, vehicle, boat, aircraft, or other structure or place, which is resorted to by a person unlawfully possessing controlled substances, or which is used for possessing, manufacturing, dispensing or distributing controlled substances in violation of this Act.

Any person who violates this subsection (a) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense. The fine for each subsequent offense shall not be more than $100,000. In addition, any practitioner who is found guilty of violating this subsection (a) is subject to suspension and revocation of his or her professional license, in accordance with such procedures as are provided by law for the taking of disciplinary action with regard to the license of said practitioner's profession.

(b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly:

(1) to distribute, as a registrant, a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II, except pursuant to an order form as required by Section 307 of this Act; or

(2) to use, in the course of the manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance, a registration number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended, or issued to another person; or

(3) to acquire or obtain, or attempt to acquire or obtain, possession of a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception or subterfuge; or

(3.1) to withhold information requested from a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent, from whom the person seeks to obtain a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance that the person making the request has received a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance of like therapeutic use from another practitioner within the previous 30 days; or

(3.2) with the intent to obtain a controlled substance or combination of controlled substances that are not medically necessary for the person or an amount of a controlled substance or substances that is not medically necessary for the person, obtain or attempt to obtain from a practitioner a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, subterfuge, or concealment of a material fact. For purposes of this paragraph (3.2), a material fact includes whether the person has an existing prescription for a controlled substance issued for the same period of time by another practitioner or as described in paragraph (3.1) of this subsection (b); or

(4) to furnish false or fraudulent material information in, or omit any material information from, any application, report or other document required to be kept or filed under this Act, or any record required to be kept by this Act; or

(5) to make, distribute or possess any punch, die, plate, stone or other thing designed to print, imprint or reproduce the trademark, trade name or other identifying mark, imprint or device of another, or any likeness of any of the foregoing, upon any controlled substance or container or labeling thereof so as to render the drug a counterfeit substance; or

(6) (blank); or

(7) (blank).

Any person who violates this subsection (b) is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense and a Class 3 felony for each subsequent offense. The fine for the first offense shall be not more than $100,000. The fine for each subsequent offense shall not be more than $200,000.

(b-5) A health care practitioner may not, with the intent to provide a controlled substance or combination of controlled substances that are not medically necessary to his or her patient or an amount of controlled substances that is not medically necessary for his or her patient, provide a controlled substance or a prescription for a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, subterfuge, or concealment of a material fact. For purposes of this subsection (b-5), a material fact includes whether the patient has an existing prescription for a controlled substance issued for the same period of time by another practitioner or as described in paragraph (3.1) of subsection (b).

Any person or practitioner who violates the provisions of this subsection (b-5) is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense and a Class 3 felony for each subsequent offense. The fine for the first offense shall be not more than $100,000. The fine for each subsequent offense shall not be more than $200,000.

(c) A person who knowingly or intentionally violates Section 316, 317, 318, or 319 is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410)

Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for any offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of a controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of Section 402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, may sentence him or her to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him or her.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person may be sentenced to probation under this Section, the court shall refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully completing a sentence of probation under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a severe substance abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section.

(k) If a person is sentenced to probation under this Section, then the drug court program established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act shall administer the sentence and supervise the person's compliance with the terms and conditions of probation. A person sentenced to probation shall pay a monthly fee of $25 to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fee established in this subsection and must remit the fee to the drug court, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court, and shall deposit the fee into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the drug court, including the supervision of defendants sentenced to probation under this Section, as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 105. The Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(720 ILCS 646/70)

Sec. 70. Probation.

(a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for any offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or any law of the United States or of any state relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of less than 15 grams of methamphetamine under paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 60 of this Act, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of the person, may sentence him or her to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and

(4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person take one or more of the following actions:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(7) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(8) if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section are admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person may be sentenced to probation under this Section, the court shall refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully completing a sentence of probation under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a severe substance abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section.

(k) If a person is sentenced to probation under this Section, then the drug court program established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act shall administer the sentence and supervise the person's compliance with the terms and conditions of probation. A person sentenced to probation shall pay a monthly fee of $25 to the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fee established in this subsection and must remit the fee to the drug court, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court, and shall deposit the fee into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the drug court, including the supervision of defendants sentenced to probation under this Section, as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 110. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 5-6-3.3 and 5-6-3.4 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.3)

Sec. 5-6-3.3. Offender Initiative Program.

(a) Statement of purpose. The General Assembly seeks to continue other successful programs that promote public safety, conserve valuable resources, and reduce recidivism by defendants who can lead productive lives by creating the Offender Initiative Program.

(a-1) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws of any other state, or the laws of the United States, is arrested for and charged with a probationable felony offense of theft, retail theft, forgery, possession of a stolen motor vehicle, burglary, possession of burglary tools, possession of cannabis, possession of a controlled substance, or possession of methamphetamine, the court, with the consent of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may continue this matter to allow a defendant to participate and complete the Offender Initiative Program.

(a-2) Exemptions. A defendant shall not be eligible for this Program if the offense he or she has been arrested for and charged with is a violent offense. For purposes of this Program, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily harm was inflicted or where force was used against any person or threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall not be eligible for this Program if he or she has previously been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a violent offense as defined in this subsection.

(b) When a defendant is placed in the Program, after both the defendant and State's Attorney waive preliminary hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the court shall enter an order specifying that the proceedings shall be suspended while the defendant is participating in a Program of not less 12 months.

(c) The conditions of the Program shall be that the defendant:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or any other jurisdiction;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) make full restitution to the victim or property owner pursuant to Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(4) obtain employment or perform not less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the county and is funded and approved by the county board; and

(5) attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the defendant:

(1) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(2) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time, manner, and frequency as ordered by the court;

(4) pay fines, fees and costs; and

(5) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) When the State's Attorney makes a factually specific offer of proof that the defendant has failed to successfully complete the Program or has violated any of the conditions of the Program, the court shall enter an order that the defendant has not successfully completed the Program and continue the case for arraignment pursuant to Section 113-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for further proceedings as if the defendant had not participated in the Program.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of the Program, the State's Attorney shall dismiss the case or the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(g) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section with respect to any person.

(h) Notwithstanding subsection (a-1), if the court finds that the defendant suffers from a serious substance abuse problem, then before the person may participate in the Program under this Section, the court shall refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully fulfilling the terms and conditions of the Program under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a severe substance abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully fulfill the terms and conditions of the Program, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall be ineligible to participate in the Program under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.4)

Sec. 5-6-3.4. Second Chance Probation.

(a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws of any other state, or the laws of the United States, including probation under Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012, Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients (TASC) under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or prior successful completion of the Offender Initiative Program under Section 5-6-3.3 of this Code, and pleads guilty to, or is found guilty of, a probationable felony offense of possession of a controlled substance that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; possession of methamphetamine that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; theft that is punishable as a Class 3 felony based on the value of the property or punishable as a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property; retail theft that is punishable as a Class 3 felony based on the value of the property; criminal damage to property that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; criminal damage to government supported property that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; or possession of cannabis which is punishable as a Class 4 felony, the court, with the consent of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may, without entering a judgment, sentence the defendant to probation under this Section.

(a-1) Exemptions. A defendant is not eligible for this probation if the offense he or she pleads guilty to, or is found guilty of, is a violent offense, or he or she has previously been convicted of a violent offense. For purposes of this probation, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily harm was inflicted or where force was used against any person or threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall not be eligible for this probation if he or she has previously been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a violent offense as defined in this subsection.

(b) When a defendant is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of not less than 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the defendant:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or any other jurisdiction;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) make full restitution to the victim or property owner under Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(4) obtain or attempt to obtain employment;

(5) pay fines and costs;

(6) attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program;

(7) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the defendant; and

(8) perform a minimum of 30 hours of community service.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the defendant:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(4) support his or her dependents; or

(5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided by law.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal; however, a discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Code or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients (TASC) under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, the Offender Initiative Program under Section 5-6-3.3 of this Code, and subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of any offense which occurred within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), if the court finds that the defendant suffers from a serious substance abuse problem, then before the person may be placed on probation under this Section, the court shall refer the person to the drug court established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully fulfilling the terms and conditions of probation under this Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers from a severe substance abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully fulfill the terms and conditions of probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the person shall be ineligible to be placed on probation under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 115. The Drug Court Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 20 and by adding Sections 45 and 50 as follows:

(730 ILCS 166/20)

Sec. 20. Eligibility.

(a) A defendant may be admitted into a drug court program only upon the agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and with the approval of the court.

(b) A defendant shall be excluded from a drug court program if any of one of the following apply:

(1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in clause (4) of this subsection (b).

(2) The defendant denies his or her use of or addiction to drugs.

(3) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to participate in a treatment program.

(4) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of violence within the past 10 years excluding incarceration time. As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means , including but not limited to: first degree murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability, stalking, aggravated stalking, or any offense involving the discharge of a firearm.

(c) Notwithstanding subparagraph (a), the defendant may be admitted into a drug court program only upon the agreement of the prosecutor if:

(1) the defendant is charged with a Class 2 or greater felony violation of:

(A) Section 401, 401.1, 405, or 405.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(B) Section 5, 5.1, or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(C) Section 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 56, or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(2) the defendant has previously, on 3 or more occasions, either completed a drug court program, been discharged from a drug court program, or been terminated from a drug court program.

(5) The defendant has previously completed or has been discharged from a drug court program.

(Source: P.A. 92-58, eff. 1-1-02.)

(730 ILCS 166/45 new)

Sec. 45. Education seminars for drug court prosecutors. Subject to appropriation, the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall conduct mandatory education seminars on the subjects of substance abuse and addiction for all drug court prosecutors throughout the State.

(730 ILCS 166/50 new)

Sec. 50. Education seminars for public defenders. Subject to appropriation, the Office of the State Appellate Defender shall conduct mandatory education seminars on the subjects of substance abuse and addiction for all public defenders and assistant public defenders practicing in drug courts throughout the State.

Section 120. The Veterans and Servicemembers Court Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(730 ILCS 167/20)

Sec. 20. Eligibility. Veterans and Servicemembers are eligible for Veterans and Servicemembers Courts, provided the following:

(a) A defendant, who is eligible for probation based on the nature of the crime convicted of and in consideration of his or her criminal background, if any, may be admitted into a Veterans and Servicemembers Court program only upon the agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and with the approval of the Court.

(b) A defendant shall be excluded from Veterans and Servicemembers Court program if any of one of the following applies:

(1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in clause (3) of this subsection (b).

(2) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to participate in a treatment program.

(3) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of violence within the past 10 years excluding incarceration time. As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means , including but not limited to: first degree murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated kidnapping and kidnapping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability, stalking, aggravated stalking, or any offense involving the discharge of a firearm or where occurred serious bodily injury or death to any person.

(4) (Blank).

(5) The crime for which the defendant has been convicted is non-probationable.

(6) The sentence imposed on the defendant, whether the result of a plea or a finding of guilt, renders the defendant ineligible for probation.

(Source: P.A. 97-946, eff. 8-13-12; 98-152, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 125. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by adding Section 36 and by changing Section 70 as follows:

(745 ILCS 49/36 new)

Sec. 36. Pharmacists; exemptions from civil liability for the dispensing of an opioid antidote to individuals who may or may not be at risk for an opioid overdose. Any person licensed as a pharmacist in Illinois or any other state or territory of the United States who in good faith dispenses an opioid antidote as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act in compliance with the standing order of the Medical Director of the Department of Public Health or any person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, without compensation other than the cost of the drug product and administration device, shall not, as a result of her or his acts or omissions, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in dispensing the drug, be liable for civil damages.

(745 ILCS 49/70)

Sec. 70. Law enforcement officers, firemen, Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs) and First Responders; exemption from civil liability for emergency care. Any law enforcement officer or fireman as defined in Section 2 of the Line of Duty Compensation Act, any "emergency medical technician (EMT)" as defined in Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, and any "first responder" as defined in Section 3.60 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, who in good faith provides emergency care, including the administration of an opioid antidote as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, without fee or compensation to any person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, except willful and wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in providing the care, be liable to a person to whom such care is provided for civil damages.

(Source: P.A. 93-1047, eff. 10-18-04; 94-826, eff. 1-1-07.)".